Practice Questions Psych Exam 3

nruses most important intervention 1. monitor thyroid function 2. determine ECG changes 3. assess for sleep difficulties 4. observe for extrapyramidal symptoms

3. assess for sleep difficulties

a client is prescribed a tryclycic antidepressant after other medications were ineffective. what outcome would indicate that this medication is effective 1. prevented purposeless movements 2. increased in the clients ability to concentrate 3. helped prevent the re-experience of the trauma 4. facilitate the clients normal grieving process

3. helped prevent the re-experience of the trauma

A nurse assesses a client suspected of having the diagnosis of major depressive episode. Which client symptom would rule out this diagnosis? 1. The client is disheveled and malodorous. 2. The client refuses to interact with others and isolates self in room. 3. The client is unable to feel any pleasure. 4. The client has maxed-out charge cards and exhibits promiscuous behaviors.

4. The client has maxed-out charge cards and exhibits promiscuous behaviors.

In planning care for a suicidal client, which correctly written outcome should be a nurse's first priority? 1. The client will not physically harm self. 2. The client will express hope for the future by day three. 3. The client will establish a trusting relationship with the nurse. 4. The client will remain safe during hospital stay.

4. The client will remain safe during hospital stay.

Which medication would be classified as a tricyclic antidepressants 1. bupropion (wellbutrin) 2. mirtazapine (remeron) 3. citalopram (celexa) 4. notriptyline (pamelor)

4. notriptyline (pamelor)

A nurse is planning care for a 13 -year-old who is experiencing depression. Which medication is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of depression in adolescents?1. Paroxetine (Paxil) 2. Sertraline (Zoloft) 3. Citalopram (Celexa) 4. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

4 (Fluoxetine (Prozac) (Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been approved by the FDA to treat depression in children and adolescents, and escitalopram was approved in 2009 for treatment of depression in adolescents aged 12 to 17 years. All antidepressants carry an FDA warning for increased risk of suicide in children and adolescents.)

Which charting entry most accurately documents a client's mood? 1. "The client expresses an elevation in mood." 2. "The client appears euthymic and is interacting with others." 3. "The client isolates self and is tearful most of the day." 4. "The client rates mood at a 2 out of 10."

4. "The client rates mood at a 2 out of 10."

Which statement describes a major difference between a client diagnosed with majordepressive disorder and a client diagnosed with dysthymic disorder? 1. A client diagnosed with dysthymic disorder is at higher risk for suicide. 2. A client diagnosed with dysthymic disorder may experience psychotic features. 3. A client diagnosed with dysthymic disorder experiences excessive guilt. 4. A client diagnosed with dysthymic disorder has symptoms for at least 2 years.

4. A client diagnosed with dysthymic disorder has symptoms for at least 2 years.

Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate when caring for an acutely agitated client with paranoia? A. Provide neon lights and soft music. B. Maintain continual eye contact throughout the interview. C. Use therapeutic touch to increase trust and rapport. D. Provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries.

D. Provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries. Providing personal space may serve to reduce anxiety and thus reduce the client's risk for violence.

A client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder is admitted for social skills training. Which information should be taught by the nurse? A. The side effects of medications B. Deep breathing techniques to decrease stress C. How to make eye contact when communicating D. How to be a leader

C. How to make eye contact when communicating The nurse should plan to teach the client how to make eye contact when communicating. Social skills, such as making eye contact, can assist clients in communicating needs and maintaining connectedness.

A client diagnosed with brief psychotic disorder tells a nurse about voices telling him to kill the president. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client? A. Disturbed sensory perception B. Altered thought processes C. Risk for violence: directed toward others D. Risk for injury

C. Risk for violence: directed toward others The nurse should prioritize the diagnosis risk for violence: directed toward others. A client who hears voices telling him to kill someone is at risk for responding and reacting to the command hallucination. Other risk factors for violence include aggressive body language, verbal aggression, catatonic excitement, and rage reactions.

A nursing home resident has a diagnosis of dysthymic disorder. When planning care for this client, which of the following symptoms should a nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) 1. Sad mood on most days 2. Mood rating of 2 out of 10 for the past 6 months 3. Labile mood 4. Sad mood for the past 3 years after spouse's death 5. Pressured speech when communicating

1. Sad mood on most days 4. Sad mood for the past 3 years after spouse's death (Rationale: The nurse should anticipate that a client with a diagnosis of dysthymic disorder would experience a sad mood on most days for more than two years. The essential feature of dysthymia is a chronically depressed mood, which can have an early or late onset.)

What is the rationale for a nurse to perform a full physical health assessment on a client admitted with a diagnosis of major depressive episode? 1. The attention during the assessment is beneficial in decreasing social isolation. 2. Depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders. 3. Physical health complications are likely to arise from antidepressant therapy. 4. Depressed clients avoid addressing physical health and ignore medical problems.

2. Depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders.

An individual experiences sadness and melancholia in September continuing through November. Which of the following factors should a nurse identify as most likely to contribute to the etiology of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.) 1. Gender differences in social opportunities that occur with age 2. Drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes 3. A seasonal increase in social interactions 4. Variations in serotonergic functioning 5. Inaccessibility of resources for dealing with life stressors

2. Drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes 3. A seasonal increase in social interactions 4. Variations in serotonergic functioning

The severity of depressive symptoms in the postpartum period varies from a feeling of the "blues," to moderate depression, to psychotic depression or melancholia. Which disorder is correctly matched with its presenting symptoms? 1. Maternity blues (lack of concentration, agitation, guilt, and an abnormal attitude toward bodily functions) 2. Postpartum depression (irritability, loss of libido, sleep disturbances, expresses concern about inability to care for baby) 3. Postpartum melancholia (overprotection of infant, expresses concern about inability to care for baby, mysophobia) 4. Postpartum depressive psychosis (transient depressed mood, agitation, abnormal fear of child abduction, suicidal ideations)

2. Postpartum depression (irritability, loss of libido, sleep disturbances, expresses concern about inability to care for baby)

A client with a history of suicide attempts has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for one month. The client suddenly presents with a bright affect, rates mood at 9 out of 10, and is much more communicative. Which action should be the nurse's priority at this time? 1. Give the client off-unit privileges as positive reinforcement. 2. Encourage the client to share mood improvement in group. 3. Increase the level of this client's suicide precautions. 4. Request that the psychiatrist reevaluate the current medication protocol.

3. Increase the level of this client's suicide precautions.

A client, who is taking transdermal selegiline (Emsam) for depressive symptoms, states, "My physician told me there was no need to worry about dietary restrictions." Which would be the most appropriate nursing response?1. "Because your dose of Emsam is 6 mg in 24 hours, dietary restrictions are not recommended." 2. "You must have misunderstood. An MAOI like Emsam always has dietary restrictions."' 3. "Only oral MAOIs require dietary restrictions." 4. "All transdermal MAOIs do not require dietary modifications."

1. "Because your dose of Emsam is 6 mg in 24 hours, dietary restrictions are not recommended."

A client is prescribed phenelzine (Nardil). Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to a nurse that discharge teaching about this medication has been successful? (Select all that apply.) 1. "I'll have to let my surgeon know about this medication before I have my cholecystectomy." 2. "I guess I will have to give up my glass of red wine with dinner." 3. "I'll have to be very careful about reading food and medication labels." 4. "I'm going to miss my caffeinated coffee in the morning." 5. "I'll be sure not to stop this medication abruptly."

1. "I'll have to let my surgeon know about this medication before I have my cholecystectomy." 2. "I guess I will have to give up my glass of red wine with dinner." 3. "I'll have to be very careful about reading food and medication labels." 5. "I'll be sure not to stop this medication abruptly." (Rationale: The nurse should evaluate that teaching has been successful when the client states that phenelzine should not be taken in conjunction with the use of alcohol or foods high in tyramine and should not be stopped abruptly. Phenelzine is an MAOI that can have negative interaction with other medications. The client needs to tell other physicians about taking MAOIs, because of the risk of drug interactions.)

Which client is at highest risk for the diagnosis of major depressive disorder? 1. A 24-year-old married woman. 2. A 64-year-old single woman. 3. A 30-year-old single man. 4. A 70-year-old married man.

1. A 24-year-old married woman. Research indicates that depressive symptoms are highest among young, married women of low socioeconomic backgrounds. Compared with the other clients presented, this client is at highest risk for the diagnosis of major depressive disorder(MDD).

Which symptom is an example of an affective alteration exhibited by clients diagnosed with severe depression? 1. Apathy. 2. Somatic delusion. 3. Difficulty falling asleep. 4. Social isolation.

1. Apathy.

Which symptoms with the nurse expect to assess in a client experiencing serotonin syndrome 1. Confusion, restlessness, tachycardia, labile blood pressure, and diaphoresis 2. Hypomania, akathisia, cardiac arrhythmias, and panic attacks 3. Dizziness, lethargy, headache, and nausea 4. orthostatic hypotension, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision

1. Confusion, restlessness, tachycardia, labile blood pressure, and diaphoresis

Which symptom is an example of physiological alterations exhibited by clients diagnosed with moderate depression? 1. Decreased libido. 2. Difficulty concentrating. 3. Slumped posture. 4. Helplessness.

1. Decreased libido.

A client is admitted to an in-patient psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressivedisorder. Which of the following data would the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply. 1. Loss of interest in almost all activities and anhedonia. 2. A change of more than 5% of body weight in 1 month. 3. Fluctuation between increased energy and loss of energy. 4. Psychomotor retardation or agitation. 5. Insomnia or hypersomnia.

1. Loss of interest in almost all activities and anhedonia. 2. A change of more than 5% of body weight in 1 month. 4. *Psychomotor retardation or agitation. 5. Insomnia or hypersomnia.

Immediately after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), in which position should a nurse place the client? 1. On his or her side, to prevent aspiration 2. In high Fowler's position, to prevent increased intracranial pressure 3. In Trendelenburg's position, to promote blood flow to vital organs 4. In prone position, to prevent airway blockage

1. On his or her side, to prevent aspiration

A nurse discovers a client's suicide note that details the time, place, and means to commit suicide. What should be the priority nursing action, and why? 1. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) prn, because the client is angry about plan exposure. 2. Establish room restrictions, because the client's threat is an attempt to manipulate the staff. 3. Place client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because specific plans likely lead to attempts. 4. Call an emergency treatment team meeting, because the client's threat must be addressed.

3. Place client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because specific plans likely lead to attempts.

A nursing instructor is teaching about the new DSM-5 diagnostic category of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD). Which of the following information should the instructor include? (Select all that apply.) 1. Symptoms include verbal rages or physical aggression toward people or property. 2. Temper outbursts must be present in at least two settings (at home, at school, or with peers). 3. DMDD is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts. 4. The temper outbursts are manifested only behaviorally. 5. Symptoms of DMDD must be present for 18 or more months to meet diagnostic criteria.

1. Symptoms include verbal rages or physical aggression toward people or property. 2. Temper outbursts must be present in at least two settings (at home, at school, or with peers). 3. DMDD is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts. (Rationale: The APA has included a new diagnostic category in the Depressive Disorders chapter of the DSM-5. This childhood disorder is called disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. Criteria for the diagnosis include, but are not limited to, the following. Verbal rages or physical aggression toward people or property; temper outbursts must be present in at least two settings (at home, at school, or with peers). DMDD is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts. The temper outbursts are manifested both behaviorally and/or verbally. Symptoms of DMDD must be present for 12, not 18 or more months to meet diagnostic criteria.)

A nurse reviews the laboratory data of a client suspected of having the diagnosis of major depressive episode. Which lab value would potentially rule out this diagnosis? 1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 25 U/mL 2. Potassium (K+) level of 4.2 mEq/L 3. Sodium (Na+) level of 140 mEq/L 4. Calcium (Ca2+) level of 9.5 mg/dL

1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 25 U/mL (Rationale: A diagnosis of major depressive episode may be ruled out if the client's lab results reveal a TSH level of 25 U/mL. Normal levels of TSH range from 2 to 10 U/mL. High levels of TSH indicate low thyroid function. The client's high TSH value may indicate hypothyroidism, which can lead to depressive symptoms. The DSM-5 criteria for the diagnosis of major depressive episode states that this diagnosis must not be attributable to the direct physiological effects of another medical condition.)

A client diagnosed with major depressive episode hears voices commanding self-harm. Which should be the nurse's priority intervention at this time? 1. Obtaining an order for locked seclusion until client is no longer suicidal. 2. Conducting 15-minute checks to ensure safety. 3. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while continuing to monitor suicidal ideations. 4. Encouraging client to express feelings related to suicide.

3. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while continuing to monitor suicidal ideations.

After 6 months of taking imipramine (Tofranil) for depressive symptoms, a client complains that the medication doesn't seem as effective as before. Which question should the nurse ask to determine the cause of this problem? 1. "Are you consuming foods high in tyramine?" 2. "How many packs of cigarettes do you smoke daily?" 3. "Do you drink any alcohol?" 4. "Are you taking St. John's wort?"

2 "How many packs of cigarettes do you smoke daily?" (Rationale: Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant. Smoking should be avoided while receiving tricyclic therapy. Smoking increases the metabolism of tricyclics, requiring an adjustment in dosage to achieve the therapeutic effect. Alcohol potentiates the effects of antidepressants. Tyramine is only an issue when MAOI medications are prescribed. Concomitant use of St. John's wort and SSRIs, not tricyclics, increases, not decreases the effects of the drug.)

A client who has been taking fluvoxamine (Luvox) without significant improvement asks a nurse, "I heard about something called a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Can't my doctor add that to my medications?" Which is an appropriate nursing response? 1. "This combination of drugs can lead to delirium tremens." 2. "A combination of an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis." 3. "That's a good idea. There have been good results with the combination of these two drugs." 4. "The only disadvantage would be the exorbitant cost of the MAOI."

2. "A combination of an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis."

Major depressive disorder would be most difficult to detect in which of the followingclients? 1. A 5-year-old girl. 2. A 13-year-old boy. 3. A 25-year-old woman. 4. A 75-year-old man

2. A 13-year-old boy.

A nurse recently admitted a client to an inpatient unit after a suicide attempt. A health-care provider orders amitriptyline (Elavil) for the client. Which intervention, related to this medication, should be initiated to maintain this client's safety upon discharge? 1. Provide a 6-month supply of Elavil to ensure long-term compliance. 2. Provide a 1-week supply of Elavil, with refills contingent on follow-up appointments. 3. Provide pill dispenser as a memory aid. 4. Provide education regarding the avoidance of foods containing tyramine.

2. Provide a 1-week supply of Elavil, with refills contingent on follow-up appointments. The health-care provider should provide no more than a 1-week supply of amitriptyline, with refills contingent on follow-up appointments, as an appropriate intervention to maintain the client's safety. Antidepressants, which are central nervous system depressants, can be used to commit suicide. Also these medications can precipitate suicidal thoughts during the initial use period. Limiting the amount of medication and monitoring the client weekly would be appropriate interventions to address the client's risk for suicide.

A client is diagnosed with major depressive episode. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse assign to this client, to address a behavioral symptom of this disorder? 1. Altered communication R/T feelings of worthlessness AEB anhedonia 2. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room 3. Altered thought processes R/T hopelessness AEB persecutory delusions 4. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T high anxiety AEB anorexia

2. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room

Mind has been taking bupropion (wellbutrin) for more than one year. The client has been in a car accident with loss of consciousness and is brought to the ED. For which reason would the nurse question the continued use of this medication 1. the client may have a possible injury to the gastrointestinal system 2. the client is at risk for seizures from a potential closed head injury 3. the client is at increased risk of bleeding while taking bupropion 4. the client may experience sedation from bupropion, making assessment difficult

2. the client is at risk for seizures from a potential closed head injury

A client is exhibiting behavioral symptoms of depression. Which charting entry wouldappropriately document these symptoms? 1. "Rates mood as 4/10." 2. "Expresses thoughts of poor self-esteem during group." 3. "Became irritable and agitated on waking." 4. "Rates anxiety as 2/10 after receiving lorazepam (Ativan)."

3. "Became irritable and agitated on waking."

Which is the key to understanding if a child or adolescent is experiencing an underlyingdepressive disorder? 1. Irritability with authority. 2. Being uninterested in school. 3. A change in behaviors over a 2-week period 4. Feeling insecure at a social gathering.

3. A change in behaviors over a 2-week period. Change in behavior is an indicator that differentiates mood disorders from the typical stormy behaviors of adolescence. Depression can be a common manifestation of the stress and independence conflicts associated with the normal maturation process. Assessment of normal baseline behaviors would help the nurse recognize changes in behaviors that mayindicate underlying depressive disorders.

A depressed client reports to a nurse a history of divorce, job loss, family estrangement, and cocaine abuse. Which theoretical principle best explains the etiology of this client's depressive symptoms? 1. According to psychoanalytic theory, depression is a result of negative perceptions. 2. According to object-loss theory, depression is a result of overprotection. 3. According to learning theory, depression is a result of repeated failures. 4. According to cognitive theory, depression is a result of anger turned inward.

3. According to learning theory, depression is a result of repeated failures.

A nurse administers 100% oxygen to a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy treatment (ECT). What is the rationale for this procedure? 1. To prevent increased intracranial pressure resulting from anoxia. 2. To prevent decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiration owing to electrical stimulation. 3. To prevent anoxia resulting from medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles. 4. To prevent blocked airway, resulting from seizure activity.

3. To prevent anoxia resulting from medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles.

A nurse admits an older client with memory loss, confused thinking, and apathy. A psychiatrist suspects a depressive disorder. What is the rationale for performing a mini-mental status exam? 1. To rule out bipolar disorder 2. To rule out schizophrenia 3. To rule out neurocognitive disorder 4. To rule out personality disorder

3. To rule out neurocognitive disorder A mini-mental status exam should be performed to rule out neurocognitive disorder. The client may be experiencing reversible dementia, which can occur as a result of depression.

An older client has recently been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client's spouse is taking paroxetine (Paxil). A nurse assesses that the client is experiencing restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and tremors. Which complication should a nurse suspect, and why? 1. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; caused by ingestion of two different seratonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) 2. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; caused by ingestion of an SSRI and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) 3. Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of an SSRI and an MAOI 4. Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs

4. Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs (Rationale: The nurse should suspect that the client is suffering from serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingesting two different SSRI's (sertraline and paroxetine). Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, abdominal pain, myoclonus, muscle rigidity, fever, sweating, and tremor.)

Which statement should indicate to a nurse that an individual is experiencing a delusion? A. "There's an alien growing in my liver." B. "I see my dead husband everywhere I go." C. "The IRS may audit my taxes." D. "I'm not going to eat my food. It smells like brimstone."

A. "There's an alien growing in my liver." The nurse should recognize that a client who claims that an alien is inside his or her body is experiencing a delusion. Delusions are false personal beliefs that are inconsistent with the person's intelligence or cultural background.

*A 16-year-old client diagnosed with schizophrenia experiences command hallucinations to harm others. The client's parents ask a nurse, "Where do the voices come from?" Which is the appropriate nursing reply?* A. "Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain, which leads to altered thoughts." B. "Your child's hallucinations are caused by medication interactions." C. "Your child has too little serotonin in the brain, causing delusions and hallucinations." D. "Your child's abnormal hormonal changes have precipitated auditory hallucinations."

A. "Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain, which leads to altered thoughts." The nurse should explain that a chemical imbalance of the brain leads to altered thought processes. Hallucinations, or false sensory perceptions, may occur in all five senses. The client who hears voices is experiencing an auditory hallucination.

Which of the following components should a nurse recognize as an integral part of a rehabilitative program when planning care for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia? Select all that apply. A. Group therapy B. Medication management C. Deterrent therapy D. Supportive family therapy E. Social skills training

A. Group therapy B. Medication management D. Supportive family therapy E. Social skills training The nurse should recognize that group therapy, medication management, supportive family therapy, and social skills training all play an integral part in rehabilitative programs for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia. Schizophrenia results from various combinations of genetic predispositions, biochemical dysfunctions, physiological factors, and psychological stress. Effective treatment requires a comprehensive, multidisciplinary effort.

A client who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit and is taking Thorazine presents to the nurse with severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature of 105F (40.5C). The nurse identifies these symptoms as which of the following conditions? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Acute dystonia D. Agranulocytosis

A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially fatal condition characterized by muscle rigidity, fever, altered consciousness, and autonomic instability.

A nurse is administering risperidone (Risperdal) to a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The therapeutic effect of this medication would most effectively address which of the following symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Somatic delusions B. Social isolation C. Gustatory hallucinations D. Flat affect E. Clang associations

A. Somatic delusions C. Gustatory hallucinations E. Clang associations The nurse should expect that risperidone (Risperdal) would be effective treatment for somatic delusions, gustatory hallucinations, and clang associations. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that has been effective in the treatment of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and in maintenance therapy to prevent exacerbation of schizophrenic symptoms.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which client symptoms related to the side effects of this medication should prompt a nurse to intervene immediately? A. Sore throat, fever, and malaise B. Akathisia and hypersalivation C. Akinesia and insomnia D. Dry mouth and urinary retention

A. Sore throat, fever, and malaise The nurse should intervene immediately if the client experiences a sore throat, fever, and malaise when taking the atypical antipsychotic drug clozapine (Clozaril). Clozapine can have a serious side effect of agranulocytosis, in which a potentially fatal drop in white blood cells can occur. Symptoms of infectious processes would alert the nurse to this potential.

If clozapine (Clozaril) therapy is being considered, the nurse should evaluate which laboratory test to establish a baseline for comparison in order to recognize a potentially life-threatening side effect? A. White blood cell count B. Liver function studies C. Creatinine clearance D. Blood urea nitrogen

A. White blood cell count The nurse should establish a baseline white blood cell count to evaluate a potentially life-threatening side effect if clozapine (Clozaril) is being considered as a treatment option. Clozapine can have a serious side effect of agranulocytosis, in which a potentially fatal drop in white blood cells can occur.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurse, "The 'Shopatouliens' took my shoes out of my room last night." Which is an appropriate charting entry to describe this client's statement? A. "The client is experiencing command hallucinations." B. "The client is expressing a neologism." C. "The client is experiencing a paranoia." D. "The client is verbalizing a word salad."

B. "The client is expressing a neologism." The nurse should describe the client's statement as experiencing a neologism. A neologism is when a client invents a new word that is meaningless to others but may have symbolic meaning to the client. Word salad refers to a group of words that are put together randomly.

Which nursing behavior will enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia? A. Establishing personal contact with family members. B. Being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. C. Sharing limited personal information. D. Sitting close to the client to establish rapport.

B. Being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. The nurse can enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia by being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. The nurse should also convey acceptance of the client's needs and maintain a calm attitude when dealing with agitated behavior.

During an admission assessment, a nurse asks a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, "Have you ever felt that certain objects or persons have control over your behavior?" The nurse is assessing for which type of thought disruption? A. Delusions of persecution B. Delusions of influence C. Delusions of reference D. Delusions of grandeur

B. Delusions of influence The nurse is assessing the client for delusions of influence when asking if the client has ever felt that objects or persons have control of the client's behavior. Delusions of control or influence are manifested when the client believes that his or her behavior is being influenced. An example would be if a client believes that a hearing aid receives transmissions that control personal thoughts and behaviors.

A client has been recently admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse plan to use to reduce the client's focus on delusional thinking? A. Present evidence that supports the reality of the situation B. Focus on feelings suggested by the delusion C. Address the delusion with logical explanations D. Explore reasons why the client has the delusion

B. Focus on feelings suggested by the delusion The nurse should focus on the client's feelings rather than attempt to change the client's delusional thinking by the use of evidence or logical explanations. Delusional thinking is usually fixed, and clients will continue to have the belief in spite of obvious proof that the belief is false or irrational.

A paranoid client presents with bizarre behaviors, neologisms, and thought insertion. Which nursing action should be prioritized to maintain this client's safety? A. Assess for medication noncompliance B. Note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately C. Interpret attempts at communication D. Assess triggers for bizarre, inappropriate behaviors

B. Note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately The nurse should note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately to maintain this client's safety. Early intervention may prevent an aggressive response and keep the client and others safe.

A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol), 50 mg bid; benztropine (Cogentin), 1 mg prn; and zolpidem (Ambien), 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine? A. Tactile hallucinations B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices

C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity The symptom of tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices would be addressed by an antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia, a potentially irreversible condition, would warrant the discontinuation of an antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol. An anticholinergic medication such as benztropine would be used to treat the extrapyramidal symptoms of restlessness and muscle rigidity.

*A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a flat affect, paranoia, anhedonia, anergia, neologisms, and echolalia. Which statement correctly differentiates the client's positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?* A. Paranoia, anhedonia, and anergia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. B. Paranoia, neologisms, and echolalia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. C. Paranoia, anergia, and echolalia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia. D. Paranoia, flat affect, and anhedonia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

B. Paranoia, neologisms, and echolalia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. The nurse should recognize that positive symptoms of schizophrenia include paranoid delusions, neologisms, and echolalia. The negative symptoms of schizophrenia include flat affect, anhedonia, and anergia. Positive symptoms reflect an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms reflect a decrease or loss of normal functions.

A college student has quit attending classes, isolates self because of hearing voices, and yells accusations at fellow students. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A. Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations C. Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes D. Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood

B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations The nursing diagnosis that must be prioritized in this situation is risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations. Hearing voices and yelling accusations indicate a potential for violence, and this potential safety issue should be prioritized.

Parents ask a nurse how they should reply when their child, diagnosed with schizophrenia, tells them that voices command him to harm others. Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. "Tell him to stop discussing the voices." B. "Ignore what he is saying, while attempting to discover the underlying cause." C. "Focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality." D. "Present objective evidence that the voices are not real."

C. "Focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality." The most appropriate response by the nurse is to instruct the parents to focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality. The parents should maintain an attitude of acceptance to encourage communication but should not reinforce the hallucinations by exploring details of content. It is inappropriate to present logical arguments to persuade the client to accept the hallucinations as not real.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, "Can't you hear him? It's the devil. He's telling me I'm going to hell." Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. "Did you take your medicine this morning?" B. "You are not going to hell. You are a good person." C. "I'm sure the voices sound scary. I don't hear any voices speaking." D. "The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence."

C. "I'm sure the voices sound scary. I don't hear any voices speaking." The most appropriate reply by the nurse is to reassure the client with an accepting attitude while not reinforcing the hallucination.

An elderly client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic and a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension. Understanding the combined side effects of these drugs, the nurse would most appropriately make which statement? A. "Make sure you concentrate on taking slow, deep, cleansing breaths." B. "Watch your diet and try to engage in some regular physical activity." C. "Rise slowly when you change position from lying to sitting or sitting to standing." D. "Wear sunscreen and try to avoid midday sun exposure."

C. "Rise slowly when you change position from lying to sitting or sitting to standing." The most appropriate statement by the nurse is to instruct the client to rise slowly when changing positions. Antipsychotic medications and beta blockers cause a decrease in blood pressure. When given in combination, this side effect places the client at risk for developing orthostatic hypotension.

client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, "My psychiatrist is out to get me. I'm sad that the voice is telling me to stop him." What symptom is the client exhibiting, and what is the nurse's legal responsibility related to this symptom? A. Magical thinking; administer an antipsychotic medication B. Persecutory delusions; orient the client to reality C. Command hallucinations; warn the psychiatrist D. Altered thought processes; call an emergency treatment team meeting

C. Command hallucinations; warn the psychiatrist The nurse should determine that the client is exhibiting command hallucinations. The nurse's legal responsibility is to warn the psychiatrist of the potential for harm. A client who is demonstrating a risk for violence could potentially become physically, emotionally, and/or sexually harmful to others or to self.

*A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?* A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom The nurse should expect the physician to order risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Risperidone (Risperdal) is an atypical antipsychotic used to reduce positive symptoms, including disturbances in content of thought (delusions), form of thought (neologisms), or sensory perception (hallucinations).

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic agent daily. Which assessment finding should a nurse immediately report to the client's attending psychiatrist? A. Respirations of 22 beats/minute B. Weight gain of 8 pounds in 2 months C. Temperature of 104F (40C) D. Excessive salivation

C. Temperature of 104F (40C) When assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who takes an antipsychotic agent daily, the nurse should immediately address a temperature of 104F (40C). A temperature this high can be a symptom of the rare but life-threatening neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

A newly admitted client has taken thioridazine (Mellaril) for 2 years, with good symptom control. Symptoms exhibited on admission included paranoia and hallucinations. The nurse should recognize which potential cause for the return of these symptoms? A. The client has developed tolerance to the antipsychotic medication. B. The client has not taken the medication with food. C. The client has not taken the medication as prescribed. D. The client has combined alcohol with the medication.

C. The client has not taken the medication as prescribed. Altered thinking can affect a client's insight into the necessity for taking antipsychotic medications consistently. When symptoms are no longer bothersome, clients may stop taking medications that cause disturbing side effects. Clients may miss the connection between taking the medications and an improved symptom profile.

A client states, "I hear voices that tell me that I am evil." Which outcome related to these symptoms should the nurse expect this client to accomplish by discharge? A. The client will verbalize the reason the voices make derogatory statements. B. The client will not hear auditory hallucinations. C. The client will identify events that increase anxiety and illicit hallucinations. D. The client will positively integrate the voices into the client's personality structure.

C. The client will identify events that increase anxiety and illicit hallucinations. It is unrealistic to expect the client to completely stop hearing voices. Even when compliant with antipsychotic medications, clients may still hear voices. It would be realistic to expect the client to associate stressful events with an increase in auditory hallucinations. By this recognition the client can anticipate symptoms and initiate appropriate coping skills.

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse asks the client, "Do you receive special messages from certain sources, such as the television or radio?" Which potential symptom of this disorder is the nurse assessing? A. Thought insertion B. Paranoia C. Magical thinking D. Delusions of reference

D. Delusions of reference The nurse is assessing for the potential symptom of delusions of reference. A client who believes that he or she receives messages through the radio is experiencing delusions of reference. When a client experiences these delusions, he or she interprets all events within the environment as personal references.

Laboratory results reveal elevated levels of prolactin in a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. When assessing the client, the nurse should expect to observe which symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Apathy B. Social withdrawal C. Anhedonia D. Galactorrhea E. Gynecomastia

D. Galactorrhea E. Gynecomastia Dopamine blockage, an expected action of antipsychotic medications, also results in prolactin elevation. Galactorrhea and gynecomastia are symptoms of prolactin elevation.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia, who has been taking antipsychotic medication for the last 5 months, presents in an emergency department (ED) with uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse would expect the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications B. Agranulocytosis, treated by administration of clozapine (Clozaril) C. Extrapyramidal symptoms, treated by administration of benztropine (Cogentin) D. Tardive dyskinesia, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications

D. Tardive dyskinesia, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medication The nurse should expect that an ED physician would diagnose the client with tardive dyskinesia and discontinue antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a condition of abnormal involuntary movements of the mouth, tongue, trunk, and extremities that can be an irreversible side effect of typical antipsychotic medications.

During an admission assessment, a nurse notes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia has allergies to penicillin, prochlorperazine (Compazine), and bee stings. On the basis of this assessment data, which antipsychotic medication would be contraindicated? A. Haloperidol (Haldol), because it is used only in elderly patients B. Clozapine (Clozaril), because of a cross-sensitivity to penicillin C. Risperidone (Risperdal), because it exacerbates symptoms of depression D. Thioridazine (Mellaril), because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines

D. Thioridazine (Mellaril), because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines The nurse should know that thioridazine (Mellaril) would be contraindicated because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) and thioridazine are both classified as phenothiazines.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is acutely disturbed and violent. After several doses of haloperidol (Haldol), the patient is calm. Two hours later the nurse sees the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiff position; the lower jaw is thrust forward, and the patient is drooling. Which problem is most likely? a. Acute dystonic reaction b. Tardive dyskinesia c. Waxy flexibility d. Akathisia

a. Acute dystonic reaction Acute dystonic reactions involve painful contractions of the tongue, face, neck, and back; opisthotonos and oculogyric crisis may be observed. Dystonic reactions are considered emergencies that require immediate intervention. Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary spasmodic muscular contractions that involve the tongue, fingers, toes, neck, trunk, or pelvis; it appears after prolonged treatment. Waxy flexibility is a symptom observed in catatonic schizophrenia. Akathisia is evidenced by internal and external restlessness, pacing, and fidgeting.

An acutely violent patient diagnosed with schizophrenia receives several doses of haloperidol (Haldol). Two hours later the nurse notices the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position; the lower jaw is thrust forward, and the patient is drooling. Which intervention by the nurse is indicated? a. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg IM from the PRN medication administration record. b. Reassure the patient that the symptoms will subside. Practice relaxation exercises with the patient. c. Give trihexyphenidyl (Artane) 5 mg orally at the next regularly scheduled medication administration time. d. Administer atropine sulfate 2 mg subcutaneously from the PRN medication administration record.

a. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg IM from the PRN medication administration record. Diphenhydramine, trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, and other anticholinergic medications may be used to treat dystonias. Swallowing will be difficult or impossible; therefore, oral medication is not an option. Medication should be administered immediately; therefore, the intramuscular route is best. In this case, the best option given is diphenhydramine.

A patient with delusions of persecution about being poisoned has refused all hospital meals for 3 days. Which intervention is most likely to be acceptable to the patient? a. Allow the patient to have supervised access to food vending machines b. Allow the patient to telephone a local restaurant to deliver meals c. Offer to taste each portion on the tray for the patient d. Begin tube feedings or total parenteral nutrition

a. Allow the patient to have supervised access to food vending machines The patient who is delusional about food being poisoned is likely to believe restaurant food might still be poisoned and to say that the staff member tasting the food has taken an antidote to the poison before tasting. Attempts to tube feed or give nutrition intravenously are considered aggressive and usually promote violence. Patients often perceive foods in sealed containers, packages, or natural shells as being safe.

When a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia was discharged 6 months ago, haloperidol (Haldol) was prescribed. The patient now says, "I stopped taking those pills. They made me feel like a robot." What common side effects should the nurse validate with the patient? a. Sedation and muscle stiffness b. Sweating, nausea, and diarrhea c. Mild fever, sore throat, and skin rash d. Headache, watery eyes, and runny nose

a. Sedation and muscle stiffness Typical antipsychotic drugs often produce sedation and extrapyramidal side effects such as stiffness and gait disturbance, effects the patient might describe as making him or her feel like a "robot." The side effects mentioned in the other options are usually not associated with typical antipsychotic therapy or would not have the effect described by the patient.

A nurse works with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia regarding the importance of medication management. The patient repeatedly says, "I don't like taking pills." Which treatment strategy should the nurse discuss with the health care provider? a. Use of a long-acting antipsychotic injections b. Addition of a benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam (Ativan) c. Adjunctive use of an antidepressant, such as amitriptyline (Elavil) d. Inpatient hospitalization because of the high risk for exacerbation of symptoms

a. Use of a long-acting antipsychotic injections Meds such as fluphenazine decanoate and haloperidol decanoate are long-acting forms of antipsychotic medications. They are administered by depot injection every 2 to 4 weeks, thus reducing daily opportunities for nonadherence. The incorrect options do not address the patient's dislike of taking pills.

A community mental health nurse wants to establish a relationship with a very withdrawn patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient lives at home with a supportive family. Select the nurse's best plan. a. Visit daily for 4 days, then visit every other day for 1 week; stay with the patient for 20 minutes; accept silence; state when the nurse will return. b. Arrange to spend 1 hour each day with the patient; focus on asking questions about what the patient is thinking or experiencing; avoid silences. c. Visit twice daily; sit beside the patient with a hand on the patient's arm; leave if the patient does not respond within 10 minutes. d. Visit every other day; remind the patient of the nurse's identity; encourage the patient to talk while the nurse works on reports.

a. Visit daily for 4 days, then visit every other day for 1 week; stay with the patient for 20 minutes; accept silence; state when the nurse will return. Severe constraints on the community mental health nurse's time will probably not allow more time than what is mentioned in the correct option, yet important principles can be used. A severely withdrawn patient should be met "at the patient's own level," with silence accepted. Short periods of contact are helpful to minimize both the patient's and the nurse's anxiety. Predictability in returning as stated will help build trust. An hour may be too long to sustain a home visit with a withdrawn patient, especially if the nurse persists in leveling a barrage of questions at the patient. Twice-daily visits are probably not possible, and leaving after 10 minutes would be premature. Touch may be threatening. Working on reports suggests the nurse is not interested in the patient.

What assessment findings mark the prodromal stage of schizophrenia? a. Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion b. Auditory hallucinations, ideas of reference, thought insertion, and broadcasting c. Stereotyped behavior, echopraxia, echolalia, and waxy flexibility d. Loose associations, concrete thinking, and echolalia neologisms

a. Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion are prodromal symptoms, which are the symptoms present before the development of florid symptoms. The incorrect options each list the positive symptoms of schizophrenia that are more likely to be apparent during the acute stage of the illness.

patient diagnosed with schizophrenia begins to talks about "cracklomers" in the local shopping mall. The term "cracklomers" should be documented as: a. neologism. b. concrete thinking. c. thought insertion. d. an idea of reference.

a. neologism.

he family of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is unfamiliar with the illness and the family's role in recovery. Which type of therapy should the nurse recommend? a. Psychoeducational b. Psychoanalytic c. Transactional d. Family

a. psychoeducational A psychoeducational group explores the causes of schizophrenia, the role of medications, the significance of medication compliance, and the importance of support for the ill member of the family, and also provides recommendations for living with a person with schizophrenia. Such a group can be of practical assistance to the family members. The other types of therapy do not focus on psychoeducation.

A person diagnosed with schizophrenia has had difficulty keeping a job because of arguing with co-workers and accusing them of conspiracy. Today the person shouts, "They're all plotting to destroy me." Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Everyone here is trying to help you. No one wants to harm you." b. "Feeling that people want to destroy you must be very frightening." c. "That is not true. People here are trying to help if you will let them." d. "Staff members are health care professionals who are qualified to help you."

b. "Feeling that people want to destroy you must be very frightening." Resist focusing on content; instead, focus on the feelings the patient is expressing. This strategy prevents arguing about the reality of delusional beliefs. Such arguments increase patient anxiety and the tenacity with which the patient holds to the delusion. The other options focus on content and provide opportunity for argument.

A patient's care plan includes monitoring for auditory hallucinations. Which assessment findings suggest the patient may be hallucinating?a. Aloofness, haughtiness, suspicion b. Darting eyes, tilted head, mumbling to self c. Elevated mood, hyperactivity, distractibility d. Performing rituals, avoiding open places

b. Darting eyes, tilted head, mumbling to self Clues to hallucinations include looking around the room as though to find the speaker; tilting the head to one side as though intently listening; and grimacing, mumbling, or talking aloud as though responding conversationally to someone.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has catatonia. The patient has little spontaneous movement and waxy flexibility. Which patient needs are of priority importance? a. Psychosocial b. Physiologic c. Self-actualization d. Safety and security

b. Physiologic Physiologic needs must be met to preserve life. A patient who is catatonic may need to be fed by hand or tube, toileted, and given range-of-motion exercises to preserve physiologic integrity. The assessment findings do not suggest safety concerns. Higher level needs (psychosocial and self-actualization) are of lesser concern.

Which symptoms are expected for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who has disorganization? a. Extremes of motor activity, from excitement to stupor b. Social withdrawal and ineffective communication c. Severe anxiety with ritualistic behavior d. Highly suspicious, delusional behavi

b. Social withdrawal and ineffective communication Patients with disorganization demonstrate the most regressed and socially impaired behaviors. Communication is often incoherent, with silly giggling and loose associations predominating. Highly suspicious, delusional behavior relates more to paranoia. Extremes of motor activity, from excitement to stupor, relate to catatonia. Severe anxiety and ritualistic behaviors relate to obsessive-compulsive disorder.

A patient has taken trifluoperazine (Stelazine) 30 mg/day orally for 3 years. The clinic nurse notes that the patient grimaces and constantly smacks both lips. The patient's neck and shoulders twist in a slow, snakelike motion. Which problem would the nurse suspect? a. Agranulocytosis b. Tardive dyskinesia c. Tourette syndrome d. Anticholinergic effects

b. Tardive dyskinesia Tardive dyskinesia is a neuroleptic-induced condition involving the face, trunk, and limbs. Involuntary movements such as tongue thrusting; licking; blowing; irregular movements of the arms, neck, and shoulders; rocking; hip jerks; and pelvic thrusts are observed. These symptoms are frequently not reversible, even when the drug is discontinued. The scenario does not present evidence consistent with the other disorders mentioned. Agranulocytosis is a blood disorder. Tourette syndrome is a condition in which tics are present. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, flushing, constipation, and dry eyes.

A nurse observes a patient who is diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient is standing immobile, facing the wall with one arm extended in a salute. The patient remains immobile in this position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers the arm. What is the name of this phenomenon? a. Echolalia b. Waxy flexibility c. Depersonalization d. Thought withdrawal

b. Waxy flexibility Waxy flexibility is the ability to hold distorted postures for extended periods, as though the patient were molded in wax. Echolalia is a speech pattern. Depersonalization refers to a feeling state. Thought withdrawal refers to an alteration in thinking.

2. A newly admitted patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is hypervigilant and constantly scans the environment. The patient states, "I saw two doctors talking in the hall. They were plotting to kill me." The nurse may correctly assess this behavior as: a. echolalia. b. an idea of reference. c. a delusion of infidelity. d. an auditory hallucination.

b. an idea of reference. Ideas of reference are misinterpretations of the verbalizations or actions of others that give special personal meanings to these behaviors; for example, when seeing two people talking, the individual assumes they are talking about him or her. The other terms do not correspond with the scenario.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken a conventional antipsychotic medication for a year. Hallucinations are less intrusive but the patient continues to have apathy, poverty of thought, and social isolation. The nurse expects a change to which medication? a. haloperidol (Haldol) b. olanzapine (Zyprexa) c. chlorpromazine (Thorazine) d. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

b. olanzapine (Zyprexa) Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication that targets both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are conventional antipsychotic agents that target only positive symptoms. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has catatonia. The patient is stuporous, demonstrates little spontaneous movement, and has waxy flexibility. The patient's activities of daily living are severely compromised. An appropriate outcome is that the patient will: a. demonstrate increased interest in the environment by the end of week 1. b. perform self-care activities with coaching by the end of day 3 c. gradually take the initiative for self-care by the end of week 2 d. voluntarily accept tube feeding by day 2.

b. perform self-care activities with coaching by the end of day 3 Outcomes related to self-care deficit nursing diagnoses should deal with increasing the patient's ability to perform self-care tasks independently, such as feeding, bathing, dressing, and toileting. Performing the tasks with coaching by the nursing staff denotes improvement over the complete inability to perform the tasks. The incorrect options are not directly related to self-care activities; they are difficult to measure and are unrelated to maintaining nutrition.

. A newly admitted patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "The voices are bothering me. They yell and tell me I'm bad. I have got to get away from them." Select the nurse's most helpful reply. a. "Do you hear the voices often?" b. "Do you have a plan for getting away from the voices?" c. "I will stay with you. Focus on what we are talking about, not the voices." d. "Forget the voices. Ask some other patients to sit and talk with you."

c. "I will stay with you. Focus on what we are talking about, not the voices." Staying with a distraught patient who is hearing voices serves several purposes: ongoing observation, the opportunity to provide reality orientation, a means of helping dismiss the voices, the opportunity of forestalling an action that would result in self-injury, and general support to reduce anxiety. Asking if the patient hears voices is not particularly relevant at this point. Asking if the patient plans to "get away from the voices" is relevant for assessment purposes but is less helpful than offering to stay with the patient while encouraging a focus on their discussion. Asking other patients to talk incorrectly shifts responsibility for intervention from the nurse to other patients.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "My co-workers are out to get me. I also saw two doctors plotting to overdose me." How does this patient perceive the environment? a. Disorganized b. Unpredictable c. Dangerous d. Bizarre

c. Dangerous The patient sees the world as hostile and dangerous. This assessment is important because the nurse can be more effective by using empathy to respond to the patient. Data are not present to support any of the other options.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken fluphenazine (Prolixin) 5 mg orally twice daily for 3 weeks. The nurse now assesses a shuffling, propulsive gait; a masklike face; and drooling. Which term applies to these symptoms? a. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome b. Hepatocellular effects c. Pseudoparkinsonism d. Akathisia

c. Pseudoparkinsonism Pseudoparkinsonism induced by antipsychotic medication mimics the symptoms of Parkinson disease. It frequently appears within the first month of treatment. Hepatocellular effects would produce abnormal liver test results. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by autonomic instability. Akathisia produces motor restlessness.

8. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "I eat skiller. Tend to end. Easter. It blows away. Get it?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Nothing you are saying is clear." b. "Your thoughts are very disconnected." c. "Try to organize your thoughts, and then tell me again." d. "I am having difficulty understanding what you are saying."

d. "I am having difficulty understanding what you are saying." When a patient's speech is loosely associated, confused, and disorganized, pretending to understand is useless. The nurse should tell the patient that he or she is having difficulty understanding what the patient is saying. If a theme is discernible, ask the patient to talk about the theme. The incorrect options tend to place blame for the poor communication with the patient. The correct response places the difficulty with the nurse rather than being accusatory.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has auditory hallucinations. The patient anxiously tells the nurse, "The voice is telling me to do things." Select the nurse's priority assessment question. a. "How long has the voice been directing your behavior?" b. "Do the messages from the voice frighten you?" c. "Do you recognize the voice speaking to you?" d. "What is the voice telling you to do?"

d. "What is the voice telling you to do? "Learning what a command hallucination is telling the patient to do is important; the command often places the patient or others at risk for harm. Command hallucinations can be terrifying and may pose a psychiatric emergency. The incorrect questions are of lesser importance than identifying the command.

A nurse sits with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient starts to laugh uncontrollably, although the nurse has not said anything funny. Select the nurse's best response. a. "Why are you laughing?" b. "Please share the joke with me." c. "I don't think I said anything funny." d. "You are laughing. Tell me what's happening."

d. "You are laughing. Tell me what's happening." The patient is likely laughing in response to inner stimuli such as hallucinations or fantasy. Focusing on the hallucinatory clue (i.e., the patient's laughter) and then eliciting the patient's observation is best. The incorrect options are less useful in eliciting a response; no joke may be involved, "Why" questions are difficult to answer, and the patient is probably not focusing on what the nurse has said in the first place.

Which patient diagnosed with schizophrenia would be expected to have the lowest level of overall functioning? a. 39 years old; paranoid ideation since age 35 years b. 32 years old; isolated episodes of catatonia since age 24 years; stable for 3 years c. 19 years old; diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder 6 months ago d. 40 years old; frequent relapses since age 18; often does not take medication as prescribed

d. 40 years old; frequent relapses since age 18; often does not take medication as prescribed The 40-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia since 18 years of age could logically be expected to have the lowest overall level of functioning secondary to deterioration associated with frequent relapses. The 39-year-old patient who has had paranoid ideation since 35 years of age could be expected to have a higher level because schizophrenia of short duration may be less impairing than other types. The patient who has had episodes of catatonia since the age of 24 years has been stable for more than 3 years, suggesting a higher functional ability. The 19-year-old patient diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder has been ill for only 6 months, and disability is likely to be minimal.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "High heat. Last time here. Did you get a coat?" What type of verbalization is evident? a. Neologism b. Idea of reference c. Thought broadcasting d. Associative looseness

d. Associative looseness Looseness of association refers to jumbled thoughts incoherently expressed to the listener. Neologisms are newly coined words. Ideas of reference are a type of delusion. Thought broadcasting is the belief that others can hear one's thoughts.

A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness at 10:30 AM. By noon, the patient is diaphoretic, drooling, and has difficulty swallowing. By 4:00 PM, vital signs are body temperature, 102.8° F; pulse, 110 beats per minute; respirations, 26 breaths per minute; and blood pressure, 150/90 mm Hg. Select the nurse's best analysis and action. a. Agranulocytosis. Institute reverse isolation. b. Tardive dyskinesia. Withhold the next dose of medication. c. Cholestatic jaundice. Begin a high-protein, low fat diet. d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Immediately notify the health care provider.

d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Immediately notify the health care provider Taking an antipsychotic medication coupled with the presence of extrapyramidal symptoms, such as severe muscle stiffness and difficulty swallowing, hyperpyrexia, and autonomic symptoms (pulse elevation), suggest neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a medical emergency. The symptoms given in this scenario are not consistent with the medical problems listed in the incorrect options.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "Everyone has skin lice that jump on you and contaminate your blood." Which problem is evident? a. Poverty of content b. Concrete thinking c. Neologisms d. Paranoia

d. Paranoia The patient's unrealistic fear of contamination indicates paranoia. Neologisms are invented words. Concrete thinking involves literal interpretation. Poverty of content refers to an inadequate fund of information

A health care provider considers which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who has auditory hallucinations and poor social functioning. The patient is also overweight and has hypertension. Which drug should the nurse advocate? a. clozapine (Clozaril) b. ziprasidone (Geodon) c. olanzapine (Zyprexa) d. aripiprazole (Abilify)

d. aripiprazole (Abilify) Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic medication that is effective against both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It causes little or no weight gain and no increase in glucose, high- or low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels, or triglycerides, making it a reasonable choice for a patient with obesity or heart disease. Clozapine may produce agranulocytosis, making it a poor choice as a first-line agent. Ziprasidone may prolong the QT interval, making it a poor choice for a patient with cardiac disease. Olanzapine fosters weight gain.

Patients diagnosed with schizophrenia who are suspicious and withdrawn: a. universally fear sexual involvement with therapists. b. are socially disabled by the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. c. exhibit a high degree of hostility as evidenced by rejecting behavior. d. avoid relationships because they become anxious with emotional closeness

d. avoid relationships because they become anxious with emotional closeness When an individual is suspicious and distrustful and perceives the world and the people in it as potentially dangerous, withdrawal into an inner world can be a defense against uncomfortable levels of anxiety. When someone attempts to establish a relationship with such a patient, the patient's anxiety rises until trust is established. No evidence suggests that withdrawn patients with schizophrenia universally fear sexual involvement with therapists. In most cases, it is not considered true that withdrawn patients with schizophrenia are socially disabled by the positive symptoms of schizophrenia or exhibit a high degree of hostility by demonstrating rejecting behavior.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia anxiously says, "I can see the left side of my body merging with the wall, then my face appears and disappears in the mirror." While listening, the nurse should: a. sit close to the patient. b. place an arm protectively around the patient's shoulders. c. place a hand on the patient's arm and exert light pressure. d. maintain a normal social interaction distance from the patient.

d. maintain a normal social interaction distance from the patient The patient is describing phenomena that indicate personal boundary difficulties. The nurse should maintain an appropriate social distance and not touch the patient, because the patient is anxious about the inability to maintain ego boundaries and merging with or being swallowed by the environment. Physical closeness or touch could precipitate panic.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has paranoid thinking. The patient angrily tells a nurse, "You are mean and nasty. No one trusts you or wants to be around you." Select the most likely analysis. The patient: a. is trying to manipulate the nurse by using negative comments. b. is likely to experience disorganization and catatonia in the near future. c. is jealous of the nurse's position of power in the relationship. d. may be identifying another person's shortcomings in order to preserve his or her own self-esteem.

d. may be identifying another person's shortcomings in order to preserve his or her own self-esteem Patients with paranoid ideation often use disparaging comments to preserve one's own self-esteem. There is no evidence the patient is trying to manipulate the nurse or is jealous. This behavior is not predictive of catatonia or disorganization.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been stable for a year; however, the family now reports the patient is tense, sleeps 3 to 4 hours per night, and has difficulty concentrating. The patient says, "Demons are in the basement and they can come through the floor." The nurse can correctly assess this information as an indication of: a. need for psychoeducation b. medication noncompliance c. chronic deterioration d. relapse

d. relapse Signs of potential relapse include feeling tense, difficulty concentrating, trouble sleeping, increased withdrawal, and increased bizarre or magical thinking. Medication noncompliance may not be implicated. Relapse can occur even when the patient is regularly taking his or her medication. Psychoeducation is more effective when the patient's symptoms are stable. Chronic deterioration is not the best explanation.