prep u for med surg exam 4

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For a client with salivary calculi, which procedure uses shock waves to disintegrate the stone?

Lithotripsy

A client who had a Roux-en-Y bypass procedure for morbid obesity ate a chocolate chip cookie after a meal. After ingestion of the cookie, the client reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation. After having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved. What should the nurse educate the client about regarding this event?

Dumping syndrome is an unpleasant set of vasomotor and GI symptoms that occur in up to 76% of patients who have had bariatric surgery. Early symptoms include a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. These symptoms resolve once the intestine has been evacuated (i.e., with defecation).

A nurse is providing care for a client recovering from gastric bypass surgery. During assessment, the client exhibits pallor, perspiration, palpitations, headache, and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and drowsiness. The client reports eating 90 minutes ago. What will the nurse suspect?

Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating. Signs and symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, diarrhea, nausea, and the desire to lie down. Dehiscence of the surgical wound is characterized by pain and a pulling or popping feeling at the surgical site. Peritonitis presents with a rigid, boardlike abdomen, tenderness, and fever. The client's signs and symptoms aren't a normal reaction to surgery.

Which medication is classified as a histamine-2 receptor antagonist?

Famotidine

A nursing student is caring for a client with gastritis. Which of the following would the student recognize as a common cause of gastritis? Choose all that apply.

Ingestion of strong acids Irritating foods Overuse of aspirin

The nurse working in the ED is evaluating a client for signs and symptoms of appendicitis. Which of the client's signs/symptoms should the nurse report to the physician?

Nausea, with or without vomiting, is typically associated with appendicitis. Pain is generally felt in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness, or pain felt upon the release of pressure applied to the abdomen, may be present with appendicitis. Low-grade fever is associated with appendicitis.

An older adult client in a long term care facility is concerned about bowel regularity. During a client education session, the nurse reinforces the medically acceptable definition of "regularity." What is the actual measurement of "regular"?

Normal bowel patterns range from three bowel movements per day to three bowel movements per week. In differentiating normal from abnormal, the consistency of stools and the comfort with which a person passes them are more reliable indicators than is the frequency of bowel elimination.

Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor?

Omeprazole also PPI's Lansoprazole and esomeprazole -prazole

An older adult patient who has been living at home alone is diagnosed with parotitis. What causative bacteria does the nurse suspect is the cause of the parotitis?

People who are older, acutely ill, or debilitated with decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications are at high risk for parotitis. The infecting organisms travel from the mouth through the salivary duct. The organism is usually Staphylococcus aureus (except in mumps).

A client with acute gastritis asks the nurse what might have caused the problem. What is a possible cause of acute gastritis?

Possible causes of gastritis include dietary indiscretion, overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. Allergy medicine and fruit juices are not causes of acute gastritis.

While preparing a client for an upper GI endoscopy (esophagogastroduodenscopy), the nurse should implement which interventions? Choose all that apply.

Tell the client he shouldn't eat or drink for 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Inform the client that he will receive a sedative before the procedure.

A home care nurse is caring for a client with reports of epigastric discomfort who is scheduled for a barium swallow. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the test?

The client demonstrates understanding of a barium swallow when stating he or she must refrain from eating or drinking for 6 to 8 hours before the test. No other preparation is needed. Before a lower GI series, the client should eat a low-residue or clear liquid diet for 2 days and take a potent laxative and an oral liquid preparation.

A client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:

Yellow sclerae are an early sign of jaundice, which occurs when the common bile duct is obstructed. Urine normally is light amber. Circumoral pallor and black, tarry stools don't occur in common bile duct obstruction; they are signs of hypoxia and GI bleeding, respectively.

A middle-aged obese female presents to the ED with severe radiating right-sided flank pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A likely cause of these symptoms is:

acute cholecystitis

The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. Which assessment findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin K absorption caused by this hepatic disease?

A hepatic disorder, such as cirrhosis, may disrupt the liver's normal use of vitamin K to produce prothrombin (a clotting factor). Consequently, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, including purpura and petechiae. Dyspnea and fatigue suggest anemia. Ascites and orthopnea are unrelated to vitamin K absorption. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy result from decreased estrogen metabolism by the diseased liver.

During assessment of a patient with gastritis, the nurse practitioner attempts to distinguish acute from chronic pathology. One criteria, characteristic of gastritis would be the:

Acute gastritis usually develops quickly, whereas chronic gastritis results from prolonged inflammation of the stomach.

A client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following should a nurse administer to the client before surgery?

Clients with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas typically require vitamin K before surgery to correct a prothrombin deficiency. Potassium would be given only if the client's serum potassium levels were low. Oral bile acids are not prescribed for a client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas; they are given to dissolve gallstones. Vitamin B has no implications in the surgery.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with abdominal perforation. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of this disease process?

Clinical manifestations include hypotension, increased temperature, tachycardia, and elevated ESR.

A nurse is assessing a client and obtains the following findings: abdominal discomfort, mild diarrhea, blood pressure of 100/80 mm Hg, pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, temperature 100° F (37.8° C). What diagnosis will the nurse suspect for this client?

IBD is a collective term for several GI inflammatory diseases with unknown causes. The most prominent sign of IBD is mild diarrhea, which sometimes is accompanied by fever and abdominal discomfort. Colorectal cancer is usually diagnosed after the client complains of bloody stools; the client will rarely have abdominal discomfort. A client with diverticulitis commonly states he has chronic constipation with occasional diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention.

A client recovering from gastric bypass surgery accidentally removes the nasogastric tube. What is the best action by the nurse?

If the nasogastric tube is removed accidently in a client who has undergone esophageal or gastric surgery, it is usually replaced by the health care provider. Care is taken to avoid trauma to the suture line. The nurse will not insert the tube to the esophagus or to the stomach in this situation. The nurse needs to do more than just document its removal. The nurse needs to notify the health care provider who will make a determination of leaving out or inserting a new nasogastric tube.

Which of the following presents with an onset of heel pain with the first steps of the morning?

Plantar fasciitis, an inflammation of the foot-supporting fascia, present as an acute onset of heal pain experienced with the first steps in the morning. Hallux valgus (commonly called a bunion) is a deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally. Morton's neuroma is a swelling of the third (lateral) branch of the median plantar nerve. A ganglion, a collection of gelatinous material near the tendon sheaths and joints, appears as a round, firm compressible cystic swelling, usually on the dorsum of the wrist.

A nurse practitioner, who is treating a patient with GERD, knows that responsiveness to this drug classification is validation of the disease. The drug classification is:

Proton pump inhibitors are the strongest inhibitors of acid secretions. The H2-receptor antagonists are the next most powerful.

Which liver function study is used to show the size of the liver and hepatic blood flow and obstruction?

Radioisotope liver scan

After undergoing a liver biopsy, a client should be placed in which position?

Right lateral decubitus position

When caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of a peptic ulcer, the nurse finds the client doubled up in bed with severe pain in the right shoulder. What is the intial appropriate action by the nurse?

Signs and symptoms of perforation includes sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity); pain may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm. The nurse should assess the vital signs and abdomen prior to notifying the physician. Irrigation of the NG tube should not be performed because the additional fluid may be spilled into the peritoneal cavity, and the client should be placed in a position of comfort, usually on the side with the head slightly elevated

The nurse prepares a client for a barium enema. The nurse should place the client on which diet prior to the procedure?

The nurse should place the client on clear liquids the evening before the procedure, a low-residue diet 1 to 2 days before the test, and NPO at midnight in preparation for the barium enema.

The nurse cares for a client after a gastroscopy for which the client received sedation. The nurse should report which finding to the physician?

The nurse should report difficulty swallowing to the physician as this may be a sign of perforation. Loss of gag reflex, minor throat pain, and drowsiness are expected findings after a gastroscopy for which the client received sedation and therefore there is no need to report to the physician.

The nurse caring for an older adult client diagnosed with diarrhea is administering and monitoring the client's medications. Because one of the client's medications is digitalis (digoxin), the nurse monitors the client closely for:

The older client taking digoxin must be aware of how quickly dehydration and hypokalemia can occur with diarrhea. The nurse teaches the client to recognize the symptoms of hypokalemia because low levels of potassium intensify the action of digitalis, leading to digitalis toxicity.

A client has recently been diagnosed with gastric cancer. On palpation, the nurse would note what two signs that confirm metastasis to the liver? Select all that apply.

The physical examination is usually not helpful in detecting the cancer because most early gastric tumors are not palpable. Advanced gastric cancer may be palpable as a mass. Ascites and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may be apparent if the cancer cells have metastasized to the liver. Palpable nodules around the umbilicus, called Sister Mary Joseph's nodules, are a sign of a GI malignancy, usually a gastric cancer. A distended bladder is not significant. Petechiae at the palpation site is a distractor for the question.

The nurse is admitting a client with a diagnosis of diverticulitis and assesses that the client has a boardlike abdomen, no bowel sounds, and reports of severe abdominal pain. What is the nurse's first action?

Abdominal pain, a rigid boardlike abdomen, loss of bowel sounds, and signs and symptoms of shock occur with peritonitis. Peritonitis is typically a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt surgical intervention, and typically involves postoperative critical care monitoring due to the risk of sepsis, organ failure, and subsequent infections; thus, the nurse should notify the health care provider.

An important message for any nurse to communicate is that drug-induced hepatitis is a major cause of acute liver failure. The medication that is the leading cause is:

Although any medication can affect liver function, use of acetaminophen (found in many over-the-counter medications used to treat fever and pain) has been identified as the leading cause of acute liver failure. Other medications commonly associated with liver injury include anesthetic agents, medications used to treat rheumatic and musculoskeletal disease, antidepressants, psychotropic medications, anticonvulsants, and antituberculosis agents.

The nurse is performing and documenting the findings of an abdominal assessment. When the nurse hears intestinal rumbling and the client then experiences diarrhea, the nurse documents the presence of which condition?

Borborygmus is the intestinal rumbling caused by the movement of gas through the intestines that accompanies diarrhea. Tenesmus refers to ineffectual straining at stool. Azotorrhea refers to excess of nitrogenous matter in the feces or urine. Diverticulitis refers to inflammation of a diverticulum from obstruction (by fecal matter) resulting in abscess formation.

A client is to have an upper GI procedure with barium ingestion and abdominal ultrasonography. While scheduling these diagnostic tests, the nurse must consider which factor?

Both an upper GI procedure with barium ingestion and an ultrasonography may be completed on the same day. The ultrasonography test should be completed first, because the barium solution could interfere with the transmission of the sound waves.

A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?

Both forms of the hepatitis B vaccine are administered intramuscularly in three doses; the second and third doses are given 1 and 6 months, respectively, after the first dose.

When interviewing a client with internal hemorrhoids, what would the nurse expect the client to report?

Internal hemorrhoids cause bleeding but are less likely to cause pain, unless they protrude through the anus. External hemorrhoids may cause few symptoms, or they can produce pain, itching, and soreness of the anal area.

A nurse practitioner treating a patient who is diagnosed with hepatitis A should provide health care information. Which of the following statements are correct for this disorder? Select all that apply.

There is a 70% chance that jaundice will occur. Transmission of the virus is possible with oral-anal contact during sex. Typically there is a spontaneous recovery.

Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer

There is no successful treatment for gastric carcinoma except removal of the tumor. If the tumor can be removed while it is still localized to the stomach, the patient may be cured. If the tumor has spread beyond the area that can be excised, cure is less likely.

The nurse is conducting a gastrointestinal assessment. When the client reports the presence of mucus and pus in the stool, the nurse assesses for additional signs/symptoms of which disease/condition?

Ulcerative colitis

A client has a new order for metoclorpramide (Reglan). The nurse knows that this medication should not be used long term and only in cases where all other options have been exhausted. This is because this medication has the potential for extrapyramidal side effects. Extrapyramidal side effects include which of the following?

Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs


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Chapter 26: Upper Respiratory Problems

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