PrepU Chapter 64: Management of Patients with Neurologic Infections, Autoimmune Disorders, and Neuropathies

A patient with a fractured left fibula is being taught how to use crutches. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching was effective?

"I need to allow my arms and hands to support my body weight." When using crutches, body weight is supported by the arms and hands. The top of the crutches should be approximately 2 inches below the axillae. The axillae should not support the weight of the body. Crutches should be positioned on either side of each foot, just slightly ahead of each foot. Patients should be taught two gaits so that they can change from one type to another to avoid fatigue. Additionally, a faster gait can be used when walking an uninterrupted distance, and a slower gait can be used for short distances or in crowded places.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with an onset of pain related to trigeminal neuralgia. What subjective data stated by the patient does the nurse determine triggered the paroxysms of pain?

"I was brushing my teeth." Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition of the fifth cranial nerve that is characterized by paroxysms of sudden pain in the area innervated by any of the three branches of the nerve. Paroxysms can occur with any stimulation of the terminals of the affected nerve branches, such as washing the face, shaving, brushing the teeth, eating, and drinking.

During a Tensilon test to determine if a patient has myasthenia gravis, the patient complains of cramping and becomes diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP 130/78, HR 42, and respiration 18. What intervention should the nurse prepare to do?

Administer atropine to control the side effects of edrophonium. Atropine should be available to control the side effects of edrophonium, which include bradycardia, sweating, and cramping.

A nurse is working with a patient to establish a bowel training program. Based on the nurse's understanding of bowel function, the nurse would suggest planning for bowel evacuation at which time?

After breakfast Explanation: Natural gastrocolic and duodenocolic reflexes occur about 30 minutes after a meal; therefore, after breakfast is one of the best times to plan for bowel evacuation.

A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted with an exacerbation. The nurse is educating the client about plasmapheresis and explains this in which of the following statements?

Antibodies are removed from the plasma. Plasmapheresis is a technique in which antibodies are removed from plasma and the plasma is returned to the client. The other three choices are appropriate treatments for myasthenia gravis, but are not related to plasmapheresis.

For a client who has had a stroke, which nursing intervention can help prevent contractures in the lower legs?

Attaching braces or splints to each foot and leg Attaching braces or splints to each foot and leg prevents foot drop (a lower leg contracture) by supporting the feet in proper alignment. Putting slippers on the client's feet can't prevent foot drop because slippers are too soft to support the ankle joints. Crossing the ankles every 2 hours is contraindicated because it can cause excess pressure and damage veins, promoting thrombus formation. Placing hand rolls on the balls of each foot doesn't prevent contractures because hand rolls are too soft to support and hold the feet in proper alignment.

A nurse is completing an assessment of a client who has just been transferred to the rehabilitation facility. During the health history, the nurse asks about the client's activities of daily living (ADLs). About which areas would the nurse gather information? Select all that apply.

Bathing Toileting Eating

A nurse is assisting with a neurological examination of a client who reports a headache in the occipital area and shows signs of ataxia and nystagmus. Which of the following conditions is the most likely reason for the client's problems?

Cerebellar abscess Indicators of a cerebellar abscess include occipital headache, ataxia, and nystagmus.

A client is undergoing testing to confirm a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The nurse explains that a diagnosis is made if muscle function improves after the client receives an IV injection of a medication. What is the medication the nurse tells the client he'll receive during this test?

Edrophonium (Tensilon) Explanation: The most useful and reliable diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis is the edrophonium (Tensilon) test. Within 30 to 60 seconds after injection of edrophonium, most clients with myasthenia gravis will demonstrate a marked improvement in muscle tone that lasts about 4 to 5 minutes. Cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant, is used to treat myasthenia gravis, not to diagnose it. Immunoglobulin G is used during acute relapses of the disorder. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that's sometimes used to control myasthenia gravis symptoms.

Bell palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve?

Facial (VII)

A nurse is assessing a patient's level of independent functioning. Which tool would the nurse most frequently use?

Functional Independence Measure (FIMTM) Explanation: One of the most frequently used tools to assess the patient's level of independence is the Functional Independence Measure (FIMTM), a minimum data set consisting of 18 items. The PULSES profile, Barthel Index, and Patient Evaluation Conference System also are used, but these are more generic measures.

A nurse is assessing a client for potential problems related to function and mobility. Which of the following would alert the nurse to identify a potential problem related to function or movement?

Holds onto the furniture when walking in the house Holding onto the furniture or other objects in the room when ambulating suggests difficulty with movement. Using both hands on a handrail while going down stairs, lifting one leg by using the other leg as support, or tilting the head to reach the back of the side while combing would suggest problems with function and mobility.

A client has been diagnosed with a frontal lobe brain abscess. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Initiate seizure precautions A frontal lobe brain abscess produces seizures, hemiparesis, and frontal headache; therefore, the nurse should anticipate the need for seizure precautions. Facial weakness and visual disturbances are associated with a temporal lobe abscess. The client may experience expressive aphasia related to the abscess, but that does not indicate the need to ensure the client takes in nothing by mouth.

The nurse is performing an initial nursing assessment on a client with possible Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities Explanation: Guillain-Barre syndrome typically begins with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes of the lower extremities. Fever, skin rash, cough, and ptosis are not signs/symptoms associated with Guillain-Barre.

A client with possible bacterial meningitis is admitted to the ICU. What assessment finding would the nurse expect for a client with this diagnosis?

Neck flexion produces flexion of knees and hips Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis include a positive Brudzinski sign. Neck flexion producing flexion of knees and hips correlates with a positive Brudzinski sign. Positive Homan sign (pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot) and negative Romberg sign (inability to stand with eyes closed and arms extended) are not expected assessment findings for the client with bacterial meningitis. Peripheral neuropathy manifests as numbness and tingling in the lower extremities. Again, this would not be an initial assessment to rule out bacterial meningitis.

The nurse is caring for a 35-year-old man whose severe workplace injuries necessitate bilateral below-the-knee amputations. How should the nurse anticipate that the client will respond to this news?

The client will experience grief in an individualized manner. Loss of limb is a profoundly emotional experience, which the client will experience in a subjective manner, and largely unpredictable, manner. Psychotherapy may or may not be necessary. It is not possible to accurately predict the sequence or timing of the client's grief. The client may or may not benefit from psychotherapy.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an immobilized patient who has developed a pressure ulcer. Which nutritional deficiency would the nurse identify as placing the patient at risk for delayed wound healing?

Vitamin C Vitamins A and C and the B vitamins are important for healthy skin and wound healing. Vitamins D and calcium are important for bone healing. Adequate protein intake is necessary for improving skin integrity. Vitamin E isn't necessary for wound healing.

A nurse is teaching a client with a long leg cast how to use crutches properly while descending a staircase. The nurse should tell the client to transfer body weight to the unaffected leg, and then:

advance both crutches. The nurse should instruct the client to advance both crutches to the step below, then transfer his body weight to the crutches as he brings the affected leg to the step. The client should then bring the unaffected leg down to the step.

Which is the primary medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis?

controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis; therefore symptom management is key. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is based on which test?

magnetic resonance imaging The diagnosis of MS is based on the presence of multiple plaques in the central nervous system observed on MRI. Electrophoresis of CSF identifies the presence of oligoclonal banding. Evoked potential studies can help define the extent of the disease process and monitor changes. Neuropsychological testing may be indicated to assess cognitive impairment.

The primary arthropod vector in North America that transmits encephalitis is the

mosquito Arthropod vectors transmit several types of viruses that cause encephalitis. The primary vector in North America is the mosquito.

Which is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord?

multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known, and the disease affects twice as many women as men. Parkinson disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine caused by destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dancelike movements and dementia. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the CNS characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

A nurse is performing passive range of motion to a client's upper extremities. The nurse touches the client's thumb to each fingertip on the same hand. The nurse is performing which of the following?

opposition Opposition involves touching the thumb to each fingertip on the same hand. Adduction would involve moving the arm away from the midline of the body. Pronation involves rotating the forearm so that the palm of the hand is down. Dorsiflexion involves movement that flexes or bends the hand back toward the body.

The nurse is providing care for a client who has limited mobility after a stroke. In order to assess the client for contractures, the nurse should assess the client's:

range of motion. Each joint of the body has a normal range of motion. To assess a client for contractures, the nurse should assess whether the client can complete the full range of motion. Assessing DTRs, muscle size, or joint pain does not reveal the presence or absence of contractures.

Vagus nerve demyelinization, which may occur in Guillain-Barré syndrome, would not be manifested by which of the following?

20/20 vision Cranial nerve demyelination can result in a variety of clinical manifestations. Optic nerve demyelination may result in blindness. Bulbar muscle weakness related to demyelination of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves results in the inability to swallow or clear secretions. Vagus nerve demyelination results in autonomic dysfunction, manifested by instability of the cardiovascular system. The presentation is variable and may include tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, or orthostatic hypotension.

A client with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for a diagnostic workup. Myasthenia gravis is confirmed by:

A positive edrophonium test confirms the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. After edrophonium administration, most clients with myasthenia gravis show markedly improved muscle tone.

The nurse has been educating a client newly diagnosed with MS. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the education?

"I will stretch daily as directed by the physical therapist." A stretching routine should be established. Stretching can help prevent contractures and muscle spasticity. Hot baths are discouraged because of the risk of injury. Clients have sensory loss that may contribute to the risk of burns. In addition, hot temperatures may cause an increase in symptoms. Warm packs should be encouraged to provide relief. Progressive weight-bearing exercises are effective in managing muscle spasms. Clients should not hurry through the exercise activity because it may increase muscle spasticity.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond?

"The paralysis caused by this disease is temporary." Explanation: The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.

The parents of a client intubated due to the progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome ask whether their child will die. What is the best response by the nurse?

"There are no guarantees, but a large portion of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome survive." Explanation: The survival rate of Guillain-Barré syndrome is approximately 90%. The client may make a full recovery or suffer from some residual deficits. Telling the parents not to worry dismisses their feelings and does not address their concerns. Progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome to the diaphragm does not significantly decrease the survival rate, but it does increase the chance of residual deficits. The family should be given information about Guillain-Barré syndrome and the generally favorable prognosis. With no prognosis offered, the parents are not having their concerns addressed.

A client has a neurological defect and will be transferred to a nursing home because family members are unable to care for the client at home. While receiving a bed bath, the client yells at the nurse, "You don't know what you are doing!" What is the best reaction by the nurse?

Accept the patient's behavior and do not take it personally. Anger is a defense or response to loss; the nurse should consider that the client is using displacement to deal with emotional pain. Having another nurse care for the patient might send a message to the client that may precipitate feelings of guilt or imply to the client that the nurse no longer wants to provide care. Discontinuing the bath abandons the client and would not encourage expression of feelings. Explaining that the client is getting good care is a defensive response that focuses on the nurse rather than the client.

A client is experiencing functional urinary incontinence. The nurse interprets this to mean which of the following?

Client does not reach the toilet before experiencing voiding. Explanation: Functional incontinence is incontinence in clients with intact urinary physiology who experience mobility impairment, environmental barriers, or cognitive problems and cannot reach and use the toilet before soiling themselves. Reflex incontinence is associated with a spinal cord lesion that interrupts cerebral control, resulting in no sensory awareness of the need to void. Urge incontinence is the involuntary elimination of urine associated with a strong perceived need to void. Stress incontinence is associated with weakened perineal muscles that permit leakage of urine when intraabdominal pressure is increased, such as with coughing or sneezing.

Which condition is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain?

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Parkinson disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dancelike movements and dementia.

The nurse is assisting a patient to sit up on the side of the bed in preparation for standing. The patient has been on strict bedrest for more than a week. While assuming the sitting position, the patient begins to report feeling dizzy and nauseated. The patient is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would the nurse do next?

Have the patient lie back down. The patient is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension and cerebral insufficiency from the change in position. The best action would be have the patient lie back down because he or she is not tolerating the change in position. Taking deep breaths would be ineffective in raising the patient's blood pressure or increasing the blood supply to the brain. Having the patient stand up immediately would worsen the patient's symptoms. Using a transfer board would have no effect on the patient's symptoms, which are from the change in position.

A client is experiencing muscle weakness and an ataxic gait. The client has a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). Based on these symptoms, the nurse formulates "Impaired physical mobility" as one of the nursing diagnoses applicable to the client. What nursing intervention should be most appropriate to address the nursing diagnosis?

Help the client perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 8 hours. Helping the client perform ROM exercises every 8 hours helps in promoting joint flexibility and muscle tone in a client with muscle weakness. Measures such as using pressure-relieving devices or changing the body positions every 2 hours prevents skin breakdown. The nurse should use a footboard and trochanter rolls to promote a neutral body position that will keep the body in good alignment.

Which is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States?

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Explanation: HSV-1 ( herpes simplex virus) is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States. Fungal infections of the central nervous system occur rarely in healthy people. The Western equine encephalitis virus is one of four types of arboviral encephalitis that occur in North America is one of several fungi that may cause fungal encephalitis. Lyme disease leads to flu like symptoms and starts as a local infection which can systematically spread causing organ issues, however the incidence is rate, HIV leads to autoimmune disorders.

The nurse is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for oral suctioning?

Increased pulse rate, adventitious breath sounds An increased pulse rate above baseline with adventitious breath sounds indicate compromised respirations and signal a need for airway clearance. A decrease in pulse rate is not indicative of airway obstruction. An increase of pulse rate with slight elevation of respirations (16 breaths/minute) is not significant for suctioning unless findings suggest otherwise.

The nurse is assessing a newly admitted client with a diagnosis of meningitis. On assessment, the nurse expects to find which of the following?

Positive Kernig's sign A positive Kernig's sign is a common finding in the client with meningitis. When the client is lying with the thigh flexed on the abdomen, the leg cannot be completely extended. A positive Brudzinski's sign is usual with meningitis. The Romberg sign would not be tested in this client. The client will develop lethargy as the illness progresses, not hyper-alertness.

A nurse has taught a client how to perform quadriceps-setting exercises. The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when he demonstrates which of the following?

Pushes the popliteal area against the mattress while raising the heel The client demonstrates quadriceps-setting exercises by attempting to push the popliteal area against the mattress and at the same time raising the heel. With gluteal setting exercises, the client contracts the buttocks together for a count of five and then relaxes them for a count of five. With push-up exercises, the client raises the body by pushing the hands against the chair seat or mattress while he is in a sitting position. For pull-up exercises, the client lifts the body off the mattress while holding onto a trapeze while in bed or raises the arms above the head then lowers them while holding weights.

A patient diagnosed with MS 2 years ago has been admitted to the hospital with another relapse. The previous relapse was followed by a complete recovery with the exception of occasional vertigo. What type of MS does the nurse recognize this patient most likely has?

Relapsing-remitting (RR) Approximately 85% of patients with MS have a relapsing-remitting (RR) course. With each relapse, recovery is usually complete; however, residual deficits may occur and accumulate over time, contributing to functional decline.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client entering a long-term care facility. She notices a broken area of skin that extends into the dermis on the client's coccyx. How should the nurse document this wound?

Stage II pressure ulcer Explanation: A stage II pressure ulcer is a break in the skin that extends into the epidermis or the dermis. A stage I pressure ulcer is area of nonblanchable redness that may become cyanotic. A stage III pressure ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the muscle or bone; most of the true tissue damage isn't easily seen.