PrepU Chapter 65: Management of Patients with Oncologic or Degenerative Neurologic Disorders

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who was admitted to hospital after having complex partial seizures secondary to a glioma. The client has been prescribed levetiracetam to manage the seizures. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this medication?

"Driving a car should be avoided until the you know how this medication effects you."

A client asks the nurse to explain the development of Parkinson disease (PD). Which response will the nurse provide the client?

"It is caused by low levels of dopamine that are not available to counteract the effects of acetylcholine."

A nurse is conducting a presentation about brain cancer for a local community group. During the presentation, one of the group members asks, "What causes brain tumors?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"The cause of most brain tumors is still really not known." The cause of most primary brain tumors is unknown. The only known risk factors are exposure to ionizing radiation and cancer-causing chemicals. Additional possible risk factors that require further investigation include non-ionizing consumption of nitrates, cigarette smoking, cell phone use, and exposure to residential power lines. However, the cause of the vast majority of brain tumors remains elusive.

A client with a malignant glioma is scheduled for surgery. The client demonstrates a need for additional teaching about the surgery when he states which of the following?

"The surgeon will be able to remove all of the tumor." Explanation: For clients with malignant gliomas, complete removal of the tumor and cure are not possible but the rationale for resection includes relief of increased intracranial pressure, removal of any necrotic tissue, and reduction in the bulk of the tumor, which theoretically leaves behind fewer cells to become resistant to radiation or chemotherapy.

A client with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse what their treatment is supposed to do since the disease is progressive. What would be the nurse's best response?

"Treatment aims at keeping you independent as long as possible." Treatment aims at prolonging independence. Treatment does matter, it is not palliative, and it is not aimed at keeping you emotionally healthy.

A client who has just been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy asks the nurse about the usual course of this disease. How should the nurse respond?

"You may experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles." The nurse should tell the client that muscular dystrophy causes progressive, symmetrical wasting of skeletal muscles, without neural or sensory defects. The mixed form of the disease typically strikes between ages 30 and 50 and progresses rapidly, causing deterioration of all voluntary muscles. Because the client asked the nurse this question directly, the nurse should answer and not simply refer the client to the physician. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy causes a gradual decrease in arm and pelvic muscle strength, resulting in slight disability. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is a slowly progressive, relatively benign form of muscular dystrophy; it usually arises before age 10.

A client with cerebral metastasis suddenly experiences a seizure for which phenytoin 10 mg/kg intravenously is ordered as an initial loading dose. The client weighs 132 pounds. How many milligrams of phenytoin should the client receive? Enter the number ONLY.

600

Which disease includes loss of motor neurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord and motor nuclei of the lower brain stem?

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a disease of unknown cause in which there is a loss of motor neurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord and the motor nuclei of the lower brain stem. Parkinson disease is a slowly progressing neurologic movement disorder that eventually leads to disability. Alzheimer disease is a chronic, progressive, and degenerative brain disorder that is accompanied by profound effects on memory, cognition and ability for self-care. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

The nurse is caring for a client who was diagnosed with a glioma 5 months ago. Today, the client was brought to the emergency department by his caregiver because he collapsed at home. The nurse suspects late signs of rising intracranial pressure (ICP) when which blood pressure and pulse readings are noted?

BP = 175/45 mm Hg; HR = 42 bpm Explanation: With a blood pressure of 175/45 mm Hg, it is evident that this client is experiencing progressively rising ICP, resulting from an advanced stage of the brain tumor. This blood pressure demonstrates a wide pulse pressure, meaning the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is large. A heart rate of 42 bpm indicates the client is bradycardic. This finding paired with hypertensive blood pressure with a widening pulse pressure are part of the Cushing triad related to increased ICP.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of self-care deficit, bathing related to motor impairment and decreased cognitive function for a client with cerebral metastasis. Which outcome would the nurse most likely identify on this client's plan of care?

Client participates in daily hygiene activities with assistive devices. The client has a self-care deficit related to bathing. Therefore, an appropriate outcome would address the client's participation in daily hygiene measures. Positive coping strategies would be appropriate for a nursing diagnosis associated with anxiety or fear. Verbalizing feelings about self-care ability would be more appropriate for a nursing diagnosis involving self-esteem or role function. Consuming adequate calories would be appropriate for a nursing diagnosis involving imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements.

The nurse reviews the patient's drug regimen for treatment of a brain tumor. She explains to the patient why one of the following drugs would not be prescribed, even though it might have therapeutic benefits. Which drug would not be prescribed for this patient?

Coumadin Explanation: Although deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism occur in about 15% of patients and cause significant morbidity, anticoagulants are not prescribed due to the risk for CNS hemorrhage.

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient in the clinic with Parkinson's disease. The nurse determines that the patient's voice has changed since the last visit and is now more difficult to understand. How should the nurse document this finding?

Dysphonia Dysphonia (voice impairment or altered voice production) may occur as a result of weakness and incoordination of the muscles responsible for speech.

An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of which cranial nerve?

Eighth Explanation: An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve, the cranial nerve most responsible for hearing and balance.

Which diagnostic is most commonly used for spinal cord compression?

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Explanation: MRI is the most commonly used diagnostic tool, detecting epidural spinal cord compression and metastases.

A client newly diagnosed with Huntington diease asks for information concerning management of symptoms. Which action would the nurse first take to address this request?

Perform a focused assessment on the client's needs and capabilities.

A client has undergone surgery for a spinal cord tumor that was located in the cervical area. The nurse would be especially alert for which of the following

Respiratory dysfunction Explanation: When a spinal tumor is located in the cervical area, respiratory compromise may occur from postoperative edema. Hemorrhage would be a concern with any surgery. Bowel incontinence and skin breakdown are possible but not specific to cervical spinal tumors.

A client with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this client. Nutritional management for a client with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle?

The client is likely to have an increased appetite. Due to the continuous involuntary movements, clients will have a ravenous appetite. Despite this ravenous appetite, clients usually become emaciated and exhausted. As the disease progresses, clients experience difficulty in swallowing and thin liquids should be avoided. Protein will not be limited with this disease. Enzyme supplements are not normally required.

Which client should the nurse assess for degenerative neurologic symptoms?

The client with Huntington disease. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia. Paget disease is a musculoskeletal disorder, characterized by localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone. Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

The nurse is caring for a client with mid-to-late stage of an inoperable brain tumor. What teaching is important for the nurse to do with this client?

Explaining hospice care and services Explanation: The nurse explains hospice care and services to clients with brain tumors that no longer are at a stage where they can be cured. Managing muscle weakness and offering family support groups are important, but explaining hospice is the best answer. Optimizing nutrition at this point is not a priority.

What is the most common type of brain neoplasm?

Glioma Explanation: Gliomas are the most common brain neoplasms, accounting for about 45% of all brain tumors. Angiomas account for approximately 4% of brain tumors. Meningiomas account for 15% to 20% of all brain tumors. Neuromas account for 7% of all brain tumors.

While assessing the client at the beginning of the shift, the nurse inspects a surgical dressing covering the operative site after the clients' cervical discectomy. The nurse notes that the drainage is 75% saturated with serosanguineous discharge. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Inform the surgeon of the possibility of a dural leak.

Which term is used to describe edema of the optic nerve?

Papilledema Explanation: Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve. Scotoma is a defect in vision in a specific area in one or both eyes. Lymphedema is the chronic swelling of an extremity due to interrupted lymphatic circulation, typically from an axillary dissection. Angioneurotic edema is a condition characterized by urticaria and diffuse swelling of the deeper layers of the skin.

Which of the following is a late symptom of spinal cord compression?

Paralysis Explanation: Later symptoms include evidence of motor weakness and sensory deficits progressing to paralysis. Early symptoms associated with spinal cord compression include bladder and bowel dysfunction (urinary incontinence or retention; fecal incontinence or constipation).

The nurse educator is facilitating a class on neurological function with a group of nursing students. When discussing problems that can result from growing brain tumors, the nurse educator should include that clients can experience which neurologic deficits even after surgical resection? Select all that apply.

Paralysis Incontinence Aphasia Although fever and respiratory infection can result from various factors that influence the hospitalized client, these are not categorized as neurologic deficits. The nurse educator is correct in stating that paralysis, incontinence and aphasia are potential neurological deficits that can result from pressure of growing tumors on surrounding brain structures. The arise from a decreased sensory motor response of the central and peripheral nervous system.

The nurse is seeing the mother of a client who states, "I'm so relieved because my son's doctor told me his brain tumor is benign." The nurse knows what is true about benign brain tumors?

They can affect vital functioning. Explanation: Benign tumors are usually slow growing but can occur in a vital area, where they can grow large enough to cause serious effects. Surgical removal of a benign tumor is dependent on many factors; even if the tumor is slow growing or not growing at all, the location of the tumor in the brain factors into the decision for surgical removal. The prognosis for all brain tumors is not necessarily poor. Treatment is individualized and can have varying prognostic outcomes. Benign tumors are not metastatic, meaning they do not grow rapidly or spread into surrounding tissue, but they can still be considered life-threatening.

A client with cerebral metastasis suddenly experiences a seizure for which phenytoin 10 mg/kg intravenously is ordered as an initial loading dose. The client weighs 165 pounds. How many milligrams of phenytoin should the client receive? Enter the number ONLY.

750 Explanation: First, change the client's weight in pounds to kilograms by dividing the weight by 2.2 (2.2 pounds = 1 kg). The client's weight is 75 kg. Next, set up a proportion: 10/1 = x/75; cross multiply and solve for x, which is 750.

A client is diagnosed with a brain angioma. When teaching the client about the risks associated with this type of brain tumor, the nurse would educate about signs and symptoms associated with which condition?

Hemorrhagic stroke Explanation: Brain angiomas (masses composed largely of abnormal blood vessels) are found either in the brain or on its surface. Because the walls of the blood vessels in angiomas are thin, affected clients are at risk for hemorrhagic stroke. Pituitary adenomas that produce hormones can lead to endocrine disorders, such as thyroid disorders. In addition, they can exert pressure on the optic nerves and optic chiasm, leading to vision loss. Acoustic neuromas are associated with hearing loss.

The nursing instructor gives their students an assignment of making a plan of care for a client with Huntington's disease. What would be important for the students to include in the teaching portion of the care plan?

How to facilitate tasks such as using both hands to hold a drinking glass The nurse demonstrates how to facilitate tasks such as using both hands to hold a drinking glass, using a straw to drink, and wearing slip-on shoes. The teaching portion of the care plan would not include how to exercise, perform household tasks, or take a bath.

What is the only known risk factor for brain tumors?

Ionizing radiation Explanation: Ionizing radiation is the only known risk factor for brain tumors. Head trauma, use of hair dyes, and the use of cellular phones are possible causes that have been investigated.

A client with a brain tumor experiences projectile vomiting. The nurse integrates understanding of this occurrence as resulting from which of the following?

Irritation of the medullary vagal centers Explanation: Vomiting associated with a brain tumor is usually the result of irritation of the vagal centers in the medulla. Edema secondary to the tumor or distortion of the pain-sensitive structures is thought to be the cause of the headache associated with brain tumors. Compression of the surrounding structures results in the signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure.

The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who just underwent surgery to remove a metastatic intramedullary tumor. On postoperative day 3, the client states, "I am really looking forward to going running again, it had become too difficult because of the loss of feeling in my feet." Which should the nurse address in the client's care plan?

Knowledge deficit Explanation: Clients with extensive neurologic deficits before surgery usually do not make significant functional recovery, even after successful tumor removal. In this case, the client had already developed bilateral sensory loss in the lower extremities indicating the fairly progressed impact of the tumor on the client's functional ability. The client's statement reflects a knowledge deficit and it is a priority to provide information regarding the possibility that lower extremity sensation may not return. Although body image disturbance and anxiety may be identified and addressed. This would occur after the client demonstrates an accurate understanding of loss of functional capabilities as a result of the progressed tumor. Ensuring the client understands the extent of functional loss due to the impact of the tumor is a priority. The client does not demonstrate impaired cognition.

The nurse explains to the client with projectile vomiting and severe headache that a medication is being prescribed to reduced edema surrounding the brain and lessen these symptoms. What medication is the nurse preparing to administer?

Mannitol Explanation: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is administered to decrease the fluid content of the brain, which leads to a decrease in intracranial pressure. Temozolomide is a chemotherapeutic agent which is commonly used to stop or slow cell growth in certain types of brain tumors. Bevacizumab and everolimus are immunotherapy agents that reduce the vascularization of tumors, thereby inhibiting tumor growth.

A nurse helps a patient recently diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma understand that:

Most tumors produce too much of one or more hormones.

A 55-year-old female client presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of feeling like a mask is on her face. While doing the initial assessment, the nurse notes the demonstration of a pill-rolling movement in the right hand and a stooped posture. Physical examination shows bradykinesia and a shuffling gait. What would the nurse suspect is the causative factor for these symptoms?

Parkinson's disease Explanation: Early signs include stiffness, referred to as rigidity, and tremors of one or both hands, described as pill-rolling (a rhythmic motion of the thumb against the fingers). The hand tremor is obvious at rest and typically decreases when movement is voluntary, such as picking up an object. Bradykinesia, slowness in performing spontaneous movements, develops. Clients have a masklike expression, stooped posture, hypophonia (low volume of speech), and difficulty swallowing saliva. Weight loss occurs. A shuffling gait is apparent, and the client has difficulty turning or redirecting forward motion. Arms are rigid while walking. These symptoms are not indicative of MS, Myasthenia gravis, or Huntington's.

A client who is suspected of having a spinal cord tumor is reporting pain. Upon further assessment, the nurse would anticipate that the client would report that the pain increases when in which position?

Prone The nurse is alert for early reports of back pain, which occurs in the region of the tumor. The pain typically increases when the client is in the prone position.

The nurse cares for a client with Huntington disease. What intervention is a priority for safe care?

Protecting the client from falls Explanation: The client with Huntington disease has a risk for injury from falls and skin breakdown. Protecting the client from falls is a priority for safe care. Electrolyte and cholesterol monitoring is not a priority for this condition. Range-of-motion exercises will not protect the client from injuries.

A client has a herniated disk in the region of the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Which nursing assessment finding most supports this diagnosis?

Severe lower back pain The most common finding in a client with a herniated lumbar disk is severe lower back pain, which radiates to the buttocks, legs, and feet - usually unilaterally. A herniated disk also may cause sensory and motor loss (such as foot drop) in the area innervated by the compressed spinal nerve root. During later stages, it may cause weakness and atrophy of leg muscles. The condition doesn't affect bowel sounds or the arms.

The nursing is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma, but has not yet started treatment. The client reports having increased heart rate, hand tremors, difficulty sleeping, weight loss and hyperthermia. The nurse anticipates the client will require blood work to assess for overproduction of which hormone?

Thyroid-stimulating hormone Explanation: In clients diagnosed with pituitary tumors, increase may be seen in prolactin hormone, growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, or thyroid-stimulating hormone. In this case, the client is exhibiting symptoms related to hyperthyroidism and the blood work should include the thyroid-stimulating hormone level to determine if an overproduction of this hormone due to the presence of the tumor is the cause of the presenting symptoms.

The nurse is seeing a client who is suspected of having a glioblastoma multiforme tumor. The nurse anticipates the client will require which diagnostic test to confirm the client has this form of brain tumor?

Tissue biopsy Explanation: Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common and aggressive malignant brain tumor. In most cases, a tissue biopsy, which can be obtained at the time of surgical removal, is needed to confirm the diagnosis. A Weber and Rinne test may be useful in assessing asymmetric hearing loss associated with an acoustic neuroma, not glioblastoma multiforme. The diagnosis of an angioma is suggested by the presence of another angioma somewhere in the head or by a bruit (an abnormal sound) that is audible over the skull. Functioning pituitary adenoma can produce one or more hormones, normally by the anterior pituitary. Increase maybe seen in prolactin hormone, growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, or thyroid-stimulating hormone.

A client is scheduled for a laminectomy to repair a herniated intervertebral disk. When developing the postoperative care plan, the nurse should include which action?

Turning the client from side to side, using the logroll technique To avoid twisting the spine or hips when turning a client onto the side, the nurse should use the logroll technique. (Twisting after a laminectomy could injure the spine.) After surgery, the nurse shouldn't put anything under the client's knees or place the client in semi-Fowler's position because these actions increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Typically, the client is allowed out of bed by the first or second day after a laminectomy.

A client with suspected Parkinson disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?

When the client is resting The tremor is present while the client is at rest; it increases when the client is walking, concentrating, or feeling anxious. Resting tremor characteristically disappears with purposeful movement, but is evident when the extremities are motionless. Consequently, the nurse should assess for the presence of a tremor when the client is not performing deliberate actions.

A client is suspected of having amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). To help confirm this disorder, the nurse prepares the client for various diagnostic tests. The nurse expects the physician to order:

electromyography (EMG). Explanation: To help confirm ALS, the physician typically orders EMG, which detects abnormal electrical activity of the involved muscles. To help establish the diagnosis of ALS, EMG must show widespread anterior horn cell dysfunction with fibrillations, positive waves, fasciculations, and chronic changes in the potentials of neurogenic motor units in multiple nerve root distribution in at least three limbs and the paraspinal muscles. Normal sensory responses must accompany these findings. Doppler scanning, Doppler ultrasonography, and quantitative spectral phonoangiography are used to detect vascular disorders, not muscular or neuromuscular abnormalities.

A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, "Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can't do anything without help!" This comment best supports which nursing diagnosis?

powerlessness The client's comment best supports a nursing diagnosis of Powerlessness because ALS may lead to locked-in syndrome, characterized by an active and functioning mind locked in a body that can't perform even simple daily tasks. Although Anxiety and Risk for disuse syndrome may be diagnoses associated with ALS, the client's comment specifically refers to an inability to act autonomously. A diagnosis of Ineffective denial would be indicated if the client didn't seem to perceive the personal relevance of symptoms or danger.