Procedures

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(A) 3 (#1: splenic/left colic flexure, #2: hepatic/right colic flexure, #3: ascending colon, #4: cecum, #5: appendix, #6: distal ileum, #7: descending colon)

The ascending colon is labeled in the image as number (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

(A) 7 (#1: radial tuberosity, #2: neck of radius; #3: head of radius, #4: proximal radioulnar joint, #5: radius, #6: ulna, #7: base of fifth metacarpal, #8: lunate, #9 styloid process, #10: head of ulna, #11: scaphoid, #12: radial styloid process)

The base of the fifth metacarpal seen in the image is indicated by number (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 11 (D) 12

(A) 1 only; pedicles (vertebral foramina are only seen in CT images; zygapophyseal articulations are seen in the oblique positions)

The following is/are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine seen in the image: 1. pedicles 2. vertebral foramina 3. zygapophyseal articulations (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? (A) AP (B) Lateral oblique (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral

That portion of long bones where lengthening growth takes place is the (A) diaphysis (B) epiphysis (C) metaphysis (D) apophysis

(B) 4 (#1: triquetrum, #2: pisiform, #3; base of the fifth metacarpal, #4: the head of the fifth metacarpal, #5: the fifth metacarpophalangeal joint, #6: fifth proximal interphalangeal joint, #7: fifth distal interphalangeal joint)

In the PA projection of the hand seen in the image, which numeral identifies the head of the fifth metacarpal? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

(B) tubercle of rib (#!: spinous process, #2: tubercle of rib, #3: costotransverse articulation, #4: ??, #5: facets, #6: costovertebral articulations, #7: heads of ribs, #8: transverse process, #9: transverse process facet, #10 facets, #11: body of vertebra)

In the image, the structure indicated as number 2 is which of the following? (A) Neck of rib (B) Tubercle of rib (C) Transverse process (D) Head of rib

(A) RPO

In which of the following positions was this image made? (A) RPO (B) LPO (C) AP axial (D) Right lateral decubitus

(B) medial oblique

In which of the following projections was the image in image made? (A) AP (B) Medial oblique (C) Lateral oblique (D) Acute flexion

(D) SMV

Referring to the image, which of the following positions requires that baseline number 3 be parallel to the IR? (A) Parietoacanthial (B) PA axial (Caldwell) (C) AP axial (Towne) (D) SMV

(B) 1 and 2 only; rotation and scapulae removed from lung fields

The PA chest radiograph shown in the image demonstrates 1. rotation 2. scapulae removed from lung fields 3. adequate inspiration (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Patella (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only; femur and tibia

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only; short, wide, transverse heart and high and peripheral large bowel

The AP axial projection of the cervical spine demonstrates the following: 1. C3-C7 cervical bodies 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Zygapophyseal joints (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only (intervertebral foramina are seen in the oblique position; zygapophyseal joints are seen in the lateral position)

Which of the following is/are located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only; patella surface

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. Supine flexion 45° (Merchant) 2. Prone flexion 90° (Settegast) 3. Prone flexion 55° (Hughston) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 only

(A) 1 only; spine flexion 45° (Merchant)

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed. 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only; vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15°-20° caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in an infant or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to (A) 10°-15° caudal (B) 25°-30° caudal (C) 15°-20° cephalic (D) 3°-5° caudal

(A) 10°-15° caudal (this is because the OML and IOML in infants is 15° rather than 7° compared to an adult, so you would need less angulation)

If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head (A) 15° toward the side being examined (B) 15° away from the side being examined (C) 30° toward the side being examined (D) 30° away from the side being examined

(A) 15° toward the side being examined

Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the (A) AP projection (B) lateral projection (C) axial projection (D) lordotic projection

(A) AP Projection (croup is a viral infection seen in children 1-3 years of age; a soft tissue neck would be done to visualize the airways)

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition? (A) AP oblique, medial rotation (B) AP oblique, lateral rotation (C) Mediolateral (D) Lateral weight-bearing

(A) AP oblique, medial rotation

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated? (A) AP or PA through the foramen magnum (B) AP oblique with right and left head rotation (C) Horizontal beam lateral (D) AP axial

(A) AP or PA through the foramen magnum (Fuchs)

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the (A) AP projection (B) lateral projection (C) medial oblique projection (D) lateral oblique projection

(A) AP projection (AP projection shows medial and lateral relationships of structures; lateral projections demonstrate anterior and posterior relationships of structures)

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following? (A) AP projection, left lateral decubitus position (B) AP projection, right lateral decubitus position (C) PA recumbent position (D) AP recumbent position

(A) AP projection, left lateral decubitus position

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA projection, the (A) CR is directed perpendicular to the IR (B) CR is directed cephalad to the IR (C) skull is obliqued away from the affected side (D) skull is obliqued toward the affected side

(A) CR is directed perpendicular to the IR

Which of the following serves to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand? (A) Oblique the hand no more than 45° (B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges (C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR (D) Use ulnar flexion

(A) Oblique the hand no more than 45°

With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the (A) Trendelenburg position (B) Fowler position (C) decubitus position (D) Sims position

(A) Trendelenburg (decubitus position: patient is in a recumbent position (prone, supine, or lateral) with a horizontal CR; fowler position: patient's feet are lower than their head; Sims position: LAO with right knee bent and hip flexed)

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue? (A) A postpubertal adolescent (B) A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy (C) A menopausal woman (D) A postmenopausal 65-year-old

(A) a post pubertal adolescent

The RPO position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the (A) anterior rim of the right acetabulum (B) anterior iliopubic column (C) left iliac wing (D) posterior rim of the right acetabulum

(A) anterior rim of the right acetabulum (in the RPO poisition, the down side (the right side in this case) will demonstrate the anteiror rim of the right acetabulum, the right posterior ilioischial column and the right iliac wing)

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle? (A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins (B) Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules (C) Veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles (D) Venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries

(A) arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small, bony fragment pulled from a bony process? (A) Avulsion fracture (B) Torus fracture (C) Comminuted fracture (D) Compound fracture

(A) avulsion fracture (comminuted fracture: bone is splintered into pieces, torus fracture: a greenstick fracture with one cortex buckled and the other intact, compound fracture: an open fracture where the bone perforated the skin)

The structure located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis is the (A) dome of the acetabulum (B) femoral neck (C) greater trochanter (D) iliac crest

(A) dome of the acetabulum

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses? (A) Erect (B) Recumbent (C) Oblique (D) Trendelenburg

(A) erect (sinus examination are performed to evaluate the presence or absence of fluid therefore they must be completed upright)

Foot motion caused by turning the ankle outward is termed (A) eversion (B) inversion (C) abduction (D) adduction

(A) eversion

A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is (A) Ewing sarcoma (B) multiple myeloma (C) enchondroma (D) osteochondroma

(A) ewing sarcoma (multiple myeloma: cancerous bone tumor of adults 40-70 years old where their bone undergoes osteolytic changes (appears as circular areas of bone loss); endochondroma and osteochondroma: both involve cartilage and both are benign conditions)

The lumbar vertebral pedicle is represented by which part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? (A) Eye (B) Nose (C) Body (D) Ear

(A) eye (ear: superior articular process; nose: transverse process; body: lamina; neck: par interarticularis; front leg: inferior articular process)

Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position? (A) Hepatic/right colic flexure (B) Splenic/left colic flexure (C) Sigmoid colon (D) Ileocecal valve

(A) hepatic/right colic flexure

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-L3? (A) Inferior costal margin (B) Greater trochanter (C) Iliac crest (D) ASIS

(A) inferior costal margin (ASIS: S2, iliac crest: L4-L5, Greater trochanter: pubic symphysis

In the PA axial oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the (A) intervertebral foramina nearest the IR (B) intervertebral foramina furthest from the IR (C) interarticular joints (D) intervertebral joints

(A) intervertebral foramina nearest the IR

All of the following are associated with the knee joint, except (A) labrum (B) fat pad (C) menisci (D) collateral ligament

(A) labrum

Small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity can be demonstrated in which of the following positions? (A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up (B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down (C) AP Trendelenburg (D) AP supine

(A) lateral decubitus, affected side up

The interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated in which of the following projections? (A) Lateral oblique foot (B) Medial oblique foot (C) Lateral foot (D) Weight-bearing foot

(A) lateral oblique foot (medial oblique would show the cuboid)

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25° RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS? (A) Left sacroiliac joint (B) Right sacroiliac joint (C) Left ilium (D) Right ilium

(A) left SI joint

The following projection of the ankle best demonstrates the mortise: (A) medial oblique 15°-20° (B) lateral oblique 15°-20° (C) medial oblique 45° (D) lateral oblique 45°

(A) medial oblique 15-20°

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter (A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface (B) midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen (C) at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest (D) perpendicular to the level of L2

(A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

Which of the following is best demonstrated in the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30° caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati? (A) Occipital bone (B) Frontal bone (C) Facial bones (D) Basal foramina

(A) occipital bone

Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace? (A) Patient AP with 30°-35° angle cephalad (B) Patient AP with 30°-35° angle caudad (C) Patient AP with 0° angle (D) Patient lateral, coned to L5

(A) patient AP with 30°-35° angle cephalad (Ferguson Method)

What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40° cephalad? (A) Axial plantodorsal projection (B) Axial dorsoplantar projection (C) Lateral projection (D) Weight-bearing lateral projection

(A) plantodorsal projection

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in (A) the recumbent position (B) the erect position (C) the anatomic position (D) the Fowler position

(A) recumbent position

Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is (A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx (B) crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma (C) respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling (D) all of the above

(A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions? (A) Right iliac (B) Left iliac (C) Right lumbar (D) Hypogastric

(A) right iliac

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the (A) right main stem bronchus (B) left main stem bronchus (C) esophagus (D) proximal stomach

(A) right main stem bronchus (the right main stem bronchus is wider and more vertical)

All the following are palpable bony landmarks that can be used in radiography of the pelvis, except (A) the femoral neck (B) the pubic symphysis (C) the greater trochanter (D) the iliac crest

(A) the femoral neck

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45° (A) toward the affected side (B) away from the affected side (C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position (D) with the arm in external rotation

(A) toward affected side

During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized in the AP recumbent position? (A) Transverse colon (B) Descending colon (C) Ascending colon (D) Left and right colic flexures

(A) transverse colon

What is the structure labeled number 1 in the image? (A) Trapezium (B) Scaphoid (C) Ulnar styloid (D) Radial styloid

(A) trapezium (1. trapezium 2. scaphoid 3. radial styloid process 4. base of the fifth metacarpal 5. pisiform 6. ulnar styloid process)

Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following, except (A) weight-bearing (B) RAO (C) LAO (D) PA

(A) weight-bearing (weight bearing is used to examine the acromioclavicular joints (AC joint))

The structure labeled 1 in the image is the (A) zygapophyseal joint (B) intervertebral foramen (C) intervertebral disc space (D) vertebral body

(A) zygapophyseal joint (1. zygapophyseal joint, 2. vertebral body, 3. posterior arch of C1, 4. odontoid/dens, 5. anterior arch of C1, 6. body of C2)

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Prone, knee flexed 40°, CR directed caudad 40° to the popliteal fossa 2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5°-10° lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; Prone, knee flexed 40°, CR directed caudad 40° to the popliteal fossa (Camp Coventry Method) and Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia (Beclere) (Tunnel View)

Which of the following is/are true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only; The procedure is performed in the erect position and use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only; atlantoaxial joint (C1-C2 joint) and radioulnar joint

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla and introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct

Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following: 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; cecum and vermiform appendix (the sigmoid "goes to your a$$hole" as Justice would say and is located in the Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ))

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. Clavicular body 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Sternocostal joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; clavicular body and acromioclavicular joint

Which of the following is/are recommended in order to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region? 1. Close collimation 2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. Decreased SID (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; close collimation and lead mat on table posterior to the patient

Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography? 1. Creatinine 2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 3. Red blood cells (RBCs) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Types of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. fibrous 2. cartilaginous 3. synovial (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; fibrous and cartilaginous

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured anterior tibia (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; fractured lateral and medial malleolus

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; make the vertebral column parallel with the IR and place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular with the IR

Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters' (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; modified Waters' (mouth open) and lateral

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. zygoma (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; orbital floor and inferior rectus muscle

Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; pedicles and laminae

Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? 1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. Stent placement 3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) and stent placement

In the AP projection of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia 3. calcaneus is well visualized (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; plantar surface of the foot is vertical and fibula projects more distally than the tibia

In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 2. metatarsals are superimposed 3. talofibular joint should be visualized (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR and metatarsals are superimposed

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90°. The CR is directed 45° medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1. Radial head 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid process (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; radial head and capitulum

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. Sacral vertebrae 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Lumbar vertebrae (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only; sacral and thoracic vertebrae

Radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity requires which of the following? 1. Special ruler/Bell-Thompson scale 2. Precise collimation 3. Cannula (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; special ruler/Bell-Thompson scale and precise collimation

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. The esophagus is visible in the midline (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders and ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm

Causes of death in 70% of people older than 65 years include 1. stroke 2. heart disease 3. digestive disorders (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; stroke and heart disease

Which of the following is/are required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. The IOML is parallel to the IR 2. The MSP is parallel to the IR 3. The CR enters 3⁄4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 , and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; the IOML is parallel to the IR and the MSP is parallel to the IR

The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s): 1. the male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. the male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. the female coccyx is more vertical (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; the male greater/false pelvis is deep and the male acetabulum face more laterally (false pelvis is anything above the iliopectineal arcuate line)

During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate 1. ureteral filling 2. the renal pelvis 3. superior calyces (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; ureteral filling and the renal pelvis

Appropriate radiation protection strategies for the pediatric patient include the following: 1. use appropriate gonadal shielding 2. shield torso when examining upper extremities 3. examine thorax and skull in AP position rather than PA (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; use appropriate gonadal shielding and shield torso when examining upper extremities

Types of mechanical obstruction found in pediatric patients include 1. volvulus 2. intussusception 3. paralytic ileus (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; volvulus and intussusception

Elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include 1. weight evenly distributed on feet 2. elevation of the chin 3. shoulders elevated and rolled forward (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; weight evenly distributed on feet and elevation of the chin (shoulders should be depressed and rolled forward)

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only; with humerus parallel to the IR, CR perpendicular and with forearm parallel to the IR, CR perpendicular

For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Patency of the biliary ducts 2. Biliary tract calculi 3. Duodenal calculi (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2; patency of the biliary ducts and biliary tract calculi

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip: 1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician 2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only; When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician and to evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. Talotibial 2. Talocalcaneal 3. Talofibular (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only

(B) 1 and 3 only; talotibial and talofibular (ankle joint is formed by the tibia, fibula, and talus)

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a/an (A) AP projection (B) 30° oblique (C) 45° oblique (D) AP axial projection

(B) 30° oblique (articular facets make up the zygapophyseal joints)

Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys? (A) Lateral abdomen (B) AP abdomen (C) Dorsal decubitus abdomen (D) Ventral decubitus abdomen

(B) AP abdomen

Which of the following places the anatomical points of the hand's third digit in correct order from proximal to distal? (A) Base of metacarpal, head of middle phalanx, carpometacarpal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, distal interphalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft (B) Carpometacarpal joint, base of metacarpal, metacarpophalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalange, distal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft (C) Ungual tuft, distal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalanx, proximal interphalangeal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, base of metacarpal, carpometacarpal joint (D) Carpometacarpal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, base of metacarpal, head of middle phalanx, proximal interphalangeal joint, distal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft

(B) Carpometacarpal joint, base of metacarpal, metacarpophalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalange, distal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? (A) Closed (B) Compound (C) Compression (D) Depressed

(B) Compound (closed fracture: no bone protrudes the skin; compression fracture: are seen in stressed areas such as vertebrae; depressed fracture: bone would not protrude, but would be pushed in)

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the (A) root (B) hilus (C) carina (D) epiglottis

(B) Hilus (carina is an internal ridge located at the bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left primary, or main stem, bronchi; epiglottis is a flap of elastic cartilage that functions to prevent fluids and soilds from entering the respiratoty tract during swallowing; root of the lung attaches the lung to the mediastinum)

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be (A) iodinated contrast administration evening before examination; water only in the morning (B) NPO after midnight (C) cathartics and cleansing enemas (D) NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and empty bladder before scout image

(B) NPO after midnight

What part of the "Scotty dog," seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine, represents the lumbar transverse process? (A) Eye (B) Nose (C) Body (D) Neck

(B) Nose (eye: pedicle; neck: par interarticularis; body: lamina; front foot: inferior articular process)

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? (A) Ewing sarcoma (B) Osgood-Schlatter disease (C) Gout (D) Exostosis

(B) Osgood-Schlatter disease (Ewing Sarcoma: malignant bone tumor common in children and has an "onion peel" appearance; gout: high levels of uric acid in the blood deposits in joints (when it crystalizes its called tophi); exotosis: bony growth arising from the surface of a bone and growing away from the joint)

The relationship between the fractured ends of long bones is referred to as (A) angulation (B) apposition (C) luxation (D) sprain

(B) apposition (the alignment of misalignment between the ends of fractured long bones) (angulation describes the direction of misalignment; luxation is dislocation; sprain means a wrenched articulation with ligament injury)

The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as (A) asphyxia (B) aspiration (C) atelectasis (D) asystole

(B) aspiration (asphyxia: oxygen deprivation caused by interference of ventilation from trauma, electrical shock, etc.; atelectasis: incomplete expansion of a lung or portion of a lung; asystole: cardiac standstill)

The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to (A) permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position (B) avoid superimposition on the apices (C) assist in maintaining an upright position (D) keep the MSP parallel

(B) avoid superimposition on the apices

What hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder following the ingestion of a fatty meal? (A) Insulin (B) Cholecystokinin (C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (D) Gastrin

(B) cholecystokinin

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography? (A) Synarthrodial (B) Diarthrodial (C) Amphiarthrodial (D) Cartilaginous

(B) diarthrodial (synarthrodial: immovable joints; amphiarthrodial: joints that allow only slight movement)

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? (A) Fifth metacarpal (B) First metacarpal (C) Distal radius (D) Distal ulna

(B) first metacarpal (this joint forms a sellar/saddle joint)

The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is (A) age (B) gender (C) family history (D) personal history

(B) gender

The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is (A) hemoptysis (B) hematemesis (C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (D) bronchitis

(B) hematemesis (hemoptysis: the expectoration of blood from the larynx, trachea, bronchi, or lungs)

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient? (A) High and vertical (B) High and horizontal (C) Low and vertical (D) Low and horizontal

(B) high and horizontal

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? (A) Appendicitis (B) Intussusception (C) Regional enteritis (D) Ulcerative colitis

(B) intussusception (appendicitis: obstruction and inflammation of the appendix; regional enteritis: chronic granulomatous inflammatory disorder that affects the GI tract specifically the terminal ilium; ulcerative colitis: inflammatroy bowel disease that causes inflammation and sores (ulcers) in the digestive tract)

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae? (A) Manubrium (B) Jugular notch (C) Sternal angle (D) Xiphoid process

(B) jugular notch (sternal angle: T4-T5 and the xiphoid process is T10)

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Acute flexion (D) AP partial flexion

(B) lateral

The plane passing vertically through the body and dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is the (A) median sagittal plane (MSP) (B) midcoronal plane (C) sagittal plane (D) transverse plane

(B) midcoronal plane

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers (A) rest on the IR for immobilization (B) must be supported parallel to the IR (C) are radiographed in natural flexion (D) are radiographed in palmar flexion

(B) must be supported parallel to the IR (sponge)

The most proximal portion of the pharynx is the (A) laryngopharynx (B) nasopharynx (C) epiglottis (D) oropharynx

(B) nasopharynx

The floor of the cranium includes all of the following bones, except (A) the temporal bones (B) the occipital bone (C) the ethmoid bone (D) the sphenoid bone

(B) occipital bone (cranial bones are divided into two parts: the floor of the cranium and the calvarium. The calvarium is comprised of the frontal bone, parietal bones, and the occipital bone) (RON WOULD ACCEPT ETHMOID)

Which type of ileus is characterized by cessation of peristalsis? (A) Mechanical (B) Paralytic (C) Asymptomatic (D) Sterile

(B) paralytic (mechanical ileus: caused by a physical obstruction such as a tumor or adhesions)

What is the relationship between the midsagittal and midcoronal planes? (A) Parallel (B) Perpendicular (C) 45° (D) 70°

(B) perpendicular

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? (A) Dorsoplantar projection of the foot (B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis (C) Medial oblique position of the foot (D) Lateral foot

(B) plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20° cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? (A) Symphysis (B) Rami (C) Body (D) Angle

(B) rami

During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? (A) AP or PA erect (B) Right lateral decubitus (C) Left lateral decubitus (D) Ventral decubitus

(B) right lateral decubitus

During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the (A) subdural space (B) subarachnoid space (C) epidural space (D) epidermal space

(B) subarachnoid space

The laryngeal prominence is formed by the (A) thyroid gland (B) thyroid cartilage (C) vocal cords (D) pharynx

(B) thyroid cartilage

The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is (A) red marrow (B) yellow marrow (C) endosteum (D) cancellous tissue

(B) yellow marrow (red marrow is found within the proximal and distal extremities of long bones; endosteum lines the medullary cavity of long bones)

Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantar flexion 2. abduct 3. oblique (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3

(B)1 and 2 only; plantar flexion and abduct

The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed 1. 15° cephalad 2. two inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. 10° caudad (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. Condyloid 2. Sellar 3. Gomphosis (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 1 and 2 only; Condyloid and Sellar (diarthrotic joints, or synovial joints, are freely moveable; gomphosis is the root of the teeth

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1 (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following is/are part of the bony thorax? 1. Manubrium 2. Clavicles 3. 24 ribs (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The OML is elevated 15° from the horizontal 2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 1 and 3 only; the OML is elevated 15° from the horizontal and the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized (PA Caldwell)

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur, except (A) popliteal surface (B) intercondyloid fossa (C) intertrochanteric line (D) linea aspera

The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. plantar surface 2. anterior surface 3. dorsum (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90° to each other, are required (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only; both joints must be included in long bone studies and two views, at 90° to each other, are required (you would support both joints)

Which of the following is/are associated with a Colles' fracture? 1. Transverse fracture of the radial head 2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. Posterior or backward displacement (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Shoulder arthrography is performed to 1. evaluate humeral luxation 2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only; foreign body and soft tissue (if a fracture is suspected, extending the hand could cause additional pain and possible injury)

Central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening or self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following structures is/are located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbladder 3. Hepatic flexure (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen: 1. ilium 2. ischium 3. pubis (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following carpal(s) is best demonstrated by ulnar flexion/deviation? 1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Internal rotation shoulder (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s): 1. lateral cervical spine 2. lateral thoracic spine 3. lateral lumbar spine (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only; lateral thoracic spine and lateral lumbar spine (the cervical intervertebral foramina are well demonstrated when placed 45° to the IR and CR)

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed? 1. Lateral thumb 2. Lateral wrist 3. Lateral humerus (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

During atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. superimposed epicondyles (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is/are appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only; maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient and call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient

The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. parallel to the central ray (CR) 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. internal disk lesions 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord 3. posterior disk herniation (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the (A) transverse processes (B) vertebral arches (C) laminae (D) pedicles

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Below diaphragm, ribs are better demonstrated when 1. the patient is in the AP erect position 2. respiration is suspended at the end of full exhalation 3. the patient is in the recumbent position (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The act of expiration will cause the 1. diaphragm to move inferiorly 2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly 3. diaphragm to move superiorly (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? 1. The heads of the first row of phalanges 2. The cuboid 3. The cuneiforms (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm require that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only; the radius and ulna be superimposed distally and the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly (the epicondyles should be perpendicular to the IR)

The following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is/are true: 1. the midsagittal plane should be about 60° to the IR 2. the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only; the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft and an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained (MSP is 30° to the IR, the coronal plane is 60° to the IR)

Which of the following is/are distal to the tibial plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is/are demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned (A) 30°-40° LPO (B) 30°-40° RPO (C) 25°-30° LPO (D) 25°-30° RPO

The following position is used to demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation: (A) AP (B) lateral (C) 30° RPO (D) 45° LPO

(C) 30° RPO (the articular facets (zygapophyseal joints) of the L5-S1 articulation form a 30° angle with the MSP; 45° oblique position demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints of L1-L4

Which of the following positions best demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular articulation? (A) AP (B) 90° mediolateral (C) 45° internal rotation (D) 45° external rotation

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees? (A) AP recumbent (B) Lateral recumbent (C) AP erect (D) Medial oblique

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? (A) Radial flexion/deviation (B) Ulnar flexion/deviation (C) AP (medial) oblique (D) AP (lateral) oblique

Which of the following anatomic structures is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest? (A) Esophagus (B) Trachea (C) Cardiac apex (D) Superimposed scapular borders

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture? (A) Pyelonephrosis (B) Nephroptosis (C) Hydronephrosis (D) Cystourethritis

(C) Hydronephrosis (pyelonephrosis: condition of the renal pelvis; nephroptosis: drooping or downward displacement of the kidneys; cystourethritis: inflammation of the bladder and urethra)

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilms' tumor? (A) BE (B) Upper GI (C) IVU (D) Bone survey

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations? (A) Intravenous urogram (B) Retrograde pyelogram (C) Myelogram (D) Cystogram

Which of the following positions/projections is used to demonstrate a nearly frontal view of the sternum? (A) AP (B) PA (C) RAO (D) LAO

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae? (A) PA (B) Left lateral (C) RPO (D) LPO

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra upon the vertebra below it? (A) Spondylitis (B) Spondylolysis (C) Spondylolisthesis (D) Spondylosis

(C) Sondylolisthesis (spondylolysis is the breakdown of the pars interarticularis; spondylosis refers to degenerative changes occurring in the vertebra; sondylitis is inflammation of one or more vertebrae)

The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the (A) T2-T3 interspace fifth thoracic vertebra (B) T9-T10 interspace (C) T5 (D) costal margin

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in (A) sonography (B) computed tomography (CT) (C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) nuclear medicine

Persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is referred to as (A) an atrial septal defect (B) a ventricular septal defect (C) a patent ductus arteriosus (D) coarctation of the aorta

(C) a patent ductus arteriosus (atrial septal defect is a small hole in ther interatrial septum; ventricular septal defect is a congenital heart condition involving a hole in the interventricular septum that allows oxygenated and unoxygenated blood to mix; coarctatioin of the aorta is a narrowing or constriction of the aorta)

Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following, except when (A) object shape does not coincide with the shape of x-ray beam (B) object plane is not parallel with x-ray tube and/or IR (C) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR (D) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot? (A) Invert the foot (B) Evert the foot (C) Angle the CR 10° posteriorly (D) Angle the CR 10° anteriorly

Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach? (A) Place the patient in a 35°-40° right anterior oblique (RAO) position (B) Place the patient in a lateral position (C) Angle the CR 35°-45° cephalad (D) Angle the CR 35°-45° caudad

(C) angle the CR 35-40° cephalad (high and transverse stomach means the patient has a hyperstenic body habitus and this CR placement "opens up" the stomach)

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the (A) diploe (B) lambda (C) bregma (D) pterion

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be (A) iodinated contrast evening before examination; water only in the morning (B) NPO after midnight (C) cathartics and cleansing enemas (D) NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and empty bladder before scout image

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image will demonstrate the petrous pyramids (A) below the orbits (B) in the lower third of the orbits (C) completely within the orbits (D) above the orbits

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow resting on table and flexed 80°, and the CR directed 45° laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? (A) Radial head (B) Ulnar head (C) Coronoid process (D) Olecranon process

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is (A) cephalad (B) proximal (C) distal (D) lateral

Which of the following conditions is characterized by "flattening" of the hemidiaphragms? (A) Pneumothorax (B) Pleural effusion (C) Emphysema (D) Pneumonia

(C) emphysema (Chest radiographs demonstrating emphysema shows irreversible trapping of air that increases gradually and overexpands the lung which "flattens" the hemidiaphragms and widens the intercostal spaces; patients would have a "barrel shaped" chest)

With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the IR, the OML forming a 37° angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated? (A) Occipital bone (B) Frontal bone (C) Facial bones (D) Basal foramina

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine? (A) Open-mouth projection (B) Moving-mandible AP (C) Flexion and extension laterals (D) Right and left bending AP

The structure labeled number 3 in the image is the (A) acromion process (B) coronoid process (C) greater tubercle (D) lesser tubercle

(C) greater tubercle (1. acromioclavicular joint 2. acromion process 3. greater tubercle 4. coracoid process 5. glenohumeral joint)

In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed (A) half inch posterior to the anterior nasal spine (B) half inch posterior to the glabella (C) half inch distal to the nasion (D) half inch anterior to the EAM

The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate (A) the duodenal loop (B) filling of the duodenal bulb (C) hiatal hernia (D) hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine? (A) Oblique cervical spine, seated (B) AP cervical spine, recumbent (C) Horizontal beam lateral (D) Laterals in flexion and extension

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula? (A) Retrograde pyelogram (B) Voiding cystourethrogram (C) Hysterosalpingogram (D) Myelogram

How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries? (A) Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position (B) Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained (C) Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position (D) Perform the examination AP supine at 44-in SID

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head? (A) AP (B) External rotation (C) Internal rotation (D) Neutral position

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? (A) AP (B) External rotation (C) Internal rotation (D) Neutral position

(C) internal rotation (external rotation is the true AP of the shoulder demonstrates the greater tubercle in profile; neutral position places the greater tubercle anteriorly but still lateral to the lesser tubercle)

That portion of a long bone from which it lengthens/grows is the (A) diaphysis (B) epiphysis (C) metaphysis (D) apophysis

(C) metaphysis (diaphysis: primary center of ossification; epiphysis: secondary center of ossification; apophysis: refers to a bony projection without an independent ossification center)

How should a mobile chest examination be performed to demonstrate air-fluid levels on a patient seated semi-upright about 70°? (A) With CR directed 20° caudad (B) With CR directed 20° cephalad (C) With CR parallel to the floor (D) With CR perpendicular to coronal plane

(C) parallel to the floor (if the CR is angled caudally to compensate for the patient only being semi-erect, any air-fluid levels can be distorted or obliterated)

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the (A) lateral projection (B) PA axial (Caldwell method) projection (C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection (D) AP axial (Towne method) projection

The condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs is referred to as (A) pneumothorax (B) atelectasis (C) pulmonary embolism (D) hypoxia

(C) pulmonary embolism (pneumothorax: air in the pleural cavity; atelectasis: full or partial collapsed lung; hypoxia: low tissue oxygen)

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called (A) hypertension (B) elasticity (C) pulse (D) pressure

All the following positions are likely to be used for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel, except (A) lateral rectum (B) AP axial rectosigmoid (C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen (D) RAO and LAO abdomen

With the patient in a 40° RPO position, affected side down, hip joint centered to IR, and CR directed perpendicularly to the IR at the level of the ASIS, the structure best demonstrated is the (A) right SI joint (B) left SI joint (C) right ilium (D) left ilium

All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true, except (A) the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination (B) retained fecal material can obscure pathology (C) single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions (D) double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions

Mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage are functions of which body system? (A) Endocrine (B) Integumentary (C) Skeletal (D) Muscular

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the (A) pulmonary artery (B) pulmonary veins (C) superior vena cava (D) thoracic aorta

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation? (A) AP knee (B) Lateral knee (C) Tangential patella (D) Tunnel view

All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true, except (A) the OML is perpendicular to the IR (B) the petrous pyramids fill the orbits (C) the MSP is parallel to the IR (D) the CR is perpendicular to the IR and exits the nasion

Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux? (A) Retrograde urogram (B) Intravenous urogram (IVU) (C) Voiding cystourethrogram (D) Retrograde cystogram

(C) voiding cystourethrogram (retrograde urogram and cystogram demonstrate anatomy, not function, of the urinary tract; intravenous urogram demonstrates function of the urinary tract but does not evaluate the urethra)

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint? (A) 5° caudad (B) 10° caudad (C) 5° cephalad (D) 0° (perpendicular)

(D) 0° (perpendicular) (less than 19 cm CR is 3-5° caudal, 19-24 cm CR is perpendicular, 24+ cm 3-5° cephalic)

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by: 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90° flexion 3. insufficient flexion (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 3 only; trauma or other pathology and insufficient flexion

According to ACR (2017), patients with acute kidney injury or severe chronic kidney disease, or those undergoing arterial catheter study, should adhere to the following guideline(s) for iodinated contrast medium administration: 1. patients should temporarily discontinue metformin at time of (or prior to) the procedure 2. withhold metformin for 48 h after the procedure 3. metformin may be reinstituted only after renal function studies have been re-evaluated and found acceptable (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is/are correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? 1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR 2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs 3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities 2. A fiberoptic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities, a fiberoptic endoscope and polyethylene catheters

Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is/are correct? 1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. The hands are obliqued about 45°, palm up (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained, used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis, and the hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the IR 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; epicondyles perpendicular to the IR, hand pronated and supinated as much as possible, hand lateral and in internal rotation

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia, patellofemoral joint should be visualized, femoral condyles should be superimposed

Which of the following are mediastinal structures? 1. Heart 2. Trachea 3. Esophagus (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; heart, trachea, and esphoagus (mediastinum is the space between the lungs that contains the heart, great vessels, trachea, esophagus, and thymus glands)

Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is/are true? 1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated 2. Sterile technique is observed 3. MRI can follow x-ray (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; ligament tears can be demonstrated, sterile technique is observed, and MRI can follow x-ray

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate 1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s) 2. air in the pleural cavity 3. foreign body (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s), air in the pleural cavity, and foreign body

For the AP projection of the scapula, the 1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body 2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated 3. exposure is made during quiet breathing (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body, patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated, and exposure is made during quiet breathing

Image identification markers should include 1. patient's name and/or ID number 2. date 3. a right or left marker (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; patient's name and/or ID number, date, and a right or left marker

When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15° caudal angle, the following should be demonstrated: 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits, equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally, and symmetrical petrous pyramids

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; scapular y view, inferosuperior axial, and transthoracic lateral (Lawrence Method)

Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? 1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus 2. Suspected large-bowel obstruction 3. Preoperative patients (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; suspected perforation of a hollow viscus, suspected large-bowel obstruction, and preoperative patients

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on 1. the respiratory phase 2. body habitus 3. patient position (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; the respiratory phase, body habitus, and patient position

Which of the following is/are effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. Use of PA position 2. Use of breast shields 3. Use of compensating filtration (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; use of PA position, use of breast shields, and use of compensating filtration

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; uterine tubal patency, mass lesions in the uterine cavity, and uterine position

Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. Obesity 2. Smoking 3. Stress (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1,2, and 3; obesity, smoking, and stress

With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle? (A) 5°-15° caudad (B) 5°-15° cephalad (C) 15°-30° cephalad (D) 15°-30° caudad

(D) 15-30° caudad (PAY ATTENTION THAT IT SAYS PA YOU DINGUS)

In the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed (A) parallel to C4 (B) perpendicular to C4 (C) 15° cephalad to C4 (D) 15° caudad to C4

(D) 15° caudad to C4

Which of the following projections/positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture? (A) Internal and external rotation (B) AP and tangential (C) AP and AP axial (D) AP and scapular Y

(D) AP and scapular Y

An acromioclavicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection: (A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder (B) AP recumbent, both shoulders (C) AP erect, affected shoulder (D) AP erect, both shoulders

(D) AP erect, both shoulders

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? (A) Foramen magnum (B) Trachea (C) Pharynx (D) C4

(D) C4

Which body habitus type is characterized by a short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach? (A) Asthenic (B) Hyposthenic (C) Sthenic (D) Hypersthenic

(D) Hypersthenic (hypersthenic: very large individual with short and wide heart and lungs, high transverse stomach, high horizontal gallbaldder, and peripheral colon; sthenic: average, athletic, most predominant type; hyposthenic: thinner and frailer with organs positioned somewhat lower; asthenic: smaller in the extreme, with a long thorax, a very long, almost pelvic stomach, a low medial gall bladder, a medial and redundant colon)

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the (A) costal margin (B) umbilicus (C) xiphoid tip (D) fourth lumbar vertebra

(D) L4 (costal margin: L3, umbilicus: L3-L4 interspace, xiphoid tip: T10

During an upper GI examination of a stomach of average size and shape, a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb are demonstrated. The position used is most likely (A) AP erect (B) PA (C) RAO (D) LPO

(D) LPO

Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR? (A) AP (B) PA (C) RPO (D) LPO

(D) LPO

Which of the following projections/positions will best demonstrate a subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation? (A) Tangential (B) AP axial (C) Transthoracic lateral (D) PA oblique scapular Y

(D) PA oblique scapular Y

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that (A) the glabellomeatal line is vertical (B) the acanthiomeatal line is vertical (C) a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical (D) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

(D) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane the mastoid tip is vertical

In the AP axial projection, or bilateral "frog-leg" position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR? (A) Adducted 25° from the horizontal (B) Abducted 25° from the vertical (C) Adducted 40° from the horizontal (D) Abducted 40° from the vertical

(D) abducted 40° from the vertical

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as (A) blowout (B) Le Fort (C) contracture (D) contrecoup

(D) contrecoup (blowout fractures: fractures that occur to the floor of the orbit; Le Fort: severe bilateral maxillary fractures; contracture: shortening of muscle fibers)

Which of the following positions of the abdomen is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table and the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest? (A) AP abdomen (B) PA abdomen (C) Ventral decubitus position (D) Dorsal decubitus position

(D) dorsal decubitus position

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations? (A) Barium examinations (B) Spine radiography (C) Skull radiography (D) Emergency and trauma radiography

(D) emergency and trauma radiography

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the (A) position of the organ (B) size and shape of the organ (C) diverticula (D) gastric or bowel mucosa

(D) gastric or bowel mucosa

Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral oblique

(D) lateral oblique

Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral oblique

(D) lateral oblique

The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection: (A) scapular Y (B) AP scapula (C) medial oblique elbow (D) lateral oblique elbow

(D) lateral oblique elbow

The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the (A) coronal plane 90° to the IR (B) midsagittal plane 90° to the IR (C) coronal plane 20° to the IR (D) midsagittal plane 20° to the IR

(D) midsagittal plane 20°to the IR

The innominate bone is located in the (A) middle cranial fossa (B) posterior cranial fossa (C) foot (D) pelvis

(D) pelvis

Structures located proximal to the carpal bones include (A) distal interphalangeal joints (B) proximal interphalangeal joints (C) metacarpals (D) radial styloid process

(D) radial styloid process

A pacemaker electrode can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, and advanced to the (A) left atrium (B) right atrium (C) left ventricle (D) right ventricle

(D) right ventricle (the lead would go through the subclavian vein to the right atrium and then positioned at the apex of the right ventricle)

The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the (A) mucosa (B) muscularis (C) submucosa (D) serosa

(D) serosa (outer to inner layers of the digestive tract are: serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa)

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth? (A) Frontal (B) Ethmoidal (C) Maxillary (D) Sphenoidal

(D) sphenodial

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the (A) cisterna magna (B) individual intervertebral disks (C) subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae (D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae (the spinal cord ends at the level of the first or second lumbar vertebrae)

The following skull position will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process: (A) AP axial (B) lateral (C) parietoacanthial (D) submentovertical (SMV)

(D) submentovertical (SMV)

The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is (A) PA projection wrist, radial deviation (B) PA axial projection wrist, Stecher method (C) AP oblique hands/Norgaard method (D) tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method

(D) tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method (radial deviation: used to demonstrate medial carpals and their articulations; Norgaard Method: (Ball-catcher's) used to detect evidence of early rheumatoid arthritis; Stetcher Method: used to demonstrate scaphoid fractures)

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true, except (A) the right lung has two fissures (B) the inferior portion of a lung is its base (C) each lung is enclosed in pleural membrane (D) the main stem bronchi enter the lung fissure

(D) the main stem bronchi enter the lung fissure (the main stem bronchi enters the through the hilum; left lung has 2 lobes, 1 fissure (no horizontal fissure); right lung has 3 lobes, 2 fissures)

That portion of the humerus which articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint is the (A) semilunar/trochlear notch (B) radial head (C) capitulum (D) trochlea

(D) trochlea

The term valgus refers to (A) turned outward (B) turned inward (C) rotated medially (D) rotated laterally

A: turned outward (varus: turned inward)

(D) the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7 (should be a horizontal CR)

All the following statements regarding the position shown in the image are true, except (A) a left pleural effusion could be demonstrated (B) a right pneumothorax could be demonstrated (C) a left lateral decubitus position is illustrated (D) the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7

(D) 1, 2, and 3; the pulmonary apices are demonstrated, the air filled trachea and carina are demonstrated, and 10 posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm

An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in the image would include the following: 1. the pulmonary apices are demonstrated 2. the air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated 3. ten posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) right lateral decubitus

The image shown in the image was made in what position? (A) AP or PA erect (B) Dorsal decubitus (C) Left lateral decubitus (D) Right lateral decubitus

The letter A in the image indicates (A) a left anterior rib (B) a right posterior rib (C) a left posterior rib (D) a right anterior rib

(B) spinous process of L1 (#1: 12th rib, #2: body or spinous process of L1, #3: intervertebral disc space, #4: transverse process of L3, #5: psoas muscle)

The number 2 in the image indicates (A) body of L2 (B) spinous process of L1 (C) spinous process of L3 (D) transverse process of L3

(C) inferior articular process (1. lamina 2. inferior articulating process 3. spinous process 4. superior articular process 5. pedicles 6. vertebral body)

The number 2 in the image represents which of the following structures? (A) Body (B) Pedicle (C) Inferior articular process (D) Superior articular process

(B) 2 only; supine and the CR angled 30° cephalad

The position illustrated in the radiograph may be obtained with the patient 1. supine and the CR angled 30° caudad 2. supine and the CR angled 30° cephalad 3. prone and the CR angled 30° cephalad (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

The radiograph shown in the image demonstrates the articulation between the 1. talus and the calcaneus 2. calcaneus and the cuboid 3. talus and the navicular (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) prone recumbent

The radiograph shown in the image was most likely made in the following position: (A) supine recumbent (B) prone recumbent (C) PA upright (D) supine Trendelenburg

(D) odontoid process (1. zygapophyseal joint, 2. vertebral body, 3. posterior arch of C1, 4. odontoid/dens, 5. anterior arch of C1, 6. body of C2)

The structure labeled 4 in the image is the (A) anterior arch of C1 (B) body of C1 (C) body of C2 (D) odontoid process

(A) maxillary sinus (#1: frontal sinus; #2: ethmoid sinus; #3: sphenoid sinus)

The structure labeled 4 in the image is the (A) maxillary sinus (B) sphenoidal sinus (C) ethmoidal sinus (D) frontal sinus

(D) left vertebral artery (1. aortic arch 2. left subclavian artery 3. left vertebral artery 4. left common carotid artery 5. right common carotid artery 6. brachiocephalic artery 7. right subclavian artery)

The structure labeled number 3 in the image is the (A) left subclavian artery (B) brachiocephalic artery (C) right common carotid artery (D) left vertebral artery

(C) glenohumeral joint (1. acromioclavicular joint 2. acromion process 3. greater tubercle 4. coracoid process 5. glenohumeral joint)

The structure labeled number 5 in the image is the (A) sternoclavicular joint (B) acromioclavicular joint (C) glenohumeral joint (D) acromiohumeral joint

(B) brachiocephalic artery (1. aortic arch 2. left subclavian artery 3. left vertebral artery 4. left common carotid artery 5. right common carotid artery 6. brachiocephalic artery 7. right subclavian artery)

The structure labeled number 6 in the image is the (A) left subclavian artery (B) brachiocephalic artery (C) right common carotid artery (D) left vertebral artery

(B) 1 and 2 only; lateral recumbent and seated

The structures visualized when positioned as in the image could also be seen when performed with the patient in the following position(s): 1. lateral recumbent 2. seated 3. erect AP (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in the image, the radiographer should (A) flex the knee more acutely (B) flex the knee less acutely (C) direct the CR 5°-7° cephalad (D) direct the CR 5°-7° caudad

Ron wants to omit this question

Trash question.

What condition(s) is/are demonstrated in the image? 1. Emphysema 2. Pneumothorax 3. Pleural Effusion (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

What is that portion of bone labeled C in the pediatric PA hand image (A) Diaphysis (B) Epiphysis (C) Metaphysis (D) Apophysis

(A) 7°

What is the degree of difference between the baselines numbered 2 and 3 in the image and used for various projections of the skull? (A) 7° (B) 9° (C) 15° (D) 23°

(B) pisiform (1. trapezium 2. scaphoid 3. radial styloid process 4. base of the fifth metacarpal 5. pisiform 6. ulnar styloid process)

What is the structure labeled number 5 in the image? (A) Base of the second metacarpal (B) Pisiform (C) Trapezium (D) Trapezoid

(B) AP, external rotation

What projection was used to obtain the image seen? (A) AP, internal rotation (B) AP, external rotation (C) AP, neutral position (D) AP axial

(B) angle the CR about 30° cephalad

What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in the image? (A) Use a perpendicular CR (B) Angle the CR about 30° cephalad (C) Angle the CR about 30° caudad (D) Angle the MSP 15° toward the affected side

(A) 1 only; posterior aspect

Which aspect(s) of the scapula are demonstrated in the image? 1. Its posterior aspect 2. Its costal surface 3. Its sternal articular surface (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) trochlea (#1 is the medial epicondyle, #2 is olecranon process, #3 is the trochlea, #4 is the coronoid process, #5 is the radial head)

Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated indicated by the number 3 in the image? (A) Medial epicondyle (B) Trochlea (C) Capitulum (D) Olecranon process

(D) dextrocadia (the heart is seen on the right side)

Which of the following conditions is demonstrated in the image? (A) Right upper lobe atelectasis (B) Left upper lobe atelectasis (C) Pneumothorax (D) Dextrocardia

(C) coracoid process (1. supra scapular notch 2. coracoid process 3. acromion process 4. humerus 5. glenoid fossa 6. lateral angle 7. lateral/axillary border 8. apex/inferior angle 9. medial/vertebral border 10. infraspinatus fossa 11. supraspinatus fossa 12. superior angle 13. scapular spine)

Which of the following is represented by the number 2 in the image? (A) Acromion process (B) Superior angle (C) Coracoid process (D) Apex

(A) medial border (1. supra scapular notch 2. coracoid process 3. acromion process 4. humerus 5. glenoid fossa 6. lateral angle 7. lateral/axillary border 8. apex/inferior angle 9. medial/vertebral border 10. infraspinatus fossa 11. supraspinatus fossa 12. superior angle 13. scapular spine)

Which of the following is represented by the number 9 in the image? (A) Medial border (B) Lateral border (C) Inferior angle (D) Superior angle

(D) Psoas muscle

Which of the following is well demonstrated just posterior to the lumbar vertebra in the image? (A) Inferior vena cava (B) Aorta (C) Gallbladder (D) Psoas muscle

Which of the following is/are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine shown in the image? 1. Zygapophyseal articulations 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Inferior articular processes (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15° from the horizontal (PA Caldwell image that shows frontal and anterior ethmodial sinuses)

Which of the following methods was used to obtain the following image (A) Erect PA, chin extended, OML forming 37° to IR (B) Erect PA, OML, and CR perpendicular to IR (C) Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15° from horizontal (D) Erect PA, chin extended, OML 30° from horizontal

(B) 1 and 2 only; image A was made with cephalad angulation and image B was made with caudal angulation

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the images shown in the image? 1. Image A was made with cephalad angulation 2. Image B was made with caudal angulation 3. Images A and B were made with CR 15° cephalad (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; it demonstrates RAO sternum, exposure was made during shallow respiration, and sternum is projected in the left thorax

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the image? 1. It demonstrates RAO sternum 2. Exposure was made during shallow respiration 3. Sternum is projected in the left thorax (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3; the patient is placed in an RAO position, the midcoronal plane is about 60° to the IR, and the acromion process is free of superimposition (patient is obliqued 45-60 degrees)

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the image? 1. The patient is placed in an RAO position 2. The midcoronal plane is about 60° to the IR 3. The acromion process is free of superimposition (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 2 and 3 only; image B demonstrates internal rotation and the greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the images shown? 1. Image A demonstrates internal rotation 2. Image B demonstrates internal rotation 3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only; it provides a lateral view and it is useful in trauma situations (transthoracic lateral projection of the proximal humerus)

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the shoulder image seen in the image? 1. The unaffected arm is adjacent to the IR 2. It provides a lateral view 3. It is useful in trauma situations (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 2 only; this projection is performed to evaluate the scapula

Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the radiograph shown? 1. The acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib 2. This projection is performed to evaluate the scapula 3. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following statements regarding the image is correct (A) The right kidney is more parallel to the IR (B) The image was made in the LPO position (C) The right ureter is better visualized (D) The image was made post-void

(D) 1, 2 , and 3

Which of the following statements regarding the image is/are true 1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses 2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits 3. The perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) zygomatic arch (#1; mandibular angle, #2: zygomatic arch, #3: coronoid process, #4: maxillary sinuses; image is a Water's Method parietoacanthial projection)

Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in the image? (A) Maxillary sinus (B) Coronoid process (C) Zygomatic arch (D) Coracoid process

(D) Submentovertex projection (Caldwell Method (PA axial): frontal and ethmoid sinuses)

Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in the image? (A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method) (B) Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) (C) Lateral projection. (D) Submentovertex projection

With the patient positioned as illustrated in the image, which of the following structures is best demonstrated? (A) Patella (B) Patellofemoral articulation (C) Intercondyloid fossa (D) Tibial tuberosity

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