Procedures Ch 20 review questions
A group of radioactive drugs used in the diagnosis and treatment of disease is the definition for: a. radiopharmaceutical. b. gamma emitters. c. radionuclide. d. photon-emissive materials.
A
A hyperthyroid with a higher uptake of radiopharmaceutical may indicate: a. Graves' disease. b. iodine-dependent thyroid. c. multiple thyroid nodule. d. thyroiditis.
A
A loss of ____ of trabecular bone is necessary before it can be visualized on conventional radiographs. a. 30% to 50% b. 10% to 20% c. 2% to 5% d. 60% to 70%
A
A patient's T-score given in a bone density report: a. compares the patient's BMD with that of a young, healthy person of the same gender. b. compares the patient's BMD with that of an age-matched normal population. c. compares the patient's BMD with that of an age- and sex-matched normal population. d. is the same for all measurement sites.
A
A small growth inside the duct of the breast near the nipple is termed: a. intraductal papilloma. b. Paget's disease. c. gynecomastia. d. fibroadenoma.
A
Alendronate (Fosamax) is an example of a(n): a. bisphosphonate. b. selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM). c. parathyroid hormone. d. estrogen.
A
Bone cells that are responsible for bone resorption are: a. osteoclasts. b. osteoblasts. c. osteons. d. osteocytes.
A
During a brain seizure, the PET image will demonstrate a(n) ____ in sugar utilization at the seizure site. a. increase b. decrease
A
How is the breast positioned for the mediolateral oblique projection? a. Drawn anterior and medial away from the chest wall b. Drawn posterior and lateral away from the chest wall c. Drawn inferior and medial toward the chest wall d. drawn anterior and lateral away from the chest wall
A
How is the head of the patient positioned for the laterally exaggerated craniocaudal projection? a. Turned away from the side being examined b. Turned toward the side being examined c. Tilted toward the IR d. Tilted away from the IR
A
How much central ray (CR) angulation is required for the mediolateral oblique projection of an average-sized breast? a. 45° b. 60° c. 70° d. 90°
A
Magnification studies of the breast and breast specimens should use a focal spot size of: a. 0.1 mm. b. 0.1 cm. c. 0.3 mm. d. 0.5 mm.
A
PET is an acronym for positron: a. emission tomography. b. emission technique. c. energy tomography. d. energy targeting.
A
Regions of metastatic disease in the body have a(n) ____ uptake of 18F-FDG. a. increased b. decreased
A
The glandular tissue of the breast is divided into 15 to 20: a. lobes. b. sections. c. partitions. d. ducts
A
The junction between the inferior aspect of the breast and anterior chest wall is termed the: a. inframammary fold. b. pectoralis major. c. retromammary space. d. inferior margin.
A
The portion of the breast near the nipple is termed the: a. apex. b. base. c. inframammary fold. d. alveolar portion
A
The risk of breast cancer occurring in men is about ____ of that for women. a. 1% to 2% b. 5% to 6% c. 10% to 11% d. None of the above; breast cancer does not occur in men
A
The type of atom whose nucleus disintegrates spontaneously is a(n): a. radionuclide. b. radioisotope. c. parent. d. isotope
A
What CR angle (in relationship to the vertical) is required for the mediolateral (true lateral) projection? a. 90° b. 45° c. 60° d. 70°
A
What is the American College of Radiology standard for maximum repeat exposures taken during mammography? a. Less than 5% b. Less than 3% c. Less than 10% d. Less than 15%
A
What is the breast classification of a 35-year-old woman without children? a. Fibroglandular b. Fibro-fatty c. Fatty d. Fibroconnective
A
What kV range should be used for analog (film-screen) mammography? a. 23 to 28 b. 30 to 35 c. 50 to 65 d. 20 to 22
A
Which is the method of choice for evaluating trabecular bone? a. Quantitative computed tomography b. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry c. Quantitative ultrasound d. Dual-energy photon absorptiometry
A
Which member of the nuclear medicine health team administers the radionuclide to the patient? a. Nuclear medicine technologist b. Nuclear medicine physician c. Health physicist d. Radiation safety officer (RSO)
A
Which member of the nuclear medicine health team performs statistical analysis of examination data? a. Nuclear medicine technologist b. Nuclear medicine physician c. Health physicist d. Radiation safety officer (RSO)
A
Which member of the radiation oncology team administers the actual radiation treatment? a. Radiation therapist b. Radiation oncologist c. Radiation oncology nurse d. Medical physicist and dosimetrist
A
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used for thyroid uptake studies? a. Sodium iodide (123I) b. Technetium 99-m c. Xenon 133 d. Thallium
A
Why can AEC not be used for mammography of a breast with an implant? a. The image will be overexposed. b. The image will be underexposed. c. AEC provides greater patient dose as compared with manual techniques. d. This statement is false; AEC should be used for all studies including implants.
A
A patient with a spine T-score of between −1 and −2.5 is classified according to the World Health Organization as: a. normal. b. osteopenic. c. osteoporotic. d. severely osteoporotic
B
Cobalt 60 units emit gamma rays at an average energy of ____ MeV. a. 2.25 b. 1.25 c. 8.25 d. 10.25
B
Estrogen replacement therapy is given primarily to: a. stimulate new bone growth. b. reduce bone loss. c. promote healing of stress fractures of the hip. d. increase blood flow to bone.
B
How should a breast implant be moved for a craniocaudal projection? a. It is displaced anteriorly toward the apex. b. It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall. c. It is displaced laterally. d. No attempt should be made to move the implant because of the danger of rupture.
B
Ionizing radiation with characteristics of an electron but emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom is identified as a(n): a. alpha particle. b. beta particle. c. gamma ray. d. positron
B
Most PET tracers have a half-life of: a. 5 to 10 minutes. b. 120 seconds to 110 minutes. c. 1 to 10 seconds. d. 24 hours.
B
Noninvasive cancers (DCIS and LCIS) comprise approximately ____ of all breast cancer diagnoses. a. 10% b. 15% to 20% c. 25% to 30% d. 60% to 70%
B
The most common projections performed as routine projections throughout the United States and Canada are: a. bilateral CC, MLO, and ML. b. bilateral CC and MLO. c. unilateral CC, MLO, and XCCL. d. unilateral CC, MLO, XCCL, and ML
B
The pigmented area surrounding the nipple is termed the: a. tail of the breast. b. areola. c. lobules. d. prolongation
B
Using the anode-heel effect, the cathode of the x-ray tube should be placed over the: a. apex. b. base. c. midportion. d. nipple.
B
What is the breast classification of a 45-year-old woman with three or more pregnancies? a. Fibroglandular b. Fibro-fatty c. Fatty d. Fibroconnective
B
What is the chief disadvantage of using MRI as a breast screening tool? a. High patient dose b. High false-positive rate c. Patient discomfort d. Poor tissue resolution
B
What is the most referenced dose unit in mammographic imaging? a. Mean skin dose b. Mean glandular dose c. Mean dose equivalent d. Mean exposure dose
B
What is the product of a positron and electron combining and then undergoing annihilation during the PET imaging process? a. X-rays are formed. b. Two 511 keV photons are formed. c. A single gamma ray is formed. d. Two high-speed beta particles are formed
B
What type of radionuclide tracer is most commonly used with PET studies of the breast? a. Sulfur colloid b. 18F-FDG c. Technetium-99m-sestamibi d. None of the above
B
Which imaging modality is most ideal for a breast with an implant? a. Analog mammography b. MRI c. Sonography d. CT
B
Which member of the radiation oncology team determines the treatment plan? a. Radiation therapist b. Radiation oncologist c. Radiation oncology nurse d. Medical physicist and dosimetrist
B
Which of the following breast tissues is least dense? a. Glandular b. Adipose c. Fibrous d. Connective
B
Which of the following definitions would apply to the ACR abbreviation SIO? a. Slight inferior oblique b. Superolateral-inferomedial oblique c. Sagittal image oblique d. Superoinferior oblique
B
Which of the following is NOT a technique or method of bone densitometry being performed today? a. Quantitative ultrasound b. Single-energy photon absorptiometry (SPA) c. Quantitative computed tomography (QCT) d. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
B
Which of the following techniques or methods provides bone mineral density (BMD) measurements for both trabecular and cortical bones? a. Quantitative ultrasound b. Quantitative computed tomography c. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry d. All of the above
B
A patient with a spine T-score of less than or equal to −2.5 (but no fractures) is classified according to the World Health Organization as: a. normal. b. osteopenic. c. osteoporotic. d. severely osteoporotic
C
A patient's Z-score given in a bone density report: a. compares the patient's BMD with that of the normal population. b. compares the patient's BMD with that of an age-matched normal population. c. compares the patient's BMD with that of an average individual of the same sex and age. d. is the same for all measurement sites.
C
Another term for short distance radiation therapy is: a. gamma exposure. b. external beam. c. brachytherapy. d. teletherapy.
C
Computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported to improve cancer detection rates by: a. 2%. b. 4%. c. 5% to 15%. d. 50%.
C
In which quadrant of the left breast would the 7 o'clock position be located? a. UOQ b. UIQ c. LIQ d. LOQ
C
MGD is an abbreviation for: a. modulation gradient distance. b. mammographic glandular dose. c. mean glandular dose. d. microglandular dose.
C
Often, the gamma camera in nuclear medicine systems is coupled with ____ to provide both an anatomic and functional study of the body. a. functional MRI b. sonography c. CT d. SPECT
C
Technetium 99m has a physical half-life of approximately: a. 15 to 20 minutes. b. 120 to 150 minutes. c. 6 hours. d. 12 hours
C
The 2 o'clock position in the left breast corresponds to the ____ o'clock position in the right breast. a. 2 b. 8 c. 10 d. 5
C
The U.S. Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) of October 1994 requires that: a. all mammograms be performed with film-screen systems with less than a 2% repeat rate. b. patient skin dose be reduced to less than 200 mrad per projection as monitored by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS). c. all sites (except VA facilities) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS. d. all women older than age 40 have a screening mammogram.
C
The average male breast is classified as being: a. fibroglandular. b. fibro-fatty. c. fatty. d. muscle
C
The most common type of breast cancer is: a. lobular carcinoma. b. fibroadenoma. c. infiltrating ductal carcinoma. d. intraductal papilloma.
C
The process of combining PET and CT data sets into a hybrid image is the definition for: a. back projection. b. Fourier transformation. c. co-registration. d. selective filtration.
C
The spontaneous transmutation of a radionuclide resulting in a decrease of the number of radioactive events in a sample is the definition for: a. biologic half-life. b. disintegration. c. decay. d. equilibrium.
C
What is most generally the type of shielding used during mammography? a. Breast shielding b. Thyroid shielding c. Apron shielding d. No shielding
C
What is the energy source used with digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)? a. Radionuclide b. Pulsed magnetic field c. Conventional mammography x-ray tube d. Ultrabright light
C
What is the name of the device required to produce positron-emitting elements? a. Linear accelerator b. Particle accelerator c. Cyclotron d. Positron generator
C
What type of contrast media is employed for a contrast mammogram? a. Carbon dioxide b. Microbubbles c. Iodinated d. Nitrogen
C
Which member of the nuclear medicine health team is responsible for calibration and maintenance of imaging equipment? a. Nuclear medicine technologist b. Nuclear medicine physician c. Health physicist d. Radiation safety officer (RSO)
C
Which of the following imaging modalities can best distinguish between a solid mass and a cyst in the breast? a. Film-screen mammography b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Sonography d. Digital mammography
C
Which of the following is NOT a possible risk factor for osteoporosis? a. Estrogen deficiency b. Alcohol abuse c. Excessive body weight d. Sedentary lifestyle
C
Which of the following is most effective in demonstrating a breast with an implant? a. Mayer method b. ACR technique c. Eklund method d. Sonography
C
Which of the following projections best demonstrates the axillary tissue of the breast and a portion of the pectoral muscle? a. Craniocaudal b. Mediolateral oblique c. Exaggerated craniocaudal d. Mediolateral
C
Which one of the following imaging modalities is best for detecting silicone leakage from an intracapsular rupture of a breast implant? a. Nuclear medicine b. PET c. MRI d. Ultrasound
C
Which patient position is preferred for most mammogram projections? a. Supine b. Prone c. Standing d. Decubitus
C
Which radioactive tracer is commonly used to assess amino acid metabolism in a central nervous system (CNS) tumor? a. 15O-water b. 13N-ammonia c. 11C-methionine d. Technetium 99m
C
Which region of the spine is scanned during a DXA procedure? a. C7-T-5 b. Sacroiliac joints c. T-12 to the iliac crest d. T1 to T-12
C
Which soft tissue structure must be in profile for the craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique projections? a. Pectoral muscle b. Tail of the breast c. Nipple d. Glandular tissue
C
Which technique or method is most common for measuring bone density using a peripheral site such as the os calcis? a. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry b. Single-energy x-ray absorptiometry c. Quantitative ultrasound d. All of the above
C
what is another term for the tail of the breast? a. caudal portion b. areola c. axillary prolongation d. axilla
C
. The American Cancer Society estimates one in _____ women will develop invasive breast cancer. a. two. b. four. c. six. d. eight.
D
Blood vessels, connective tissue, and other small structures seen on a mammogram are termed: a. alveoli. b. ampulla. c. lobules. d. trabeculae.
D
Computer-aided detection uses a computerized detection ____ to analyze various suspicious breast lesions. a. signal b. reader c. laser d. algorithm
D
One of the most common radioactive materials used in nuclear medicine procedures is: a. xenon. b. iodine 131. c. thallium. d. technetium 99m.
D
PET brain mapping techniques are intended to: a. identify possible primary tumors. b. identify thought-processing functions of the brain. c. distinguish between gray and white matter structures. d. identify key motor or sensory regions of the brain.
D
Positron emission tomography (PET) detects breast cancer by measuring the increased metabolism of ____ by cancerous cells. a. carbon b. phosphates c. oxygen d. sugar
D
Radiopharmaceuticals are introduced into the body: a. via inhalation. b. via ingestion. c. intravenously. d. by all of the above.
D
Reproducibility as applied for DXA systems is also termed: a. quality assessment. b. system reliability. c. accuracy. d. precision.
D
The standard(s) being used with dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry to compare the patient's bone density measurements is/are: a. A-score. b. Z-score. c. T-score. d. both B and C
D
The type of radiation therapy that uses multiple beams of radiation to three-dimensionally target a tumor is termed: a. intraoperative radiation therapy. b. brachytherapy. c. palliative therapy. d. stereotactic radiosurgery.
D
What is the primary reason for high patient doses delivered during screening mammography? a. Use of high kV b. Increased use of digital imaging systems c. Large number of projections taken d. Use of low kV
D
What projection should be performed if a deep lesion in the axillary tissue is not seen on the exaggerated craniocaudal projection? a. MLO—mediolateral oblique b. CC—craniocaudal c. MLO—mediolateral oblique d. AT—axial tail
D
Where should the image receptor be placed for the craniocaudal projection? a. At the level of the axilla b. At the level of the sternal angle c. At the level of the xiphoid process d. At the level of the inframammary fold
D
Where should the marker and patient identification be in regard to the anatomy? a. Near apex b. Near base c. Upper right aspect of image d. Near axilla
D
Which PET perfusion tracer is given to determine whether certain areas of the heart are receiving sufficient blood flow (perfusion)? a. 11C-methionine b. 13N-ammonia c. 82Rbn chloride d. Both B and C
D
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for a bone densitometry procedure? a. Bone mass that is too low b. Pregnancy c. Recent vertebral augmentation d. Childbearing age
D
Which of the following is considered a type of external beam therapy? a. Intraoperative radiation therapy b. Linear accelerator c. Cobalt 60 d. All of the above
D
Which one of the following PET tracer compounds is used to measure glucose metabolism within tissues? a. 11C-methionine b. 13N-ammonia c. 15O-water d. 18F-FDG
D
Which other region of the body can be scanned if the patient has spine or hip artifacts (i.e., advanced arthritis)? a. Cervical spine b. Mandible c. Foot d. Forearm
D
Which projection best demonstrates inflammation or pathology in the deep lateral aspect of the breast? a. Lateromedial oblique b. Craniocaudal c. Exaggerated craniocaudal d. Mediolateral oblique
D
