Procedures Registry Review

All the following are forms of mechanical obstruction seen in neonates or infants except A paralytic ileus. B meconium ileus. C volvulus. D intussusception.

A

How many degrees cephalad should the CR be directed for an AP axial projection of the sigmoid colon? A 30° to 40° B 35° to 45° C 40° to 50° D 45° to 55°

A

If the distance between the ASIS and tabletop is less than 19 cm, the correct tube angle for an AP knee is: A 5 degrees caudad B 5 degrees cephalad C perpendicular D 10 degrees caudad

A

In radiography of long bones, every effort should be made to include both articulations associated with the injured bone, and A it is essential to include the articulation nearest the site of the injury. B it is essential to include the articulation distal to the site of the injury. C comparison views of the opposite side should always be obtained. D supplemental views should be taken at the discretion of the radiographer.

A

The centering point "2.5 in distal and perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis" identifies correct centering for the AP projection of what body part? A Hip B Pelvis C Knee D Elbow

A

The intertrochanteric crest is located on the A proximal posterior femur. B proximal anterior femur. C distal posterior femur. D distal anterior femur.

A

An RPO position of the lumbar vertebrae demonstrates zygapophyseal joints poorly visualized and the pedicle is seen anterior on the vertebral body. What does this indicate? A Excessive rotation B Insufficient rotation C Pelvic tilt D Correct positioning

B

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the A root B hilus C carina D epiglottis

B

Cervical intervertebral foramina are 45° degrees to the MSP and between how many degrees to a transverse plane? A 10° to 15° B 15° to 20° C 20° to 25° D 25° to 30°

B

For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? Patency of the biliary ductsBiliary tract calculiGallbladder calculi A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B

In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in Figure 2-25 probably made? Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. A Supine recumbent B Prone recumbent C PA upright D Supine Trendelenburg

B

Where should the petrous pyramids be projected in the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull using a 15° caudal tube angle? A In the upper two-third of the orbits. B In the lower two-third of the orbits. C Below the maxillary sinuses. D Filling the orbits.

B

Which of the following projections for scoliosis would help to reduce radiation dose to the breast, thyroid, and reproductive organs? A Lateral B PA C AP D Oblique

B

Zygapophyseal joints are best visualized in what cervical spine position? A Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension B Lateral position C Anterior oblique D Posterior oblique

B

The LPO and RPO positions of the sacroiliac joints require the affected side to be elevated by how many degrees? A 15° to 20° B 20° to 55° C 25° to 30° D 30° to 35°

C

The articulations between the bodies of the vertebrae are classified as A diarthrodial B synovial C amphiarthrodial D plane (gliding)

C

The classifications of bones are: A articulating and non-articulating. B long, short and sesamoid. C short, flat, irregular and long. D cancellous and cortical.

C

The iliac crest is at what vertebral level? A T2-3 B T10 C L4 D S1-2

C

The large opening in the base of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes through is called the A foramen oval B foramen rotundum C foramen magnum D external occipital protuberance

C

The most important way to reduce involuntary motion is A expediting the exam. B good communication. C using the shortest possible exposure time. D using immobilization devices/restraints.

C

The neck of the femur forms a what degree angle with its body/shaft? A 100° B 110° C 120° D 130°

C

The outer fibrous portion of an intervertebral disk is the A herniated nucleus pulposus B intervertebral joints C annulus fibrosus D spinal canal

C

The parietal bones meet midline to form the A coronal suture B lambdoidal suture C sagittal suture D squamosal suture

C

The pelvis is made up of which of the following? I. Left innominate bone II. Right innominate bone III. Sacrum IV. Coccyx A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above

C

The radiographer adjusts flexion of the head on a line from the lower margin of the upper incisors to the base of the skull/mastoid tip perpendicular to the IR for the A AP Towne's skull. B AP skull projection. C AP C1-C2 projection. D PA axial skull.

C

The typical vertebra includes which of the following processes? I. Superior articular II. Lamina III. Spinous IV. Transverse V. Pedicle A I, II, III B II, III, IV C I, III, IV D I, IV, V

C

The usual patient preparation for an upper gastrointestinal series is: A withhold preceding meal B no fluids after midnight C NPO after midnight D no solids after midnight

C

What is the name of the uppermost portion of the lungs (i.e., above the level of the clavicles)? A Base B Hilum C Apex D Costophrenic angle

C

When viewing a lateral skull radiograph, incorrect positioning caused by rotation is evidenced by which of the following structures not being superimposed? I. mandibular rami II. orbital plates/roofs III. EAMs IV. sella turcica V. greater wings of sphenoid A I, IV, V B II, III, V C I, III, IV D II, III, IV

C

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture? A Pyelonephrosis B Nephroptosis C Hydronephrosis D Cystourethritis

C

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula? A Retrograde pyelogram B Voiding cystourethrogram C Hysterosalpingogram D Myelogram

C

The PA and/or AP axial projection of the intercondylar fossa (tunnel view) requires the long axis of the tibia and CR to be A parallel B perpendicular C cephalic D caudal

B

The oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the IOML be parallel to the IR, and that the head be rotated how many degrees toward the affected side? A 15° B 25° C 35° D 45°

A

The term that describes forward displacement of one vertebra upon the inferior vertebra is A spondylolisthesis B spondyl C spondylitis D spondylosis

A

The thoracic intervertebral foramina are what degree to the MSP? A 90° B 95° C 100° D 105°

A

The upper GI tract includes which of the following structures? I. Mouth II. Pharynx III. Transverse colon IV. Duodenum V. Sigmoid A I, II, IV B I, IV, V C II, IV, V D II, III, IV

A

The vertebral body connects with its vertebral arch by way of the pedicles; the upper and lower portions of this structure are called the A superior and inferior vertebral notches B superior and inferior articular processes C costal joints D intervertebral joints

A

Unossified points at the junction of sutures on an infant's skull are termed 1. fontanels 2. wormian bones 3. sutural bones A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A

What body position will demonstrate the left kidney parallel to the IR, as well as the right ureter free of superimposition? A RPO B LPO C Right lateral D Left lateral

A

What skull projection is most commonly used to demonstrate the occipital bone? A AP axial projection (Towne method) B PA axial projection (Haas method) C Parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) D PA axial projection (Caldwell method)

A

What type of fracture is described as two or more fragments of bone that are splintered or shattered? A Comminuted B Complete C Compound D Impacted

A

When examining the contrast-filled bladder, how many degrees caudad is the X-ray tube angled in order to project the symphysis pubis inferior to the urinary bladder? A 10° to 15° B 20° to 25° C 30° to 35° D 40° to 45°

A

When obtaining an AP projection of the first CMC joint, which of the following projections requires the CR to enter perpendicular to the first CMC? A Robert method B Long-Rafert modification C Lewis modification D Burman method

A

Which of the following is NOT descriptive of C7 (vertebral prominens)? A Bifid tips B Extra-long spinous process C More horizontal spinous process D Landmark for radiographic positioning

A

Which of the following is the usual way of obtaining a lateral projection of the proximal humerus in cases of trauma? A Transthoracic or Lawrence method B Grashey method C Lateromedial recumbent D Stetcher method

A

Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure A is (are) true? Figure A. Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. 1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses. 2.The sphenoidal sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits. 3.The chin should be elevated more to bring the petrous ridges below the maxillary sinuses. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A

Which projection of the elbow will cause superimposition of the proximal ulna by the radial head and neck? A AP oblique with medial rotation B AP C AP oblique with lateral rotation D Lateral

A

Which projection will best demonstrate medial/lateral fracture displacement? A AP B Lateral C Oblique D Axial

A

Which suture separates the frontal bone from the two parietal bones? A Coronal suture B Lambdoidal suture C Sagittal suture D Squamosal suture

A

Which type of body habitus is likely to have redundant bowel loops? A Hypersthenic B Hyposthenic C Sthenic D Asthenic

A

Which of the following characterizes the right and left atlantoaxial joints (C1 and C2)? (select the two that apply) A Diarthrodial B Plane (gliding) C Cartilaginous D Saddle (sellar)

A, B

Which of the following views would be requested for a diagnosis of pneumothorax? (select the three that apply) A PA B Lateral C Inspiration D Expiration

A, C, D

Which of the following are the synarthrodial sutures of the skull? (select the four that apply) A Coronal B Occipital C Sagittal D Squamosal E Parietal F Diploe G Lambdoidal

A, C, D, G

Which of the following fat pads and/or stripes can only be visualized in a true lateral elbow? (select the three that apply) A Anterior fat pad B Pronator fat stripe C Posterior fat pad D Scaphoid fat stripe E Supinator fat stripe

A, C, E

A blowout fracture usually occurs in which aspect of the orbital wall? A Superior B Inferior C Medial D Lateral

B

A lesion with a stalk projecting from the intestinal mucosa into the lumen is a(n) A fistula B polyp C diverticulum D abscess

B

An AP medial oblique projection of the elbow will demonstrate which of the following anatomic parts free of superimposition? A Radial head and neck B Coronoid process C Medial epicondyle D Trochlea

B

Projections that are generally included in an acute abdomen survey include which of the following? I. AP supine abdomen II. Dorsal decubitus abdomenIII. Erect or lateral decubitus abdomen IV. PA chest V. Ventral decubitus abdomen A I, II, IV B I, III, IV C II, IV, V D III, IV, V

B

Select the three correct statements from those listed below: 1. Weight-bearing feet are performed to demonstrate the structural status of the foot's transverse arch. 2. The dorsoplantar projection of the foot requires that the CR be directed 10° posteriorly to the base of the third metatarsal. 3. The AP projection of the toes should demonstrate significant overlapping of soft tissues. 4. The CR should be directed 5° to 7° cephalad in the lateral projection of the knee to superimpose the femoral condyles. 5. The 15° internal oblique ankle position best demonstrates visualization of the entire ankle mortise. 6. The tibia, fibula, and talus form the knee joint. A 1, 5, 6 B 2, 4, 5 C 3, 5, 6 D 2, 3, 4

B

The AP axial projection of the sacrum requires tube angulation in the cephalad direction of how many degrees? A 10° B 15° C 20° D 25°

B

The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of A pulmonary markings B heart shadow C posterior ribs D costal cartilages

B

The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is A red marrow B yellow marrow C cortical tissue D cancellous tissue

B

The tubercle of each of the first 10 pairs of ribs articulates with one A pedicle B transverse process C body D articular process

B

To demonstrate the rami of the pubis and ischium in the AP axial outlet projection, the CR should be directed how many degrees for females in the cephalad direction? A 25° to 40° B 30° to 45° C 35° to 50° D 40° to 55°

B

What angulation is required for the PA axial projection of the mandible in order to demonstrate the condyles and TMJ area? A Caudad B Cephalad C Longitudinal D Horizontal

B

What is the name of a plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions? A Mid-sagittal plane (MSP) B Transverse plane C Sagittal plane D Coronal plane

B

What is the term used for a radiographic examination of the contrast-filled bladder? A Retrograde urography B Cystography C Cystoureterography D Cystourethrography

B

What kV range is recommended for imaging the upper airway? A 70 to 80 kV B 75 to 85 kV C 80 to 90 kV D 85 to 95 kV

B

What opening is formed when the two half-moon-shaped areas of the superior and inferior vertebral notches line up? A Foramen ovale B Intervertebral foramina C Foramen magnum D Vertebral foramen

B

What term describes movement of a limb that produces circular motion; circumscribing a small area at its proximal end and a wide area at the distal end? A Flexion B Circumduction C Pronation D Eversion E Abduction

B

When performing an axiolateral projection (horizontal beam lateral) of the hip, the CR must be directed perpendicular to the IR and which anatomical structure? A Femoral head B Femoral neck C Pubic symphysis D Lesser trochanter

B

Which of the following indicates appropriate use of the left or right (L or R) side marker when positioning a patient for a left posterior oblique (LPO) lumbar spine when using digital imaging? (select the two that provide correct, legal documentation) A Left radiopaque marker placed on the right side of the patient B Left radiopaque marker on the left side of the patient C Right radiopaque marker on the right side of the patient D Right radiopaque marker on the left side of the patient E Post-processing left annotation on the patient's left side F Post-processing right annotation on the patient's right side

B, C

An abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the spine is termed A scoliosis B lordosis C kyphosis D spondylolysis

C

For a lateral projection of the cervical spine, the MSP and the IR should be A perpendicular B at a right angle C parallel D horizontal (axial)

C

General divisions of the respiratory system include which of the following? I. Lungs II. Trachea III. MouthIV. Bronchi V. Esophagus VI. Pharynx A I, IV, V, VI B I, III, IV, VI C I, II, IV, VI D II, III, IV, V

C

How many posterior ribs should be visualized above the diaphragm in order for a PA chest to be evaluated for adequate inspiration? A 6 B 8 C 10 D 12

C

In which projection of the scapula should the vertebral and axillary borders be superimposed? A AP scapula B Grashey method C Lateral scapula D Fisk modification

C

Irregular bones include which of the following? I. Facial bones II. CarpalsIII. Vertebra IV. Pelvis bones V. Scapula A I, II, III B III, IV, V C I, III, IV D II, IV, V

C

Lumbar zygapophyseal articulations are demonstrated closest to the IR in the A lateral position. B left and right bending positions. C RPO and LPO positions. D RAO and LAO positions.

C

Palpable landmarks that can be used for abdominal positioning include which of the following? I. UmbilicusII. Inferior costal margin III. Axilla IV. Anterior superior iliac spine V. Greater trochanter A I, II, IV B III, IV, V C II, IV, V D I, IV, V

C

Ribs 1-10 articulate with thoracic vertebrae at which of the following locations? 1. Vertebral body 2. Pedicle 3. Lamina 4. Transverse processes A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only

C

Which of the following procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the ureters? A Cystogram B Urethrogram C Retrograde pyelogram D Cystourethrogram

C

With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37-degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated? A Occipital bone B Frontal bone C Facial bones D Basal foramina

C

Which of the following unite to form the obturator foramen? (select the two that apply) A Body of the ilium B Body of the ischium C Superior ramus of the ilium D Inferior ramus of the ischium

C, D

Which positions are generally used to demonstrate or evaluate lumbar spinal fusion? (select the two that apply) A Obliques B Weight bearing PA C Flexion D Extension

C, D

Flat bones include which of the following? I. Calvarium II. Sternum III. VertebraeIV. Ribs V. Scapulae A I, II B I, II, V C I, IV, V D I, II, IV, V

D

Flat bones include which of the following? I. CalvariumII. SternumIII. VertebraeIV. RibsV. Scapulae A I, II B I, II, V C I, IV, V D I, II, IV, V

D

Fluoroscopic and radiographic examination of the spinal cord and its meninges using positive contrast agents is termed A spinal puncture B urography C angiography D myelography

D

Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out? Have patient empty the bladder.Review the patient's allergy history.Check the patient's creatinine level. A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3

D

The innominate bone is located in the A middle cranial fossa. B posterior cranial fossa. C foot. D pelvis.

D

The relationship between the plantar surface and the IR in the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus is A horizontal B parallel C cephalad D perpendicular

D

The zygoma bone articulates with how many other facial bones? A 4 B 3 C 2 D 1

D

To visualize the proximal tibiofibular articulation, the AP knee should be obliqued how many degrees medially? A 30° B 35° C 40° D 45°

D

What anatomical structure connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx? A Cochlea B Stapes C Posterior semicircular canal D Eustachian tube

D

What is the name of a plane that is parallel to the mid-coronal plane? A Mid-sagittal plane (MSP) B Transverse plane C Sagittal plane D Coronal plane

D

What kV range is recommended for chest radiography? A 105 to 120 kV B 105 to 125 kV C 110 to 120 kV D 110 to 125 kV

D

What specific anatomical structure is the body weight resting on when a patient is seated in an upright position? A Ischial ramus B Pubic symphysis C Obturator foramen D Ischial tuberosity

D

Which are unique characteristics of the cervical spine C3-C6? 1. Transverse foramina 2. Overlapping vertebral bodies 3. Bifid spinous process tips A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D

Which fat pad(s) will be visualized in a normal and accurately positioned lateral elbow? 1. Posterior fat pad 2. Anterior fat pad 3. Supinator fat pad A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

D

Which of the following projection(s) will best demonstrate the cervicothoracic area when not well visualized on a lateral cervical spine view? A Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension cervical spine positions B Lateral thoracic spine position C Horizontal beam (trauma) lateral of the cervical spine D Swimmer's lateral position

D