P/S

The left cerebral hemisphere in humans is most often linked with which cognitive function? A. Visuospatial skills B. Music perception C. Vocabulary skills D. Emotion processing

Answer: C - Vocab skills Vocabulary skills tend to be lateralized to the left hemisphere, whereas visuospatial skills, music perception, and emotion processing tend to be lateralized to the right hemisphere.

Which measure would be most useful if the researchers were interested in the degree of sympathetic arousal experienced in the different conditions of Study 1? A. A measure of electrical conductivity of the skin B. A CT scan of the hindbrain C. A PET scan of the parietal cortex D. A measure of melatonin levels

A bc increased electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased sympathetic arousal which is associated w anxiety

Which statement best applies the behaviorist theory to explain the association between age and DMQ scores? Compared to younger participants, older participants: A. have had more experiences in which they have been punished for risky behaviors. B. are less prone to the effects of peer pressure. C. have a more mature prefrontal cortex that inhibits impulsive behavior. D. have a more developed superego that inhibits the impulses of the id.

A because behaviorist theory focuses on the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behavior and A is the only option that applies this theory to risk aversion

Which effect is LEAST likely to occur with the process of gentrification? A. Development of affordable housing B. Increased neighborhood stratification C. Displacement of lower-income residents D. Expanded tax base for local government

A, development of affordable housing. Gentrification is the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups. With the arrival of more affluent residents, housing demand increases and generally results in a decrease of affordable housing for lower income residents. In contrast, the other response options present more likely outcomes of gentrification.

Which statement does NOT identify an aspect of the concept of assimilation? A. Assimilation is the influence that cultural changes have on an individual's health. B. Assimilation is the process of cultural adaptation that results from geographic mobility. C. Assimilation occurs when individuals adopt the cultural norms of a dominant culture. D. Assimilation occurs when individuals relinquish the cultural norms of their childhood.

A. Assimilation is related to the process of social integration and generally refers to when new members adopt the main elements of a culture. The other response options each provide an aspect of the definition of assimilation (cultural adaptation, adopting new norms, and relinquishing old norms). However, the answer does NOT describe assimilation. Instead, it speculates about a possible consequence of assimilation

The aging of the U.S. population is most likely to increase: A. the dependency ratio. B. the social gradient in health. C. the life course perspective. D. the intersectionality of medicine.

A. The dependency ratio is a ratio of the number of economically dependent members of the population to the number of economically productive members. The economically dependent are those considered too young or too old to work, whereas the economically productive are the working-age population (approximately between the ages of 18 and 65)

Which term refers to closed status positions that hinder social mobility? A. Class systems B. Caste systems C. Economic systems D. Financial systems

Solution: The correct answer is B. Caste systems describe closed stratification systems that do not allow for social mobility. related to social stratification

Which statement best illustrates the concept of anomie? A. A group promotes polarized thinking among its members. B. An individual feels disconnected from the larger community. C. A group overemphasizes consensus among its members. D. An individual feels too influenced by the larger community.

Answer: B Anomie refers to a lack of social norms, which leads to a breakdown in the connection between an individual and their community. The other options address group decision making or indicate social control.

Which statement best explains meritocracy in terms of status? Meritocracy occurs when selections are made based on: A. master status rather than achieved status. B. achieved status rather than ascribed status. C. ascribed status rather than social status. D. social status rather than achieved status.

Answer: B Meritocracy is when appointments, selections, and responsibilities are assigned to individuals based on merit - intelligence, skills, credentials, and other similar factors. Merit is thus derived from achievements. The option pairing that best explains meritocracy is B, achieved status over ascribed status. The options that include social status are not specific, since social status refers to honor or prestige but without an assumption of how that status was attained. Finally, master status refers to a particular status that dominates other statuses that a person might hold.

Study 1 involved the presentation of stimuli of different colors, or hues. The stimuli used in Study 1 most likely vary in which physical dimension? A. Wavelength B. Amplitude C. Purity D. Brightness

Answer: A - Hue is determined by the frequency, or length, of the light wave - Wavelength differences are perceived as differences in hue. B/D: Amplitude is the amount of energy in a light wave that results in a corresponding subjective sense of brightness C: Purity is the degree of saturation, or predominance, of wavelengths of a single frequency. Differences in purity result in the perception of a bolder versus duller color, not in the perception of different colors

According to some researchers, interoceptive awareness contributes to maintenance factors for PD. Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). According to Maintenance Factor 1, mild changes in bodily sensations act as: A. unconditioned stimuli. B. conditioned stimuli. C. unconditioned responses. D. conditioned responses.

Answer: B because, according to Maintenance Factor 1, mild changes in bodily sensations become cues that are associated with excessive panic. Thus, those mild changes in bodily sensations become conditioned stimuli, which elicit the conditioned fear response.

From the perspective of conflict theory, which pair of factors would be assumed to have the greatest impact on patients' relationships with their doctors? A. Norms and rituals B. Power and status C. Aggression and attachment D. Conformity and assimilation

Answer: B - The conflict theory perspective emphasizes social relations of capital, power, and status as the driving forces in society. A: Norms and rituals, while relevant to doctor-patient interactions, would be closer to symbolic interactionism than to the structural focus of conflict theory. C: Aggression and attachment are social psychological (social behavior) concepts that are not associated with conflict theory. D: Finally, conformity and assimilation are also not directly related to conflict theory.

Although many patients wait up to six weeks for an appointment at a busy clinic, an acquaintance of one of the clinic's physicians is regularly seen with less than a week's notice. This scenario best illustrates the use of: A. social status. B. social capital. C. cultural capital. D. charismatic authority.

Answer: B - Using one's social networks for gain is an example of social capital The other options are not applicable to the question scenario. A: Social status is related to prestige among social groups. C: Cultural capital is class-based cultural practices. D: Charismatic authority refers to a form of power that rests in the legitimacy of an individual.

An individual loses his job and obtains a similar amount of income through social security disability insurance. Which type of social mobility best characterizes the situation? A. Exchange mobility B. Horizontal mobility C. Downward mobility D. Upward mobility

Answer: B The most important information in the question is the reference to a similar amount of income. Horizontal mobility describes a situation in which an individual changes some aspect of social identity (from employed to unemployed, for example) but maintains the same relative status (income remains the same).

Despite knowing the health risks of tobacco smoking, some long-term cigarette smokers may not attempt to quit. Which statement best explains this observation from the sociological perspective of symbolic interactionism? A: cig manufacturers have targeted certain groups in order to exploit and profit from those who become addicted B: smoking signifies membership w/in a group, which can maintain a social identity along w social connections C: bc ppl have choices in a democratic society, tobacco regulation only partially protects public health D: as the number of smokers steadily declines, smoking no longer serves the social function that it once did

Answer: B theory that focuses on micro-level social relationships, symbolic interactionism explains social phenomena in terms of the meaning that they hold when people interact with one another. The observation that people continue to smoke cigarettes, despite knowing the health risks of tobacco smoking, can be explained by symbolic interactionism's reference to group membership. For some people, smoking might signify social connection and social identity with a group. As a result, smoking may persist, even knowing that the behavior is harmful. The other response options correspond to other sociological theories: conflict theory (option A), rational choice theory (option C), and functionalist theory (option D).

A researcher conducts observational research on the study habits of college students. When students are aware of the researcher's presence, they are more attentive, focused, and structured. When students are not aware of the researcher's presence, they are inattentive, unfocused, and distracted. Which concept best describes this phenomenon? A. Impression management B. The Hawthorne effect C. Self-fulfilling prophecy D. The Thomas theorem

Answer: B The Hawthorne effect describes changes in research participants as a result of their awareness that they are being observed. The changes to the students' study habits are best explained by the Hawthorne effect, which was first observed among workers. The incorrect options refer to related but distinct concepts. C: A self-fulfilling prophecy is an individual's internalization of a label that leads to a fulfillment of that label. A: Impression management refers to individuals actively managing how they are perceived by others. D: The Thomas theorem states that if an individual believes something to be real, then it is real in its consequences.

Which statement explains why looking at a dimly lit object with peripheral vision at night results in the clearest image of the object? When one looks to the side of an object: A. two images of the object are sent to the brain, which results in a clearer image. B. its image falls in the periphery of the retina, which is denser in rods. C. its image falls on the fovea, which results in the clearest image. D. a single image of the object is sent to the brain, which results in a clearer image.

Answer: B - The periphery of the retina contains a higher density of light sensitive rods, which results in a clearer image in the dark. Option A is correct in stating that two images are sent to the brain of any object that is not focused on, however, this information does not aid clarity. Looking to the side of the object will hinder its image from forming on the fovea. Looking to the side of the object will result in two images (from either retina), not one.

What experimental set-up is most likely to result in a person with a severed corpus callosum saying "ball" after a researcher asks, "What do you see?" A. The letter "b" is projected to the left visual field, followed almost immediately by "all" at the same location B. The word "ball" is projected to the right visual field, while "room" is presented to the left visual field. C. The word "base" is projected to the right visual field, while "ball" is presented to the left visual field. D. The word "basketball" is projected to the left visual field

Answer: B - The word "ball" is projected to the right visual field, while "room" is presented to the left visual field. images projected to a visual field are represented in the opposite hemisphere of the brain. If "ball" is projected to the right visual field, the word will be represented in the left hemisphere where it could be verbalized by left-sided language centers. the information from the right eye is sent to the left hemisphere through the optic tract, not the corpus callosum. After the information is received, then the corpus callosum is used to exchange information back and forth. projects contralaterally (opposite side of brain) through the optic chiasm. So, Left visual field (not left eye) projects to right side of the brain and right visual field projects to left side of the brain. Both eyes contain both visual fields. - we know that left side of the brain is responsible for language processing - The corpus collosum links the left and right sides of the brain. So if you severe the Corpus Collosum, these sides can't exchange information. - In somebody with a severed CC, if a ball is shown to the right visual field, this info will be sent to the left side of the brain via the optic chiasm. This info can then be verbalized since the left side of the brain contains the language centre (for most people). CC has no effect since this crossing over of info from left visual field to right hemisphere and right visual field to left hemisphere is done through the optic chiasm (not the CC).

Some nonverbal behaviors are interpreted similarly across cultures, while other nonverbal behaviors show cultural variation. People in different cultures are most likely to vary in their interpretations of: A. adults' facial expressions. B. children's facial expressions. C. postures and gestures. D. frowns and smiles.

Answer: C because the distractors (A, B, and D) refer to facial expressions, which have been shown to be universally recognized, independent of cultural influences.

Country A has a relatively weak economy, a weak political infrastructure, and competes poorly in the globalized economy. Country A is also dependent on Country B, which has a much stronger economy. According to world systems theory, Country A is a: A. core nation. B. semi-periphery nation. C. periphery nation. D. developed nation.

Answer: C because the stem describes Country A as a periphery nation in World Systems Theory, which characterizes global inequalities in terms of core nations (more economically developed with strong governments and institutions) and periphery nations (less economically developed with weak governments and institutions).

Patient 2: I am terrified of having a panic attack at a meeting. I dread the thought of others noticing how nervous I am. I'm worried that others will think I am weird. I don't go to meetings anymore. For Patient 2, panic attacks act as: A. discriminatory stimuli. B. signaling stimuli. C. positive punishers. D. negative punishers.

Answer: C because the patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive and mentions that he no longer goes to meetings for fear of a panic attack. Thus, the frequency of the patient's attendance at meetings has decreased as the result of the panic attacks. Therefore, the panic attacks have been positive punishers.

A researcher is interested in how anxiety disorders affect escape learning. Which procedure is most appropriate for assessing the dependent variable in this study? A. Having the participants fill out a validated questionnaire that screens for anxiety disorders B. Having a trained practitioner assess the participants for anxiety disorders C. Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to avoid a response that results in an electric shock when the electric shock is signaled with a tone D. Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to be conditioned to perform a response that results in the termination of an electric shock

Answer: D The purpose of the study was to determine how anxiety disorders affect escape learning, and this option is the only one that refers to an empirical observation of escape behavior.

Some studies find that the association between discrimination and health is stronger for U.S.-born members of certain ethnic minority groups than it is for immigrant members of the same ethnic minority group. This finding suggests that the possible effect of discrimination on health is most likely related to: A. social segregation in the U.S. B. length of residence in the U.S. C. place of residence in the U.S. D. social integration in the U.S.

Answer: D With the question's focus on strength of association between discrimination and health, social integration in the U.S., option D, provides the most likely explanation. U.S.-born members of ethnic minority groups experience the system of stratification in the U.S., and its manifestations across different social institutions, throughout their lives. In contrast, immigrant members of the same ethnic minority group will have less exposure to the U.S. stratification system, and fewer experiences with U.S. social institutions (for example, consider an adult immigrant who did not go through the U.S. educational system as a child). A: Social segregation is a potentially relevant factor, but is incorrect because segregation varies across ethnic minority groups and is not closely tied to nativity status (whether a person is native or foreign born). B: Length of residence is superficially related to nativity status, but social integration provides a better explanation of the association between discrimination and health. C: Finally, place of residence is not a relevant explanation because the question does not describe geographic differences.

activation of the sympathetic nervous system are likely to display all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. increased sympathetic nervous system activity. B. increased blood sugar through gluconeogenesis. C. increased dilation of the pupils. D. increased peristalsis along the digestive tract.

Answer: D - When the sympathetic NS is activated, gut peristalsis is inhibited - deactivation of normal digestive processes. Thus, peristalsis would be decreased. Alternatives A, B, and C all represent expected results of increased sympathetic NS activity. Increased blood sugar and increased pupil dilation are both expected effects of sympathetic NS activation

Which statement about technology is most consistent with social constructionism? A. Technology is the predictable application of knowledge. B. Technology is built from the collective effort of innovators. C. Technology is the human response to environmental pressures. D. Technology is embedded with the values of groups who create it.

Answer: D - because the statement implies that technology is the product of groups/ individuals rather than of natural processes (in other words, technology is a social creation), which is consistent with social constructionism. A: incorrect because social constructionist theories generally dispute the inevitable application of knowledge (such as with scientific knowledge as applied to technology). B: incorrect because it does not describe how technology is itself a social product (rather than being produced with others). C: incorrect because it implies that technology is simply a response to natural pressures, which understates the role of social forces in the development of technology.

How would a structural functionalist interpret the efficacy of yoga as part of a smoking cessation therapy? A. Yoga provides an alternate understanding of healthful practices that enables the individual to better understand his or her personal needs and motives. B. Yoga provides an inexpensive therapy option for those lacking the financial resources necessary for more expensive medical interventions. C. The utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy stems from the transformation of the individual's self-concept as a nonsmoker. D. The utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy is an unintended, though beneficial, outcome of a yoga practice.

Answer: D Because it describes a latent, or unintended, function. Becuase the expected function of yoga is not specifically smoking cessation, its utility as a cessation therapy is a latent function of the social activity. The sociological paradigm of functionalism makes a distinction between manifest, or intended, and latent, or unintended, functions of social activities. From the functionalist perspective, almost all social actions have both manifest functions and latent functions, both of which are connected to overall social stability. The other response options with the question are better linked to the conflict or symbolic interactionist perspectives in sociology.

Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way? A. Chemically B. Mechanically C. Electrically D. Synaptically

B hair cells of the cochlea are specialized mechanoreceptors

A researcher wants to gain insight into how a social movement organization presents its beliefs to the general public in an effort to attract new members. Which methodological approach would be most appropriate for this study? A. Observing meetings about the organization's marketing budget B. Conducting a content analysis of the organization's website C. Surveying organization members about their beliefs D. Randomly sampling the general population about social movement organizations

B because conducting content analysis of online information would provide data on how the social movement organization frames issues to the broader public. Content analysis is a sociological method that is used to make inferences about communication. As applied to studying a website, content analysis could help determine which beliefs the organization publically emphasizes. In contrast, the methods in the other response options would not specifically generate data about the public presentation of beliefs.

Patients with PD also tend to have high interoceptive awareness (a heightened ability to detect bodily sensations of arousal, such as increases in heartbeat or blood pressure). Interoceptive awareness involves sensitivity to increases in the activity of the: A. reticular activation system. B. autonomic nervous system. C. limbic system. D. somatic nervous system.

B because interoceptive awareness is described as increased sensitivity to internal bodily sensations, such as heartbeat and blood pressure, which are regulated by the autonomic nervous system

Harlequin ichthyosis, a rare genetic disorder, causes the skin to become thick and scaly. Flaking skin behind the eyelids of individuals with this condition is most likely to damage which structure of the eye? A. Choroid B. Cornea C. Lens D. Retina

B because the cornea is in direct contact with the eyelid and is thus most susceptible to damage from flaking skin. The cornea is the transparent part of the eye that covers the front portion of the eye. It covers the pupil (the opening at the center of the eye), iris (the colored part of the eye), and anterior chamber (the fluid-filled inside of the eye). The cornea's main function is to refract, or bend, light. A: The choroid is a highly vascular, pigmented tissue located between the retina and the sclera. - complex intermingling of blood vessels between the sclera and the retina that supplies the eye with nutrients C: helps control the refraction of the incoming light and lies right behind the iris D: innermost layer of the eye containing photoreceptors that transduce light into electrical information the brain can process

Which type of design is LEAST appropriate for research on residential segregation? A. Ethnographic methods B. Experimental methods C. Quantitative methods D. Survey methods

B, experimental methods. Due to ethical concerns, as well as practical considerations, experimental research is generally not available for studying residential segregation. Except under special circumstances, it would be unethical and impractical to randomly assign participants to groups in which segregation is manipulated as an independent variable. In contrast, the other response options present more acceptable method

Often utilized when studying communicable diseases, which type of analysis maps the series of relationships among a set of individuals? A. Social support analysis B. Social network analysis C. Social stratification analysis D. Social reproduction analysis

B, social network analysis. Used in some epidemiological studies, social network analysis is the method described in the question. It involves the mapping of social relationships among individuals.

A researcher conducts observational research on the study habits of college students. When students are aware of the researcher's presence, they are more attentive, focused, and structured. When students are not aware of the researcher's presence, they are inattentive, unfocused, and distracted. Which concept best describes this phenomenon? A. Impression management B. The Hawthorne effect C. Self-fulfilling prophecy D. The Thomas theorem

B. The Hawthorne effect describes changes in research participants as a result of their awareness that they are being observed. The changes to the students' study habits are best explained by the Hawthorne effect, which was first observed among workers. The incorrect options refer to related but distinct concepts. A: Impression management refers to individuals actively managing how they are perceived by others. C: A self-fulfilling prophecy is an individual's internalization of a label that leads to a fulfillment of that label. D. The Thomas theorem states that if an individual believes something to be real, then it is real in its consequences.

An individual loses his job and obtains a similar amount of income through social security disability insurance. Which type of social mobility best characterizes the situation? A. Exchange mobility B. Horizontal mobility C. Downward mobility D. Upward mobility

B. The most important information in the question is the reference to a similar amount of income. Horizontal mobility describes a situation in which an individual changes some aspect of social identity (from employed to unemployed, for example) but maintains the same relative status (income remains the same).

In a study of college students, a correlation was found between those reporting high rates of insomnia and reduced hit rates for detecting the sounds of birds chirping. This represents what type of correlation, and what phenomenon was described? A. Positive, signal detection B. Negative, signal detection C. Positive, difference threshold D. Negative, difference threshold

B: Negative, signal detection the relationship between rates of insomnia (high) and the hit rate (reduced) describes a negative correlation. In addition, according to signal detection theory the detection of a stimulus is not only dependent on its strength, but also on the psychological state (tired) of the individual. difference threshold is when you detect a just noticable difference 50% of the time or more.

Attraction and commitment to a group is likely to be greatest when group members: A. promote their social networks. B. express diverse cultural values. C. share equivalent cultural capital. D. present their back-stage selves.

C Group affiliation (attraction and commitment) is likely to be greatest when the members or participants in the group share similar outlooks, knowledge, preferences, skills, and other aspects of cultural capital. Among the options, similarity in cultural capital would be most likely to solidify group bonds in a way that increases commitment to the group. social status derived from knowledge, preferences, or skills

Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample? A. More participants had a BMI over 25 than a BMI under 25. B. The majority of participants had a BMI between 25 and 30. C. Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25. D. More outliers among the participants had a BMI under 25 than a BMI over 30.

C because the median splits the sample distribution of values in half. Thus, a median of 25 can be described as half the sample having a BMI over 25 and half having a BMI under 25. The statements in the other options do not correctly describe the sample data in the question.

A researcher replicates the experiment with the addition of a physical stressor to the first phase of the experiment. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, this change is: A. necessary, because humans respond differently to different types of stressors. B. necessary, because physical stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict, whereas social stressors cause approach-approach conflict. C. unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. D. unnecessary, because both physical stressors and social stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict.

C because, according to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, people's response to various stressors is similar. Selye's theory does not make claims about avoidance-avoidance or approach-approach conflicts.

The left cerebral hemisphere in humans is most often linked with which cognitive function? A. Visuospatial skills B. Music perception C. Vocabulary skills D. Emotion processing

C. Vocabulary skills tend to be lateralized to the left hemisphere visuospatial skills, music perception, and emotion processing tend to be lateralized to the right hemisphere.

A dopamine agonist is found to have dose-dependent effects. Based on this finding, which correlation is most likely to be supported? A. A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of the visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered B. A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of the visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered C. A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered D. A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered

C. A dopamine agonist enhances the functioning of dopamine in the nervous system. Because the agonist is said to have dose-dependent effects, a positive correlation between the dose and the intensity of euphoria experienced is most likely

In operant conditioning studies, the subject's motivational state is most typically operationally defined by: A. Observing the subjects behavior over a long period of time B. Using a type of reinforcement that the experimenter knows the subject usually likes C. Depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time D. Using a novel stimulus that the subject is sure to like

C. Depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time The answer to this question is C because it states the method that is usually used, in operant conditioning studies, to operationally define the subject's motivational state. In operant conditioning, positive or negative reinforcement or positive or negative punishment is used to manipulate motivational states. In this case, they are saying that by using negative punishment, you can determine motivation by how the behavior of the subject changes to get whatever was removed back. In other words, the more the motivation, the more likely the subject will try to get the removed thing back. A. not a characteristic of operant conditioning B. A big factor in ruling this answer out is the trigger word "usually.' If you see strong modalities, you should be T R I G G E R E D D. 'is sure to like' is another TRIGGERing phrase. This answer is not strong. Besides, if the stimulus is novel, how would you even know the subject will like it?

According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a person giving which reason for moral behavior is at the highest level? A. To gain acceptance B. To follow rules C. To promote social welfare D. To avoid disapproval

C. To promote social welfare promoting social welfare indicates moral reasoning at the postconventional level, according to Kohlberg's theory. Social welfare transcends individual and interpersonal benefits, and benefits all of society. This is developed later. See the image. A: refers to the conventional stage of moral development - good boy/good girl stage B: This is in the law and order stage, in the conventional stage of moral development. D: Pre-conventional because it is "Avoiding" disapproval. Or is the also in conventional?

which term explains individual-level effect that are most similar to groupthink?

Confirmation bias As with a group affected by groupthink, an individual's confirmation bias causes the person to seek, and attend to, only information that confirms his or her existing point of view and to ignore disconfirming evidence

Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). Data on the role of Maintenance Factor 1 on PD is LEAST likely to come from which type of research? A. Correlational studies B. Case studies C. Longitudinal studies D. Experimental studies

D because experimental methods are not likely to be used in determining on how Maintenance Factor 1 works. The primary obstacle to using experimental methods in such studies is the difficulty of systematically manipulating participants' physiological states and their sensitivity to changes in those states

A researcher is interested in how anxiety disorders affect escape learning. Which procedure is most appropriate for assessing the dependent variable in this study? A. Having the participants fill out a validated questionnaire that screens for anxiety disorders B. Having a trained practitioner assess the participants for anxiety disorders C. Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to avoid a response that results in an electric shock when the electric shock is signaled with a tone D. Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to be conditioned to perform a response that results in the termination of an electric shock

D. The purpose of the study was to determine how anxiety disorders affect escape learning, and this option is the only one that refers to an empirical observation of escape behavior

Which observation disconfirms the theory that the hunger drive is based on a person's interpretation of stomach contractions, while satiety is based on stomach distension? A. Stomach contractions do not correlate with the experience of hunger B. Stomach distension does not correlate with satiety C. Rats without stomachs cannot learn mazes when rewarded with food D. People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger

D. People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger The answer to this question is D because such patients, who are incapable of interpreting any signals from a nonexistent stomach, do experience hunger (Janowitz & Grossman, 1950). If, after the removal of the stomach, a person still feels hungry, then the mechanisms controlling hunger are not related to contraction or distension of the stomach. A and B: Disproving one thing does not disprove another. Furthermore, correlations show a relationship, but don't show causes. C: This is irrelevant to the argument. The statement implies a relatioship between removal of the stomach and learning, but is talking about something totally different from satiety and hunger.

A theory based on which concept would best explain how economic development leads to changes in a society's fertility and mortality rates?

Demographic transition refers to a theory of economic development and population change. The theory suggests that economic changes, specifically industrialization, affect the relationship between the fertility and mortality rates in a society. Population growth occurs rapidly because the mortality rate falls before the fertility rate does. Over time, the fertility rate also falls, thus stabilizing a lower rate of population growth.

Under certain circumstances, such as having received news about something traumatic on a particular day, many people claim that they remember every detail of what they were doing when they received the news. Psychologists use which term to describe this unusual phenomenon?

Flashbulb memory

Social epidemiology

From the depression section, studies suggest that structural factors, such as poverty or racial/ethnic minority status, are important determinants of depression. The focus on structural factors, such as poverty or race/ethnicity, is most consistent with social epidemiology, which focuses on the social determinants of health and disease.

Study 1 is replicated with split-brain patients. Participants are presented with the target colors only in the left side of their visual field. This procedure would specifically allow the researchers to investigate whether: A. the patients show CP in the absence of access to color names. B. the corpus callosum plays a significant role in color processing. C. the patients show CP in the absence of access to color perception. D. the frontal lobe plays a significant role in the recognition of color.

Images on the left side of the visual field of each eye are processed on the right side of the brain. Language is processed primarily on the left side of the brain. The corpus callosum is responsible for neuronal communication between the two sides of the brain. In split-brain patients, however, the corpus callosum is severed. Therefore, in split-brain patients, images processed on the right side of the brain cannot be further processed for language associations, and it would be impossible to link colors with their respective names. If so, the procedure described in the question stem would allow researchers to determine if CP occurs in the absence of access to color names (choice A is correct). C: Split-brain patients would still be able to perceive the colors on either side of the visual field B: The corpus callosum does not play a role in the actual processing of color D: the frontal lobe doesn't play a role in the recognition of color The correct answer is A because when a stimulus is presented to the left half of a split-brain patient's visual field, the information will be sent out to the right hemisphere. The right hemisphere of a split-brain patient has no access to the left hemisphere, where linguistic abilities are lateralized. Thus, presenting the target colors to the left half of a split-brain patient's visual field would allow the researchers to determine whether categorical perception occurs even in absence of linguistic information.

Which statement best explains why income distributions are usually reported using the median rather than with other measures of central tendency?

Income is often reported using the median to reduce the influence of outliers (most often, this is due to high income data points that would skew the mean and thus not provide the best representation of the income distribution). The other response options make reference to income data, but do not provide a more direct or justifiable reason that explains why income data is most often summarized using the median.

Which prediction related to adolescent behavior is most consistent with labeling theory?

Labeling theory is a perspective on deviance that suggests labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of specific behavior. Adolescents are often subject to stigmatizing labels, leading to perceptions that may not match behavior. Labeling theory calls attention to the power that stereotypes can have in determining how individuals are perceived.

violent scripts are a subtype of

schemas

Researchers hypothesize that experiencing a certain scent while viewing paintings of flowers will influence the viewers' ratings of attractiveness of the paintings. Researchers dispensed a floral scent in one room with paintings and no scent in another room with paintings. Which statement is accurate regarding the study? A. The study's design is an observational study since viewers were observing paintings and noting their ratings. B. The independent variable is the presence or absence of scent in the rooms. C. The dependent variable is the amount of time viewers spent observing paintings. D. Informing viewers ahead of time whether a scent was absent or present in the room is important for accurate ratings.

Solution: The correct answer is B. because the presence or absence of scent in the rooms is the manipulated variable.

Based on the study, which extrinsic factor most likely accounts for the motivational differences between groups? A. Rewards and losses tied to memory performance for the gaming group B. The presence of animated characters in the visual display for the gaming group C. The opportunity to stop playing the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups D. The opportunity to state they disliked the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups

Solution: The correct answer is A. In the gaming task, each correct response increased the player's strength and weakened the opponent. Each incorrect response weakened the player and increased the opponent's strength. The gains and losses of points provided immediate feedback, which shaped subsequent performance. Response B is incorrect because the presence or absence of animated figures was not contingent on the participant's responses Intrinsic motivation comes from within, while extrinsic motivation arises from external factors. When you are intrinsically motivated, you engage in an activity because you enjoy it and get personal satisfaction from doing it. When you are extrinsically motivated, you do something in order to gain an external reward (praise, fame, $)

Research findings indicate higher levels of patient trust and physician attention in race-concordant physician-patient relationships because: A. both the physician and patient belong to the same in-group. B. the physician and patient share similar levels of status. C. of racial hostility present in race-discordant relationships. D. of the lack of role strain experienced by the physician.

Solution: The correct answer is A. Members of in-groups share common backgrounds and similar identities, which generally result in high levels of trust among in-group members. Racial/ethnic identity can be an important characteristic of an in-group, resting in a shared culture, language, or community.

Which finding would support the validity of the DMQ measure? A. A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores B. A negative correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores C. A positive correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ D. A negative correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ

Solution: The correct answer is A. a valid measure is one that actually measures what it is intended to assess. Because both the DMQ (a self-report measure) and the CG (a behavioral measure) were intended to assess risky behavior, a positive correlation between the two measures would support the validity of the DMQ measure. validity = measure of what you intend to measure

A conflict theorist is most likely to reference which concept in order to explain the causes of access disparities for SUD treatment? A. Stratification B. Racialization C. Socialization D. Gentrification

Solution: The correct answer is A. because conflict theory is most often associated with class-based conceptions of society. Thus, social stratification is the concept that a conflict theorist would suggest is most relevant to explaining the access disparities from the passage

Which type of memory would most likely be activated first during the computer task, before working memory is activated? A. Implicit memory B. Sensory memory C. Short-term memory D. Episodic memory

Solution: The correct answer is B. because seeing squares light up on the computer screen would register with visual sensors, forming a sensory memory before working memory is activated.

If adults performed the block tapping task as a measure of working memory capacity, they would most likely replicate sequences of what length correctly? A. 9 plus or minus 1 B. 7 plus or minus 2 C. 10 plus or minus 1 D. 16 plus or minus 2

Solution: The correct answer is B. early memory research with adults led to the belief that the capacity of working memory was between 5 and 9 items. The so-called "magic number 7 ± 2" was the name George Miller (1956) gave to this estimate.

Which interpretation of the research findings is consistent with the conflict theory perspective? Status hierarchies facilitate: A. efficiency in the organization, whereas discrimination is a byproduct of these structures. B. the preservation of structural power while being maintained by practices of discrimination. C. effective social interactions, whereas discrimination is a subjective quality of those interactions. D. the necessary operation of the workplace while removing ineffective members by practices of discrimination.

Solution: The correct answer is B. Conflict theory emphasizes the competition between groups over the allocation of societal resources. It assumes that power and authority are unequally distributed across a society, and that groups attempt to maintain their advantages. The correct answer captures these basic elements of conflict theory, while the incorrect options are more consistent with other sociological theories (such as functionalism or interactionism). The conflict theory has three assumptions and they are as follows: (1) between individual or group, conflict emerges from having opposing interests or competing for limited resources; (2) struggle and conflict typically lead to some groups and individuals controlling and dominating others, and that patterns of subordination and domination are self-perpetuating; (3) dominant groups disproportionately influence resource allocation and societal structure.

Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment? A. Comparative methods B. Ethnographic methods C. Experimental methods D. Survey methods

Solution: The correct answer is B. Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment.

An immigrant teen stops participating in the ethnic customs of his family and instead identifies with the dominant culture of the new country by dressing, speaking, and acting like teens from that culture. In this scenario, the teens of the new country's dominant culture become which type of group for the teen? A. Assimilated group B. Reference group C. Majority group D. Peer group

Solution: The correct answer is B. Individuals often emulate the attitudes and behaviors of groups that they admire and would like to join. Sociologists refer to these as reference groups, which are important for self-evaluation and identity formation. The scenario in the question suggests that the teen constructs an identity, through modifying his behaviors (dressing, speaking, acting), to match that of teens from the dominant culture of his new country.

Neighborhood-level socioeconomic inequalities are most likely to affect physician-patient interactions through which phenomenon? A. Status hierarchies rely on socioeconomic differences above other master status characteristics. B. Physical boundaries create social boundaries and closed networks which develop their own cultures. C. Socioeconomic inequalities create role conflict in physicians who are trained to treat all patients equally. D. The physician-patient relationship is not subject to the same external forces that govern other relationships.

Solution: The correct answer is B. Neighborhoods that are segregated by socioeconomic status create increased social distance to the extent that people from different backgrounds have trouble relating to each other's experiences. The correct answer succinctly explains this by referring to closed networks and social boundaries that exist across neighborhoods.

Some studies have found that increases in dopamine activity are associated with increased reward-seeking motivation. This finding suggests an association between dopamine levels and which type of learning? A. Classical conditioning B. Operant conditioning C. Latent learning D. Observational learning

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Attitude and behavior change." The answer to this question is B. The finding focuses on reward-seeking motivation, which is most closely associated with operant conditioning (change in behavior due to past outcomes).

What is the advantage of including a specially trained cultural liaison as opposed to training physicians in cultural competency? A. Communicating across racial and cultural lines is difficult and requires a trained specialist to do it effectively. B. Physicians are inherently resistant to cultural training because of their medical biases. C. Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group. D. Larger groups facilitate the transfer of information more effectively than smaller groups.

Solution: The correct answer is C. From the perspective of basic group dynamics in sociology, larger groups are generally considered more stable but less intimate, whereas smaller groups are usually considered less stable but more intimate. Dyads, two-person groups such as the physician-patient group, are unstable because either party can break the single social tie. The triad, three person groups such as the physician-patient-cultural liaison group, is considered relatively more stable because of the additional social ties.

Based on the study, which assessment represents a subjective measure of motivation? A. The number of grid sequences participants attempted to solve on the computer task B. The participants' decision to continue playing the game or stop to read a magazine C. Participants' answers on the exit questionnaire D. Participants' time spent not playing the game using the computer mouse

Solution: The correct answer is C. the only subjective measures taken in the study were the participants' responses to the exit questionnaire, in which they provided their personal opinions and degree to which they liked the game. Unlike the other options, which referred to more objective (direct) measures, these subjective responses provided an indirect measure of motivation.

To determine the effectiveness of brainstorming, a researcher designs a study in which participants are asked to produce alternatives to an existing marketing strategy on their own or with a group. Which pattern of results is most likely based on research on group processes? A. Groups arrive at the improved alternatives more often than individuals. B. Groups are more likely to critically evaluate alternatives than individuals. C. On average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group. D. On average, participants produce more alternatives in a group than alone.

Solution: The correct answer is C. Social loafing refers to the fact that people are more productive alone than in a group. Research also suggests that individuals are less critical and less creative in groups.

A student is investigating the bystander effect and receives permission to conduct the study in the school cafeteria. What is a potential dependent variable that can be measured by the student? A. The time of day that the experiment is carried out B. The number of people present in the cafeteria C. The amount of time a student takes to assist another student in distress D. The temperature in the cafeteria

Solution: The correct answer is C. because the amount of time a student takes to help another student in the cafeteria is the only option that represents a measurable indication of the helping response, which is the dependent variable in studies of the bystander effect.

The research in the passage is best described as a: A. qualitative study. B. quantitative study. C. mixed-methods study. D. case study.

Solution: The correct answer is C. because the study in the passage takes a mixed methods approach. The research design employs both a quantitative component (the statistical analysis of the total claims) and a qualitative component (the in-depth analysis of a subset of cases). Bringing together quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology.

If this study were replicated, which hypothesis would most likely be supported? A. Regular employees with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. B. Workplace supervisors with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. C. Organizational culture is the primary determinant of whether minority populations are excluded from a workplace. D. The interplay between a supervisor's stereotypical views and an organization that fosters those stereotypes would be more detrimental to minority group members.

Solution: The correct answer is D. The study in the passage calls attention to the interplay of individual attitudes and overall organizational culture. Given the results of the study, it is expected that minority group members would be more likely to experience unfair treatment when individual bias is allowed to exist in an organization. The incorrect options do not address the combination of individual factors and organizational culture; only the correct answer brings these aspects of the study together

Individuals who have the ability to delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards are most likely to be categorized as having which type of intelligence? A. Analytical B. Creative C. Interpersonal D. Emotional .

Solution: The correct answer is D. Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to perceive, express, understand, and manage one's emotions. Emotionally intelligent people are self-aware and can delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards, rather than being overtaken by immediate impulses. None of the other answer choices is related to delaying gratification

Sociologists describe the health benefits of social support as resulting from all of the following EXCEPT: A. friends and family members that help patients adhere to medical treatment. B. friends and family members that help patients to reduce harmful behaviors. C. social relationships that help individuals to cope with stressful events. D. social activities that help individuals to avoid loneliness and boredom.

Solution: The correct answer is D. Social support refers to social network ties (friends, family, and other relationships) that provide an individual with various types of assistance, which are associated with improving health or reducing harm. All of the response options except for D address the health benefits of networks. The correct answer identifies activities rather than relationships.

Research has shown that when individuals study material right before going to sleep, they perform better on a recall measure upon awakening compared to individuals who study and then watch a movie before going to sleep. Which memory construct provides the most likely explanation for these results? A. Misinformation B. Primacy C. Spreading activation D. Interference

Solution: The correct answer is D. When people study new material, any new information introduced between the initial learning (i.e., encoding) and retrieval, such as viewing a movie, will interfere with memory consolidation.

Because cultural liaisons work closely with physicians and are advocates for patients, which phenomenon are cultural liaisons most likely to experience? A. Network redundancy because of the amount of people with whom they come into contact B. Homogeneity because they will see the same patients over and over C. Role strain because of their collegiality with physicians and their responsibility to patients D. Role conflict because of their status as a non-medical professional in a clinic setting

The correct answer is C. Role strain is the tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single role. As applied to the question, the tension that the cultural liaison experiences is between different responsibilities within the same occupational role. If the tension existed between different roles that a single individual held, then it would be considered role conflict

For instance, a situational variable may be a classmate bumping into a child. If this incident primes aggressive thoughts (for example, "He bumped into me on purpose"), this may lead to aggressive affect (for example, frustration) and increased physiological arousal, which can lead to impulsive or aggressive behaviors. It is also possible that a child who is already in an aggressive affective state or is experiencing heightened physiological arousal may be more likely to interpret accidental bumping as an intentional assault. Which theory of emotion is most compatible with the example provided in the passage (paragraph 2)?

The Schachter-Singer theory, because it focuses on the role of cognitive appraisal in influencing affective states The example of a child being bumped into by a classmate focuses on the role of cognition (interpretation of situational variables) on affective states. The Schachter-Singer theory is the only alternative that involves cognitive appraisal.

Researchers hypothesized that cocaine is pharmacologically active in the primate fetal brain when pregnant primates are administered cocaine at doses typically used by human drug users. Which experimental observation best supports their hypothesis? A. Glucose metabolism in the fetal brain increased B. Imaging studies showed that cocaine entered the fetal circulation C. the fetus had an increase in tolerance to pain D. Imaging studies showed increased internalization of dopamine receptors

The answer to this question is A because cocaine is a stimulant it would have a physiological effect similar to stress and hence glucose metabolism is expected to increase. B is incorrect because transport of cocaine to the fetal circulation does not indicate whether the drug is pharmacologically active in the fetus. C is incorrect because the fetus may not be mature enough to feel pain. In any case, pain relief is associated with heroin, not cocaine. D is incorrect because, if the receptors were internalized, dopamine could not be pharmacologically active. Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the outside, not inside, of neurons.

Which phenomenon will an animal trainer most likely try to avoid when training a rabbit for a television commercial? A. operant extinction B. instinctual drift C. stimulus generalization D. partial reinforcement

The answer to this question is B because instinctual drift is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors. So the learned behavior "drifts" to the organism's species-specific (instinctual) behavior. - Instinctual drift is when the learned behavior directly is affected by the organism's instinct. This would be difficult to overcome through conditioning. A: Operant extinction is when the consequence to a behavior is being removed. This is not necesarily a bad thing. It is not difficult to simply replace the operant with a new operant. C. Stimulus generalization is not something that happens because of the learner but from the poor design of the trainer. This can be more easily overcome than the other answers. D. Partial reinforcement is only reinforced at certain intervals or ratios.

Which characteristic collectively best describes the three molecules that are functionally altered in offspring as a result of fetal exposure to cocaine? Each molecule: A. is only manufactured in endocrine glands throughout the body B. binds to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane w/in the CNS C. is distributed to target neurons w/in the cerebrospinal fluid D. Transmits signals between two neurons at a faster speed than through gap junctions

The answer to this question is B, because this is the mechanism by which neurotransmitters function. A is incorrect because neurotransmitters are manufactured in neurons. C is incorrect because neurotransmitters are exocytosed from presynaptic neurons into a synaptic cleft. The receptors for the neurotransmitters are located on the postsynaptic neuron; therefore they are not distributed within the cerebrospinal fluid. D is incorrect because electrical synapses, which have gap junctions, do not involve neurotransmitters. Note: Gap junctions are faster since directly connects the cytoplasm from one cell to the other. It does not have to wait for the neurotransmitter to bind to the receptor.

role conflict

The end of the dementia section states that support for family caregivers of dementia patients is also essential to help caregivers balance the demands of caregiving with their other social responsibilities. Balancing the demands of one role (caregiving) with other roles (other social responsibilities) defines role conflict (tensions stemming from multiple social roles).

The socioeconomic gradient in health

The socioeconomic gradient refers to the negative correlation between socioeconomic status and health risks (or a positive correlation between socioeconomic status and positive health outcomes, such as life expectancy). The correct answer refers to a situation in which greater educational attainment would be associated with fewer risk factors for disease (and lower educational attainment would be associated with more risk factors).

Auditory hair cells are what type of receptors? A. Mechanoreceptors B. Proprioceptors C. Chemoreceptors D. Osmoreceptors

The solution is A. A. Auditory hair cells are a type of mechanoreceptor. - Auditory hair cells deflect when the sound signal is transduced into vibrations in the inner ear. - The auditory hair cells (such as stereocilia) bend towards the tallest stereocilium and connect to mechanically gated ion channels. B. Proprioceptors - a type of sensor that helps an individual to determine the location of a body part and/or its position. These receptors are found within the vestibular system, muscles, and/or tendons. C. Chemoreceptors - specialized receptors that transduce chemical signals and generate an output. - The auditory hair cells are not chemoreceptors. - Chemoreceptors are found in the carotid bodies and the aortic arch. D. Osmoreceptors: - usually located in the hypothalamus and they usually detect the change in osmotic pressures. These receptors are not located in the auditory system.

According to the paradigm of symbolic interactionism, individuals develop a sense of identity primarily through: A. social relationships. B. reflective contemplation. C. cultural assimilation. D. group therapy.

The solution is A. A. Symbolic interactionism posits that individuals develop a sense of self, or identity, through the interactions and relationships that they have with others. The theory suggests that social relationships are fundamental for individuals to develop a sense of who they are. B. Contemplation is an internal process, lacking the element of social interactions or relationships that are central to symbolic interactionism. C. Cultural assimilation is related to identity, but more specifically refers to the process by which an immigrant group adopts the dominant group's cultural norms and values. D. Therapy, even in a group setting, is not the primary way that identity is formed. Symbolic interactionism calls attention to more general processes involving social interactions.

The glass escalator concept predicts that a male employee's progression in a female-dominated industry is most likely to follow which pattern? A. He will be promoted to supervisory roles more quickly than his female counterparts. B. He will lack needed experience for promotion because of gender segregation in tasks. C. He will face more extensive role conflict with supervisors than his female counterparts. D. He will challenge gender norms in the industry and thus be passed over for promotions.

The solution is A. The sociological concept of the "glass escalator" suggests that men who pursue occupations that have high proportions of women (such as teaching or nursing) will quickly ascend the career ladder with promotions. As indicated in this option, the glass escalator concept would predict that men are likely to be granted supervisory roles. B. The glass escalator concept does not suggest that men will be limited by segregation of tasks. Instead, task segregation is more typical for women in male-dominated occupations. C. The concept of role conflict is not specifically relevant to the glass escalator. D. Gender norms suggest the opposite of what the glass escalator would predict.

Whenever a two-year-old sees a moth, the butterfly-like pattern on her dress shoes, or hair bows that resemble the shape of a butterfly, she proudly exclaims, "Butterfly!" This process is referred to as: A. the naming explosion. B. overextension. C. categorical perception. D. bootstrapping.

The solution is B. "Overextension" is the term for applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance (for example, "doggie" for a cow). A. The phenomenon described in the stem does not represent the naming explosion (if anything, it represents the opposite). C. The phenomenon of categorical perception (and for that matter, perception itself) has nothing to do with the phenomenon described in the stem. D. "Bootstrapping" refers to the initial stage(s) of grammatical (i.e., syntactic) development.

When asked whether a person who is afraid of spiders would be diagnosed as having a psychological disorder, a psychologist replies, "It depends on whether or not this fear interferes with the person's life." The psychologist appears to rely most heavily on which criterion of abnormality? A. Distress B. Maladaptiveness C. Statistical deviancy D. Violation of social norms

The solution is B. The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account whether the behavior negatively impacts the person's life or poses a threat to others. A. The distress criterion takes into account whether the behavior demonstrates unusual or prolonged levels of stress. C. The statistical deviancy criterion takes into account whether the behavior is statistically rare. D. The violation of social norms criterion takes into account whether the behavior violates social norms.

The retina functions to: A. accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens. B. detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process. C. provide oxygen and nutrients to the vitreous humor. D. control the amount of light focused on the photoreceptor cells.

The solution is B. The retina contains photoreceptors such as rods and cones, which detect light and transduces light to energy. The energy eventually becomes an action potential and the signal travels through the optic nerve and travels to the primary visual cortex. A: The cornea and iris can accommodate and focus the incoming light rays. This is not a function of the retina. C: The retina does not function in providing oxygen and nutrients for the vitreous humor. The vitreous humor is a gel-like substance that is in the posterior segment of the eye. D: The lens can focus the incoming light rays on the photoreceptors. This is not a function of the retina.

In an evaluation study for a diabetes intervention program, the subjects in the sample had a median age of 45 and a mean age of 55. Which statement accounts for the difference between the median age and the mean age? A. The sample had more subjects under the age of 45 than over the age of 45. B. The sample had more subjects over the age of 45 than under the age of 45. C. The sample included subject(s) who were much older than the age of 45. D. The sample included subject(s) who were much younger than the age of 45.

The solution is C. A mean age (of 55) that is higher than the median age (of 45) suggests that the sample had a skew toward older ages. One way to represent this is to say that the sample included subject(s) who were much older than the average age.​ mean higher than median - older age A. This option states that there are more subjects under age 45 than over age 45. However, the median splits the distribution with an equal number of subjects above and below it. B. This option states that there are more subject over age 45 than under age 45. However, there are an equal number of subjects above and below the median of distribution. D. If the sample included subject(s) who were much younger than 45, then the mean would most likely skew younger than the median age.

A team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company tests a new cancer drug. The researchers have concluded that the drug is effective, but other scientists CANNOT replicate the findings. Which is the most likely explanation for the lack of replicability of the original results? A. Base rate fallacy B. Hindsight bias C. Observer bias D. Public verifiability

The solution is C. Any bias on the part of the observers recording the data could have contaminated the original results. In this case, it is possible that proper precautions (for example, ensuring that observers were "blind" with respect to which patients received the drug and which patients received the placebo) were not taken. A: The base rate fallacy refers to the error people make when they ignore the base rates (i.e., prior probabilities) when evaluating the probabilities (or frequencies) of events. B: The hindsight bias (i.e., the "I knew it all along" effect) refers to the tendency for a person to overestimate how well he or she could have successfully predicted a known outcome (i.e., a "forecast," given before the outcome was known). D: Public verifiability is the reason other scientists are attempting to replicate the original findings.

Which procedure is most effective for teaching a dog to shake hands? A. Systematic desensitization B. Elaborative encoding C. Shaping D. Spontaneous recovery

The solution is C. Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior. It is utilized to establish a novel behavior. A. Systematic desensitization is a classical conditioning technique in which the intensity of an unconditioned stimulus is gradually increased until it no longer elicits the conditioned response. B. Elaborative encoding refers to combining new (to-be-remembered) information with existing memory representations, which enhances the probability of retrieving that new information. This concept is not used in discussions of the acquisition of any operant response. D. Spontaneous recovery is the process by which a previously extinguished behavioral response returns after a delay (i.e., a rest period) following extinction.

A dopamine antagonist will most likely lead to: A. increased hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. B. increased delusions in patients with schizophrenia. C. decreased mobility and decreased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease. D. decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease.

The solution is D. Patients with Parkinson's disease already have insufficient dopamine levels. Therefore, a drug that blocks dopamine receptors will further reduce dopamine's impact, and worsen the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors. A. Patients with schizophrenia have high levels of dopamine activity and a dopamine antagonist will lead to decreased levels of dopamine resulting in decreased, not increased, positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, respectively. B. Patients with schizophrenia have high levels of dopamine activity and a dopamine antagonist will lead to decreased levels of dopamine resulting in decreased, not increased, positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, respectively. C. A dopamine antagonist will lead to increased, not decreased, frequency of tremors.

Underuse of available healthcare services for the disorders in the passage (depression, dementia, and alcohol abuse) is most likely due to: A. anomie. B. globalization. C. culture lag. D. social stigma.

The solution is D. The disorders discussed in the passage—depression, dementia, and alcohol abuse—each have been particularly noteworthy for social stigma. Healthcare utilization and health-seeking behaviors are likely to be affected whenever a disease or disorder is stigmatized. A. Anomie refers to a feeling of detachment from society due to a lack of stable social norms. Compared to stigma, the concept is not as likely to explain underuse of health care. B. Globalization is more likely to increase awareness of each disorder, due to the spread of knowledge and treatment modalities across the world. C. Culture lag occurs when norms and values have yet to catch up with technological advances. Although culture lag might affect some underuse of health care, social stigma is likely to be a much more significant factor in health care utilization.

Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue? A. Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field. B. Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. C. Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures. D. Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus.

The solution is D. Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with retinal disparity, which is a binocular depth cue. A, B, and C are monocular depth cues A: Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field - retinal height B: Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. - occlusion C: Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures.- texture gradient

A study uses the receipt of government assistance to indicate socioeconomic status. Which of the following reflects the main methodological issue that is raised by using this measure? Validity, reliability, generalizability, or reproducibility

Validity Socioeconomic status is typically defined as consisting of income (or wealth), educational attainment, and/or occupational status. Validity refers to the extent to which a measure reflects the phenomenon being studied. Although receiving government assistance (such as unemployment benefits or other forms of social welfare) could be a possible proxy indicator for income, it does not provide a direct measure of income. Thus, government assistance as a measure of socioeconomic status raises the issue of validity, since there are other available measures that would more directly assess the construct.

Which concept refers to feelings of social disconnection that result from weak communal bonds and rapidly changing norms?

anomie Associated with the functionalist theoretical paradigm in sociology, the concept of anomie describes the alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak. Without attachment to society, people will experience purposelessness and aimlessness. Periods of rapid social change are often associated with anomie.

life course approach to health?

a holistic perspective that calls attention to developmental processes and other experiences across a person's life the life course approach refers to a research perspective that considers how experiences from earlier in life affect outcomes later in life. Indicators of a life course approach are apparent in all of the options, except for the correct answer. The other response options suggest analysis across different stages of live (over the life course), and some options also suggest unique attributes of specific life stages. However, the correct answer is narrower in comparison, as it only addresses the association between occupation, income, and cultural capital during adulthood. There is no clear influence across life stages in the correct answer.

A survey finds that immigrants report fewer symptoms of depression and anxiety than individuals from the same racial/ethnic group who were born in the United States. Which correlation best describes this finding?

a neg correlation between assimilation and health status the question suggests that assimilation is influencing health status. In particular, assimilation was found to result in worse health outcomes, as represented in the hypothetical survey comparison in the question. Because greater levels of assimilation are associated with worse mental health, it represents a negative correlation.

A rat receives food for pressing a lever on a variable ratio schedule. Which pattern of responding is most likely to be observed?

a variable ratio schedule leads to high response rates with no predictable pauses.

A researcher interested in actor-observer bias asks a group of viewer participants to watch a target participant work on a series of puzzles. Which two variables is the researcher most likely to compare in this study?

actor-observer bias refers to the actor's tendency to explain his/her own behavior by situational factors whereas the observer tends to explain the actor's behavior by internal stable traits. Thus, an appropriate measure would be to assess whether the actor and the observer attribute the actor's behavior to a relatively stable trait such as intellect.

Social stigma is most commonly associated with:

an attribute that is devalued derived from the symbolic interactionist perspective in sociology and calls attention to how certain individuals or groups face social disapproval. Often, the social disapproval is associated with a behavior, identity, or other attribute that is considered deviant by others.

Without conscious effort, people are unlikely to automatically visually process: A. Spatial Information B. Temporal information C. the frequency of specific events D. novel information

because due to the brain's capacity for parallel processing, information about space, time and frequency of events is automatically processed; however, conscious effort is needed to process novel information Information that is new to you takes conscious thought and effort to process The question stem is particularly important to answering the question. "Without CONSCIOUS effort..." Novel means new. In this case, the question is referring to visual information that a person hasn't previously seen A: you pick up an object and know where it is in space (unconscious) B: temporal information is our time memory. You are more likely to not notice information when you already have seen it before. So you get habituated to time, and place, and frequency of things happening but when something new happens you're like bam! woah, this is new I gotta consciously process this! like that example in the KA book where you get off the highway and then suddenly are flooded by cars and malls you gotta be more careful for that transition "specific events" is too vague and should not be picked when a more strong, foolproof option is present

Alcohol dependence is most strongly indicated

by withdrawal symptoms.

an attitude is considered as being comprised of three components:

cognitive, affective, and behavioral. 1. behavioral component of an attitude consists of the typical responses made when the individual is in the presence of the attitude object. 2. The cognitive component of an attitude consists of an individual's beliefs about the attitude object. - beliefs and ideas 3. affective component of an attitude consists of the emotional experience evoked by the attitude object.

how do sociologists differentiate the concepts of ethnicity and race?

ethnicity classifies by culture, whereas race classifies by physical characteristics Sociologists consider ethnicity to be categorizations of people based on culture and ancestry. Sociologists consider race to be categorizations of people based on perceived physical characteristics. Both concepts are understood in sociology as complex, social categories that change over time, rather than simply biological features of human beings.

distinguish ethnocentrism from cultural relativism?

ethnocentrism assumes universal norms cultural relativism describes awareness of diversity Ethnocentrism refers to using one's own cultural standards, such as norms and values, to make judgments about another culture. Cultural relativism, on the other hand, refers to an awareness of differences across cultures in norms, values, and other elements of culture.

A study is conducted in which researchers observe how physicians deal with role strain when treating patients with terminal illnesses. This study is best described as following which type of research design?

ethnographic The question describes the observation of role strain (stress experienced from contradictory demands of the same social role) in physicians treating patients with terminal illnesses. This scenario refers to ethnographic research, which involves observing social interactions in real social settings. Studying the experience of role strain through observation can increase our understanding of how physicians cope with the challenging demands of extending life with interventions while accepting the reality of death

social capital

focuses on the value of social networks

When comparing the color perception of humans and baboons, similarity in which anatomical structure of the eye is most important? A. Optic disc B. Sclera C. Fovea D. Lens

fovea is directly involved in color sensation and its distribution of receptors varies across different species.

Role strain

involves tensions in the demands from a single social role.

Role conflict

is defined as the stress that people feel when they are confronted with incompatible role expectations across different social statuses they occupy. A common source of role conflict is the need to balance the statuses of employee and caregiver. As illustrated in the correct answer, a full-time employee may face difficulties taking time away from work when a child is ill.

Relative deprivation

is when expectations surpass the material resources that a group or individual has

Which concept describes the self-concept as a product of social interaction, emerging out of the way an individual perceives others to view him or her?

looking-glass self In line with the symbolic interactionist paradigm in sociology, the looking-glass self suggests that the self-concept is more than just the product of self-reflection. Instead, the way in which people see themselves is based on how they believe others perceive them during social interactions.

cross sectional design

measure at one specific point in time

Groupthink

occurs when situational pressures hinder groups from critically evaluating relevant information. A powerful leader makes groupthink more likely, and the other group members are largely complicit in the behaviors and beliefs that produce groupthink. Groups affected by groupthink wrongly believe they have followed a sound decision-making process Pressures to reach consensus and stifle dissent are key to groupthink, and thus a group norm that encouraged dissent and critical evaluation would address the central problem of groupthink.

Relative poverty

refers to having fewer resources in relation to the more affluent in one's society.

functional fixedness

refers to people's tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions, which can inhibit solving problems.

The socioeconomic gradient in health

refers to the graded relationship between social class and health, in which each "step" up on the hierarchy of social stratification tends to be associated with better health.

The availability heuristic

refers to the tendency to estimate the likelihood of events based on how easily (i.e., how rapidly) examples of those events can be retrieved from memory.

Overconfidence effect

refers to the tendency to overestimate the accuracy of one's beliefs and judgments.

The confirmation bias

refers to the tendency to search for information that confirms one's preconceptions.

Which observation best demonstrates the proposition that gender is socially constructed?

related to the presumption that social and cultural factors affect differential health outcomes between males and females. Unintentional injury often occurs from behaviors that are patterned according to gender norms. For example, males are more likely than females to engage in risk-taking activities that can lead to injuries. This difference is rooted in social and cultural factors more so than in purely biological causes. The remaining options, although having a social element, are each more strongly based in biological differences between males and females.

does chunking require effort

requires effortful processing and therefore involves selective attention and conscious effort.

Social capital vs social support

social capital suggests that social networks provide valuable resources. Social capital is believed to result in various health benefits for the individual, including reductions in the health risks of chronic inflammation. Partly related to social support, social capital emphasizes the tangible resources provided by network members (whereas social support tends to focus on emotional resources). Both social support and social capital suggest that social contacts will be beneficial to individual health and well-being.

Which sociological theory best explains the existence of cross-cultural differences in how mental health disorders are classified?

social constructionism Social constructionism presumes that ideas (such as knowledge about health and disease) are created through historical processes that are socially defined and culturally distinct. Thus, variation in mental illness classification across societies with different cultures suggests that such disorders are socially constructed. The reference to cultural differences and classification in the question indicates an explanation derived from social constructionism.

functionalism

sociological paradigm of functionalism makes a distinction between manifest, or intended, and latent, or unintended, functions of social activities. From the functionalist perspective, almost all social actions have both manifest functions and latent functions, both of which are connected to overall social stability.

Labeling theory

suggests that people are often placed into social categories, one of which could be a stigmatized category. Thus, labeling theory is most closely associated with social stigma. As related to the passage, labeling theory would suggest that social skills training could potentially prevent or counteract the stigmatization of some students in schools.

A researcher taking the perspective of social epidemiology is most likely to focus on:

the social determinants of health and disease Social epidemiology emphasizes how social factors, such as class or race/ethnicity, affect the distribution of health and disease. As a subfield of epidemiology, social epidemiology has significant overlap with sociological perspectives on health and disease. Both types of research call attention to the ways in which health and disease are conditioned by the social context.