Q9 Choi Online Quiz 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8

Quiz 5, Question 15 Which of the following is FALSE regarding aortic aneurysm? A. ascending aorta should be less than 4cm in caliber B. With regard to abdominal aortic aneurysm, if a male pt has AAA larger than 5.5cm in caliber, elective surgical repair is recommended C. Caliber of AAA measured on the lateral lumbar spine is usually exaggerated (larger than the actual caliber) D. As the diameter increases, the likelihood of rupture decreases

D.

Quiz 5, Question 3) "Figure 3 sign" is associated with which of the following vascular conditions? a. Dissecting aneurysm b. Aortic valve stenosis c. Aneurysm of the ascending aorta d. Coarctation of the aorta

D.

(Quiz 4, Question 1) Which of the following describes the correct of the airways from the proximal to distal structures? (a.) Trachea - main bronchi - segmental bronchi - subsegmental bronchi(b. Terminal bronchioles - bronchioles - alveolar ducts - alveolar sacs)(c. Subsegmental bronchi - alveolar sacs - alveolar ducts - segmental bronchi)(d. Trachea - subsegmental bronchi - main bronchi - segmental bronchi)

A.

(Quiz 4, Question 15)Both mitral valve stenosis and insufficiency can lead to enlargement of the left atrium resulting in double density sign on chest X-ray. True or False? (a.) True(b. False)

A.

(Quiz 4, Question 6)What are two direct radiographic signs indicating the presence of atelectasis? (a.) Increased radiopacity of the affected lung and displacement of the interlobar fissures(b. Increased radiopacity of the affected lung and elevation of the diaphragm)(c. Elevation of the diaphragm and mediastinal displacement)(d. Compensatory hyperinflation of the normal lung and mediastinal displacement)

A.

(Quiz 4, Question 9)Chest radiographic presentation of the bronchial asthma can vary from normal chest to increased central interstitial markings. True or False? (a.) True(b. False)

A.

(Quiz 6, Question 3) Solitary pulmonary nodule is defined as: a. Discrete, well marginated, and round radiopacity b. Ill-defined consolidation area of the lung field c. The size of the nodule is larger than 3 cm d. Multiple focal radiopacities in the lung field)

A.

(Quiz 6, Question 5) Between A and B, which solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN) is likely to be malignant? A. a B. b

A.

(Quiz 8, Question 3) Which of the following statements is false regarding adenocarcinomas of the lung? a. Adenocarcinoma is the least common type of primary bronchogenic carcinoma b. Adenocarcinomas are more commonly found in periphery of the lung rather central c. Adenocarcinomas do not have strong association with smoking history in contrast to other types of bronchogenic carcinomas d. Adenocarcinomas are the most common type of bronchogenic carcinoma in women and non-smokers)

A.

(Quiz 8, Question 5) 59 year old male with SOB. Choose two most likely conditions that can show the following radiographic appearance of these CT scan images. a. Lobar pneumonia and brochoalveolar carcinoma b. Pancoast tumor or hamartoma c. Lobar pneumonia and hamartoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma and Pancoast tumor)

A.

(Quiz 8, Question 7) Transthoracic needle biopsy is used when the pulmonary nodule/mass evaluated is located in the peripheral aspect of the lung. True or False? a. True b. False

A.

Quiz 1, Question 12 A or B.

A.

Quiz 1, Question 15 Which of the following bony findings in the areas indicated in a circle (A to D) demonstrates an abnormality that concerns potential pulmonary condition? A. B. C. D.

A.

Quiz 1, Question 4 a. Digital clubbing b. Fibrotic change of the skin) c. Spoon-shaped nails d. Severe arthritic change of the all of the fingers)

A.

Quiz 1, Question 6 Which imaging modality has a highest sensitivity in detecting lung cancer? a. CT b. X-ray c. Ultrasound d. All of the above imaging modalities have the same sensitivity in detecting lung cancer

A.

Quiz 1, Question 7 Which is the triad of hypertrophic osteoarthropathy? a. Arthritis, Digital clubbing, Periostitis b. Hilar lymphadenopathy, Digital clubbing, Pulmonary soft tissue mass)c. Digital clubbing, Pitting of nail, Arthritis d. Arthritis, Periostitis, Koilonychia

A.

Quiz 2, Question 15 Bowel gas in the hepatic flexure can be visualized adjacent to the liver due to density difference. True or False? a. True b. False

A.

Quiz 2, Question 5 Between radiograph A and B, which one displays Kerley B lines? a. A b. B displays no abnormal findings)

A.

Quiz 2, Question 9 Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the pleura? a. The parietal pleura is in direct contact with the lung b. The air collection between the visceral and parietal pleura is called pneumothorax c. Inflammation the pleura can cause pain and is called pleurisy d. Pleural effusion refers to a fluid collection between the visceral and parietal pleura)

A.

Quiz 5, Question 7) Which of the following radiographic features is NOT likely associated with empyema? a. Convex chest wall mass with inward deformity b. Blunting of the costophrenic sulci c. Massive radiopacity obscuring most of the hemithorax d. Mediastinal deviation/bowing toward the hemithorax with empyema

D.

Quiz 3, Question 4 44-year-old female presents with complaints of tingling sensations at the tip of her right fingers whenever shesweeps the floor as well as a nagging pain in her neck. Based on the radiographs, which is likely associated with her symptomatology? (a.) Cervical ribs(b. Anomalous bifid ribs)(c. aortic arch dilatation)(d. soft tissue mass in the superior mediastinum)

A.

Quiz 5, Question 12 3yr old with a known congenital heart defect. based on the shape of the cardiac silhouette, which chamber is enlarged? A. R ventricle B. L ventricle

A.

Quiz 5, Question 13 Which of the following points to the most salient finding on this CT image?

A.

Quiz 5, Question 5) Aortic dissection refers to separation of _________. a. Tunica intima and tunica media b. Tunica media and tunica adventitia c. Thrombus and tunica intima d. Location of blood in the tunica adventitia)

A.

Quiz 3, Question 11 Which one of the radiographic findings is not compatible with the radiograph provided below? A. Indistinct right heart border B. Right middle lobe pneumonia C. Vertical orientation of the anterior ribs D. Depressed sternum on the lateral view

B

(Quiz 4, Question 12) If the mitral valve opening is narrowed due to rigidity and scarring of the valve, it is referred to as: (a. Mitral valve regurgitation)(b.) Mitral valve stenosis(c. Mitral valve insufficiency)(d. Mitral valve prolapse)

B.

(Quiz 4, Question 13) Which one of the following is NOT considered radiographic features of mitral valve insufficiency? (a. Double density sign)(b.) Tracheal air shadow deviation(c. Mitral valve calcification)(d. Increased cardiothoracic ratio due to left ventricular enlargement)

B.

(Quiz 4, Question 5)In the presence of an intrapulmonary space occupying lesion such as large bullae, neoplasms or abscesses, the adjacent lung parenchyma can be collapsed due to mass effect of the lesion. This type of atelectasis is referredto as... (a. Passive atelectasis)(b.) Compressive atelectasis(c. Adhesive atelectasis)(d. Obstructive atelectasis)

B.

(Quiz 5, Question 6) This pulmonary condition can be seen as pleural or parapneumonic effusion on the chest X-ray. However, through the procedure of thoracentesis, it would show positive cultures, which differentiates it from simple pleural effusion. This pulmonary condition is referred to as _________. a. Hydrothorax b. Empyema c. Hemothorax d. Chylothorax

B.

(Quiz 6, Question 1) Which of the following statements is false regarding lung cancer? a. The five year survival rate is substantially lower than other types of cancer b. The majority of lung cancers are detected at an early age c. The timing of the diagnosis of lung cancer has strong relationship with prognosis d. Breast cancer is one of the most common cancer deaths in women in the US)

B.

(Quiz 4, Question 7) Based on the radiograph and coronal PET-CT provided below, which one of the following statements best describes about the radiographic findings and diagnosis? (a. There is an emphysematous change involving the right lung field as evidenced by diffuse hyperlucency of the right lung field. The PET-CT scan is negative.)(b. There is a tension pneumothorax involving the right lung resulting in shifting of the left mediastinal deviation. The PET-CT scan is negative.)(c.) There is a large soft tissue mass in the left hilum likely resulting in occlusion of the left main bronchus with associated atelectasis.(d. There is a large pleural effusion involving the left pleura space as seen on the radiograph and PET-CT scan with unknown etiology)

C.

Quiz 2, Question 8 Based on the radiographs below, which of the following statements is FALSE? a. There is minimal enlargement of the cardiac shadow b. There is a radiographic evidence of the presence of free air in the peritoneal cavity c. Based on radiographic finding[s], this patient is likely to have an underlying serious visceral pathology d. The main radiographic finding is due to interposition of the hepatic flexure between the right hemi-diaphragm and the liver

D.

Quiz 3, Question 5 What kind of cardiovascular normal variant is seen on the chest X-ray? (a. Pectus excavatum)(b. Azygos fissure and lobe)(c. Pectus carinatum)(d.) Right sided aortic arch

D.

Quiz 3, Question 6 Which of the following descriptions is compatible with the azygos fissure? a. The azygos fissure has two layers of the pleura. b. Approximately 50% of the cases of azygos fissure is found on the right side. c. Having azygos fissure increases likelihood of having pulmonary diseases such as lobar pneumonia. d. The azygos fissures can be seen on AP cervical view.

D.

Quiz 3, Question 7 The apex heart beat was palpated in an atypical location. The radiographic is compatible with the aforementioned clinical finding. What is the diagnosis? a. Pectus excavatum b. Azygos fissure and lobe c. Right sided aortic arch d. Dextrocardia with situs inversus

D.

Quiz 5, Question 14 Which of the following imaging studies has LEAST diagnostic value in diagnosing aortic dissection? A. CT scan with arterial contrast enhancement B. Transesophageal echocardiography C. MRI (MRA) D. Chest Xray

D.

(Quiz 4, Question 10)After examining a frontal chest X-ray and a selected chest CT image, what is your diagnosis? (a. Right lower lobe pneumonia/consolidation there is no evidence of airspace consolidation)(b. Right upper lobe pneumonia/consolidation)(c.) Localized bronchiectasis involving the right upper lobe(d. Localized bronchiectasis involving the right lower lobe)

C.

(Quiz 4, Question 11) Which two valves in the heart are most likely affected in acquired valvular heart disease? (a. Mitral and pulmonary valves)(b. Tricuspid and pulmonary valves)(c.) Mitral and aortic valves(d. Tricuspid and aortic valves)

C.

(Quiz 4, Question 2)Which one of the following statements best describes the definition of atelectasis? (a. Filling the airspace with fluid such as blood, pus or cells)(b. Over-inflation of the airspace with diffuse hyperlucency of the lung on a chest X-ray)(c.) Incomplete air filling or collapse of pulmonary parenchyma(d. Air trapped in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura)

C.

Quiz 1, Question 3 a. Tell the patient pneumonia is going to resolve once she goes through antibiotic therapy b. Tell the patient that there is no significant radiographic findings on the chest X-ray c. Tell the patient that sonographic [ultrasound] examination of the chest is warranted d. Tell the patient that she needs to get a CT scan for further evaluation

D

Quiz 3, Question 12 What are the two main significant radiographic findings seen on this chest radiograph below? A. Pleural effusion and a large soft tissue mass in the right upper lung field B. Pleural effusion and a large soft tissue mass in the left upper lung field C. Obliteration of the right heart border with associated soft tissue radiopacity in the right mid lung field D. Prominent right mediastinum widening and tortuosity of the descending thoracic aorta

D

Quiz 1, Question 8 Which of the following statement describes the CT finding based on the axial CT scan? A. Soft tissue mass in the anterior aspect of the right lung B. Soft tissue mass in the posterior aspect of the right lung C. Soft tissue mass in the anterior aspect of the left lung D. Soft tissue mass in the posterior aspect of the left lung

D.

Quiz 1, Question 9 A. Fracture of the right acetabulum B. Fracture of the right femoral head C. Soft tissue mass along the posterior aspect of the uterus D. Soft tissue mass along the posterior aspect of the urinary bladder

D.

Quiz 2, Question 1 Inspiration and expiration can be used to detect ________. a. Pneumothorax b. Atelectasis c. Air-trapping d. All of the above

D.

Quiz 2, Question 3 Which one of the anatomic structures is found in the anterior mediastinum? a. Descending thoracic aorta b. Aortic arch of Superior mediastinum c. Esophagus d. Thymus

D.

Quiz 2, Question 6 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the provided radiograph? a. There is significant superior mediastinum widening b. There is a large soft tissue radiopacity adjacent to the tracheal air shadow c. The tracheal air shadow is deviated to the right along with associated narrowing d. The large soft tissue mass is likely arising from the upper lung field

D.

(Quiz 6, Question 7) Which one of the following soft tissue radiopacity described is most likely malignant? a. A soft tissue radiopacity with a diameter of 12mm with popcorn like calcification. There is no change in size when compared with the radiographs taken 2 years prior. b. A soft tissue radiopacity with 25% increase in diameter over the last three months. There is no matrix calcification. c. A soft tissue radiopacity with smooth margin that has increased in size by 10% over the last 20 months. There is diffuse matrix calcification. d. A soft tissue radiopacity with a 50% increase in size in the last 3 weeks with ill-defined margin. It is measured 20mm in diameter.)

B.

(Quiz 8, Question 1) 66 year old male presents with chronic persistent productive cough, shortness of breath, difficulty breathing, and chest pain when coughing. Recently he has also noticed that his arms and face become swollen in the morning.) The patient has 50 pack year history of smoking. Based on clinical information and radiographic findings, which of the following statements best explains regarding the clinical status of the patient? a. The patient is likely experiencing CHF considering edema of the face and Upper Extremities b. There is large soft tissue density in the medial aspect of the right upper lung field likely causing mass effect on the superior vena cava c. There is an extensive aneurysm extending from the ascending aorta to the aortic arch causing right tracheal deviation d. There is a large area of pulmonary consolidation in the right upper lobe with air bronchogram sign and the patient is likely experiencing lobar pneumonia)

B.

(Quiz 8, Question 12) Which of the following diagnostic imaging studies can best evaluate hiatal hernia distinguishing a sliding from a paraesophageal hernia? a. X-ray b. Barium Study c. Nuclear Imaging d. Angiography

B.

Quiz 1, Question 13 Identify the structure: A. Descending aorta B. Thoracic vertebral body C. Ascending aorta D. Sterum

B.

Quiz 1, Question 5 40 pack-year history is compatible with? A. Smoking 20 cigarettes (1 pack) a day for the last 20 years B. Smoking 40 cigarettes (2 pack) a day for the last 20 years C. Smoking 10 cigarettes (1/2 pack) a day for the last 40 years D. Smoking 40 cigarettes (2 pack) a day for the last 40 years

B.

Quiz 2, Question 11 There is gas exchange at the level of terminal bronchioles. True or False? a. True b. False

B.

Quiz 2, Question 12 Which one of the osseous structures is least likely to be visualized on Chest X-ray? a. Scapula b. Ulna c. Clavicle d. Humerus

B.

Quiz 2, Question 2 In adequate inspiration, you should see _______ right posterior ribs and the anterior rib of the _____ rib should be crossing the dome of the right diaphragm at the midclavicular line. a. 7-8, 4th b. 9-10, 6th c. 11-12, 9th d. At least 12, 11th

B.

Quiz 3, Question 10 Based on this PA view of the chest, the configuration of the cardiac shadow demonstrates __________________________. a. Left ventricular enlargement b. Right ventricular enlargement

B.

Quiz 3, Question 8 The patient is asymptomatic. The questionable small fusiform radiopacity in the right upper lung field is compatible with ________. (a. Pectus excavatum)(b.) Azygos fissure and lobe(c. Pectus carinatum)(d. Dextrocardia with situs inversus)

B.

Quiz 5, Question 10 If the left heart border becomes obliterated on the chest X-ray, the lung consolidation is most likely involving ______. a. Superior aspect of the left upper lobe b. Lingual of the left upper lobe c. Right middle lobe d. Superior aspect of the right upper lobe)

B.

Quiz 5, Question 2 Which of the following radiographic changes occurs first in congestive heart failure? a. Interstitial pulmonary edema b. Cephalization of flow c. Kerley B lines d. Aleveolar pulmonary edema)

B.

Quiz 5, Question 9 The soft tissue radiopacity indicated by an arrow in the right hemithorax is likely an intrapulmonary structure. True or False? A. True B. False

B.

Quiz 2, Question 10 Interstitial pattern of lung disease involves alveoli, alveolar duct, and respiratory bronchioles. True or False? a. True b. False

B. [The alveoli, alveolar sac, alveolar duct, and respiratory bronchioles are considered air space]

(Quiz 6, Question 8) 44 year old male presents with mid back pain that started 2 weeks ago without pulmonary symptoms. Thoracic X-rays including PA chest projection were taken. The PA chest radiograph below reveals a well-marginated soft tissue radiopacity without matrix calcification & measured approximately 35 mm in diameter or at its widest dimension.) Based on the clinical & radiographical information given, which one of the following is considered a reasonable next step/approach? a. Refer the patient for ultrasound study of the chest of the mass b. Inform the patient that the radiographic finding is most likely due to infection in origin. Therefore, a referral of antibiotic therapy is warranted. c. Refer the patient for contrast enhanced CT scan for further characterization of the mass d. Inform the patient that radiographic findings is most likely insignificant and there is no need to see other specialists)

C.

(Quiz 8, Question 14) Which of the following statements is false regarding abdominal radiology? a. Based on abdominal condition evaluated, different diagnostic imaging modalities such as barium study, US, and CT can be utilized b. Complemental abdominal X-rays include an upright AP view and decubitus view c. Supine AP view of the abdomen shows air-fluid level in the dilated bowel loops d. Standard abdominal X-ray is performed with a patient in supine position)

C.

(Quiz 8, Question 9) Which type of bronchogenic carcinoma is likely to result in cavity formation? a. Small cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Large cell carcinoma)

C.

Quiz 1, Question 14 Identify: A. L Pulmonary A. B. R Pulmonary A. C. L Major Oblique Fissure D. R Minor horizontal fissure

C.

Quiz 2, Question 13 What can be suspected if the interface between the right lung and the dome of the right hemi-diaphragm is obliterated? a. Pneumothorax b. Pneumoperitoneum c. Airspace consolidation of the right lower lobe d. Airspace consolidation of the right middle lobe)

C.

Quiz 2, Question 14 Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement regarding chest X-ray technique? a. Normally FFD [focal film distance] is 72 inches b. The routine series include PA and lateral projections c. Chest X-ray technique utilizes low kVp at 60-70 kVp d. The exposure is made at the end of full inspiration)

C.

Quiz 2, Question 4 If the widest transverse diameter of the heart is bigger than at least _____ % of the widest transverse diameter of the thorax on PA chest X-ray, cardiomegaly is suspected for a diagnosis/finding. a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 80%

C.

Quiz 2, Question 7 A patient has high fever and has been ill for several days with productive coughs. Based on the PA and lateral chest X-rays, which lobe appears to have abnormality? a. Right upper lobe b. Left upper lobe c. Right middle lobe d. Left lower lobe)

C.

Quiz 3, Question 1 Which of the following statements best describes about radiographs provided below? (a. There is a large round calcific radiopacity involving the right middle lobe)(b. There is a large round calcific radiopacity involving the right lower lobe)(c.) An extrapulmonary large rim-like round calcific radiopacity overlies right mid to lower lung field(d. The lateral projection confirms that the calcific soft tissue mass in intrapulmonary structure)

C.

Quiz 3, Question 14 (a. The enlarged cardiac shadow is due to under-inspiration)(b. The right heart border is not clearly visualized on this chest X-ray, indicating right middle lobe disease or pectus excavatum)(c.) There is double density sign due to enlargement of the left atrium(d. The cardiac shadow appears enlarged because this radiograph was done anterior to posterior)

C.

Quiz 3, Question 15 Choose all the correct statements regarding the similar radiographic finding adjacent to the R hemidiaphragm seen in both chest radiographs provided (a. The radiographic finding seen in radiograph A is likely to be an incidental finding)(b. The anatomic variation of the hepatic flexure of the colon can be associated with the finding in radiograph B)(c.) The radiograph B suggests a serious intra-abdominal disease and the need for urgent surgical management(d. The radiograph A requires additional advanced imaging including CT and ultrasound and surgical intervention due to high mortality)

C.

Quiz 3, Question 2 Based on the radiograph, which of the following statements is correct? (a. There is diffuse radiopacity involving the left mid to lower lung field)(b. Diffuse radiolucency of the right lung field is due to complete collapse of the right lung)(c.) Small round soft tissue mass in the right upper lung field raises a suspicion of metastatic disease(d. Both lung fields are clear of pulmonary consolidation, nodule, or mass)

C.

Quiz 3, Question 3 Based on the radiograph, what is your diagnosis? (a. Thoracic vertebral compression fracture at T7)(b. Pectus excavatum)(c.) Pectus carinatum(d. Right middle lobe pneumonia/consolidation)

C.

Quiz 3, Question 9 Which of the following statements regarding the provided radiographs is correct? (a. The patient likely had a blunt trauma to his chest)(b. The surgical procedure is referred to as CABG Coronary Artery Bypass Graft)(c.) There is a congenital chest wall deformity corrected by Nuss procedure(d. The patient had a significant cardiomegaly likely representing congestive heart failure)

C.

Quiz 6, Question 2 Which of the following statements is false regarding lung cancer? a. The right lung is more likely to be affected than the left b. The upper lobe is more likely to be affected than the lower lobe c. The majority of lung cancer arises in the trachea d. Up to 50% of patients are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis)

C.

Quiz 5, Question 11 A 58 yr old male is a long time chiro pt. He has been complaining of difficulty breathing and shortness of breathe for a while. However, it was becoming worse for the last a few weeks. Which of the following radiographic description is NOT compatible with this pt's chest xrays. A. there is an increase AP diamenter of the chest B. The dome of L and R hemidiaphram is flattened C. 9 posterior ribs are seen on PA projection D. Blunting of bilateral costophrenic sucli is noted

C. This is due to flattening of the hemidiaphragms. However, you cannot rule out small pleural effusion. The challenge is that flattening of the hemidiaphragm leads to blunting of the costophrenic sulci, which makes it impossible to know if there is a small pleural effusion by looking at the costophrenic sulci. This is best shown on the lateral projection. As the chest expands, the dome of diaphragm flattens.

Quiz 3, Question 13 Which of the following statements describes the rhomboid fossa? A. It is a depressed area between the scapula covered by rhomboid major and minor muscles. B. It is a broad depression on the anterior surface of the scapula, from which subscapularis muscle originates. C. It is a small depression located along the lateral aspect of the spinous processes of the thoracic spine, serving as an insertion point for the rhomboid major and minor muscles. D. It is a concave area along the inferior aspect of the medial end of the clavicle, to which the costoclavicular ligament inserts.

D Rhomboid major and minor muscles insert to the medial border of the scapula.

(Quiz 4, Question 14) Aortic valve stenosis can cause which of the following radiographic findings except: (a. prominent ascending aorta)(b. post-dilation of the ascending aorta)(c. left ventricular hypertrophy)(d.) enlargement of the left atrium

D.

(Quiz 4, Question 3)Which type of atelectasis is the most common type? (a. Compressive atelectasis)(b. Passive atelectasis)(c. Cicatrization atelectasis)(d.) Obstructive atelectasis

D.

(Quiz 4, Question 4)There is a central bronchogenic carcinoma infiltrating the right upper lobar bronchus, which causes collapse of the right upper lobe with compensatory hyperinflation of the right lower lobe. This describes which type of atelectasis? (a. Passive atelectasis)(b. Compressive atelectasis)(c. Adhesive atelectasis)(d.) Obstructive atelectasis

D.

(Quiz 4, Question 8) The provided lateral and frontal chest radiographs display anterior and superior displacement of the major oblique fissure, increased radiopacity in the left upper lung field, and mild elevation of the left hemidiaphragm. The aforementioned three main radiographic findings suggests: (a. Right middle lobe atelectasis)(b. Left lower lobe atelectasis)(c. Right upper lobe atelectasis)(d.) Left upper lobe atelectasis

D.

(Quiz 5, Question 1) Which one of the radiographic findings that can be seen on chest X-rays is least likely associated with congestive heart failure? a. The cardiothoracic ratio is bigger than 50% b. Prominent central pulmonary vessels c. Kerley B lines d. Small aortic arch

D.

(Quiz 5, Question 4) Congenital discrete narrowing of the aortic isthmus distal to the left subclavian artery is referred to as ______. a. Dissecting aneurysm b. Aortic valve stenosis c. Aneurysm of the ascending aorta d. Coarctation of the aorta

D.

(Quiz 6, Question 10) 61 year old male presents with right shoulder pain and cough with 30 year pack history of smoking. Based on the PA chest radiograph provided, which of the following statements is true? a. The patient is likely suffering from thoracic outlet syndrome TOS b. The costophrenic and cardiophrenic angles are blunted and suggestive of massive pleural effusion c. A large soft tissue radiopacity in the left mid lung field obliterates the left heart border d. Right apical soft tissue radiopacity represent a bronchogenic carcinoma

D.

(Quiz 6, Question 4) Which of the following statements is false regarding the features of pulmonary nodules? a. When the nodule size is larger, there is a higher chance of being malignant b. If the nodule is larger than 3 cm in diameter, it is considered a mass and malignant until proven otherwise c. The presence of calcification of the nodule is one of the most important features to distinguish a benign nodule from a malignant one d. If the margin of the nodule is speculated, it is more likely to be benign than malignant

D.

(Quiz 6, Question 6) Which of the following calcification patterns of solitary pulmonary nodules is considered malignant? a. Diffuse b. Central c. Laminar d. Eccentric

D.

(Quiz 8, Question 10) Which of the following statements is false regarding the pulmonary metastasis? a. Hematogenous spread is more common route of spread than lymphatic spread b. Common primary sites include carcinomas of the breast, kidney, ovary, and colon c. In most cases, multiple pulmonary nodules of variable size can be seen on the chest x-ray rather than solitary nodule d. Typically pulmonary nodule metastatic foci tend to cavitate

D.

(Quiz 8, Question 11) Which of the follow factors is NOT likely to contribute to likelihood of malignancy of colonic polyp? a. The # of polyps b. The age of patient c. The size of polyp d. Location of polyp

D.

(Quiz 8, Question 13) Which of the following statements is false regarding the X-ray below? a. There is no fracture or dislocation of the visualized osseous structures b. The visualized bowel gas pattern appears unremarkable c. There are multiple calcified phleboliths d. There are numerous bladder stones in the center of the pelvic basin

D.

(Quiz 8, Question 15) Which of the following statements is correct regarding hiatal hernia? a. Patients with hiatal hernia are almost all invariably symptomatic b. The paraesophageal type is less likely to cause potential complications) c. The gastroesophageal junction is not displaced in the sliding hernia d. The sliding hernia by far is the most common type of hiatal hernia

D.

(Quiz 8, Question 6) 61 year old male with a 40 pack year history of smoking presenting with 55 lbs. of unintended weight loss last 3 months. Vitals T: 98.4 P: 82 R: 18 BP: 142/92 mmHg.) Sputum was negative for Mycobacterium.Based on the radiographic findings and clinical information, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? a. Miliary tuberculosis TB b. Lobar pneumonia c. CHF d. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma

D.

(Quiz 8, Question 8) Which one of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis list based on the radiographic finding seen below? a. Lung cancer. b. Tuberculosis, (TB) likely secondary c. Lung abscess. d. All of the above

D.

Quiz 1, Question 1 Which of the following is an order of diagnostic imaging studies that were performed in the case of the patient with hypertrophic osteoarthropathy discussed during the class? A. X-rays of the hands -> X-rays of the chest -> Biopsy -> PET-> Chest CT B. X-rays of the hands -> Chest CT -> X-rays of the chest -> Biopsy -> PET C. X-rays of the chest -> X-rays of the Chest -> Chest CT -> PET -> Biopsy D. X-rays of the hands -> X-rays of the Chest -> Chest CT -> Biopsy -> PET

D.

Quiz 1, Question 11 A. Aortic arch B. Left pulmonary artery C. Rib D. Descending aorta

D.

Quiz 5, Question 8 Which of the following statements is false regarding the comparison between empyema and simple parapneumonic [pleural] effusion? a. The type of fluid in simple parapneumonic effusion is likely transudate b. Contrast - enhanced CT scan would be helpful to differentiate simple pleural effusion from empyema c. Split pleura sign can be a highly sensitive and specific sign on CT for the presence of empyema d. In simple pleural effusion, the pleura is likely enhanced by intravenous contrast on the CT scan

D.

Quiz 6, Question 9) Which of the following radiographic findings is likely associated with bronchogenic carcinoma? a. Atelectasis b. Pleural effusion c. Hilar enlargement d. All of the above

D.

Quiz 8, Question 2) Which one of the following is NOT considered local effects of bronchogenic carcinoma? a. Postobstructive pneumonia b. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy c. Atelectasis d. Cushing syndrome

D.

Quiz 8, Question 4) Which of the following is not true about bronchoalveolar carcinoma? a. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma primarily involves the bronchioles and alveoli b. There is a strong association with a history of smoking c. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma can stimulate the radiographic appearance of airspace disease pattern d. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma is a subtype of a small cell carcinoma

D.