Questions i got wrong practice tests
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential? Select one: a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 0.2 d. 0.1
0.1
When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations? Select one: a. 0.4 b. 0.3 c. 0.1 d. 0.2
0.1
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? 0.62 0.92 0.22 0.72
0.72
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight b. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight c. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? Select one: a. 35 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 2 minutes d. 10 minutes
10 minutes
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Less than 15 seconds 15 to 60 seconds 60 to 90 seconds 90 to 120 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 1 or 2 drills b. 4 to 6 drills c. 9 or 10 drills d. 7 to 9 drills
4 to 6 drills
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? a. X-X-X-X b. 4-2-1-1 c. 2-0-2-0 d. 1-2-3-4
4-2-1-1
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? Select one: a. 0 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 5 minutes d. 60 to 120 seconds
60 to 120 seconds
What is the principle of specificity? Select one: a. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium b. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it c. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts d. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle
A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Lower trapezius Hip flexors Adductor complex Abdominals
Abdominals
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? Select one: a. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes b. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout c. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods d. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
What are essential amino acids? Select one: a. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis b. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body d. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources
Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome? Adductor complex (inner thighs) Hip flexors Upper trapezius Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids a. Increased energy b. Improved thyroid function c. Proinflammatory properties d. Anti-inflammatory properties
Anti-inflammatory properties
Kettlebells were first used in which setting? Select one: a. The Russian military b. Eastern European gymnastic programs c. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators d. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Dead bug b. Back extension c. Medicine ball overhead throw d. Plank
Back extension
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Select one: a. Triceps extension b. Back squat c. Calf raise d. Bench press
Back squat - Builds Muscle Throughout Your Entire Body In fact squats are so intense that theytrigger the release of testosterone and HGH (human growth hormone) in your body, which are both vital for muscle growth and helping to improve muscle mass throughout other areas of your body aside from your legs.
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates? Select one: a. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise b. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes c. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest d. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms. b. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity. c. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Speed Change of direction Power Strength
Change of direction
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature? Select one: a. Seated cable row b. Lat pulldown c. Ball cobra d. Close grip bench press
Close grip bench press
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight movements b. Loaded movements c. Closed-chain movements d. Open-chain movements
Closed-chain movements
Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like? Select one: a. Consistency b. Intensity c. Accountability d. Mindlessness
Consistency
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Depth jumps b. Dual-foot drills c. Side-to-side hops d. Sport skills
Dual-foot drills
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)? Select one: a. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise. b. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise. c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise. d. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.
EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom? Select one: a. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training? Select one: a. Seated exercises b. Exercises with free weights c. Exercises using selectorized machines d. Standing exercises on a gym floor Feedback
Exercises with free weights
How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. b. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. c. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. d. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.
Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. - speed play, training method that blends endurance triaing with interval ( speed) - example: You can use time as the measurement. For example, running one minute at a faster effort, then three minutes at easy effort. Or you can use distance - run faster for a half a mile, say, then run easy for half a mile.
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Femur parallel to ground b. Butt to heels c. Full-depth squat d. Knees to 45 degrees
Femur parallel to ground
Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Select one: a. Barbell chest press b. Repeat step-ups c. Floor bridge d. Deadlifts
Floor bridge
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Depletion of phosphocreatine b. Lack of fatty acids c. Lack of pyruvate d. Free hydrogen ions
Free hydrogen ions
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Erector spinae Gluteus maximus Hip flexor Gluteus medius
Gluteus medius
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Depth jumps b. Proprioceptive plyometrics c. Squat jump d. Ice skaters
Ice skaters
Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down? Reduce heart rate Reduce body temperature Increase breathing rate Provide a transition period
Increase breathing rate
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? a. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency b. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency d. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? a. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. b. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. c. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion. d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Stability ball abdominal crunches b. Cable machine single-arm row c. Kettlebell RDL d. Sandbag rotational lunge
Kettlebell RDL
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Diaphragm c. Quadriceps d. Latissimus dorsi Feedback
Latissimus dorsi
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Cervical extensors b. Upper trapezius c. Serratus anterior d. Lower trapezius
Lower trapezius
Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working. b. Maria worked as a camp counselor at a youth sports camp while in college. c. Maria was a co-captain on a state champion volleyball team in high school. d. Maria placed second in her first bikini competition. Feedback
Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. b. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. c. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. d. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Posture specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Mechanical specificity d. Metabolic specificity
Mechanical specificity
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Rectus abdominis c. Gluteus maximus d. Multifidus
Multifidus
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Select one: a. Box jump-up with stabilization b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Tuck jump with stabilization d. Squat jump with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition? Select one: a. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own b. Contained within healthy food items c. Another word for macronutrients d. Needed to build muscle
Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own
Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important? NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness. NEAT can be protective against obesity. NEAT can increase muscle mass. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate.
NEAT can be protective against obesity.
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Sarcopenia c. Neural adaptations d. Muscle atrophy
Neural adaptations - The "neural adaptations" athletes undergo in training refers to the brain's ability to recruit muscles to contract and produce a particular movement.
Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched b. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion c. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely d. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents? The community Parents Peers Exercise groups
Parents
Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Place a small board under the toes Stretch the ankle eversion musculature Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature Place a small board under the heels
Place a small board under the heels
What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. Plant foods and dairy b. Proteins c. All foods d. Animal and plant foods
Plant foods and dairy
What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Posterior pelvic tilt Lateral pelvic tilt Medial pelvic tilt Anterior pelvic tilt
Posterior pelvic tilt
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Maintenance Action Preparation Precontemplation
Preparation
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it? Precontemplation Maintenance Preparation Action
Preparation
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? 40-yard dash Long (broad) jump Pro shuttle Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Pro shuttle
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: Knowledge of performance Motivation Proprioception Knowledge of results
Proprioception
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? a. Pulling b. Pushing c. Squatting d. Hip hinge
Pushing
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following? Select one: a. Absent stretch reflex b. Rapid amortization phase c. Release of stored energy during concentric phase d. Prolonged amortization phase
Rapid amortization phase
Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure? Thermic effect of food Resting metabolism Exercise Thermic effect of activity
Resting metabolism
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Left ventricle Right atrium Left atrium Right ventricle
Right atrium
Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps Active stretching of the hamstrings
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Extension b. Sagittal c. Frontal d. Transverse
Sagittal
What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together? Select one: a. Scapular protraction b. Scapular retraction c. Scapular elevation d. Scapular depression
Scapular retraction
Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues? Ambivalence Social physique anxiety Lack of social support Unrealistic goals
Social physique anxiety
Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement? Select one: a. Davies test b. Standing pull assessment c. Standing overhead press d. Standing push assessment Feedback
Standing push assessment Feedback
Speed is the product of what two variables? Select one: a. Power and time b. Stride rate and stride length c. Quickness and agility d. Acceleration and deceleration
Stride rate and stride length
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice? Select one: a. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake. b. Recommend she eat high-calorie "cheat meals" more often. c. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals. d. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.
Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The constructed environment b. The assembled environment c. The built environment d. The manufactured environment
The built environment
Which of the following describes attitude? Select one: a. The belief that an important person or persons will support a behavior b. A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior c. A person's confidence in their ability to meet their goal d. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
How is osteopenia best described? A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. A disease characterized by low bone density. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.
The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product? The ingredients list The nutrition facts panel The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio The percent reference intake
The nutrition facts panel
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength. b. The person has suffered an ACL sprain. c. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. Feedback
The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined? An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources An aerobic test that measures the participant's ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs? They minimize movement of the spine. They provide support for the head. They support most of the body's weight and are attached to many back muscles. They act as shock absorbers.
They act as shock absorbers.
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Palms facing each other Thumbs pointing up Palms facing down Thumbs pointing down
Thumbs pointing up
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Kidney function b. Liver function c. Heart function d. Thyroid function
Thyroid function
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? Select one: a. Fascicles b. Actin c. Myosin d. Troponin
Troponin
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Arterioles Capillaries Arteries Veins
Veins
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight training b. ViPR c. Speed ladders d. Strength machines
ViPR -vitality performance and reconditioning - loaded movement training (Adding additional weight or load to dynamic, full-body, multiplanar movements.)
What are the three MICROnutrients? Select one: a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients b. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids d. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
Vitamins, minerals, and lipids
Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source? Select one: a. Peas b. Lentils c. Beans d. Whole eggs Feedback
Whole eggs
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Cable machines b. Terra-Core c. Suspended bodyweight training d. TRX Rip Trainer Feedback
a. Cable machines
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? Select one: a. Quadriceps b. Adductor longus c. Gluteus medius d. Biceps brachii Feedback
a. Quadriceps - An eccentric motion is when a muscle is lengthened during contraction. When you squat, the eccentric movement happens during the downward phase of the squat motion as you slowly lower your body
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Step-ups b. Barbell clean c. Depth jump d. Single-leg squat
a. Step-ups
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Third class b. First class c. Fourth class d. Second class
a. Third class
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? Select one: a. 0 to 15 seconds b. 15 to 60 seconds c. 60 to 90 seconds d. 90 to 120 seconds
b. 15 to 60 seconds
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response c. Davis's law and Wolf's law d. Pain response and muscle spasm Feedback
b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises? Select one: a. Lying down on back b. Standing c. Sitting d. Kneeling
b. Standing
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat? Select one: a. About 5,500 b. About 500 c. About 3,500 d. About 1,000
c. About 3,500
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Hip abduction b. Ankle dorsiflexion c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Knee flexion
c. Ankle plantar flexion
What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? Select one: a. Carbon molecules b. Essential amino acids only c. Essential and nonessential amino acids d. Peptide bonds
c. Essential and nonessential amino acids
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Select one: a. Recovery b. Intensity c. Training frequency d. Volume
c. Training frequency
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water? Select one: a. 0.4 b. 0.5 c. 0.8 d. 0.6
d. 0.6
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Ketosis b. Glycolysis c. Acidosis d. Beta-oxidation
d. Beta-oxidation
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Select one: a. Intercalated discs b. Right bundle branch c. Atrioventricular node d. Sinoatrial node
d. Sinoatrial node
Which of the following is iron considered to be? Select one: a. Performance supplement b. Macromineral c. Vitamin d. Trace mineral
d. Trace mineral
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Select one: a. Intensity b. Frequency c. Recovery d. Volume
d. Volume
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? Select one: a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. b. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. c. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.