Quiz #3
If the brain is deprived of oxygen for 4 to 6 minutes: A) the patient will die. B) mild tissue hypoxia occurs. C) anoxic brain injury may occur. D) respiratory arrest is irreversible.
C
All of the following conditions would cause a decreased concentration of oxygen in the blood, except: A) an increased respiratory rate. B) a markedly decreased respiratory rate. C) decreased mechanical effort during breathing. D) conditions that create a physical barrier to diffusion.
A
Characteristics of adequate breathing in an adult include all of the following, except: A) asymmetrical chest movement. B) respirations of 14 breaths/min. C) pink oral mucous membranes. D) audible breath sounds bilaterally.
A
Common signs of left-side heart failure include all of the following, except: A) chronic pedal edema. B) tachypnea and tachycardia. C) increased work of breathing. D) production of blood-tinged sputum.
A
Damage to the _______ valve may cause blood to regurgitate into the lungs. A) mitral B) tricuspid C) pulmonic D) papillary
A
Emphysema is caused by: A) surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension. B) excessive mucous production by beta2 cells in the bronchi. C) widespread constriction of the bronchioles and air trapping. D) decreased alveolar surface tension caused by excess surfactant.
A
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients who: A) possibly have a head injury. B) have a systolic BP less than 110 mm Hg. C) take medications for hypertension. D) have already taken two doses.
A
Patients with COPD are highly susceptible to pneumonia because: A) they cannot effectively expel infected pulmonary secretions. B) their immune system is inherently weakened by the disease. C) their age predisposes them to COPD-related lung infections. D) their hyperactive cough reflex leads to alveolar destruction.
A
The condition in which the alveoli collapse is called: A) atelectasis. B) pleuritis. C) bronchitis. D) pneumothorax.
A
Acute epiglottitis in the adult is characterized by: A) a productive cough. B) a low-grade fever. C) a severe sore throat. D) a seal-bark cough.
C
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is indicated for patients with: A) apnea. B) pneumonia. C) pulmonary edema. D) inadequate tidal volume.
C
A male patient with a history of congestive heart failure presents with orthopnea. This means that: A) he cannot breathe effectively unless he is sitting upright. B) the severity of his respiratory difficulty varies with position. C) he must lie in a supine position in order to breathe effectively. D) his respiratory difficulty is severe regardless of his position.
B
Blood enters the right atrium through the: A) left and right coronary arteries. B) vena cavae and coronary sinus. C) foramen ovalis and vena cavae. D) coronary artery and foramen ovale.
B
Cardiac asthma is a condition in which a patient: A) with a history of asthma develops wheezing caused by an acute cardiac event. B) with congestive heart failure experiences wheezing due to constricted bronchi. C) develops acute respiratory distress when fluid suddenly accumulates in the lungs. D) inadvertently takes too much of his or her beta-blocker, resulting in bronchospasm.
B
Hypoxia is a condition in which: A) there is a deficiency of oxygen in the arterial blood. B) there is a lack of oxygen to the body's cells and tissues. C) lactic acid is produced secondary to anaerobic metabolism. D) carbon dioxide accumulates in the blood to dangerous levels.
B
One of the most common signs of an acute hypertensive emergency is: A) a posterior nosebleed. B) a sudden, severe headache. C) pale, cool, clammy skin. D) acute pulmonary edema.
B
Slow, shallow, irregular respirations or occasional gasps are most indicative of: A) brainstem injury. B) cerebral anoxia. C) intracranial pressure. D) narcotic drug overdose.
B
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) increases when: A) a person's respiratory rate is significantly increased. B) excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma. C) carbon dioxide moves across the pulmonary capillaries. D) a patient is hyperventilated with a bag-mask device.
B
Unresponsive patients most often experience airway obstructions from: A) coagulated blood or thick mucus in the mouth. B) occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue. C) loose dentures that fall back into the posterior pharynx. D) foreign bodies, such as food, that block the glottic opening.
B
What part of the cardiac electrical conduction system initiates electrical impulses at the slowest rate? A) The sinoatrial node B) Areas below the AV node C) Any part of the AV node D) The atrioventricular node
B
When assessing a patient using a pulse oximeter, it is important to remember that: A) an oxygen saturation of greater than 90% rules out hypoxemia. B) abnormally bound hemoglobin may produce inaccurate readings. C) pulse oximetry will determine whether or not to administer oxygen. D) the pulse oximeter provides an accurate reading of the patient's PaO2.
B
Which of the following clinical findings is most consistent with inadequate breathing? A) Symmetrical chest movement and warm, dry skin B) Respirations of 16 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C) Increased amount of expired air at the nose and mouth D) Regular breathing pattern and respirations of 24 breaths/min
B
A patient is found unconscious, and trauma has been ruled out. The most appropriate method for opening the patient's airway is the: A) jaw-thrust maneuver. B) tongue-jaw lift maneuver. C) head tilt-chin lift maneuver. D) jaw-thrust without head-tilt maneuver.
C
A supraglottic airway device: A) features two separate lumens. B) eliminates the risk of aspiration. C) does not enter the trachea or esophagus. D) protects the airway better than an ET tube.
C
In addition to oxygen, which of the following medications would the AEMT be the most likely to administer to a patient who is experiencing acute chest pain, pressure, or discomfort? A) Aspirin only B) Morphine and aspirin C) Aspirin and nitroglycerin D) Nitroglycerin and morphine
C
Supplemental oxygen should be administered to maintain an oxygen saturation of ___% or greater. A) 90 B) 92 C) 94 D) 96
C
The aortic valve: A) closes during ventricular systole and facilitates adequate ventricular filling. B) contains five cusps that prevent the backflow of blood into the left ventricle. C) regulates the flow of blood from the left ventricle to the systemic circulation. D) attaches to papillary muscles that contract and tighten the chordae tendineae.
C
The normal site of origin of electrical impulses in the heart is the _______, which generates _______ impulses per minute. A) sinoatrial node, 50 to 60 B) bundle of His, 80 to 100 C) sinoatrial node, 60 to 100 D) atrioventricular node, 60 to 80
C
The respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is a common cause of: A) pertussis and the flu. B) MRSA and whooping cough. C) bronchiolitis and pneumonia. D) asthma and chronic bronchitis.
C
A patient with acute chest discomfort took two of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets and is now experiencing a pounding headache. However, he tells you that he is still experiencing chest discomfort. You should suspect that: A) his prescribed nitroglycerin has lost its potency. B) the nitroglycerin has caused severe hypotension. C) he has stable angina, but still requires transport. D) he is experiencing ongoing myocardial ischemia.
D
After defibrillating an adult patient in cardiac arrest with the AED, you should: A) assess for a carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds. B) insert a supraglottic airway device and resume CPR. C) immediately reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm. D) begin or resume CPR starting with chest compressions.
D
Afterload is defined as the: A) volume of blood returned to the left or right atrium. B) amount of blood ejected per ventricular contraction. C) percentage of blood ejected from the left ventricle. D) pressure against which the left ventricle must pump.
D
The primary function of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to: A) serve as the backup pacemaker if the ventricular conduction system fails. B) regenerate the atrial-initiated electrical impulse before it enters the ventricles. C) increase conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for atrial filling. D) slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling.
D
Treatment for a patient experiencing a cardiovascular emergency begins by: A) assessing the rate and regularity of the pulse. B) applying 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. C) administering prescribed nitroglycerin if needed. D) ensuring airway patency and adequate breathing.
D
Which of the following is the most accurate clinical definition of chronic bronchitis? A) Nonproductive cough for 4 months per year for 1 year B) Productive cough for 2 months per year for 2 consecutive years C) Nonproductive cough for 2 months per year for 3 consecutive years D) Productive cough for 3 months per year for 2 or more consecutive years
D
