Quiz
Small infants have a poor ability to thermoregulate and are unable to shiver to control heat loss until about age o:
12 to 18 months
Young children can drown in as little as ___ of water if left unattended
2 inches
most heat stroke cases occur when the temperature is around___ and the humidity is 80%
80ºF
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization.
A
The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: A. prevent further injury. B. maximize distal circulation. C. make the patient comfortable. D. facilitate ambulance transport.
A
The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. nervous system's control over the muscles. C. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. D. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
A. Bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury? A. A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard. B. A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle. C. A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine. D. A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm.
A. a passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard.
In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.
A. articular cartilage.
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. D. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.
A. compartment syndrome typically
Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the LEAST severe? A. nondisplaced pelvic fracture B. open fractures of a long bone C. an amputation of an extremity D. multiple closed long bone fractures
A. displaced pelvic fracture
The pectoral girdle consists of the: A. scapulae and clavicles. B. clavicles and rib cage. C. sternum and scapulae. D. acromion and clavicles.
A. scapulae and clavicles
Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. skull sutures B. sacroiliac joint C. shoulder joint D. sternoclavicular joint
A. shoulder joint
Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. swelling. B. guarding. C. crepitus. D. ecchymosis.
A. swelling.
Turgor
Ability of the skin to resist deformation
Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: A. prevent further injury. B. reduce pain and swelling. C. enhance tissue circulation. D. maintain extremity perfusion.
B
During your rapid secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and transporting. B. immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting. C. applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur. D. carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities.
B
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.
B
Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. blood cells. C. lymphocytes. D. electrolytes.
B. Blood cells
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A. smooth B. striated C. connective D. involuntary
B. Striated
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. total loss of function in a bone. B. break in the continuity of the bone. C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. D. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
B. break in the continuity of the bone
When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: A. assess proximal circulation. B. compare it to the uninjured leg. C. carefully move it to elicit crepitus. D. ask the patient to move the injured leg.
B. compare it to the uninjured leg.
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. ecchymosis. D. point tenderness.
B. deformity
A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. A. greenstick B. pathologic C. transverse D. comminuted
B. pathologic
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. autonomic
B. skeletal
A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. strain B. sprain C. fracture D. dislocation
B. sprain
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: A. fascia. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.
B. tendons.
If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. distal circulation. B. the patient history. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the presence of deformity.
B. the patient history
Hymenoptera
Bees, Wasps, ants, and yellow jackets
A subluxation occurs when: A. ligaments are partially severed. B. a fracture and a dislocation exist. C. a joint is incompletely dislocated. D. a bone develops a hairline fracture.
C. a joint is incomplete
With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. D. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.
C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.
Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle? A. heart B. skeleton C. blood vessels D. diaphragm
C. blood vessels
A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. greenstick B. diaphyseal C. epiphyseal D. metaphyseal
C. epiphyseal
Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength. B. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. C. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. D. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle.
C. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.
Crepitus and false motion are: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. only seen with open fractures. C. positive indicators of a fracture. D. most common with dislocations.
C. positive indicators of a fracture.
Assessing a person's neurovascular status following a musculoskeletal injury includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing motor function. B. assessing sensory function. C. evaluating proximal pulses. D. determining capillary refill.
C.evaluating proximal pulses.
Air Embolism
Condition caused by air bubbles in the blood vessels
Hypothermia
Condition when the body temperature decreases
A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. D. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
D
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? A. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. B. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. C. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. D. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
D. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. striated D. smooth
D. Smooth
The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: A. strain. B. sprain. C. fracture. D. dislocation.
D. dislocation
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. severe strain B. moderate sprain C. hairline fracture D. displaced fracture
D. displaced fracture
Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.
D. ligaments
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. an amputated extremity B. bilateral femur fractures C. nondisplaced long bone fractures D. pelvic fracture with hypotension
D. pelvic fracture with hypotension
The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: A. guarding. B. severe swelling. C. obvious bruising. D. point tenderness.
D. point tenderness.
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. bone ends protrude through the skin. B. a large laceration overlies the fracture. C. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
Evaporation, the conversion of a liquid to a gas, is a process that requires___
Energy
when heat gain exceeds loss, ____ results
Heat cramps vigorous exercise high humidity
Conduction
Heat loss resulting from sitting on snow
Radiation
Heat loss resulting from standing in a cold room
Evaporation
Heat loss resulting from sweating
Convection
Heat loss that occurs from helicopter rotor blade downwash
The least common but most serious illness caused by heat exposure, occurring when the body is subjected to more heat than it can handle and normal mechanisms for getting rid of the excess hear are overwhelmed, is:
Heatstroke
If a patient has a cold skin temperature, he or she likely is
Hypothermic
____ is the body's reaction to inhaling very small amounts of water
Laryngospasm
____ causes body heat to be lost as warm air in the lungs is exhaled into the atmosphere and cooler
Respiration
Drowning
Respiratory impairment from submersion in cold water
Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Lyme disease are both spread through the tick's
Saliva
Diving Reflex
Slowing of heart rate caused by submersion in cold water
Laryngospasm
Spasm of the Larynx and vocal cords
Signs of environmental by a pit viper include all of the following
Swelling ecchymosis severe burning pain at the site of the injury
Core Temperature
Temperature of the heart, lungs, and vital organs
the following statements about heat cramps are true
They may be seen in well-conditioned athletes the exact cause of heat cramps os not well understood Dehydration may play a role in the development of heat cramps
Often, the first sign of heat stroke is
a change in behavior
To assess a patients core body temperature, pull back your glove and place the back of your hand on the patients:
abdomen, underneath the clothing
potential problems associated with rupture of the lungs include all of the following
air emboli pneumomediastinum pneumothorax
Management of hypothermia in the field consists of all of the following
applying heat packs to the groin, axillary and cervical regions removing wet clothing preventing further heat loss
What is the best method of inactivating a jelly fish sting?
applying vinegar
often the first sign of heat stroke is a change in
behavior
The characteristics appearance of blue lips and/or fingertips seen in hypothermia is the result of:
blood vessels constricting
The organs most severely affected by air embolism are the:
brain and spinal cord
Treatment of a snake bite from a pit viper includes all of the following
calming the patient not giving anything by mouth marking the skin with a pen over the swollen area to whether the swelling is spreading.
Most spinal injuries in diving incidents affect the
cervical spine
Never assume that _____, pulseless patient is dead
cold
Signs and Symptoms of heat exhaustion and associated hypovolemia include all of the following
cold, clammy skin with as he pallor dizziness, weakness, or faintness normal vital signs
the direct transfer of heat from his body to the cold ground is called
conduction
Hyperthermia
core temperature greater than 101ºF
In a diving emergency, ___ occurs when bubbles of gas, especially nitrogen, obstruct the blood vessels
decompression sickness
When obtaining a SAMPLE history for a patient with a diving emergency, pay special attention to all of the following dive parameters
depth length of time the patient was underwater the time onset of symptoms
The three phases of a dive, in the order they occur, are:
descent, bottom, ascent
all of the following conditions refer to when exposed parts of the body become very cold, but not frozen
frost nip trench foot immersion foot
Most frostbitten parts are
hard and waxy
as you assess the patient, he has cold, clammy skin and a dry tongue. You suspect that
he has suffered heat exhaustion
Contributing factors to the development of heat illnesses include all of the following
high air temperature vigorous exercise high humidity
if a patient has a hot skin temperature, he or she likely is
hyperthermic
as you look closer, you notice that he is shivering and his respirations are 20 breaths/min. You begin to have a stronger suspicion that he is now getting:
hypothermic
The rate and amount of heat loss by the body can be modified by all the following
increasing heat production moving to an area where heat loss is decreased wearing insulated clothing
the following statements regarding the brown recluse spider are true
it lives mostly in southern and central parts of the country venom is not neurotoxic Bites rarely cause systemic signs and symptoms
Black Widow spiders may be found in all of the following
new Hampshire woodpiles Georgia
Hypothermia is more common among all of the following
older individuals infants and children those who are already ill
Heat Cramps
painful muscle spasms that occur after vigorous exercise
Coral snake venom is a powerful toxin that causes ___ of the nervous system
paralysis
Treatment of drowning and/or near drowning begins with:
rescue and removal from the water
Ambient temperature
temperature of the surrounding environment
areas usually affected by descent problems include
the lungs
You should never give up on resuscitating a cold-water drowning victim because:
the resulting hypothermia can protect vital organs from the lack of oxygen
when treating multiple victims of lightning strikes, who should you concentrate your efforts on first?
unconscious patients in respirator or cardiac arrest
Removal of a tick should be accomplished by:
using fine tweezers to pull it straight out of the skin
signs and symptoms of severe systemic hypothermia include all of the following
weak pulse coma very slow respirations