Quiz Questions

1.) Which of the following techniques is recommended when patients are ambivalent about behavioral change? a. Motivational interviewing b. Cognitive-behavioral therapy c. Dialectical behavior therapy d. Reality therapy

Motivational interviewing a. Motivational interviewing has been applied in the treatment of alcoholism, drug use, eating disorders, and obesity. It Is based on Prochaska's transtheoretical model of change which posits fiver stages to behavioral change. The goal of motivational interviewing is to enhance patients' motivation by understanding their stage of change, and asking questions and making comments that will be effective for that particular stage. Ambivalence is common in stage two, contemplation. Cognitive-Behavioral therapy (Response 2) encompasses many treatments (Elli's Rational-Emotive Therapy, Beck's Cognitive Therapy, etc.). These techniques are not known for targeting ambivalence. Dialectical behavior therapy (Response 3), developed by Marsha Linehan, is used primarily for Borderline Personality Disorder and self-injurious or parasuicidal behavior. Reality therapy (Response 4) focuses on patients accepting responsibility. Its most common applications are to prison inmates and juvenile delinquents

1.) Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is a statistical test that is used when you want to: a. Covary out multiple dependent variables b. Covary out the effect of multiple IVs on one DV c. Partial out a moderator variable d. Transform a moderator variable into another IV

Partial out a moderator variable a. The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) combines standard analysis of variance (ANOVA) with the technique of partial correlation. It allows the effects of an extraneous or moderator variable to be statistically removed ("partialed out"). It is neither the dependent variable (Response 1) nor multiple independent variables (Response 2) that is being covaried. Transforming a moderator variable into another IV (Response 4) describes "blocking" which requires the randomized block ANOVA. An advantage of this latter technique is that it allows for investigation of the main and interaction effects of the blocked variable with the other IV's

1.) In diagnosing a child with intellectual disability, the level of severity is determined by: a. IQ score b. IQ score and the extent of deficits in adaptive functioning c. The extent of deficits in adaptive functioning d. The number of areas in which the child exhibits deficits in adaptive functioning

The extent of deficits in adaptive functioning a. This question is specifically asking about what criteria are used in the determination of the level of severity of intellectual disability (e.g., whether it is mild, moderate, severe, or profound). According to the DSM-5, while intellectual disability does require deficits in general mental abilities (with an IQ score typically at least 2 standard deviations below the mean), the level of severity is determined based on adaptive functioning alone (Response 3). The diagnosis of intellectual disability requires deficits in adaptive functioning in one or more areas (e.g., communication, independent living) across multiple environments. It is not the number of areas in which deficits are present, but rather the extent of the deficits that determines severity (ruling out Response 4)

1.) The concordance rate for schizophrenia for dizygotic twins is: a. 50% b. 20-25% c. 10-15% d. <1%

a. 10-15% a. For schizophrenia, the concordance rate for dizygotic (fraternal) twins or siblings is 10 to 15% (Response3); the concordance rate for monozygotic (identical) twins is 50% (Response 1). For bipolar I disorder, the concordance rate for dizygotic (fraternal) twins or siblings is about 20 to 25% (Response 2) and for monozygotic (identical) twins about 80%. The prevalence of schizophrenia in the general population is <1% (Response 4)

1.) Major depressive disorder with peripartum onset occurs in about ____ of new mothers. a. 0-3% b. 10-15% c. 30-50% d. 50-80%

a. 10-15% a. Major depressive disorder with peripartum onset, which can continue for months if untreated, occurs in about 10% to 15% of new mothers (Response 2). In addition to depressed mood and/or loss of interest or pleasure, major depressive disorder with peripartum onset commonly involves severe anxiety, irritability, insomnia, disinterest in the infant, guilt, suicidal ideation, poor concentration, as well as weepiness and sadness. In contrast, the condition referred to as postpartum blues or baby blues is mild, relatively short-lived, and tends to be widespread, occurring in 50%-80% (Response 4) of new mothers. Postpartum blues involve moodiness, sadness, difficulty sleeping, irritability, appetite changes, concentration problems, and a sense of emotional vulnerability. Typically, postpartum blues begin within a few days after birth and last from several days to a couple of weeks. Postpartum psychosis occurs in less than 1% of new mothers (Response 1)

1.) If the WAIS-IV has a standard error of measurement of five points on full scale IQ (FSIQ), when a person obtains an FSIQ of 105, what is the likelihood that the true score falls between 100 and 110? a. 1 in 2 b. 2 in 3 c. 3 in 4 d. 4 in 5

a. 2 in 3 a. This question may seem tricky at first because it asks about confidence intervals in a novel way. The question asks about the confidence interval created by plus or minus one standard error of measurement (i.e., between 100 and 110). We know that on a normal curve, one standard error of measurement provides the confidence interval of 68%. We can say that there is a 68% chance that the person's true score falls between 100 and 110. A 68% chance is very close to saying a "2 out of 3" chance (2/3 is 66.67%)

1.) Two predictor tests are developed. The first has a validity coefficient of .5, and the second a validity coefficient of .7. The amount of shared variability with the criterion is approximately how many times greater in the second test as compared with the first? a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 3.0 d. 4.0

a. 2.0 a. To calculate the amount of shared or explained variability with a validity coefficient (or any Pearson r correlation), you must square the correlation coefficient. The first validity coefficient is .5, and .52 = .25. The second validity coefficient is .7, and ,72 = .49. This question is asking how many times greater .49 is than .25, which is approximately 2.0 times greater

1.) A researcher correlates income with education and obtains a correlation of .90. When she correlates income with life satisfaction the correlation is .30. It would be most accurate to say that the amount of shared variability in the first correlation is about how many times greater than the shared variability in the second correlation? a. 2 times b. 3 times c. 5 times d. 9 times

a. 9 times b. To calculate the answer, you would first need to find the amount of shared (or explained or accounted for) variability for each correlation. To obtain the shared variability in a correlation, you simple square the correlation coefficient (this is frequently called the coefficient of determination). For the first correlation, 92 = .81; for the second correlation, .32 = .09. The shared variability in the first correlation is therefore 9 times greater than the second. (9 X .09 = .81)

1.) The propensity for persons in a group to suspend their own judgment has been described as groupthink. Which of the following will have the greatest impact on minimizing groupthink? a. A leader who takes a strong, threatening stance b. A group in which people like each other and feel comfortable with each other c. Freedom from fear of retribution d. A group member who voices opinions opposite to the majority view

a. A group member who voices opinions opposite to the majority view b. Groupthink is actually increased by an autocratic leader (Response 1) or highly cohesive group (Response 2). It is decreased by a devil's advocate, which is accurately described in Response 4 as a member who voices opposing opinions. This is an example of a question that does not make use of catch phrases like "autocratic leader" and "devil's advocate" and requires that the test-taker actually understand what these concepts mean. Freedom from fear of retribution (Response 3) is a condition that generally enhances worker participation and involvement but is not specifically helpful in reducing group think

1.) A fourteen-year-old boy sneaks out on his father's motorcycle and drives around without a helmet. David Elkind would most likely attribute this behavior to: a. An imaginary audience b. Unsuccessful and coercive parenting c. A personal fable d. Informal norms of the peer group

a. A personal fable a. A personal fable refers to adolescents' beliefs that they are special and that the rules that govern the behaviors of others do not apply to them. This thinking leads to a sense of invulnerability in readiness to engage and obviously a dangerous behavior. And imaginary audience (Response 1), a concept also developed by Elkind, refers to people that are only a present in an adolescents mind. The adolescent feels at these people are as concerned with the adolescent's appearance or behavior as the adolescent is. The informal norms of a peer group (Response 4) can exert a powerful influence on the behavior of adolescence. However, there is no information in this question indicating that driving the motorcycle was influenced by the behavior of his peers. Patterson discusses coercive of parenting (Response 2) in his theory of delinquency

1.) Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the therapist's countertransference? a. Countertransference is generally detrimental to the patient b. The main benefit of countertransference is to inform the therapist about his or her own unresolve issues c. A significant benefit of counter transference is that it enables the therapist to provide the patient with valuable information about the reactions he or she elicits from others d. Countertransference results from projection on the part of the patient

a. A significant benefit of counter transference is that it enables the therapist to provide the patient with valuable information about the reactions he or she elicits from others a. In its broadest definition, countertransference refers to all the emotions and thoughts that are stirred up in a therapist by an encounter with a patient. In classical psychoanalysis, countertransference was seen solely as a negative phenomenon (Response 1), stemming from unresolved issues in the therapist (Response 2). Currently, countertransference is seen as potentially beneficial if managed appropriately. A key benefit is that it can provide patients with feedback about the kinds of reactions they elicit from others. Many theorists posit that the feelings evoked in a therapist are the result of projections by the patient (Response 4). However, even these theorists see projections as one of the many possible sources of countertransference; Response 4 implies that it is the only source

1.) In taking the licensing exam, two friends, Sarah and Lee score at the 50th and 90th percentile ranks, respectively. If five points are added only to Sarah and Lee's scores one would expect to find: a. An equivalent increase in Sarah and Lee's percentile ranks b. No change in Sarah and Lee's percentile ranks, relative to other licensure candidates c. A smaller change in Sarah's percentile rank relative to Lee d. A smaller change in Lee's percentile rank relative to Sarah's

a. A smaller change in Lee's percentile rank relative to Sarah's b. If you visualize a normal curve, you'll see that the majority of scores cluster around the mean. If you move one score even a small amount, the percentile rank shifts in relationship to the other ranks very significantly. In contrast, at the further end of the curve, there are relatively few scores. Moving one score several points will change the percentile rank only slightly. Another way to approach this question is to use what you know about the relationship between standard deviations and percentile ranks in the normal curve. Moving up just one standard deviation from the mean shift someone from the 50th percentile to the 84th percentile, an increase of 34 ranks. By contrast, moving up one standard deviation further (to two standard deviations above the mean) only shifts the person up to the 97th percentile rank, an increase of 13 ranks. Thus, when scores are closer to the mean, adding or subtracting points make a much more substantial change to the percentile rank than one scores are far from the mean

1.) Every Saturday, John Q goes out drinking with his buddies, returning home very late and quite intoxicated. The next day, his wife and teenage daughter give him the silent treatment. During the week, his daughter is frequently rude to him and tells him that he should be a better husband. Minuchin would describe this family dynamic as: a. A stable coalition b. Triangulation c. Detouring d. Emotional cutoff

a. A stable coalition a. Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, would most likely describe this family dynamic as a stable coalition, specifically a cross-generational coalition, in which one parent and a child unite against the other parent. Triangulation (Response 2) occurs when a child is caught in the middle of the parents' conflict, which each parent demanding that the child side with him or her. Whenever the child sides with one parent, the child is viewed as attacking the other. In detouring (Response 3), the parents express their problems through one child, for example, by blaming the child. The parents view the child as the identified patient, and thereby maintain a false sense of harmony in their marriage. Emotional cutoff (Response 4), a concept from Bowenian family systems theory, is a way to manage anxiety in relationships by maintaining emotional distance

1.) Which one of the following best describes House's path-goal theory of leadership? a. A supervisor tries to motivate her employees by helping them increase their personal payoffs b. A supervisor varies his style of leadership depending on the employee's readiness to perform c. Different types of leaders are effective in different types of situations d. A task-oriented leader is most effective in highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations

a. A supervisor tries to motivate her employees by helping them increase their personal payoffs a. House's path-goal theory focuses on the leader increasing personal payoffs for subordinates by making the paths to payoffs easier and by reducing the roadblocks. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership approach includes four leadership styles: selling, telling, participating, and delegating. The optimal style is dependent on the employee's readiness to perform (Response 2). Response 3 is a general statement reflecting the underlying premise of all situational or contingency leadership theories. Finally, Fiedler's LPC theory states that, low LPCs (task-oriented leaders) do best in either highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations (Response 4) while high LPCs (relationship-oriented leaders) do best in moderately favorable situations

1.) According to the inoculation model of persuasion, in order to help a group resist persuasion on a position, one should present: a. A weak argument in the same direction b. A weak argument in the opposite direction c. A strong argument in the same direction d. A strong argument in the opposite direction

a. A weak argument in the opposite direction a. The inoculation model proposes that people can build resistance to persuasion by being presented with mild arguments opposed to their position, and then being given refutations for those arguments

1.) The comprehensive examination of Psychology University has a mean of 150, and a standard deviation of 15. Student A receives a score of 170. Student B scores at the 80th percentile. Student C obtains a T-score of 55. Rank the scores of students A, B, and C, from lowest to highest a. A, B, C b. B, C, A c. B, A, C d. C, B, A

a. A, B, C a. The easiest way to figure out the answer to this question is to draw a bell-shaped curve, and calculate each person's z-score. Student A's score of 170 is more than one standard deviations above the mean (i.e., a z-score of about +1.3). Student B's 80th percentile rank is very close to the 84th percentile rake, which we know corresponds to one standard deviation above the mean (a z-score of +1). So, Student B has a z-score of a little under +1. Student C's T-Score of 55 indicates that she scored one-half of a standard deviation above the mean (recall that T-scores have a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10), corresponding to a z-score of +.5. Putting these three in order from highest to lowest, we get Student A (z-score of about +1.3), Student B (z-score of approximately +1), and Student C (z-score of +.5).

1.) You have been seeing a client for five months when he becomes unemployed. He states he can no longer afford your fee, and suggests that he exchange his services as a mechanic for your services as a psychotherapist. To behave ethically you should: a. Decline, explaining that APA ethical guidelines allow bartering of either goods or services only when most unusual circumstances exist b. Decline, explaining that APA ethical guidelines prohibit bartering of services, whereas goods can be bartered when most unusual circumstances exist c. Either accept or decline his proposal, but continue to treat this client; terminating his therapy would constitute client abandonment d. Accept his proposal as long as you believe that it is not exploitative of the client nor clinically contraindicated

a. Accept his proposal as long as you believe that it is not exploitative of the client nor clinically contraindicated b. According to standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code, bartering is permissible as long as it is not clinically contraindicated and not exploitative. "Most unusual circumstances" (Response 1) is the phrase used when sexual relationships with former therapy clients may be permitted. Bartering of goods and bartering of services are treated in the same manner (Response 2). Terminating a client due to inability to pay is not automatically client abandonment (Response 3). Factors that would determine whether this is client abandonment include availability of other clinical resources, current status of the patient, and provision of appropriate pretermination counseling

1.) A child looks up at the sky and sees a flying object. She says, "it's a bird, no it's a plane, not it's superman." Assuming it really is Superman, this child is demonstrating: a. Animism b. Assimilation c. Accommodation d. Overextension

a. Accommodation a. According to Piaget, adaptation is the process by which the child adjusts to the environment. It includes the process of accommodation (Response 3) and assimilation (Response 2). Assimilation occurs when the child assimilates a new experience into a previously established mental structure (e.g., sees an airplane and says, "it's a bird."); accommodation occurs when the child reorganizes his mental structure to adjust to the demands of reality. In this example, the child reorganizes the schema of flying objects to include more than just a bird or a plane. Response 1, animism, is characteristic of the preoperational child, and refers to endowing inanimate objects with qualities of living things (e.g., "teddy is sad"). Response 4, overextension, refers to using a word as if it refers to more than it actually does, for example, saying "daddy" to all men

1.) You ask your department chair to review an article you have written. She makes editorial suggestions and recommends a series of new data analyses. When you reanalyze your data, you uncover significant new findings. When you publish your article, you should: a. List the department chair as a second author b. Acknowledge the department chair's contributions in a footnote c. Reflect the department chair's contribution based on your departmental agreement/contract d. Reflect the department chair's contribution in a fashion that is mutually agreeable to both of you

a. Acknowledge the department chair's contributions in a footnote a. Although the ethical requirement here is very clear, its application is often fuzzy and difficult. Standard 8.12 of the APA Ethics Code mandates that publication credit accurately reflect contributions to research, and that minor contributions are to be acknowledged as footnotes or in an introductory statement. This question suggests that the department chair's contributions were minor (editorial and statistical suggestions), even though the statistical suggestion resulted in significant new findings. Thus, the department chair's contributions are not significant enough to warrant second authorship (Response 1). Note that the ethical requirement is for publication credits to reflect the contributions accurately and not simply be based on a department agreement, or be mutually agreeable (Responses 3 & 4).

1.) A patient completes the MMPI-II and receives a code of '4-9.' You should be most concerned about: a. Psychosis b. Suicide c. Acting out d. Somatic problems

a. Acting out a. On the MMPI-2, scale 4 is psychopathic deviance and refers to antisocial tendencies. Scale 9 is hypomania and refers to hypomanic and manic behaviors, as well as a generally high energy level. A profile of '4-9' therefore raises concerns about acting out and danger to others. Suicide (Response 2) is a particular concern with a '2-9' profile. Scale 2 is the depression scale. Someone who receives a '2-9' is depressed but has enough energy to take action (i.e., attempt suicide). Psychosis (Response 1) is indicated by elevations on scale 8, schizophrenia, and possibly scale 6, paranoia. Somatic problems (Response 4) are reflected by elevations on scales 1 (hypochondriasis) and 3 (hysteria)

1.) A patient requests that you list "major depressive disorder" as her diagnosis on her insurance form because her insurance company does not cover her diagnosis of "adjustment disorder with depressed mood." She states that otherwise she will not be able to attend treatment. If you agree to her request, you are: a. Acting ethically, if she has experienced depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day, for at least two weeks b. Acting unethically c. Acting ethically, as you are furthering the "best interests" of the client d. Acting ethically, if you believe this woman is at risk if she does not receive treatment

a. Acting unethically a. Deliberately providing an inaccurate diagnosis to an insurance company is insurance fraud; it is both illegal and unethical. Standard 6.06 of the APA Ethics Code (2002) specifically mandates "accuracy to payors and funding sources." Even if the goal is to secure continued treatment of someone in need (Responses 3 & 4), fraud is still considered unethical. A more ethical course of action would be to reduce fees, provide treatment pro bono, or connect the client with other available community resources. To meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, at least 5 symptoms are required (ruling out Response 1).

1.) You are seeing a client in individual therapy who is also a psychologist. Over the course of treatment, your client tells you that she has been having a sexual relationship with one of her clients and is feeling quite ashamed. How should you address this situation? a. Report her to an ethics committee or the state/provincial licensing board b. Seek an informal resolution c. Address the implications of her behavior and seek a formal resolution d. Address the implications of her behavior

a. Address the implications of her behavior b. In this situation you must maintain your client's confidentiality, as the information is shared with you during therapy. You cannot report her to the ethics committee (Response 1) as that would be a breach of confidentiality. Seeking an informal resolution (Response 2) does not make sense here. Sexual misconduct is so serious that it is never something that can be informally resolved. Seeking a formal resolution would involve a breach of confidentiality (Response 3). Ultimately you must protect her confidentiality (not a choice given); it would also be important to discuss this matter with her and help her understand how her actions are affecting her client (Response 4)

1.) According to J.W. Berry, which of the following best exemplifies someone who has adopted an acculturation strategy of marginalization? a. A Honduran immigrant speaks only English, attends a predominantly white church, and espouses moderate mainstream political views b. A Vietnamese immigrant spends most of her time in a neighborhood that is densely populated with other Vietnamese immigrants and secures a job at a local market where Vietnamese is the primary language c. A Mexican immigrant observes holidays from her own culture, speaks Spanish in her own home, but has friends from both her own culture and the dominant U.S. culture d. An Israeli immigrant does not socialize with other Israelis or maintain Israeli customs, but also does not learn much English or conform to U.S. norms of behavior

a. An Israeli immigrant does not socialize with other Israelis or maintain Israeli customs, but also does not learn much English or conform to U.S. norms of behavior a. J.W. Berry describes four acculturation strategies: assimilation, separation, integration, and marginalization. Marginalization occurs when there is both a loss of cultural identity as well as little interest in the dominant culture. Assimilation occurs when people don't maintain their cultural identity and adopt the attitudes and views of the dominant culture (Response 1). Separation occurs when people value their original culture and avoid interactions with the dominant culture (Response 2). Integration occurs when people both value their own culture as well as seek interactions with the dominant culture (Response 3)

1.) A patient diagnosed with Bipolar Disorder is most likely to be prescribed: a. An antihypertensive medication b. An anti-seizure medication c. An anti-parkinsonian medication d. An anti-alcohol medication

a. An anti-seizure medication a. A patient diagnosed with Bipolar Disorder is most likely to be prescribed either Lithium or an anticonvulsant (e.g., Tegretol, Neurontin, Depakote). Anticonvulsants are anti-seizure medications. Antihypertensive medications (Response 1) include diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers. L-Dopa is an anti-Parkinsonian medication (Response 3). Anti-alcohol medications (Response 4) include Antabuse and Naltrexone

1.) When a parent involved in a custody dispute takes an MMPI-2 you might expect to find: a. Elevations on both scales F and K b. No elevations on either scale F and K c. An elevation on scale F d. An elevation on scale K

a. An elevation on scale K b. Validity scale K reflects guardedness. High scores suggest a person is attempting to present him or herself in a favorable light (faking good). A parent involved in a custody dispute would most likely attempt to present favorably. A low score on scale K suggests excessive openness. Scale F is the infrequency scale. Elevations on this scale suggest possible psychosis, significant distress, or an attempt to appear in a negative light (faking bad)

1.) Everyday, a mother returns home from work feeling irritable and anxious, because she is being sexually harassed at work. Her son responds by becoming increasingly defiant and sullen. In terms of its effect on the son, the mother's work place would be considered: a. A microsystem b. A mesosystem c. An exosystem d. A macrosystem

a. An exosystem a. Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological approach delineates five levels of environmental influence: the microsystem, the mesosystem, the exosystem, the macrosystem, and the chronosystem. The microsystem consists of the bi-directional relationships a person has with different environments that are influential on a day-to-day basis, such as the home, school, work and neighborhood. The mesosystem involves the interlocking influence of all these environments or microsystems (e.g., when parents meet with a teacher to discuss the child). The exosystem refers to the relationship between several settings, with one or more of them indirectly affecting the person. Here, the mother's office affects the child profoundly, even though the child has never stepped foot in it. The macrosystem includes the influences of the culture, such as the dominant belief system and the economy. The chronosystem refers to the influence of the passage of time in the peron's life.

1.) You find yourself extremely attracted to one of your clients and fantasize about having a relationship. You find out that your client is extremely attracted to you as well. You are able to rationalize to yourself that in this particular situation having a relationship would not hurt, but rather would benefit the client as well as you. This situation best exemplifies a(n): a. Approach-approach conflict b. Approach- avoidance conflict c. Avoidance-avoidance conflict d. Win-win situation

a. Approach- avoidance conflict a. In this situation, you want to have a relationship with the client ("approach") but you (one hopes) recognize the ethical problems and consequences ("avoidance"). In other words, you are both drawn to and repelled by the same possibility, hence it is an "approach-avoidance" situation. "Approach-approach" (Response 1) conflicts occur when you are choosing between two equally attractive options. "Avoidance-avoidance" conflicts occur when you are forced to choose between two negative options (e.g., most presidential elections). A "win-win" situation (Response 4) is usually used as a term in negotiation and describes the situation in which both parties to the negotiation can benefit by the same thing (e.g., you get a lot of money for a car you no longer want and the buyer gets a good price on it)

1.) When working with clients of different ethnic groups, one should keep in mind that a more structured, formal approach would be most appreciated by clients who are: a. African American b. Asian American c. Hispanic American d. Native American

a. Asian American a. Asian American culture is frequently described as lineal, with clear lines of authority. A more formal, structured, active and directive problem solving approach is generally preferred. In therapy with African Americans (Response 1) research has emphasized the importance of an egalitarian relationship, which would likely be hindered by a more formal approach. Hispanic Americans (Response 3) generally strongly prefer an informal, friendly, chatty approach in treatment. Native Americans (Response 4) generally respond well to self-disclosure and have difficulty with some of the more formal constraints of treatment (e.g., the 50-minute session)

1.) According to the theory of schematic memory, someone robbed while at a restaurant would most likely have the best recall for: a. Things commonly associated with eating in a restaurant b. Aspects of the event related to the robbery c. The most emotionally charged aspects of the event d. Events during and following the robbery

a. Aspects of the event related to the robbery a. As the name implies, the theory of schematic memory posits that memory for events is structured according to mental schemas. The schemas affect what information is selected to be remembered. Memories for events an also be altered and elaborated upon in order to fit the schema (e.g., the appearance of a robber is remembered as more menacing that it was actually experienced at the time). Here, the essential schema would be the robbery, not the ordinary experience of eating in a restaurant (Response 1). This theory does not concern the emotionally charged nature of memories (Response 3), nor does it suggest that one best remembers that which occurs during and following a significant event (Response 4)

1.) As a supervisor, when you learn that your supervisee has broken a patient's confidentiality, you should: a. Speak to the client directly; since you are the supervisor this would not constitute a breach of confidentiality b. Attempt an informal resolution c. Attempt an informal resolution unless the breach of confidentiality is extremely severe d. Report the supervisee to an ethics committee or state/provincial licensing board

a. Attempt an informal resolution unless the breach of confidentiality is extremely severe a. Standard 1.04 of the APA Ethics Code encourages psychologists to attempt informal resolutions of ethical violations unless confidentiality would be breached or the violation does not seem appropriate for informal resolution. Since we do not know the severity of the breach, we cannot be sure that an informal resolution is appropriate (Response 2) or, conversely, that reporting the supervisee is warranted (Response 4). Although speaking to the client would not be a technical breach of confidentiality (Response 1), it is most times clinically contraindicated unless there is the potential for harm to occur to the client otherwise. Even if it were necessary, the supervisor would still need to address the ethical violation on the part of the supervisee

1.) Your client describes a long history of limited social relationships. She notes that she feels inadequate and socially inept, worries about others viewing her negatively, is sensitive to criticism, and hesitates to try new things. Her most likely diagnosis is: a. Avoidant personality disorder b. Schizoid personality disorder c. Dependent personality disorder d. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

a. Avoidant personality disorder a. The hallmark of avoidant personality disorder is a pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluations. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a pattern of detachment from and indifference to social relationships and a restricted range of emotions. Dependent Personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, which results in submissive and clinging behaviors, difficulties making decisions, and fears of separation. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, resulting in inflexibility and inefficiency

1.) With regard to sleep, all of the following are normal declines that occur as we age except: a. REM sleep b. Slow-wave sleep c. Awakenings d. Total sleep time

a. Awakenings a. Because we generally need less total sleep time as we age, we experience reduced REM sleep as well as reduced slow-wave sleep. However, awakenings often actually increase. It is not uncommon, for example, for those growing older to complain of waking several times during the night and having difficulty falling back asleep

1.) Which of the following is most commonly found in brain scans of patients with Schizophrenia a. Enlarged lateral and third ventricles b. Lateral and third ventricles reduced in size c. Lateral and third ventricles the same size as normal controls d. Enlarged lateral ventricle, smaller third ventricle

a. Enlarged lateral and third ventricles a. The four ventricles in the brain circulate cerebrospinal fluid. Brain scans of patients with Schizophrenia show enlarged lateral and third ventricles, consistent with loss of brain tissue

1.) You are asked to evaluate a 14-year-old boy who, for the past month, has exhibited irritable mood with temper outbursts, poor concentration, distractibility, impulsivity, and increased psychomotor activity. In addition, he engages in risky behaviors, is hyper-sexual, and his schoolwork has been compromised. What is his most likely diagnosis? a. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder b. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) c. Bipolar disorder d. Normal puberty

a. Bipolar disorder a. The symptom presentation is far too severe to be normal puberty (ruling out Response 4). Key features of a manic episode include an abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, as well as increased goal-directed activity or energy, for at least a week. In addition to irritable mood, the boy presents with increased psychomotor activity, hyper-sexuality, increased risky behavior, increased distractibility, and impairment in functioning, all of which are symptoms of a manic episode. The presence of one or more manic episodes is the essential feature of bipolar I disorder (Response 3). Based on time frame alone (symptoms present for the past month), both ADHD and disruptive mood dysregulation disorder can be ruled out; additionally, the symptoms do not meet criteria for those diagnoses. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is characterized by recurrent temper outbursts (verbal or physical) occurring on average three or more times a week for over 1 year in at least two settings (ruling out Response 1). ADHD is characterized by a persistent pattern (at least 6 months) of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity, with symptoms present before 12 years of age (ruling out Response 2)

1.) Dawn is a 30-year-old woman who is single and desperately wants to get married and have children. She worries that she will never find a partner because she is ugly and unattractive. She believes she is disfigured secondary to acne scarring, and is extremely distressed by this. Dawn is actually reasonably attractive and her scarring is minimal, nevertheless she is completely convinced that her beliefs are true. Dawn's diagnosis is likely: a. Body dysmorphic disorder b. Delusional disorder, somatic type c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder d. Generalized anxiety disorder

a. Body dysmorphic disorder a. The clinical presentation fits with a diagnosis of body dysmorphic disorder. In body dysmorphic disorder, the person is preoccupied with one or more perceived defects in appearance (e.g., acne scarring), when the perceived flaws are either not observable or slight. In this situation, because Dawn is completely convinced her beliefs are true, the specifier with absent insight/delusional beliefs would be used. In the DSM-5, when there are delusional beliefs related to a body dysmorphic disorder, the additional diagnosis of delusional disorder, somatic type is not given (ruling out Response 2). In obsessive-compulsive disorder, the obsession are recurrent thoughts (e.g., of contamination), urges (e.g., to stab someone) or images (e.g., of violent scenes) that are experienced as intrusive and cause distress or anxiety. The person attempts to either ignore or suppress the thoughts or to neutralize them with some other thought or action, which is not evident here (ruling out Response 3). Generalized anxiety disorder (Response 4) is diagnosed when there is excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities, also associated with physical symptoms (e.g., restlessness, fatigue, muscle, tension, irritability).

1.) A key concept in Donald Super's theory of career development is: a. Job/personality fit b. Career maturity c. Social learning d. Decision-making

a. Career maturity a. According to Donald Super, career maturity is achieved when a person successfully accomplishes the career-related developmental tasks which occur across the lifespan. John Holland theorized that job satisfaction occurs when there is a good fit between a person's personality and work environment (Response 1). John Krumboltz developed a social learning theory of career development (Response 3), emphasizing the importance of environmental conditions and events, genetic influences and learning experiences. A number of career development theories are based on decision-making (Response 4), and emphasize decision points or choices made throughout the lifespan

1. A common phenomenon that occurs for many Americans is an increase in heart rate while hearing "The Star Spangled Banner" at Olympic games. This is best explained by: a. Classical conditioning b. Operant Conditioning c. Social Learning Theory d. Superstitious behavior

a. Classical conditioning a. The phenomenon of one's heart racing when hearing "The Star Spangled Banner" is the result of innumerable pairings of the conditioned stimulus of the national anthem with the unconditioned stimulus of excitement, which elicits the unconditioned response of increased heart rate. So, this is an example of classical conditioning

1.) A psychologist believes that emotion and behavior are caused by the interpretation of events. This psychologist probably prefers the therapeutic approach of: a. Cognitive therapy b. Humanistic therapy c. Gestalt therapy d. Object relations

a. Cognitive therapy a. Few therapeutic approaches would dispute that interpretation of events affects emotion and behavior, but this principle forms the central premise of cognitive forms of therapy. Humanistic therapy (Response 2) emphasizes people's innate capacity for health and growth. Gestalt therapy (Response 3) emphasizes the reintegration of aspects of oneself that have been blocked from awareness. Object relations (Response 4) theory emphasizes the impact of internalized representations of early interpersonal experiences

1.) Compared to the general population, Chinese Americans are less likely to: a. Experience depression b. Experience fatigue and sleep disturbances c. Respond positively to psychotropic medication d. Commit suicide

a. Commit suicide b. The suicide rate of Chinese Americans is substantially lower than that of the general population. This finding holds true for the entire Asian American community, with the exception of Native Hawaiian adolescents. Levels of depression (Response 1) among Chinese Americans are equivalent to the general population, although some preliminary studies indicate that they may actually be higher. Chinese Americans, like all Asian Americans, are more likely to manifest the somatic complaints of depression, such as fatigue and sleep disturbances (Response 2). Psychotropic medication appears to be as effective among Asian American as among the general population, although it appears that lower dosages may be needed

1.) You would most likely have a better impression of someone if she: a. Initially performed well and then performed poorly b. Initially performed poorly and then performed well c. Was unattractive but dressed well d. Was unattractive but friendly and outgoing

a. Initially performed well and then performed poorly a. This question refers to the primacy effect, namely that information that is presented first has the greatest effect on us. The person's initially performing well would have formed a positive impression, which would be moderately resistant to change based on future performance

1.) A behavioral family therapist is most likely to focus on: a. Hierarchy and boundaries b. Circular questioning and hypothesis formation c. Differentiation and lack of differentiation in the family structure d. Communication problems and deficient reward exchanges

a. Communication problems and deficient reward exchanges b. According to Behavioral Family Therapists normal family functioning results when adaptive behavior is rewarded, maladaptive behavior is not reinforced, and benefits of being a member of the family outweigh costs. Pathology results from maladaptive behavior that is reinforced by the family attention and reward, from deficient reward exchanges, and from communication deficits. Structural family therapists, such as Minuchin, focus on hierarchies, boundaries, and subsystems (Response 1). Circular questioning and hypothesis formation (Response 2) are techniques in Systemic Family Therapy (Milan group). Differentiation issues are the critical focus of Bowen's Family Systems therapy (Response 3)

1.) One of the primary research uses of treatment manuals is to: a. Compare differences in effectiveness among individual therapists b. Compare outcomes of different types of therapies c. Compare the contribution of different aspects of treatment to overall outcome d. Provide empirically-validated treatment

a. Compare outcomes of different types of therapies a. Treatment manuals provide standardized protocols to treat specific disorders. Their primary use in research is to validate a particular form of treatment and compare it to other validated or not yet validated treatments. Treatment manuals are not generally used to evaluate differences among individual therapists (Response 1). A dismantling strategy is used to determine the contribution of individual aspects of treatment to overall outcome (Response 3). The protocol is adjusted so that different groups of patients receive different combinations of the various aspects of treatment, and outcome is compared among these groups. One of the results of research with treatment manuals is that clinicians can provide t treatments that have been empirically validated (Response 4). However, the use of treatment manuals during research is to validate the treatments in the first place

1.) While the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and state law contradict, a practitioner should: a. Comply with HIPAA b. Comply with state law c. Make known one's commitment to HIPAA, and take reasonable steps to resolve the conflict d. Make known one's commitment to HIPAA, and then comply with state law

a. Comply with HIPAA a. HIPAA is federal law. When HIPAA and state law are contradictory, making it impossible to follow both, psychologists must comply with HIPAA. In addition, when HIPAA provides stricter privacy safeguards than state law, psychologists should comply with HIPAA. However, when state law provides stricter safeguards than HIPAA, psychologists should comply with state law (Response 2). In other words, when the issue is that either state law or HIPAA provide stricter privacy protections, psychologists must comply with whichever regulations are the strictest. Making known one's commitment and taking reasonable steps to resolve the conflict is the language that applies to a conflict between ethics and law (ruling out Response 3 & 4)

1.) A test developer of EPPP practice tests is told by licensure candidates that the content of the practice tests does not accurately reflect the types of questions that appear on the licensing exam itself, and that these tests therefore lack validity. The test developer retorts that scores on the practice tests do tend to reflect scores on the EPPP. The test developer is arguing for: a. Content validity b. Concurrent validity c. Construct validity d. Face validity

a. Concurrent validity a. The test developer is arguing that his practice tests (the predictor) are correlated with a criterion measure (the licensing exam) that is concurrent, hence we are looking at concurrent validity. The developer does not retort: "Yes, the items are the same as on the licensing exam." If he did, he would then be talking about the content of the test or content validity (Response 1). Nor does he address the issue of how well his practice tests (or the licensing exam for that matter) measure a hypothesized underlying trait, such as a minimum competence. If he did, he would be talking about construct validity (Response 3). Finally, the candidates' complaints reflect a problem with face validity (Response 4) in that the test does not appear valid but the test developer's response does not address the issue of the appearance of validity

1.) In a multiple baseline design, treatment is applied: a. Consecutively b. Following a Latin square protocol c. Concurrently d. In alternating sequences with baselines

a. Consecutively a. Multiple-baseline, a type of single-subject design, is applied either across subjects, situations, or behaviors. Treatment is applied consecutively (or sequentially, or successively). For example, in a multiple baseline across settings design, treatment to reduce head-banging of an autistic child might first be applied in the lab, then in the home, then in the school, etc. The Latin square (Response 2) is used when more than one treatment or condition is consecutively applied to a group of subjects. Treatment is applied in alternating sequence with baseline (Response 4) in the ABAB single- subject design

1.) Dr. Supervisor is reviewing candidates for a position as staff psychologist. One candidate has been the subject of an ethics complaint at a previous employment site. Dr. Supervisor should: a. Consider the ethics complaint when making a decision about hiring b. Not consider the ethics complaint when making a decision about hiring c. Consider the ethics complaint only based on the outcome of the proceedings d. Investigate further

a. Consider the ethics complaint only based on the outcome of the proceedings a. The Ethics Code prohibits discrimination in hiring or promotion based on a pending ethics complaint (ruling out Response 1). However, employers are permitted to consider the outcome of the proceedings (ruling out Response 2). Thus, an employer may certainly choose not to hire an applicant if the applicant has been found guilty of an ethics violation. Investigating further (Response 4) does not address the guidelines of the Ethics Code

1.) According to Herzberg, which of the following would most directly affect dissatisfaction? a. Content b. Context c. Lack of responsibility d. Lack of challenging tasks

a. Context a. Herzberg's two-factor theory proposes that there are different sources of satisfaction and dissatisfaction. Lower level needs, which are related to job context, result in dissatisfaction when they are inadequate, but do not produce satisfaction when they are met. Job context factors include pay, working conditions, and supervision. Higher level needs, also called motivators or satisfiers, increase satisfaction when they are met. These needs are related to job content (Response 1), and include needs for achievement (Response 4), responsibility (Response 3), and opportunity

1.) A supervisor is rating telephone operators on courtesy. Operator A says "thank you" twice and uses a friendly tone of voice. The supervisor rates Operator A "average." Operator B is quite rude and receives a rating of "unacceptable." Operator C says "thank you" once and uses a business-like tone of voice. The supervisor rates operator C "above average." The supervisor's ratings have been affected by which of the following: a. Strictness bias b. Halo effect c. Recency effect d. Contrast effect

a. Contrast effect b. Contrast effect occurs when a judge's rating of a particular subject is influenced by the prior subject. In this example, Operator C appears to be less polite than Operator A but receives a higher rating, probably because Operator C's moderate politeness seems so much more polite compared to Operator B's rudeness. Strictness bias (Response 1) occurs when a judge uniformly tends to evaluate harshly—in this example, perhaps no one would ever receive an "above average." The halo effect (Response 2) occurs when a rating is influenced by an irrelevant aspect of the subject. For example, halo effect would occur if the supervisor's rating of Operator C had been influenced by the fact that he was handsome or punctual. Recency effects (Response 3) occur when the evaluation is most influenced by recent behaviors even though the evaluation is supposed to take into account a larger period of time. An example would be an employee receiving a rating of "punctual" because he has been on time for the last two weeks, even though he was habitually late for the four months prior

1.) A research finds moderate correlations utilizing heteromethod, monotrait. This finding leads support to: a. Construct validity b. Discriminant validity c. Concurrent validity d. Convergent validity

a. Convergent validity b. This question deals with the multitrait-multimethod matrix, which is used to establish construct validity (Response 1) for a test. Specifically, it establishes construct validity by establishing convergent validity (i.e., the test correlates with other instruments that purport to measure the same construct) and discriminant validity (i.e., the test does not correlate with instruments that purport to measure different constructs). Correlations of heteromethod, monotrait mean that the test correlates with other measurement instruments (heteromethod) that purport to measure the same trait (monotrait); thus, these correlations point to convergent validity. Discriminant validity (Response 2) would occur with low correlations of monomethod, heterotrait, meaning that there are low correlations between the test and similar types of measurement instruments (monomethod) that purport to measure different traits (heterotrait). Concurrent validity (Response 3) is a type of criterion-related validity and occurs when a test correlates well with a concurrent criterion (e.g., a diagnostic test correlates with current clinical diagnosis)

1.) A woman presents to an emergency room having recently experienced seizures. Clinical findings suggest no evidence of an underlying neurological condition. The diagnosis that would most commonly be given if she is not feigning her symptoms is: a. Illness anxiety disorder b. Factitious disorder c. Conversion disorder d. Somatic symptom disorders

a. Conversion disorder a. Conversion disorder involves one or more symptoms or deficits affecting voluntary motor or sensory function (e.g., seizures, vision loss). The symptoms, which are not intentionally produced or feigned, are incompatible with a recognized neurological or medical condition (Response 3). In illness anxiety disorder (Response 1), the person is preoccupied with having or developing a serious illness, symptoms are mild or not present, and there is significant anxiety about health. In factitious disorder (Response 2), there is an intentional feigning of physical or psychological symptoms, or the creation of injury or disease. Somatic symptom disorder (Response 4) is characterized by one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life. Additionally, the individual evidences excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms

1.) You are a psychologist who specializes in working with children and adolescents. You are referred a 16-year-old boy who is diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). While you studied extensively about ASDs in graduate school, you have not treated a client with this disorder. To behave ethically you: a. Could treat this adolescent while securing consultation b. Could treat this adolescent while securing supervision c. Could treat this adolescent while securing additional training d. Must refer this adolescent out

a. Could treat this adolescent while securing supervision a. This question states that you specialize in working with children and adolescents, and you have studied extensively about ASD in graduate school. However, you do not have specific experience treating this disorder. Given your general experience with children and adolescents, and your training in ASD you could see this client while securing supervision (e.g., weekly meetings to discuss this case, course of treatment, etc.). Consultation (Response 1) is typically a one-time meeting, which would be inadequate here. Additional training is not needed (Response 3) since you already have adequate training. Given your background, while you might choose to refer the client out, it is not something you must do (ruling out Response 4)

1.) The phenomenon of "coaction" or social facilitation is most likely to occur in which of the following situations? a. More than one person witnesses a crime, however, one person is designated as in charge b. Cyclists make better times racing against each other as compared to racing against the clock c. Licensure candidates perform better on the exam while in a large room with other candidates as compared to taking the exam on their own d. Individual productivity increases when group members' behaviors are observed by the supervisor

a. Cyclists make better times racing against each other as compared to racing against the clock a. Social facilitation refers to the combined effects of coaction (The presence of others working alongside an individual) and audience (The presence of a passive observer). Social facilitation enhances the performance of simple, well-learned behaviors (such as cycling in Response 2) but actually impairs performance on complex, newly-learned behaviors (such as taking the licensing exam in Response 3). The phenomenon of a supervisor's presence increasing productivity (Response 4) relates to social loafing (i.e the tendency of people and groups to produce less than if they were working individually - A tendency that can be reduced by having a supervisor watch). Interestingly, the origins of the concept of social facilitation actually come from the psychologist Triplett observing the speeds of bicyclists

1.) You work very hard and long hours. Nevertheless, your salary is less than a coworker who socializes much of the day and never works overtime. According to equity theory, you would be most likely to: a. Complain to other coworkers b. Look for another job c. Decrease your work effort d. Increase your work effort

a. Decrease your work effort a. Equity theory looks at the ratio of one's own inputs/outcomes versus the ratio of others' inputs/outcomes. It proposes that inequity is a motivating state and that we adjust our performance based on things appearing fair or unfair. Since it would appear unfair to be paid the same as a coworker who is working much less diligently, you would be expected to decrease your work effort (or try to get paid more money). Increasing your work effort (Response 4) would heighten your sense of inequity and is therefore the opposite of what the theory predicts. You probably would complain (Response 1) and you might look for another job (Response 2), but neither of these options is addressed in equity theory

1.) Anti-psychotic medication may cause Neuroleptic-Induced Parkinsonism, with the patient exhibiting a masklike face, shuffling gait, and resting tremor. These symptoms result from a. Increased levels of dopamine b. Decreased levels of dopamine c. Increased levels of serotonin d. Decreased levels of serotonin

a. Decreased levels of dopamine a. Parkinsonism refers to a presentation that mimics the symptoms of Parkinson's disease but has a different etiology. Answering this question is much easier if you know that both Schizophrenia and Parkinson's disease are believed to result from irregularities in the level of dopamine (ruling out Reponses 3 and 4). Antipsychotics lower dopamine levels (ruling out Response 1) because it is believed that too much dopamine results in psychotic symptoms. Parkinson's disease results from too little dopamine. Thus, for some patients, the reduction in dopamine that improves psychotic symptoms can cause movement symptoms that mimic Parkinson's.

1.) A six-year-old engages in repetitive, stereotyped motor movements, insists on eating the same food every day, and is extremely sensitive to noise. To diagnose this child with autism spectrum disorder, in addition, which of the following must be present: a. Deficits in social communication and interaction b. Language impairment c. Deficits in social communication and interaction, and language impairment d. Deficits in social communication and interaction, language impairment, and intellectual impairment

a. Deficits in social communication and interaction a. In the DSM-5, autism spectrum disorder is a new disorder, that encompasses autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, and childhood disintegrative disorder. There are only two criteria required for the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder: restrictive, repetitive, patterns of behavior; and deficits in social communication and social interaction. Specifiers for autism spectrum disorder include with or without accompanying language impairment (Response 2, 3 & 4) and with or without accompanying intellectual impairment (Response 4). Thus, while language and/or intellect may be impaired, neither must be impaired for the diagnosis

1.) A patient who is a heavy drinker would most likely have developed a cross-tolerance for: a. Heroin b. Cocaine c. Diazepam d. Nicotine

a. Diazepam a. A person who regularly uses a substance such as alcohol will develop a tolerance for alcohol, requiring larger quantities of alcohol over time to achieve the same feelings of intoxication previously achieved with lesser amounts. A cross-tolerance is also developed for substances that are chemically similar including sedatives, hypnotics, and anxiolytics. Valium (diazepam) is an anxiolytic

1.) When workers with varying levels of ability undergo the same training program, the most likely result is that: a. Differences in ability among workers will be minimized b. Differences in ability among workers will be maintained and possibly exaggerated c. Poor workers will improve more than strong workers d. There will be a curvilinear relationship between pre-training ability and improvement

a. Differences in ability among workers will be maintained and possibly exaggerated a. Training often does not equalize differences among workers (Response 1). At times, it may even magnify them. In other words, the most successful employees may improve the most through training while the least successful employees may improve the least. Thus, the gap between most successful and least successful may actually widen

1.) The often-cited tragic death of Kitty Genovese in New York City lends support to the concept of: a. Obedience to authority b. Diffusion of responsibility c. Deindividuation d. Groupthink

a. Diffusion of responsibility a. In the case of Kitty Genovese, scores of bystanders looked on without taking action as she was brutally murdered. In this case, responsibility to help her was "diffused" among all the bystanders and no one felt the responsibility to act. In fact, research has shown that a victim of a crime is most likely to get help when only one person is observing because there is no diffusion of responsibility. The Kitty Genovese case is also cited as an example of "bystander apathy." Obedience to authority (Response 1) is usually associated with Milgram's classic study. Deindividuation (Response 3) refers to the tendency for people in groups to act in ways that they would not act individually. Groupthink (Response 4) refers for conformity in thinking that can occur in some groups

1.) In terms of informing patients about their status as psychological interns, interns must: a. Disclose their intern status if asked b. Disclose their intern status c. Disclose their intern status and introduce patients to their direct supervisor d. Disclose in writing both their intern status and their supervisor's name

a. Disclose their intern status a. Standard 10.01 of the APA Ethics Code requires that patients are informed if their therapist is a trainee, and are provided with the name of the supervisor. It does not specify that this disclosure occur in writing (Response 4) or that it include a face-to-face meeting with the supervisor (Response 3). It does clearly require that this disclosure occur, regardless of whether patients ask (Response 1). Note that some states do have laws that require patients of interns and trainees be notified in writing of their therapist's status and the supervisor's name. However, questions on the EPPP do not deal with issues of state law.

1.) A patient at high risk for suicide states that he plans to quit therapy because it is not helping. Your most ethical course of action would be to: a. Provide pretermination counseling b. Negotiate a no-suicide contract before termination c. Discuss the patient's views and needs, encouraging the patient to receive appropriate treatment d. Encourage the patient to remain in treatment with you until the suicidal crisis passes

a. Discuss the patient's views and needs, encouraging the patient to receive appropriate treatment a. This is an example of a difficult question for which no response is ideal and several responses have some merit. Although pretermination counseling is mandated by the Ethics Code, Response 1 does not address the issue of the current crisis. Similarly, although a no-suicide contract (Response 2) man be clinically indicated, the question asks for the most "ethical" course of action, so the correct response should address the ethical ramifications of the scenario. Simply encouraging the patient to stay with you (Response 4) does not address the possibility that you are not providing him with appropriate treatment. In fact, standard 10.10 of the APA Ethics Code (2002) actually mandates the termination of a therapy relationship when "the patient or client no longer needs the service, is not benefiting, or is being harmed." Thus it would be most ethical to discuss the patient's view and needs, and to encourage the patient to secure treatment that is most appropriate for him. This may mean continuing in therapy with you, or this patient might best be served by referring him to another provider.

1.) You have been treating Robert for six months. He is going through a divorce and requests that you testify in court at the custody hearing. You should: a. Decline, as this would constitute a multiple relationship b. Decline, as the "best interests of the child" should prevail c. Accept, as. This would be in your client's interests d. Discuss the situation further with Robert before making your decision

a. Discuss the situation further with Robert before making your decision b. This question requires careful reading. The question states that Robert is your individual therapy client, and he is requesting that you testify in court on his behalf at this custody hearing. The most important consideration would be whether this would serve his best interests or not, and this would need to be discussed further (Response 4). For example, if Robert is diagnosed with Substance Dependence, and he has been in remission, that might be helpful information to provide in court; however, if he has had multiple relapses in the past six months, that information may hurt him in court. While it is unethical to conduct a custody evaluation on a former client, as that would be a harmful multiple relationship, this question is not asking about a custody evaluation (Response 1)

1.) You have been treating Andrew for chronic pain and insomnia secondary to a work-related injury. Andrew has filed for worker's compensation, and you receive a notice of deposition and subpoena for his therapy records from the defense attorney. You should: a. Appear at the deposition and release the subpoenaed records as requested b. Appear at the deposition and assert privilege on the client's behalf c. Discuss the situation with Andrew and then decide whether or not to appear at the deposition d. Discuss the situation with Andrew

a. Discuss the situation with Andrew b. You have received a notice of deposition and subpoena for your client's therapy records. You cannot ignore this notice of deposition and subpoena (ruling out Response 3). Your first step should be to discuss with Andrew whether he does or does not want his records released (Response 4). Until you have had this discussion with Andrew you would not release the records as requested (Response 1), nor assert privilege (Response 2)

1.) The major defense mechanism thought to underlie phobias is: a. Displacement b. Projection c. Reaction formation d. Splitting

a. Displacement a. The psychoanalytic perspective on phobias is that problematic feelings are being displaced from their true source onto a neutral object (e.g., fear of one's own sexual impulses onto snakes resulting in a snake phobia). Projection is thought to underlie paranoia and involves denying one's own feelings and thoughts and believing that another person feels them (e.g., believing that someone else is sexually attracted to you resulting in delusional disorder, erotomanic type). Reaction formation (Response 3) involves feelings or behaving in a manner opposite of how one actually feels. Splitting (Response 4) involves keeping separate the positive and negative attributes of the self or someone else (e.g., the child has the internal mental representation of a "good mommy" and a "bad mommy" and cannot integrate that there is one "mommy" who does good and bad things)

1.) The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to attribute the cause of behavior to: a. Stable factors b. Dispositional factors c. Situational factors d. Factors related to consistency, consensus, and distinctiveness

a. Dispositional factors a. The fundamental attribution error is defined as the tendency to overemphasize dispositional factors when making attributions about the behavior of other people. Situational factors (Response 3) are exactly what people underemphasize, according to the fundamental attribution error. Stable factors (Response 1) are part of Weiner's theory, which focuses on the dimensions of the stable/temporary and internal/external. Consistency, consensus, and distinctiveness (Response 4) refer to Kelley's model in which behaviors that are low in distinctiveness in consensus but high in consistency lead to internal attributions

1.) Deep processing has been suggested as a method to enhance memory for information. This method involves: a. Elaboration of information b. Prolonged rehearsal of information c. Verbatim repetition of information d. Increasing the activity of sensory analyzers

a. Elaboration of information a. Deep processing entails focusing on the meaning of a stimulus, interpreting it, and making meaningful associations to it. As a result, deep processing results in more elaborate and complex memories. It is hypothesized that such memories are easier to retrieve because there are more triggers for them and because they are more distinct from other memories. In contrast, shallow processing remains at the more superficial sensory level (Response 4). Simple rehearsal of the information (Response 2), such as verbatim repetition (Response 3), is on the shallow processing level

1.) One of your patients begins to date your cousin and to discuss him in sessions. Your most ethical course of action would be to: a. Terminate and refer the patient out, because of the multiple relationship b. Continue to see the patient if you secure additional informed consent about the potential risks of the multiple relationship c. Continue to see the patient if you are able to limit your attendance at social situations at which the patient is present d. Ensure that therapeutic objectivity is not impaired and that the patient is not being exploited in order to continue seeing the patient

a. Ensure that therapeutic objectivity is not impaired and that the patient is not being exploited in order to continue seeing the patient b. According to standard 3.05 of the APA Ethics Code (2002), a multiple relationship is only unethical if it impairs a psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness, or if it might harm or exploit the patient. Only Response 4 addresses these explicit guidelines. Given that multiple relationships are not unethical in and of themselves, you would not automatically have to terminate (Response 1). However, if a harmful multiple relationship is identified, the Ethics Code recommends that psychologists "attempt to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code." Informed consent is not generally discussed in regard to multiple relationships (Response 2). Not attending family gatherings (Response 3) does not necessarily address the key issues involved in multiple relationships

1.) According to Holland's personality typology, a transformational leader would most likely be considered: a. Realistic b. Conventional c. Enterprising d. Investigative

a. Enterprising a. Bernard Bass introduced the idea of the transformational leader, who aims to broaden and elevate the goals of subordinates. A transformational leader utilizes charisma, inspiration, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. John Holland developed six themes to describe personality and job environment. According to this theory, enterprising people like the opportunity to influence others and obtain power. A transformational leader would most likely fall in the enterprising category. The realistic type (Response 1) prefers physical activities that require skill, strength and coordination. The conventional type (Response 2) prefers rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities. The investigative type (Response 4) prefers activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding.

1.) A doctoral student has failed his first internship and is in danger of failing his second. Instructors note that he has begun to mumble to himself and dress in a bizarre fashion. The school administration calls the student in and requires him to discuss his mental health history and his history of psychological/psychiatric treatment. The administration has acted in a manner that is: a. Ethical b. Unethical c. Ethical, as long as the school's admission materials clearly established the requirement of disclosure of personal information d. Ethical, only if the student is posing a threat to students or others

a. Ethical a. The APA Ethics Code permits educational programs to require personal disclosure by students under any one of three conditions. The first is if the program has stated that requirement clearly in its admission and program materials (Response 3). Second, disclosure may be required when a student's problems seem to be posing a threat to the student or others (Response 4). Finally, as described in this question, the Ethics Code permits disclosures to be required by an educational program when it is needed to evaluate or help students whose personal problems seem to be preventing them from performing competently. Since this complete answer was not given as a choice, Response 1 is correct

1.) Psychologists may provide services to a client in an emergency: a. If the psychologists have the necessary training and experience to ensure competence b. If the psychologists have established competence to provide services that are closely related to the services that are necessary in the emergency c. As necessary, to protect the well-being of the client and others who are at possible risk, as long as services are terminated once the emergency has passed d. Even when they lack full competence, if other providers are unavailable, and if services are terminated when the emergency has passed or when appropriate providers become available

a. Even when they lack full competence, if other providers are unavailable, and if services are terminated when the emergency has passed or when appropriate providers become available b. The Ethics Code allows psychologists in an emergency to provide services for which they are not fully competent, in order to ensure that individuals receive necessary treatment (ruling out Response 1). They should then terminate the services as soon as the emergency has passed or more appropriate services have been secured. Response 4 accurately captures these requirements. The requirement that psychologists have closely related training (Response 2) does not pertain to emergency situations but rather non-emergency situations in which treatment would not otherwise be available. Response 3 does not address the key issue of competence

1.) An intern complies with a supervisor's request because the supervisor has received a degree from a university with a good reputation and completed several years of postgraduate training at a well-respected institute. In this example, the supervisor has: a. Legitimate power b. Expert power c. Referent power d. Incremental power

a. Expert power a. Psychologists have identified five types of power that can affect a subordinate's willingness to comply with a supervisor's request. Expert power is based on the perception that the supervisor has expertise. The education and training of the supervisor demonstrate expertise. Legitimate power (Response 1) is based on the hierarchy of the organization (e.g., complying with the supervisor because they are in the position of supervisor). Referent power (Response 3) is based on a sense of liking for and identification with the supervisor, about which nothing is mentioned in this question. Incremental power (Response 4) is the combination of expert and referent power. It is cited as the most common reason for subordinates complying with supervisors' requests.

1.) When testing is mandated by law, psychologists should: a. Secure informed consent, including the nature and purpose of the proposed assessment b. Attempt to secure informed consent, but perform the assessment even if informed consent is refused c. Explain the nature and purpose of the proposed assessment in reasonably understandable language d. Document the reason for proceeding without informed consent

a. Explain the nature and purpose of the proposed assessment in reasonably understandable language a. In general, psychologists are required to obtain consent prior to conducting assessments. There are, however, three exceptions to this requirement. One exception, in which consent is not required, is when the assessment is mandated by law or governmental regulations (ruling out Responses 1, 2, and 4). In such situations, psychologists are nevertheless required to inform the person being assessed about the nature and purpose of the assessment services, and to do so in reasonably understandable language. The other two exceptions, in which consent prior to assessment is not required, is when testing is part of routine educational or organizational activity, and when testing is being conducted to assess decisional capacity.

1.) A 28-year-old Latina woman enters therapy with you because of her difficulty in finishing community college. She reports that she lives at home and has many conflicts with her parents over whether she should be concentrating on college or starting a family. You should: a. Explore her attitudes toward family duty and autonomy b. Provide empathy for the lack of support she is experiencing c. Recognize that individual achievement may be discouraged in her culture d. Support her process of individuation

a. Explore her attitudes toward family duty and autonomy a. This patient is experiencing conflict between her parents' values and some of her own aspirations. A therapist's best course of action would be to help her more fully understand her own attitudes and feelings about these values without the therapist imposing his or her own values. Providing empathy for her lack of support (Response 2) and supporting the individuation process (Response 4) both implicitly support one side of her conflict and endorse the values of the dominant culture, such as individualism and achievement. Understanding the culture she comes from (Response 3) is important, but does not address the action that the therapist should take. Response 1 is therefore the best response

1.) You are working with a college student who hopes to go to medical school. He expresses concern that he faints at the sight of blood. Of the following, which would probably be the most effective treatment? a. Positive reinforcement b. Cognitive therapy c. Systematic desensitization d. Exposure

a. Exposure b. The treatment of choice for specific phobias is flooding, also called exposure with response prevention. While systematic desensitization is still used in the treatment of specific phobias, exposure- based techniques are superior. Treatment approaches based on operant conditioning (e.g., positive reinforcement) (Response 1) are not used for specific phobias. Cognitive therapy (Response 2) is widely used for generalized anxiety disorder, as well as for depression disorders.

1.) Compared to younger workers, older workers: a. Express more job satisfaction primarily for white collar jobs b. Express more overall job satisfaction c. Express less overall job satisfaction d. Express similar levels of job satisfaction

a. Express more overall job satisfaction a. Older workers generally express more job satisfaction than younger workers. This is true regardless of type of work (Response 1) or gender

1.) Which of the following is a common constellation of symptoms in postconcussion syndrome? a. Insomnia, poor concentration, and stomach aches b. Dizziness, memory deficit, and apraxia c. Fatigue, sleep problems, headache, and dizziness d. Perseveration, disinhibition, and judgment problems

a. Fatigue, sleep problems, headache, and dizziness a. As a result of a mild closed head injury, many patients develop postconcussion syndrome, which consists of a constellation of physical and psychological symptoms. The most common are fatigue, sleep problems, headache, and dizziness (vertigo); other symptoms include irritability or unprovoked aggression, anxiety, depression or labile mood, personality changes, and apathy. Responses 1 and 2 include symptoms of postconcussion syndrome except for stomaches (Response 1) and apraxia (Response 2). Frontal lobe syndromes are noted for preservation, disinhibition, and judgment problems (Response 4).

1.) A mother verbally gives a grocery list of ten items to her daughter. When the daughter is in the grocery store ten minutes later, she is most likely to recall those items that are: a. First on the list b. Last on the list c. First and last on the list d. In the middle of the list

a. First on the list a. This task involves delayed recall in. that the daughter has to recall the itmes on the list after a delay of ten minutes. On tasks of delayed recall, there is a primacy effect; people best remember the items. That come first on the list. If the daughter were asked to repeat the list right after her mother said it, this task would be one of immediate recall. On tasks of immediate recall, people remember the items that come first and last better than those in the middle (Response 3). This phenomenon is termed the serial position effect. There are no situations in which people best remember what comes last on a list (Response 2) or what comes in the middle of a list (Response 4)

1.) You remember in vivid detail where you were and what you were doing when you first learned about the events of September 11th. This type of memory is termed: a. Procedural memory b. Episodic memory c. Source memory d. Flashbulb memory

a. Flashbulb memory b. This question is describing a flashbulb memory. Flashbulb memories involve memories of distinct, significant events that are usually (but not always) of a traumatic natrure. These memories evoke strong emotional reactions at the time of being encoded, therefore they involve details and are remembered for a long period of time. Procedural memory (Response 1) involves the recollection of skills, physical operations, and procedures that are remembered automatically without conscious awareness, such as driving. Episodic memory (Response 2) is the ability to remember autobiographical events (e.g., graduation, birth of a child, a 40th birthday celebration). Source memory (Response 3) refers to the ability to remember the source where information was learned

1.) The best predictor of job choice is: a. Interest tests b. Aptitude tests c. Biodata d. Personality tests

a. Interest tests a. Although interest tests are poor predictors of job performance, they do reliably predict job choice, as well as job satisfaction. Common interest tests include the Strong Interest Inventory and the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS). Aptitude tests (Response 2) are moderately successful predictors of job performance. Biodata (Response 3), that is biographical data, is an excellent predictor of job success, not choice. Finally, personality tests (Response 4) are not as good predictors of job choice as interest tests.

1.) All of the following treatments contain elements of counterconditioning except: a. Assertiveness training b. Flooding with response prevention c. Sensate focus d. Aversion therapy

a. Flooding with response prevention a. Counterconditioning is based on the principle of reciprocal inhibition which states that two incompatible responses cannot be experienced at the same time, but rather that the stronger response will dominate or inhibit the weaker. The focus of treatment is to weaken a maladaptive response by strengthening an incompatible or antagonistic response. In assertiveness training (Response 1), assertiveness is used as the incompatible response (e.g., with shyness or chronic anger). In sensate focus (Response 3), non-pressured sensual pleasure is incompatible with performance anxiety. Aversion therapy (Response 4) uses responses to aversive stimuli (e.g., electric shock, nausea-inducing drugs) to inhibit a previously conditioned response of pleasure (e.g., to pictures of prepubescent girls or to the first sip of a drink). In flooding with response prevention (Response 2), no incompatible experience is being provided. The person is merely being "flooded" with a feared stimulus while being prevented from escaping

1.) According to Cattell: a. Fluid and crystallized intelligence are uncorrelated b. Fluid intelligence is the capacity to solve problems in novel situations c. Crystallized intelligence parallels school achievement d. Crystallized and fluid intelligence increase as we age

a. Fluid intelligence is the capacity to solve problems in novel situations a. Crystallized intelligence consists of learned knowledge, generally measured by the verbal subtests on the WAIS/WISC. Fluid intelligence is the capacity for novel problem solving (Response 2). Crystallized intelligence does not necessarily correlate with school achievement (ruling out Response 3). Fluid and crystallized intelligence are correlated (ruling out Response 1); in general persons with high crystallized intelligence also have high fluid intelligence, and vice versa. While crystallized intelligence increases as we age, fluid intelligence tends to decline beginning in the 30's (ruling out Response 4)

1.) According to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), all patients must be given a copy of the practitioner's privacy policy. PHI may be released _______, and psychotherapy notes may be released ________. a. For purposes of treatment, payment, or healthcare operations; for purposes of treatment, payment, or healthcare options b. For purposes of treatment, payment, or healthcare operations; only with a specific and detailed patient authorization c. Only with a specific and detailed patient authorization; for purposes of treatment, payment, or healthcare operations d. Only with a specific and detailed patient authorization; only with a specific and detailed patient authorization

a. For purposes of treatment, payment, or healthcare operations; only with a specific and detailed patient authorization a. HIPAA distinguishes between the general medical record ('protected health information') and 'psychotherapy notes.' PHI includes what are typically considered chart notes, including dates of sessions, diagnosis, treatment plan, etc. Psychotherapy notes are defined as notes practitioners keep that document or analyze the content of counseling session (e.g., notes about transference, patient dreams, etc., that may be used in supervision sessions). Most psychologists do not keep psychotherapy notes. Once patients are given a copy of the practitioner's privacy policy, PHI may always be released for purposes of treatment, payment, or healthcare operations. Psychotherapy notes may never be released unless a specific authorization has been completed

1.) A seventeen year old plans to major in pre-law when he enters university. He states "I've known I've wanted to be a lawyer since I first heard the word." This boy is most likely in the identity status of: a. Moratorium b. Identity achievement c. Identity diffusion d. Foreclosure

a. Foreclosure b. Researchers (e.g., Marcia) have grouped adolescents into four categories that depict the progress made toward forming a mature identity: identity achievement, moratorium, foreclosure, and diffusion. An adolescent who is in the identity state of foreclosure (Response 4) has committed to a goal without exploring other alternatives. In this example, it is a self-directed goal. In other cases, the goal has been determined by the parents or culture and the adolescent is simply accepting a ready-made identity. An adolescent in the state of identity achievement (Response 2) has explored several options and has eventually made a commitment to a set of goals and values. In the moratorium state (Response 1), the adolescent is still struggling and is still in the process of exploration. When an adolescent is in the state of identity diffusion (Response 3), the adolescent lacks direction, is not committed to goals and values, and is not trying to develop goals.

1.) The fundamental rule of psychoanalysis is: a. Psychic determinism b. Transference and countertransference c. Dream interpretation d. Free association

a. Free association b. All of the responses are associated with psychoanalysis but free association is considered to be "the fundamental rule." Patients are instructed to tell the analyst everything that comes to their mind, no matter how trivial or how embarrassing (by the way, Anna Freud stated that only beginners believe that it is actually possible for patients to follow the fundamental rule). If you did not know the answer to this question, you might have approached it by trying to transform each response into an imperative (a rule). Only free association lends itself to being made an imperative

1.) When given a task involving alternating sequential letters of the alphabet with numbers, a patient responds with the following sequence: A, 1, B, 2, C, D, E, F, G. most likely this reflects damage to which of the following brain structures? a. Hippocampus b. Frontal Lobe c. Patietal lobe d. hypothalamus

a. Frontal Lobe a. The frontal lobes are critical to personality, emotionality, inhibition, planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions (e.g., cognitive flexibility). In this example, the subject is having trouble "shifting sets," I.e., alternating between the alphabet and the numbers, and is instead perseverating. Set-shifting is an aspect of cognitive flexibility. The hippocampus (Response 1) is part of the limbic system and plays a significant role in memory (especially the consolidation of long-term memories). The parietal lobes (Response 3) house the somatosensory cortex and processes sensations of pain and heat, as well as proprioception (the ability to sense position, location, and movement of the body). The hypothalamus (Response 4) regulates many of the body's basic life functions, including temperature, hunger, thirst, cyclic sexual hormone secretion, the sleep-wake cycle (circadian rhythms), and general arousal.

1.) A significant change from the WISC-IV (2004) to the WISC-V (2014) is that the WISC-V includes: a. Full scale IQ (FSIQ), four primary index scales, and subtest scores b. Full scale IQ (FSIQ), four primary index scales, four ancillary index scales, and subtest scores c. Full scale IQ (FSIQ), five primary index scales, and subtest scores d. Full scale IQ (FSIQ), five primary index scales, five ancillary index scales, and subtest scores

a. Full scale IQ (FSIQ), five primary index scales, five ancillary index scales, and subtest scores b. While both the WISC-IV and WISC-V allow calculation of FSIQ, the WISC-V provides five, rather than four primary index scales: verbal comprehension index, visual spatial index, fluid reasoning index, working memory index, and processing speed index. The perceptual reasoning index of the WISC-IV now consists of both the visual spatial index and the fluid reasoning index on the WISC-V. Additionally, the WISC-V provides five ancillary index scales: quantitative reasoning index, auditory working memory index, nonverbal index, general ability index, and cognitive proficiency index

1.) Yalom has divided the stages of group therapy into three components. According to Yalom, the first stage is characterized by all of the following except: a. Group in-fighting b. Superficiality and irrelevance c. Advice giving d. Restricted content

a. Group in-fighting a. According to Yalom, the first stage of group therapy is characterized by attempts to get oriented, hesitant participation, restricted content, a stereotyped communication style, superficiality, and advice-giving. It is the second stage that is characterized by conflict, rebellion, and attempts at dominance

1.) In comparison to centralized networks, decentralized networks: a. Are better for complex tasks involving problem solving and communication and have increased speed of communication b. Involve fewer people in decision making c. Result in greater satisfaction and are better for simple tasks d. Have the disadvantage of slower communication

a. Have the disadvantage of slower communication b. Decentralized communication networks allow all members to communicate with each other. They tend to increase satisfaction and are best for tasks that are complex and involve problem-solving. Their disadvantage is that communication can be slow and cumbersome. Centralized communication networks are best for simple tasks and involve fewer people in decision-making (Response 2). What's tricky about this question is that Responses 1 & 3 are complicated. Each has one part that is true and one part that is false. In Response 1, it is true that the decentralized networks are better for complex tasks but untrue that they have increased speed of communication. In Response 3, it is true that they enhance satisfaction but untrue that they are best for simple tasks. One way to approach this question is to identify what variables are involved (complexity of task, speech of communication, involvement in decision making, and satisfaction) and clarity what you know about each type of network in terms of each variable. Then, compare the offered responses to what you have determined about the networks

1.) Your colleague tells you that he recently got notice from an ethics committee that a complaint has been filed against him. As the complaint is clearly frivolous, he has ignored it. In this situation: a. The ethics committee might suspend his license b. He is violating the ethics code c. His actions are appropriate as the complaint is frivolous d. His actions may or may not be appropriate; the determination will be made by the ethics committee

a. He is violating the ethics code a. The APA Ethics Code requires that psychologists cooperate with any ethics complaints, thus, failure to cooperate with an ethics complaint is a violation of the code (Ruling out Response 3 and 4). The APA's ethics committee has no oversight over psychologists' licenses; suspending a license is something that only state and provincial boards may do (Response 1)

1.) Which of the following scenarios would best exemplify Caplan's consultee-centered case consultation? a. Helping a consultee with a particular difficult case, in terms of assessment and suggestions as to how to handle the case b. Helping a consultee modify problematic behaviors with regard to her cases such as not adequately charting notes, and not arriving to work in a timely fashion c. Helping a consultee develop more effective ways of handling potentially assaultive and suicidal patients d. Helping a consultee improve her skill in presenting at case conferences

a. Helping a consultee develop more effective ways of handling potentially assaultive and suicidal patients a. Consultee-centered case consultation focuses on helping the consultee with difficulties he/she is having in working with patients (e.g., particular diagnoses, ethnic groups, etc). Response 1 describes client-centered case consultation, in which the focus is on consulting on a particularly difficult client. Response 2 describes consultee-centered administrative consultation, in which the focus is much more on an administrative duties and issues. Response 4 is a distracter

1.) A nine-year-old boy tells his mother, "It's never okay to lie." According to Piaget, this boy is demonstrating: a. Autonomous morality b. Heteronomous morality c. Irreversibility d. Egocentrism

a. Heteronomous morality a. According to Piaget, children from the ages of five to ten demonstrate heteronomous morality, in which the morality of constraint dominates. These young children think rigidly about morality and cannot imagine more than one way of looking at a moral issue. In the stage of autonomous morality, which begins at the age of ten, thinking becomes more flexible. Children realize that there is not one unchangeable standard of right and wrong. In this stage children can consider more than one aspect of the situation, and you can consider the intent behind behavior. Irreversibility (Response 3) and egocentrism, (Response 4) are characteristics of the pre-operational stage of cognitive development (age 2 -7)

1.) According to Rehm's self-control model of depression, depression results from: a. A lack of perceived control in one's environment b. A lack of real control in one's environment c. A lack of external reinforcement and high rates of self-punishment d. High rates of self-punishment and low rates of self-reinforcement

a. High rates of self-punishment and low rates of self-reinforcement b. Rehm attempts to integrate behavioral and cognitive theories by proposing that reinforcement can be self-generated rather than derived from external sources. Rehm views depression and its concomitant low rate of behavior (e.g., lack of involvement in activities) as a result of negative self-evaluations, lack of self-reinforcement and high rates of self-punishment

1. Which of the following statements is accurate? a. Stimulus generalizations involves generalizing from the US to other similar stimuli b. Higher order conditioning involves pairing the US with a neutral stimulus c. Stimulus generalization involves making different responses to the same stimulus d. Higher order conditioning involves pairing the CS with a neutral stimulus

a. Higher order conditioning involves pairing the CS with a neutral stimulus b. Higher order conditioning involves the deliberate pairing of a CS (e.g. tone) with another neutral stimulus (e.g., light), which is typically unrelated. Stimulus generalization involves generalizing from a CS (e.g., white rat) to another neutral stimulus that is similar (e.g., white rabbit). Response 1 is incorrect, because stimulus generalization involves generalizing to another stimulus from the CS, no the US. Response 2 is incorrect, since higher order conditioning does not involve the US; rather the pairing involves the CS. Response 3 describes response generalization, not stimulus generalization

1.) According to Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, someone who is unsure of his or her sexual orientation, is most likely in the stage of: a. Intimacy vs isolation b. Ego integration vs despair c. Autonomy vs shame and doubt d. Identity vs role confusion

a. Identity vs role confusion b. The stage of identity versus role confusion occurs during adolescence. During this stage, the individual tries to answer questions such as "Who am I?", "What vocation will I pursue?", and "What is my sexual orientation?" Resolution of this phase results in the strength of identity. The stage of autonomy versuse shame and doubt (Response 3) occurs during the toddler years, ages 1-3. The stage of intimacy versus isolation (Response 1) occurs in early adulthood, from 18 to 35. Issues of sexual orientation, such as comfort with one's orientation, can complicate this stage. Ego integration versus despair (Response 2) is the last stage, occurring when people are over 60

1.) A patient who is hospitalized following a suicide gesture requests a release of her prior therapy records. The patient terminated treatment six months ago and has a significant outstanding balance. The psychologist does not release the patient's records. He has acted: a. Legally and ethically b. Illegally and unethically c. Legally but not ethically d. Illegally but ethically

a. Illegally and unethically a. Both the APA Ethics Code and federal legislation (HIPAA) prohibit withholding of treatment records in an emergency situation because of an outstanding balance. The APA Ethics Code only addresses withholding of treatment records in an emergency situation; thus some interpret this to mean that it would be ethical to withhold records for nonpayment, if the situation were not an emergency. Nevertheless, HIPAA prohibits withholding records regardless of whether it is an emergency or not. In practice then, psychologists may never withhold records because of nonpayment

1.) The distinction between procedural and semantic memory involves the difference between: a. Remote and recent events b. Personally meaningful and non-meaningful events c. Implicit and explicit memory d. Temporally distinct events and knowledge of the world in general

a. Implicit and explicit memory a. Procedural (implicit) memory, involves recollection of skills, such as driving, that are remembered automatically and without conscious awareness. Declarative (explicit) memory, involves conscious recollection. Semantic memory, a type of explicit memory, refers to memory for words and facts. Episodic memory, also a type of explicit memory, is memory for past events of an autobiographical, temporally distinct nature (Response 4)

1.) A group home refers and adult with severe intellectual disability, Ben, to you for psychotherapy. In terms of consent, you would need to obtain: a. Informed consent from Ben's legal guardian(s), and seek assent from Ben b. Informed consent from Ben c. Informed consent from the group home, and seek assent from Ben d. Informed consent from both Ben and his legal guardian(s)

a. Informed consent from Ben's legal guardian(s), and seek assent from Ben a. According to standard 3.10b of the APA Ethics Code, when a potential client does not have legal capacity, psychologists should still inform the client, seek assent, consider the client's best interests, and obtain consent from a legally authorized person. In general, individuals with severe intellectual rarely have legal capacity (ruling out Responses 2 & 4) and frequently do have a legal guardian or conservator. Even though the group home might be the referring source (Response 3), consent must be obtained from the legal guardian and assent sought from the client

1.) A new patient tells you that he smokes marijuana daily and has begun to wonder if his marijuana use may be affecting him negatively. He eagerly accepts information about Marijuana Anonymous. The next week he reports that he did not attend any of the meetings during the week, and he's not sure that he really needs to stop smoking marijuana. Prochaska would most likely determine that this patient is: a. In the stage of precontemplation b. In the stage of contemplation c. In the stage of preparation d. Low in motivation to change

a. In the stage of contemplation a. This question focuses on Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change. According to this model, people progress through a series of five stages in making changes in their behavior. This model has been used in the treatment of addictive behaviors such as smoking and drinking, eating disorders and weight management, as well as for promoting health related behaviors. The five stages of change are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. This patient is not in precontemplation (Response 1), because he is not in complete denial of a problem and is considering the need to make a change. He is in the stage of contemplation (Response 2), because he is aware of a problem, considering change, but still ambivalent. He has not yet taken action or made a commitment to change (Response 3). Prochaska and his colleagues do not view motivation as a quantity to assess, categorizing people as high or low in motivation (Response 4). Rather, motivation is seen as willingness to engage in change, and something that can be enhanced by certain behaviors on the part of the interviewer or therapist

1.) Beck's cognitive triad of depression refers to: a. Helplessness, hopelessness, despair b. Logical errors,, cognitive distortions, and faulty conceptions and self signals c. Inadequacy, negative experiences of the environment, bleak view of the future d. Poor self-esteem, lack of reinforcement, noncontingent punishment

a. Inadequacy, negative experiences of the environment, bleak view of the future a. Beck, a cognitive theorist, describes the cognitive triad of depression as: (1) a negative view of the self as defective and inadequate; (2) a tendency to experience the world as negative, interpret events negatively, and expect failure and punishment; and (3) the expectation of continued hardship or a negative appraisal of the future. What might have made this question a bit difficult is that Response 2 is filled with cognitive therapy terms like "logical errors" and "cognitive distortions." Response 4 should have been fairly easy to eliminate since its terminology refers to operant conditioning ("reinforcement," "noncontingent") and the questions specifies "cognitive triad"

1. A researcher attempts to train a dog to salivate to a light. The researcher has the dog complete 20 trials in which the food powder is presented followed by a flash of light. At the end of the 20 trails, the dog does not salivate to the light. This is most likely due to: a. Satiation b. Habituation c. Inappropriate pairings d. Extinction

a. Inappropriate pairings a. The researcher has paired an unconditioned stimulus (food powder) with a neutral stimulus (flash of light) in the hope that classical conditioning will take place and the neutral stimulus will become a conditioned stimulus. However, she has presented the US before the CS. This is called "backwards conditioning" which is really a misnomer because it results in no conditioning whatsoever (the subject loses interest after presentation of US). Thus, the failure in conditioning is due to inappropriate pairing. Satiation (Response 1) is an operant conditioning term and occurs when a primary reinforcer loses its reinforcing quality from being presented too much (M&M's stop being motivators for kids after a while). Habituation (Response 2) is a classical conditioning term and occurs when a subject gets used to (habituates) to an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., a loud noise) and no longer reacts to it (e.g., startling). In classical conditioning, extinction (Response 4) occurs when the CS is presented without the US (after conditioning has already occurred), which is not what is happening in this example

1.) You are newly hired as a manager of a small company. Your first priority is to increase the morale and satisfaction of the workers. You would also like to increase productivity at the same time. You would be best advised to: a. Institute flex-time schedules b. Institute rotating shifts c. Increase the number of breaks during the day d. Institute a compressed work week

a. Increase the number of breaks during the day a. Breaks during the day increase both productivity and satisfaction. Research into flex-time schedules (Response 1) is mixed as to whether they increase productivity and satisfaction or not. Rotating shifts (Response 2) are the most detrimental type of shift work and correlate with greatest amount of health problems, fatigue, stress, and error. The compressed work-week (Response 4) increases satisfaction but has mixed effects on productivity

1.) Increased stress is associated with all of the following except: a. Increased blood cortisol levels b. Increased blood flow and temperature in extremities c. Increased blood cholesterol d. Decreased immune function

a. Increased blood flow and temperature in extremities a. Under stress, blood flow to the extremities (such as the fingers, toes, and noes) is reduced and consequently temperature decreases in these areas. An example is how the body responds to freezing temperatures: in an attempt to conserve warmth, the body increases blood flow to the vital organs and withdraws it from the outer areas. For this reason, frostbite typically begins with toes or fingers. The association between finger temperature and stress is the basic for mood rings, temperature stress cards, and temperature biofeedback. All the other responses (1, 3, & 4) are true of stress reactions: blood cortisol (i.e., epinephrine, norepinephrine) and cholesterol levels increase and immune function decreases

1.) In order to perform a Chi-square, there must be: a. Independent observations b. Random assignment c. Normally distributed data d. Homoscedasticity

a. Independent observations a. The Chi-square is a non-parametric test of difference, used when the dependent variable is nominal data (i.e., categorical). One requirement of the Chi Square is that all of the observations (i.e., all of groups) be independent. In other words, each subject can only be measured once. Repeated measures can never be used with a Chi-square. Parametric tests, such the t-test and the ANOVA, require normally distributed data (Response 3) and homoscedasticity (Response 4), which simply means there is equal variance among all the groups. Random assignment to groups (Response 2) is the hallmark of true experimental research (as opposed to quasi-experimental research), but it has no effect on which statistical tests are to be used

1.) An African American experiences an incident of racism. Under which condition is he or she most likely to feel depressed? a. External responsibility, external control b. External responsibility, internal control c. Internal responsibility, external control d. Internal responsibility, internal control

a. Internal responsibility, external control a. The combination most likely to cause dysphoria (a combination that is very common) is to attribute responsibility internally but control externally. In everyday language, this combination means, "It's my fault, and there's nothing I can do about it." In this position, the person experience all the blame and guilt, but feels powerless to change the situation. External responsibility, external control (Response 1) translates as, "It is society's fault, and I can't do anything about it." This position is more protective of self-esteem. External responsibility, internal control (Response 2) translates as, "it's society fault, but there's something I can do about it." This position both protects self-esteem and enhances self-efficacy. It's least likely to cause depression. Internal responsibility, internal control (Response 4) translates as, "It's my fault, and I can do something about it"

1.) Parkinson's disease a. Involves reduced voluntary movements and rigidity b. Involves involuntary movements c. Is characterized by rapid changes in orientation and cognition d. Results from an autosomal-dominant gene

a. Involves reduced voluntary movements and rigidity a. Parkinson's disease is primarily considered a movement disorder characterized by tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia (slowed initiation of movement), and shuffling gait. Sufferers also frequently exhibit various neuropsychiatric symptoms, such as depression and/or dementia. Involuntary movements (Response 2) include the choeiform movements seen in Huntington's disease (e.g., frequent, discrete, brisk jerking movements of the pelvis, truck, and limbs), and in patients with Tardive Dyskinesia (e.g., tongue thrusting, facial grimacing). Rapid changes in orientation and cognition (Response 3) can be seen during delirium, as well with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Huntington's disease results from an autosomal-dominant gene (Response 4).

1.) You take a test of intelligence and are told that you are more proficient at verbal than visual tasks. This is an example of: a. Normative scoring b. Criterion-referenced scoring c. Subjective scoring d. Ipsative scoring

a. Ipsative scoring b. Ipsative scores provide information about the relative strengths and weaknesses of an individual without comparison to others. Here, you are told that you are better at verbal than visual tasks but you are not told how you compare to others. In contrast, normative scoring (Response 1) compares an individual to others. Normative scoring would indicate whether you are above or below average on visual and verbal tasks. Criterion-referenced scoring (Response 2) provides information on how much content the test-taker has mastered (e.g., number or percentage correct). Subject scoring (Response 3) involves judgment on the part of a rater. A multiple choice test is objective; an essay test is subjective

1.) A child who bullies other children: a. Probably has low self-esteem b. Probably is rejected by peers c. Is more likely than other children to exhibit violent behaviors in the future d. Is most likely demonstrating behavior within the normal range

a. Is more likely than other children to exhibit violent behaviors in the future a. Experts no longer consider bullying a normal part of childhood (ruling out Response 4), but rather one with serious ramifications for both the bully and the victim. According to a large research study by the National Institute for Child Health and Human Development (NICHHD), children who bully are more likely to engage in violence in the future. Current research does not support the long-held view that bullies suffer from low self-esteem (Response 1). It is the victims of bullying that are more likely to suffer from depression and low self-esteem as adults. Peer rejection is a major risk factor for becoming a victim of bully (Response 2). Sadly, there is some evidence that bullies may actually be popular among their peers

1.) According to earlier research, both male and female preschool teachers pay more attention to boys than girls. Current research indicates that this finding: a. Is still true, but only for preschool aged children b. Is no longer true c. Is still true for preschool children, as well as for children in elementary school d. Is true at all levels of education (preschool through college)

a. Is true at all levels of education (preschool through college) b. Teachers pay more attention to boys than girls at all levels of education, from preschool through college. They also give boys more opportunities to talk. Feedback to boys tend to be useful and oriented toward content and achievement (e.g., praise, correction, criticism), whereas feedback to girls tends to be superficial, often focused on the appearance of the work, not its content.

1.) Which of the following best describes a positive feedback loop? a. It is a cycle of on-going positive reinforcement b. It fosters positive change in the family c. It maintains the homeostasis in the family d. It amplifies deviation in the family

a. It amplifies deviation in the family b. Cybernetic theory contributed the concept of feedback loops to family therapy. In a positive feedback loop, also known as a deviation-amplifying loop, information returns to the family and is used to increase change (i.e., deviation). The change can be adaptive or maladaptive (ruling out Response 2). A negative feedback look is deviation dampening: in other words, it decreases the likelihood of changes and helps maintain the homeostatic state (Response 3). A positive feedback look has nothing to do with positive reinforcement (Response 1)

1.) Crisis intervention theory proposes all of the following except: a. Failure to resolve a crisis can result in extensive personality disorganization b. It is important to address characterological issues during crisis therapy c. It is sufficient to end as soon as it appears the crisis has been resolved d. The person in crisis has invariably lost a sense of mastery

a. It is important to address characterological issues during crisis therapy a. One of the distinguishing features between crisis intervention and brief psychotherapy is that crisis intervention does not address characterological issues nor does it seek characterological change. All the other statements are true of crisis intervention theory

1.) A patient with anosognosia will: a. Be unable to recognize familiar objects b. Lack awareness of his disorder c. Be unable to understand words, while being able to read them d. Have difficulty recognizing familiar faces

a. Lack awareness of his disorder a. Anosognosia is lack of awareness of a disability, or lack of awareness of the natures of one's illness. It is quite common among people with major mental illness and can be strikingly present in people with neurological disorders. For example, patients with Wernicke's aphasia usually do not recognize they have a problem even though they are speaking gibberish and cannot be understood by others. Agnosia is the loss of ability to recognize a specific sensory stimulus (e.g., objects, shapes, sounds, smells). The inability to recognize familiar objects (Response 1) is one type of agnosia. The inability to understand words that one is able to read (Response 3) is another type of agnosia. Prosopagnosia involves difficulty recognizing familiar faces (Response 4)

1.) A listener exposed to a communicator attempting to change the listener's attitude is least likely to change when the: a. Communicator does not appear to be an expert in her field b. Listener overhears the communicator stating the message to someone else c. Communicator appears to be dissimilar to the listener d. Listener feels pressure from the communicator

a. Listener feels pressure from the communicator b. When a listener feels pressured, reactance frequently occurs, and resistance to persuasion is increased. While lack of expertise (Response 1) and dissimilarity (Response 3), can affect degree of persuasion, they will not result in as much resistance to persuasion. The perception that the communicator has little to gain (Response 2) will typically increase persuasion

1.) When there is greater concern about obtaining false negatives than false positives, one would choose to: a. Lower the predictor cutoff b. Raise the predictor cutoff c. Lower the criterion cutoff d. Raise the criterion cutoff

a. Lower the predictor cutoff a. False negatives occur when a score falls below the predictor cutoff (i.e., is labeled "negative") but above the criterion cutoff; thus, it is a false negative. To remedy the situation, one should lower the predictor cutoff so that it is easier to be labeled a positive. In the real world, we often cannot change criterion cutoffs (Responses 3 & 4). For example, if a lab test for pregnancy gave us false negatives could we change the criterion and make pregnant woman non-pregnant? So, even though raising the criterion cutoff would also reduce false negatives. Response 1 is the better answer

1.) Parents bring their six-year-old daughter into therapy, stating that she has been lying. You should tell them that: a. Lying is not unusual behavior for a six-year-old, and that there is probably no need to worry unless the lying is very frequent or concerns serious issues b. If there are no other symptoms, she will most likely grow out of the lying c. They should be concerned because the lying may be a significant problem They should be concerned because the lying may be a precursor to other conduct problems

a. Lying is not unusual behavior for a six-year-old, and that there is probably no need to worry unless the lying is very frequent or concerns serious issues a. This is a difficult question because you would normally have the opportunity to get a more complete picture of the situation before giving an opinion. Most six-year-olds lie a little bit, but for some, lying is a significant problem worthy of clinical intervention. Response 1 is the best response because it addresses both possibilities. It is premature to reassure the parents (Response 2) without knowing more about the child. Similarly, it is an overreaction to assume that the lying is serious now (Response 3) or an indicator of conduct problems to come (Response 4)

1.) A man who has been drinking for the past 25 years exhibits deficits in recall of information and difficulty learning new information. His executive functioning, language skills, and perceptual-motor abilities are all average to above-average. He relies on his family for most of his needs. According to the DSM-5, he will be diagnosed with a/an: a. Delirium b. Mild neurocognitive disorder c. Major neurocognitive disorder d. Amnestic disorder

a. Major neurocognitive disorder a. The presentation describes Korsakoff's syndrome, in that there is a long history of alcohol use, with retrograde amnesia (deficits in recall of past information) as well as anterograde amnesia (inability to create new memories or learn any new information). While in the DSM-IV this would have been considered an amnestic disorder, the diagnosis of amnestic disorder has been eliminated in the DSM-5 (ruling out Response 4). A neurocognitive disorder is diagnosed when there is significant cognitive decline from a prior level of functioning in one or more domains (complex attention, executive function, learning and memory, language, perceptual-motor, or social cognition). The distinction between a major and mild neurocognitive disorder is not based on the number of domains t that are impaired (one or more must be impaired for either diagnosis). In major neurocognitive disorder, there is a significant cognitive decline and the deficits interfere with independent functioning in everyday living. In mild neurocognitive disorder (Response 2), there is a modest cognitive decline and the deficits do not interfere with independent functioning. Given that this man relies on his family for most of his needs, he would be diagnosed with a major neurocognitive disorder (Response 3). A delirium (Response 1) is a disturbance in attention and awareness (e.g., reduced orientation to the environment). The onset is rapid (hours to days) and the course tends to be fluctuating

1.) Lower socioeconomic status: a. May be associated with higher scores on the Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) than the Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI) b. May be associated with higher scores on the Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI) than the Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) c. Is not associated with any patterns on the WAIS d. Is more important in explaining WAIS score patterns than are issues of culture and ethnicity

a. May be associated with higher scores on the Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI) than the Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) a. Subtests that load on VCI may be influenced by background, educational opportunities, and cultural factors. Thus, people of lower SES might score higher on performance subtests than on verbal subtests (ruling out Response 3). Response 1 is the opposite of what has been observed. Although some experts believe that socioeconomic status might ultimately be shown to account for differences that have been attributed to ethnicity (Response 4), this contention has not yet been proven

1.) A patient reports remembering exactly what footage she first saw of the events of September 11, 2001. She further reports remembering exactly where she and her husband were standing in the living room and what they said to each other. This memory: a. Is probably accurate because it is of a traumatic event b. Is probably inaccurate because it is of a traumatic event c. Is probably accurate if the patient has a high degree of confidence in it d. May contain significant inaccuracies

a. May contain significant inaccuracies b. Flashbulb memories, the vivid memories of highly significant or traumatic events, are often nevertheless highly inaccurate (ruling out Response 1). Elizabeth Loftus demonstrated that college students were often wrong about when and where they had learned of the Challenger accident, despite a high degree of confidence in the memory (Response 3). All memories are subject to inaccuracies, not just those of traumatic events (Response 2)

1.) An employee who receives a preponderance of poor ratings from his supervisors would present himself in the best possible light if he reported his: a. Mode score b. Median score c. Mean score d. Average score

a. Mean score a. The best way to approach this question is graphically. The distribution of ratings for an employee who receives a preponderance of poor or low ratings will be positively skewed (many low ratings, few high ratings). In a positively skewed distribution, the mode corresponds to the lowest rating, the median the middle rating, and the mean the highest rating. While the mean is technically the arithmetic average of all scores, the term average (Response 4) is more general and can include the median. For example, when reporting 'average' prices of homes, typically the median is used.

1.) Damage to which of the following structures may result in coma or death? a. Thyroid b. Adrenal cortex c. Basal ganglia d. Medulla

a. Medulla b. The medulla is part of the brainstem. Along with the pons, it controls our most basic functions of respiration, cardiovascular activity, sleep, and consciousness. The thyroid gland (Response 1) controls metabolism through secretion of the hormone thyroxin. The adrenal cortex (Response 2) is involved in Addison's and Cushing's disease. The basal ganglia (Response 3) are involved in the initiation and control of movement, as well as in neuropsychiatric symptoms. In particular, they are implicated in Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease (the latter being due more specifically to loss of cells in the substantia nigra).

1.) Of the following, the person most likely to benefit from group therapy is someone who is experiencing: a. A crisis b. Moderate physical distress c. Moderate emotional distress d. Minimal distress

a. Moderate emotional distress a. As with most forms of therapy, a moderate amount of distress is most conducive to benefit from group therapy. Someone in crisis (Response 1) may have too much pressing needs and stormy emotions to benefit from a group format. Although a person in moderate physical distress (Response 2) can benefit from a group (e.g., cancer support groups), moderate emotional distress would be a better predictor of group success. Finally, someone in minimal emotional distress (Response 4) would probably lack the necessary motivation to benefit

1.) Compared to the administrative model of decision making, the rational-economic model emphasizes: a. Empirical data b. More complete knowledge base c. The satisficing style d. A participative rather than authoritarian style

a. More complete knowledge base a. The rational-economic model of decision-making requires that all facts and all possible alternative solutions by analyzed before choosing the optimal solution. It is the administrative approach (also known as behavioral) that makes use of the satisficing style (Response 3). In this approach, one only acquires the minimum of information required and chooses the first solution that is acceptable. This latter approach is often more appropriate when situations are ambiguous and it is impossible to have complete knowledge about the situation

1.) According to Gestalt theorists, excessive use of introjection may lead to: a. Paranoid, hostile behavior b. Self-destructive tendencies c. Naivete d. Lack of awareness of conflicts

a. Naivete a. Introjection, or taking things in whole, is thought to be one of five things that interfere with "contact" with oneself or others. Individuals who introject are likely to be gullible and compliant. Other problematic stances include: projection, which results in paranoia (Response 1); retroflection or turning back on ourselves what we'd like to do to others, which can result in self-destructive behavior (Response 2); deflection or distraction through humor, generalizations and questions; and confluence or blurring a differentiation between self and others (Response 4)

1.) According to classical test theory, test scores usually differ from true scores. The most likely explanation for this phenomenon is: a. Instruments that are unreliable b. A combination of nonsystematic and systematic error c. Differences in ability levels of test takers d. Nonsystematic error

a. Nonsystematic error b. According to classical test theory, total variance in scores is equal to true variance (reliability) and error variance. In equation form, this is expressed as X = T + E. Systematic error (Response 2) refers to a type of experimental error that affects all scores in an identical manner. In terms of reliability, anything that is "systematic" would not decrease the consistency of the results and would therefore not be of concern. Unreliability of instrumentation (Response 1) is only one of many factors that could account for the difference between true and obtained test scores. Differences in ability of test-takers (Response 3) are not a hindrance to reliability in any way. In fact, the wider the range of difference in ability, the higher the level reliability will be (all other things held constant). This is true because the reliability coefficient, like all coefficients, tend to be larger when the range of values is less restricted.

1.) Developed by Marsha Linehan, Dialectical Behavior Therapy requires patients to agree to all of the following conditions except: a. To work on reducing self-injurious and parasuicidal behavior b. To work on reducing therapy-interfering behaviors c. To attend all sessions within reason and remain in therapy for a specific period of time (e.g., one year) d. Not to call the therapist outside of the regularly scheduled psychotherapy session

a. Not to call the therapist outside of the regularly scheduled psychotherapy session b. Telephone contact is actually one of the primary modes of Dialectical Behavior Therapy, along with individual therapy, group skills training, and therapist consultation. All of the other responses describe conditions that patients must agree to at the onset of therapy. In addition, patients must agree to attend skills training classes, usually focuses on the four skills of core mindfulness, interpersonal effectiveness, emotion modulation, and distress tolerance

1.) A 14-year-old is brought to treatment because his paretns are very distressed by his behavior. They note that for the past 12 months he defies rules, loses his temper frequently, is often angry, and has been vindictive. He has gotten into several verbal fights and was involved in an incident of physical aggression. What would be his most appropriate diagnosis? a. Conduct disorder b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Intermittent explosive disorder d. Adolescent antisocial behavior

a. Oppositional defiant disorder a. This behavior descrbied meets criteria for oppositional defiant disorder (ODD), which is characterized by a recurrent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness, which persists for at least 6 months (Response 2). Conduct disorder (Response 1) involves a persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated, as evidenced by aggression to people or animals (e.g., use of a weapon, cruelty to animals), destruction of property, theft (e.g., breaking and entering), or serious rule violations (e.g., running away from home). Intermittent explosive disorder (Response 3) involves recurrent outbursts resulting from a failure to control aggressive impulses, as manifest by either of the following: verbal aggression (e.g., tirades, verbal arguments) or physical aggression toward property, animals, or people occurring twice weekly for a period of 3 months, without damage or injury; or three behavioral outbursts involving damage or physical injury within a 12-month period. Adolescent antisocial behavior (Response 4) is not a mental disorder. It is a condition that may be a focus of clinical attention

1.) In psychology testing, some distinctions among types of tests include power versus speed, and aptitude versus ability. When attempting to ascertain the reliability of a speeded test, the best estimate would be: a. Parallel forms b. Split-half c. Internal consistency d. Interrater reliability

a. Parallel forms a. The reliability for speeded tests is best assessed through parallel forms. Because all the items on speeded tests are generally easy, measures of internal consistency (Response 3), of which split-half (Response 2) is one example, will t end to overestimate reliability. Interrater reliability (Response 4) is not appropriate here because speeded tests are objective and interrater reliability should be 100%.

1.) What interventions would Patterson and his colleagues emphasize for childhood aggression? a. Parent education and counseling b. Group therapy for children c. Individual therapy for children d. Self-esteem enhancement

a. Parent education and counseling a. Patterson, Reid, and Dishion have developed an empirically validated treatment for childhood aggression that focuses on education and skills training for parents. Parents are taught prosocial behaviors, how to discipline without the use of aggression, and how to reward prosocial behaviors. Communication and problem solving skills are also taught

1.) Research by Baumrind suggests that authoritative parents are most likely to believe: a. Strict control of the child's behavior is necessary for the child to acquire a strong sense of morals and values b. Parental control should be used to guide the child to understand and accept society's norms and values c. The parent should serve as a resource for the child, but should not attempt to control the child's behavior d. The parent should avoid punishment in child rearing

a. Parental control should be used to guide the child to understand and accept society's norms and values a. Authoritative parents do believe in the need to control children's behavior at times. "Strict control" (Response 1) tends to be associated with authoritarian parents. Beliefs that a parent should never control (Response 3) or punish a child (Response 4) are more characteristic of permissive parents

1.) Damage to which of the following lobes is most likely to result in apraxia, left-right confusion and a disturbance of body image? a. Frontal b. Temporal c. Occipital d. Parietal

a. Parietal b. The parietal lobes are home to the somatosensory cortex. It processes sensory information including light touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception (the ability to sense position, location, and movement of the body). Damage to the parietal lobes may result in apraxia, left-right confusion, and a disturbance of body image. The frontal lobes (Response 1) are associated with higher mental functions including personality, abstract thinking, and judgment. The temporal lobes (Response 2) contain the auditory cortex, and are connect to the limbic system including the hippocampus (memory) and structures that regulate sexual, aggressive, and emotional behavior. The occipital lobes (Response 3) house the primary visual cortex.

1.) To test for a relationship between two variables while controlling for a third, the test of choice would be: a. ANCOVA b. LISREL c. Factor analysis d. Partial Correlation

a. Partial Correlation b. This question actually gives the definition of partial correlation: a statistical procedure that investigates the relationship between two variables while controlling ("partialing out") the relationship of a third variable. LISREL (Response 2), also a test of relationship, is a sophisticated type of structural equation modeling that can determine if a given model of relationships among variables is correct. Factor analysis (Response 3), a test of structure, is conducted when there are a priori hypotheses about the underlying structure for a given set of variables. ANCOVA (Response 1) is somewhat similar to partial correlation, except that ANCOVA is used exclusively when partialing out the effect of a confound from research that is looking for differences between groups, not relationships among variables.

1.) Which of the following would be considered a norm-referenced score? a. Percentile rank b. Percent correct c. Pass/ fail d. Raw score

a. Percentile rank a. Percentile rank is considered a norm-referenced score because it provides information about how a person scored relative to the group. Other examples of norm-referenced scores include T-scores and s-scores. Percent correct (Response 2), pass/fail (Response 3), and raw score (Response 4) are all examples of criterion-referenced scores, because they indicate how a person did on some external criterion. In contrast with norm-reference scores, criterion-reference scores provide no information about how an individual's score compares to with other scores. Criterion reference scores can therefore be difficult to interpret (e.g., 60% on a test on which most people score 40% is a great score, but is a poor score when most people scored 80%)

1.) In Exner's Rorschach Comprehensive System (RCS), responses are scores on all of the following dimensions except: a. Content b. Form quality c. Perceptual quality d. Developmental quality

a. Perceptual quality a. Responses on the Rorschach are scored on content (Response 1), location, form quality (Response 2), and developmental quality (Response 4). Form quality refers to how accurately the responses related to the form of the inkblot. Developmental quality refers to the degree of integration of the response. There is no dimension of perceptual quality (Response 3) on the Rorschach

1.) When it comes to research on performance, it's been found that: a. There is a direct linear relationship between performance and motivation b. There is a curvilinear relationship between motivation and performance c. Performance is affected by a combination of environmental variables, individual attributes, and work efforts d. Performance is affected by a combination of expectancy, valence, and instrumentality

a. Performance is affected by a combination of environmental variables, individual attributes, and work efforts a. This response explicitly describes the general performance model which states that performance is a function of opportunity (environmental variables and organizational support), capacity/ability (individua attributes), and willingness/motivation (work effort). The relationship between performance and motivation is not linear; if a person is highly motivated by lacking in ability, he or she will perform more poorly than someone who has moderate motivation but high ability (Response 1). According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, there is a curvilinear relationship between performance and arousal, not specifically performance and motivation (Response 2). Expectancy, valence, and instrumentality (Response 4) are aspects of Vroom's valence-instrumentality-expectancy (VIE), which is a theory of motivation rather than performance.

1. Whenever Johnny whines, his father slaps him. Over time, Johnny whines more and more. Johnny's behavior is under the control of: a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment

a. Positive reinforcement a. This is a very difficult question. Johnny's behavior is whining. After Johnny emits the target behavior his father slaps him. The slap is added therefore it is positive not negative, which occurs when something is removed (Ruling out Responses 2 & 4). Over time the target behavior (whining) is increasing. Reinforcement always results in an increase in the target behavior (ruling out Responses 3 & 4). In contrast, punishment results in a decrease in target behavior. What makes this question so difficult is that typically slapping is positive punishment (Response 3). The father added a stimulus (i.e., slapping) in the hopes of decreasing Johnny's behavior. In addition, most children would experience the slaps as pain, and most would decrease their whining. However, reinforcement and punishment are always determined by the results in the specific situation, not by the intentions. We can hypothesize that the slaps are a form of attention that is important to Johnny.

1.) A main characteristic of Mahler's practicing subphase is: a. Vacillation to and fro b. Stranger anxiety c. Symbiosis d. Separation anxiety

a. Separation anxiety b. Practicing (10-16 months) is the second of the four subphrases into which Mahler divies the major phase of separation-individuation. It is marked by walking and separation anxiety. Vacillation to and fro (Response 1) is associated with the third subphrase of rapproachment (16-24 months). Stranger anxiety (Response 2) is associated with the first subphase of differentiation (5-10 months). Symbiosis (Response 3) occurs from 3-4 weeks to 4-5 months and precedes separation-individuation

1.) Six weeks after witnessing a shooting at a 7-11 convenience store, a patient complains of guilt, loss of interest in his usual activities, and irritability. He has difficulty sleeping due to nightmares and notes he has not returned to the store since the incident. What is the patient's most likely diagnosis? a. Acute stress disorder b. Posttraumatic Stress disorder c. Adjustment disorder with anxiety d. Other specified/unspecified trauma- and stressor- related disorder

a. Posttraumatic Stress disorder a. The person witnessed a traumatic event as it occurred to another. Additionally, symptoms are present from all four of the symptom clusters required for the diagnosis of PTSD: intrusive symptoms (nightmares), avoidance (avoiding the location of the shooting), negative alterations in mood/cognitions (guilt, loss of interest in activities), and alterations in arousal and reactivity (irritability, sleep disturbance). Acute stress disorder would be diagnosed if symptoms were present for a minimum of 3 days and up to 1 month after exposure (Response 1). However, given that 6 weeks have passed the diagnosis is PTSD. (Response 2). Adjustment disorder (Response 3) involves a maladaptive reaction to an identifiable psychosocial stressor; however, an adjustment disorder is not diagnosed when the stress-disturbance meets criteria for another mental disorder. The categories of other specified/unspecified trauma- and stressor- related disorder is diagnosed when symptoms present are related to a trauma or stressor, but the symptoms do not meet the full criteria for any of the disorders in this DSM-5 section (Ruling out Response 4). Other specified is used when the clinician chooses to communicate the specific reason that the presentation does not meet full criteria (e.g., fewer symptoms present than required for the diagnosis) and unspecified is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason the presentation doesn't meet full criteria or there is insufficient information to diagnose (e.g., in emergency room settings)

1.) An emic point of view would likely emphasize: a. The importance of autonomy over interdependence b. Universal principles underlying normal personality development c. Common factors underlying development of psychopathology d. Potential diagnostic problems with the DSM-5

a. Potential diagnostic problems with the DSM-5 b. An emic point of view recognizes differences in values across cultures (e.g., autonomy versus interdependence), and argues there is no one model of mental health that can be applied to all. Thus, the DSM-5 would be susceptible to diagnostic problems when applied to other cultures. This is in contrast with an etic view that assumes there are commonalities and universal principles that can be applied to all (Responses 2 and 3). An emic view would not hold that one value is superior to another (Response 1)

1.) A boy denies that he drank alcohol at a party because he does not want his parents to ground him. According to Kohlberg, this boy is most likely in which of the following stages of morality? a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Good boy- good girl

a. Preconventional a. This boy is demonstrating the reasoning of the preconventional stage of morality, which is based on compliance with rules to avoid punishment (punishment-obedience orientation) and get rewards (instrumental hedonism). Conventional morality (Response 2) is based on conforming to rules, either to get approval from others (good boy/good girl) or to uphold one's duty (law and order orientation). Postconventional morality (Response 3) involves beliefs that are based on personal standards and universal principles

1.) People are most likely to accurately remember a sentence if they are required to use their: a. Sensory memory b. Primary memory c. Working memory d. Long-term memory

a. Primary memory a. People are most likely to accurately repeat sentences if the delay is less than 30 seconds; in other words, if they are relying on their short-term memory. Short-term memory is subtyped as either primary memory or working memory. Primary memory is like a passive holding tank for small amounts of information that do not require manipulation. Thus, repeating a sentence verbatim involves primary memory (Response 2). Working memory (Response 3) not only hold information but manipulates it (e.g., repeating digits in reverse order). Sensory memory (Response 1) is largely accurate but very short-lived (up to a couple of seconds) and involves transforming incoming data into visual (iconic) or auditory (echoic) images that can only be very briefly remembered. Long-term memory (Response 4) is prone to distortions

1.) Your to-do list includes "go to the post office at 2:00 pm." When your watch alarm goes off at 2:00 pm, you can't remember what you had planned to do. You are experiencing a problem with: a. Procedural memory b. Episodic memory c. Semantic memory d. Prospective memory

a. Prospective memory b. Prospective memory involves remembering that one had planned to do something at a particular time. Episodic memory (Response 2) is memory for past events of an autobiographical nature. Semantic memory (Response 3) refers to memory for words and facts. Both episodic and semantic memory are types of declarative (explicit) memory, memory that involves conscious recollection. Procedural memory (Response 1), also known as implicit or nondeclarative memory, involves recollection of skills, such as driving, that are remembered automatically and without conscious awareness

1.) In an escape paradigm: a. One can avoid the punishment entirely by emitting the desired response in time b. The person is forced to choose between two equally undesirable options c. Punishment is inevitable d. The animal can experience experimental neurosis

a. Punishment is inevitable a. In an escape paradigm, the aversive stimulus cannot be avoided; however, one can get the aversive stimulus to stop by emitting the desired behavior. For example, the animal is shocked and can get the shock to stop by pressing a lever. One can "avoid" punishment altogether (Response 1) in the avoidance paradigm if the subject emits the desired behavior in time

1.) An assumption common to both parametric and nonparametric statistics is: a. Random selection b. Random assignment c. Normally distributed data d. Equivalence of sample value with population parameter

a. Random selection a. Random selection (or random sampling) involves ensuring that all members of the population have an equal chance of being sampled, so that our sample is in fact representative of the population that we are hypothesizing about. Both parametric and non-parametric tests require random selection. Random assignment (Response 2) is a key distinguishing factor between a true-experimental and quasi-experimental design. Random assignment is not a requirement of parametric or non-parametric tests. Only parametric tests require normally distributed data (Response 3). Neither test requires equivalence of sample value (e.g., mean, SD) with population parameter (Response 4), although it is hoped that sample values are close to population values

1.) Of the following, the medication least implicated in causing anticholinergic side effects is: a. Amitriptyline b. Sertraline c. Imipramine d. Clomipramine

a. Sertraline a. While all the medications listed are antidepressants, Zoloft (Sertraline) is the only SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor). The SSRIs do not cause anticholingeric side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, decreased memory. Elavil (amitriptyline), Tofranil (imipramine) and Anafranil (clomipramine) are all tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Tricyclics tend to cause severe anticholinergic side effects

1.) What are the effects of random selection and random assignment? a. They both increase internal validity b. They both increase external validity c. Random selection increases internal validity and random assignment increases external validity d. Random selection increases external validity and random assignment increases internal validity

a. Random selection increases external validity and random assignment increases internal validity b. Random selection means that every subject in the population has an equal chance of being selected for the experiment. Because it ensures that subjects are representatives of the population, it improves the ability to generalize the findings of the study; in other words, it increases external validity. Random assignment involves randomly assigning subjects to different treatment groups within the experiment, as opposed to using pre-existing treatment groups (e.g., patients on two hospital wards). Random assignment helps to ensure that differences in outcome between the groups are due to treatment affects and not pre-existing differences. Thus random assignment enhances internal validity, which is the ability to conclude that the difference between the groups is actually due to the intervention. Random assignment is the hallmark of true experimental research. One way to remember these terms is the phrase: "We randomly select from the population (thereby affecting external validity), and then we randomly assign to groups within the experiment (thereby affecting internal validity)."

1.) Which of the following best summarizes the ethical requirements regarding the release of test data, as outlined in the 2002 APA Ethics Code? a. Raw scores may not be released b. Raw scores may be released to individuals who have the necessary competence to interpret and understand them c. Raw scores may be released to whomever the client identifies in a release d. Raw scores may be released to the client or to individuals who have the necessary competence to interpret and understand them

a. Raw scores may be released to whomever the client identifies in a release a. The APA Ethics Code states that psychologists should generally release test data to the client or other persons identified in the release signed by the client. Test data includes raw and scaled scores, responses to questions, and notes taken during the assessment. There is no requirement with regard to releasing test data that the individuals have competence to interpret or understand the data (ruling out Responses 2 & 4)

1.) According to Holland, a person who enjoys construction work is most likely to be _______, and least likely to have interests similar to someone who is ________. a. Realistic, artistic b. Realistic, social c. Conventional, artistic d. Enterprising, investigative

a. Realistic, social a. Holland's personality job fit theory proposes that a good fit between personality type and occupation leads to job satisfaction. He describes six occupational themes, organized in the shape of a hexagon, and termed them RIASEC (Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional). One mnemonic is the phrase "Success Always Includes Real Concerted Effort," where the first letter of each word corresponds to an occupational type. Themes which are adjacent on the hexagon are the most similar, while those directly across are from each other are most dissimilar. The person described here best fits the theme of realistic, preferring physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination, such as a mechanic, drill press operator, or farmer. The theme directly opposite realistic is social, not artistic (Response 1). The social type prefers activities that involve helping and developing others, such as a social worker, teacher, and clinical psychologist. A person who is conventional (Response 3) prefers rule-regulated, orderly unambiguous activities, such as the work of an accountant, bank teller, or file clerk. Opposite conventional is artistic, a type that prefers ambiguous and unsystematic activities that allow creative expression such as the work of a painter, musician, or writer. The enterprising type (Response 4) enjoys the opportunity to influence others and obtain power, for example, lawyers and real estate agents. Opposite enterprising is the investigative type who prefers activities that involve thinking and organizing, such as research psychologists and journalists.

1.) Getting a client to accept responsibility is a key focus of: a. Hypnotherapy b. REBT c. Adlerian therapy d. Reality therapy

a. Reality therapy b. Glasser's Reality Therapy is characterized by an emphasis on responsibility, clarification of values, and evaluation of behavior. It has particular applications to delinquent adolescents and prison inmates. Although responsibility may play some role in REBT (Response 2) and Adlerian therapy (Response 3), its role is not as central as in reality therapy

1.) Your client, Alice, was recently raped. The police stopped their investigation because they could not find any suspects. Another client tells you that he raped a woman; you realize that his victim is your client Alice. How should you address this situation? a. Contact the police and give them only the information necessary for the case b. Suggest to your client that he turn himself in to the police c. Refer him out d. Report the information anonymously to the police to protect confidentiality

a. Refer him out a. This certainly poses quite a dilemma, and of all the responses give, Response 3 is the only possible correct answer. Remember, as this man is your client, and the information about his perpetrating the rape was shared in therapy, you cannot talk to the police (Response 1) or give them anonymous information (Response 4), as that would breach his confidentiality. Also, it is not a good idea to suggest that your client turn himself in (Response 2), as this is beyond the scope of a psychologist's role, and is akin to providing legal advice to the client. In treating this man, you would need to consider your own reaction toward him and assess whether you could remain objective in your treatment of him (which is unlikely given the circumstances). It may be wise to refer him to another therapist, which would serve his best interest

1.) A single group of very depressed subjects (selected based on Beck Depression Inventory scores) is treated with 12 sessions of cognitive-behavioral therapy. The greatest threat to validity is: a. Regression to the mean b. History c. Selection d. Instrumentation

a. Regression to the mean a. Regression to the mean is a significant concern when subjects initially score in the extreme range. Upon retesting, there is a tendency for scores to be less extreme. In this scenario, the subjects might appear as if they have improved due to treatment, when it is simply a result of regression. The best way to manage the threat of regression is with a control group. History (Response 2) refers to specific incidents that intervene between measuring points, either inside or outside of the experimental situation. While history is certainly a potential threat, it is not as great as regression. Selection (Response 3) specifically refers to problems due to non-random assignment, and since there was only one group, selection is not of concern. Instrumentation (Response 4) refers to changes in equipment or observers, and since a valid and objective instrument is being used, this is not likely to be of concern

1.) A patient with Korsakoff's syndrome would be able to: a. Recognize the examining doctor each time he visits b. Recall 3 words (e.g., ball, flag, tree) five minutes after presentation c. Repeat 5 digits d. Retrieve memories of events prior to the development of the syndrome

a. Repeat 5 digits a. Korsakoff's is an amnestic disorder that results from chronic thiamin deficiency associated with longstanding alcohol abuse. The most significant problem associated with Korsakoff's is anterograde amnesia (difficulty forming new memories). Thus a patient with Korsakoff's will be unable to recognize the doctor (Response 1) and unable to recall three words five minutes after presentation (Response 2). A patient with Korsakoff's will also suffer from retrograde amnesia, and may not be able to retrieve memories of events prior to developing the syndrome (Response 4). Short-term memory (Response 3), the ability to remember for 30 seconds, remains intact

1.) During an intake interview, a client expresses a preference for a therapist of her own race. According to the Minority Identity Development Model, this client is most likely in the stage of: a. Conformity b. Introspection c. Resistance d. Dissonance

a. Resistance a. This client is most likely in the third stage of the Minority Identity Development Model (Atkinson, Morton & Sue, 1993), the stage of resistance (Response 3). People in. this stage experience a strong sense of identification with and commitment to their racial/cultural group, and they reject the values of the dominant culture. Conformity (Response 1) is the first stage, in which people prefer the majority culture to their own. In this stage, a client would typically prefer a White therapist. The second stage is dissonance (Response 4), in which people question the values of the majority culture and begin to reject their own denial of their racial/cultural heritage. Stage four, introspection (Response 2), comes after resistance, and involves a deeper analysis of attitudes and feelings, along with a growing recognition of the loss of personal autonomy. The final stage, synergetic articulation and awareness (also called integrative awareness), involves acceptance and valuing aspects of both the minority and dominant culture

1.) Hemispatial neglect most often results from damage to the ______ hemisphere, and results in deficits in attention and awareness ______ to the injured hemisphere a. Left; ipsilateral b. Left; contralateral c. Right; ipsilateral d. Right; contralateral

a. Right; contralateral b. Hemispatial neglect (one-sided neglect) most often results from damage to the right hemisphere, and results in a lack of awareness of objects on the left side. Contralateral refers to the opposite side, while ipsilateral refers to the same side

1.) The maximum value of the standard error of the measurement is: a. 1 b. Rxx c. SDx d. Sdy

a. SDx a. You can approach this question by applying the formula for the standard error of measurement Smeas =SDxO1-rxx:. The lowest value would then be 0 (if rxx=1) and the highest value would be SDx (if rxx = ). Note that SDy (Response 4) is the highest value for the standard error of the estimate

1.) A physician informs a fifty-year-old male patient that he should be screened for prostate cancer. Such a screening is an example of: a. Primary prevention b. Second prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Primary or secondary prevention, depending on whether or not the patient had factors placing him at high risk for prostate cancer

a. Second prevention a. Primary prevention (Response 1) prevents a disorder from occurring in the first place (i.e., reduces the incidence of a disorder). Here, the screening will only reveal whether or not the patient has cancer, but will obviously not prevent cancer. Secondary prevention involves identification and prompt treatment, with the goal of stopping relatively mild disorders from becoming more serious and prolonged (i.e., reduces the prevalence of a disorder). The screening may identify cancer earlier and enable aggressive treatment to reduce the mortality risks. Tertiary prevention (Response 3) aims to reduce the residual effects of a disability or to minimize further negative consequences of an established, serious disorder. For example, the patient might be sent to a workshop after undergoing prostate surgery to assist him in adapting to his condition without depression or a relationship problems. Whether or not the patient has risk factor (Response 4) is irrelevant to determining the type of prevention that is being used.

1.) A psychologist working in a school setting often conducts psychological testing with children. He is proficient in using a test of cognitive ability. Though he has not yet undergone training for the most recently revised version of this test, the school district now wants him to use the new version. After he informs the superintendent of the situation, he is told that only the new version of the test is to be used in the school and that the district does not have the current funding available for training on the new test. How should this psychologist address the situation? a. Refuse to use the new test unless the district provides proper training b. Seek outside training and consultation and administer the new test c. Continue to use the older version of the test until he is properly trained d. Use the new test and apply his knowledge of the older version of the test to the new version

a. Seek outside training and consultation and administer the new test a. Even though the district is not providing training for this psychologists, there is no reason why he cannot seek training on his own. Since he is required to use the new version of the test, he can seek t raining to learn about how this test differs from the previous version on the test, and consultation on how to administer, score and interpret the test. Refusing to use the new test (Response 1) could not only put his job in jeopardy, but might also result in assessment batteries that are incomplete. The district prohibits using the old version of the test (Response 3), and furthermore, the old version may be obsolete. It is not appropriate to apply knowledge of the old test to the new version, as the two versions may be quite different (Response 4)

1.) In the first stage of most cultural identity development models, the person: a. Shows a strong preference for the dominant culture b. Is strongly identified with his or her own culture c. Identifies strengths and weakness in both cultures d. Struggles with issues related to racism and discrimination

a. Shows a strong preference for the dominant culture a. The first stage of most cultural identity models (e.g., conformity in Sue & Sue's model, or preencounter in Cross's model) is characterized by a preference for the dominant culture's values, and feelings of negativity toward one's own cultural/ethnic group. According to Sue & Sue's model, struggles with racism and discrimination (Response 4) can propel a person into the second stage of dissonance. Strong identification with one's own culture (Response 2) occurs at the third stage of resistance and immersion. Identification of strengths and weakness in both cultures (Response 3) is most likely to occur during the fifth and final stage of integrative awareness

1.) In developing a test designed to measure the trait of perseverance, to optimize Cronbach's alpha one would ideally develop items that are ______, and utilize subjects that are _____: a. Similar in content, different in temperament b. Different in content, different in temperament c. Different in content, similar in temperament d. Similar in content, similar in temperament

a. Similar in content, different in temperament a. Cronbach's alpha is a measure of internal consistency. It would be highest when the items are consistent or similar in content. The Cronbach's alpha, like all correlation coefficients, is highest when the range of values is unrestricted and wide. So, the more widely varying the subjects are in temperament, the higher would be the Cronbach's alpha. Put another way, reliability is highest when test items are homogeneous and test takers are heterogeneous (on the variable being measured)

1.) You are seeing a client who notes she is terrified of insects. As much as she can, she avoids the outdoors. She notes that in the summertime, when she comes into contact with spiders, mosquitos, wasps, she immediately has a panic attack (frequently several times a week). You would diagnose her with: a. Panic disorder b. Specific phobia c. Both panic disorder and specific phobia d. Generalized anxiety disorder

a. Specific phobia a. The DSM-5 generally allows for the diagnosis of two or more mental disorders, when both exist. Additionally, anxiety disorders are frequently comorbid. In this scenario, the person's symptoms meet criteria for a specific phobia. She has marked fear or anxiety caused by the presence or anticipation of insects. When in the presence of the phobic object, she develops panic attacks. She does not, however, meet criteria for panic disorder, which is characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks (ruling out Response 1 & 3). Generalized anxiety disorder (Response 4) is diagnosed when there is excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities, also associated with physical symptoms (e.g., restlessness, fatigue, muscle tension, irritability)

1.) Two programs designed to improve academic achievement are compared by measuring students at the beginning, middle and end of the school year. The statistic of choice is a: a. T-test b. One-way ANOVA c. Factorial ANOVA d. Split-plot ANOVA

a. Split-plot ANOVA b. This experiment is a mixed design, consisting of two IVs. One variable is the repeated measures variable of time because the same subjects are being measured more than once (beginning, middle, and end of school year). The data collected on this variable are correlated. The other variable is a between-groups variable of program (e.g., Program 1 versus Program 2) where the data collected are independent. The split-plot ANOVA is the appropriate statistic in this situation. A t-test (Response 1) is only appropriate when there is only one IV, and only two groups are being compared. A one-way ANOVA (Response 2) can't be used when there are two IVs. A factorial ANOVA (Response 3) means that there is more than one IV, all the IVs are between-groups variables, and the data are independent

1.) Which of the following tests should be used to help determine the proper academic placement of a gifted child? a. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC-V) b. Stanford-Binet c. Raven's Progressive Matrices d. Bayley

a. Stanford-Binet a. The Stanford-Binet is preferred for the assessment of giftedness because it has a high ceiling. In contrast, the WISC-IV (Response 1) has a low ceiling, meaning that IQs can't go much above 160, whereas scores on the Stanford-Binet can go all the way up into the 180s. Thus, while the WISC might identify a child as gifted, it would give fairly limited information about the extent of the child's giftedness. Raven's Progressive Matrices (Response 3) is an excellent non-verbal measure of intelligence, but is not generally used for assessment of giftedness. The Bayley (Response 4) is an infant test of intelligence and is a poor predictor of giftedness in later years

1.) According to the recent research on blended families, the most problematic relationship is usually between: a. Stepmothers and stepdaughters b. Stepmothers and stepsons c. Stepfathers and stepdaughters d. Stepfathers and stepsons

a. Stepmothers and stepdaughters a. Current research indicates that conflict is highest between stepmothers and stepdaughters, especially when the stepdaughters are in their teens. Overall, the stepmother generally has the most difficult role in blended families

1.) A client who complies with the recommendation that he make sure that he eat his food at the kitchen table only is practicing: a. Self-control procedures b. Response generalization c. Self-monitoring d. Stimulus control

a. Stimulus control b. Stimulus control refers to putting a behavior under the control of only certain stimuli. In this case, eating is controlled by the stimuli of the kitchen table and it is hoped, for example, that lying in bed watching T.V. will cease being a stimulus for snacking. Stimulus control is an application of operant conditioning and is often used to treat insomnia, as well as overeating. Self-monitoring (Response 3) involves keeping a record of one's behavior (e.g., what one's eaten). Both stimulus control and self-monitoring are examples of self-control procedures (Response 1). Response generalization (Response 2) refers to the giving of similar responses as those that have previously been reinforced.

1. You experience panic and fear while taking the licensing exam. When you take your driving test several weeks later, these feelings resurface. This is likely attributable to: a. Higher-order conditioning b. Response generalization c. Stimulus generalization d. Positive punishment

a. Stimulus generalization a. This situation is an example of stimulus generalization. The conditioned stimulus of being tested on the licensing exam (CS) has resulted in panic and fear (the CR); this has generalized to the similar stimulus of being tested on the driving exam. This parallels what happened to Little Albert in Watson's classic experiment. After several conditioning trials in which a white rate (CS) was paired with a loud noise (US), presentation of the white rate alone (CS) brought about a response of fear and upset (CR). Little Albert then generalized to a white rabbit (a stimulus similar to the white rat) and exhibited fear in the presence of the rabbit. This is not higher-order conditioning (Response 1) because a new and different neutral stimulus (e.g., light) has not been deliberately paired with the original CS (e.g., tone). Response generalization (Response 2) occurs in operant conditioning only, when a response generalizes to similar types of responses, e.g., a teenager reinforced for cleaning his bedroom begins to pick up after himself in the living room. Positive punishment (response 4) involves decreasing a behavior by applying a noxious stimulus

1.) All of the following represent autonomous functions of the ego except: a. Intuition b. Sublimation c. Learning d. Thinking

a. Sublimation a. The ego psychologist Heinz Hartmann distinguished between ego defensive functioning (e.g., the defense mechanisms) and autonomous ego functioning which takes place in a "conflict-free" sphere of the ego. Sublimation is a defense mechanism and by definition therefore belongs to ego defensive functioning. All the other responses are considered autonomous ego functions

1.) In a split brain patient, the word suitcase is projected in such a manner that suit is seen only in the left visual fields and case is seen only in the right visual fields. If the patient is asked to point with his left hand to what he sees, which one of the following four cards will he point to? a. Suit b. Case c. Suitcase d. A blank card, indicating he saw nothing

a. Suit a. In all persons, sensory experiences on the left side of the body (e.g., an object placed in the left hand) are always processed by the right hemisphere, whereas sensory experiences on the right side of the body (e.g., an image flashed in the right visual fields) are always processed by the left hemisphere. In split brain patients (i.e., patients with their corpus callosum severed), the two hemispheres operate independently, and are unable to communicate, thus eliminating the response "suitcase" (Response 3) which would require integration of the input to the two hemispheres. In this example "suit" is projected to the left visual fields. This stimulus is processed by the right hemisphere. Since the right hemisphere is also linked to the left hand, the person, when asked to point with the left hand, will point to "suit." If the question had asked what would he say he saw, because language is left hemisphere dominant, "case" which is projected to the right visual fields, would be processed in the left hemisphere, and he would only be able to say he saw the word "case" (Response 2)

1.) As part of an overall plan to enhance vehicle safety, the local department of motor vehicles offers free drivers' education course for three months. Researchers then compare the number of accidents and tickets that occurred prior to the courses to the number that occurred after the courses. This type of research is termed: a. Formative evaluation b. Summative evaluation c. Ipsative evaluation d. Behavioral criterion

a. Summative evaluation a. Program evaluation involves the systematic collection of information in order to assess the effectiveness of programs. There are two phases of program evaluation: formative evaluation (Response 1), which is implemented during the course of the program; and summative evaluation, which is implemented at the end of the program. Here, the evaluation occurs after the completion of the educational courses and is therefore a summative evaluation. Ipsative (Response 3) refers to scores that are looked at in terms of a given individual (e.g., someone has a preference for artistic activities versus social activities) rather than across individuals (e.g., one person prefers artistic activities more than another). A behavioral criterion (Response 4) is an operationalized objective (e.g., 25% in number of tickets and accidents)

1.) Biofeedback has been demonstrated to be effective in the treatment of a variety of medical disorders. Biofeedback appears to exert its effect on the: a. Sympathetic system b. Parasympathetic system c. Limbic system d. Somatic nervous system

a. Sympathetic system a. Biofeedback focuses primarily on the sympathetic nervous system, which is the part of the autonomic nervous system responsible for arousal. Biofeedback uses operant conditioning to bring under conscious control functions that are usually involuntary (e.g., heart rate, muscle tension, temperature). The parasympathetic system (Response 2) is the other part of the autonomic nervous system and usually works to conserve energy or reduce arousal. The somatic nervous system (Response 4) is involved in communication between sensory input and muscular output and is generally under voluntary control to begin with. The limbic system (Response 3) is housed in the temporal lobe and is responsible for emotion and memory.

1.) Psychologists are required to adhere to the Ethics Code when it "establishes a higher standard of conduct than is required by law." In terms of explicit conflicts between ethics and law, the most ethical course of action is to: a. Comply with the higher standard of the Ethics Code b. Take reasonable steps to resolve the conflict c. Clearly state and document one's commitment to the Ethics Code and then comply with the law d. Comply with the Ethics Code except in cases of court orders

a. Take reasonable steps to resolve the conflict a. According to standard 1.02 of the APA Ethics Code (2010 revision), when the demands of the Ethics Code and the law conflict, psychologists should "clarify the nature of the conflict, make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict." The Ethics Code further states, "under no circumstances may this standard be used to justify or defend violating human rights." It is not simply enough to assert a commitment to the Code and then comply with the law (Response 3); a genuine attempt at resolution must be made. Psychologists are only required to uphold the higher ethical standard (Response 1) when the Ethics Code sets a "higher standard" than the law—but not one that violates the law. Even in cases of court order (e.g., records are subpoenaed), one should attempt to comply with the Ethics Code, for example, by seeking consent of the client to release the records (Response 4).

1.) Your colleague goes on a maternity leave for three months and refers a client to you to meet with during her absence. Toward the end of the three-month period, you talk to this client about transitioning him back to his original therapist; however, he states that he prefers working with you and does not want to go back to seeing his old therapist. How should you address this situation? a. Encourage him to return to his original therapist b. Respect his wishes and continue to treat him c. Look at your caseload to see if you are available to treat him d. Talk with your colleague before deciding whether or not to continue treating him

a. Talk with your colleague before deciding whether or not to continue treating him b. The client's best interest should be the guiding factor in deciding what to do in this situation. You should not encourage him to go back to his original therapist (Response 1), as this may not really serve his best interests. Respecting his wishes also does not directly address this issue; it is unclear if continuing treatment with you would be in his best interests. Your availability (Response 3), while significant, does not address the central issue here either. An important issue here would be to explore with the client why he wants to remain in treatment with you, however, that is not one of the choices. Therefore, the best thing to do would be to consult with your colleague to decide on the best course of treatment for him given his needs (Response 4)

1.) The use of circular questioning characterizes which school of family therapy? a. Narrative therapy b. Solution-focused therapy c. The Milan model d. Bowenian family therapy

a. The Milan model a. The Milan model is noted for its use of circular questioning. Circular questioning is a method of gathering information, as well as introducing a new perspective into the family system. Specifically, each family member is asked about several kinds of differences (e.g., "Who's closer to. Father, the daughter or the son?" "If you divorced, which parent would the children stay with?"). The goal is to shred light on the circular or interactional nature of the relationships and help the family gain a fresh perspective on the presenting problem. Narrative therapy (Response 1) utilizes questions to help families tell a different story about the presenting problem, one which is more amenable to change. Solution-focused therapy (Response 2) is noted for its use of the miracle, exception, and scaling questions, all of which help clients to see previously unrecognized strengths and successes. Bowenian family therapy (Response 4) makes extensive use of asking questions about relationships as a primary intervention technique, but its method does not go by the name "circular questioning."

1. Which of the following is an essential component of classical conditioning? a. The CS is presented after the US b. The CS is presented after the UR c. The US is presented after the CS d. The US is presented after the CR

a. The US is presented after the CS a. Classical conditioning occurs when a US is paired with a neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a response (CR) similar to the UR. What causes classical conditioning is the contingency of the US on the CS, i.e., the US must be presented after the CS. Response 1 describes backward conditioning, where no conditioning actually occurs. Responses 2 and 4 do not address the essential component of classical conditioning, which is the contingency of the US on the CS.

1. A key distinguishing feature in bringing about classical versus operant extinction is: a. One involves spontaneous recovery, the other a response burst b. One involves pairing, the other reinforcement c. The nature of what is withheld d. The nature of what is added

a. The nature of what is withheld a. Crucial to answering this question correctly is to be clear on what it is asking. It is not asking about just any difference between classical and operant extinction; otherwise Response 1 would be entirely correct. It is also not asking about the difference in how classical versus operant conditioning is brought about; otherwise Response 2 would be entirely correct. It is asking about extinction and the difference between how classical and operant extinction is brought about. In classical extinction, the CS is repeatedly presented without the US, that is, the US is withheld. In operant extinction, the subject repeatedly performs the once-reinforced behavior but is no longer reinforced- that is, reinforcement is withheld

1.) When you are driving, a child on a bicycle darts in front of you. You immediately slam on your brakes. A few minutes later, you feel your heart being to pound. This phenomenon can best be explained by: a. The fight or flight response b. The sympathetic nervous system responds more quickly than the parasympathetic nervous system c. The autonomic nervous system responds more slowly than the somatic nervous system d. The afferent neurons respond more quickly than the efferent neurons

a. The autonomic nervous system responds more slowly than the somatic nervous system a. This question is quite complicated and is best approached by a process of elimination. The fight or flight response (Response 1) might explain your heart pounding, but it would not explain why this occurred a few minutes after you slammed on the brakes. The sympathetic nervous system is generally responsible for arousing the body in a stress reaction, and the parasympathetic generally calms the body down; the question does not describe a quick stress reaction later being calmed down, thereby eliminating Response 2. Response 3 states that motor reactions (i.e., somatic nervous system) occur more quickly than automatic stress reactions like a pounding heart (i.e., autonomic nervous system—which includes both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system). This describes your slamming on the breaks before your heart starts pounding. Response 4 doesn't really make sense: it states that the neurons which bring sensory information to the brain ("afferent") react more quickly than the neurons which send motor commands from the brain ("efferent").

1.) Coefficient alpha is best described as: a. A form of split-half reliability b. The average of all possible split halves c. A formula to correct for splitting the test in half d. Measuring the same subjects on similar tests at different points in time

a. The average of all possible split halves a. Coefficient alpha (or Kuder- Richardson) is a subtype of internal consistency reliability that is calculated in a very sophisticated manner, by taking the mean of all possible split halves. Split-half reliability (Response 1), as it names implies, is only the correlation between two halves of the test (i.e., only one possible divisions, not all possible divisions). Split-half reliability is also a subtype of internal consistency reliability. The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula calculates how much more reliable a test would be if it were longer; thus, it corrects for the decrease in number of items that occurs when a test is split in half (Response 3). Alternate-forms (parallel-forms) reliability involves measuring the same subjects on similar tests at different points in time (Response 4)

1.) The basis for determination as to whether someone is an expert witness is: a. Having a doctoral degree and knowledge of the relevant domain b. The court c. Having a doctoral degree and continuing education in forensic psychology d. The extent of training in forensic psychology

a. The court a. In order for a person to be an expert witness, the court has to formally recognize the person as an expert witness. The APA Ethics Code also requires that psychologists who wish to take on forensic roles, such as being an expert witness, must be "reasonably familiar with the judicial or administrative rules governing their roles." Before putting themselves forward as an expert witness, psychologists should obviously also possess sufficient knowledge of the relevant psychological domain. There are many expert witnesses who don't have doctoral degrees (ruling out Responses 1 and 3). Specific accredited training in forensic psychology is not necessary (ruling out Responses 3 and 4)

1.) You are doing an intake on a patient who notes that he engages in cross-dressing. You would likely diagnose him with a paraphilic disorder in all of the following situations except when: a. The cross-dressing resulted in legal problems b. The cross-dressing is interfering with his work functioning c. The cross-dressing has harmed a significant other d. The cross-dressing is intensely arousing and has been recurrent over a period of at least six months

a. The cross-dressing is intensely arousing and has been recurrent over a period of at least six months b. According to the DSM-5 engaging in a paraphilia (e.g., cross dressing and finding it intensely arousing), in and of itself, is not considered a disorder (Response 4). To be diagnosed with transvestic disorder, the cross-dressing must cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning (Responses 1, 2, and 3)

1.) What is the key distinction between the anxious-ambivalent pattern of attachment and the disorganized-disoriented pattern? a. The disorganized-disoriented pattern involves aggression toward the caregiver. b. The disorganized-disoriented pattern involves inconsistent responding toward the caregiver c. The disorganized-disoriented pattern involves fear and confusion toward the caregiver d. The disorganized-disoriented pattern involves demonstrations of both love and anger toward the caregiver.

a. The disorganized-disoriented pattern involves fear and confusion toward the caregiver a. Because these two patterns of attachment share many characteristics; they can sometimes be quite confusing to distinguish. In the anxious-ambivalent pattern, identified in the original research of Mary Ainsworth, the baby is initially happy and tries to reestablish contact with the mother returns. However, the baby then shows anger by resisting the mothers comforting behaviors. The baby may cry, kick, or squirm to get away. Later research by Mary Main identify the disorganized-disoriented pattern, in which the baby exhibit no clear strategy for dealing with the mother. The baby may be unresponsive when the mother returns, or may avoid and resist the mother. At other times, the baby may freeze and stop moving when the mother comes near. The most striking characteristic of disorganized-disoriented infants is that they exhibit fear and confusion towards their mothers. Babies of both styles exhibit inconsistent responding (Response 2) and can demonstrate aggression (Response 1) as well as love (Response 4)

1.) According to developmental theorists who have studied temperament, such as Thomas and Chess: a. The majority of all infants have an "easy temperament" b. Infants with "easy temperaments" are expected to have the most positive developmental outcome c. Slow-to-warm-up infants are likely to become children who are shy and lacking in self-confidence d. The most important influence on developmental outcome is the goodness-of-fit between the infant and environment

a. The most important influence on developmental outcome is the goodness-of-fit between the infant and environment b. Thomas and Chess did in fact propose that a critical factor affecting developmental outcome is the goodness-of-fit between the infant and his or her environment (e.g., caretakers). Thomas and Chess found that about 40% of all infants had easy temperaments, 10% had difficult temperaments, 15% were slow to warm up, and 35% were not classifiable into one of the categories (Response 1). Given that goodness-of-fit is so significant, it is not necessarily true that infants with easy temperaments will have the best outcome, nor that slow-to warm up children will end up shy and lacking confidence (Responses 2 and 3)

1.) The standard error of the mean will decrease when: a. The population standard deviation is increased and the sample size is decreased b. The population standard deviation is decreased and the sample size is increased c. Both the population standard deviation and sample size are increased d. Both the population standard deviation and sample size are decreased

a. The population standard deviation is decreased and the sample size is increased a. The formula for the standard error at the mean is that it equals the population standard deviation divided by the square root of sample size. This is a must know formula. There is a direct relationship between standard error of the mean and population standard deviation, such that as standard deviation increases so does error. There is an indirect relationship between standard error of mean and sample size. This makes sense logically as well. The larger your sample, the more likely it is to be representative of the population and the less prone to error it is. To decrease standard error one would increase sample size and decrease standard deviation. Since this is not specifically given as a choice, Response 2 is best and would in fact result in a decrease of standard error

1.) When referred to in the Taylor-Russell tables, the term "Selection ration" is defined as: a. The number of successful employees to the total number of employees b. The proportion of available openings to available applicants c. The success rate in selecting employees using a predictor test compared to the success rate in selecting employees without using a predictor test d. The proportion of those who are correctly identified as successful employees

a. The proportion of available openings to available applicants a. The Taylor-Russell tables are a book of tables that numerically describe the amount of improvement that occurs in selection decisions when a predictor test is introduced. Selection ratio is defined as the proportion of available openings to available applicants. For example, if there are 3 openings and 10 applicants, the selection ratio is 30% or .30. The proportion of current employees that are successful out of the total number of employees (Response 1) refers to the base rate. Incremental validity is the amount of improvement in success rate that results from using a predictor test (Response 3). The proportion of those who are correctly identified as successful employees (Response 4) refers to true positives, a concept derived from decision-making theory

1.) When you are promoted at work, you believe it is because you are an excellent clinician. When you are rejected from a postgraduate training institute, you believe it is because the training institute discriminates against psychologists. Your thinking demonstrates: a. The actor-observer bias b. The fundamental attribution error c. The self-serving bias d. A situational bias

a. The self-serving bias a. You have demonstrated the self-serving bias: you attribute your success to your own ability (internal factors) but you attribute your failure to the shortcomings of others (external factors). The actor-observer bias (Response 1) occurs when both you and another fail, and you attribute your failure to external or situational factors while you attribute the other person's failure is to internal or dispositional factors. According to the fundamental attribution error (Response 2), when others fail, people typically attribute their behavior to dispositional or internal causes

1.) A person who comes from a culture that relies on low-context communication would attend most to: a. Body language b. The specifics of the message c. Tone of voice d. The context in which the message is expressed

a. The specifics of the message a. In a low context communication, the meaning of a communication is based on what is explicitly verbalized (i.e., the actual words). In a high-context communication, the situation or context (Response 4) and non-verbal cues (Responses 1 and 3) significantly affect the meaning of what is communicated. For example, in the Philippines, a culture that generally uses high-context communication, a hesitant "yes" actually means no

1.) For any given sample, the average amount of error in scores obtained on any given test is best reflected by: a. The standard error of the mean b. The standard error of the measurement c. The standard error of the estimate d. One minus the reliability coefficient

a. The standard error of the measurement a. This question presents the definition of the standard error of the measurement: the average amount of error or spread in a hypothetical sampling distribution of means. It provides the basis for hypothesis testing and determining the region of rejection and acceptance of the null hypothesis. The standard error of the estimate (Response 3) is the average amount of error in estimating or predicting from the predictor (X) to the criterion (Y). Finally, one minus the reliability coefficient (Response 4) does give information about the overall amount of error involved in a test but not the average amount of error in the scores. In fact, one minus the reliability coefficient is square-rooted and multiplied by the standard deviation of the scores in order to determine the standard error of the measurement

1.) Deception in research is only acceptable when: a. Informed consent is provided b. There aren't physical or psychological risks to the participants c. The study has strong scientific value and non-deceptive alternatives are not available d. Participants are debriefed as early as feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of data collection

a. The study has strong scientific value and non-deceptive alternatives are not available a. Standard 8.07 of the APA Ethics Code states that using deception in research is to be avoided unless it "is justified by the study's significant prospective scientific, educational, or applied value" and "effective nondeceptive alternative procedures" are not available. These conditions are directly addressed by Response 3. This is an example in which accurate reading of the question is important. For example, the Ethics Code does require that if deception is used, a full de-briefing should occur as soon as possible (Response 4); however, debriefing is not a condition that justifies the use of deception in the first place. Informed consent (Response 1) is required even when deception is involved (e.g., the participant must consent to participate in the research, know that they have the right to withdraw, know the risks and benefits). It is acceptable for a project involving deception to entail risks to the participants (Response 2); it is simply that the deception may not involve hiding these risks. For example, participants may be lead to believe that a study on social desirability is actually a study on preference for ice cream flavor. They should not be deceived, however, in regard to the risk of gaining weight

1.) A group of students meet over dinner at a restaurant to discuss a school project. Base on the predictions of social loafing theory, under what conditions will they leave their biggest tip? a. Each person leaves a tip separately b. The tip is pooled together, without each person knowing how the others paid c. The tip is pooled together, and each person is aware of how much the others paid d. Each person pays a present amount for the tip

a. The tip is pooled together, and each person is aware of how much the others paid a. Social loafing refers to the phenomenon that people contribute less to a task when they are part of a group than when they are working alone, especially when the person's contribution is anonymous and not subject to individual evaluation. The best way to minimize the impact of social loafing is to make each person's contribution public, in this case, by making everyone aware of the amount of tip that each person is leaving

1.) According to the preamble, the goal(s) of the APA Ethics Code is/are: a. The welfare of the public b. The welfare of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work c. The welfare of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work, and the betterment of society as a whole d. The welfare of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work, and the education of APA members and the public

a. The welfare of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work, and the education of APA members and the public b. The preamble of the APA's Ethics Code describes two goals: "The welfare of and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work;" and, "The education of members, students, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline." Although the Ethics Code certainly does seek to protect the welfare of the public (Response 1) and to better society in general (Response 3), these aspirations are not listed as its primary goals

1.) A woman has been court-ordered to undergo therapy after abusing her children. Which of the following statements is accurate in terms of privilege in this situation? a. There is no privilege b. The court holds the privilege c. The woman holds the privilege d. Privilege is waived, but she must be informed about the limits of confidentiality

a. The woman holds the privilege a. Even though she has been ordered by the court to attend treatment, this woman still has a right to confidentiality, and holds privilege. Therefore, you would need to obtain a signed release of information before you could release any information to the court. Thus, Response 1 is ruled out. Court-ordered therapy is different from a court-appointed evaluation, for which a psychologist is assigned by the court to evaluate a defendant. In a court-appointed evaluation, privilege is waived and there is no confidentiality, however, the person must be informed about the lack of confidentiality (Response 4). Even in situations where the client is not the holder of privilege (e.g., the client has a guardian), the court never holds privilege (Response 2)

1.) A researcher rejects the null when alpha is set at .01. This indicates that: a. There is a 99% chance the research has correctly rejected the null b. There is 99% chance the research has correctly retained the null c. There is a 1% chance the researcher has incorrectly rejected the null d. There is a 1% chance the research has incorrectly retained the null

a. There is a 1% chance the researcher has incorrectly rejected the null a. The alpha level corresponds to the likelihood of making a Type I error, in other words incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis, or rejecting the null when it is in fact true. So, alpha at .01 means that there is 1% chance of making a Type I error, or incorrectly rejecting the null. Response 4 describes beta, or the probability of incorrectly accepting the null. Keep in mind, for exam purposes, you cannot ascertain beta unless it is explicitly given. For complicated statistical reasons, when we know that alpha level, all we know is the likelihood of a Type I error (e.g., 1% or 5%). We don't know the power level (Response 1) or the beta level - this is a fact that is probably best memorized

1.) Which of the following statements about expectancy tables is most accurate? a. They allow you to estimate the expected criterion score based on knowledge of the predictor score and the criterion-related validity coefficient b. They allow you to estimate the expected criterion range based on knowledge of the predictor range c. They allow you to determine the expected incremental validity when base rate, selection ratio and criterion-related validity are known d. They allow you to determine the expected chance of scoring within a criterion range based on knowledge of the predictor range

a. They allow you to determine the expected chance of scoring within a criterion range based on knowledge of the predictor range b. Expectancy tables indicate the likelihood (expressed in terms of percentages or proportions) that given a test taker's score on a predictor, he/she will score withing a given interval on the criterion. Incremental validity, base rate, and selection ratio (Response 3) are used in the Taylor-Russell scales. These scales analyze the amount of improvement in selection decisions that result from using a particular predictor test as opposed to no test at all.

1.) According to the DSM-5, the differential diagnosis between schizophreniform disorder and schizophrenia is made on the basis of: a. The presence of a major mood episode b. The number of symptoms present c. The severity of symptoms present d. Time frame

a. Time frame b. The symptoms of schizophreniform disorder are identical to schizophrenia, distinguished only by duration. The diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder is made when the duration of the illness is at least 1 month but less than 6 months, while schizophrenia is diagnosed when the duration of the illness if 6 months or more (Response 4). Both diagnoses require at least two symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, or negative symptoms (ruling out Response 2); and symptom severity may be specified for each symptom, but is not more or less severe in either disorder (ruling out Response 3). The presence of a major mood episode concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia would result in a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder (ruling out Response 1)

1.) Kohlberg would assert that during conventional morality the goal is: a. To receive approval from others b. To avoid punishment and get rewards c. To uphold ethical principles d. A morality based on caring and compassion

a. To receive approval from others a. Kohlberg delineated three stages of moral development, with each having two substages. Preconventional morality is characterized by compliance with rules to avoid punishment and get rewards (Response 2), and has two substages, punishment-obedience and instrumental hedonism. Here you are asked about t he second substage, conventional morality, which is marked by conformity in order to secure approval. Its two substages are good boy/ good girl and law and order. The third stage of postconventional morality is characterized by the concepts of ethical principles (Response 3) and conscience. Its two substages are the morality of contract, individual rights and democratically accepted laws and the morality of individual principles of conscience. A morality based on caring and compassion (Response 4) might be consistent with Carol Gilligan's ideas about what a morality based on female values might be like (she criticized Kohlberg for basing his theory on male development).

1.) Under what circumstances may a psychologists accept a former sexual partner as a patient? a. Under "most unusual circumstances" b. At least two years since the termination of the sexual relationship c. Under "most unusual circumstances," at least two years since the termination of the sexual relationship, and if the psychologist can demonstrate no potential for exploitation d. Under no circumstances

a. Under no circumstances b. Standard 10.07 of the APA Ethics Code clearly and categorically prohibits psychologists from treating previous sexual partners. There are no exceptions. In contrast, there are some exceptions to the prohibition against sex with former patients, which include at least 2 years since the termination of therapy, most unusual circumstances, and the psychologist demonstrating no potential for exploitation in light of seven factors (e.g., time passed since termination, nature of treatment, client's mental status, etc.).

1.) Taking a phenomenological approach involves: a. Exploring latent as well as manifest phenomena b. Focusing on the importance of spiritual as well as practical needs c. Activating the potential for actualization d. Understanding subjective experiences

a. Understanding subjective experiences b. Although all the responses describe aspects of humanistic/existential approaches, only Response 4 describes the meaning of phenomenological. Even if you did not know the answer, you might have been able to figure it out bye analyzing the word: "phenomena" = event or happening and "ology" = study of or understanding of

1.) According to a National Violence Against Women (NVAW) survey, which of the following factors is the single best predictor of whether domestic violence will occur in a male-female relationship? a. Poverty b. Substance abuse c. Verbal abuse by the male partner d. Self-esteem of the woman

a. Verbal abuse by the male partner a. According to a NVAW survey, sponsored by the National Institute of Justice and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, nearly 25% of women and 7.5% of men reported they were raped or assaulted by a partner or date in their lifetimes. The variable that best predicts whether a woman will be treated violently is whether her partner is emotionally abusive. Poverty (Response 1), substance abuse (Response 2), and the woman's self-esteem (Response 4) have all been discussed as risk factors in the literature on domestic violence, but this survey highlights the predictive value of the male partner's verbally abusive behaviors

1.) On a test of manual dexterity, disabled applicants consistently score significantly lower than non-disabled applicants. However, once hired, disabled workers actually stuff the same number of envelopes per hour as do non-disabled workers. This depicts a situation of: a. Adverse impact b. Unfairness c. Differential validity d. Discrimination

a. Unfairness a. Unfairness occurs when despite differences on predictor scores (tests), criterion scores (performance outcome) are similar. In this case, the disabled score low on the test of manual dexterity (predictor tests) but are able to stuff envelopes just as well (performance outcome). The adverse impact (Response 1) rule basically state that the percentage of minorities hired must be at least 4/5ths of the percentage of non-minorities hired. However, no information is provided here about the percentage of applicants hired. Differential validity (Response 3) occurs when there are different criterion-related validity coefficients for different groups. For example, if the validity coefficient was .20 for the disabled applicants, while the validity coefficient was .35 for the non-disabled applicants. There is no mention in this scenario that the validity coefficients are different (e.g., that the test is a better predictor for non-disabled applicants than disabled applicants). Adverse impact, unfairness, and differential validity can all result in discrimination (Response 4)

1.) Piaget would predict that which of the following would be established by the end of the sensorimotor period? a. Reversibility b. Animistic thinking c. Centration d. Use of representation

a. Use of representation b. The use of representation (the ability to maintain a mental image of something even when not present) is acquired by the end of the sensori-motor period. By two years old, a child certainly holds a mental picture of "mommy" and "Barney" even when mommy and Barney are not present. Reversibility (Response 1) is an achievement of the stage of concrete operations (7 to 11 years old): children can then imagine a process being undone. Characteristic of the stage of preoperational thought (2 to 7 years) is both animistic thinking (Response 2) which is endowing inanimate objects with feelings and intentions and centration (Response 3) which is the tendency to focus on a single aspect of a problem

1.) An employee does not work hard on a project even though he is promised a bonus by his boss. The employee reasons, "My boss always gives really small bonuses. It's not worth it to kill myself over this project." This reasoning indicates the importance of which of the following factors? a. Valence b. Instrumentality c. Expectancy d. Equity

a. Valence a. Vroom developed the theory of motivation known as the Valence-Instrumentality-Expectancy theory (VIE). Expectancy (Response 3) refers to the person's belief that effort will result in successful task performance. It is very similar to the concept of self-efficacy. Instrumentality (Response 2) refers to the belief that success on the task will result in rewards. Note that instrumentality is present here because the employee does believe he will be rewarded with a bonus if he works hard. Valence (Response 1) refers to the value that the reward has for the person, or how desirable the reward is. Here, because the bonus does not have much valence, the employee is not motivated to work hard. According to Equity theory (Response 4), employees compare their input versus output ratio (e.g., hours worked to salary) with those of other employees. This question provided no information about the employee comparing himself to others.

1.) The correction for attenuation informs us how much: a. Reliability could be corrected for by increasing the number of items in our test b. Validity could increase by increasing reliability c. Shrinkage has occurred on cross validation d. Error can be corrected for in attempting to estimate criterion score from predictor score

a. Validity could increase by increasing reliability a. When two variables (the predictor and criterion) are correlated, their respective standard errors of measurement lower criterion-related validity as compared with what it would have been had the two measures been perfectly reliable. We say that the degree of correlation between the predictor and criterion has been attenuated (lessened). The correction for attenuation is a formula that tells us how much better our validity would be if our predictor and criterion had been perfectly reliable. The Spearman Brown formula is used to estimate what reliability would be if there were more test items (Response 1)

1. Which of the following schedules of reinforcement would most likely result in a low to moderate, steady response rate? a. Fixed Interval b. Fixed ratio c. Variable interval d. Variable ratio

a. Variable interval a. Variable schedules result in response rates that are smooth and steady, both before and after reinforcement (ruling out Responses 1 & 2). In contrast, fixed schedules, both fixed interval and fixed ration, result in scalloped patterns: increased rate of the target behavior occurs just prior to reinforcement, followed by a lull right after reinforcement. The scalloped pattern is most dramatic in the fixed interval schedule (Response 1). Of all the schedules of reinforcement, the variable ratio schedule results in the strongest response rate, the fixed ratio schedule results in a rate of responding that is moderate to high, the variable interval schedule results in a low to moderate response rate, while the fixed interval schedule yields a rate of responding that is lowest

1. You meet with a private tutor for extra help in passing the EPPP. During the session, about every five minutes your tutor tells you that you seem to be making good progress. Which schedule of reinforcement is the tutor following? a. Fixed interval b. Fixed ratio c. Variable ratio d. Variable interval

a. Variable interval b. In this example, reinforcement is occurring on a variable interval schedule, because reinforcement is given after a certain passage of time (five minutes). The fact that reinforcement occurs about every five minutes suggests that the time frame is variable, not fixed (e.g., exactly every five minutes) (Response 1). In a ratio schedule (Responses 2 & 3), reinforcement is provided after the target behavior has been emitted a certain number of times (e.g., after a certain number of questions have been answered correctly). It can be a fixed ratio (e.g., every five questions) or a variable ratio (e.g., about every five questions).

1.) A client presents with speech that is rambling and incoherent. Her most likely diagnosis is: a. Alzheimer's disease b. Korsakoff's syndrome c. Broca's aphasia d. Wernicke's aphasia

a. Wernicke's aphasia b. Wernicke's aphasia is a receptive language disorder ( a disorder of language comprehension) that is due to damage in the superior temporal gyrus (Brodmann's area 22). It results in fluent yet incoherent speech; it can be mistaken for psychosis. Alzheimer's disease (Response 1) is not known for fluent incoherent speech. Korsakoff's syndrome (Response 2), a memory disorder secondary to chronic alcohol abuse, is known for the presence of confabulations; such patients fill in gaps in their memory with made-up scenarios. Broca's aphasia (Response 3) is a disorder of the motor production of speech that is due to damage in the frontal lobe (Brodmann's area 44). It produces "broken speech," speech that is slow and ungrammatical with missing words

1. Which of the following best describes behavioral contrast? a. When one of two behaviors that are being reinforced stops being reinforced, that behavior decreases while the other increases b. A behavior in a complex sequence reinforces the previous behavior in the sequence and also serves as a signal for the next behavior c. A behavior that is frequently carried out is used to reinforce a behavior that is rarely carried out d. An aversive stimulus can be avoided if the desired behavior is emitted in time

a. When one of two behaviors that are being reinforced stops being reinforced, that behavior decreases while the other increases a. Response 1 describes behavioral contrast. For example, if a child has been reinforced for both doing homework and practicing piano and reinforcement for practicing piano stops, doing homework will increase and practicing piano will decrease. In chaining (Response 2), each behavior in a complex sequence reinforces the previous behavior in the sequence, as well as serves as a signal for the next behavior. For example, successfully completing a doctorate in psychology is reinforcement for all the years of graduate school, and also serves as a cue to being to prepare for licensure. According to the Premack Principle (Response 3), a high frequency behavior (e.g., video games) can be used to reinforce a low frequency behavior (e.g., homework). In avoidance learning (response 4), a subject can completely avoid the aversive stimulus by emitting the target behavior in time. For example, a person can avoid late penalties by paying bills on time.

1.) An alcohol use disorder is diagnosed in which of the following situations? a. the person exhibits tolerance and withdrawal b. the person evidences two or more criteria suggestive of impaired control, social impairment, risky use, or pharmacological symptoms c. there are behavioral or psychological changes (e.g, aggressive behavior, mood lability, impaired judgment) and at least one additional symptom (e.g., slurred speech, incoordination, unsteady gait) d. a co-occurring disorder (e.g., anxiety disorder, sleep-wake disorder, depressive disorder0 is brought on by alcohol consumption

a. the person evidences two or more criteria suggestive of impaired control, social impairment, risky use, or pharmacological symptoms a. According to the DSM-5, an alcohol use disorder is diagnosed when two or more criteria are met from four groupings: impaired control with regard to the substance, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria (Response 2). While Response 1 is technically correct, in that this person meets two criteria (tolerance and withdrawal) and on that basis could be diagnosed with an alcohol use disorder, this answer is much less complete. Response 3 describes alcohol intoxication. Response 4 describes an alcohol-induced disorder