RAD REVIEW FINAL
Q 119: What advantages do film badges present for personnel monitoring? 1. They can be worn for up to 3 months 2. Inexpensive for production and utilization 3. Simple processing methods A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Q 117: Personnel dose is increased during which examination(s)? 1. CT 2. Fluoroscopy 3. Mobile imaging A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
Q 37: What does the abbreviation PBL represent? A Positive-Barrier Limit B Proactive-Beam Limitation C Positive-Beam Lighting D Positive-Beam Limitation
D Positive-Beam Limitation
Q 161: What is the method of infection control that is used for immunocompromised patients, such as a patient receiving chemotherapy or immunosuppressant medications? A Standard precautions B Isolation precautions C Contact precautions D Reverse isolation precautions
D Reverse isolation precautions
Q 190: Which of the following is visualized in a right posterior oblique position of the lumbar spine? A Left intervertebral foramina B Right intervertebral foramina C Left zygapophyseal joints D Right zygapophyseal joints
D Right zygapophyseal joints
Q 111: Centering for the AP projection of the upper airway is at the level of A C3-4 B C5-6 C C7-T1 D T1-2
D T1-2
Q 123: In the context of a trauma situation, order the following in highest to lowest priority for evaluation when a patient reaches a trauma center. Unordered List Open fracture Cardiac arrest Vertebral fracture Respiratory arrest
Respiratory arrest Cardiac arrest Vertebral fracture Open fracture
Q 139: Quality control testing of digital display monitors should be conducted A Daily B Weekly C Monthly D Annually
A Daily
Q 134: Which of the following is increased when image latitude is decreased during post-processing? A Contrast B Window width C Overall grays D Long-scale contrast
A Contrast
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Q 108: Which of the following projections demonstrates the pisiform free of superimposition? 1. AP oblique of the wrist 2. Carpal tunnel projection of the wrist 3. Carpal bridge projection of the wrist A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 and 2 only
Q 189: Which of the following positions will demonstrate the ribs closest to the IR? 1. RPO 2. LPO 3. RAO 4. LAO A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only
A 1 and 2 only
Q 145: Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus?Intertubercular grooveCapitulumCoronoid fossa A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 only
Q 162: Which of the following statements is/are false regarding occupational exposure during fluoroscopy? 1. Radiation exposure to the radiologist is higher when the tube is positioned below the patient 2. Beam-on time is directly proportional to occupational exposure 3. Remote fluoroscopy is preferable to reduce occupational exposure A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1 and 3 only
A 1 only
Q 75: In scoliosis imaging, breast tissue dose for PA imaging is approximately ____ of the dose for AP imaging A 1% B 5% C 10% D 50%
A 1%
Q 61: What is the correct angulation for an AP axial sacroiliac image on a male patient? A 30-degrees cephalad B 35-degrees cephalad C 30-degrees caudal D 35-degrees caudal
A 30-degrees cephalad
Q 47: Which imaging informatics system is a universal standard regarding how images are communicated between PACS and imaging modalities? A DICOM B HIS C RIS D HL7
A DICOM
32: Which 3 of the following represent therapeutic nonverbal communication on the part of the radiographer? A A facial expression or gesture that adds emphasis to the spoken word B Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient is speaking C A facial expression that contradicts the spoken word D Using "I" statements E Using humor to lighten every difficult situation F Wearing professional attire
A A facial expression or gesture that adds emphasis to the spoken word B Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient is speaking F Wearing professional attire
Q 76: Injection of iodinated contrast media may be contraindicated when a patient's creatinine level is A Above 2.0 mg/dl B Below 2.0 mg/dl C Above 0.6 mg/dl D Below 0.6 mg/dl
A Above 2.0 mg/dl
Q 49: There are several types of DR image receptors used in digital imaging. All of the following use indirect capture except A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors B Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors C Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors D A charge coupled device
A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors
Q 51: Which of the following types of DR image receptors uses a photoconductor? A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors B Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors C Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors D A charge coupled device
A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors
Q 86: Which of the following best describes the relationship between bit depth and contrast resolution? A As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases. B As bit depth increases, contrast resolution decreases. C As bit depth decreases, contrast resolution increases. D Bit depth does not affect contrast resolution.
A As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases.
Q 90: Which of the following best describes the relationship between frequency and wavelength? A As frequency increases, wavelength decreases B As frequency increases, wavelength increases C As frequency decreases, wavelength decreases D Frequency and wavelength do not affect one another
A As frequency increases, wavelength decreases
Q 188: Select 3 body mechanics practices used to reduce possibility of injury. A Bend from the knees rather than from the waist B Pull heavy objects, rather than push C Change foot position, rather than twisting the body D Moving heavy objects is safer when objects are held closer to center of gravity E Standing with feet closer together improves stability
A Bend from the knees rather than from the waist C Change foot position, rather than twisting the body D Moving heavy objects is safer when objects are held closer to center of gravity
Q 144: Sources of natural background radiation include the following (choose the 3 correct answers) A Building materials B Nuclear medicine C Internal sources D Thoron and radon gases E Occupational sources
A Building materials C Internal sources D Thoron and radon gases
Q 142: Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from A Compton scatter B the photoelectric effect C coherent scatter D pair production
A Compton scatter
Q 114: Clostridium difficile, a spore-forming bacterium that can cause sepsis in susceptible patients, is spread by what mode of transmission? A Contact B Droplet C Airborne D Vector
A Contact
Q 149: What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis? A Dome of the acetabulum B Femoral neck C Greater trochanter D Iliac crest
A Dome of the acetabulum
Q 53: Which of the following processing functions increases the sharpness of the details in an image? A Edge enhancement B Smoothing C Look-up table D Equalization
A Edge enhancement
Q 104: The purpose of magnification fluoroscopy is to: A Enhance the image in order to facilitate diagnostic interpretation B Decrease patient dosage C Decrease fluoroscopy time D Increase efficiency of X-ray production
A Enhance the image in order to facilitate diagnostic interpretation
Q 110: What may occur if a high-pass filtering function is used on an image with high contrast? A Excess noise B Decreased noise C Long-scale contrast D Increase in overall grays
A Excess noise
Q 13: The safe approach to avoid an exposure field recognition error when using CR is to: A Expose one image on the smallest IP available with collimation margins aligned parallel to the edges of the IP B Expose multiple images on one IP, but make sure all collimation margins overlap C Expose one image on the IP, but do not collimate D Expose multiple images on one IP, but make sure all collimation margins are parallel to each other and do not overlap
A Expose one image on the smallest IP available with collimation margins aligned parallel to the edges of the IP
Q 155: Which 3 of the following instructions are a part of patient education following myelography? A Increase fluid intake B Avoid bending for a couple of days C Notify a physician if unable to urinate D Seizures are a possible complication and are not concerning E Monoamine oxidase inhibitors must be discontinued for 2 weeks after the procedure
A Increase fluid intake B Avoid bending for a couple of days C Notify a physician if unable to urinate
Q 171: Which of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration? (select the 4 correct responses) A Intradermal B Subcutaneous C Oral D Intra-arterial E Rectal F
A Intradermal B Subcutaneous D Intra-arterial F Intrathecal
Q 118: Which 4 of the following topics are covered in the AHA Patient's Bill of Rights? A Involvement in your care B Protection of your privacy C Death with dignity D Discussing your treatment plan E Understanding your healthcare goals and values F Civil and criminal penalties for HIPAA violation
A Involvement in your care B Protection of your privacy D Discussing your treatment plan E Understanding your healthcare goals and values
Q 10: A patient arrives at the emergency room by ambulance with a possible left humeral fracture. Due to the patient's condition, a transthoracic lateral projection will be performed to assess the proximal humerus. Which of the following is the correct position of the patient's left arm? A Left arm in a neutral position B Left arm in an internal rotation C Left arm in an external rotation D Left arm is elevated above the patient's head
A Left arm in a neutral position
Q 113: Which of the following indicates bradypnea? A Less than 12 breaths per minute B Less than 18 breaths per minute C More than 20 breaths per minute D More than 25 breaths per minute
A Less than 12 breaths per minute
Q 184: The usual patient preparation for a UGI examination is A NPO 8 hour before the examination B light breakfast only the morning of the examination C clear fluids only the morning of the examination D two ounces of castor oil and enemas until clear
A NPO 8 hour before the examination
Q 135: Stochastic effects of ionizing radiation are associated with the following (select the 5 correct answers) A No threshold B All early effects C Nonlinear D Genetic effects E Cancer F Most late effects G No safe dose
A No threshold D Genetic effects E Cancer F Most late effects G No safe dose
Q 17: Which of the following conditions presents as reduced bone mass? A Osteopenia B Osteomyelitis C Osteoarthritis D Osteomalacia
A Osteopenia
This question has been deactivated Q 172: Radiographers must have an awareness of cultural groups in order to achieve professional and effective communication. Select the three cultural groups identified below: A Perceived gender B Generational C Skin and hair color D Religious
A Perceived gender B Generational D Religious
Q 8: The energy of the incident photon is completely absorbed during which of the following x-ray interactions with matter? A Photoelectric absorption B Bremsstrahlung C Compton interaction D Coherent scattering
A Photoelectric absorption
Q 96: All of the following can be used in image intensification systems except A Photostimulable phosphor plate B Flat panel detectors C Charge coupled device D Complementary metal oxide semiconductor
A Photostimulable phosphor plate
Q 81: Which of the following describes the distance from the side of one pixel to the opposite side of that same pixel? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor
A Pixel size
Q 116: A condition, often resulting from chest trauma by motor vehicle accident or falling, in which the pleural space is filled with air, is called A Pneumothorax B Hemothorax C Atelectasis D Cardiac tamponade
A Pneumothorax
Q 158: Which of the following devices is used to determine blood oxygenation levels? A Pulse oximeter B Sphygmomanometer C Stethoscope D Cardiac telemeter
A Pulse oximeter
Q 48: Which of the following is responsible for producing the diagnostic portion of the image on the image receptor? A Remnant radiation B Scatter radiation C Primary radiation D Penumbra
A Remnant radiation
Q 11: Which of the following is responsible for correcting the brightness and contrast of an image, regardless of the technique used? A Rescaling B Smoothing C Edge Enhancement D Quantization
A Rescaling
Q 133: Which of the following will result if OID is increased? A Size distortion B Shape distortion C Increased spatial resolution D Increased receptor exposure
A Size distortion
Q 154: Along with complete information on the potential risks and benefits of the procedure, valid informed consent is not complete without the following (select the 2 correct responses) A Suggested alternatives B Warning that consent is not revocable C Blanket disclaimer for any deviations from customary protocol D An offer to answer question about the procedure E Documentation of prescription for narcotics if the patient signs the consent under the influence of narcotic medication
A Suggested alternatives D An offer to answer question about the procedure
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A Superior articular process
Q 126: How does the use of beam filtration affect the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam? A The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased. B The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is decreased. C The number of x-rays is increased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased. D The number of x-rays is increased and the quality of the x-ray beam is decreased.
A The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased.
Q 71: The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitor can be literally interpreted as A The thing speaks for itself B Let the master respond C Reckless disregard for life and limb D Borrowed servant
A The thing speaks for itself
Q 183: Which of the following methods of radiation dosimetry is most commonly used for patients and personnel? A Thermoluminescence dosimetry (TLD) B Geiger-Muller counter C Photographic emulsion D Scintillation detector
A Thermoluminescence dosimetry (TLD)
This question has been deactivated Q 6: If a structure having less tissue density than the part of interest is positioned over the AEC detector, which of the following will result? A Underexposure B Overexposure C distorted image D correct exposure
A Underexposure
Q 191: What is the correct central ray direction for a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses, Caldwell method? A horizontal beam B 15 degrees caudad C 15 degrees cephalad D 25 degrees caudad
A horizontal beam
Q 169: The AEC will provide an exposure that produces a diagnostic image when the tissue of interest A is placed directly over the photocell. B is placed directly under the photocell. C is partially over the photocell. D is partially under the photocell.
A is placed directly over the photocell.
Q 176: Which three of the following diseases are spread by vector transmission? A malaria B bubonic plague C gonorrhea D Lyme disease E syphillis F athletes foot
A malaria B bubonic plague D Lyme disease
Q 164: The term effective dose refers to A whole-body dose B localized organ dose C genetic effects D somatic and genetic effects
A whole-body dose
Q 173: What is the correct pixel size for a 17-inch FOV and a matrix size of 1024? A 0.016 mm B 0.42 mm C 2.4 mm D 60 mm
B 0.42 mm
Q 105: Which of the following images require(s) superimposition of the distal radius and ulna? 1. Lateral hand 2. Lateral forearm 3. Lateral thumb A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Q 109: The AP projection of the elbow demonstrates which of the following bony structures? 1. Coronoid process 2. Radial head 3. Styloid process of the radius 4. Coracoid process A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only
B 1 and 2 only
Q 115: Exposure cords for fixed equipment must be 1. Attached to the console 2. Short 3. Positioned to allow for the technologist to step outside of the console booth into the examination room during exposure A 2 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
B 1 and 2 only
Q 179: It is essential to be certain that the x-ray tube is in the proper detent locks before making an exposure because 1. Improper alignment of the tube and IR could cause incorrect exposure when utilizing AEC 2. Having the tube out of detent could cause anatomy cutoff 3. If the tube is not locked in the transverse position grid cutoff could occur, resulting in overexposure of the part A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Q 192: When performing an AP projection of the tibia and fibula, if the entire part cannot fit on one IR 1. Take two projections in order to include all anatomy 2. One smaller projection includes the joint farthest from the injury site 3. One smaller projection includes the joint closest to the injury site A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
B 1 and 2 only
Q 33: Before bringing each patient into the radiographic room throughout the day, the radiographer should 1. clean the x-ray table and change the pillowcase. 2. assemble the accessories needed for the examination. 3. warm the x-ray tube anode. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Q 42: Which of the following will result if magnification is used in a 20/9/6 inch image intensifier? 1. Spatial resolution improves 2. Patient dose increases 3. Focal point shifts closer to the output phosphor A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Q 44: Which of the following is/are considered form(s) of acute radiation syndrome? 1. Hematopoietic Syndrome 2. Gastrointestinal Syndrome 3. Syndrome X A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only
B 1 and 2 only
Q 166: Which of the following methods can be utilized to determine if a patient is pregnant? 1. Posting of signs that advise patients to notify the technologist if pregnancy is possible 2. Utilization of questionnaires that question menstrual cycle dates and chances of pregnancy 3. Visual inspection of the patient to determine if they are pregnant 4. Questioning women of reproductive potential before each exam A 1 and 2 only B 1, 2, and 4 only Cterm-200 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
B 1, 2, and 4 only
Q 121: What disadvantages come with the use of TLD personnel monitoring? 1. Loss of information when exposed to heat and moisture 2. Cost compared to film badges when read monthly 3. Decreased sensitivity to film badges A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 2 onl
B 2 only
Q 23: Which of the following examinations is/are likely to increase personnel dose? 1. Remote fluoroscopy 2. Mobile imaging 3. General radiography A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 2 only
Q 106: When performing a GI series, which of the following structures is (are) not demonstrated with the use of oral barium? 1. Duodenal bulb 2. Pyloric antrum 3. Splenic flexure 4. C-loop of duodenum A 2 only B 3 only C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only
B 3 only
Q 165: Which of the following is the guideline for central ray angulation for an AP projection of the knee of a patient with thin thighs and buttocks? A 0-degree central ray angle B 3 to 5 degrees caudal angle C 3 to 5 degrees cephalic angle D 5 to 7 degrees cephalic angle
B 3 to 5 degrees caudal angle
Q 159: What is the attenuation percentage for 0.25 mm Pb equivalent aprons at 75 kVp? A 51% B 66% C 88% D 94%
B 66%
Q 143: When imaging the lateral thoracic spine, and using suspended respiration technique, exposure upon full inspiration can be used to A Demonstrate anatomy below the diaphragm B Achieve a more uniform tissue density of the vertebrae above diaphragm C Blur superimposed rib and lung markings D Reduce production of scatter radiation
B Achieve a more uniform tissue density of the vertebrae above diaphragm
Q 112: Which of the following is an acceptable form of electronic data manipulation? A Shuttering or masking out areas of the acquired image B Adding annotation when the lead marker is collimated out of the image field C Overwriting an image acquired under the correct processing algorithm with an image reprocessed under an alternative processing algorithm that improves the grayscale D Applying smoothing to an image that demonstrates quantum mottle if it produces an image that appears acceptable
B Adding annotation when the lead marker is collimated out of the image field
Q 9: Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between pixel size, pixel pitch, and spatial resolution? A As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases B As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases C As pixel size increases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases D As pixel size increases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution decreases
B As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases
Q 128: Compared to centering for the lateral cervical spine, centering for the lateral upper airway is A Lower and more posterior B Lower and more anterior C Higher and more posterior D Higher and more anterior
B Lower and more anterior
Q 101: Which 2 of the following communication techniques should be employed by a radiographer? A Using medical terms instead of lay terms to demonstrate that the radiographer is a knowledgeable medical professional. B Asking the patient to verbally summarize the consent form, to ensure that the patient understands what he or she is signing. C Using familiar terms, such as "sweetie," to put a patient at ease and establish a comfortable relationship. D Speaking more clearly and slowly to improve understanding when the situation is urgent or stressful.
B Asking the patient to verbally summarize the consent form, to ensure that the patient understands what he or she is signing D Speaking more clearly and slowly to improve understanding when the situation is urgent or stressful
Q 157: The process by which a contaminated object, such as a portable x-ray machine, is cleaned, first by mechanical means and then by wiping or soaking in chemical solutions is called what? A Antisepsis B Disinfection C Sterilization D Asepsis
B Disinfection
Q 73: Which pulse point would a radiographer use to take a pulse when there is questionable compromised peripheral circulation following catherization of the femoral artery or casting of a lower extremity? A Apical B Dorsalis pedis C Carotid D Brachial
B Dorsalis pedis
Q 100: What form of filtering amplifies high frequencies to increase contrast of large structures? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window level D Window width
B Edge enhancement
Q 79: All of the following describe the placement of organs in an asthenic body habitus except A Low diaphragm B Gallbladder centered on the right, upper abdominal region C Heart is near midline and vertical D Stomach is low and medial
B Gallbladder centered on the right, upper abdominal region
Q 24: Which of the following conditions can be possibly corrected with a contrast enema procedure? A Ulcerative colitis B Intussusception C Adenocarcinoma D Diverticulitis
B Intussusception
Q 7: When irradiated in an oxygenated (aerobic) state, biologic tissue _______________to radiation compared to when it is exposed to radiation under anoxic or hypoxic conditions. A Is less sensitive B Is more sensitive C Has the same sensitivity D Becomes more immune
B Is more sensitive
Q 29: What suture separates the two parietal bones from the occipital bone? A Coronal B Lambdoidal C Sagittal D Squamosal
B Lambdoidal
Q 27: When performing the parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones, which of the following is the correct patient position and exit point for the central ray (CR)? A OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion B MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion C LML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion D OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the nasion
B MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion
Q 91: Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive? A Myelocytes B Myocytes C Megakaryocytes D Erythroblasts
B Myocytes
Q 52: Which of the following is considered a safe gonadal radiation dose? A 4 mrem B No dose C 5 rem D 0.5 rem
B No dose
Q 177: For oblique positioning of the cervical spine, why are anterior oblique positions preferred over posterior oblique positions? A Better visualization of intervertebral foramina on the side furthest from the IR B Reduced thyroid dose C Better visualization of pedicles furthest from IR D Less rotation needed
B Reduced thyroid dose
Q 26: Which of the following is visualized in a left posterior oblique position of the cervical spine? A Left intervertebral foramina B Right intervertebral foramina C Left zygapophyseal joint D Right zygapophyseal joint
B Right intervertebral foramina
Q 168: The main source of radiation exposure for personnel during fluoroscopic exams is A Leakage from the tube B Scatter from the patient C The primary beam D Secondary radiation from tube housin
B Scatter from the patient
Q 89: Which of the following combination of factors will cause the anode heel effect to be more pronounced? A Smaller anode angle, longer SID, and larger field size B Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size C Larger anode angle, longer SID, and smaller field size D Larger anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size
B Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size
Q 181: When performing a portable AP chest projection on a patient who is semi-upright, what is the correct angle for the central ray? A No central ray angle is necessary B Tube is angled and CR directed perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum C Tube is angled ad CR directed parallel to the long axis of the sternum D Tube is angled and CR directed 60 degrees to the long axis of the sternum
B Tube is angled and CR directed perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum
Q 16: Which of the following describes the section of the histogram that will be included in the displayed image? A Region of interest B Values of interest C Dynamic range D Window level
B Values of interest
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B ileum.
Q 18: What is the first technical factor to consider adjusting if quantum mottle is visible with a direct relationship exposure indicator x-ray system? A decrease mAs B increase mAs C decrease kVp D increase kVp
B increase mAs
Q 187: Sufficient dose of ionizing radiation to the fetus during the early part of the first trimester of pregnancy can potentially cause A spontaneous abortion B skeletal anomalies C neurologic anomalies D gastrointestinal anomalies
B skeletal anomalies
Q 195: Select the three correct statements below regarding fixed vs. variable kV technique charts A mAs is variable when using a variable kV chart B the fixed kV chart is most commonly used C each body part has a specific kV when using a variable kV chart D kV is increased by 2 for each cm increase in thickness when using a variable kV chart E accurate caliper measurement is required when using a variable kV chart F mAs compensates for patient size and condition variation in a variable kV chart
B the fixed kV chart is most commonly used D kV is increased by 2 for each cm increase in thickness when using a variable kV chart E accurate caliper measurement is required when using a variable kV chart
Q 80: Film badges utilize filters composed of which materials? 1. Aluminum 2. Cesium oxide 3. Copper 4. Cobalt A 1 and 2 B 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3
C 1 and 3
Q 12: Which of the following is/are considered long-term somatic effect(s) of radiation exposure? 1. Carcinogenesis 2. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 3. Cataractogenesis A 1 only B 1, 2, and 3 C 1 and 3 only D 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
Q 50: Which of the following are associated with high frequencies and short wavelengths? 1. X-rays 2. Microwaves 3. Gamma rays A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
Q 1: Which of the following help(s) to reduce patient dose? 1. Tube filtration 2. Proper beam alignment 3. Operator shield 4. Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only
C 1, 2, and 4 only
Q 78: If a radiologic examination must be performed during pregnancy, what safeguards can be used for both patient and fetal protection? 1. Accurate collimation 2. Double-shielding 3. Use of low kVp techniques 4. Limited protocols A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 2, 3, and 4 only
C 1, 2, and 4 only
Q 180: X-rays that possess energy levels below 10 keV can interact with matter through classic coherent scattering. Classic coherent scattering is also known as which of the following? 1. Thompson 2. Compton 3. Unmodified 4. Coherent A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 1, 3, and 4 D 2 only
C 1, 3, and 4
Q 74: In what ways can a radiographer reduce patient dose? 1. Improve technical factor selection through observation of patient habitus, positioning, and department protocols 2. Increase positioning accuracy with use of radiopaque sponges under the area of interest to reduce motion 3. Properly dress-down the patient for the exam, including removal of any jewelry or clothing items that could cause an artifact 4. Use clear breathing instructions to improve patient compliance and decrease motion A 1, 2, and 4 only B 1, 2, and 3 only C 1, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
C 1, 3, and 4 only
Q 178: All women of childbearing age should be assessed for pregnancy before an examination. Risks to the fetus are 1. Minimal during first 2 weeks of pregnancy 2. Proportional to time and dose 3. Highest during the 2nd to 10th weeks A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Q 34: Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure?Pulse oximeterStethoscopeSphygmomanometer A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Q 3: An increase in technical factors is likely to be required for the following condition(s) 1. Emphysema 2. Atelectasis 3. Ascites A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Q 41: Which of the following will result as subject tissue thickness increases? 1. Beam attenuation decreases 2. Absorption increases 3. Transmission decreases A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
Q 196: Which of the following are true regarding bone marrow dose?1. Bone marrow dose can be directly measured2. Bone marrow dose can be associated with radiation-induced leukemia3. Bone marrow dose is estimated utilizing the ESE4. The mean marrow dose is typically lower in children A 2 and 4 only B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, and 4 only
C 2, 3, and 4 only
Q 60: What is the correct central ray placement for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? A At the jugular notch B 1 to 2 inches below the jugular notch C 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch D 5 to 6 inches below the jugular notch
C 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch
Q 30: When positioning for a lateral coccyx image, what is the correct placement of the central ray? A 2 inches posterior to the ASIS B 3 to 4 inches posterior to the ASIS C 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS D 3 to 4 inches posterior and inferior to the ASIS
C 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS
Q 150: For the PA axial projection of the knee, Camp Coventry method, which CR angulation is utilized? A 25-30 degrees caudal B 15-20 degrees cephalic C 40-50 degrees caudal D 25-30 degrees cephalic
C 40-50 degrees caudal
Q 122: According to NCRP Report No.116, the annual occupational equivalent dose limit to localized areas of the hands is A 50 mSv B 15 mSv C 500 mSv D 150 mSv
C 500 mSv
Q 87: Which of the following projections does not demonstrate the olecranon process free of superimposition? A Acute flexion elbow projection for the distal humerus B Lateral elbow C Acute flexion of the elbow for the proximal forearm D Radial head laterals of the elbow
C Acute flexion of the elbow for the proximal forearm
Q 120: Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between matrix size and spatial resolution? A As matrix size decreases, spatial resolution increases. B As matrix size increases, spatial resolution decreases. C As matrix size increases, spatial resolution increases. D Spatial resolution is not affected by the size of the matrix.
C As matrix size increases, spatial resolution increases.
Q 98: Which of the following types of compensating filters would primarily be used for shoulder images? A Wedge filter B Trough filter C Boomerang filter D Bowtie filter
C Boomerang filter
Q 97: An emergency room physician has ordered ankle and lower leg images on a patient with an obvious lower leg deformity. What is the best way to obtain the mortise image? A Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 15 to 20 degrees B Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 45 degrees C Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial D Central ray is angled 45 degrees lateromedial
C Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial
Q 2: Which of the following is used to express the effectiveness of a detector to absorb x-ray photons? A FPD B PPI C DQE D DXA
C DQE
Q 15: Quality Control (QC) testing is used to evaluate digital display monitors in all of the following ways, except A Display luminance response B Display resolution C Display matrix size D Display noise
C Display matrix size
Q 141: Which of the following may occur if the X-ray exposure field is not properly collimated, positioned, and sized? A Modulation transfer function failure B Moiré artifact C Exposure field recognition errors may occur D Ghost artifact
C Exposure field recognition errors may occur
Q 136: A source of free electrons required for x-ray production are made available from the A Glass envelope B Focal track C Filament D Focusing cup
C Filament
Q 84: There are many terms related to grids used in radiography. Which term describes the relationship of the lead lines being parallel or angled to each other? A Grid ratio B Grid pattern C Grid focus D Grid conversion factor
C Grid focus
Q 56: What is the purpose of flexing the fingers in a PA projection of the wrist? A It ensures no rotation of the distal radius and ulna B It ensures no rotation of the carpal bones C It brings the carpals in closer contact with the image receptor D It brings the metacarpals in closer contact with the image receptor
C It brings the carpals in closer contact with the image receptor
Q 62: The distal end of the non-weight bearing bone of the lower leg is called which of the following? A Apex of the fibula B Medial malleolus C Lateral malleolus D Fovea capitus
C Lateral malleolus
Q 182: Quality control tests monitor the radiation output of x-ray equipment. Which quality control test confirms that when exposure time is adjusted to produce the same mAs at different mA stations, the same radiation intensity will be produced? A Reproducibility B Positive Beam Limitation (PBL) C Linearity D Exposure timer
C Linearity
Q 20: Which of the following modalities has, in many cases, replaced the need for post arthrogram images? A Sonography B CT C MRI D Nuclear medicine
C MRI
Q 148: Which of the following best demonstrates the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal? A Lateral foot B Lateral oblique foot C Medial oblique foot D Weight-bearing foot
C Medial oblique foot
Q 93: The division process of genetic cells is termed A Metaphase B Mitosis C Meiosis D Synthesis
C Meiosis
Q 186: Which of the following are enteral routes of drug administration? (select the 2 correct responses) A Transdermal B Sublingual C Oral D Rectal E Subcutaneous F Intramuscular
C Oral D Rectal
Q 14: Which of the following cells do not undergo cell division, are mature bone cells, and maintain the metabolism of bone tissue? A Osteoblasts B Chondroblasts C Osteocytes D Osteoclasts
C Osteocytes
Q 64: Which of the following skeletal pathologies requires a decrease in technical factors? A Acromegaly B Osteoarthritis C Osteoporosis D Osteopetrosis
C Osteoporosis
Q 152: Failing to properly identify the patient before an exam could put the radiographer in violation of A HIPAA B OSHA C Patient's Bill of Rights and Patient Care Partnership D Good Samaritan laws
C Patient's Bill of Rights and Patient Care Partnership
Q 43: Which of the following describes the distance from the middle of one pixel to the middle of the adjacent pixel? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor
C Pixel pitch
Q 59: In a contrast study of the esophagus, which patient position is recommended to best visualize the esophagus projected between the thoracic vertebrae and cardiac anatomy? A AP or PA B LAO C RAO D RPO
C RAO
Q 25: Technologists must be able to schedule medical imaging exams, view orders, track patients, and store imaging reports. Which imaging informatics system is responsible for these tasks? A DICOM B PACS C RIS D HL7
C RIS
Q 194: Which of the following examinations of the urinary system does not demonstrate function? A Voiding cystourethrography B Retrograde urethrography C Retrograde urography D Retrograde cystography
C Retrograde urography
Q 131: Which of the following factors is the only thing affected by changing the focal spot size? A Receptor exposure B Contrast C Spatial resolution D Distortion
C Spatial resolution
Q 132: Which part of an induction motor is located outside the x-ray tube glass envelope? A Filament B Focusing cup C Stator D Rotor
C Stator
Q 67: When positioning for a lateral larynx and airway projection, where should the CR enter if the area of interest is the distal larynx and trachea? A C 3-4 B C 6-7 C T 1-2 D T 3-4
C T 1-2
Q 68: The xiphoid tip of the sternum is located at approximately what corresponding vertebral level? A T5-T6 B T7-T8 C T9-T10 D T11-T12
C T9-T10
Q 160: Which of the following statements is false regarding TLD? A When badges are monitored quarterly, the pricing is equivalent to film badges B They are durable and hold up to heat and humidity exposure without loss of information C They are more accurate than OSL, measuring exposures as low as 10 µGya D They utilize lithium fluoride crystals
C They are more accurate than OSL, measuring exposures as low as 10 µGya
Q 137: Which of the following is an advantage of crossed grids? A There is low risk of grid cutoff B They are easily utilized in exams requiring tube angulations C They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids D They require lower patient dose
C They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids
Q 127: All of the following are typical ways to express patient dose except A Bone marrow dose B Gonadal dose C Thyroid equivalent D Entrance skin exposure
C Thyroid equivalent
Q 107: Why would the Swimmer's position be used during an esophagram study to replace the lateral position? A To reduce motion B To reduce OID C To better demonstrate upper esophagus D To better demonstrate lower esophagus
C To better demonstrate upper esophagus
Q 22: What carpal bone is located in the distal row, second bone in from the radial side? A Trapezium B Triquetrum C Trapezoid D Lunate
C Trapezoid
Q 185: Which of the following is the first step to be taken in the performance of a radiographic examination? A Obtain clinical history B Provide appropriate patient assistance C Verify patient identity D Use appropriate infection control
C Verify patient identity
Q 45: Which of the following is the post-processing function responsible for adjusting the contrast of a digital image? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window width D Window level
C Window width
Q 19: The dose limits established for the OSL dosimeter, TLD, and film badge are valid for A alpha, beta, and x-radiations B x- and gamma radiations only C beta, x-, and gamma radiations D all ionizing radiations
C beta, x-, and gamma radiations
Q 65: Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except A the left lung has two lobes B the lower portion of the lung is the base C each lung is enclosed in peritoneum D the main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum
C each lung is enclosed in peritoneum
Q 151: Tilting of the head during positioning for the lateral skull would result in 1. Superior and inferior separation of orbital roofs 2. Anterior and posterior separation of EAM 3. Superior and inferior separation of sphenoid wings 4. Anterior and posterior separation of mandibular rami A 1 only B 4 only C 3 and 4 only D 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
Q 40: Due to the utilization of low kVp techniques, which of the following examinations result in reduced personnel exposure? 1. Mammogram 2. Chest x-ray 3. PA abdomen A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
This question has been deactivated Q 200: The base of the fifth metatarsal should be visualized on which of the following projections? 1. AP foot 2. Medial oblique foot 3. AP ankle 4. Mortise oblique ankle A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3 and 4
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 124: Which of the following materials would make an acceptable secondary barrier? 1. Lead acrylic 2. Glass 3. Gypsum board 4. Concrete A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q 125: Which of the following examinations of the abdomen require the image to be taken with suspended breathing on expiration? 1. Dorsal decubitus 2. Lateral 3. AP erect 4. Lateral decubitus A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q 70: When patient dose cannot be estimated using patient radiation monitors, what other resources are available for ESE estimations? 1. Nomograms 2. Output intensity of the x-ray equipment in use 3. kVp used during the examination 4. mAs used during the examination A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q 72: Which of the following factors can affect patient ESE? 1. Efficiency of x-ray production 2. Technical factors 3. OID 4. SID A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q 103: Which of the following is (are) shown in both the right and left dorsal decubitus positions of the abdomen? 1. Diaphragm 2. Posterior border of iliac wings 3. Air-fluid levels A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 153: Which of the following shoulder projections is/are contraindicated when a fracture or dislocation is suspected? 1. AP Projection-External Rotation 2. AP Projection-Internal Rotation 3. Inferiosuperior Axial Projection-Lawrence Method A 1 and 3 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 174: Possible responses to irradiation in utero includespontaneous abortioncongenital anomalieschildhood malignancies A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 175: In which of the following procedures is quiet, shallow breathing recommended during the exposure to obliterate prominent pulmonary vascular markings?RAO sternumLateral thoracic spineAP scapula A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 197: Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally.The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed.The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 35: Which of the following is/are a feature(s) of x-ray equipment, designed especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation to the patient?1. Filtration2. Minimum SSD of 30 cm3. Collimator accuracy A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 4: Which of the following pathologic conditions are considered additive conditions with respect to selection of exposure factors?OsteomaBronchiectasisPneumonia A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 88: The degree of x-ray beam attenuation is affected by 1. Muscle development 2. Z number of tissue 3. Tissue pathology A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Q 138: Which of the following situations could arise from over-flexing the knee in the lateral projection? 1. Obscured soft tissue 2. Fat pad displacement 3. Patellar fracture separation 4. Increased joint space visualization A 2 and 3 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 4 only D 1, 2, and 3 only
D 1, 2, and 3 only
Q 170: Methods that can be used to reduce patient exposure include increased (select the 3 correct completions) 1. beam restriction 2. kV 3. exposure time 4. mAs 5. SID 6. filtration A 1, 3, and 6 B 2, 3, and 5 C 3, 4, and 5 D 1, 2, and 6
D 1, 2, and 6
Q 82: Which of the following statements regarding pregnant radiographers are true? 1. Due to back problems associated with pregnancy, aprons using 0.5 mm Pb equivalent are more desirable than 1 mm Pb equivalent despite lower attenuation percentages 2. A second dosimeter can be worn outside of a lead apron at waist level 3. A dose limit of 0.5 mSv per month is established for the length of pregnancy 4. The pregnancy should be declared as soon as possible A 1 and 4 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only
D 1, 3, and 4 only
Q 85: Differential absorption of the x-ray beam is dependent on 1. Atomic number of the irradiated tissues 2. Collimation 3. Beam quality 4. Part density A 1 and 4 only B 2 and 3 only C 2 and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only
D 1, 3, and 4 only
Q 36: Which of the following is the correct angle for an intradermal injection? A 90 degrees B 45 degrees C 30 degrees D 15 degrees
D 15 degrees
Q 38: When performing radiographic exams on a patient after pacemaker placement, the radiographer should avoid abducting or elevating the left arm for how many hours after the pacemaker placement procedure? A 12 B 48 C 8 D 24
D 24
Q 63: For the AP axial projection of the skull, when utilizing the IOML as a landmark instead of the OML for positioning, what difference exists in the CR angulation? A 5 degrees cephalic B 5 degrees caudal C 7 degrees cephalic D 7 degrees caudal
D 7 degrees caudal
Q 83: Which element of the transmission cycle of infection is a person with a chronic disease such as diabetes mellitus? A A reservoir B A portal of exit C A means of transmission D A susceptible host
D A susceptible host
Q 28: Which of the following positions is most likely to offer the best visualization of the pulmonary apices? A Lateral decubitus B Dorsal decubitus C Erect lateral D AP axial lordotic
D AP axial lordotic
Q 66: Which of the following additional projections may be performed to assess the early structural changes of scoliosis, herniated disks, and motion after a spinal fusion? A LPO and RPO lumbar spine B LAO and RAO lumbar spine C Lateral lumbar spine D AP right and left bending lumbar spine
D AP right and left bending lumbar spine
Q 5: Which of the following is an SI quantity that can be used to specify the amount of radiation transferred to a point at the surface of a patient's or radiographer's body? A Absorbed dose B Dose equivalent C Effect dose D Air kerma
D Air kerma
Q 102: In order to avoid background radiation artifacts when using CR, it is important to: A Erase all image plates that have not been used for 48 hours B Erase all image plates if there is any question about how long it has been since the plate has been erased C Erase an image plate if there is any doubt as to when it was last erased, especially in the case of pediatric radiography D All of these are correct actions
D All of these are correct actions
Q 54: Which elbow projection demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition? A AP neutral B AP internal rotation C AP partial flexion D Coyle
D Coyle
Q 77: Which of the following describes the amount of the detector element that is dedicated to absorbing x-ray photons? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor
D Fill factor
Q 39: Which of the following combinations will provide better visibility of detail and the least amount of noise in a digital image? A Low SNR and low CNR B Low SNR and high CNR C High SNR and low CNR D High SNR and high CNR
D High SNR and high CNR
Q 129: Without changing any other factors, which of the following best describes the impact on the final image when SID is increased? A Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution decreases B Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution increases C Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution decreases D Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases
D Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases
Q 46: The mathematical expression below relates to which law of electrostatics? i1/i2=(D2)^2/(D1)^2 A Distribution B Concentration C Repulsion-attraction D
D Inverse square
Q 69: Consider the following scenario and determine which would apply. The radiographer receives an order for a chest x-ray on a patient whose name he remembers from high school. He is curious about his former acquaintance's condition and decides to examine the patient's medical history. On discovering that the patient was diagnosed with hepatitis C, he immediately sends a text message to another friend who knows the patient. A HIPAA violation and slander B Assault and battery C Assault and HIPAA violation D Libel and HIPAA violation
D Libel and HIPAA violation
Q 130: Which of the following is necessary to perform digital image stitching? A Multiple plates B Special wire alignment grid C Single exposure D Multiple exposures
D Multiple exposures
Q 57: Which of the following rib positions are recommended for a patient who complains of left-sided anterior rib pain? A AP and LPO B AP and RPO C PA and LAO D PA and RAO
D PA and RAO
Q 58: Which of the following projections will free a majority of the clavicle from superimposition and decrease the OID? A AP B AP axial C PA D PA axial
D PA axial
Q 140: Disclosure of radiography examination content using significantly similar language would result in sanctions against the offending party for violation of A The ARRT Code of Ethics B Laws of copyright infringement C State licensing laws D The ARRT Rules of Ethics
D The ARRT Rules of Ethics
Q 163: For a properly positioned AP Upright Abdomen, the central ray is directed to A The mid-sagittal plane at the level of the iliac crests B The mid-sagittal plane at the umbilicus. C The mid coronal plane at the level of the iliac crests. D The mid-sagittal plane and two inches superior to the iliac crests.
D The mid-sagittal plane and two inches superior to the iliac crests.
Q 156: Which type of seizure is sometimes preceded by an aura? A Focal seizure B Petite mal seizure C Absence seizure D Tonic-clonic seizure
D Tonic-clonic seizure
55: Of what material is the x-ray tube component numbered 5 in Figure 7-18 made? .......(spinning anode) A Cesium B Nickel C Molybdenum D Tungsten
D Tungsten
Q 21: Which of the following is the post-processing function responsible for adjusting the brightness of a digital image? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window width D Window level
D Window level
Q 146: Select the 4 statements below that are NOT correct regarding x-ray characteristics A X-rays produce fluorescence in certain phosphors B X-rays have a photographic effect on film emulsion C X-rays have an ionizing effect on air D X-rays are focused using collimators E X-rays have a physiological effect on living tissue F The x-ray beam is monoenergetic G X-rays have a penetrating effect on all matter H X-rays are negatively charged I X-rays travel at the speed of sound J X-rays travel in straight lines K X-rays are not perceptible by the senses
D X-rays are focused using collimators F The x-ray beam is monoenergetic H X-rays are negatively charged I X-rays travel at the speed of sound
Q 95: Which of the following produces a potential difference within the x-ray tube during an exposure? A mA B mAs C Ohms D kVp
D kVp
Q 198: A lateral projection of the larynx and upper trachea is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed A just below the EAM B to the level of the mandibular angles C to the level of the laryngeal prominence D midway between laryngeal prominence and jugular notch
D midway between laryngeal prominence and jugular notch
Q 99: In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the A cisterna magna B individual intervertebral disks C subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae D subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
D subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
Q 31: Which of the following types of patient consent can lead to charges of negligence against a radiographer? A Implied consent B No consent obtained C Express consent D Written consent E Inadequate consent
E Inadequate consent