RADT 440 Final

A normal creatinine level is:

0.6 to 1.2 mg/100 ml

Who would be included as nonsterile team members? 1.) anesthesia provider 2.) physician assistant 3.) radiographer

1 & 3

Which of the following joints are most commonly examined by contrast arthrography? 1. Knee 2. Hip 3. Shoulder

1, 2 & 3

An advantage of using a capacitor-discharge mobile unit would be: 1.) small size 2.) long battery life 3.) ease of movement around the hospital A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1, 2, & 3

B. 1 & 3

Which of the following would be common sites for decubitus ulcers?1.) heel 2.) knee 3.) elbow A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1, 2 & 3

B. 1 & 3 Heel and Elbow

How long (minimum time) should the patient lie in the decubitus position before making the exposure during a mobile decubitus chest examination? A. 0 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 10 minutes D. 15 minutes

B. 5 Minutes

The position of the patient's head during myelography should be in _____ to prevent contrast from passing into the cerebral ventricles. A. Lateral Flexion B. Acute Extension C. Forward Flexion D. Acute Flextion

B. Acute Extension!

The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called: A. Arthrosis B. arthrography C. Arthorgenesis D. Athroendoscopy

B. Arthrography

Radiographic examination of the biliary ducts only is termed: A. Cholecystography B. Cholangiography C. Cholelithiasis D. cholecystocholangiography.

B. Cholangiography

What type of orthopedic fixator is commonly used to reduce midhumeral fractures? A. Compression screw assembly B. Intramedullary Rod C. Kirschner wire D. Interbody fusion cage

B. Intramedullary Rod

When positioning the IR under the OR table, the radiographer should: A. Lift the drapes up high to keep them away from the IR B. Not lift the drapes above the table level to avoid the sterile field C. Squat down to place the IR below the table D. Give the IR to a sterile team member to place

B. Not lift the drapes above table level to avoid the sterile field.

Situation: A 1-year-old child comes to radiology for an erect abdomen. Which one of the following immobilization devices or techniques should be used during the exposure? A. Tam-em Board B. Pigg-O-Stat C. Compression bands D. Stockinette

B. Pigg-O-Stat

Laboratory tests to assess a patient's BUN and creatinine are used to determine the patient's: A. Liver function B. Renal function C. Pancreas D. Thymus

B. Renal function

When performing limb radiography (pediatrics), what may be required to evaluate for fracture? A. additional immobilization B. The contralateral side C. Use of large focal spot D. No soft tissue

B. The contralateral Side

The therapeutic radiologic procedure designed to dilate or reopen stenotic or occluded areas within a vessel is termed: A. "gamma knife" therapy B. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty C. interventional radiology D. transcatheter embolization

B. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty

When taking a portable chest radiograph on a patient undergoing oxygen therapy: A. It is safe to remove the oxygen delivered during the setup and exposure B. the oxygen should not be removed without the consent of a physician or respiratory care practitioner. C. The oxygen should be turned off briefly during the exposure to prevent an electrical spark D. The oxygen delivery system should be low flow rate only.

B. the oxygen should not be removed without the consent of a physician or respiratory care practitioner.

After the administration of an iodine-based contrast into a patient, it is important for the technologist to observe the patient for: A. signs of a reaction such as increased hunger, cold extremities, and bladder swelling. B. urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest. C. blurred vision, syncope, and epistaxis. D. excessive salivation, dry eyes, and nasal dryness.

B. urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest.

Body homeostasis is often referred to as the body's "steady state" and is maintained by important body systems using physiologic feedback loops. Vital signs are an excellent indicator of the body's response to conditions and therapies the patient is undergoing. A key strength of using vital signs as an indicator of homeostasis is that they: A. are subjective and subject to interpretation. B. are measured using interventional catheters and therefore are very accurate. C. can be assessed quickly, and the data revealed are objective. D. can be confirmed by asking the patient how he or she feels.

C. can be assessed quickly, and the data revealed are objective.

The Heimlich maneuver is:

C. modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts.

All of the following are true of oxygen therapy EXCEPT: A. the universal color of flowmeters is green. B. oxygen is considered a drug and is regulated by the government. C. oxygen therapy can be prescribed by pharmacists and respiratory therapists. D. oxygen delivery devices are either low-flow rate or high-flow rate.

C. oxygen therapy can be prescribed by pharmacists and respiratory therapists.

According to federal regulations, the source-to-skin (SSD) distance during mobile radiography may not be less than:

12 inches

Which of the following comprises the circulatory system? 1.) Central nervous system 2.) Lymphatic system 3.) Blood-vascular system A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1, 2, & 3

C. 2 & 3

Which types of fractures are classic indicators of physical abuse of a child? (1) spiral fractures (2) "bucket handle" fractures (3) posterior rib fractures A. 1 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 d. 1, 2, & 3

C. 2 & 3 only

Situation: A patient enters the ER with a possible shoulder dislocation. Because of his multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following routines best demonstrates the dislocation? A. AP external and internal rotation projections B. AP and transaxially projection C. AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projections D. AP and AP axial projections

C. AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projections

Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator's head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged? (patient is supine) A. AP Projection B. PA Projection C. PA, 30 degree tilt away from operator D. Non significant difference

A. AP Projection

The primary pathologic indication for an operative cholangiogram is A. Biliary Calculi B. Jaundice C. Pancreatitis D. Hepatitis

A. Biliary Calculi

What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs? A. Cardiogenic B. Septic C. Anaphylactic D. Neurogenic

A. Cardiogenic

Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more fragments? A. Comminuted B. Compound C. Complete D. Torus

A. Comminuted

For select examinations, air (negative contrast) and radiopaque contrast are used as a pair to outline mucosal linings, joint interspaces, and passageways. These examinations are considered: A. Double Contrast Studies B. Extremely dangerous and rarely done C. Single Contrast exams D. Low contrast studies

A. Double Contrast Studies

Which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography? A. Injury to tears to rotator cuff B. Evaluate for Baker's cyst C. Injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments D. Injury or tears to menisci

A. Injury or tears to rotator cuff (this is shoulder)

The flow rate of oxygen therapy is given in: A. liters per minute. B. cubic meters per minute. C. pounds per square inch. D. millimeters of mercury.

A. Liters per minute

The brain and spinal cord are enclosed by three protective membranes called the:

A. Meninges

Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture? A. Open Reduction B. Closed Reduection C. Internal Fixation D. Compound reduction

A. Open reduction

Which of the following may be given to a patient to counteract hypoglycemia? A. Orange Juice B. Peanut Butter C. Hamburger D. Buttered Toast

A. Orange Juice

Which structure is labeled as 9? A. Pancreatic Duct B. Common Bile Duct C. Cystic Duct D. Common Hepatic Duct

A. Pancreatic Duct

Which of the following is a common complication associated with CV line placement? A. Pneumo or hemothorax B. Tracheal erosion C. Layngedema D. Ateclectasis

A. Pneumo or hemothorax

Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint? A. Subluxation B. Luxation C. Apposition D. Angulation

A. Subluxation

The osmotic effects of ionic contrast agents are a result of the movement of: A. water from the body's cells into the bloodstream, causing increased blood volume and higher blood pressure. B. water from the blood plasma into cells, causing them to burst. C. iodine into cells, thereby increasing the cell membrane permeability. D. glucose molecules into cells, increasing metabolism.

A. water from the body's cells into the bloodstream, causing increased blood volume and higher blood pressure.

A patient is thought to have had a cardiac arrest. The patient's pulse should be checked at the _____ artery. A. radial B. brachial C. carotid D. femoral

C. Carotid

Situation: A patient enters the ER with a possible hip fracture. The AP pelvis projection confirms a fracture of the right, proximal femur. The patient is unable to elevate the unaffected leg for the Danelius-Miller projection. What other lateral projection could the radiographer perform to safely demonstrate the fracture?

C. Clements- Nakayama method

Which of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures? A. Time B. Shielding C. Distance D. None of the above

C. Distance

Situation: A 2-year-old child comes to radiology for a cervical spine series. The child is unable to hold still for the projections even with immobilization. Which of the following individuals should be asked to hold the child if present? A. Radiography student wearing protective apron B. Older Technologist wearing protective Apron C. Father wearing protective apron D. Nurse wearing protective apron

C. Father wearing protective apron

One of the greatest danger facing a premature neonate is: A. Sudden weight gain B. Thermoregulation C. Hypothermia D. Exposure to Barium

C. Hypothermia

Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixator? A. Intramedullary Nail B. Interbody fusion cages C. Ilizarov Device D. Compression screw

C. Ilizarov device

Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast? A. Conscious sedation B. Sterile Saline C. Local Anesthetic D. General Anesthetic

C. Local Anesthetic

If a trauma patient loses consciousness during an imaging procedure, the imaging professional should: A. assess the patient's airway B. check the patient's pulse C. notify the ED physician immediately D. check the patient's pupil responses

C. Notify the ED physician immediately

Which of the following actions is NOT appropriate when caring for a patient who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure? A. Observe accurately. B. Place padding under the head. C. Restrain movement as much as possible. D. Maintain the airway.

C. Restrain movement as much as possible.

What is the most common location for an aspirated foreign body? A. Stomach B. Esophagus C. Right side of bronchial tree D. Left side of Bronchial tree

C. Right side of bronchial tree

Which of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment? A. Sterile towel over image intensifier B. Sterile towel over x-ray tube C. Shower curtain D. Wiping down the entire C-arm with an antiseptic solution

C. Shower curtain

What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiographic examinations?

Anaphylactic

The aging experience is individual and is affected by: 1.) attitude 2.) lifestyle choices 3.) heredity A. 1 & 2 B. 1&3 C. 2&3 D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

What size needle is used to introduce the contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram? A. 2 inches, 16 gauge B. 1 & 1/2 inches, 18 gauge C. 2 inches, 25 gauge D. 2 3/4- to 3 1/2-inch spinal needle

D. 2 3/4- to 3 1/2-inch spinal needle (the longest needle)

In preparation for any emergent situation, the professional technologist should become familiar with: A. location of and access to the crash cart B. Automatic external defibrillator (AED) operation C. Institutional numbers for emergency code announcements D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a contraindication for myelography? A. Arachnoiditis B. Blood in CSF C. Increased Intracranial Pressure D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following instruments is not required during a knee arthrogram? A. Sterile Gauze B. 10mL Syringe C. 20-gauge needle D. Arthroscope

D. Arthroscope

When "high-flow" oxygen therapy is given, the _____ method is employed. A. Intracatheter B. Nasal Cannula C. Nasogastric D. Facial mask

D. Facial Mask

Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken? A. Bayonet B. Torus C. Avulsion D. Greenstick

D. Greenstick

What type of shock is caused by loss of blood from a knife or gunshot wound? A. Cardiogenic B. Septic C. Anaphylactic D. Hypovolemic

D. Hypovolemic

The objective of oxygen therapy is to: A. Produce a condition of hypoxemia B. Decrease the CO2 concentration going into the patient C. Increase the CO2 concentration going into the patient D. Increase the O2 concentration going into the patient

D. Increase the O2 concentration going into the patient

All of the following imaging modalities may be used for image-guided interventional pain management except: A. Fluoroscopy B. CT. C. Ultrasound D. MRI

D. MRI

Which of the following generally requires the use of a grid? A. PA chest projection with a 1-year old patient B. Lateral chest projection with a 1-year old patient C. AP pelvis and femur projections with a 1-year old patient D. None of the above

D. None of the above (you should never use a grid with children)

What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure? A. Note the violation on the examination requisition B. Inform the radiology supervisor C. Notify a member of the surgical team once the procedure has been completed D. Notify a member of the surgical team immediately

D. Notify a member of the surgical team immediately

Exposure factors for the elderly: A. do not require any changes B. Call for increased kVp C. May need longer time settings D. Often require lower kVp

D. Often require lower kVp

The abbrieviation for ORIF refers to.. A. Orthopedic reduction internal fixation B. Open reduction Internal fracture C. Orthopedic rodding internal fixation D. Open reduction internal fixation

D. Open reduction internal fixation

Which of the following is a suggested conventional positioning routine for cervical myelography following fluoroscopy and spot imaging? A. Patient prone: PA lateral, swimmer's lateral, and one lateral decubitus-horizontal beam B. Patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA) C. Patient prone: PA horizontal beam and swimmer's lateral of C6 or C7 D. Patient prone: horizontal beam lateral and swimmer's horizontal beam lateral centered to C7

D. Patient prone: horizontal beam lateral and swimmer's horizontal beam lateral centered to C7

Which of the following is generally true for an arthrogram of a knee? A. Approximately 20 ml of positive contrast media is used. B. With the horizontal beam projection method, views are taken of each meniscus with the knee rotated 30° between exposures. C. The amount of aspirated joint (synovial) fluid should equal the amount of injected contrast media. D. The physician injects local anesthetic using a 10-ml syringe with a 21- to 25-gauge needle.

D. The physician injects local anesthetic using a 10-ml syringe with a 21- to 25-gauge needle.

The ideal location of the endotracheal tube tip is: A. just below the junction of the esophagus and trachea. B. in the left or right main-stem bronchus. C. in the back of the throat. D. in the trachea 1 to 2 inches above the carina.

D. in the trachea 1-2in above the carina

What is the most common clinical indication for a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram? A. Jaundice B. Pancreatitis C. Chronic Cholecystitis D. Residual calculi

D. residual calculi

Which of the following factors should be the first consideration controlling motion for the pediatric patient? A. Pigg-O-Stat B. Sandbags and Tape C. High kV techniques D. Short exposure time

D. short exposure time

A 16-year-old patient comes to the diagnostic imaging department for a CT examination. He is lying on the table in a supine position and suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently, with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. The action that you must take is: A. go to the patient immediately and prevent him from harm. B. call for help, but do not leave the patient. C. place the patient on the floor and begin CPR. D. to do both a and b.

D. to do both a and b.

How is the water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram?

Excreted by the kidneys

T/F: Ten to 20 pounds of compression of the breast is typically used during mammography.

FALSE

T/F: Gonadal shielding should not be used for any studies of the pelvis for bilateral hip evaluation.

False

T/F: The Pigg-O-Stat can be employed for pediatric skull procedures.

False

T/F: The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon, is considered sterile.

False

Death from trauma during the second peak of death occurs due to:

Due to: - Subdural and epidural hematomas - Hemothorax or pneumothorax - Organ rupture - Blood loss

YA'LL BETTER STUDY YOUR CENTRAL AND PICC LINES CUS I AINT GOT THE PICS TO GO WITH THEM.

KNOW THESEEEEEEEEEEEEE A. Swan Ganz catheter B. Endothracheal Tube (ET) C. Chest tube D. Central venous line E. PICC line F. FEEDING TUBE

Write in: Describe what is a laminectomy procedure...

It is an anterior approach for cervical spines only, NOT for Lumbar spines. The surgeon will remove a part of the cervical spine's lamina.

During a myelogram performed with the patient prone, why is a positioning block (bolster) placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture?

To widen the interspinous spaces

T/F: An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) can either be a diagnostic or a therapeutic procedure.

True!

Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by:

only by sterile team members

The ideal location of the endotracheal tube tip is:

in the trachea 1 to 2 inches above the carina.

An instrument that measures heart rate and oxygen saturation of hemoglobin is called a(n):

pulse oximeter.

All of the following are important to note during a patient's seizure EXCEPT:

whether the patient hit anyone during the seizure.

Which imaging examination is usually performed immediately after a myelogram? A. MRI B. NM C. US D. CT

CT

Name and explain the different categories of trauma facilities.

Level 1: Universities, large facilities, complete image capabilities 24 hours a day. All specialties are covered and radiographers always available Level 2: Do not have all the specialty physicians on site. 24 hour radiology services Level 3: They have radiology services on call only, are not open 24 hours a day

Which of the following procedures are appropriate for trauma patients? (1) remove immobilization devices that may cause imaging artifacts (2) move tube and IR, instead of injured part, when possible (3) perform all AP projections, then all lateral projections

2 & 3 only

T/F: Another term for Cooper's ligament is the suspensory ligament.

TRUE

T/F: Compression of the breast will reduce magnification of structures within the breast.

TRUE

T/F: Most pediatric angiographic procedures require patient sedation

TRUE

T/F: Uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias is a contraindication for cardiac catheterization?

TRUE

You have completed a portable chest radiograph on a patient in the ICU. The image is positioned correctly and has acceptable density and contrast. When the correct placement of a central venous (CV) line using a right-sided approach is assessed, the catheter tip should: A. Not cross the midline of the patient and should be located in the superior vena cava B. Cross the patient's midline and be positioned in the thoracic duct. C. Be located in the main pulmonary artery in a "wedge" position D. Be located in the left ventricle for accurate pressure measurement

A. not cross the midline of the patient and should be located in the superior vena cava.

Which one of the following methods will best reduce patient dosage during a fluoroscopic procedure in surgery? A. Increase mA B. Use intermittent fluoro C. Decrease kV D. Place x-ray tube above the patient

B. Use intermittent fluoro

All of the following are related EXCEPT: A. Nasal Canula B. Facial Mask C. Thoracotomy D. Tent and oxyhood

C. Thoracostomy

You have come upon a motor vehicle accident as the first person to arrive. As you assess the victim's level of consciousness, you begin to ask questions and encourage the victim to respond. During your efforts to do so, the victim has no verbal response to any stimuli, but his leg moves with your touch and pinch. This person demonstrates what level of consciousness? A. Alert and responsive B. Drowsy but can be aroused C. Unconscious but reflexive D. Comatose and unresponsive

C. Unconscious but reflexive

In preparation for any emergent situation, the professional technologist should become familiar with: A. location of and access to the crash cart. B. automatic external defibrillator (AED) operation. C. institutional numbers for emergency code announcements. D. all of the above.

D. all of the above.

A patient who suddenly demonstrates nervous irritability, cold clammy skin, weakness, hunger, and blurred vision requires the administration of: A. CPR B. nitroglycerin. C. insulin. D. glucose

D. glucose

(T/F) Diapers may be left on for abdomen or pelvic exams if the technologist is sure there are no pins or other metallic items included.

False

The medical term for a temporary suspension of consciousness is:

Syncope

Institution-approved attire worn in the OR:

should be fresh for each shift