REGISTRY REVIEW IN COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY TEST 4

A ct image should be viewed on the monitor in which of the following orientations A. From the feet towards the head with the patients left on the viewers left B. From the feet toward the head with the patients left on the viewers right C. From the head toward the feet with the patients right on the viewers right D. From the head to the feet with the patients right on the viewers left

B. From the feet toward the head with the patients left on the viewers right

number 4 corresponds to which of the following A. Spinous process B. Lamina C. Transverse process D. Pedicle

B. Lamina

Number 5 corresponds to which of the following A. Caudate nucleus B. Putnam C. Thalamus D. Globes pallidus

B. Putnam

Which of the following most accurately describes the position of the patient A. Prone with knees extended, feet dorsiflexed B. Supine with knees flexed , plantar surface of feet resting on table C. Supine with knees extended, feet hyperflexed D. Prone with knee flexed, feet hyperextended

B. Supine with knees flexed , plantar surface of feet resting on table

Number 1 corresponds to which of the following A. cuboid B.talus C. Calcaneous D. Navicular

B. Talus

Number 3 corresponds to which of the following A. Cerebrum B. Vermis of cerebellum C. Tentorium cerebellum D. Occipital lobe

B. Vermis of cerebellum

Number 6 corresponds to which of the following A. Navicular B. cuboid C. Cuneiform D. Talus

B. cuboid

A 15 sec spiral ct scan of the pelvis is performed using a 1.0 cm aperture size if a 1:1 pitch was used the total length of coverage for this scan would be A. 50 mm B. 100 mm C. 150 mm D. 250 mm

C. 150 mm

Number 2 corresponds to which of the following A. Caudate nucleus B. Putnam C. Thalamus D. Globes pallidus

C. Thalamus

Number 4 corresponds to which of the following A. Fourth ventricle B. Vein of Galen C. Third ventricle D. Thalamostriate vein

C. Third ventricle

Which of the following accurately describes the proper position of the patient for a ct examination of the brain A. Prone with head extended B. Supine with head extended C. Prone with chin down D. Supine with chin down

D. Supine with chin down

which number corresponds to the left brachiocephalic vein a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 1

d. 1

which of the following corresponds to the left common iliac artery a. 5 b. 2 c. 7 d. 1

d. 1

in a female patient gonadal shielding may be applied during which of the following examinations 1. chest 2. abdomen 3. brain a. 3 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

d. 1,2 and 3

the data acquisition system of a ct scanner 1. measures transmitted intensity 2. converts transmission data into a digital signal 3. sends the digital information to the central processing unit a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

d. 1,2 and 3

which of the following mathematical functions may be used to quantify the spatial resolution of a ct scanner 1. PSF 2. MTF 3. LSF a. 2 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1,2 and3

d. 1,2 and3

which of the following matrices provides the greatest spatial resolution a. 256x256 b. 320x320 c. 512x512 d. 1024x1024

d. 1024x1024

which of the following are correct statements concerning the translate-rotate mode of ct data acquisition 1. circular detector arrays of 360 are used 2. data are collected only during translation 3. the method was used in first and second generation ct scanner a. 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3

d. 2 and 3

a total volume of 125 ml of iodinated contrast is administered via automatic injector in 50 sec the flow rate for this injection is a. 0.75 ml/sec b. 1.25 ml/sec c. 1.75 ml/sec d. 2.5 ml/sec

d. 2.5 ml/sec amount/ time

which of the following corresponds to the ischium a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3

d. 3

the type of image shown is referred to as a a. three-dimensional image b. retrospective image c. stereotactic image d. MPR image

d. MPR image

during which of the following ct examinations is a misregistration artifact most likely to occur a. brain b. pelvis c. neck d. abdomen

d. abdomen

when SFOV is chosen the ct technologist is controlling a. the diameter of acquisition/ reconstruction for the anatomic section b. the number of activated detectors within the array c. the correction factors for the specific area of anatomic interest d. all of the above

d. all of the above

which of the following is not absolute contraindication of intravenous contrast administration a. sickle cell anemia in active crisis b. elevated serum creatine level c. pheochromocytoma d. allergic history to shellfish

d. allergic history to shell fish

which of the following pathologic conditions cannot be easily diagnosed from a ct scan of the brain a. astrocytoma b. traumatic hemorrhage c. cerebral infarct d. alzheimer's disease

d. alzheimer's disease

number 5 corresponds to which of the following a. right lobe of the liver b. quadrate lobe of the liver c. portal vein d. caudate lobe of the liver

d. caudate lobe of the liver

number 1 corresponds to which of the following a. iliac vein b. femoral vein c. iliac artery d. femoral artery

d. femoral artery

number 5 corresponds to which of the following a. sciatic notch b. humeral head c. gluteal tuberosity d. femoral neck

d. femoral neck

number 1 corresponds to which of the following a. gastric haustrae b. digested food c. gastric ulcers d. gastric rugae

d. gastric rugae

which of the following technical changes may increase the partial volume effect present on a spiral ct scan a. decrease in pitch b. decrease in aperture size c. increase in matrix size d. increase in pitch

d. increase in pitch

the viscosity of a contrast material may be decreased through a. increases in pressure b. decreases in temperature c. decreases in volume d. increases in temperatures

d. increases in temperatures

number 2 corresponds to which of the following a. right brachiocephalic vein b. left subclavian artery c. brachiocephalic artery d. left common carotid artery

d. left common carotid artery

a ct image of a homogeneous material contains variations in ct number from pixel to pixel. this image has a. high contrast b. sensitivity c. definition d. noise

d. noise

which of the following corresponds to the left atrium a. 2 b. 5 c. 1 d. none of the above

d. none of the above

which of the following types of central venous lines may be used for the administration of iodinated contrast with an automatic injector a. infuse-a-port b. hickman catheter c. port-a-cath d. none of the above

d. none of the above

which of the following anatomic quadrants has been removed from the three dimensional model a. left posterior inferior b. right anterior inferior c. left anterior superior d. right anterior superior

d. right anterior superior

number 2 corresponds to which of the following a. dental implants b. mandibular fractures c. surgical staples d. roots of teeth

d. roots of teeth

number 3 corresponds to which of the following a. vertebral foramen b. pedicle c. sacral canal d. sacral foramen

d. sacral foramen

number 3 corresponds to which of the following a. pedicle b. transverse process c. lamina d. spinous process

d. spinous process

which of the following correctly lists the algorithm, matrix size, and section thickness used for this image a. soft tissue, 320, 5.0 mm b. bone, 512, 10.0 mm c. standard, 512, 5.0 mm d. standard, 512, 10.0 mm

d. standard, 512, 10.0 mm

the major disadvantage of the back-projection method of image reconstruction is the appearance of the a. partial volume effect b. ring artifact c. gibbs phenomenon d. star artifact

d. star artifact

which of the following terms may be used to indicate a feeling of faintness a. lethargy b. synergy c. ansomia d. syncope

d. syncope

which of the following is an example of a mild reaction to iodinated intravenous contrast media a. dyspnea b. shock c. pulmonary edema d. vomiting

d. vomiting

A CT scanner capable of producing an image that is a perfect reproduction of the actual anatomic section is said to have an MTF modulator transfer function of a. 0 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100

b. 1

Parenteral routes of medication administration include which of the following 1. subcutaneous 2. intradermal 3. transdermal a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1,2, and 3

b. 1 and 2

the administration of intrathecal iodinated contrast in the patient shown in the figure would allow greater visualization of the 1. spinal cord 2. nerve roots 3. annulus fibrosis a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2, and 3

b. 1 and 2

which of the following laboratory values is used to measure the coagulation ability of a patient before an invasive ct study 1. partial thromboplastin time 2. hematocrit 3. prothrombin time a. 1 only b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1,2, and 3

b. 1 and 3

which number corresponds to the gluteus medius muscle a. 5 b. 7 c. 2 d. 3

b. 7

a non-ionic intravenous contrast agent has an average osmolality of a. 300 mOsm/kg water b. 750 mOsm/kg water c. 1300 mOsm/kg water d. 3000 mOsm/kg water

b. 750 mOsm/kg water

the scout image shown could be used to prescribe a ct examination of the a. chest b. abdomen c. thoracic spine d. abdomen and pelvis

b. abdomen

which of the following terms is used to describe a set of rules for solving a mathematical problem a. reconstruction b. algorithm c. function d. array

b. algorithm

number 3 indicates that this image was generated from a series of __________ ct images a. sagittal b. axial c. coronal d. panoramic

b. axial

which of the following intravenous contrast administration methods provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration a. drip infusion b. bolus technique c. biphasic technique d. ct portography

b. bolus technique

a test phantom containing water is scanned and five region measurements are performed. the subsequent density measurements are compared and demonstrate a maximum deviation of less than 2 houndsfield units. this quality assurance test was performed to evaluate the __________ of the scanner a. spatial resolution b. cross field uniformity c. signal to noise ratio d. contrast resolution

b. cross field uniformity

which of the following technical changes would improve the image quality a. change of matrix size to 256 b. decreased DFOV c. change of matrix size to 320 d. increased DFOV

b. decreased DFOV

which of the following would increase the noise of a ct image a. increased mAs b. decreased aperture size c. decreased filtration d. decreased matrix size

b. decreased aperture size

the intensity of the ct xray beam can be increased by a. increasing filtration b. decreasing collimation c. decreasing applied tube voltage d. increasing collimation

b. decreasing collimation

ct scanning of the liver for tumor evaluation should not be performed during which of the following phases of contrast enhancement a. nonequilibrium phase b. equilibrium phase c. dynamic phase d. bolus phase

b. equilibrium phase

which of the following terms accurately describes the type of xray beam used in a third generation ct scanner a. pencil beam b. fan beam c. nutating beam d. electron beam

b. fan beam

number 8 corresponds to which of the following a. iliac vein b. femoral vein c. iliac artery d. femoral artery

b. femoral vein

which of the following is not an iterative method of ct reconstruction a. point by point correction b. fourier transform c.simultaneous reconstruction d. ray by ray correction

b. fourier transform

number 3 corresponds to which of the following a. anterior superior iliac spine b. iliac crest c. anterior inferior iliac spine d. spine of the ischium

b. iliac crest

the outlined area most likely represents the a. stomach b. left kidney c. spleen d. right kidney

b. left kidney

During a CT-guided needle biopsy, the insertion site is usually anesthetized with: a. diazepam b. lidocaine c. lithium d. oxycodone HCI (Percodan)

b. lidocaine

the spatial resolution of a ct scanner is usually expressed as a. HU b. lp/cm c. u d. Hz

b. lp/cm

the addition of _______ makes autoclave more efficient at sterilization than an oven a. antiseptic solution b. moisture c. extreme pressure d. ultraviolet light

b. moisture

the matrix size describes which of the following a. aperture size used during data acquisition b. number of pixels used to display an image c. relationship between the field of view and algorithm d. none of the above

b. number of pixels used to display an image

number 6 corresponds to which of the following a. nasopharynx b. oropharynx c. esophagus d. larynx

b. oropharynx

axial ct images of the knee may be acquired in five separate series with the knee flexions of 0,15,30,45 and 60 degrees in order to demonstrate the a. tibial plateau b. patellofemoral joint c. medial and lateral menisci d. anterior cruciate ligament

b. patellofemoral joint

when choosing a window to display a ct image the width defines the a. midpoint of the range of pixels b. range of ct numbers (pixel) to be displayed c. range of pixel values included in a region of interest d. average ct number of the tissue of interest

b. range of ct numbers (pixel) to be displayed

number 3 corresponds to which of the following a. right renal vein b. right crus of the diaphragm c. right renal artery d. superior mesenteric artery

b. right crus of the diaphragm

the technique that provides the detail of the outer portions of this three dimensional model while maintaining the typical ct detail of the lungs inside is called a. maximum intensity projection b. surface rendering c. summed projection d. voxel gradient

b. surface rendering

which of the following statements comparing the efficiency of scintillation and gas ionization detectors is correct a. both have approximately the same capture efficiency b. the scintillation detector has a higher capture efficiency c. unlike the scintillation detector the gas ionization detector has a problem with the afterglow d. gas ionization detectors have a higher conversion efficiency

b. the scintillation detector has a higher capture efficiency

which of the following is used in gas ionization ct detectors a. neon b. xenon c. helium d. nitrogen

b. xenon

Two adjacent pixels are measured to have a difference of 1 HU. This amounts to a tissue density difference of approximately a. 0.1% b. 1.0% c. 10% d. 25%

a. 0.1%

which of the following corresponds to the pedicle a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3

a. 1

which of the following sizes of butterfly needles allows for the most rapid administration of iodinated intravenous contrast media a. 19 gauge b. 21 gauge c. 23 gauge d. 25 gauge

a. 19 gauge

a patient is scheduled for an intravenous iodinated contrast enhanced ct scan of the kidneys before the injection the involved medical personnel should examine recently measured laboratory values for which of the following 1. complete blood count 2. creatine 3. prothrombin time a. 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3

a. 2 only

which of the following corresponds to the retromandibular vein a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. none of the above

a. 3

which of the following interscan delay would be used for a dynamic ct study of the chest a. 4 sec b. 8 sec c. 12 sec d. 15 sec

a. 4 sec

which of the following ct film formats provides the largest image for the viewer on a 14x17 inch film a. 4:1 b. 6:1 c. 12:1 d. 20:1

a. 4:1

which of the following does not branch off the aortic arch a. 6 b. 3 c. 7 d. 2

a. 6

the quantity of radiation dose received by the patient from a series of ct scans is referred to as a. MSAD b. XCAL c. CTDL d. MTF

a. MSAD

which of the following manipulations involve the use of image data a. adjusting the width and level of the window setting b. decreasing the DFOV c. changing the algorithm selection d. increasing the matrix size

a. adjusting the width and level of the window setting

a suction unit used on a patient with chest tube should always remain a. below the patient b. level with the patient c. above the patient d. none of the above

a. below the patient

the interaction between x-ray and matter that is responsible for the production of the scatter radiation absorbed by the patient and detector is a. compton interaction b. bremsstrahlung interaction c. photoelectric effect d. characteristic interaction

a. compton interaction

the dimension of a voxel may be decreased by which of the following a. decreasing the section width b. decreasing the matrix size c. increasing section width d. increasing the DFOV

a. decreasing the section width

the contrast resolution of a ct scanner is not related to which of the following a. focal spot size b. section width c. reconstruction algorithm d. signal to noise ratio

a. focal spot size

number 4 corresponds to which of the following a. greater trochanter b. sciatic tubercle c. lesser trochanter d. coracoid

a. greater trochanter

most pancreatic tumors occur in the pancreatic a. head b. body c. tail d. uncinate process

a. head

as the attenuation of a volume of tissue decreases the transmitted intensity of a ct xray beam a. increases b. remains unchanged c. decreases d. increases to a peak value and then rapidly decreases

a. increases

the patient is not required to give informed consent for which of the following ct studies a. noncontrast brain study to rule out subdural hematoma b. ct guided abscess drainage c. stereotactic biopsy of a cranial tumor d. MPR imaging of the shoulder

a. noncontrast brain study to rule out subdural hematoma

patient preparation for a contrast enhanced ct examination of the chest should include a. nothing by mouth for 4 hours prior to exam b. low residue diet for 12-24 hrs before exam c. cleansing enema on the day of exam d. no preparation

a. nothing by mouth for 4 hours prior to exam

number 6 corresponds to which of the following a. right brachiocephalic vein b. left subclavian artery c. brachiocephalic artery d. left common carotid artery

a. right brachiocephalic vein

number 5 corresponds to which of the following a. right common iliac vein b. left common iliac vein c. right common iliac artery d. left common iliac artery

a. right common iliac vein

the phantom imagine is used to test which of the following image quality factors of a ct scanner a. spatial resolution b. noise c. linearity d. contrast resolution

a. spatial resolution

a patient blood pressure is measured 140/70 hg. the number 140 represents a. the pressure with in the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart b. the pressure exerted on the chambers of the heart while the heart is relaxed c. the pressure within the arterial vessels while the heart is relaxed d. the pressure exerted on the chambers of the heart during contraction of the heart

a. the pressure with in the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart

Which of the following corresponds to the genu of corpus callosum A. 6 B. 5 C. 2 D. 1

a.6

in the following formula used to calculate the linear attenuation coefficient I=I0.e-μx the symbol Io identifies a. euler's constant b. incident intensity c. absorber thickness d. transmitted intensity

c. absorber thickness

number 6 corresponds to which of the following a. descending colon b. ileocecal valve c. ascending colon d. jejunum

c. ascending colon

number 4 corresponds to which of the following a. descending aorta b. esophagus c. azygos vein d. trachea

c. azygos vein

the type of filter used at the xray tube of a ct scanner is called a a. kernel b. water bath c. bow tie filter d. wedge filter

c. bow tie filter

number 7 corresponds to which of the following a. right brachiocephalic vein b. left subclavian artery c. brachiocephalic artery d. left common carotid artery

c. brachiocephalic artery

some ct scanners enable the technologist to outline an automatic area on a series of cross-sectional images and then define the outlined area on a scout or localizer image. this feature is called a. treatment planning b. density contouring c. correlation d. histogram

c. correlation

which of the following ct studies of the head may be performed without a contrast agent a. ct angiogram for the circle of willis b. coronal ct scan to rule out pituitary tumor c. ct of the brain to rule out subdural hematoma d. ct of the brain to rule out metastatic disease

c. ct of the brain to rule out subdural hematoma

which of the following technical changes would decrease patient dose during ct examination a. decreased matrix size b. change from soft tissue to bone algorithm c. decreased tube rotation from 360 degree to 180 d. decreased DFOV

c. decreased tube rotation from 360 degree to 180

which of the following type of isolation technique protects against infection transmitted through fecal material a. acid fast bacillus isolation b. contact isolation c. enteric precautions d. drainage-secretion precautions

c. enteric precautions

number 6 corresponds to which of the following a. round ligament b. longitudinal fissure c. falciform ligament d. transverse fissure

c. falciform ligament

which of the following abnormal findings reduces the density of the liver a. hyperdense cyst b. contrast enhancing tumor c. fatty infiltrate d. all of the above

c. fatty infiltrate

which of the following best describes the pathologic abnormality present a. metastatic disease of the sacrum b. sacral cyst c. fracture of the sacrum d. dislocated sacroiliac joint

c. fracture of the sacrum

which of the following is a non-ionic contrast material a. iodamide b. iothalamate c. iohexal d. diatrizoate

c. iohexal

which of the following iodinated contrast may be used for an intrathecal injection a. meglumine b. iodipamide c. iohexol d. sodium meglumine diatrizoate

c. iohexol

which of the following devices is used to measure the patient dose from ct examination a. Geiger-muller counter b. thermoluminescent dosimeter c. ionization chamber d. film badge

c. ionization chamber

the vertebral body shown is most likely a. l2 b. l3 c. l4 d. s1

c. l4

high resolution ct is most commonly used for the evaluation of the a. pancreas b. brain c. lungs d. mediastinum

c. lungs

number 5 corresponds to which of the following a. iliopsoas muscle b. sartorius muscle c. obturator interns muscle d. gluteus minimus muscle

c. obturator interns muscle

the circle deposited on the image is used to a. magnify a portion of the image b. localize an area for percutaneous biopsy c. perform a region of interest measurement d. produce an mpg image

c. perform a region of interest measurement

number 2 corresponds to which of the following a. adenoids b. epiglottis c. pharyngeal constrictor muscle d. parotid gland

c. pharyngeal constrictor muscle

the _______ gland is located in the anterosuperior portion of the mediastinum and is often identified with CT when scanning younger patients a. thyroid b. luschka c. thymus d. parathyroid

c. thymus

the density measuremet performed yielded on average ct number of zero this area consist of a. fat b. blood c. water d. air

c. water

Which of the following bones of the foot are included as tarsals 1. Third proximal phalanx 2. Lateral cuneiform 3. First metatarsal A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 D. 1,2, and 3

B 2 only

In which of the following cranial nerves would an acoustic neuroma be found A. Third B. Eighth C. Tenth D. Twelfth

B. Eighth

Ct images acquired in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the scout image shown are considered _______ images A. Axial B. Sagittarius C. Coronal D. Trans axial

C. Coronal

During a ct evaluation of a lumbar disk space the scan range should be A. From the mid body of the vertebra above and to the mid body of the vertebra below B. From below the spinous process of the vertebra above and to the spinous process of the vertebra below c. The entire vertebral bodies both above and below the disk D.from the pedicle of the vertebra above and to the pedicle of the vertebra below

D.from the pedicle of the vertebra above and to the pedicle of the vertebra below

which of the following would not be used as site for the injection of iodinated contrast a. cephalic vein b. brachial artery c. antecubital vein d. baslic vein

b. brachial artery

the kidneys are usually located anatomically between which vertebrae a. t6 and l2 b. t12 and l3 c. l2 and l4 d. l3 and s1

b. t12 and l3

which of the following is a solid-state device used to record the light flashes given off by a scintillation crystal a. photomultiplier tube b. anode c. photodiode d. input phosphor

c. photodiode

a ct image is displayed in a window with level of +200 and width of 1000 which of the following statements are correct a. pixels with values between +200 and -1000 hounsfield units appear white b. pixels with values greater than +200 hounsfield units appear black c. pixels with values between -300 and +700 hounsfield units are assigned shades of gray d. pixels with values between -1200 and +1200 hounsfield units are assigned shades of gray

c. pixels with values between -300 and +700 hounsfield units are assigned shades of gray

number 4 corresponds to which of the following a. erector spinae muscle b. sigmoid colon c. psoas muscle d. renal cyst

c. psoas muscle

which of the following would reduce the step artifact shown on the image a. switch from standard algorithm to bone b. increase threshold setting c. reduce section width from 10 mm to 3 mm d. decrease threshold setting

c. reduce section width from 10 mm to 3 mm

the most effective method of reducing involuntary motion on a ct image is through a. immobilization b. thorough explanation of the examination to the patient c. reduced scan times d. physical restraint

c. reduced scan times

which of the following statements regarding the image is correct a. oral iodinated contrast was administered 2 hours before scanning b. small SFOV was used c. the width of the window used to display the image is approximately 2000 houndsfield units d. the level of the window used to display the image is approximately -150 houndsfield units

c. the width of the window used to display the image is approximately 2000 houndsfield units

the processing technique used to include only bone tissue in this three dimensional model of the pelvis is called a. voxel gradient b. maximum intensity projection c. thresholding d. summed projection

c. thresholding

the first step in providing cardiopulmonary resuscitation is always a. to give 15 chest compressions b. to clear airway c. to call for help d. to begin rescue breathing

c. to call for help

Number 2 corresponds to which of the following A. Navicular B. Cuboid C. Cuneiform D. Talus

A. Navicular

an average ct number value for bone is a. +100 hounsfield units b. +500 hounsfield units c. +1000 hounsfield units d. +3000 hounsfield units

c. +1000 hounsfield units

collimation of the ct xray beam occurs 1. at the xray tube, regulating slice thickness 2. just prior to the patient, controlling the volume of tissue irradiated 3. prior to the detectors limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

the types of detectors used in ct include 1. gas ionization 2. stimulable phosphor 3. scintillation crystal a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

which of the following medications may be administered to a patient having a severe anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast material 1. epinephrine 2. atropine 3. diphenhydramine a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2, and 3

c. 1 and 3

which of the following scan parameters should be used for a three-dimensional disarticulation study of the hip such as in the model shown 1. 1 to 2 mm section width 2. small scan field of view 3. overlapping sections a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2, and 3

c. 1 and 3

which of the following technologic advances has led to the development of spiral and helical ct scanning 1. slip-ring technology 2. electron beam technology 3. high efficiency xray tubes a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

which of the following types of contrast were administered to the patient for this ct examination of the abdomen 1. oral iodinated contrast 2. oral effervescent negative contrast 3. intravenous iodinated contrast a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

which of the following are signs of hypovolemic shock 1. hypertension 2. oliguria 3. pallor a. 1 only b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1,2, and 3

c. 2 and 3

an average range for activated partial thromboplastin time is a. 10-12 seconds b. 17-21 seconds c. 28-34 seconds d. 43-55 seconds

c. 28-34 seconds

before scanning the liver after a bolus injection of iodinated contrast material, a delay of _________ should be applied a. o seconds b. 20 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 120 seconds

c. 45 seconds

which of the following sets of section widths and spacing is most suitable for a general survey ct of the neck a. 1.5 mm thick every 1.5 mm b. 3 mm thick every 5 mm c. 5 mm thick every 5 mm d. 10 mm thick every 10 mm

c. 5 mm thick every 5 mm

the normal pulse rate in a child is a. 30- 50 beats per minute b. 60-100 beats per minute c. 70-120 beats per minute d. 110-150 beats per minute

c. 70-120 beats per minute

which of the following types of media is not used to archive ct images a. 3.5 inch floppy disk b. magnetic tape c. VHS tape d. magnetic optical disk

c. VHS tape