*Review** OB PrepU Chapter 19 Nursing Management of Pregnancy at Risk: Pregnancy-Related Complications 60Qw/exp

During pregnancy a woman's blood volume increases to accommodate the growing fetus to the point that vital signs may remain within normal range without showing signs of shock until the woman has lost what percentage of her blood volume? 40% 20% 50% 30%

40% Vital signs can be within normal range, even with significant blood loss, because a pregnant woman can lose up to 40% of her total blood volume without showing signs of shock.

A nurse in the maternity triage unit is caring for a client with a suspected ectopic pregnancy. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform first? Provide emotional support to the client and significant other. Assess the client's vital signs. Administer oxygen to the client. Obtain a surgical consent from the client.

Assess the client's vital signs. A suspected ectopic pregnancy can put the client at risk for hypovolemic shock. The assessment of vital signs should be performed first, followed by any procedures to maintain the ABCs. Providing emotional support would also occur, as would obtaining a surgical consent, if needed, but these are not first steps.

A nurse is caring for a young woman who is in her 10th week of gestation. She comes into the clinic reporting vaginal bleeding. Which assessment finding best correlates with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole? Brisk deep tendon reflexes and shoulder pain Painful uterine contractions and nausea Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding Dark red, "clumpy" vaginal discharge

Dark red, "clumpy" vaginal discharge If a complete molar pregnancy continues into the second trimester undetected, other signs and symptoms appear. The woman often presents with complaints of dark to bright red vaginal bleeding and pelvic pain. Infrequently, she will report passage of grapelike vesicles.

The nursing instructor is preparing a presentation illustrating spontaneous abortion. The instructor should point out that approximately 25% of all pregnancies end in spontaneous abortion. True False

False Spontaneous abortion or miscarriage occurs in 15% to 20% of all pregnancies and arises from natural causes.

A 25-week-gestation client presents with a blood pressure of 152/99, pulse 78, no edema, and urine negative for protein. What would the nurse do next? Notify the health care provider Document the client's blood pressure Assess the client for ketonuria Provide health education

Notify the health care provider The client is exhibiting a sign of gestational hypertension, elevated blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mm Hg that develops for the first time during pregnancy. The health care provider should be notified to assess the client. Without the presence of edema or protein in the urine, the client does not have preeclampsia.

The nurse is caring for a client with preeclampsia and understands the need to auscultate this client's lung sounds every 2 hours. Why would the nurse do this? Pulmonary hypertension Pulmonary edema Pulmonary atelectasis Pulmonary emboli

Pulmonary edema In the hospital, monitor blood pressure at least every 4 hours for mild preeclampsia and more frequently for severe disease. In addition, it is important to auscultate the lungs every 2 hours. Adventitious sounds may indicate developing pulmonary edema.

The nurse is caring for a woman at 32 weeks gestation with severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize after the administration of hydralazine to this client? Sweating Halos around lights Gastrointestinal bleeding Tachycardia

Tachycardia Hydralazine reduces blood pressure but is associated with adverse effects such as palpitation, tachycardia, headache, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. It does not cause gastrointestinal bleeding, blurred vision (halos around lights), or sweating. Magnesium sulfate may cause sweating.

A young woman presents at the emergency department reporting lower abdominal cramping and spotting at 12 weeks' gestation. The primary care provider performs a pelvic examination and finds that the cervix is closed. What does the care provider suspect is the cause of the cramps and spotting? Threatened abortion Cervical insufficiency Habitual abortion Ectopic pregnancy

Threatened abortion Spontaneous abortion occurs along a continuum: threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, missed. The definition of each category is related to whether or not the uterus is emptied, or for how long the products of conception are retained.

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for the possibility of preexisting conditions that could lead to complications during pregnancy. The nurse suspects that the woman is at risk for hydramnios based on which preexisting condition? isoimmunization diabetes hypertension late maternal age

diabetes Approximately 18% of all women with diabetes will develop hydramnios during their pregnancy. Hydramnios occurs in approximately 3% of all pregnancies and is associated with fetal anomalies of development.

A client in her 20th week of gestation develops HELLP syndrome. What are features of HELLP syndrome? Select all that apply. leukocytosis hyperthermia low platelet count hemolysis elevated liver enzymes

low platelet count hemolysis elevated liver enzymes The HELLP syndrome is a syndrome involving hemolysis (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia), elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. Hyperthermia and leukocytosis are not features of HELLP syndrome.

The nurse is teaching a client who is diagnosed with preeclampsia how to monitor her condition. The nurse determines the client needs more instruction after making which statement? "If I have a severe headache, I'll call the clinic." "I will weigh myself every morning after voiding before breakfast." "I will count my baby's movements after each meal." "If I have changes in my vision, I will lie down and rest."

"If I have changes in my vision, I will lie down and rest." Changes in the visual field may indicate the client has moved from preeclampsia to severe preeclampisa and is at risk for developing a seizure due to changes in cerebral blood flow. The client would require immediate assessment and intervention. Gaining weight is not necessarily a sign of worsening preeclampsia. The other choices are instructions which the client may be given to follow.

The nurse is teaching a prenatal class on potential problems during pregnancy to a group of expectant parents. The risk factors for placental abruption are discussed. What comment validates accurate learning by the parents? "Since I am over 30, I run a much higher risk of developing this problem." "I need a cesarean section if I develop this problem." "If I develop this complication, I will have bright red vaginal bleeding," "Placental abruption is quite painful and I will need to let the doctor know if I begin to have abdominal pain."

"Placental abruption is quite painful and I will need to let the doctor know if I begin to have abdominal pain." Placental abruption occurs when there is a spontaneous separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. It can occur anywhere on the placenta and will cause painful, dark red vaginal bleeding. If the abruption is small, the physician will try to deliver the fetus vaginally. But if severe bleeding occurs or there is fetal distress, a C-section is done. Women older than 35 are also at higher risk for developing placental abruption.

A client with a history of cervical insufficiency is seen for reports of pink-tinged discharge and pelvic pressure. The primary care provider decides to perform a cervical cerclage. The nurse teaches the client about the procedure. Which client response indicates that the teaching has been effective? "The cervix is glued shut so no amniotic fluid can escape." "Purse-string sutures are placed in the cervix to prevent it from dilating." "Staples are put in the cervix to prevent it from dilating." "A cervical cap is placed so no amniotic fluid can escape."

"Purse-string sutures are placed in the cervix to prevent it from dilating." The cerclage, or purse string suture is inserted into the cervix to prevent preterm cervical dilatation and pregnancy loss. Staples, glue, or a cervical cap will not prevent the cervix from dilating.

The nurse is comforting and listening to a young couple who just suffered a miscarriage. When asked why this happened, which reason should the nurse share as a common cause? Chromosomal abnormality Maternal smoking The age of the mother Lack of prenatal care

Chromosomal abnormality The most common cause for the loss of a fetus in the first trimester is associated with a genetic defect or chromosomal abnormality. There is nothing that can be done, and the mother should feel no fault. The nurse needs to encourage the parents to speak with a health care provider for further information and questions related to genetic testing. Early pregnancy loss is not associated with maternal smoking, lack of prenatal care, or the age of the mother.

A primipara at 36 weeks' gestation is being monitored in the prenatal clinic for risk of preeclampsia. Which sign or symptom should the nurse prioritize? A systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg A dipstick value of 2+ for protein Pedal edema Weight gain of 1.2 lb (0.54 kg) during the past 1 week

A dipstick value of 2+ for protein The increasing amount of protein in the urine is a concern the preeclampsia may be progressing to severe preeclampsia. The woman needs further assessment by the health care provider. Dependent edema may be seen in a majority of pregnant women and is not an indicator of progression from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Weight gain is no longer considered an indicator for the progression of preeclampsia. A systolic blood pressure increase is not the highest priority concern for the nurse, since there is no indication what the baseline blood pressure was.

A nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing action is the priority for this client? Set up for a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy. Administer total parenteral nutrition. Administer IV NS with vitamins and electrolytes. Administer an antiemetic.

Administer IV NS with vitamins and electrolytes. The first choice for fluid replacement is generally NS with vitamins and electrolytes added. If the client does not improve after several days of bed rest, "gut rest," IV fluids, and antiemetics, then total parenteral nutrition or percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube feeding is instituted to prevent malnutrition.

A woman in her 20s has experienced a miscarriage at 10 weeks' gestation and asks the nurse at the hospital what went wrong. She is concerned that she did something that caused her to lose her baby. The nurse can reassure the woman by explaining that the most common cause of spontaneous miscarriage in the first trimester is related to which factor? Chromosomal defects in the fetus Advanced maternal age Faulty implantation Exposure to chemicals or radiation

Chromosomal defects in the fetus Fetal factors are the most common cause of early miscarriages, with chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus being the most common reason. This client fits the criteria for early miscarriage since she was only 10 weeks pregnant and early miscarriage occurs before 12 weeks.

A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. Which nursing intervention is the priority? Check for vaginal bleeding every 15 minutes. Confine the client to bed rest in a darkened room. Keep the client on her side so that secretions can drain from her mouth. Administer oxygen by face mask.

Confine the client to bed rest in a darkened room. With severe preeclampsia, most women are hospitalized so that bed rest can be enforced and a woman can be observed more closely than she can be on home care. The nurse should darken the room if possible because a bright light can also trigger seizures. The other interventions listed pertain to a client who has experienced a seizure and has thus progressed to eclampsia.

A client tells that nurse in the doctor's office that her friend developed high blood pressure on her last pregnancy. She is concerned that she will have the same problem. What is the standard of care for preeclampsia? Monitor the client for headaches or swelling on the body. Take one aspirin every day. Have her blood pressure checked at every prenatal visit. Take low-dose antihypertensive prophylactically.

Have her blood pressure checked at every prenatal visit. Preeclampsia and eclampsia are common problems for pregnant clients and require regular blood pressure monitoring at all prenatal visits. Antihypertensives are not prescribed unless the client is already hypertensive. Monitoring for headaches and swelling is a good predictor of a problem but doesn't address prevention— nor does it predict who will have hypertension. Taking aspirin has shown to reduce the risk in women who have moderate to high risk factors, but has shown no effect on those women with low risk factors.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with severe preeclampsia. Which nursing intervention should a nurse perform to institute and maintain seizure precautions in this client? Provide a well-lit room. Keep head of bed slightly elevated. Keep the suction equipment readily available. Place the client in a supine position.

Keep the suction equipment readily available. The nurse should institute and maintain seizure precautions such as padding the side rails and having oxygen, suction equipment, and call light readily available to protect the client from injury. The nurse should provide a quiet, darkened room to stabilize the client. The nurse should maintain the client on complete bed rest in the left lateral lying position and not in a supine position. Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated will not help maintain seizure precautions.

A client at 27 weeks' gestation is admitted to the OB unit after reporting headaches and edema of her hands. Review of the prenatal notes reveals BP consistently above 136/90 mm Hg. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will order magneisum sulfate to accomplish which primary goal? Prevent maternal seizures Reverse edema Decrease protein in urine Decrease blood pressure

Prevent maternal seizures The primary therapy goal for any preeclamptic client is to prevent maternal seizures. Use of magnesium sulfate is the drug therapy of choice for severe preeclampsia and is only used to manage and attempt to prevent progression to eclampsia. Magnesium sulfate therapy does not have as its primary goal a decrease in blood pressure, a decrease in protein in the urine, nor the reversal of edema.

A young mother gives birth to twin boys who shared the same placenta. What serious complication are they at risk for? TORCH syndrome ABO incompatibility Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) HELLP syndrome

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) When twins share a placenta, a serious condition called twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) can occur.

The nurse is required to assess a pregnant client who is reporting vaginal bleeding. Which nursing action is the priority? determining the amount of funneling monitoring uterine contractility assessing signs of shock assessing the amount and color of the bleeding

assessing the amount and color of the bleeding When the woman arrives and is admitted, assessing her vital signs, the amount and color of the bleeding, and current pain rating on a scale of 1 to 10 are the priorities. Assessing the signs of shock, monitoring uterine contractility, and determining the amount of funneling are not priority assessments when a pregnant woman complaining of vaginal bleeding is admitted to the hospital.

A woman is being closely monitored and treated for severe preeclampsia with magnesium sulfate. Which finding would alert the nurse to the development of magnesium toxicity in this client? elevated liver enzymes diminished reflexes seizures serum magnesium level of 6.5 mEq/L

diminished reflexes Diminished or absent reflexes occur when a client develops magnesium toxicity. Elevated liver enzymes are unrelated to magnesium toxicity and may indicate the development of HELLP syndrome. The onset of seizure activity indicates eclampsia. A serum magnesium level of 6.5 mEq/L would fall within the therapeutic range of 4 to 7 mEq/L.

A nurse is conducting a refresher program for a group of perinatal nurses. Part of the program involves a discussion of HELLP. The nurse determines that the group needs additional teaching when they identify which aspect as a part of HELLP? hemolysis low platelet count liver enzyme elevation elevated lipoproteins

elevated lipoproteins The acronym HELLP represents hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This syndrome is a variant of preeclampsia/eclampsia syndrome that occurs in 10% to 20% of clients whose diseases are labeled as severe.

A client has been admitted with abruptio placentae. She has lost 1,200 mL of blood, is normotensive, and ultrasound indicates approximately 30% separation. The nurse documents this as which classification of abruptio placentae? grade 1 grade 4 grade 2 grade 3

grade 2 The classifications for abruptio placentae are: grade 1 (mild) - minimal bleeding (less than 500 mL), 10% to 20% separation, tender uterus, no coagulopathy, signs of shock or fetal distress; grade 2 (moderate) - moderate bleeding (1,000 to 1,500 mL), 20% to 50% separation, continuous abdominal pain, mild shock, normal maternal blood pressure, maternal tachycardia; grade 3 (severe) - absent to moderate bleeding (more than 1,500 mL), more than 50% separation, profound shock, dark vaginal bleeding, agonizing abdominal pain, decreased blood pressure, significant tachycardia, and development of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. There is no grade 4.

What would be the physiologic basis for a placenta previa? a placenta with multiple lobes a uterus with a midseptum low placental implantation a loose placental implantation

low placental implantation The cause of placenta previa is usually unknown, but for some reason the placenta is implanted low instead of high on the uterus.

A pregnant woman with preeclampsia is to receive magnesium sulfate IV. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize before administering a new dose? anxiety level blood pressure heart rate patellar reflex

patellar reflex A symptom of magnesium sulfate toxicity is loss of deep tendon reflexes. Assessing for the patellar reflex or ankle clonus before administration is assurance the drug administration will be safe. Assessing the blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety level would not reveal a potential magnesium toxicity.

A pregnant woman has arrived to the office reporting vaginal bleeding. Which finding during the assessment would lead the nurse to suspect an inevitable abortion? no passage of fetal tissue slight vaginal bleeding closed cervical os strong abdominal cramping

strong abdominal cramping Strong aominal cramping is associated with an inevitable spontaneous abortion. Slight vaginal bleeding early in pregnancy and a closed cervical os are associated with a threatened abortion. With an inevitable abortion, passage of the products of conception may occur. No fetal tissue is passed with a threatened abortion.

After a regular prenatal visit, a pregnant client asks the nurse to describe the differences between abruptio placentae and placenta previa. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching? "Placenta previa causes painless, bright red bleeding during pregnancy due to an abnormally implanted placenta that is too close to or covers the cervix; abruptio placentae is associated with dark red painful bleeding caused by premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus before the end of labor." "Placenta previa causes painful, dark red bleeding during pregnancy due to an abnormally implanted placentae that is too close to or covers the cervix; abruptio placenta is associated with bright red painless bleeding caused by premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus before the end of labor." "Placenta previa causes painful, dark red bleeding during pregnancy due to an abnormally implanted placenta that is too close to or covers the fundus; abruptio placentae is associated with right red painless bleeding caused by premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus before the end of labor." "Placenta previa causes painless, bright red bleeding during pregnancy due to an abnormally implanted placenta that is too close to or covers the fundus; abruptio placentae is associated with dark red painful bleeding caused by premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus before the end of labor."

"Placenta previa causes painless, bright red bleeding during pregnancy due to an abnormally implanted placenta that is too close to or covers the cervix; abruptio placentae is associated with dark red painful bleeding caused by premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus before the end of labor." Placenta previa is a condition of pregnancy in which the placenta is implanted abnormally in the lower part of the uterus and is the most common cause of painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester. Abruptio placenta is the premature separation of a normally implanted placenta that pulls away from the wall of the uterus either during pregnancy or before the end of labor.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with fallopian tube rupture. Which intervention is the priority for this client? Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR). Monitor the client's vital signs and bleeding. Monitor the mass with transvaginal ultrasound. Monitor the client's beta-hCG level.

Monitor the client's vital signs and bleeding. A nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and bleeding (peritoneal or vaginal) to identify hypovolemic shock that may occur with tubal rupture. Beta-hCG level is monitored to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy or impending abortion. Monitoring the mass with transvaginal ultrasound and determining the size of the mass are done for diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy. Monitoring the FHR does not help to identify hypovolemic shock.

A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 at 36 weeks' gestation comes to the obstetric department reporting abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 164/90 mm/Hg, her pulse is 100 beats per minute, and her respirations are 24 per minute. She is restless and slightly diaphoretic with a small amount of dark red vaginal bleeding. What assessment should the nurse make next? Obtain a voided urine specimen, and determine blood type. Palpate the fundus, and check fetal heart rate. Check deep tendon reflexes. Measure fundal height.

Palpate the fundus, and check fetal heart rate. The classic signs of abruptio placentae are pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, a rigid, board-like abdomen, hypertonic labor, and fetal distress.

A 35-year-old client is seen for her 2-week postoperative appointment after a suction curettage was performed to evacuate a hydatidiform mole. The nurse explains that the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be reviewed every 2 weeks and teaches about the need for reliable contraception for the next 6 months to a year. The client states, "I'm 35 already. Why do I have to wait that long to get pregnant again?" What is the nurse's best response? "A contraceptive is used so that a positive pregnancy test resulting from a new pregnancy will not be confused with the increased level of hCG that occurs with a developing malignancy." "After a curettage procedure, it is recommended that you give your body some time to build up its stores." "You may need chemotherapy, so we don't want to risk pregnancy." "Since you are at the end of your reproductive years, it is suggested that you don't try to have any more pregnancies"

"A contraceptive is used so that a positive pregnancy test resulting from a new pregnancy will not be confused with the increased level of hCG that occurs with a developing malignancy." Because of the risk of choriocarcinoma, the woman receives extensive treatment. Therapy includes baseline chest X-ray to detect lung metastasis, plus a physical exam (including a pelvic exam). Serum B-hCG levels weekly until negative results are obtained three consecutive times, then monthly for 6 to 12 months. The woman is cautioned to avoid pregnancy during this time because the increasing B-hCG levels associated with pregnancy would cause confusion as to whether cancer had developed. If after a year B-hCG seruim titers are within normal levels, a normal pregnancy can be achieved.

A woman at 8 weeks' gestation is admitted for ectopic pregnancy. She is asking why this has occurred. The nurse knows that which factor is a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy? use of IUD for contraception use of oral contraceptives multiple gestation pregnancy high number of pregnancies

use of IUD for contraception Use of an IUD with progesterone has a known increased risk for development of ectopic pregnancies. The nurse needs to complete a full history of the client to determine if she had any other risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy. Adhesions, scarring, and narrowing of the tubal lumen may block the zygote's progress to the uterus. Any condition or surgical procedure that can injure a fallopian tube increases the risk. Examples include salpingitis, infection of the fallopian tube, endometriosis, history of prior ectopic pregnancy, any type of tubal surgery, congenital malformation of the tube, and multiple elective abortions. Conditions that inhibit peristalsis of the tube can result in tubal pregnancy. Hormonal factors may play a role because tubal pregnancy occurs more frequently in women who take fertility drugs or who use progesterone intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs). A high number of pregnancies, multiple gestation pregnancy, and the use of oral contraceptives are not known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy.

A client in her first trimester arrives at the emergency room with reports of severe cramping and vaginal spotting. On examination, the health care provider informs her that no fetal heart sounds are evident and orders a dilatation and curettage. The client looks frightened and confused and states that she does not believe in abortion. Which statement by the nurse is best? "You have experienced an incomplete miscarriage and must have the placenta and any other tissues cleaned out." "Unfortunately, the pregnancy is already lost. The procedure is to clear the uterus to prevent further complications." "I know that it is sad but the pregnancy must be terminated to save your life." "The choice is up to you but the healthcare provider is recommending an abortion."

"Unfortunately, the pregnancy is already lost. The procedure is to clear the uterus to prevent further complications." The nurse should not inform the client what she must do but supply information about what has happened and teach the client about the treatments which are used to correct the situation. A threatened miscarriage becomes an imminent (inevitable) miscarriage if uterine contractions and cervical dilation occur. A woman who reports cramping or uterine contractions is asked to seek medical attention. If no fetal heart sounds are detected and an ultrasound reveals an empty uterus or nonviable fetus, her health care provider may perform a dilatation and curettage (D&C) or a dilation and evacuation (D&E) to ensure all products of conception are removed. Be certain the woman has been told the pregnancy was already lost and all procedures, such as suction curettage, are to clear the uterus and prevent further complications such as infection, not to end the pregnancy. This scenario does not involve an elective abortion or an incomplete miscarriage.

A primigravida 28-year-old client is noted to have Rh negative blood and her husband is noted to be Rh positive. The nurse should prepare to administer RhoGAM after which diagnostic procedure? Nonstress test Biophysical profile Amniocentesis Contraction test

Amniocentesis Amniocentesis is a procedure requiring a needle to enter into the amniotic sac. There is a risk of mixing of the fetal and maternal blood which could result in blood incompatibility. A contraction test, a nonstress test, and biophysical profile are not invasive, so there would be no indication for Rho(D) immune globulin to be administered.

A nurse is preparing a nursing care plan for a client who is admitted at 22 weeks' gestation with advanced cervical dilatation to 5 cm, cervical insufficiency, and a visible amniotic sac at the cervical opening. Which primary goal should the nurse prioritize at this point? Notification of social support for loss of pregnancy Give birth vaginally Bed rest to maintain pregnancy as long as possible Education on causes of cervical insufficiency for the future

Bed rest to maintain pregnancy as long as possible At 22 weeks' gestation, the fetus is not viable. The woman would be placed on total bed rest with every attempt made to halt any further progression of dilatation of the cervix. The nurse would not want this fetus to be born vaginally at this stage of gestation. It is not the nurse's responsibility to notify the client's social support of a possible loss of the pregnancy. It is not appropriate at this time to educate the mother on causes of cervical insufficiency for future pregnancies.

A 28-year-old client with a history of endometriosis presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and nausea and vomiting. The client also reports her periods are irregular with the last one being 2 months ago. The nurse prepares to assess for which possible cause for this client's complaints? Healthy pregnancy Ectopic pregnancy Placenta previa Molar pregnancy

Ectopic pregnancy The most commonly reported symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are pelvic pain and/or vaginal spotting. Other symptoms of early pregnancy, such as breast tenderness, nausea, and vomiting, may also be present. The diagnosis is not always immediately apparent because many women present with complaints of diffuse abdominal pain and minimal to no vaginal bleeding. Steps are taken to diagnose the disorder and rule out other causes of abdominal pain. Given the history of the client and the amount of pain, the possibility of ectopic pregnancy needs to be considered. A healthy pregnancy would not present with severe abdominal pain unless the client were term and she was in labor. With a molar pregnancy the woman typically presents between 8 to 16 weeks' gestation reporting painless (usually) brown to bright red vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa typically presents with painless, bright red bleeding that begins with no warning.

A 24-year-old woman presents with vague abdominal pains, nausea, and vomiting. An urine hCG is positive after the client mentioned that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. The nurse should prepare the client for which intervention if the transvaginal ultrasound indicates a gestation sac is found in the right lower quadrant? Bed rest for the next 4 weeks Intravenous administration of a tocolytic Immediate surgery Internal uterine monitoring

Immediate surgery The client presents with the signs and symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy, which is confirmed by the transvaginal ultrasound. Ectopic pregnancy means an embryo has implanted outside the uterus. Surgery is necessary to remove the growing structure before damage can occur to the woman's internal organs. Bed rest, a tocolytic, and internal uterine monitoring will not correct the situation. The growing structure must be removed surgically.

A 25-year-old client at 22 weeks' gestation is noted to have proteinuria and dependent edema on her routine prenatal visit. Which additional assessment should the nurse prioritize and alert the RN or health care provider? Initial BP 110/60 mm Hg; current BP 112/86 mm Hg Initial BP 120/80mm Hg; current BP 130/88 mm Hg Initial BP 100/70 mm Hg; current BP 140/90 mm Hg Initial BP 140/85 mm Hg; current BP 130/80 mm Hg

Initial BP 100/70 mm Hg; current BP 140/90 mm Hg A proteinuria of trace to 1+ and a rise in blood pressure to above 140/90 mm Hg is a concern the client may be developing preeclampsia. The blood pressures noted in the other options are not indicative of developing preeclampsia. The edema would not necessarily be indicative of preeclampsia; however, edema of the face and hands would be a concerning sign for severe preeclampsia.

A woman who is 10 weeks' pregnant calls the physician's office reporting "morning sickness" but, when asked about it, tells the nurse that she is nauseated and vomiting all the time and has lost 5 pounds. What interventions would the nurse anticipate for this client? The nurse will encourage the woman to lie down and rest whenever she feels ill. Lab work will be drawn to rule out acid-base imbalances. Since morning sickness is a common problem for pregnant women, the nurse will suggest the woman drink more fluids and eat crackers. An ultrasound will be done to reassess the correctness of gestational dates.

Lab work will be drawn to rule out acid-base imbalances. Morning sickness that lasts all day and is severe is called hyperemesis gravidarum. It is much more serious than "morning sickness" and can lead to significant weight loss and electrolyte imbalance. Lab work needs to be drawn to determine the extent of electrolyte loss and acid-base balance. An ultrasound is performed but it is done to determine if the mother is experiencing a molar pregnancy. Treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum requires much more care than just rest, drinking fluids and eating crackers.

A woman in labor suddenly reports sharp fundal pain accompanied by slight dark red vaginal bleeding. The nurse should prepare to assist with which situation? Preterm labor that was undiagnosed Premature separation of the placenta Possible fetal death or injury Placenta previa obstructing the cervix

Premature separation of the placenta Premature separation of the placenta begins with sharp fundal pain, usually followed by dark red vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa usually produces painless bright red bleeding. Preterm labor contractions are more often described as cramping. Possible fetal death or injury does not present with sharp fundal pain. It is usually painless.

A client at 37 weeks' gestation presents to the emergency department with a BP 150/108 mm Hg, 1+ pedal edema, 1+ proteinuria, and normal deep tendon reflexes. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize as the client is administered magnesium sulfate IV? Hemoglobin Respiratory rate Urine protein Ability to sleep

Respiratory rate The level of magnesium in therapeutic range is 4 to 8 mg/dL. If magnesium toxicity occurs, one sign in the client will be a decrease in the respiratory rate and a potential respiratory arrest. Respiratory rate will be monitored when on this medication. The client's hemoglobin and ability to sleep are not factors for ongoing assessments for the client on magnesium sulfate. Urinary output is measured hourly on the preeclamptic client receiving magnesium sulfate, but urine protein is not an ongoing assessment.

A nurse is describing the use of Rho(D) immune globulin as the therapy of choice for isoimmunization in Rh-negative women and for other conditions to a group of nurses working at the women's health clinic. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the group identifies which situation as an indication for Rho(D) immune globulin? maternal trauma molar pregnancy amniocentesis STIs

STIs Indications for Rho(D) immune globulin include isoimmunization, ectopic pregnancy, chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis, prenatal hemorrhage, molar pregnancy, maternal trauma, percutaneous umbilical sampling, therapeutic or spontaneous abortion, fetal death, or fetal surgery.

The nurse is transcribing messages from the answering service. Which phone message should the nurse return first? a 25-year-old, 31-week G1P0 client with blood pressure of 100/80 mm Hg and left flank pain; the client's last blood pressure was 100/77 mm Hg and she had no proteinuria an 18-year-old, 38-week G2P1 client with intermittent cramping; the client's last blood pressure was 98/50 mm Hg, and proteinuria was 1+ a 20-year-old, 31-week G1P0 client with malaise and rhinitis; the client's last blood pressure was 120/80 mm Hg, and she had no proteinuria a 35-year-old, 21-week G3P2 client with blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg, blurred vision, and whose last blood pressure was 143/99 mm Hg and urine dipstick showed a +2 proteinuria

a 35-year-old, 21-week G3P2 client with blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg, blurred vision, and whose last blood pressure was 143/99 mm Hg and urine dipstick showed a +2 proteinuria The nurse should call the at-risk 35-year-old client first. She is 21 weeks and has symptoms (blurred vision) of preeclampsia. She also had an increase of protein in her urine (2+) and a 15% increase in her BP. The nurse will need more information to determine if the 38-week client may be in the early stages of labor, and if the 31-week client with flank pain has a kidney infection. The client with malaise and rhinitis will need to talk to the nurse last to find out what over-the-counter medication she is able to take.

A nurse is caring for a client who just experienced a miscarriage in her first trimester. When asked by the client why this happened, which is the best response from the nurse? lack of sufficient progesterone produced by the corpus luteum rejection of the embryo through an immune response implantation abnormality abnormal fetal development

abnormal fetal development The most frequent cause of miscarriage in the first trimester of pregnancy is abnormal fetal development, due either to a teratogenic factor or to a chromosomal aberration. In other miscarriages, immunologic factors may be present or rejection of the embryo through an immune response may occur. Another common cause of early miscarriage involves implantation abnormalities. Miscarriage may also occur if the corpus luteum on the ovary fails to produce enough progesterone to maintain the decidua basalis.

A woman with an incomplete abortion is to receive misoprostol. The woman asks the nurse, "Why am I getting this drug?" The nurse responds to the client, integrating understanding that this drug achieves which effect? suppresses the immune response to prevent isoimmunization alleviates strong uterine cramping ensures passage of all the products of conception halts the progression of the abortion

ensures passage of all the products of conception Misoprostol is used to stimulate uterine contractions and evacuate the uterus after an abortion to ensure passage of all the products of conception. Rho(D) immune globulin is used to suppress the immune response and prevent isoimmunization.

A nurse is monitoring a client with PROM who is in labor and observes meconium in the amniotic fluid. What does the observation of meconium indicate? infection fetal distress related to hypoxia cord compression central nervous system (CNS) involvement

fetal distress related to hypoxia When meconium is present in the amniotic fluid, it typically indicates fetal distress related to hypoxia. Meconium stains the fluid yellow to greenish brown, depending on the amount present. A decreased amount of amniotic fluid reduces the cushioning effect, thereby making cord compression a possibility. A foul odor of amniotic fluid indicates infection. Meconium in the amniotic fluid does not indicate CNS involvement.

A client has come to the office for a prenatal visit during her 22nd week of gestation. On examination, it is noted that her blood pressure has increased to 138/90 mm Hg. Her urine is negative for proteinuria. The nurse recognizes which factor as the potential cause? gestational hypertension HELLP chronic hypertension preeclampsia

gestational hypertension Gestational hypertension is characterized by hypertension without proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation resolving by 12 weeks postpartum. It is defined as systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 mm Hg and/or diastolic of greater than 90 mm Hg on at least two occasions at least 6 hours apart after the 20th week of gestation, in women known to be normotensive prior to this time and prior to pregnancy. HELLP is an acronym that refers to hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Preeclampsia may result if hypertension is not controlled or advances to a more severe state.

A novice nurse asks to be assigned to the least complex antepartum client. Which condition would necessitate the least complex care requirements? placenta previa abruptio placenta gestational hypertension preecalmpsia

gestational hypertension Hypertensive disorders represent the most common complication of pregnancy. Gestational hypertension is elevated blood pressure without proteinuria, other signs of preeclampsia, or preexisting hypertension. Abruptio placenta (separation of the placenta from the uterine wall), placenta previa (placenta covering the cervical os), and preeclampsia are high-risk, potentially life-threatening conditions for the fetus and mother during labor and birth.

A pregnant client has been admitted with reports of brownish vaginal bleeding. On examination there is an elevated hCG level, absent fetal heart sounds, and a discrepancy between the uterine size and the gestational age. The nurse interprets these findings to suggest which condition? gestational trophoblastic disease ectopic pregnancy placenta previa abruption of placenta

gestational trophoblastic disease The client is most likely experiencing gestational trophoblastic disease or a molar pregnancy. In gestational trophoblastic disease or molar pregnancy, there is an abnormal proliferation and eventual degeneration of the trophoblastic villi. The signs and symptoms of molar pregnancy include brownish vaginal bleeding, elevated hCG levels, discrepancy between the uterine size and the gestational age, and absent fetal heart sounds. Abruption of placenta is characterized by premature separation of the placenta. Ectopic pregnancy is a condition where there is implantation of the blastocyst outside the uterus. In placenta previa the placental attachment is at the lower uterine segment.

A nurse is taking a history of a client at 5 weeks' gestation in the prenatal clinic; however, the client is reporting dark brown vaginal discharge, nausea, and vomiting. Which diagnosis should the nurse suspect? hyperemesis gravidarum pregnancy-induced depression gestational trophoblastic disease placenta previa

gestational trophoblastic disease This client has risk factors of a "molar" pregnancy: nausea and vomiting at an early gestational week and dark brown vaginal discharge. The early nausea/vomiting can be due to a high HCG level, which is a sign of gestational trophoblastic disease. There is only one sign/symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum. Placenta previa is marked by bright red bleeding and tends to happen later in gestation. There are no data to support any psychosis at this stage.

A nurse is providing care to a client who has been diagnosed with a common benign form of gestational trophoblastic disease. The nurse identifies this as: placenta accrete. ectopic pregnancy. hydatidiform mole. hydramnios.

hydatidiform mole. Gestational trophoblastic disease comprises a spectrum of neoplastic disorders that originate in the placenta. The two most common types are hydatidiform mole (partial or complete) and choriocarcinoma. Ectopic pregnancy, placenta accreta, and hydramnios fall into different categories of potential pregnancy complications.

Which measure would the nurse include in the plan of care for a woman with premature rupture of membranes if her fetus's lungs are mature? observation for signs of infection labor induction administration of corticosteroids reduction in physical activity level

labor induction With premature rupture of membranes in a woman whose fetus has mature lungs, induction of labor is initiated. Reducing physical activity, observing for signs of infection, and giving corticosteroids may be used for the woman with PROM when the fetal lungs are immature.

Which medication would the nurse prepare to administer if prescribed as treatment for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy? ondansetron methotrexate oxytocin promethazine

methotrexate Methotrexate, a folic acid antagonist that inhibits cell division in the developing embryo, is most commonly used to treat ectopic pregnancy. Oxytocin is used to stimulate uterine contractions and would be inappropriate for use with an ectopic pregnancy. Promethazine and ondansetron are antiemetics that may be used to treat hyperemesis gravidarum.

During a routine prenatal visit, a client is found to have proteinuria and a blood pressure rise to 140/90 mm Hg. The nurse recognizes that the client has which condition? eclampsia mild preeclampsia gestational hypertension severe preeclampsia

mild preeclampsia A woman is said to have gestational hypertension when she develops an elevated blood pressure (140/90 mm Hg) but has no proteinuria or edema. If a seizure from gestational hypertension occurs, a woman has eclampsia, but any status above gestational hypertension and below a point of seizures is preeclampsia. A woman is said to be mildly preeclamptic when she has proteinuria and a blood pressure rise to 140/90 mm Hg, taken on two occasions at least 6 hours apart. A woman has passed from mild to severe preeclampsia when her blood pressure rises to 160 mm Hg systolic and 110 mm Hg diastolic or above on at least two occasions 6 hours apart at bed rest (the position in which blood pressure is lowest) or her diastolic pressure is 30 mm Hg above her prepregnancy level. Marked proteinuria, 3+ or 4+ on a random urine sample or more than 5 g in a 24-hour sample, and extensive edema are also present. A woman has passed into eclampsia when cerebral edema is so acute a grand-mal seizure (tonic-clonic) or coma has occurred.

A woman in week 35 of her pregnancy with severe hydramnios is admitted to the hospital. The nurse recognizes that which concern is greatest regarding this client? preterm rupture of membranes followed by preterm birth hemorrhaging development of eclampsia development of gestational trophoblastic disease

preterm rupture of membranes followed by preterm birth Even with precautions, in most instances of hydramnios, there will be preterm rupture of the membranes because of excessive pressure, followed by preterm birth. The other answers are not as big of concerns as preterm birth, in this situation.

A 24-year-old client presents in labor. The nurse notes there is an order to administer RhoGAM after the birth of her infant. When asked by the client the reason for this injection, which reason should the nurse point out? prevent maternal D antibody formation. stimulate maternal D immune antigens. promote maternal D antibody formation. prevent fetal Rh blood formation.

prevent maternal D antibody formation. Because RhoGAM contains passive antibodies, the solution will prevent the woman from forming long-lasting antibodies which may harm a future fetus. The administration of RhoGAM does not promote the formation of maternal D antibodies; it does not stimulate maternal D immune antigens or prevent fetal Rh blood formation.

A pregnant client is brought to the health care facility with signs of premature rupture of the membranes (PROM). Which conditions and complications are associated with PROM? Select all that apply. prolapsed cord spontaneous abortion preterm labor abruptio placenta placenta previa

prolapsed cord preterm labor abruptio placenta The associated conditions and complications of premature rupture of the membranes are infection, prolapsed cord, abruptio placenta, and preterm labor. Spontaneous abortion and placenta previa are not associated conditions or complications of premature rupture of the membranes.

A woman has presented to the emergency department with symptoms that suggest an ectopic pregnancy. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the fallopian tube has ruptured? referred shoulder pain vaginal spotting breast tenderness nausea

referred shoulder pain Referred pain to the shoulder area indicates bleeding into the abdomen caused by phrenic nerve irritation when a tubal pregnancy ruptures. Vaginal spotting, nausea, and breast tenderness are typical findings of early pregnancy and an unruptured ectopic pregnancy.