Saunders - Renal

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The nurse should test the client's urine for proteinuria to determine which type of AKI? 1.Prerenal 2.Intrinsic 3.Atypical 4.Postrenal

2.Intrinsic In intrinsic failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and the urine tests positive for proteinuria. In prerenal failure, the specific gravity is high, and there is very little or no proteinuria. In postrenal failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and little or no proteinuria. There is no disorder known as atypical renal failure.

The nurse provides home care instructions to a client undergoing hemodialysis with regard to care of a newly created arteriovenous (AV) fistula. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective? 1."I should check the fistula every day by feeling it for a vibration." 2."I am glad that the laboratory will be able to draw my blood from the fistula." 3."I should wear a shirt with tight arms to provide some compression on the fistula." 4."I should check my blood pressure in the arm where I have my fistula every week."

1."I should check the fistula every day by feeling it for a vibration." An AV fistula provides access to the client's bloodstream for the dialysis procedure. The client is instructed to monitor fistula patency daily by palpating for a thrill (vibration feeling). The client is instructed to avoid compressing the fistula with tight clothing or when sleeping and that blood pressure measurements and blood draws should not be performed on the arm with the fistula. The client also is instructed to assess the fistula for signs and symptoms of infection, including pain, redness, swelling, and excessive warmth.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing metabolic acidosis. When performing an assessment, the nurse should expect to note which breathing pattern? 1.Apnea 2.Kussmaul respirations 3.Decreased respirations 4.Cheyne-Stokes respiration

2.Kussmaul respirations Clinical manifestations associated with AKI occur as a result of metabolic acidosis. The nurse would expect to note Kussmaul respirations as a result of the metabolic acidosis because the bodily response is to exhale excess carbon dioxide. The breathing patterns noted in options 1, 3, and 4 are not characteristic of AKI.

A client has chronic kidney disease (CKD) that does not yet require dialysis. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? 1."I will reduce the sodium in my diet, and I can use salt substitutes to spice my food." 2."The amount of fluid I can have every day depends on the amount of urine I put out." 3."I will weigh myself on my bathroom scale every morning right after I have urinated." 4."I should report a gain in weight, trouble with my breathing, or increased leg swelling."

1."I will reduce the sodium in my diet, and I can use salt substitutes to spice my food." CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in their ability to clear nitrogenous waste products and control fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Conservative treatment of CKD slows progression of the disease and includes reducing the protein, sodium, potassium, and phosphorus in the diet, and controlling the blood pressure. It is important to reduce the sodium in the diet. Salt substitutes usually are potassium-based and should not be used by a client with CKD because of the risk of hyperkalemia. The client should alter the fluid intake in relation to urine output. Obtaining a daily weight is an important measurement that indicates fluid volume. The client should also monitor for signs and symptoms of fluid overload, which could include an increase in weight, edema, and fluid collection in the lungs.

The nurse instructs a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of CAPD? 1."No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities." 2."A cycling machine is used, so the risk for infection is minimized." 3."The drainage system can be used once during the day and a cycling machine for 3 cycles at night." 4."A portable hemodialysis machine is used so that I will be able to ambulate during the treatment."

1."No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities." CAPD closely approximates normal renal function, and the client will need to infuse and drain the dialysis solution several times a day. No machinery is used, and CAPD is a manual procedure.

The registered nurse is instructing a new nursing graduate about hemodialysis. Which statement made by the new nursing graduate indicates an understanding of the procedure for hemodialysis? Select all that apply. 1."Sterile dialysate must be used." 2."Dialysate contains metabolic waste products." 3."Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis." 4."Dialysis cleanses the blood of accumulated waste products." 5."Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion."

1."Sterile dialysate must be used." 3."Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis." 4."Dialysis cleanses the blood of accumulated waste products." 5."Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion." Heparin sodium is used during dialysis, and it inhibits the tendency of blood to clot when it comes in contact with foreign substances. Option 4 is the purpose of dialysis. The dialysate is warmed to approximately 100º F to increase the efficiency of diffusion and to prevent a decrease in the client's blood temperature. Dialysate is made from clear water and chemicals and is free from any metabolic waste products or medications. Bacteria and other microorganisms are too large to pass through the membrane; therefore, the dialysate does not need to be sterile.

The nurse is working on a medical-surgical nursing unit and is caring for several clients with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that which client is best suited for peritoneal dialysis as a treatment option? 1.A client with severe heart failure 2.A client with a history of ruptured diverticula 3.A client with a history of herniated lumbar disk 4.A client with a history of 3 previous abdominal surgeries

1.A client with severe heart failure Peritoneal dialysis may be the treatment option of choice for clients with severe cardiovascular disease. Severe cardiac disease can be worsened by the rapid shifts in fluid, electrolytes, urea, and glucose that occur with hemodialysis. For the same reason, peritoneal dialysis may be indicated for the client with diabetes mellitus. Contraindications to peritoneal dialysis include diseases of the abdomen such as ruptured diverticula or malignancies; extensive abdominal surgeries; history of peritonitis; obesity; and a history of back problems, which could be aggravated by the fluid weight of the dialysate. Severe disease of the vascular system also may be a relative contraindication.

A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) has the problem of ineffective coping. Which nursing interventions are appropriate in working with this client? Select all that apply. 1.Acknowledge the client's feelings. 2.Assess the client and family's coping patterns. 3.Explore the meaning of the illness with the client. 4.Set limits on mood swings and expressions of hostility. 5.Give the client information when the client is ready to listen.

1.Acknowledge the client's feelings. 2.Assess the client and family's coping patterns. 3.Explore the meaning of the illness with the client. 5.Give the client information when the client is ready to listen. Clients with ESRD are likely to experience mood swings or express hostility, anger, and depression, among other responses. The nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings, allow the client to express those feelings, and be supportive. Options 1, 2, 3, and 5 are helpful and appropriate interventions for the client. Setting limits for this client is not client focused, does not allow the client to express concerns, and is nontherapeutic in this situation.

A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse determines that which neurological and psychosocial manifestations, if exhibited by this client, are related to the CKD? Select all that apply. 1.Agitation 2.Euphoria 3.Depression 4.Withdrawal 5.Labile emotions

1.Agitation 3.Depression 4.Withdrawal 5.Labile emotions The client with CKD often experiences a variety of psychosocial changes. These changes are related to uremia and to the stress associated with living with a chronic disease that is life threatening. Euphoria is not part of the clinical picture for the client in renal failure. Clients with CKD may have labile emotions or personality changes and may exhibit withdrawal, depression, or agitation which are used as coping mechanisms for a major life change. Delusions and psychosis also can occur.

A client has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication of glomerulonephritis. Which should the nurse expect to observe in the client? 1.Bradycardia 2.Hypertension 3.Decreased cardiac output 4.Decreased central venous pressure

2.Hypertension AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as intrinsic or intrarenal failure. This form of AKI commonly manifests with hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from prerenal causes is characterized by decreased blood pressure or a recent history of the same, tachycardia, and decreased cardiac output and central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of renal failure.

The nurse is working with a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to set up a schedule for hemodialysis. The client states, "This is impossible! How can I even think about leading a normal life again if this is what I'm going to have to do?" The nurse determines that the client is exhibiting which problem? 1.Anger 2.Projection 3.Depression 4.Withdrawal

1.Anger Psychosocial reactions to CKD and hemodialysis are varied and may include anger. Other reactions include personality changes, emotional lability, withdrawal, and depression. The individual client's response may vary depending on the client's personality and support systems. The client in this question is exhibiting anger. The client's behavior is not indicative of projection; in addition, the client's statement does not reflect withdrawal or depression.

The nurse is assessing the renal function of a client at risk for acute kidney injury. After noting the amount of urine output and urine characteristics, the nurse proceeds to assess which as the best indirect indicator of renal status? 1.Blood pressure 2.Apical heart rate 3.Jugular vein distention 4.Level of consciousness

1.Blood pressure The kidneys normally receive 20% to 25% of the cardiac output, even under conditions of rest. For kidney function to be optimal, adequate renal perfusion is necessary. Perfusion can best be estimated by the blood pressure, which is an indirect reflection of the adequacy of cardiac output. The heart rate affects the cardiac output but can be altered by factors unrelated to kidney function. Jugular vein distention and level of consciousness are unrelated items.

The client with chronic kidney disease has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. Which action should the nurse immediately take? 1.Change the dressing. 2.Reinforce the dressing. 3.Flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter. 4.Scrub the catheter with povidone-iodine

1.Change the dressing. Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1.Check the level of the drainage bag. 2.Reposition the client to her or his side. 3.Place the client in good body alignment. 4.Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 5.Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP). 6.Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

1.Check the level of the drainage bag. 2.Reposition the client to her or his side. 3.Place the client in good body alignment. 4.Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting, and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the PHCP. Increasing the flow rate should not be done and also is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.

Which finding noted in the client on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) should be reported to the primary health care provider (PHCP)? 1.Cloudy yellow dialysate output 2.Client refusal to take the stool softener 3.Previous evening's dwell time of 8 hours 4.Peritoneal catheter site is not red, and the skin has grown around the cuff

1.Cloudy yellow dialysate output CAPD is a form of peritoneal dialysis in which exchanges are completed 4 or 5 times daily. Peritonitis is a major complication of this type of dialysis. Peritonitis can be recognized by cloudy dialysate outflow, fever, abdominal guarding (board-like abdomen), abdominal pain, pain on inflow, malaise, nausea, and vomiting. The client has the right to refuse medications, but it also is important for the nurse to explain the importance of medications to the client. Typically the dwell time during the night is for the entire time that the client sleeps, which could be around 7 to 9 hours. The peritoneal site should have intact skin. The skin grows around the peritoneal catheter cuff, and this prevents tunnel (around catheter) infections.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been taking aluminum hydroxide gel. On the basis of this information, the nurse determines that the client is most at risk for which problem? 1.Constipation 2.Dehydration 3.Inability to tolerate activity 4.Impaired physical mobility

1.Constipation The client with CKD is almost certain to have a problem with constipation as a result of factors such as fluid restriction, fatigue that limits exercise, and dietary restrictions. In addition, phosphate-binding antacids such as aluminum hydroxide gel cause constipation as a side effect. The other problems listed are unrelated to the information in the question

The nurse is reviewing a client's record and notes that the primary health care provider has documented that the client has chronic kidney disease. On review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would expect to note which finding? 1.Elevated creatinine level 2.Decreased hemoglobin level 3.Decreased red blood cell count 4.Increased number of white blood cells in the urine

1.Elevated creatinine level The creatinine level is the most specific laboratory test to determine renal function. The creatinine level increases when at least 50% of renal function is lost. A decreased hemoglobin level and red blood cell count are associated with anemia or blood loss and not specifically with decreased renal function. Increased white blood cells in the urine are noted with urinary tract infection.

The nurse is providing instructions regarding the complications of peritoneal dialysis. The nurse emphasizes that onset of peritonitis, a serious complication, is most likely to be associated with which clinical manifestation? 1.Fever 2.Fatigue 3.Clear dialysate output 4.Leaking around the catheter site

1.Fever The signs of peritonitis include fever, nausea, malaise, rebound abdominal tenderness, and cloudy dialysate output. Fatigue may be associated with peritonitis, but fever is the most likely sign. Leaking around the catheter site is not an indication of peritonitis.

The nurse has taught the client with polycystic kidney disease about management of the disorder and prevention and recognition of complications. The nurse should determine that the client understands the instructions if the client states that which should be reported to the primary health care provider (PHCP)? Select all that apply. 1.Frequent urination 2.Burning on urination 3.A temperature of 100.6º F (38.1º C) 4.New-onset shortness of breath 5.A blood pressure of 105/68 mm Hg

1.Frequent urination 2.Burning on urination 3.A temperature of 100.6º F (38.1º C) 4.New-onset shortness of breath The client with polycystic kidney disease should report any signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection, such as frequent urination, burning on urination, and elevated temperature so that treatment may begin promptly. Lowered blood pressure is not a complication of polycystic kidney disease, and it is an expected effect of antihypertensive therapy. The client would be concerned about increases in blood pressure because control of hypertension is essential. The client may experience heart failure as a result of hypertension, and thus any symptoms of heart failure, such as shortness of breath, are also a concern.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease. The nurse plans care knowing that besides maintaining urinary elimination, the kidneys also are involved in what body processes? Select all that apply. 1.Help regulate blood pressure. 2.Encourage immunosuppression. 3.Stimulate liver to secrete enzymes. 4.Assist to regulate acid-base balance. 5.Convert vitamin D to an active form. 6.Produce erythropoietin for red blood cell synthesis.

1.Help regulate blood pressure. 4.Assist to regulate acid-base balance. 5.Convert vitamin D to an active form. 6.Produce erythropoietin for red blood cell synthesis. Besides maintaining urinary elimination, the kidneys are also involved with helping to regulate blood pressure, assisting in regulating acid-base balance, converting vitamin D to an active form, and producing erythropoietin for red blood cell synthesis. The kidneys do not encourage immunosuppression and do not stimulate the liver to secrete enzymes.

The nurse discusses plans for future treatment options with a client with symptomatic polycystic kidney disease. Which treatment should be included in this discussion? Select all that apply. 1.Hemodialysis 2.Peritoneal dialysis 3.Kidney transplant 4.Bilateral nephrectomy 5.Intense immunosuppression therapy

1.Hemodialysis 3.Kidney transplant 4.Bilateral nephrectomy Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic familial disease in which the kidneys enlarge with cysts that rupture and scar the kidney, eventually resulting in end-stage renal disease. Treatment options include hemodialysis or kidney transplant. Clients usually undergo bilateral nephrectomy to remove the large, painful, cyst-filled kidneys. Peritoneal dialysis is not a treatment option due to the cysts. The condition does not respond to immunosuppression.

A client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease requiring hemodialysis has an arteriovenous fistula for access. The client asks the nurse what complications can occur with the access site. What complications should the nurse inform the client about? Select all that apply. 1.Hepatitis 2.Infection 3.Hypertension 4.Muscle cramping 5.Post-treatment blood clots

1.Hepatitis 2.Infection Complications directly related to the access site for hemodialysis include hepatitis or infection as a result of poor infection control practices, as well as post-treatment blood loss from certain dialysis procedure practices and the removal of needles following the procedure. In addition, heparin is often given to prevent clotting of the access site; this can potentiate postdialysis bleeding. Hypotension from rapid removal of vascular volume can occur, as can muscle cramps from fluid shifting; however, these complications are not directly related to the access site.

The nurse is performing assessment on a client with acute kidney injury who is in the oliguric phase. Which should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1.Increased serum creatinine level 2.A low and fixed specific gravity 3.Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 4.A urine output of 600 to 800 mL in a 24-hour period 5.Urine osmolarity of approximately 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg

1.Increased serum creatinine level 2.A low and fixed specific gravity 3.Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 5.Urine osmolarity of approximately 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, serum creatinine levels increase by approximately 1 mg/dL (88 mcmol/L) per day, and the BUN level increases by approximately 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) per day. The specific gravity of the urine is low and fixed, and the urine osmolarity approaches that of the client's serum level, or about 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg). Urine output is less than 100 mL in a 24-hour period.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which should be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis? 1.Maintain strict aseptic technique. 2.Add heparin to the dialysate solution. 3.Change the catheter site dressing daily. 4.Monitor the client's level of consciousness.

1.Maintain strict aseptic technique. The major complication of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Strict aseptic technique is required in caring for the client receiving this treatment. Although changing the catheter site dressing daily may assist in preventing infection, this option relates to an external site. Adding heparin to the dialysate solution and monitoring the client's level of consciousness are unrelated to the major complication of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome whose glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is normal. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1.Monitor daily weight. 2.Maintain sodium restrictions. 3.Maintain a diet low in protein. 4.Monitor intake and output (I&O). 5.Maintain bed rest when edema is severe.

1.Monitor daily weight. 2.Maintain sodium restrictions. 4.Monitor intake and output (I&O). 5.Maintain bed rest when edema is severe. Controlling edema is a critical aspect of therapeutic management of nephrotic syndrome. If the GFR is normal, dietary intake of proteins is needed to restore normal plasma oncotic pressure and thereby decrease edema. Daily measurement of weight and abdominal girth, and careful monitoring of I&O will determine whether weight loss is caused by diuresis or protein loss. Dietary modifications may include salt restriction and fluid restriction and are based on the client's symptoms. Bed rest is prescribed to promote diuresis when edema is severe.

The nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? 1.Palpation of a thrill over the fistula. 2.Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist. 3.Visualization of enlarged blood vessels at the fistula site. 4.Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nailbeds of the fingers on the left hand.

1.Palpation of a thrill over the fistula. The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Enlarged visible blood vessels at the fistula site are a normal observation but are not indicative of fistula patency. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nailbeds of the fingers on the left hand indicate adequate circulation to the hand, they do not assess fistula patency.

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse should plan which actions as a priority? Select all that apply. 1.Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2.Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). 3.Put the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status except for ice chips. 4.Review the client's medications to determine whether any contain or retain potassium. 5.Allow an extra 500 mL of intravenous fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.

1.Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2.Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). 4.Review the client's medications to determine whether any contain or retain potassium. The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A potassium level of 7.0 is elevated. The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should notify the PHCP and also review medications to determine whether any contain potassium or are potassium retaining. The client does not need to be put on NPO status. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly.

The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results for a client with glomerulonephritis. Which findings should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1.Proteinuria 2.Hematuria 3.Positive ketones 4.A low specific gravity 5.A dark and smoky appearance of the urine

1.Proteinuria 2.Hematuria 5.A dark and smoky appearance of the urine In the client with glomerulonephritis, characteristic findings in the urinalysis report are gross proteinuria and hematuria. The specific gravity is elevated, and the urine may appear dark and smoky. Positive ketones are not associated with this condition but may indicate a secondary problem.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being managed by continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). During outflow, the nurse notes that only half of the 2-L dialysate has returned, and the flow has stopped. Which interventions should the nurse take to enhance the outflow? Select all that apply. 1.Reposition the client. 2.Encourage a low-fiber diet. 3.Make sure the peritoneal catheter is not kinked. 4.Slide the peritoneal catheter farther into the abdomen. 5.Check that the drainage bag is lower than the client's abdomen. 6.Assess the stool history, and institute elimination measures if the client is constipated.

1.Reposition the client. 3.Make sure the peritoneal catheter is not kinked. 5.Check that the drainage bag is lower than the client's abdomen. 6.Assess the stool history, and institute elimination measures if the client is constipated. CAPD is a method of peritoneal dialysis in which the client infuses dialysate into the abdomen through a special peritoneal catheter and then lets it dwell for a period of hours. After a specified time, the client drains the dialysate out of the abdomen by gravity and then instills another 1.5 to 3 L of dialysate into the peritoneal cavity. During the dwell time, substances are exchanged across the peritoneal membrane through the process of diffusion. It is important for the nurse to make sure that all of the dialysate in each treatment is removed to ensure proper waste and fluid removal. The distal end of the peritoneal catheter hangs loosely within the abdomen cavity, so if the nurse encourages the client to change position, placement of the catheter also could be changed, potentially increasing outflow. Because the peritoneal catheter and the tubing to the drainage bag are long and flexible, either could get kinked. Correcting this is an easy solution to the outflow problem. The peritoneal catheter is surgically placed in the abdomen, and the skin grows around the cuff. With peritoneal dialysis, gravity is the process whereby dialysate is removed from the peritoneal cavity. Keeping the bag lower than the abdomen enhances gravity. Constipation is 1 of the primary causes of poor outflow. Assessing and intervening for constipation and encouraging a high-fiber diet are important actions to include in the care of a client on peritoneal dialysis. The catheter cannot be physically manipulated. In addition, this is not an action that would be within the focus of a nursing responsibility.

Before providing care for a client in the late stages of chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should review the results of which most relevant laboratory studies? 1.Serum potassium, serum calcium 2.Urinalysis, hematocrit, hemoglobin 3.Culture and sensitivity testing, serum sodium 4.Urine specific gravity, intravenous pyelogram

1.Serum potassium, serum calcium Because of the potentially life-threatening outcomes associated with hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia, they are the most relevant to nursing management of the client with CKD. The diagnostic tests in the remaining options may be helpful in diagnosing CKD or in monitoring treatment but are not the most relevant. Additionally, decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin occur in CKD because of the decreased level of erythropoietin. However, a decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin may be reflective of various health alterations.

A client is about to begin hemodialysis. Which measures should the nurse employ in the care of the client? Select all that apply. 1.Using sterile technique for needle insertion 2.Using standard precautions in the care of the client 3.Giving the client a mask to wear during connection to the machine 4.Wearing full protective clothing such as goggles, mask, gloves, and apron 5.Covering the connection site with a bath blanket to enhance extremity warmth

1.Using sterile technique for needle insertion 2.Using standard precautions in the care of the client 3.Giving the client a mask to wear during connection to the machine 4.Wearing full protective clothing such as goggles, mask, gloves, and apron Infection is a major concern with hemodialysis. For that reason, the use of sterile technique and the application of a face mask for both nurse and client are extremely important. It also is imperative that standard precautions be followed, which includes the use of goggles, mask, gloves, and apron. The connection site should not be covered; it should be visible so that the nurse can assess for bleeding, ischemia, and infection at the site during the hemodialysis procedure.

A client with chronic kidney disease has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse should use which standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? 1.Vital signs and weight 2.Potassium level and weight 3.Vital signs and blood urea nitrogen level 4.Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

1.Vital signs and weight Following dialysis the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.

A client who is performing peritoneal dialysis at home calls the clinic and reports that the outflow from the dialysis catheter seems to be decreasing in amount. The clinic nurse should ask which question first? 1."Have you had any diarrhea?" 2."Have you been constipated recently?" 3."Have you had any abdominal discomfort?" 4."Have you had an increased amount of flatulence?"

2."Have you been constipated recently?" Reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter may be caused by the catheter position, infection, or constipation. Constipation may contribute to a reduced outflow because peristalsis seems to aid in drainage. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the causes of reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter.

A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has had a urine output averaging 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 mL of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 mL. Daily laboratory results indicate that the blood urea nitrogen level is 45 mg/dL (16 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL (194 mcmol/L). On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem? 1.Hypovolemia 2.Acute kidney injury 3.Glomerulonephritis 4.Urinary tract infection

2.Acute kidney injury The client who undergoes cardiac surgery is at risk for renal injury from poor perfusion, hemolysis, low cardiac output, or vasopressor medication therapy. Renal injury is signaled by decreased urine output and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Normal reference levels are BUN, 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L), and creatinine 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53 to 106 mcmol/L) for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 mcmol/L) for females. The client may need medications to increase renal perfusion and possibly could need peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis. No data in the question indicate the presence of hypovolemia, glomerulonephritis, or urinary tract infection.

The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of which complication? 1.Peritonitis 2.Hyperglycemia 3.Hyperphosphatemia 4.Disequilibrium syndrome

2.Hyperglycemia An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a risk associated with breaks in aseptic technique. Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte imbalance that occurs with renal dysfunction. Disequilibrium syndrome is a complication associated with hemodialysis.

A client with glomerulonephritis has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication. The nurse should expect to note which abnormal finding documented on the client's medical record? 1.Bradycardia 2.Hypertension 3.Decreased cardiac output 4.Decreased central venous pressure

2.Hypertension AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of renal failure. It is commonly manifested by hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from a prerenal cause is characterized by decreased blood pressure, tachycardia, decreased cardiac output, and decreased central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of kidney failure.

The nursing student is assigned to care for a client with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI), diuretic phase. The nursing instructor asks the student about the primary goal of the treatment plan for this client. Which goal, if stated by the nursing student, indicates an adequate understanding of the treatment plan for this client? 1.Prevent fluid overload. 2.Prevent loss of electrolytes. 3.Promote the excretion of wastes. 4.Reduce the urine specific gravity.

2.Prevent loss of electrolytes. In the diuretic phase, fluids and electrolytes are lost in the urine. As a result, the plan of care focuses on fluid and electrolyte replacement and monitoring. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not the primary concerns in this phase of AKI.

A client diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease has been taught about the treatment plan for this disease. The nurse should determine that the client needs further teaching if the client states that which is included in the treatment plan? 1.Genetic counseling 2.Sodium restriction 3.Increased water intake 4.Antihypertensive medications

2.Sodium restriction Individuals with polycystic kidney disease seem to waste rather than retain sodium. Unless the client has problems with uncontrolled hypertension, increased sodium and water intake is needed. Antihypertensive medications are prescribed to control hypertension. Genetic counseling is advisable because of the hereditary nature of the disease.

The nurse instructor is evaluating a nursing student for knowledge regarding care of a client with acute kidney injury. Which statement by the student demonstrates the need for further teaching about the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? 1."The increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function." 2."The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days." 3."The diuretic phase is characterized by an increase in urine output of about 500 mL in a 24-hour period." 4."The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels will continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis."

3."The diuretic phase is characterized by an increase in urine output of about 500 mL in a 24-hour period." The diuretic phase of acute kidney injury is characterized by an increase in urine output of more than 1000 mL in a 24-hour period. This increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function; however, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis. The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days.

The nurse is planning a teaching session with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) about managing the condition between dialysis treatments. The nurse should plan to include the instruction that weight gain between dialysis treatments should be ideally what value? 1.11 to 13 lb (5 to 6 kg) 2.4.5 to 9 lb (2 to 4 kg) 3.2 to 3 lb (1 to 1.5 kg) 4.1 to 2 lb (0.5 to 1.0 kg)

3.2 to 3 lb (1 to 1.5 kg) Limiting weight gain to 2 to 3 lb (1 to 1.5 kg) between dialysis treatments helps prevent the hypotension that occurs with the removal of large volumes of fluid during dialysis. The nurse instructs the client in how to manage daily fluid allotment to assist the client in staying within a low fluid intake range to prevent excess weight gain. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is preparing to perform a discharge teaching with a client who is started on hemodialysis. Which information should the nurse provide regarding the hemodialysis schedule? 1.5 hours of treatment, 2 days per week 2.2 hours of treatment, 6 days per week 3.3 to 4 hours of treatment, 3 days per week 4.2 to 3 hours of treatment, 5 days per week

3.3 to 4 hours of treatment, 3 days per week The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment, 3 days per week. Individual adjustments are made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and other factors.

The nurse is teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome about managing the disorder. What should the nurse instruct the client to adjust according to the amount of edema present? 1.Salt intake 2.Water intake 3.Activity level 4.Use of diuretics

3.Activity level The client is taught to adjust the activity level according to the amount of edema. As edema decreases, activity can increase. Correspondingly, as edema increases, the client should increase rest periods and limit activity. Bed rest is recommended during periods of severe edema. The client with nephrotic syndrome usually has a standard limit set on sodium intake. Fluids are not restricted unless the client also is hyponatremic. Diuretics are prescribed on a specific schedule, and doses are not titrated according to the level of edema.

A client is being evaluated as a potential kidney donor for a family member. The client asks the nurse why separate teams are evaluating the donor and recipient. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? 1.Helps reduce the cost of the preoperative workup 2.Saves the client and the recipient valuable preoperative time 3.Avoids a conflict of interest between the team evaluating the recipient and the team evaluating the donor 4.Provides for a sufficient number of persons reviewing the case so that no information is overlooked

3.Avoids a conflict of interest between the team evaluating the recipient and the team evaluating the donor Both the kidney donor and the kidney recipient need thorough medical and psychological evaluation before transplant surgery. Separate teams evaluate the donor and the recipient to avoid a conflict of interest in providing care for the 2 clients. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not related to the purpose of this approach.

A client who is undergoing peritoneal dialysis calls the nurse at the renal unit and reports the presence of severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. The client also informs the nurse that the peritoneal dialysis returns are brown-tinged in color. Which would the nurse suspect? 1.Infection 2.An intact catheter 3.Bowel perforation 4.Bladder perforation

3.Bowel perforation Complications of a peritoneal catheter include infection, perforation of the bowel or bladder, and bleeding. Brown-tinged returns suggest bowel perforation, which usually is accompanied by severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. Cloudy or opaque returns suggest possible infection. Urine-colored returns suggest possible bladder perforation. An intact catheter is unrelated to the information provided in the question.

In performing a physical assessment of a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), which finding should the nurse anticipate? 1.Glycosuria 2.Polyphagia 3.Crackles auscultated in the lungs 4.Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg

3.Crackles auscultated in the lungs CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in clearing nitrogenous waste products and controlling fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Cardiovascular symptoms of heart failure and hypertension are caused by the fluid volume overload resulting from the kidneys' inability to excrete water. Signs and symptoms of heart failure include jugular venous distention, S3 heart sound, pedal edema, increased weight, shortness of breath, and crackles auscultated in the lungs. The typical signs and symptoms of CKD include proteinuria or hematuria, not glycosuria. The nurse would observe anorexia and nausea in this client, not polyphagia.

A client has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. On assessment of the client, the nurse should observe for which most common manifestation of this disorder? 1.Headache 2.Hypotension 3.Flank pain and hematuria 4.Complaints of low pelvic pain

3.Flank pain and hematuria The most common findings with polycystic kidney disease are hematuria and flank or lumbar pain that is either colicky in nature or dull and aching. Other common findings include proteinuria, calculi, uremia, and palpable kidney masses. Hypertension is another common finding and may be associated with cardiomegaly and heart failure. The client may complain of a headache, but this is not a specific assessment finding in polycystic kidney disease.

The nurse is reviewing the list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with the client. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse should base the response on knowing that which is the action of the glucose in the solution? 1.Decreases the risk of peritonitis 2.Prevents disequilibrium syndrome 3.Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration 4.Prevents excess glucose from being removed from the client

3.Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration Increasing the glucose concentration makes the solution more hypertonic. The more hypertonic the solution, the higher the osmotic pressure for ultrafiltration and thus the greater the amount of fluid removed from the client during an exchange. The remaining options do not identify the purpose of the glucose.

The nurse has completed teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse should determine that education was effective if the client states to record which parameters daily? 1.Pulse and respiratory rate 2.Amount of activity and sleep 3.Intake and output (I&O) and weight 4.Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

3.Intake and output (I&O) and weight The client on hemodialysis should monitor fluid status between hemodialysis treatments by recording I&O and measuring weight daily. Ideally, the hemodialysis client should not gain more than 0.5 kg of weight per day. It is not necessary to record the pulse and respiratory rate or the amount of activity and sleep; these parameters are not specifically related to hemodialysis. BUN and creatinine levels are not measured on a daily basis.

The nurse checks the serum myoglobin level for a client with a crush injury to the right lower leg because the client is at risk for developing which type of acute kidney injury? 1.Prerenal 2.Postrenal 3.Intrarenal 4.Extrarenal

3.Intrarenal Serum myoglobin levels increase in crush injuries when large amounts of myoglobin and hemoglobin are released from damaged muscle and blood cells. The accumulation may cause acute tubular necrosis, an intrarenal cause of renal failure. Prerenal causes are conditions that interfere with the perfusion of blood to the kidney. Postrenal causes include conditions that cause urinary obstruction distal to the kidney. The cause and the type of renal failure may determine the interventions used in treatment.

A client with severe back pain and hematuria is found to have hydronephrosis due to urolithiasis. The nurse anticipates which treatment will be done to relieve the obstruction? Select all that apply. 1.Peritoneal dialysis 2.Analysis of the urinary stone 3.Intravenous opioid analgesics 4.Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5.Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy

3.Intravenous opioid analgesics 4.Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5.Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy Urolithiasis is the condition that occurs when a stone forms in the urinary system. Hydronephrosis develops when the stone has blocked the ureter and urine backs up and dilates and damages the kidney. Priority treatment is to allow the urine to drain and relieve the obstruction in the ureter. This is accomplished by placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy tube to drain urine from the kidney and placement of a ureteral stent to keep the ureter open. Peritoneal dialysis is not needed, since the kidney is functioning. Stone analysis will be done later when the stone has been retrieved and analyzed. Opioid analgesics are necessary for pain relief but do not treat the obstruction.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with chronic kidney disease and uremia. The nurse is developing interventions to assist in promoting an increased dietary intake while at the same time maintaining necessary dietary restrictions. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1.Increase the amount of protein in the diet. 2.Increase the amount of potassium in the daily diet. 3.Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks. 4.Encourage the client to eat a large breakfast and smaller meals later in the day.

3.Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks. Uremia usually is accompanied by nausea, anorexia, and an unpleasant taste in the mouth. Most clients experience more nausea and vomiting in the morning. Therefore, to maintain optimal nutrition, it is best for these clients to eat a diet that is high in calories with frequent snacks and a light breakfast in the morning and larger meals later in the day. Dietary management usually is aimed at restricting protein, sodium, and potassium.

A client with chronic kidney disease returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 38.5° C (101.2° F). Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1.Encourage fluid intake. 2.Continue to monitor vital signs. 3.Notify the primary health care provider. 4.Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.

3.Notify the primary health care provider. A temperature of 101.2° F (38.5° C) is significantly elevated and may indicate infection. The nurse should notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). Dialysis clients cannot have fluid intake encouraged. Vital signs and the shunt site should be monitored, but the PHCP should be notified first.

The nurse is urging a client to cough and deep breathe after nephrectomy. The client tells the nurse, "That's easy for you to say! You don't have to do this." The nurse interprets that the client's statement is most likely to be a result of which factor? 1.A stress response to the ordeal of surgery 2.A latent fear of needing dialysis if the surgery is unsuccessful 3.Pain that is intensified because of the location of the incision near the diaphragm 4.Effects of circulating metabolites that have not been excreted by the remaining kidney

3.Pain that is intensified because of the location of the incision near the diaphragm After nephrectomy, the client may be in considerable pain. This is because of the size of the incision and its location near the diaphragm, which make coughing and deep breathing very uncomfortable. For this reason, opioids are used liberally and may be most effective when provided as patient-controlled analgesia or through epidural analgesia. The items in the other options are not likely factors for the client's statement.

A client is being discharged to home while recovering from acute kidney injury (AKI). Reduced dietary intake of which substance indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary teaching? 1.Fats 2.Vitamins 3.Potassium 4.Carbohydrates

3.Potassium The excretion of potassium and maintenance of potassium balance are normal functions of the kidneys. In the client with AKI or chronic kidney disease, potassium intake must be restricted as much as possible (60 to 70 mEq/day). The primary mechanism of potassium removal during AKI is dialysis. Vitamins, carbohydrates, and fats are not normally restricted in the client with AKI unless a secondary health problem warrants the need to do so. The amount of fluid permitted is generally calculated to be equal to the urine volume plus the insensible loss volume of 500 mL.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which factor will enhance the educational process? 1.Anxiety 2.Memory deficits 3.Presence of family 4.Short attention span

3.Presence of family The client with CKD may have several barriers to learning. The presence of family members is helpful because they need to understand the disease and treatment and may help reinforce information with the client after the formal teaching session is over. Anxiety about the disease and its ramifications frequently interferes with learning. Physiological effects of the disease process also impair the client's mental functioning. Specifically, the client may exhibit a short attention span and have memory deficits. Mental functioning usually improves once hemodialysis has begun.

The primary health care provider writes prescriptions for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which prescription should the nurse question? 1.Insert a saline lock. 2.Obtain a daily weight. 3.Provide a high-protein diet. 4.Administer a calcium supplement with each meal.

3.Provide a high-protein diet. When a client experiences CKD, the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels rise. The client also experiences increased potassium, increased phosphates, and decreased calcium. BUN and creatinine are the byproducts of protein metabolism, so monitoring protein intake is important, with care taken to include proteins of high biological value. Clients with CKD will have protein restricted early in the disease to preserve kidney function. In end-stage disease, protein is restricted according to the client's weight, the type of dialysis, and protein loss. With CKD, the nurse is concerned about fluid volume overload and accumulation of waste products. Because of the kidneys' inability to excrete fluid, it is important for the nurse to prevent, as well as assess for early signs of, fluid volume excess. Infusing an intravenous (IV) solution into a client with CKD significantly increases the risk for overload. If an IV access is needed, it usually involves only a saline lock. Obtaining the client's daily weight is 1 of the most important assessment tools for evaluating changes in fluid volume. The kidneys also are responsible for removing waste products. The client also receives phosphate binders, calcium supplements, and vitamin D to prevent bone demineralization (osteodystrophy) from chronically elevated phosphate levels.

The nurse is caring for a client whose urine output was 25 mL per hour for 2 consecutive hours. The nurse reviews the primary health care provider's prescriptions and plans care, knowing that which client-related factor would increase the amount of blood flow to the kidneys? 1.Physiological stress 2.Release of norepinephrine 3.Release of low levels of dopamine 4.Sympathetic nervous system stimulation

3.Release of low levels of dopamine The release of low levels of dopamine exerts a vasodilating effect on the renal arteries, increasing urinary output. The other options cause renal vasoconstriction.

A client is scheduled for surgical creation of an internal arteriovenous (AV) fistula on the following day. The client says to the nurse, "I'll be so happy when the fistula is made tomorrow. This means I can have that other hemodialysis catheter pulled right out." Which interpretation should the nurse make based on the client's statement? 1.The client has an accurate understanding of the procedure and aftercare. 2.The client does not realize how painful removal of the dialysis catheter will be. 3.The client does not understand that the site needs to mature or develop for 1 to 2 weeks before use. 4.The client is not aware that the alternative access site is left in place prophylactically for 2 months.

3.The client does not understand that the site needs to mature or develop for 1 to 2 weeks before use. An AV fistula is the internal creation of an arterial-to-venous anastomosis. This causes engorgement of the vein, allowing both the artery and the vein to be easily cannulated for hemodialysis. Fistulas take 1 to 2 weeks to mature (engorgement) or develop before they can be used for dialysis, so the current method of access must remain in place to be used during that period. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect interpretations of the client's statement.

The graduate nurse is caring for a client with decreased renal perfusion. The registered nurse determines that the graduate nurse demonstrates understanding of why this is occurring if which statement is made? 1."It may be due to an increase in serotonin levels." 2."It may be due to overhydration with intravenous fluids." 3."It may be due to the client's hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L)." 4."It may be a consequence of decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation."

4."It may be a consequence of decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation." Dopaminergic receptors are found in the renal blood vessels and in the nerves. When stimulated, they dilate renal arteries and help modulate release of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Renal artery dilation helps improve urine output by increasing blood flow through the kidneys. Serotonin is a local hormone that is released from platelets after an injury; it constricts arterioles but dilates capillaries. Dehydration, not overhydration, would decrease renal perfusion. A hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L) is a normal value.

The nurse is giving general instructions to a client receiving hemodialysis. Which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to include? 1."It is acceptable to eat whatever you want on the day before hemodialysis." 2."It is acceptable to exceed the fluid restriction on the day before hemodialysis." 3."Medications should be double-dosed on the morning of hemodialysis because of potential loss." 4."Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure."

4."Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure." Many medications are dialyzable, which means that they are extracted from the bloodstream during dialysis. Therefore, many medications may be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. It is not typical for medications to be double-dosed because there is no way to be certain how much of each medication is cleared by dialysis. Clients receiving hemodialysis are not routinely taught that it is acceptable to disregard dietary and fluid restrictions.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been on dialysis for 3 years. The client is receiving the usual combination of medications for the disease, including aluminum hydroxide as a phosphate-binding agent. The client now presents with mental cloudiness, dementia, and complaints of bone pain. The nurse determines that these assessment data are compatible with which condition? 1.Advancing uremia 2.Phosphate overdose 3.Folic acid deficiency 4.Aluminum intoxication

4.Aluminum intoxication Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed as a phosphate-binding agent. Aluminum intoxication can occur when there is an accumulation of aluminum, an ingredient in many phosphate-binding antacids. It results in mental cloudiness, dementia, and bone pain from infiltration of the bone with aluminum. It can be treated with aluminum-chelating agents, which make aluminum available to be dialyzed from the body. It can be prevented by avoiding or limiting the use of phosphate-binding agents that contain aluminum. The data in the question are not specifically associated with the other conditions noted in the options.

A client undergoing hemodialysis begins to experience muscle cramping. What is the best action by the hemodialysis nurse in this situation? 1.Administer hypotonic saline. 2.Administer magnesium sulfate. 3.Increase the ultrafiltration rate. 4.Decrease the ultrafiltration rate.

4.Decrease the ultrafiltration rate. Muscle cramps during hemodialysis result from either too rapid removal of water and sodium or neuromuscular hypersensitivity. The nurse corrects this situation by either slowing down the ultrafiltration rate on the hemodialyzer or administering hypertonic or isotonic normal saline. Magnesium sulfate is not prescribed to correct this occurrence.

The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Which should the nurse expect to note in this client? 1.Decreased serum lipids 2.Signs of fluid volume deficit 3.Decreased protein in the urine 4.Decreased serum albumin levels

4.Decreased serum albumin levels Nephrotic syndrome describes a variety of signs and symptoms that accompany any condition that markedly impairs filtration by glomerular capillary membranes and results in increased permeability to protein. Hallmark signs and symptoms of this syndrome include increased serum lipids, edema, increased excretion of protein in the urine, and decreased serum albumin levels.

A client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. Which is the priority nursing intervention? 1.Check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill. 2.Observe the site once during the shift as time permits. 3.Check the results of the prothrombin time as they are determined. 4.Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing.

4.Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing. An external arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because 2 ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours. Checking the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill relates to patency of the shunt. Although checking the results of the prothrombin time is important, it is not the priority nursing action.

The client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse should assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations? 1.Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever 2.Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia 3.Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness 4.Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching

4.Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing increased intracranial pressure and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates. Tachycardia and fever are associated with infection. Generalized weakness is associated with low blood pressure and anemia. Restlessness and irritability are not associated with disequilibrium syndrome

A week after kidney transplantation, a client develops a temperature of 101° F (38.3° C), the blood pressure is elevated, and there is tenderness over the transplanted kidney. The serum creatinine is rising and urine output is decreased. The x-ray indicates that the transplanted kidney is enlarged. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse anticipates which treatment? 1.Antibiotic therapy 2.Peritoneal dialysis 3.Removal of the transplanted kidney 4.Increased immunosuppression therapy

4.Increased immunosuppression therapy Acute rejection most often occurs within 1 week after transplantation but can occur any time post-transplantation. Clinical manifestations include fever, malaise, elevated white blood cell count, acute hypertension, graft tenderness, and manifestations of deteriorating renal function. Treatment consists of increasing immunosuppressive therapy. Antibiotics are used to treat infection. Peritoneal dialysis cannot be used with a newly transplanted kidney due to the recent surgery. Removal of the transplanted kidney is indicated with hyperacute rejection, which occurs within 48 hours of the transplant surgery.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed aluminum hydroxide. Which information should the nurse include while instructing the client regarding the action of this medication? 1.It prevents ulcers. 2.It prevents constipation. 3.It promotes the elimination of potassium from the body. 4.It combines with phosphorus and helps eliminate phosphates from the body.

4.It combines with phosphorus and helps eliminate phosphates from the body. Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed for a client with CKD. It binds with phosphate in the intestines for excretion in the feces, thus lowering phosphorus levels. It can cause constipation, and it does not promote the elimination of potassium. It may be used in the treatment of hyperacidity associated with gastric ulcers, but this is not the purpose of its use in the client with renal failure.

A client being discharged home after renal transplantation has a risk for infection related to immunosuppressive medication therapy. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching on measures to prevent and control infection if the client states that it is necessary to take which action? 1. Take an oral temperature daily. 2.Use good hand-washing technique. 3.Take all scheduled medications exactly as prescribed. 4.Monitor urine character and output at least 1 day each week.

4.Monitor urine character and output at least 1 day each week. The client receiving immunosuppressive medication therapy must learn and use infection control methods for use at home. The client self-monitors urine output and its characteristics on a daily basis. The client must learn proper hand-washing technique and should take the temperature daily to detect early infection. This is especially important because the client also takes corticosteroids, which mask signs and symptoms of infection. All medications should be taken exactly as prescribed.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action? 1.Monitor the client. 2.Elevate the head of the bed. 3.Assess the fistula site and dressing. 4.Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP)

4.Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs and symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome, and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The PHCP must be notified. Monitoring the client, elevating the head of the bed, and assessing the fistula site are correct actions, but the priority action is to notify the PHCP.

A client with chronic kidney disease who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril. When should the nurse plan to administer this medication? 1.During dialysis 2.Just before dialysis 3.The day after dialysis 4.On return from dialysis

4.On return from dialysis Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting an entire day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.

A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? 1.Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand 2.Ecchymosis and audible bruit over the fistula 3.Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm 4.Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand

4.Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, caused by tissue ischemia. Warmth and redness probably would characterize a problem with infection. Ecchymosis and a bruit are normal findings for a fistula.

A client undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding from the heparin used during the hemodialysis treatment. The nurse assesses for this occurrence by periodically checking the results of which laboratory test? 1.Bleeding time 2.Thrombin time 3.Prothrombin time (PT) 4.Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

4.Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) Heparin is the anticoagulant used most often during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by checking the PTT, which is the appropriate measure of heparin effect. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities. The PT is a test used to monitor the effect of warfarin therapy.

The nurse is admitting a client who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the right arm for hemodialysis. Which nursing intervention is the best way to prevent injury to the AV site? 1.Putting a large note about the access site on the front of the medical record 2.Applying an allergy bracelet to the right arm, indicating the presence of the fistula 3.Telling the client to inform all caregivers who enter the room about the presence of the access site 4.Placing a sign at the bedside that reads "No blood pressure measurements or venipunctures in the right arm"

4.Placing a sign at the bedside that reads "No blood pressure measurements or venipunctures in the right arm" No venipunctures or blood pressure measurements should be performed in a limb with a hemodialysis access device. This commonly is communicated to all caregivers by placing a sign at the client's bedside. Placing a note on the front of the medical record does not ensure that everyone caring for the client is aware of the access device. An allergy bracelet is placed on the client with an allergy. The client should not be assigned the responsibility for informing caregivers. Some agencies use special bracelets for clients with an AV fistula to alert primary health care providers. Agency guidelines should always be followed in the care of the client.

The nurse is analyzing the posthemodialysis laboratory test results for a client with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that the dialysis is having an expected but nontherapeutic effect if which value is decreased? 1.Potassium 2.Creatinine 3.Phosphorus 4.Red blood cell (RBC) count

4.Red blood cell (RBC) count Hemodialysis typically lowers the amounts of fluid, sodium, potassium, urea nitrogen, creatinine, uric acid, magnesium, and phosphate levels in the blood. Hemodialysis also worsens anemia because RBCs are lost during dialysis from blood sampling and anticoagulation and from residual blood left in the dialyzer. Although all of these results are expected, only the lowered RBC count is nontherapeutic and worsens the anemia already caused by the disease process.

A client experiencing end-stage kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula placed surgically for hemodialysis. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to document in the plan for care of the AV fistula? 1.Palpate the bruit of the AV fistula weekly to assess for thrombosis. 2.Use the AV fistula site for blood draws to prevent increased pain of multiple blood draws. 3.Take the blood pressure readings in the extremity with the AV fistula to get a more accurate reading. 4.Teach the client to avoid carrying heavy objects that would compress the AV fistula and cause thrombosis

4.Teach the client to avoid carrying heavy objects that would compress the AV fistula and cause thrombosis An AV fistula is a vascular access system that is required for hemodialysis. It is a device established for clients who need long-term hemodialysis. It is created by connecting an artery to a vein inside the body to create a vessel that can handle the amount of blood flow necessary for effective dialysis. Bleeding, clotting, and infection are risks with all vascular devices. It also is very important to avoid any activity that would promote the status of blood or increase the risk for infection. Taking the blood pressure in the affected arm, carrying heavy objects in the arm, and lying on the arm at night could increase the risk for clotting in the fistula. To check circulation of the fistula, the nurse should palpate or feel for the thrill or auscultate (listen with a stethoscope) for the bruit. It is important to do this at least daily to ascertain the patency of the fistula. To avoid infection, that extremity is never used for peripheral intravenous access (placement of an intravenous line) or for blood draws. Strict aseptic technique is used in accessing the fistula for dialysis.

A client with an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm who is undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for infection. Which should the nurse formulate as the best outcome goal for this client problem? 1.The client washes hands at least once per day. 2.The client's temperature remains lower than 101º F (38.3º C). 3.The client avoids blood pressure (BP) measurement in the left arm. 4.The client's white blood cell (WBC) count remains within normal limits.

4.The client's white blood cell (WBC) count remains within normal limits. General indicators that the client is not experiencing infection include a temperature and WBC count within normal limits. The client also should use proper hand-washing technique as a general preventive measure. Hand washing once per day is insufficient. It is true that the client should avoid BP measurement in the affected arm; however, this would relate more closely to the problem of risk for injury.

The nurse is caring for an older client. Which finding should the nurse expect to note in this client while evaluating renal function? 1.Tubular reabsorption increases 2.Urine-concentrating ability increases 3.Medications are metabolized in larger amounts 4.The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) diminishes

4.The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) diminishes As part of the normal aging process, the GFR decreases, along with each of the other functional abilities of the kidney. Tubular reabsorption and urine-concentrating ability also decrease. The kidneys have decreased ability to metabolize medications.

The spouse of a client with acute kidney injury secondary to heart failure asks the nurse how a heart problem can affect the kidneys. The nurse should formulate a response using what fact about the kidneys? 1.The kidneys get fatigued from having to filter too much fluid. 2.The kidneys can react adversely to moderate doses of furosemide. 3.The kidneys will shut down easily if serum levels of digoxin are high. 4.The kidneys generally require and receive about 20% to 25% of the resting cardiac output.

4.The kidneys generally require and receive about 20% to 25% of the resting cardiac output. Heart failure is referred to as a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury because heart failure results in decreased blood flow to the kidneys. The kidneys normally receive about 20% to 25% of the cardiac output and require adequate perfusion to function properly. With a significant or prolonged decrease in blood supply, the kidneys can fail. Options 1 and 3 are incorrect. As for option 2, large doses of furosemide resulting in severe dehydration may lead to decreased kidney perfusion, but moderate doses of furosemide do not cause prerenal acute kidney injury, and furosemide may be used to treat acute kidney injury.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. What is the most appropriate datum to use in planning administration of intravenous fluids to this client? 1.A strict hourly rate of 100 mL 2.A strict hourly rate of 150 mL 3.One half of the previous hour's urine output 4.The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output

4.The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output Intravenous fluids are managed very carefully after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. Fluids are usually given according to a formula that takes into account the previous hour's urine output. The desired urine output is generally high; therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.