Security+

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches.

According to company policy an administrator must logically keep the Human Resources department separated from the Accounting department. Which of the following would be the simplest way to accomplish this? A. NIDS B. DMZ C. NAT D. VLAN

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) places controls into various types. The control types fall into three categories: Management, Operational, and Technical.

Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are. A. Supervisory, subordinate, and peer. B. Personal, procedural, and legal. C. Operational, technical, and management. D. Mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: controls such as preventing unauthorized access to PC's and applying screensavers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity is a technical control type, the same as Identification and Authentication, Access Control, Audit and Accountability as well as System and Communication Protection.

To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation? A. Management B. Administrative C. Technical D. Operational

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The AAAA Address record links a FQDN to an IPv6 address.

When reviewing security logs, an administrator sees requests for the AAAA record of www.comptia.com. Which of the following BEST describes this type of record? A. DNSSEC record B. IPv4 DNS record C. IPSEC DNS record D. IPv6 DNS record

Correct Answer: D Explanation: WEP is based on RC4, but due to errors in design and implementation, WEP is weak in a number of areas, two of which are the use of a static common key and poor implementation of initiation vectors (IVs). When the WEP key is discovered, the attacker can join the network and then listen in on all other wireless client communications.

Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption? A. The initialization vector of WEP uses a crack-able RC4 encryption algorithm. Once enough packets are captured an XOR operation can be performed and the asymmetric keys can be derived. B. The WEP key is stored in plain text and split in portions across 224 packets of random data. Once enough packets are sniffed the IV portion of the packets can be removed leaving the plain text key. C. The WEP key has a weak MD4 hashing algorithm used. A simple rainbow table can be used to generate key possibilities due to MD4 collisions. D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Incident management is the steps followed when security incident occurs.

Which of the following is BEST carried out immediately after a security breach is discovered? A. Risk transference B. Access control revalidation C. Change management D. Incident management

Correct Answer: D Explanation: SSH transmits both authentication traffic and data in a secured encrypted form, whereas Telnet transmits both authentication credentials and data in clear text.

Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET? A. HTTPS B. HMAC C. GPG D. SSH

Correct Answer: D Explanation: FTP employs TCP ports 20 and 21 to establish and maintain client-to-server communications, whereas TFTP makes use of UDP port 69.

Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP? A. TFTP is slower than FTP. B. TFTP is more secure than FTP. C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP. D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.

Correct Answer: AE Explanation: Both the Backfire and the Dish antennae are high gain antenna types that transmit a narrow beam of signal. It can therefore be used as a point-to-point antenna over short distances, but as point-to- multi-point antenna over longer distances.

Which of the following is a directional antenna that can be used in point-to-point or point-to-multi- point WiFi communication systems? (Select TWO). A. Backfire B. Dipole C. Omni D. PTZ E. Dish

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security Assessment; and written security policy falls in this category.

Which of the following is a management control? A. Logon banners B. Written security policy C. SYN attack prevention D. Access Control List (ACL)

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine.

Which of the following is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine? A. RPC B. RSH C. SSH D. SSL

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Monitoring-as-a-service (MaaS) is a cloud delivery model that falls under anything as a service (XaaS). MaaS allows for the deployment of monitoring functionalities for several other services and applications within the cloud.

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is tasked with outsourcing the analysis of security logs. These will need to still be reviewed on a regular basis to ensure the security of the company has not been breached. Which of the following cloud service options would support this requirement? A. SaaS B. MaaS C. IaaS D. PaaS

Correct Answer: D Explanation: IEEE 802.1x is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols and provides an authentication mechanism to wireless devices connecting to a LAN or WLAN.

A company determines a need for additional protection from rogue devices plugging into physical ports around the building. Which of the following provides the highest degree of protection from unauthorized wired network access? A. Intrusion Prevention Systems B. MAC filtering C. Flood guards D. 802.1x

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.

A database administrator contacts a security administrator to request firewall changes for a connection to a new internal application. The security administrator notices that the new application uses a port typically monopolized by a virus. The security administrator denies the request and suggests a new port or service be used to complete the application's task. Which of the following is the security administrator practicing in this example? A. Explicit deny B. Port security C. Access control lists D. Implicit deny

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Currently, SNMP is predominantly used for monitoring and performance management. SNMPv3 defines a secure version of SNMP and also facilitates remote configuration of the SNMP entities.

A network administrator needs to provide daily network usage reports on all layer 3 devices without compromising any data while gathering the information. Which of the following would be configured to provide these reports? A. SNMP B. SNMPv3 C. ICMP D. SSH

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) came about through a partnership between Cisco and Microsoft with the intention of providing a more secure VPN protocol. L2TP is considered to be a more secure option than PPTP, as the IPSec protocol which holds more secure encryption algorithms, is utilized in conjunction with it. It also requires a pre-shared certificate or key. L2TP's strongest level of encryption makes use of 168 bit keys, 3 DES encryption algorithm and requires two levels of authentication. L2TP has a number of advantages in comparison to PPTP in terms of providing data integrity and authentication of origin verification designed to keep hackers from compromising the system. However, the increased overhead required to manage this elevated security means that it performs at a slower pace than PPTP.

A network engineer is designing a secure tunneled VPN. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure? A. IPsec B. SFTP C. BGP D. PPTP

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

A network engineer is setting up a network for a company. There is a BYOD policy for the employees so that they can connect their laptops and mobile devices. Which of the following technologies should be employed to separate the administrative network from the network in which all of the employees' devices are connected? A. VPN B. VLAN C. WPA2 D. MAC filtering

Correct Answer: B Explanation: SSH transmits both authentication traffic and data in a secured encrypted form, whereas Telnet transmits both authentication credentials and data in clear text.

A recent vulnerability scan found that Telnet is enabled on all network devices. Which of the following protocols should be used instead of Telnet? A. SCP B. SSH C. SFTP D. SSL

Correct Answer: C Explanation: An all-in-one appliance, also known as Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Next Generation Firewall (NGFW), is one that provides a good foundation for security. A variety is available; those that you should be familiar with for the exam fall under the categories of providing URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection. Malware inspection is the use of a malware scanner to detect unwanted software content in network traffic. If malware is detected, it can be blocked or logged and/or trigger an alert.

A review of the company's network traffic shows that most of the malware infections are caused by users visiting gambling and gaming websites. The security manager wants to implement a solution that will block these websites, scan all web traffic for signs of malware, and block the malware before it enters the company network. Which of the following is suited for this purpose? A. ACL B. IDS C. UTM D. Firewall

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.

A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces? A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128. B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it. C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic. D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization's external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization's local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network. The name is derived from the term "demilitarized zone", an area between nation states in which military operation is not permitted.

A security administrator is segregating all web-facing server traffic from the internal network and restricting it to a single interface on a firewall. Which of the following BEST describes this new network? A. VLAN B. Subnet C. VPN D. DMZ

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn't require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.

A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic. Which of the following would accomplish this task? A. Deny TCP port 68 B. Deny TCP port 69 C. Deny UDP port 68 D. Deny UDP port 69

Correct Answer: A Explanation: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

A security analyst needs to ensure all external traffic is able to access the company's front-end servers but protect all access to internal resources. Which of the following network design elements would MOST likely be recommended? A. DMZ B. Cloud computing C. VLAN D. Virtualization

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A web application firewall is a device, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and all visitors. It's intended to be an application- specific firewall to prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and other web application attacks.

A security engineer is reviewing log data and sees the output below: POST: /payload.php HTTP/1.1 HOST: localhost Accept: */* Referrer: http://localhost/ ******* HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden Connection: close Log: Access denied with 403. Pattern matches form bypass Which of the following technologies was MOST likely being used to generate this log? A. Host-based Intrusion Detection System B. Web application firewall C. Network-based Intrusion Detection System D. Stateful Inspection Firewall E. URL Content Filter

Correct Answer: EF Explanation: We can protect the servers from the user devices by separating them into separate VLANs (virtual local area networks). The network device in the question is a router/switch. We can use the router to allow access from devices in one VLAN to the servers in the other VLAN. We can configure an ACL (Access Control List) on the router to determine who is able to access the server. In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN. This is usually achieved on switch or router devices. Simpler devices only support partitioning on a port level (if at all), so sharing VLANs across devices requires running dedicated cabling for each VLAN. More sophisticated devices can mark packets through tagging, so that a single interconnect (trunk) may be used to transport data for multiple VLANs. Grouping hosts with a common set of requirements regardless of their physical location by VLAN can greatly simplify network design. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical local area network (LAN), but it allows for end stations to be grouped together more easily even if they are not on the same network switch. The network described in this question is a DMZ, not a VLAN.

A small company can only afford to buy an all-in-one wireless router/switch. The company has 3 wireless BYOD users and 2 web servers without wireless access. Which of the following should the company configure to protect the servers from the user devices? (Select TWO). A. Deny incoming connections to the outside router interface. B. Change the default HTTP port C. Implement EAP-TLS to establish mutual authentication D. Disable the physical switch ports E. Create a server VLAN F. Create an ACL to access the server

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.

A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another? A. Implement a virtual firewall B. Install HIPS on each VM C. Virtual switches with VLANs D. Develop a patch management guide

Correct Answer: B Explanation: An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of "flavors" and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization. IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack's content.

A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration. Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability? A. Host-based firewall B. IDS C. IPS D. Honeypot

Correct Answer: D Explanation: 802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. It's based on Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but today it's often used as a component in more complex authentication and connection-management systems, including Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco System's Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Network Access Control (NAC). A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. By default, all ports on a switch are part of VLAN 1. But as the switch administrator changes the VLAN assignment on a port-by-port basis, various ports can be grouped together and be distinct from other VLAN port designations. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

A company has several conference rooms with wired network jacks that are used by both employees and guests. Employees need access to internal resources and guests only need access to the Internet. Which of the following combinations is BEST to meet the requirements? A. NAT and DMZ B. VPN and IPSec C. Switches and a firewall D. 802.1x and VLANs

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) allows for on-demand online access to specific software applications or suites without having to install it locally. This will allow the data center to continue providing network and security services.

A company's business model was changed to provide more web presence and now its ERM software is no longer able to support the security needs of the company. The current data center will continue to provide network and security services. Which of the following network elements would be used to support the new business model? A. Software as a Service B. DMZ C. Remote access support D. Infrastructure as a Service

Correct Answer: AC Explanation: Telnet supports IPv6 connections. IPv6 is the communications protocol that provides an identification and location system for computers on networks and routes traffic across the Internet. IPsec is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. IPsec is a compulsory component for IPv6. IPsec operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model, whereas Telnet operates at Layer 7.

A company's legacy server requires administration using Telnet. Which of the following protocols could be used to secure communication by offering encryption at a lower OSI layer? (Select TWO). A. IPv6 B. SFTP C. IPSec D. SSH E. IPv4

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) means controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policies. The goals of NAC are to prevent/reduce zero-day attacks, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control.

A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of the following BEST describes this system type? A. NAT B. NIPS C. NAC D. DMZ

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.

A corporation is looking to expand their data center but has run out of physical space in which to store hardware. Which of the following would offer the ability to expand while keeping their current data center operated by internal staff? A. Virtualization B. Subnetting C. IaaS D. SaaS

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software.

An IT director is looking to reduce the footprint of their company's server environment. They have decided to move several internally developed software applications to an alternate environment, supported by an external company. Which of the following BEST describes this arrangement? A. Infrastructure as a Service B. Storage as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Software as a Service

Correct Answer: A Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

An administrator connects VoIP phones to the same switch as the network PCs and printers. Which of the following would provide the BEST logical separation of these three device types while still allowing traffic between them via ACL? A. Create three VLANs on the switch connected to a router B. Define three subnets, configure each device to use their own dedicated IP address range, and then connect the network to a router C. Install a firewall and connect it to the switch D. Install a firewall and connect it to a dedicated switch for each device type

Correct Answer: B : Explanation: Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

An administrator is looking to implement a security device which will be able to not only detect network intrusions at the organization level, but help defend against them as well. Which of the following is being described here? A. NIDS B. NIPS C. HIPS D. HIDS

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Port security in IT can mean several things: The physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. The management of TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports. If a service is active and assigned to a port, then that port is open. All the other 65,535 ports (of TCP or UDP) are closed if a service isn't actively using them. Port knocking is a security system in which all ports on a system appear closed. However, if the client sends packets to a specific set of ports in a certain order, a bit like a secret knock, then the desired service port becomes open and allows the client software to connect to the service.

An administrator needs to connect a router in one building to a router in another using Ethernet. Each router is connected to a managed switch and the switches are connected to each other via a fiber line. Which of the following should be configured to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network? A. Configure each port on the switches to use the same VLAN other than the default one B. Enable VTP on both switches and set to the same domain C. Configure only one of the routers to run DHCP services D. Implement port security on the switches

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

An administrator needs to segment internal traffic between layer 2 devices within the LAN. Which of the following types of network design elements would MOST likely be used? A. Routing B. DMZ C. VLAN D. NAT

Correct Answer: D Explanation: NAT serves as a basic firewall by only allowing incoming traffic that is in response to an internal system's request.

An administrator wishes to hide the network addresses of an internal network when connecting to the Internet. The MOST effective way to mask the network address of the users would be by passing the traffic through a: A. stateful firewall B. packet-filtering firewall C. NIPS D. NAT

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start? A. Review past security incidents and their resolution B. Rewrite the existing security policy C. Implement an intrusion prevention system D. Install honey pot systems

An auditor is given access to a conference room to conduct an analysis. When they connect their laptop's Ethernet cable into the wall jack, they are not able to get a connection to the Internet but have a link light. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue? A. Ethernet cable is damaged B. The host firewall is set to disallow outbound connections C. Network Access Control D. The switch port is administratively shutdown

Correct Answer: A Explanation: When you combine a firewall with other abilities (intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.), what used to be called an all-in-one appliance is now known as a unified threat management (UTM) system. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve (you only have one product to learn), a single vendor to deal with, and--typically--reduced complexity.

An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to combine the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal? A. Unified Threat Management B. Virtual Private Network C. Single sign on D. Role-based management

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Port security in IT can mean several things. It can mean the physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. This can be accomplished by locking down the wiring closet and server vaults and then disconnecting the workstation run from the patch panel (or punch-down block) that leads to a room's wall jack. Any unneeded or unused wall jacks can (and should) be physically disabled in this manner. Another option is to use a smart patch panel that can monitor the MAC address of any device connected to each and every wall port across a building and detect not just when a new device is connected to an empty port, but also when a valid device is disconnected or replaced by an invalid device.

At an organization, unauthorized users have been accessing network resources via unused network wall jacks. Which of the following would be used to stop unauthorized access? A. Configure an access list. B. Configure spanning tree protocol. C. Configure port security. D. Configure loop protection.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Because Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines, it requires less hardware to maintain the current scenario.

Due to limited resources, a company must reduce their hardware budget while still maintaining availability. Which of the following would MOST likely help them achieve their objectives? A. Virtualization B. Remote access C. Network access control D. Blade servers

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Log analysis is the art and science of reviewing audit trails, log files, or other forms of computer- generated records for evidence of policy violations, malicious events, downtimes, bottlenecks, or other issues of concern. SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH also use TCP port 22, such as SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin.

Joe, a security administrator, believes that a network breach has occurred in the datacenter as a result of a misconfigured router access list, allowing outside access to an SSH server. Which of the following should Joe search for in the log files? A. Failed authentication attempts B. Network ping sweeps C. Host port scans D. Connections to port 22

Correct Answer: A Explanation: VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn't need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn't be able to do so.

Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend? A. Create a VLAN for the SCADA B. Enable PKI for the MainFrame C. Implement patch management D. Implement stronger WPA2 Wireless

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Anomaly-based detection watches the ongoing activity in the environment and looks for abnormal occurrences. An anomaly-based monitoring or detection method relies on definitions of all valid forms of activity. This database of known valid activity allows the tool to detect any and all anomalies. Anomaly-based detection is commonly used for protocols. Because all the valid and legal forms of a protocol are known and can be defined, any variations from those known valid constructions are seen as anomalies.

Joe, the Chief Technical Officer (CTO), is concerned about new malware being introduced into the corporate network. He has tasked the security engineers to implement a technology that is capable of alerting the team when unusual traffic is on the network. Which of the following types of technologies will BEST address this scenario? A. Application Firewall B. Anomaly Based IDS C. Proxy Firewall D. Signature IDS

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.

Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called: A. Firewalls B. Content filters C. Routers D. NIDS

Matt, a security administrator, wants to configure all the switches and routers in the network in order to securely monitor their status. Which of the following protocols would he need to configure on each device? A. SMTP B. SNMPv3 C. IPSec D. SNMP

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A protocol analyzer is a tool used to examine the contents of network traffic. Commonly known as a sniffer, a protocol analyzer can be a dedicated hardware device or software installed onto a typical host system. In either case, a protocol analyzer is first a packet capturing tool that can collect network traffic and store it in memory or onto a storage device. Once a packet is captured, it can be analyzed either with complex automated tools and scripts or manually.

Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue? A. Spam filter B. Protocol analyzer C. Web application firewall D. Load balancer

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A Hyper-V Virtual Switch implements policy enforcement for security, isolation, and service levels.

Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished? A. Create a VLAN without a default gateway. B. Remove the network from the routing table. C. Create a virtual switch. D. Commission a stand-alone switch.

Correct Answer: AF Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. A virtual switch is a software application that allows communication between virtual machines. A combination of the two would best satisfy the question.

Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Select TWO). A. Virtual switch B. NAT C. System partitioning D. Access-list E. Disable spanning tree F. VLAN

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity.

Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the company's sales websites. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task? A. HIDS B. Firewall C. NIPS D. Spam filter

Correct Answer: C Explanation: One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This "multitenant" nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

Multi-tenancy is a concept found in which of the following? A. Full disk encryption B. Removable media C. Cloud computing D. Data loss prevention

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The question states that the network uses 802.1x with PEAP. The 802.1x authentication server is typically an EAP-compliant Remote Access Dial-In User Service (RADIUS). A RADIUS server will be configured with a digital certificate. When a digital certificate is created, an expiration period is configured by the Certificate Authority (CA). The expiration period is commonly one or two years. The question states that no configuration changes have been made so it's likely that the certificate has expired.

On Monday, all company employees report being unable to connect to the corporate wireless network, which uses 802.1x with PEAP. A technician verifies that no configuration changes were made to the wireless network and its supporting infrastructure, and that there are no outages. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this issue? A. Too many incorrect authentication attempts have caused users to be temporarily disabled. B. The DNS server is overwhelmed with connections and is unable to respond to queries. C. The company IDS detected a wireless attack and disabled the wireless network. D. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service server certificate has expired.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: It is a common and recommended practice to separate voice and data traffic by using VLANs. Separating voice and data traffic using VLANs provides a solid security boundary, preventing data applications from reaching the voice traffic. It also gives you a simpler method to deploy QoS, prioritizing the voice traffic over the data.

Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic? A. Connect the WAP to a different switch. B. Create a voice VLAN. C. Create a DMZ. D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network? A. NIPS B. HIDS C. HIPS D. NIDS

Pete, a security administrator, is informed that people from the HR department should not have access to the accounting department's server, and the accounting department should not have access to the HR department's server. The network is separated by switches. Which of the following is designed to keep the HR department users from accessing the accounting department's server and vice-versa? A. ACLs B. VLANs C. DMZs D. NATS

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.

Pete, a security engineer, is trying to inventory all servers in a rack. The engineer launches RDP sessions to five different PCs and notices that the hardware properties are similar. Additionally, the MAC addresses of all five servers appear on the same switch port. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The system is running 802.1x. B. The system is using NAC. C. The system is in active-standby mode. D. The system is virtualized.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Web filtering software is designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, especially when utilised to restrict material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means.

Pete, an employee, attempts to visit a popular social networking site but is blocked. Instead, a page is displayed notifying him that this site cannot be visited. Which of the following is MOST likely blocking Pete's access to this site? A. Internet content filter B. Firewall C. Proxy server D. Protocol analyzer

Correct Answer: C Explanation: URL filtering, also known as web filtering, is the act of blocking access to a site based on all or part of the URL used to request access. URL filtering can focus on all or part of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), specific path names, specific filenames, specific fi le extensions, or entire specific URLs. Many URL-filtering tools can obtain updated master URL block lists from vendors as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.

Pete, the system administrator, wants to restrict access to advertisements, games, and gambling web sites. Which of the following devices would BEST achieve this goal? A. Firewall B. Switch C. URL content filter D. Spam filter

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A proxy is a device that acts on behalf of other(s). In the interest of security, all internal user interaction with the Internet should be controlled through a proxy server. The proxy server should automatically block known malicious sites. The proxy server should cache often-accessed sites to improve performance.

Pete, the system administrator, wishes to monitor and limit users' access to external websites. Which of the following would BEST address this? A. Block all traffic on port 80. B. Implement NIDS. C. Use server load balancers. D. Install a proxy server.

Correct Answer: AF Explanation: Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren't specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn't present. DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers. These are zone file exchanges between DNS servers, special manual queries, or used when a response exceeds 512 bytes. UDP port 53 is used for most typical DNS queries.

QUESTION 48 A network administrator wants to block both DNS requests and zone transfers coming from outside IP addresses. The company uses a firewall which implements an implicit allow and is currently configured with the following ACL applied to its external interface. PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 80 PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 443 Which of the following rules would accomplish this task? (Select TWO). A. Change the firewall default settings so that it implements an implicit deny B. Apply the current ACL to all interfaces of the firewall C. Remove the current ACL D. Add the following ACL at the top of the current ACL DENY TCP ANY ANY 53 E. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACL DENY ICMP ANY ANY 53 F. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACL DENY IP ANY ANY 53

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Network address translation (NAT) allows you to share a connection to the public Internet via a single interface with a single public IP address. NAT maps the private addresses to the public address. In a typical configuration, a local network uses one of the designated "private" IP address subnets. A router on that network has a private address (192.168.1.1) in that address space, and is also connected to the Internet with a "public" address (10.2.2.1) assigned by an Internet service provider.

Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router. Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10. DIAGRAM PC1 PC2 [192.168.1.30]--------[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]---------[10.2.2.10] LOGS 10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN 10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK 10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment? A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server. B. The web server listens on a non-standard port. C. The router filters port 80 traffic. D. The router implements NAT.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.

Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor? A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor's IP address. B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site. C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site. D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.

Correct Answer: A Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses. Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network's router. When Computer X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address.

Sara, the security administrator, must configure the corporate firewall to allow all public IP addresses on the internal interface of the firewall to be translated to one public IP address on the external interface of the same firewall. Which of the following should Sara configure? A. PAT B. NAP C. DNAT D. NAC

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated web based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) business functions be moved offshore to reduce cost, reduce IT overheads, and improve availability. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) has agreed with the CIO's direction but has mandated that key authentication systems be run within the organization's network. Which of the following would BEST meet the CIO and CRO's requirements? A. Software as a Service B. Infrastructure as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Hosted virtualization service

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The basic purpose of a firewall is to isolate one network from another.

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has mandated that all IT systems with credit card data be segregated from the main corporate network to prevent unauthorized access and that access to the IT systems should be logged. Which of the following would BEST meet the CISO's requirements? A. Sniffers B. NIDS C. Firewalls D. Web proxies E. Layer 2 switches

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren't specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default.

The Human Resources department has a parent shared folder setup on the server. There are two groups that have access, one called managers and one called staff. There are many sub folders under the parent shared folder, one is called payroll. The parent folder access control list propagates all subfolders and all subfolders inherit the parent permission. Which of the following is the quickest way to prevent the staff group from gaining access to the payroll folder? A. Remove the staff group from the payroll folder B. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the staff group C. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the managers group D. Remove inheritance from the payroll folder

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL. There are a number of URL-filtering tools that can acquire updated master URL block lists from vendors, as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.

The administrator receives a call from an employee named Joe. Joe says the Internet is down and he is receiving a blank page when typing to connect to a popular sports website. The administrator asks Joe to try visiting a popular search engine site, which Joe reports as successful. Joe then says that he can get to the sports site on this phone. Which of the following might the administrator need to configure? A. The access rules on the IDS B. The pop up blocker in the employee's browser C. The sensitivity level of the spam filter D. The default block page on the URL filter

Correct Answer: A Explanation: A signature based IDS will monitor packets on the network and compare them against a database of signatures or attributes from known malicious threats.

The network security engineer just deployed an IDS on the network, but the Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has concerns that the device is only able to detect known anomalies. Which of the following types of IDS has been deployed? A. Signature Based IDS B. Heuristic IDS C. Behavior Based IDS D. Anomaly Based IDS

Correct Answer: D Explanation: PAT would ensure that computers on ABC's LAN translate to the same IP address, but with a different port number assignment. The log information shows the IP address, not the port number, making it impossible to pin point the exact source.

The security administrator at ABC company received the following log information from an external party: 10:45:01 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3056, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Directory traversal 10:45:02 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3057, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Account brute force 10:45:03 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3058, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Port scan The external party is reporting attacks coming from abc-company.com. Which of the following is the reason the ABC company's security administrator is unable to determine the origin of the attack? A. A NIDS was used in place of a NIPS. B. The log is not in UTC. C. The external party uses a firewall. D. ABC company uses PAT.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: In the OSI model, IP addressing and IP routing are performed at layer 3 (the network layer). In this question we need to configure routing. When configuring routing, you specify which IP range (in this case, the IP subnet of the remote site) is allowed to route traffic through the router to the FTP server. Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.

The security administrator needs to manage traffic on a layer 3 device to support FTP from a new remote site. Which of the following would need to be implemented? A. Implicit deny B. VLAN management C. Port security D. Access control lists

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Migrating to a virtual server environment reduces cost by eliminating the need to purchase, manage, maintain and power physical machines. The fewer physical machines you have, the less money it costs.

The server administrator has noted that most servers have a lot of free disk space and low memory utilization. Which of the following statements will be correct if the server administrator migrates to a virtual server environment? A. The administrator will need to deploy load balancing and clustering. B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment. C. The administrator will not be able to add a test virtual environment in the data center. D. Servers will encounter latency and lowered throughput issues.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren't specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn't present.

Users are unable to connect to the web server at IP 192.168.0.20. Which of the following can be inferred of a firewall that is configured ONLY with the following ACL? PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 80 PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 443 A. It implements stateful packet filtering. B. It implements bottom-up processing. C. It failed closed. D. It implements an implicit deny.

When designing a new network infrastructure, a security administrator requests that the intranet web server be placed in an isolated area of the network for security purposes. Which of the following design elements would be implemented to comply with the security administrator's request? A. DMZ B. Cloud services C. Virtualization D. Sandboxing

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A signature-based monitoring or detection method relies on a database of signatures or patterns of known malicious or unwanted activity. The strength of a signature-based system is that it can quickly and accurately detect any event from its database of signatures.

When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability. Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described? A. Network based B. IDS C. Signature based D. Host based

Which of the following BEST describes a demilitarized zone? A. A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks. B. A network where all servers exist and are monitored. C. A sterile, isolated network segment with access lists. D. A private network that is protected by a firewall and a VLAN.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation: With the given subnet mask, a maximum number of 30 hosts between IP addresses 10.4.4.161 and 10.4.4.190 are allowed. Therefore, option C and D would be hosts on the same subnet, and the other options would not.

Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO). A. 10.4.4.125 B. 10.4.4.158 C. 10.4.4.165 D. 10.4.4.189 E. 10.4.4.199

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The question asks how to prevent access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites. You access a website by browsing to a URL using a Web browser or peer-to-peer file sharing client software. A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website. Incorrect Answer: A: A spam filter is used for email. All inbound (and sometimes outbound) email is passed through the spam filter to detect spam emails. The spam emails are then discarded or tagged as potential spam according to the spam filter configuration. Spam filters do not prevent users accessing peer- to-peer file sharing websites. C: Content inspection is the process of inspecting the content of a web page as it is downloaded. The content can then be blocked if it doesn't comply with the company's web policy. Content- control software determines what content will be available or perhaps more often what content will be blocked. Content inspection does not prevent users accessing peer-to-peer file sharing websites (although it could block the content of the sites as it is downloaded). D: Malware inspection is the process of scanning a computer system for malware. Malware inspection does not prevent users accessing peer-to-peer file sharing websites.

Which of the following components of an all-in-one security appliance would MOST likely be configured in order to restrict access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites? A. Spam filter B. URL filter C. Content inspection D. Malware inspection

Correct Answer: D Explanation: An application-level gateway firewall filters traffic based on user access, group membership, the application or service used, or even the type of resources being transmitted. This type of firewall operates at the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model.

Which of the following devices is BEST suited to protect an HTTP-based application that is susceptible to injection attacks? A. Protocol filter B. Load balancer C. NIDS D. Layer 7 firewall

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Firewalls, routers, and even switches can use ACLs as a method of security management. An access control list has a deny ip any any implicitly at the end of any access control list. ACLs deny by default and allow by exception.

Which of the following devices is MOST likely being used when processing the following? 1 PERMIT IP ANY ANY EQ 80 2 DENY IP ANY ANY A. Firewall B. NIPS C. Load balancer D. URL filter

Correct Answer: A Explanation: The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

Which of the following devices would MOST likely have a DMZ interface? A. Firewall B. Switch C. Load balancer D. Proxy

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Load balancing refers to shifting a load from one device to another. A load balancer can be implemented as a software or hardware solution, and it is usually associated with a device--a router, a firewall, NAT appliance, and so on. In its most common implementation, a load balancer splits the traffic intended for a website into individual requests that are then rotated to redundant servers as they become available.

Which of the following devices would be MOST useful to ensure availability when there are a large number of requests to a certain website? A. Protocol analyzer B. Load balancer C. VPN concentrator D. Web security gateway

Correct Answer: C Explanation: DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.

Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers? A. deny udp any any port 53 B. deny ip any any C. deny tcp any any port 53 D. deny all dns packets

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.

Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model? A. Packet Filter Firewall B. Stateful Firewall C. Proxy Firewall D. Application Firewall

Correct Answer: A Explanation: A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server plugin, or filter that applies a set of rules to an HTTP conversation. Generally, these rules cover common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection. By customizing the rules to your application, many attacks can be identified and blocked. The effort to perform this customization can be significant and needs to be maintained as the application is modified. As the protocols used to access a web server (typically HTTP and HTTPS) run in layer 7 of the OSI model, then web application firewall (WAF) is the correct answer.

Which of the following is BEST at blocking attacks and providing security at layer 7 of the OSI model? A. WAF B. NIDS C. Routers D. Switches

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.

Which of the following is BEST used to break a group of IP addresses into smaller network segments or blocks? A. NAT B. Virtualization C. NAC D. Subnetting

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Disabling unused switch ports a simple method many network administrators use to help secure their network from unauthorized access. All ports not in use should be disabled. Otherwise, they present an open door for an attacker to enter.

Which of the following is a best practice when securing a switch from physical access? A. Disable unnecessary accounts B. Print baseline configuration C. Enable access lists D. Disable unused ports

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.

Which of the following is required to allow multiple servers to exist on one physical server? A. Software as a Service (SaaS) B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) C. Virtualization D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

Which of the following network architecture concepts is used to securely isolate at the boundary between networks? A. VLAN B. Subnetting C. DMZ D. NAT

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses. Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network's router. When Computer X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address.

Which of the following network design elements allows for many internal devices to share one public IP address? A. DNAT B. PAT C. DNS D. DMZ

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software.

Which of the following offerings typically allows the customer to apply operating system patches? A. Software as a service B. Public Clouds C. Cloud Based Storage D. Infrastructure as a service

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cloud computing refers to performing data processing and storage elsewhere, over a network connection, rather than locally. Because users have access to the data, it can easily be copied to a USB device.

Which of the following offers the LEAST amount of protection against data theft by USB drives? A. DLP B. Database encryption C. TPM D. Cloud computing

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ip tables are a user-space application program that allows a system administrator to configure the tables provided by the Linux kernel firewall and the chains and rules it stores.

Which of the following security devices can be replicated on a Linux based computer using IP tables to inspect and properly handle network based traffic? A. Sniffer B. Router C. Firewall D. Switch

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.

Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network? A. HIPS on each virtual machine B. NIPS on the network C. NIDS on the network D. HIDS on each virtual machine

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Quality of Service (QoS) facilitates the deployment of media-rich applications, such as video conferencing and Internet Protocol (IP) telephony, without adversely affecting network throughput.

Which of the following should be performed to increase the availability of IP telephony by prioritizing traffic? A. Subnetting B. NAT C. Quality of service D. NAC

Correct Answer: DEG Explanation: A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. Firewalls manage traffic using a rule or a set of rules. A URL is a reference to a resource that specifies the location of the resource. A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL.

Which of the following should the security administrator implement to limit web traffic based on country of origin? (Select THREE). A. Spam filter B. Load balancer C. Antivirus D. Proxies E. Firewall F. NIDS G. URL filtering

Correct Answer: D Explanation: One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This "multitenant" nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements? A. Data loss prevention B. Trusted platform module C. Hard drive encryption D. Cloud computing

Correct Answer: B Explanation: VPNs are usually employed to allow remote access users to connect to and access the network, and offer connectivity between two or more private networks or LANs. A VPN gateway (VPN router) is a connection point that connects two LANs via a nonsecure network such as the Internet.

Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, MOST likely implement in order to allow employees to have secure remote access to certain internal network services such as file servers? A. Packet filtering firewall B. VPN gateway C. Switch D. Router

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.

Which of the following would allow the organization to divide a Class C IP address range into several ranges? A. DMZ B. Virtual LANs C. NAT D. Subnetting

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Using this option will result in all three servers using host addresses on different broadcast domains.

Which of the following would the security engineer set as the subnet mask for the servers below to utilize host addresses on separate broadcast domains? Server 1: 192.168.100.6 Server 2: 192.168.100.9 Server 3: 192.169.100.20 A. /24 B. /27 C. /28 D. /29 E. /30

Correct Answer: BC Explanation: To establish a TCP connection, the three-way (or 3-step) handshake occurs: SYN: The active open is performed by the client sending a SYN to the server. The client sets the segment's sequence number to a random value A. SYN-ACK: In response, the server replies with a SYN-ACK. The acknowledgment number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. A+1, and the sequence number that the server chooses for the packet is another random number, B. ACK: Finally, the client sends an ACK back to the server. The sequence number is set to the received acknowledgement value i.e. A+1, and the acknowledgement number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. B+1.

Which the following flags are used to establish a TCP connection? (Select TWO). A. PSH B. ACK C. SYN D. URG E. FIN

Correct Answer: D 802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. It's based on Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but today it's often used as a component in more complex authentication and connection-management systems, including Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco System's Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Network Access Control (NAC).

While configuring a new access layer switch, the administrator, Joe, was advised that he needed to make sure that only devices authorized to access the network would be permitted to login and utilize resources. Which of the following should the administrator implement to ensure this happens? A. Log Analysis B. VLAN Management C. Network separation D. 802.1x

Correct Answer: C Explanation: RDP uses TCP port 3389.

following ports appear in the log: 22, 25, 445, 1433, 3128, 3389, 6667 Which of the following protocols was used to access the server remotely? A. LDAP B. HTTP C. RDP D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The administrator is the person responsible for setting the security policy for an organization and is responsible for making decisions about the deployment and configuration of the IDS.

In intrusion detection system vernacular, which account is responsible for setting the security policy for an organization? A. Supervisor B. Administrator C. Root D. Director

Correct Answer: AE Explanation: A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website. Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule's criteria: Block the connection Allow the connection Allow the connection only if it is secured Incorrect Options: B: Role-based Access Control is basically based on a user's job description. When a user is assigned a specific role in an environment, that user's access to objects is granted based on the required tasks of that role. Since the sales team needs to save and print reports, they would not be restricted if restrictions were role-based. C: A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices. D: Port security works at level 2 of the OSI model and allows an administrator to configure switch ports so that only certain MAC addresses can use the port.

The loss prevention department has purchased a new application that allows the employees to monitor the alarm systems at remote locations. However, the application fails to connect to the vendor's server and the users are unable to log in. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of this issue? (Select TWO). A. URL filtering B. Role-based access controls C. MAC filtering D. Port Security E. Firewall rules

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Change management is the structured approach that is followed to secure a company's assets. Promoting code to application on a SMZ web server would be change management.

The network administrator is responsible for promoting code to applications on a DMZ web server. Which of the following processes is being followed to ensure application integrity? A. Application hardening B. Application firewall review C. Application change management D. Application patch management

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Mandatory vacations also provide an opportunity to discover fraud apart from the obvious benefits of giving employees a chance to refresh and making sure that others in the company can fill those positions and make the company less dependent on those persons; a sort pf replication and duplication at all levels.

Mandatory vacations are a security control which can be used to uncover which of the following? A. Fraud committed by a system administrator B. Poor password security among users C. The need for additional security staff D. Software vulnerabilities in vendor code

Correct Answer: D Explanation: PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards. Only servers running Network Policy Server (NPS) or PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 are required to have a certificate.

Matt, a systems security engineer, is determining which credential-type authentication to use within a planned 802.1x deployment. He is looking for a method that does not require a client certificate, has a server side certificate, and uses TLS tunnels for encryption. Which credential type authentication method BEST fits these requirements? A. EAP-TLS B. EAP-FAST C. PEAP-CHAP D. PEAP-MSCHAPv2

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A least privilege policy should be used when assigning permissions. Give users only the permissions that they need to do their work and no more.

One of the system administrators at a company is assigned to maintain a secure computer lab. The administrator has rights to configure machines, install software, and perform user account maintenance. However, the administrator cannot add new computers to the domain, because that requires authorization from the Information Assurance Officer. This is an example of which of the following? A. Mandatory access B. Rule-based access control C. Least privilege D. Job rotation

Correct Answer: C Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). Secure FTP (SFTP) is a secured alternative to standard File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

Pete needs to open ports on the firewall to allow for secure transmission of files. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall? A. TCP 23 B. UDP 69 C. TCP 22 D. TCP 21

Correct Answer: B Explanation: HTTP and HTTPS, which uses TCP port 80 and TCP port 443 respectively, is necessary for Communicating with Web servers. It should therefore be allowed through the firewall.

Pete, a network administrator, is implementing IPv6 in the DMZ. Which of the following protocols must he allow through the firewall to ensure the web servers can be reached via IPv6 from an IPv6 enabled Internet host? A. TCP port 443 and IP protocol 46 B. TCP port 80 and TCP port 443 C. TCP port 80 and ICMP D. TCP port 443 and SNMP

Correct Answer: DE Explanation: SSH is used to establish a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device over any distance. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). SCP is commonly used on Linux and Unix platforms.

A UNIX administrator would like to use native commands to provide a secure way of connecting to other devices remotely and to securely transfer files. Which of the following protocols could be utilized? (Select TWO). A. RDP B. SNMP C. FTP D. SCP E. SSH

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Antivirus companies frequently create boot discs you can use to scan and repair your computer. These tools can be burned to a CD or DVD or installed onto a USB drive. You can then restart your computer and boot from the removable media. A special antivirus environment will load where your computer can be scanned and repaired. Incorrect Options: A: Kill all system processes will stop system processes, and could have a negative effect on the system. It is not the BEST way to run the malware scanner B: The basic purpose of a firewall is to isolate one network from another. It is not the BEST way to run the malware scanner. D: Disabling the network connection will not allow for the BEST way to run the malware scanner.

A Windows-based computer is infected with malware and is running too slowly to boot and run a malware scanner. Which of the following is the BEST way to run the malware scanner? A. Kill all system processes B. Enable the firewall C. Boot from CD/USB D. Disable the network connection

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Static PAT translations allow a specific UDP or TCP port on a global address to be translated to a specific port on a local address. In this case, the default HTTP port (80) is the global address to be translated, and port 8080 is the specific port on a local address. Incorrect Options: A: Dynamic PAT is not a valid type of PAT. B: Dynamic NAT translates a group of real addresses to a pool of mapped addresses that are routable on the destination network. The question also states that the internal server is listening on port 8080. D: The question states that the internal server is listening on port 8080.

A company administrator has a firewall with an outside interface connected to the Internet and an inside interface connected to the corporate network. Which of the following should the administrator configure to redirect traffic destined for the default HTTP port on the outside interface to an internal server listening on port 8080? A. Create a dynamic PAT from port 80 on the outside interface to the internal interface on port B. Create a dynamic NAT from port 8080 on the outside interface to the server IP address on port C. Create a static PAT from port 80 on the outside interface to the internal interface on port 8080 D. Create a static PAT from port 8080 on the outside interface to the server IP address on port 80

Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference: Explanation: ISA/ Interconnection Security Agreement is an agreement between two organizations that have connected systems. The agreement documents the technical requirements of the connected systems.

A company has decided to move large data sets to a cloud provider in order to limit the costs of new infrastructure. Some of the data is sensitive and the Chief Information Officer wants to make sure both parties have a clear understanding of the controls needed to protect the data. Which of the following types of interoperability agreement is this? A. ISA B. MOU C. SLA D. BPA

Correct Answer: CD Explanation: A PPTP tunnel is instantiated by communication to the peer on TCP port 1723. This TCP connection is then used to initiate and manage a second GRE tunnel to the same peer. The PPTP GRE packet format is non-standard, including an additional acknowledgement field replacing the typical routing field in the GRE header. However, as in a normal GRE connection, those modified GRE packets are directly encapsulated into IP packets, and seen as IP protocol number 47.

A company has implemented PPTP as a VPN solution. Which of the following ports would need to be opened on the firewall in order for this VPN to function properly? (Select TWO). A. UDP 1723 B. TCP 500 C. TCP 1723 D. UDP 47 E. TCP 47

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Risk mitigation is done anytime you take steps to reduce risks. Thus mandatory vacation implementation is done as a risk control measure because it is a step that is taken as risk mitigation.

A company that has a mandatory vacation policy has implemented which of the following controls? A. Risk control B. Privacy control C. Technical control D. Physical control

Correct Answer: D Explanation: To test the wireless AP placement, a site survey should be performed.

A company has recently implemented a high density wireless system by having a junior technician install two new access points for every access point already deployed. Users are now reporting random wireless disconnections and slow network connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The old APs use 802.11a B. Users did not enter the MAC of the new APs C. The new APs use MIMO D. A site survey was not conducted

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A mandatory vacation policy requires all users to take time away from work to refresh. And in the same time it also gives the company a chance to make sure that others can fill in any gaps in skills and satisfy the need to have replication or duplication at all levels in addition to affording the company an opportunity to discover fraud for when others do the same job in the absence of the regular staff member then there is transparency.

A company is looking to reduce the likelihood of employees in the finance department being involved with money laundering. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate this risk? A. Implement privacy policies B. Enforce mandatory vacations C. Implement a security policy D. Enforce time of day restrictions

Correct Answer: BD Explanation: B: Full disk encryption is when the entire volume is encrypted; the data is not accessible to someone who might boot another operating system in an attempt to bypass the computer's security. Full disk encryption is sometimes referred to as hard drive encryption. D: Disk wiping is the process of overwriting data on the repeatedly, or using a magnet to alter the magnetic structure of the disks. This renders the data unreadable.

A company is preparing to decommission an offline, non-networked root certificate server. Before sending the server's drives to be destroyed by a contracted company, the Chief Security Officer (CSO) wants to be certain that the data will not be accessed. Which of the following, if implemented, would BEST reassure the CSO? (Select TWO). A. Disk hashing procedures B. Full disk encryption C. Data retention policies D. Disk wiping procedures E. Removable media encryption

Correct Answer: A Explanation: When the SSID is broadcast, any device with an automatic detect and connect feature is able to see the network and can initiate a connection with it. The fact that they cannot access the network means that they are unable to see it.

A company provides secure wireless Internet access for visitors and vendors working onsite. Some of the vendors using older technology report that they are unable to access the wireless network after entering the correct network information. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue? A. The SSID broadcast is disabled. B. The company is using the wrong antenna type. C. The MAC filtering is disabled on the access point. D. The company is not using strong enough encryption.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Within Microsoft Windows, you have the ability to put signs (in the form of onscreen pop-up banners) that appear before the login telling similar information--authorized access only, violators will be prosecuted, and so forth. Such banners convey warnings or regulatory information to the user that they must "accept" in order to use the machine or network. You need to make staff aware that they may legally be prosecuted and a message is best given via a banner so that all staff using workstation will get notification.

A company storing data on a secure server wants to ensure it is legally able to dismiss and prosecute staff who intentionally access the server via Telnet and illegally tamper with customer data. Which of the following administrative controls should be implemented to BEST achieve this? A. Command shell restrictions B. Restricted interface C. Warning banners D. Session output pipe to /dev/null

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The question states that traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139 is blocked, while ports 22 and 443 are allowed. Port 21 is used for FTP by default. Port 69 is used for TFTP. Port 80 is used for HTTP. Ports 137-139 are used for NetBIOS. VMM uses SFTP over default port 22. Port 22 is used for SSH by default. SCP runs over TCP port 22 by default. Port 443 is used for HTTPS.

A firewall technician has been instructed to disable all non-secure ports on a corporate firewall. The technician has blocked traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139. The technician has allowed traffic on ports 22 and 443. Which of the following correctly lists the protocols blocked and allowed? A. Blocked: TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: HTTPS, FTP B. Blocked: FTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, HTTPS C. Blocked: SFTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SSH, SCP, HTTPS D. Blocked: FTP, HTTP, HTTPS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, NetBIOS

Correct Answer: A Explanation: The entire network is only as strong as the weakest host. Thus with the co-mingling of hosts with different security requirements would be risking security policy violations.

A major security risk with co-mingling of hosts with different security requirements is: A. Security policy violations. B. Zombie attacks. C. Password compromises. D. Privilege creep.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The LMHOSTS file provides a NetBIOS name resolution method that can be used for small networks that do not use a WINS server. NetBIOS has been adapted to run on top of TCP/IP, and is still extensively used for name resolution and registration in Windows-based environments.

A malicious program modified entries in the LMHOSTS file of an infected system. Which of the following protocols would have been affected by this? A. ICMP B. BGP C. NetBIOS D. DNS

Correct Answer: C Explanation: There are three steps to penetrating a WPA-protected network. Sniffing Parsing Attacking

A malicious user is sniffing a busy encrypted wireless network waiting for an authorized client to connect to it. Only after an authorized client has connected and the hacker was able to capture the client handshake with the AP can the hacker begin a brute force attack to discover the encryption key. Which of the following attacks is taking place? A. IV attack B. WEP cracking C. WPA cracking D. Rogue AP

Correct Answer: A Explanation: CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the WEP protocol and TKIP protocol of WPA. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized parties can access the information Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user Access control in conjunction with layer management Because CCMP is a block cipher mode using a 128-bit key, it is secure against attacks to the 264 steps of operation.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing the WLAN. Which of the following cryptographic products would be used to provide the MOST secure environment for the WLAN? A. WPA2 CCMP B. WPA C. WPA with MAC filtering D. WPA2 TKIP

Correct Answer: B Explanation: SFTP encrypts authentication and data traffic between the client and server by making use of SSH to provide secure FTP communications. As a result, SFTP offers protection for both the authentication traffic and the data transfer taking place between a client and server.

A network administrator is asked to send a large file containing PII to a business associate. Which of the following protocols is the BEST choice to use? A. SSH B. SFTP C. SMTP D. FTP

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Telnet is a terminal-emulation network application that supports remote connectivity for executing commands and running applications but doesn't support transfer of fi les. Telnet uses TCP port 23. Because it's a clear text protocol and service, it should be avoided and replaced with SSH.

A network consists of various remote sites that connect back to two main locations. Pete, the security administrator, needs to block TELNET access into the network. Which of the following, by default, would be the BEST choice to accomplish this goal? A. Block port 23 on the L2 switch at each remote site B. Block port 23 on the network firewall C. Block port 25 on the L2 switch at each remote site D. Block port 25 on the network firewall

Correct Answer: A Explanation: BIND (Berkeley Internet Name Domain) is the most widely used Domain Name System (DNS) software on the Internet. It includes the DNS server component contracted for name daemon. This is the only option that directly involves DNS.

A network technician is on the phone with the system administration team. Power to the server room was lost and servers need to be restarted. The DNS services must be the first to be restarted. Several machines are powered off. Assuming each server only provides one service, which of the following should be powered on FIRST to establish DNS services? A. Bind server B. Apache server C. Exchange server D. RADIUS server

Correct Answer: B Explanation: CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the WEP protocol and TKIP protocol of WPA. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized parties can access the information Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user Access control in conjunction with layer management Incorrect Options: A: The antenna type deals with signal strength and direction. It will not have a bearing on whether technology is older. C: This option would "cloak" the network, not harden the network. D: WPA2, which uses CCMP as its standard encryption protocol, more secure than WPA-TKIP.

A retail store uses a wireless network for its employees to access inventory from anywhere in the store. Due to concerns regarding the aging wireless network, the store manager has brought in a consultant to harden the network. During the site survey, the consultant discovers that the network was using WEP encryption. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action for the consultant to recommend? A. Replace the unidirectional antenna at the front of the store with an omni-directional antenna. B. Change the encryption used so that the encryption protocol is CCMP-based. C. Disable the network's SSID and configure the router to only access store devices based on MAC addresses. D. Increase the access point's encryption from WEP to WPA TKIP.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.

A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default? A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A job rotation policy defines intervals at which employees must rotate through positions.

A software developer is responsible for writing the code on an accounting application. Another software developer is responsible for developing code on a system in human resources. Once a year they have to switch roles for several weeks. Which of the following practices is being implemented? A. Mandatory vacations B. Job rotation C. Least privilege D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Reviewing user permissions and group memberships form part of a privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation.

A security administrator is responsible for performing periodic reviews of user permission settings due to high turnover and internal transfers at a corporation. Which of the following BEST describes the procedure and security rationale for performing such reviews? A. Review all user permissions and group memberships to ensure only the minimum set of permissions required to perform a job is assigned. B. Review the permissions of all transferred users to ensure new permissions are granted so the employee can work effectively. C. Ensure all users have adequate permissions and appropriate group memberships, so the volume of help desk calls is reduced. D. Ensure former employee accounts have no permissions so that they cannot access any network file stores and resources.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) means controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policies.

A security administrator is tasked with ensuring that all devices have updated virus definition files before they are allowed to access network resources. Which of the following technologies would be used to accomplish this goal? A. NIDS B. NAC C. DLP D. DMZ E. Port Security

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The default HTTPS port is port 443. When configuring SSL VPN you can change the default port for HTTPS to a port within the 1024-65535 range. This ACL will allow traffic from VPNs using the 1024-65535 port range to access the company network via company's gateway firewall on port 443.

A security administrator must implement a firewall rule to allow remote employees to VPN onto the company network. The VPN concentrator implements SSL VPN over the standard HTTPS port. Which of the following is the MOST secure ACL to implement at the company's gateway firewall? A. PERMIT TCP FROM ANY 443 TO 199.70.5.25 443 B. PERMIT TCP FROM ANY ANY TO 199.70.5.23 ANY C. PERMIT TCP FROM 199.70.5.23 ANY TO ANY ANY D. PERMIT TCP FROM ANY 1024-65535 TO 199.70.5.23 443

Correct Answer: D Explanation: D: Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is designed to provide security equivalent to that of a wired network. WEP has vulnerabilities and isn't considered highly secure. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) provides a framework for authentication that is often used with wireless networks. Among the five EAP types adopted by the WPA/ WPA2 standard are EAP-TLS, EAP-PSK, EAP- MD5, as well as LEAP and PEAP. PEAP is similar in design to EAP-TTLS, requiring only a server-side PKI certificate to create a secure TLS tunnel to protect user authentication, and uses server-side public key certificates to authenticate the server. It then creates an encrypted TLS tunnel between the client and the authentication server. In most configurations, the keys for this encryption are transported using the server's public key. The ensuing exchange of authentication information inside the tunnel to authenticate the client is then encrypted and user credentials are safe from eavesdropping.

A security administrator must implement a network authentication solution which will ensure encryption of user credentials when users enter their username and password to authenticate to the network. Which of the following should the administrator implement? A. WPA2 over EAP-TTLS B. WPA-PSK C. WPA2 with WPS D. WEP over EAP-PEAP

Correct Answer: D Explanation: D: WPA-Enterprise is also referred to as WPA-802.1X mode, and sometimes just WPA (as opposed to WPA-PSK), this is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server. This requires a more complicated setup, but provides additional security (e.g. protection against dictionary attacks on short passwords). Various kinds of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) are used for authentication. RADIUS can be managed centrally, and the servers that allow access to a network can verify with a RADIUS server whether an incoming caller is authorized. Thus the RADIUS server can perform all authentications. This will require users to use their passwords on their user accounts.

A security administrator must implement a wireless security system, which will require users to enter a 30 character ASCII password on their accounts. Additionally the system must support 3DS wireless encryption. Which of the following should be implemented? A. WPA2-CCMP with 802.1X B. WPA2-PSK C. WPA2-CCMP D. WPA2-Enterprise

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company's assets. Thus the actual switch configuration should first be subject to the change management approval.

A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed? A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team. B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process. C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process. D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A least privilege policy is to give users only the permissions that they need to do their work and no more. That is only allowing security administrators to be able to make changes to the firewall by practicing the least privilege principle.

A security administrator notices that a specific network administrator is making unauthorized changes to the firewall every Saturday morning. Which of the following would be used to mitigate this issue so that only security administrators can make changes to the firewall? A. Mandatory vacations B. Job rotation C. Least privilege D. Time of day restrictions

Correct Answer: B Explanation: False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about.

A vulnerability scan is reporting that patches are missing on a server. After a review, it is determined that the application requiring the patch does not exist on the operating system. Which of the following describes this cause? A. Application hardening B. False positive C. Baseline code review D. False negative

Correct Answer: D Explanation/Reference: Explanation: This is a risk acceptance measure that has to be implemented since the cost of patching would be too high compared to the cost to keep the system going as is. Risk acceptance is often the choice you must make when the cost of implementing any of the other four choices (i.e. risk deterrence, mitigation, transference or avoidance) exceeds the value of the harm that would occur if the risk came to fruition.

A security administrator plans on replacing a critical business application in five years. Recently, there was a security flaw discovered in the application that will cause the IT department to manually re-enable user accounts each month at a cost of $2,000. Patching the application today would cost $140,000 and take two months to implement. Which of the following should the security administrator do in regards to the application? A. Avoid the risk to the user base allowing them to re-enable their own accounts B. Mitigate the risk by patching the application to increase security and saving money C. Transfer the risk replacing the application now instead of in five years D. Accept the risk and continue to enable the accounts each month saving money

Correct Answer: C IPSec security is built into IPv6.

A security administrator wishes to change their wireless network so that IPSec is built into the protocol and NAT is no longer required for address range extension. Which of the following protocols should be used in this scenario? A. WPA2 B. WPA C. IPv6 D. IPv4

Correct Answer: A Explanation: CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.

A security administrator wishes to increase the security of the wireless network. Which of the following BEST addresses this concern? A. Change the encryption from TKIP-based to CCMP-based. B. Set all nearby access points to operate on the same channel. C. Configure the access point to use WEP instead of WPA2. D. Enable all access points to broadcast their SSIDs.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

A security analyst has been tasked with securing a guest wireless network. They recommend the company use an authentication server but are told the funds are not available to set this up. Which of the following BEST allows the analyst to restrict user access to approved devices? A. Antenna placement B. Power level adjustment C. Disable SSID broadcasting D. MAC filtering

Correct Answer: D Explanation: incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets). The events that could occur include security breaches.

A security analyst informs the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) that a security breach has just occurred. This results in the Risk Manager and Chief Information Officer (CIO) being caught unaware when the CEO asks for further information. Which of the following strategies should be implemented to ensure the Risk Manager and CIO are not caught unaware in the future? A. Procedure and policy management B. Chain of custody management C. Change management D. Incident management

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol originally used on Unix systems. It's now available for both Unix and Windows environments. SSH is primarily intended for interactive terminal sessions. SSH is used to establish a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device over any distance.

A security analyst needs to logon to the console to perform maintenance on a remote server. Which of the following protocols would provide secure access? A. SCP B. SSH C. SFTP D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: B Explanation: B: The Telnet program parameters are: telnet <hostname> <port> <hostname> is the name or IP address of the remote server to connect to. <port> is the port number of the service to use for the connection. TCP port 443 provides the HTTPS (used for secure web connections) service; it is the default SSL port. By running the Telnet some-host 443 command, the security analyst is checking that routing is done properly and not blocked by a firewall.

A security analyst noticed a colleague typing the following command: `Telnet some-host 443' Which of the following was the colleague performing? A. A hacking attempt to the some-host web server with the purpose of achieving a distributed denial of service attack. B. A quick test to see if there is a service running on some-host TCP/443, which is being routed correctly and not blocked by a firewall. C. Trying to establish an insecure remote management session. The colleague should be using SSH or terminal services instead. D. A mistaken port being entered because telnet servers typically do not listen on port 443.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it's a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn't for public use.

A security architect wishes to implement a wireless network with connectivity to the company's internal network. Before they inform all employees that this network is being put in place, the architect wants to roll it out to a small test segment. Which of the following allows for greater secrecy about this network during this initial phase of implementation? A. Disabling SSID broadcasting B. Implementing WPA2 - TKIP C. Implementing WPA2 - CCMP D. Filtering test workstations by MAC address

Correct Answer: BD Explanation: A backout (regression testing) is a reversion from a change that had negative consequences. It could be, for example, that everything was working fi ne until you installed a service pack on a production machine, and then services that were normally available were no longer accessible. The backout, in this instance, would revert the system to the state that it was in before the service pack was applied. Backout plans can include uninstalling service packs, hotfi xes, and patches, but they can also include reversing a migration and using previous firmware. A key component to creating such a plan is identifying what events will trigger your implementing the backout. A change control policy refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company's assets in the event of changes occurring.

A security engineer is given new application extensions each month that need to be secured prior to implementation. They do not want the new extensions to invalidate or interfere with existing application security. Additionally, the engineer wants to ensure that the new requirements are approved by the appropriate personnel. Which of the following should be in place to meet these two goals? (Select TWO). A. Patch Audit Policy B. Change Control Policy C. Incident Management Policy D. Regression Testing Policy E. Escalation Policy F. Application Audit Policy

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network. It uses X.509 certificates and hence asymmetric cryptography to authenticate the counterparty with whom it is communicating, and to exchange a symmetric key. The TLS protocol allows client-server applications to communicate across a network in a way designed to prevent eavesdropping and tampering.

A security engineer, Joe, has been asked to create a secure connection between his mail server and the mail server of a business partner. Which of the following protocol would be MOST appropriate? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. FTP D. TLS

Correct Answer: AF Explanation: Placing the antenna in the correct position is crucial. You can then adjust the power levels to exclude the parking lot.

A security team has identified that the wireless signal is broadcasting into the parking lot. To reduce the risk of an attack against the wireless network from the parking lot, which of the following controls should be used? (Select TWO). A. Antenna placement B. Interference C. Use WEP D. Single Sign on E. Disable the SSID F. Power levels

Correct Answer: CE Explanation: DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.

A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution. Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO). A. TCP 21 B. TCP 23 C. TCP 53 D. UDP 23 E. UDP 53

Correct Answer: D Explanation: 802.1q is a standard that defines a system of VLAN tagging for Ethernet frames. The purpose of a tagged port is to pass traffic for multiple VLAN's. Incorrect Options: A: 802.11x provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN. B: VLAN Q-in-Q allows multiple VLAN tags to be inserted into a single frame. C: The purpose an untagged port is to accept traffic for a single VLAN only.

A server is configured to communicate on both VLAN 1 and VLAN 12. VLAN 1 communication works fine, but VLAN 12 does not. Which of the following MUST happen before the server can communicate on VLAN 12? A. The server's network switch port must be enabled for 802.11x on VLAN 12. B. The server's network switch port must use VLAN Q-in-Q for VLAN 12. C. The server's network switch port must be 802.1q untagged for VLAN 12. D. The server's network switch port must be 802.1q tagged for VLAN 12.

Correct Answer: DE Explanation: Aspects such as fencing, proper lighting, locks, CCTV, Escape plans Drills, escape routes and testing controls form part of safety controls. Integrity refers to aspects such as hashing, digital signatures, certificates and non-repudiation all of which has to do with data integrity.

A software company has completed a security assessment. The assessment states that the company should implement fencing and lighting around the property. Additionally, the assessment states that production releases of their software should be digitally signed. Given the recommendations, the company was deficient in which of the following core security areas? (Select TWO). A. Fault tolerance B. Encryption C. Availability D. Integrity E. Safety F. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: D Explanation: IPv6 addresses are 128-bits in length. An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). The hexadecimal digits are case-insensitive, but IETF recommendations suggest the use of lower case letters. The full representation of eight 4-digit groups may be simplified by several techniques, eliminating parts of the representation.

A system administrator attempts to ping a hostname and the response is 2001:4860:0:2001::68. Which of the following replies has the administrator received? A. The loopback address B. The local MAC address C. IPv4 address D. IPv6 address

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector.

A system administrator wants to enable WPA2 CCMP. Which of the following is the only encryption used? A. RC4 B. DES C. 3DES D. AES

Correct Answer: C Explanation: DNS links IP addresses and human-friendly fully qualified domain names (FQDNs), which are made up of the Top-level domain (TLD), the registered domain name, and the Subdomain or hostname. Therefore, if the DNS ports are blocked websites will not be reachable.

A technician has just installed a new firewall onto the network. Users are reporting that they cannot reach any website. Upon further investigation, the technician determines that websites can be reached by entering their IP addresses. Which of the following ports may have been closed to cause this issue? A. HTTP B. DHCP C. DNS D. NetBIOS

Correct Answer: AF Explanation: A secure remote administration solution and Remote Desktop protocol is required. Secure Shell (SSH) is a secure remote administration solution and makes use of TCP port 22. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.

A technician is unable to manage a remote server. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall for remote server management? (Select TWO). A. 22 B. 135 C. 137 D. 143 E. 443 F. 3389

Correct Answer: A Explanation: SNMPv3 provides the following security features: Message integrity--Ensures that a packet has not been tampered with in transit. Authentication--Determines that the message is from a valid source. Encryption--Scrambles the content of a packet to prevent it from being learned by an unauthorized source.

A technician wants to securely collect network device configurations and statistics through a scheduled and automated process. Which of the following should be implemented if configuration integrity is most important and a credential compromise should not allow interactive logons? A. SNMPv3 B. TFTP C. SSH D. TLS

Correct Answer: B Explanation: This is an incident that has to be responded to by the person who discovered it- in this case the user. An incident is any attempt to violate a security policy, a successful penetration, a compromise of a system, or any unauthorized access to information. It's important that an incident response policy establish at least the following items: Outside agencies that should be contacted or notified in case of an incident Resources used to deal with an incident Procedures to gather and secure evidence List of information that should be collected about an incident Outside experts who can be used to address issues if needed Policies and guidelines regarding how to handle an incident Since the spec sheet has been marked Internal Proprietary Information the user should refer the incident to the incident response team.

A user has received an email from an external source which asks for details on the company's new product line set for release in one month. The user has a detailed spec sheet but it is marked "Internal Proprietary Information". Which of the following should the user do NEXT? A. Contact their manager and request guidance on how to best move forward B. Contact the help desk and/or incident response team to determine next steps C. Provide the requestor with the email information since it will be released soon anyway D. Reply back to the requestor to gain their contact information and call them

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Separation of duties means that users are granted only the permissions they need to do their work and no more. More so it means that there is differentiation between users, employees and duties per se which form part of best practices.

A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implemented within the company? A. Account lockout policy B. Account password enforcement C. Password complexity enabled D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: C Explanation: With sending your data to a third party is already a risk since the third party may have a different policy than yours. Data ownership and non-disclosure is already a risk that you will have to accept since the data will be sent for debugging /troubleshooting purposes which will result in definite disclosure of the data.

Acme Corp has selectively outsourced proprietary business processes to ABC Services. Due to some technical issues, ABC services wants to send some of Acme Corp's debug data to a third party vendor for problem resolution. Which of the following MUST be considered prior to sending data to a third party? A. The data should be encrypted prior to transport B. This would not constitute unauthorized data sharing C. This may violate data ownership and non-disclosure agreements D. Acme Corp should send the data to ABC Services' vendor instead

Correct Answer: A ICMP is a protocol that is commonly used by tools such as ping, traceroute, and pathping. ICMP offers no information If ICMP request queries go unanswered, or ICMP replies are lost or blocked.

After a network outage, a PC technician is unable to ping various network devices. The network administrator verifies that those devices are working properly and can be accessed securely. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the PC technician is unable to ping those devices? A. ICMP is being blocked B. SSH is not enabled C. DNS settings are wrong D. SNMP is not configured properly

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a standardized network protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for distributing IP addresses for interfaces and services. DHCP makes use of port 68.

After a new firewall has been installed, devices cannot obtain a new IP address. Which of the following ports should Matt, the security administrator, open on the firewall? A. 25 B. 68 C. 80 D. 443

Correct Answer: B Explanation: MAC filtering allows you to include or exclude computers and devices based on their MAC address.

After entering the following information into a SOHO wireless router, a mobile device's user reports being unable to connect to the network: PERMIT 0A: D1: FA. B1: 03: 37 DENY 01: 33: 7F: AB: 10: AB Which of the following is preventing the device from connecting? A. WPA2-PSK requires a supplicant on the mobile device. B. Hardware address filtering is blocking the device. C. TCP/IP Port filtering has been implemented on the SOHO router. D. IP address filtering has disabled the device from connecting.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.

After reviewing the firewall logs of her organization's wireless APs, Ann discovers an unusually high amount of failed authentication attempts in a particular segment of the building. She remembers that a new business moved into the office space across the street. Which of the following would be the BEST option to begin addressing the issue? A. Reduce the power level of the AP on the network segment B. Implement MAC filtering on the AP of the affected segment C. Perform a site survey to see what has changed on the segment D. Change the WPA2 encryption key of the AP in the affected segment

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Threats X vulnerability X asset value is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF). This is used to calculate a risk.

An IT security manager is asked to provide the total risk to the business. Which of the following calculations would he security manager choose to determine total risk? A. (Threats X vulnerability X asset value) x controls gap B. (Threats X vulnerability X profit) x asset value C. Threats X vulnerability X control gap D. Threats X vulnerability X asset value

Correct Answer: B Explanation: CCMP is an encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products that implement the standards of the IEEE 802.11i amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 standard. CCMP is an enhanced data cryptographic encapsulation mechanism designed for data confidentiality and based upon the Counter Mode with CBC-MAC (CCM) of the AES standard.

An access point has been configured for AES encryption but a client is unable to connect to it. Which of the following should be configured on the client to fix this issue? A. WEP B. CCMP C. TKIP D. RC4

Correct Answer: B Explanation: SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is used for establishing an encrypted link between two computers, typically a web server and a browser. SSL is used to enable sensitive information such as login credentials and credit card numbers to be transmitted securely.

An achievement in providing worldwide Internet security was the signing of certificates associated with which of the following protocols? A. TCP/IP B. SSL C. SCP D. SSH

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Port 636 is used for secure LDAP (LDAPS). Incorrect Options: A: Port 389 is used for LDAP. B: Port 440 is not used for secure Active Directory connections. D: Port 3286 is not used for secure Active Directory connections.

An active directory setting restricts querying to only secure connections. Which of the following ports should be selected to establish a successful connection? A. 389 B. 440 C. 636 D. 3286

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The majority of the EAP-TLS implementations require client-side X.509 certificates without giving the option to disable the requirement.

An administrator configures all wireless access points to make use of a new network certificate authority. Which of the following is being used? A. WEP B. LEAP C. EAP-TLS D. TKIP

Correct Answer: A Explanation: IPsec is used for a secure point-to-point connection traversing an insecure network such as the Internet. Authentication Header (AH) is a primary IPsec protocol that provides authentication of the sender's data.

An administrator needs to secure RADIUS traffic between two servers. Which of the following is the BEST solution? A. Require IPSec with AH between the servers B. Require the message-authenticator attribute for each message C. Use MSCHAPv2 with MPPE instead of PAP D. Require a long and complex shared secret for the servers

Correct Answer: B Explanation: MAC addresses are also known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. Enabling MAC filtering would allow for a WAP to restrict or allow access based on the hardware address of the device.

An administrator needs to secure a wireless network and restrict access based on the hardware address of the device. Which of the following solutions should be implemented? A. Use a stateful firewall B. Enable MAC filtering C. Upgrade to WPA2 encryption D. Force the WAP to use channel 1

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known simply as a Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna consisting of multiple parallel dipole elements in a line, usually made of metal rods. It consists of a single driven element connected to the transmitter or receiver with a transmission line, and additional parasitic elements: a so-called reflector and one or more directors. The reflector element is slightly longer than the driven dipole, whereas the directors are a little shorter. This design achieves a very substantial increase in the antenna's directionality and gain compared to a simple dipole.

An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance. Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation? A. Dipole B. Yagi C. Sector D. Omni

Correct Answer: A A full backup is a complete, comprehensive backup of all fi les on a disk or server. The full backup is current only at the time it's performed. Once a full backup is made, you have a complete archive of the system at that point in time. A system shouldn't be in use while it undergoes a full backup because some fi les may not get backed up. Once the system goes back into operation, the backup is no longer current. A full backup can be a time-consuming process on a large system. An incremental backup is a partial backup that stores only the information that has been changed since the last full or the last incremental backup. If a full backup were performed on a Sunday night, an incremental backup done on Monday night would contain only the information that changed since Sunday night. Such a backup is typically considerably smaller than a full backup. Each incremental backup must be retained until a full backup can be performed. Incremental backups are usually the fastest backups to perform on most systems, and each incremental backup tape is relatively small.

An administrator wants to minimize the amount of time needed to perform backups during the week. It is also acceptable to the administrator for restoration to take an extended time frame. Which of the following strategies would the administrator MOST likely implement? A. Full backups on the weekend and incremental during the week B. Full backups on the weekend and full backups every day C. Incremental backups on the weekend and differential backups every day D. Differential backups on the weekend and full backups every day

Correct Answer: D Explanation: LDAP makes use of port 389.

An information bank has been established to store contacts, phone numbers and other records. A UNIX application needs to connect to the index server using port 389. Which of the following authentication services should be used on this port by default? A. RADIUS B. Kerberos C. TACACS+ D. LDAP

Correct Answer: A Explanation: A privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of an organization. This means that a user rights review will reveal whether user accounts have been assigned according to their `new' job descriptions , or if there are privilege creep culprits after transfers has occurred.

An internal auditor is concerned with privilege creep that is associated with transfers inside the company. Which mitigation measure would detect and correct this? A. User rights reviews B. Least privilege and job rotation C. Change management D. Change Control

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to reveal their presence.

An organization does not want the wireless network name to be easily discovered. Which of the following software features should be configured on the access points? A. SSID broadcast B. MAC filter C. WPA2 D. Antenna placement

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

An organization has three divisions: Accounting, Sales, and Human Resources. Users in the Accounting division require access to a server in the Sales division, but no users in the Human Resources division should have access to resources in any other division, nor should any users in the Sales division have access to resources in the Accounting division. Which of the following network segmentation schemas would BEST meet this objective? A. Create two VLANS, one for Accounting and Sales, and one for Human Resources. B. Create one VLAN for the entire organization. C. Create two VLANs, one for Sales and Human Resources, and one for Accounting. D. Create three separate VLANS, one for each divis

Correct Answer: CEF Explanation: Port 25 is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for routing e-mail between mail servers. Port 110 is used for Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3), which is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by local e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a remote server over a TCP/IP connection. Port 143 is used by Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for the management of email messages.

An organization recently switched from a cloud-based email solution to an in-house email server. The firewall needs to be modified to allow for sending and receiving email. Which of the following ports should be open on the firewall to allow for email traffic? (Select THREE). A. TCP 22 B. TCP 23 C. TCP 25 D. TCP 53 E. TCP 110 F. TCP 143 G. TCP 445

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Continuous monitoring may involve regular measurements of network traffic levels, routine evaluations for regulatory compliance, and checks of network security device configurations. It also points toward the never-ending review of what resources a user actually accesses, which is critical for preventing insider threats. Incorrect Options: A: An initial baseline configuration snapshot would allow for the standardized minimal level of security that all systems in an organization must comply with to be enforced. This will not cover the non-technical security incidents. B: A Firewall, IPS and network segmentation will offer technical protection, but not non-technical security protection. C: Event log analysis and incident response will not cover the non-technical security incidents.

An overseas branch office within a company has many more technical and non-technical security incidents than other parts of the company. Which of the following management controls should be introduced to the branch office to improve their state of security? A. Initial baseline configuration snapshots B. Firewall, IPS and network segmentation C. Event log analysis and incident response D. Continuous security monitoring processes

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cloud computing has privacy concerns, regulation compliance difficulties, use of open-/closed- source solutions, and adoption of open standards. It is also unsure whether cloud-based data is actually secured (or even securable).

Ann is an employee in the accounting department and would like to work on files from her home computer. She recently heard about a new personal cloud storage service with an easy web interface. Before uploading her work related files into the cloud for access, which of the following is the MOST important security concern Ann should be aware of? A. Size of the files B. Availability of the files C. Accessibility of the files from her mobile device D. Sensitivity of the files

Correct Answer: A Explanation: MAC filtering allows you to include or exclude computers and devices based on their MAC address.

Ann, a sales manager, successfully connected her company-issued smartphone to the wireless network in her office without supplying a username/password combination. Upon disconnecting from the wireless network, she attempted to connect her personal tablet computer to the same wireless network and could not connect. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason? A. The company wireless is using a MAC filter. B. The company wireless has SSID broadcast disabled. C. The company wireless is using WEP. D. The company wireless is using WPA2.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.

Ann, a security administrator, has concerns regarding her company's wireless network. The network is open and available for visiting prospective clients in the conference room, but she notices that many more devices are connecting to the network than should be. Which of the following would BEST alleviate Ann's concerns with minimum disturbance of current functionality for clients? A. Enable MAC filtering on the wireless access point. B. Configure WPA2 encryption on the wireless access point. C. Lower the antenna's broadcasting power. D. Disable SSID broadcasting.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about.

Ann, a security technician, is reviewing the IDS log files. She notices a large number of alerts for multicast packets from the switches on the network. After investigation, she discovers that this is normal activity for her network. Which of the following BEST describes these results? A. True negatives B. True positives C. False positives D. False negatives

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.

Ann, a technician, is attempting to establish a remote terminal session to an end user's computer using Kerberos authentication, but she cannot connect to the destination machine. Which of the following default ports should Ann ensure is open? A. 22 B. 139 C. 443 D. 3389

Ann, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a company, sees cloud computing as a way to save money while providing valuable services. She is looking for a cost-effective solution to assist in capacity planning as well as visibility into the performance of the network. Which of the following cloud technologies should she look into? A. IaaS B. MaaS C. SaaS D. PaaS

Correct Answer: A Explanation: MAC addresses are also known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. Enabling MAC filtering would allow for a WAP to restrict or allow access based on the hardware address of the device.

Ann, the network administrator, is receiving reports regarding a particular wireless network in the building. The network was implemented for specific machines issued to the developer department, but the developers are stating that they are having connection issues as well as slow bandwidth. Reviewing the wireless router's logs, she sees that devices not belonging to the developers are connecting to the access point. Which of the following would BEST alleviate the developer's reports? A. Configure the router so that wireless access is based upon the connecting device's hardware address. B. Modify the connection's encryption method so that it is using WEP instead of WPA2. C. Implement connections via secure tunnel with additional software on the developer's computers. D. Configure the router so that its name is not visible to devices scanning for wireless networks.

Correct Answer: DGH Explanation: G: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22. D: SCP stands for Secure Copy. SCP is used to securely copy files over a network. SCP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22. H: SFTP stands for stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol and is used for transferring files using FTP over a secure network connection. SFTP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.

By default, which of the following uses TCP port 22? (Select THREE). A. FTPS B. STELNET C. TLS D. SCP E. SSL F. HTTPS G. SSH H. SFTP

Correct Answer: B Explanation: To find MAC address of a Unix/Linux workstation, use ifconfig or ip a.

If you don't know the MAC address of a Linux-based machine, what command-line utility can you use to ascertain it? A. macconfig B. ifconfig C. ipconfig D. config

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Layered security is the practice of combining multiple mitigating security controls to protect resources and data.

Concurrent use of a firewall, content filtering, antivirus software and an IDS system would be considered components of: A. Redundant systems. B. Separation of duties. C. Layered security. D. Application control.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: WPA2-Enterprise is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server.

Configuring key/value pairs on a RADIUS server is associated with deploying which of the following? A. WPA2-Enterprise wireless network B. DNS secondary zones C. Digital certificates D. Intrusion detection system

Correct Answer: A Explanation: IPSec can operate in tunnel mode or transport mode. It uses symmetric cryptography to provide encryption security. Furthermore, it makes use of Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP).

Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following? A. IPSec B. Full disk encryption C. 802.1x D. PKI

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company's assets. This structured approach involves policies that should be in place and technological controls that should be enforced.

Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk? A. Incident management B. Clean desk policy C. Routine audits D. Change management

Correct Answer: B Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) uses port 53.

During the analysis of a PCAP file, a security analyst noticed several communications with a remote server on port 53. Which of the following protocol types is observed in this traffic? A. FTP B. DNS C. Email D. NetBIOS

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Data that is not kept separate or segregated will impact on that data's confidentiality maybe being compromised. Be aware of the fact that your data is only as safe as the data with which it is integrated. For example, assume that your client database is hosted on a server that another company is also using to test an application that they are creating. If their application obtains root- level access at some point (such as to change passwords) and crashes at that point, then the user running the application could be left with root permissions and conceivably be to access data on the server for which they are not authorized, such as your client database. Data segregation is crucial; keep your data on secure servers.

Elastic cloud computing environments often reuse the same physical hardware for multiple customers over time as virtual machines are instantiated and deleted. This has important implications for which of the following data security concerns? A. Hardware integrity B. Data confidentiality C. Availability of servers D. Integrity of data

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Separation of duties means that users are granted only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

Everyone in the accounting department has the ability to print and sign checks. Internal audit has asked that only one group of employees may print checks while only two other employees may sign the checks. Which of the following concepts would enforce this process? A. Separation of Duties B. Mandatory Vacations C. Discretionary Access Control D. Job Rotation

Correct Answer: D Explanation: FTPS uses ports 989 and 990.

FTP/S uses which of the following TCP ports by default? A. 20 and 21 B. 139 and 445 C. 443 and 22 D. 989 and 990

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Risk acceptance is often the choice you must make when the cost of implementing any of the other four choices exceeds the value of the harm that would occur if the risk came to fruition. To truly qualify as acceptance, it cannot be a risk where the administrator or manager is unaware of its existence; it has to be an identified risk for which those involved understand the potential cost or damage and agree to accept it. Residual risk is always present and will remain a risk thus it should be accepted (risk acceptance)

Identifying residual risk is MOST important to which of the following concepts? A. Risk deterrence B. Risk acceptance C. Risk mitigation D. Risk avoidance

Correct Answer: A Explanation: A job rotation policy defines intervals at which employees must rotate through positions. Similar in purpose to mandatory vacations, it helps to ensure that the company does not become too dependent on one person and it does afford the company with the opportunity to place another person in that same job and in this way the company can potentially uncover any fraud perhaps committed by the incumbent.

In order to prevent and detect fraud, which of the following should be implemented? A. Job rotation B. Risk analysis C. Incident management D. Employee evaluations

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Firewalls manage traffic using filters, which is just a rule or set of rules. A recommended guideline for firewall rules is, "deny by default; allow by exception".

It is MOST important to make sure that the firewall is configured to do which of the following? A. Alert management of a possible intrusion. B. Deny all traffic and only permit by exception. C. Deny all traffic based on known signatures. D. Alert the administrator of a possible intrusion.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: You should try to avoid placing access points near metal (which includes appliances) or near the ground. Placing them in the center of the area to be served and high enough to get around most obstacles is recommended. On the chance that the signal is actually traveling too far, some access points include power level controls, which allow you to reduce the amount of output provided.

Jane, an administrator, needs to make sure the wireless network is not accessible from the parking area of their office. Which of the following would BEST help Jane when deploying a new access point? A. Placement of antenna B. Disabling the SSID C. Implementing WPA2 D. Enabling the MAC filtering

Correct Answer: CD Explanation: Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it's a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn't for public use. A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

Jane, the security administrator, sets up a new AP but realizes too many outsiders are able to connect to that AP and gain unauthorized access. Which of the following would be the BEST way to mitigate this issue and still provide coverage where needed? (Select TWO). A. Disable the wired ports B. Use channels 1, 4 and 7 only C. Enable MAC filtering D. Disable SSID broadcast E. Switch from 802.11a to 802.11b

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Acceptable use policies (AUPs) describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.

Joe, a newly hired employee, has a corporate workstation that has been compromised due to several visits to P2P sites. Joe insisted that he was not aware of any company policy that prohibits the use of such web sites. Which of the following is the BEST method to deter employees from the improper use of the company's information systems? A. Acceptable Use Policy B. Privacy Policy C. Security Policy D. Human Resource Policy

Correct Answer: AC Explanation: Privacy policies define what controls are required to implement and maintain the sanctity of data privacy in the work environment. Privacy policy is a legal document that outlines how data collected is secured. It should encompass information regarding the information the company collects, privacy choices you have based on your account, potential information sharing of your data with other parties, security measures in place, and enforcement. Acceptable use policies (AUPs) describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.

Joe, a security analyst, asks each employee of an organization to sign a statement saying that they understand how their activities may be monitored. Which of the following BEST describes this statement? (Select TWO). A. Acceptable use policy B. Risk acceptance policy C. Privacy policy D. Email policy E. Security policy

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Since the application is violating the security policy it should be coded differently to comply with the password policy.

Pete, a security analyst, has been informed that the development team has plans to develop an application which does not meet the company's password policy. Which of the following should Pete do NEXT? A. Contact the Chief Information Officer and ask them to change the company password policy so that the application is made compliant. B. Tell the application development manager to code the application to adhere to the company's password policy. C. Ask the application development manager to submit a risk acceptance memo so that the issue can be documented. D. Inform the Chief Information Officer of non-adherence to the security policy so that the developers can be reprimanded.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets).

Requiring technicians to report spyware infections is a step in which of the following? A. Routine audits B. Change management C. Incident management D. Clean desk policy

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Risk transference involves sharing some of the risk burden with someone else, such as an insurance company. The cost of the security breach over a period of 5 years would amount to $30,000 and it is better to save $5,000.

Sara, the Chief Security Officer (CSO), has had four security breaches during the past two years. Each breach has cost the company $3,000. A third party vendor has offered to repair the security hole in the system for $25,000. The breached system is scheduled to be replaced in five years. Which of the following should Sara do to address the risk? A. Accept the risk saving $10,000. B. Ignore the risk saving $5,000. C. Mitigate the risk saving $10,000. D. Transfer the risk saving $5,000.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Separation of duties means that there is differentiation between users, employees and duties per se which form part of best practices.

Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following? A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production C. Upper level management users from standard development employees D. The network access layer from the application access layer

Correct Answer: D Explanation: HTTPS authenticates the website and corresponding web server with which one is communicating. HTTPS makes use of port 443. Incorrect Options: A: Port 25 is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for routing e-mail between mail servers. B: Port 53 is used by Domain Name System (DNS). C: Port 143 is used by Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for the management of email messages.

Signed digital certificates used to secure communication with a web server are MOST commonly associated with which of the following ports? A. 25 B. 53 C. 143 D. 443

Correct Answer: C Explanation: A policy that states employees should use their vacation time in a staggered schedule is a way of employing mandatory vacations. A mandatory vacation policy requires all users to take time away from work while others step in and do the work of that employee on vacation. This will afford the CSO the opportunity to see who is using the company assets responsibly and who is abusing it.

The Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about misuse of company assets and wishes to determine who may be responsible. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action? A. Create a single, shared user account for every system that is audited and logged based upon time of use. B. Implement a single sign-on application on equipment with sensitive data and high-profile shares. C. Enact a policy that employees must use their vacation time in a staggered schedule. D. Separate employees into teams led by a person who acts as a single point of contact for observation purposes.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Separation of duties means that users are granted only the permissions they need to do their work and no more. More so it means that you are employing best practices. The segregation of duties and separation of environments is a way to reduce the likelihood of misuse of systems or information. A separation of duties policy is designed to reduce the risk of fraud and to prevent other losses in an organization.

The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has been informed of a potential fraud committed by a database administrator performing several other job functions within the company. Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent such activities in the future? A. Job rotation B. Separation of duties C. Mandatory Vacations D. Least Privilege

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.

The common method of breaking larger network address space into smaller networks is known as: A. subnetting. B. phishing. C. virtualization. D. packet filtering.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.

The security administrator has been tasked to update all the access points to provide a more secure connection. All access points currently use WPA TKIP for encryption. Which of the following would be configured to provide more secure connections? A. WEP B. WPA2 CCMP C. Disable SSID broadcast and increase power levels D. MAC filtering

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cloud computing means hosting services and data on the Internet instead of hosting it locally. There is thus no issue when the company's server is taken offline.

The system administrator notices that their application is no longer able to keep up with the large amounts of traffic their server is receiving daily. Several packets are dropped and sometimes the server is taken offline. Which of the following would be a possible solution to look into to ensure their application remains secure and available? A. Cloud computing B. Full disk encryption C. Data Loss Prevention D. HSM

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A mandatory vacation policy requires all users to take time away from work to refresh. Mandatory vacation give the employee a chance to refresh, but it also gives the company a chance to make sure that others can fill in any gaps in skills and satisfies the need to have replication or duplication at all levels. Mandatory vacations also provide an opportunity to discover fraud. In this case mandatory vacations can prevent the two members from colluding to steal the information that they have access to.

Two members of the finance department have access to sensitive information. The company is concerned they may work together to steal information. Which of the following controls could be implemented to discover if they are working together? A. Least privilege access B. Separation of duties C. Mandatory access control D. Mandatory vacations

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Social networking and having you company's application authentication `linked' to users' credential that they use on social media sites exposes your company's application exponentially more than is necessary. You should strive to practice risk avoidance.

Users can authenticate to a company's web applications using their credentials from a popular social media site. Which of the following poses the greatest risk with this integration? A. Malicious users can exploit local corporate credentials with their social media credentials B. Changes to passwords on the social media site can be delayed from replicating to the company C. Data loss from the corporate servers can create legal liabilities with the social media site D. Password breaches to the social media site affect the company application as well

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions. Also reviewing user rights and permissions will afford the security analyst the opportunity to put the principle of least privilege in practice as well as update the security policy

Various network outages have occurred recently due to unapproved changes to network and security devices. All changes were made using various system credentials. The security analyst has been tasked to update the security policy. Which of the following risk mitigation strategies would also need to be implemented to reduce the number of network outages due to unauthorized changes? A. User rights and permissions review B. Configuration management C. Incident management D. Implement security controls on Layer 3 devices

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation: Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company's assets. In this case `scheduled system patching'.

Which of the following MOST specifically defines the procedures to follow when scheduled system patching fails resulting in system outages? A. Risk transference B. Change management C. Configuration management D. Access control revalidation

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Of the options supplied, WiFi Protected Access (WPA) is the most secure and is the replacement for WEP.

Which of the following allows Pete, a security technician, to provide the MOST secure wireless implementation? A. Implement WPA B. Disable SSID C. Adjust antenna placement D. Implement WEP

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it's a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn't for public use.

Which of the following best practices makes a wireless network more difficult to find? A. Implement MAC filtering B. UseWPA2-PSK C. Disable SSID broadcast D. Power down unused WAPs

Correct Answer: C Explanation: False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about. This causes a significant administrative overhead because the reporting is what results in the false positives.

Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect reporting? A. Job rotation B. Acceptable usage policies C. False positives D. Mandatory vacations

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are the three most important concepts in security. Thus they form the security triangle.

Which of the following concepts are included on the three sides of the "security triangle"? (Select THREE). A. Confidentiality B. Availability C. Integrity D. Authorization E. Authentication F. Continuity

Correct Answer: C The recovery point objective (RPO) defines the point at which the system needs to be restored. This could be where the system was two days before it crashed (whip out the old backup tapes) or five minutes before it crashed (requiring complete redundancy). This is an essential business goal insofar as system restoration and acceptable data loss is concerned.

Which of the following defines a business goal for system restoration and acceptable data loss? A. MTTR B. MTBF C. RPO D. Warm site

Correct Answer: D Explanation/Reference: Explanation: MOU or Memorandum of Understanding is a document outlining which party is responsible for what portion of the work.

Which of the following describes the purpose of an MOU? A. Define interoperability requirements B. Define data backup process C. Define onboard/offboard procedure D. Define responsibilities of each party

Correct Answer: D Explanation: When setting up a wireless network, you'll find two very different modes of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) security, which apply to both the WPA and WPA2 versions. The easiest to setup is the Personal mode, technically called the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) mode. It doesn't require anything beyond the wireless router or access points (APs) and uses a single passphrase or password for all users/devices. The other is the Enterprise mode --which should be used by businesses and organizations--and is also known as the RADIUS, 802.1X, 802.11i, or EAP mode. It provides better security and key management, and supports other enterprise-type functionality, such as VLANs and NAP. However, it requires an external authentication server, called a Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) server to handle the 802.1X authentication of users. To help you better understand the process of setting up WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and 802.1X, here's the basic overall steps: Choose, install, and configure a RADIUS server, or use a hosted service. Create a certificate authority (CA), so you can issue and install a digital certificate onto the RADIUS server, which may be done as a part of the RADIUS server installation and configuration. Alternatively, you could purchase a digital certificate from a public CA, such as GoDaddy or Verisign, so you don't have to install the server certificate on all the clients. If using EAP-TLS, you'd also create digital certificates for each end-user. On the server, populate the RADIUS client database with the IP address and shared secret for each AP. On the server, populate user data with usernames and passwords for each end-user. On each AP, configure the security for WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and input the RADIUS server IP address and the shared secret you created for that particular AP. On each Wi-Fi computer and device, configure the security for WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and set the 802.1X authentication settings.

Which of the following is a step in deploying a WPA2-Enterprise wireless network? A. Install a token on the authentication server B. Install a DHCP server on the authentication server C. Install an encryption key on the authentication server D. Install a digital certificate on the authentication server

Correct Answer: A Explanation: With a false negative, you are not alerted to a situation when you should be alerted.

Which of the following is an example of a false negative? A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow. B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware. C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application. D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Risk mitigation is accomplished any time you take steps to reduce risk. This category includes installing antivirus software, educating users about possible threats, monitoring network traffic, adding a firewall, and so on. User permissions may be the most basic aspect of security and is best coupled with a principle of least privilege. And related to permissions is the concept of the access control list (ACL). An ACL is literally a list of who can access what resource and at what level. Thus the best risk mitigation steps insofar as access control rights are concerned, is the regular/routine review of user permissions.

Which of the following is the BEST approach to perform risk mitigation of user access control rights? A. Conduct surveys and rank the results. B. Perform routine user permission reviews. C. Implement periodic vulnerability scanning. D. Disable user accounts that have not been used within the last two weeks.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Memorandum of Understanding This document is used in many settings in the information industry. It is a brief summary of which party is responsible for what portion of the work. For example, Company A may be responsible for maintaining the database server and Company B may be responsible for telecommunications. MOUs are not legally binding but they carry a degree of seriousness and mutual respect, stronger than a gentlemen's agreement. Often, MOUs are the first steps towards a legal contract.

Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk of two or more companies working together under a Memorandum of Understanding? A. Budgetary considerations may not have been written into the MOU, leaving an entity to absorb more cost than intended at signing. B. MOUs have strict policies in place for services performed between the entities and the penalties for compromising a partner are high. C. MOUs are generally loose agreements and therefore may not have strict guidelines in place to protect sensitive data between the two entities. D. MOUs between two companies working together cannot be held to the same legal standards as SLAs.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: FTPS refers to FTP Secure, or FTP SSL. It is a secure variation of File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

Which of the following is the MOST secure protocol to transfer files? A. FTP B. FTPS C. SSH D. TELNET

Correct Answer: B Explanation: TFTP makes use of UDP port 69.

Which of the following is the default port for TFTP? A. 20 B. 69 C. 21 D. 68

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Mobile devices, such as laptops, tablet computers, and smartphones, provide security challenges above those of desktop workstations, servers, and such in that they leave the office and this increases the odds of their theft which makes data security a real concern. At a bare minimum, the following security measures should be in place on mobile devices: Screen lock, Strong password, Device encryption, Remote Wipe or Sanitation, voice encryption, GPS tracking, Application control, storage segmentation, asses tracking and device access control.

Which of the following is the primary security concern when deploying a mobile device on a network? A. Strong authentication B. Interoperability C. Data security D. Cloud storage technique

Correct Answer: A : Explanation: Each network interface on your computer or any other networked device has a unique MAC address. These MAC addresses are assigned in the factory, but you can easily change, or "spoof," MAC addresses in software. Networks can use MAC address filtering, only allowing devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to a network. This isn't a great security tool because people can spoof their MAC addresses.

Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing? A. MAC Filtering B. WPA - LEAP C. WPA - PEAP D. Enabled SSID

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company's assets. In this case `performing updates to business critical systems.

Which of the following mitigation strategies is established to reduce risk when performing updates to business critical systems? A. Incident management B. Server clustering C. Change management D. Forensic analysis

Correct Answer: D Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

Which of the following ports and protocol types must be opened on a host with a host-based firewall to allow incoming SFTP connections? A. 21/UDP B. 21/TCP C. 22/UDP D. 22/TCP

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.

Which of the following ports is used for SSH, by default? A. 23 B. 32 C. 12 D. 22

Correct Answer: B Explanation: SCP copies files securely between hosts on a network. It uses SSH for data transfer, and uses the same authentication and provides the same security as SSH. Unlike RCP, SCP will ask for passwords or passphrases if they are needed for authentication. SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

Which of the following ports is used to securely transfer files between remote UNIX systems? A. 21 B. 22 C. 69 D. 445

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a more secure replacement for Telnet, rlogon, rsh, and rcp. SSH can be called a remote access or remote terminal solution. SSH offers a means by which a command- line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device can be established over any distance. SSH makes use of TCP port 22.

Which of the following ports should be used by a system administrator to securely manage a remote server? A. 22 B. 69 C. 137 D. 445

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Port 80 is used by HTTP, which is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.

Which of the following ports would be blocked if Pete, a security administrator, wants to deny access to websites? A. 21 B. 25 C. 80 D. 3389

Correct Answer: CD Explanation: Standard FTP is a protocol often used to move files between one system and another either over the Internet or within private networks. SFTP is a secured alternative to standard FTP. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP).

Which of the following protocols allows for secure transfer of files? (Select TWO). A. ICMP B. SNMP C. SFTP D. SCP E. TFTP

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The main advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 is its larger address space. The length of an IPv6 address is 128 bits, compared with 32 bits in IPv4.

Which of the following protocols allows for the LARGEST address space? A. IPX B. IPv4 C. IPv6 D. Appletalk

Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) is a protocol in the Internet protocol suite used with Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6).

Which of the following protocols is used by IPv6 for MAC address resolution? A. NDP B. ARP C. DNS D. NCP

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network. It uses X.509 certificates and hence asymmetric cryptography to authenticate the counterparty with whom it is communicating, and to exchange a symmetric key.

Which of the following protocols is used to authenticate the client and server's digital certificate? A. PEAP B. DNS C. TLS D. ICMP

Correct Answer: C Explanation: SCP (Secure Copy) uses SSH (Secure Shell). SSH runs in the application layer (layer 7) of the OSI model.

Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model? A. ICMP B. IPSec C. SCP D. TCP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: TKIP is a suite of algorithms that works as a "wrapper" to WEP, which allows users of legacy WLAN equipment to upgrade to TKIP without replacing hardware. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but "wraps" additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it.

Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP? A. TKIP B. Mac filtering C. WPA2 D. WPA

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Once risks has been identified and assessed then there are five possible actions that should be taken. These are: Risk avoidance, Risk transference, Risk mitigation, Risk deterrence and Risk acceptance. Anytime you engage in steps to reduce risk, you are busy with risk mitigation and implementing IT security policy is a risk mitigation strategy.

Which of the following provides the BEST explanation regarding why an organization needs to implement IT security policies? A. To ensure that false positives are identified B. To ensure that staff conform to the policy C. To reduce the organizational risk D. To require acceptable usage of IT systems

Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A least privilege policy should be used when assigning permissions. Give users only the permissions and rights that they need to do their work and no more.

Which of the following risk mitigation strategies will allow Ann, a security analyst, to enforce least privilege principles? A. User rights reviews B. Incident management C. Risk based controls D. Annual loss expectancy

Correct Answer: B Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

Which of the following secure file transfer methods uses port 22 by default? A. FTPS B. SFTP C. SSL D. S/MIME

Correct Answer: D Explanation: When one person fills in for another, such as for mandatory vacations, it provides an opportunity to see what the person is doing and potentially uncover any fraud.

Which of the following should Joe, a security manager, implement to reduce the risk of employees working in collusion to embezzle funds from his company? A. Privacy Policy B. Least Privilege C. Acceptable Use D. Mandatory Vacations

Correct Answer: D Explanation: A mandatory vacation policy requires all users to take time away from work to refresh. But not only does mandatory vacation give the employee a chance to refresh, but it also gives the company a chance to make sure that others can fill in any gaps in skills and satisfies the need to have replication or duplication at all levels as well as an opportunity to discover fraud.

Which of the following should Pete, a security manager, implement to reduce the risk of employees working in collusion to embezzle funds from their company? A. Privacy Policy B. Least Privilege C. Acceptable Use D. Mandatory Vacations

Correct Answer: C Explanation: C: A primary DNS server has the "master copy" of a zone, and secondary DNS servers keep copies of the zone for redundancy. When changes are made to zone data on the primary DNS server, these changes must be distributed to the secondary DNS servers for the zone. This is done through zone transfers. If you allow zone transfers to any server, all the resource records in the zone are viewable by any host that can contact your DNS server. Thus you will need to secure the zone transfers to stop an attacker from mapping out your addresses and devices on your network.

Which of the following should be implemented to stop an attacker from mapping out addresses and/or devices on a network? A. Single sign on B. IPv6 C. Secure zone transfers D. VoIP

Correct Answer: C White lists are closely related to ACLs and essentially, a white list is a list of items that are allowed.

Which of the following technical controls is BEST used to define which applications a user can install and run on a company issued mobile device? A. Authentication B. Blacklisting C. Whitelisting D. Acceptable use policy

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A job rotation policy defines intervals at which employees must rotate through positions. Similar in purpose to mandatory vacations, it helps to ensure that the company does not become too dependent on one person and it does afford the company with the opportunity to place another person in that same job.

Which of the following types of risk reducing policies also has the added indirect benefit of cross training employees when implemented? A. Least privilege B. Job rotation C. Mandatory vacations D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: ADE Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

Which of the following uses port 22 by default? (Select THREE). A. SSH B. SSL C. TLS D. SFTP E. SCP F. FTPS G. SMTP H. SNMP

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Cinderblock walls, metal cabinets, and other barriers can reduce signal strength significantly. Therefore, antenna placement is critical.

Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, do to limit a wireless signal from penetrating the exterior walls? A. Implement TKIP encryption B. Consider antenna placement C. Disable the SSID broadcast D. Disable WPA

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Firewalls manage traffic using filters, which is just a rule or set of rules. A recommended guideline for firewall rules is, "deny by default; allow by exception". This means that if a network connection is not specifically allowed, it will be denied.

Which of the following would be MOST appropriate to secure an existing SCADA system by preventing connections from unauthorized networks? A. Implement a HIDS to protect the SCADA system B. Implement a Layer 2 switch to access the SCADA system C. Implement a firewall to protect the SCADA system D. Implement a NIDS to protect the SCADA system

Correct Answer: C Explanation: PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards.

Which of the following would satisfy wireless network implementation requirements to use mutual authentication and usernames and passwords? A. EAP-MD5 B. WEP C. PEAP-MSCHAPv2 D. EAP-TLS

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The SSID is still required for directing packets to and from the base station, so it can be discovered using a wireless packet sniffer.

While previously recommended as a security measure, disabling SSID broadcast is not effective against most attackers because network SSIDs are: A. no longer used to authenticate to most wireless networks. B. contained in certain wireless packets in plaintext. C. contained in all wireless broadcast packets by default. D. no longer supported in 802.11 protocols.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Least privilege (privilege reviews) and job rotation is done when mandatory vacations are implemented. Then it will uncover areas where the system administrators neglected to check all users' privileges since the other users must fill in their positions when they are on their mandatory vacation.

While rarely enforced, mandatory vacation policies are effective at uncovering: A. Help desk technicians with oversight by multiple supervisors and detailed quality control systems. B. Collusion between two employees who perform the same business function. C. Acts of incompetence by a systems engineer designing complex architectures as a member of a team. D. Acts of gross negligence on the part of system administrators with unfettered access to system and no oversight.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) makes use of ports 20 and 21

While securing a network it is decided to allow active FTP connections into the network. Which of the following ports MUST be configured to allow active FTP connections? (Select TWO). A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 68 E. 69

Security+

संबंधित स्टडी सेट्स

Interactive Quiz: 7. System Hacking

Sport and Exercise Psychology Exam 2

407 Exam 2

insurance exam

Active vocabulary

MENTAL HEALTH: CHAPTER 14: ANXIETY & ANXIETY DISORDERS:

Quiz 1 CYB 155

Bovine Viral Diarrhea(BVD)

HR final

Ch.37 Transport in Plants

Stress Management test 1

Chapter 1 Network Defense Fundamentals

Chapter 57.2

Marketing Chapter 3 - Environment

Salesforce Admin

UCE Practice Questions 5

Ch. 6 - Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Understanding Business Chapter 9

WH- chapter 7- Crisis and Absolutism in Europe

Main Idea, supporting details, and objective summary