Security+ Practice Exam #1
Q274 Which of the following protocols allows for secure transfer of files? (Select TWO). A. ICMP B. SNMP C. SFTP D. SCP E. TFTP
CD
Q43 Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO). A. 10.4.4.125 B. 10.4.4.158 C. 10.4.4.165 D. 10.4.4.189 E. 10.4.4.199
CD
Q74 Elliptic curve cryptography: (Select TWO) A. is used in both symmetric and asymmetric encryption. B. is used mostly in symmetric encryption. C. is mostly used in embedded devices. D. produces higher strength encryption with shorter keys. E. is mostly used in hashing algorithms.
CD
Q128 Sara, a security administrator, has been tasked with explaining smart cards to the company's management team. Which of the following are smart cards? (Select TWO). A. DAC B. Tokens C. CAC D. ACL E. PIV
CE
Q2 In order to provide flexible working conditions, a company has decided to allow some employees remote access into corporate headquarters. Which of the following security technologies could be used to provide remote access? (Select TWO). A. Subnetting B. NAT C. Firewall D. NAC E. VPN
CE
Q133 Jane, the security engineer, is tasked with hardening routers. She would like to ensure that network access to the corporate router is allowed only to the IT group and from authorized machines. Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented to meet this security goal? (Select TWO). A. SNMP B. HTTPS C. ACL D. Disable console E. SSH F. TACACS+
CF
Q265 Which of the following can be used on a smartphone to BEST protect against sensitive data loss if the device is stolen? (Select TWO). A. Tethering B. Screen lock PIN C. Remote wipe D. Email password E. GPS tracking F. Device encryption
CF
Q1 A password history value of three means which of the following? A. Three different passwords are used before one can be reused. B. A password cannot be reused once changed for three years. C. After three hours a password must be re-entered to continue. D. The server stores passwords in the database for three days.
A
Q105 Pete, an employee, needs a certificate to encrypt data. Which of the following would issue Pete a certificate? A. Certification authority B. Key escrow C. Certificate revocation list D. Registration authority
A
Q111 Which of the following can BEST help prevent cross-site scripting attacks and buffer overflows on a production system? A. Input validation B. Network intrusion detection system C. Anomaly-based HIDS D. Peer review
A
Q115 Pete has obtained a highly sensitive document and has placed it on a network drive which has been formatted with NTFS and is shared via CIFS. Which of the following access controls apply to the sensitive file on the server? A. Discretionary B. Rule based C. Role based D. Mandatory
A
Q116 Which of the following fire suppression systems is MOST likely used in a datacenter? A. FM-200 B. Dry-pipe C. Wet-pipe D. Vacuum
A
Q120 Jane has recently implemented a new network design at her organization and wishes to passively identify security issues with the new network. Which of the following should Jane perform? A. Vulnerability assessment B. Black box testing C. White box testing D. Penetration testing
A
Q122 A company is experiencing an extraordinary amount of web traffic that is crippling the server. The web traffic suddenly stops. The mail server experiences the same amount of traffic as before then crashes. Which of the following attacks would this BEST describe? A. DoS B. Spam C. Man-in-the-middle D. Replay
A
Q125 Which of the following BEST describes a demilitarized zone? A. A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks. B. A network where all servers exist and are monitored. C. A sterile, isolated network segment with access lists. D. A private network that is protected by a firewall and a VLAN.
A
Q127 A security technician is working with the network firewall team to implement access controls at the company's demarc as part of the initiation of configuration management processes. One of the network technicians asks the security technician to explain the access control type found in a firewall. With which of the following should the security technician respond? A. Rule based access control B. Role based access control C. Discretionary access control D. Mandatory access control
A
Q129 Jane, a security administrator, has been tasked with explaining authentication services to the company's management team. The company runs an active directory infrastructure. Which of the following solutions BEST relates to the host authentication protocol within the company's environment? A. Kerberos B. Least privilege C. TACACS+ D. LDAP
A
Q132 The lobby of the hotel allows users to plug in their laptops to access the Internet. This network is also used for the IP based phones in the hotel lobby. Mike, the security engineer, wants to secure the phones so that guests cannot electronically eavesdrop on other guests. Which of the following would Mike MOST likely implement? A. VLAN B. Port security C. MPLS D. Separate voice gateway
A
Q137 Sara, the security administrator, must configure the corporate firewall to allow all public IP addresses on the internal interface of the firewall to be translated to one public IP address on the external interface of the same firewall. Which of the following should Sara configure? A. PAT B. NAP C. DNAT D. NAC
A
Q147 Matt, a security technician, notices a high number of ARP spoofing attacks on his network. Which of the following design elements would mitigate ARP spoofing attacks? A. Flood guards B. Implicit deny C. VLANs D. Loop protection
A
Q148 Matt works for an organization that requires data to be recovered in the shortest amount of time possible. Which of the following backup types would BEST meet the organization's needs? A. Full backups daily B. Differential backups monthly C. Full backups weekly D. Incremental backups monthly
A
Q154 Pete, a security analyst, has been tasked with explaining the different types of malware to his colleagues. The two malware types that the group seems to be most interested in are backdoors and logic bombs. Which of the following differentiates these two types of malware? A. A backdoor is a coding issue that can be discovered by proper configuration management processes. B. A logic bomb is typically hidden within the boot sector of the hard drive and is used to cause DDoS. C. A backdoor is a third generation attack which is typically low risk because only highly trained staff can achieve it. D. A logic bomb is undetectable by current antivirus signatures because a patch has not been issued.
A
Q158 Which of the following technologies prevents USB drives from being recognized by company systems? A. Registry keys B. Full disk encryption C. USB encryption D. Data loss prevention
A
Q16 A small business owner has asked the security consultant to suggest an inexpensive means to deter physical intrusions at their place of business. Which of the following would BEST meet their request? A. Fake cameras B. Proximity readers C. Infrared cameras D. Security guards
A
Q160 Which of the following types of encryption will help in protecting files on a PED? A. Mobile device encryption B. Transport layer encryption C. Encrypted hidden container D. Database encryption
A
Q164 Sara, a security manager, has decided to force expiration of all company passwords by the close of business day. Which of the following BEST supports this reasoning? A. A recent security breach in which passwords were cracked. B. Implementation of configuration management processes. C. Enforcement of password complexity requirements. D. Implementation of account lockout procedures.
A
Q165 Which of the following presents the STRONGEST access control? A. MAC B. TACACS C. DAC D. RBAC
A
Q166 Which of the following encompasses application patch management? A. Configuration management B. Policy management C. Cross-site request forgery D. Fuzzing
A
Q167 Sara, an application developer, implemented error and exception handling alongside input validation. Which of the following does this help prevent? A. Buffer overflow B. Pop-up blockers C. Cross-site scripting D. Fuzzing
A
Q169 Which of the following can allow Sara, a security analyst, to encrypt individual files on a system? A. EFS B. Single sign-on C. TLS D. Journaled file system
A
Q17 Employee badges are encoded with a private encryption key and specific personal information. The encoding is then used to provide access to the network. Which of the following describes this access control type? A. Smartcard B. Token C. Discretionary access control D. Mandatory access control
A
Q175 Which of the following can be implemented with multiple bit strength? A. AES B. DES C. SHA-1 D. MD5 E. MD4
A
Q177 Matt, the security administrator, wants to secure the wireless network. Which of the following encryption methods offers the MOST security? A. WPA2 ENT AES B. WPA2 PSK AES C. WPA2 ENT TKIP D. WPA2 PSK TKIP
A
Q18 Which of the following devices would MOST likely have a DMZ interface? A. Firewall B. Switch C. Load balancer D. Proxy
A
Q181 Pete, the system administrator, is concerned about unauthorized access at all entrances into the building. PIN pad readers have been installed, but users have developed the habit of holding the door for others behind them. Which of the following would BEST prevent this? A. Install mantraps at every unmanned entrance. B. Replace the PIN pad readers with card readers. C. Implement video and audio surveillance equipment. D. Require users to sign conduct policies forbidding these actions.
A
Q182 Pete, the system administrator, is reviewing his disaster recovery plans. He wishes to limit the downtime in the event of a disaster, but does not have the budget approval to implement or maintain an offsite location that ensures 99.99% availability. Which of the following would be Pete's BEST option? A. Use hardware already at an offsite location and configure it to be quickly utilized. B. Move the servers and data to another part of the company's main campus from the server room. C. Retain data back-ups on the main campus and establish redundant servers in a virtual environment. D. Move the data back-ups to the offsite location, but retain the hardware on the main campus for redundancy.
A
Q184 A network stream needs to be encrypted. Sara, the network administrator, has selected a cipher which will encrypt 8 bits at a time before sending the data across the network. Which of the following has Sara selected? A. Block cipher B. Stream cipher C. CRC D. Hashing algorithm
A
Q185 Pete, a security auditor, has detected clear text passwords between the RADIUS server and the authenticator. Which of the following is configured in the RADIUS server and what technologies should the authentication protocol be changed to? A. PAP, MSCHAPv2 B. CHAP, PAP C. MSCHAPv2, NTLMv2 D. NTLM, NTLMv2
A
Q188 A security analyst needs to ensure all external traffic is able to access the company's front-end servers but protect all access to internal resources. Which of the following network design elements would MOST likely be recommended? A. DMZ B. Cloud computing C. VLAN D. Virtualization
A
Q190 Which of the following allows a network administrator to implement an access control policy based on individual user characteristics and NOT on job function? A. Attributes based B. Implicit deny C. Role based D. Rule based
A
Q194 Which of the following BEST describes a SQL Injection attack? A. The attacker attempts to have the receiving server pass information to a back-end database from which it can compromise the stored information. B. The attacker attempts to have the receiving server run a payload using programming commonly found on web servers. C. The attacker overwhelms a system or application, causing it to crash and bring the server down to cause an outage. D. The attacker overwhelms a system or application, causing it to crash, and then redirects the memory address to read from a location holding the payload.
A
Q200 Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication? A. Credit card and PIN B. Username and password C. Password and PIN D. Fingerprint and retina scan
A
Q208 Mike, a security professional, is tasked with actively verifying the strength of the security controls on a company's live modem pool. Which of the following activities is MOST appropriate? A. War dialing B. War chalking C. War driving D. Bluesnarfing
A
Q21 Which of the following application security testing techniques is implemented when an automated system generates random input data? A. Fuzzing B. XSRF C. Hardening D. Input validation
A
Q213 Jane, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into a server. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on a specific server? A. HIPS B. NIDS C. HIDS D. NIPS
A
Q219 A company that purchased an HVAC system for the datacenter is MOST concerned with which of the following? A. Availability B. Integrity C. Confidentiality D. Fire suppression
A
Q225 Jane, an administrator, hears reports of circles being drawn in the parking lot. Because the symbols fall within range of the company's wireless AP, the MOST likely concern is: A. that someone has used war chalking to help others access the company's network. B. that the symbols indicate the presence of an evil twin of a legitimate AP. C. that someone is planning to install an AP where the symbols are, to cause interference. D. that a rogue access point has been installed within range of the symbols.
A
Q229 Enforcing data encryption of removable media ensures that the: A. lost media cannot easily be compromised. B. media can be identified. C. location of the media is known at all times. D. identification of the user is non-repudiated.
A
Q239 Which of the following allows Pete, a security technician, to provide the MOST secure wireless implementation? A. Implement WPA B. Disable SSID C. Adjust antenna placement D. Implement WEP
A
Q242 Which of the following incident response procedures BEST allows Sara, the security technician, to identify who had possession of a hard drive prior to forensics analysis? A. Chain of custody B. Tracking man hours C. Witnesses D. Capturing system images
A
Q250 Which of the following sets numerous flag fields in a TCP packet? A. XMAS B. DNS poisoning C. SYN flood D. ARP poisoning
A
Q251Which of the following network design elements provides for a one-to-one relationship between an internal network address and an external network address? A. NAT B. NAC C. VLAN D. PAT
A
Q255 Jane, an administrator, needs to transfer DNS zone files from outside of the corporate network. Which of the following protocols must be used? A. TCP B. ICMP C. UDP D. IP
A
Q256 Common access cards use which of the following authentication models? A. PKI B. XTACACS C. RADIUS D. TACACS
A
Q259 Jane, a security technician, has been tasked with preventing contractor staff from logging into the company network after business hours. Which of the following BEST allows her to accomplish this? A. Time of day restrictions B. Access control list C. Personal identity verification D. Mandatory vacations
A
Q27 Which of the following BEST describes a common security concern for cloud computing? A. Data may be accessed by third parties who have compromised the cloud platform B. Antivirus signatures are not compatible with virtualized environments C. Network connections are too slow D. CPU and memory resources may be consumed by other servers in the same cloud
A
Q271 Which of the following BEST describes a directory traversal attack? A. A malicious user can insert a known pattern of symbols in a URL to access a file in another section of the directory. B. A malicious user can change permissions or lock out user access from a webroot directory or subdirectories. C. A malicious user can delete a file or directory in the webroot directory or subdirectories. D. A malicious user can redirect a user to another website across the Internet.
A
Q281 Sara, an IT security technician, has identified security weaknesses within her company's code. Which of the following is a common security coding issue? A. Input validation B. Application fuzzing C. Black box testing D. Vulnerability scanning
A
Q282 Which of the following is an application security coding problem? A. Error and exception handling B. Patch management C. Application hardening D. Application fuzzing
A
Q284 Pete, an employee, attempts to visit a popular social networking site but is blocked. Instead, a page is displayed notifying him that this site cannot be visited. Which of the following is MOST likely blocking Pete's access to this site? A. Internet content filter B. Firewall C. Proxy server D. Protocol analyzer
A
Q30 Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the following attacks? A. Malicious code on the local system B. Shoulder surfing C. Brute force certificate cracking D. Distributed dictionary attacks
A
Q4 Which of the following devices is BEST suited for servers that need to store private keys? A. Hardware security module B. Hardened network firewall C. Solid state disk drive D. Hardened host firewall
A
Q45 Jane, the security administrator, needs to be able to test malicious code in an environment where it will not harm the rest of the network. Which of the following would allow Jane to perform this kind of testing? A. Local isolated environment B. Networked development environment C. Infrastructure as a Service D. Software as a Service
A
Q56 Which of the following is characterized by an attacker attempting to map out an organization's staff hierarchy in order to send targeted emails? A. Whaling B. Impersonation C. Privilege escalation D. Spear phishing
A
Q58 Which of the following provides the MOST protection against zero day attacks via email attachments? A. Anti-spam B. Anti-virus C. Host-based firewalls D. Patch management
A
Q6 Which of the following can prevent an unauthorized person from accessing the network by plugging into an open network jack? A. 802.1x B. DHCP C. 802.1q D. NIPS
A
Q60 Which of the following access controls enforces permissions based on data labeling at specific levels? A. Mandatory access control B. Separation of duties access control C. Discretionary access control D. Role based access control
A
Q63 Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures? A. User permission reviews B. Mandatory vacations C. Separation of duties D. Job function rotation
A
Q65 Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following? A. IPSec B. Full disk encryption C. 802.1x D. PKI
A
Q7 A targeted email attack sent to Sara, the company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO), is known as which of the following? A. Whaling B. Bluesnarfing C. Vishing D. Dumpster diving
A
Q70 Which of the following is used to certify intermediate authorities in a large PKI deployment? A. Root CA B. Recovery agent C. Root user D. Key escrow
A
Q79 An administrator wants to minimize the amount of time needed to perform backups during the week. It is also acceptable to the administrator for restoration to take an extended time frame. Which of the following strategies would the administrator MOST likely implement? A. Full backups on the weekend and incremental during the week B. Full backups on the weekend and full backups every day C. Incremental backups on the weekend and differential backups every day D. Differential backups on the weekend and full backups every day
A
Q84 If Organization A trusts Organization B and Organization B trusts Organization C, then Organization A trusts Organization C. Which of the following PKI concepts is this describing? A. Transitive trust B. Public key trust C. Certificate authority trust D. Domain level trust
A
Q9 In regards to secure coding practices, why is input validation important? A. It mitigates buffer overflow attacks. B. It makes the code more readable. C. It provides an application configuration baseline. D. It meets gray box testing standards.
A
Q90 Which of the following allows a company to maintain access to encrypted resources when employee turnover is high? A. Recovery agent B. Certificate authority C. Trust model D. Key escrow
A
Q93 Which of the following devices is typically used to provide protection at the edge of the network attack surface? A. Firewall B. Router C. Switch D. VPN concentrator
A
Q95 In an enterprise environment, which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent users from accessing inappropriate websites when AUP requirements are constantly changing? A. Deploy a network proxy server. B. Configure Internet content filters on each workstation. C. Deploy a NIDS. D. Deploy a HIPS.
A
Q96 How often, at a MINIMUM, should Sara, an administrator, review the accesses and right of the users on her system? A. Annually B. Immediately after an employee is terminated C. Every five years D. Every time they patch the server
A
Q99 Matt, an IT administrator, wants to protect a newly built server from zero day attacks. Which of the following would provide the BEST level of protection? A. HIPS B. Antivirus C. NIDS D. ACL
A
Q53 Which of the following are encryption algorithms that can use a 128-bit key size? (Select TWO). A. AES B. RC4 C. Twofish D. DES E. SHA2
AC
Q24 Certificates are used for: (Select TWO). A. client authentication. B. WEP encryption. C. access control lists. D. code signing. E. password hashing.
AD
Q69 In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response procedures would he need to perform in order to begin the analysis? (Select TWO). A. Take hashes B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork C. Take screen shots D. Capture the system image E. Decompile suspicious files
AD
Q121 A database server containing personal information and a file server containing non-critical information must be secured. Which of the following would be a BEST practice to secure the servers? (Select TWO). A. Place the file server behind a door requiring biometric authorization. B. Place both servers under the system administrator's desk. C. Place the database server behind a door with a cipher lock. D. Place the file server in an unlocked rack cabinet. E. Place the database server behind a door requiring biometric authorization.
AE
Q223 Which of the following security concepts are used for data classification and labeling to protect data? (Select TWO). A. Need to know B. Role based access control C. Authentication D. Identification E. Authorization
AE
Q101 Matt, an IT security technician, needs to create a way to recover lost or stolen company devices. Which of the following BEST meets this need? A. Locking cabinets B. GPS tracking C. Safe D. Firewalls
B
Q11 Which of the following steps should follow the deployment of a patch? A. Antivirus and anti-malware deployment B. Audit and verification C. Fuzzing and exploitation D. Error and exception handling
B
Q112 Pete, an IT Administrator, needs to secure his server room. Which of the following mitigation methods would provide the MOST physical protection? A. Sign in and sign out logs B. Mantrap C. Video surveillance D. HVAC
B
Q114 Matt, a security consultant, has been tasked with increasing server fault tolerance and has been given no budget to accomplish his task. Which of the following can Matt implement to ensure servers will withstand hardware failure? A. Hardware load balancing B. RAID C. A cold site D. A host standby
B
Q119 While opening an email attachment, Pete, a customer, receives an error that the application has encountered an unexpected issue and must be shut down. This could be an example of which of the following attacks? A. Cross-site scripting B. Buffer overflow C. Header manipulation D. Directory traversal
B
Q123 Matt, an account manager, arrives at work early in the morning and cannot log into his workstation. He calls the help desk an hour later to open a trouble ticket, but they tell him there is nothing wrong with his account. Matt tries his login once more and is granted access. Which of the following control types BEST explains this anomaly? A. Discretionary access control B. Time of day restrictions C. Separation of duties D. Single sign-on
B
Q124 Which of the following would ensure confidentiality and authorization to the management interface of a router? A. Enable an access list and RADIUS B. Enable SSH and TACACS C. Enable an access list and PKI D. Enable LDAP and strong passwords
B
Q135 Jane, the CEO, receives an email wanting her to clink on a link to change her username and password. Which of the following attacks has she just received? A. Hoaxes B. Whaling C. Bluejacking D. Vishing
B
Q14 If Pete, a security administrator, wants to ensure that certain users can only gain access to the system during their respective shifts, which of the following best practices would he implement? A. Separation of duties B. Time of day restrictions C. Implicit deny rule D. Least privilege
B
Q140 After a production outage, which of the following documents contains detailed information on the order in which the system should be restored to service? A. Succession planning B. Disaster recovery plan C. Information security plan D. Business impact analysis
B
Q143 Sara, a security analyst, is trying to prove to management what costs they could incur if their customer database was breached. This database contains 250 records with PII. Studies show that the cost per record for a breach is $300. The likelihood that their database would be breached in the next year is only 5%. Which of the following is the ALE that Sara should report to management for a security breach? A. $1,500 B. $3,750 C. $15,000 D. $75,000
B
Q152 Which of the following services should be disabled to stop attackers from using a web server as a mail relay? A. IMAP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. POP3
B
Q155 Pete, a security analyst, has been tasked with explaining the different types of malware to his colleagues. The two malware types that the group seems to be most interested in are botnets and viruses. Which of the following explains the difference between these two types of malware? A. Viruses are a subset of botnets which are used as part of SYN attacks. B. Botnets are a subset of malware which are used as part of DDoS attacks. C. Viruses are a class of malware which create hidden openings within an OS. D. Botnets are used within DR to ensure network uptime and viruses are not.
B
Q159 Matt, a security analyst, needs to implement encryption for company data and also prevent theft of company data. Where and how should Matt meet this requirement? A. Matt should implement access control lists and turn on EFS. B. Matt should implement DLP and encrypt the company database. C. Matt should install Truecrypt and encrypt the company server. D. Matt should install TPMs and encrypt the company database.
B
Q162 Which of the following does full disk encryption prevent? A. Client side attacks B. Clear text access C. Database theft D. Network-based attacks
B
Q163 Pete, a security analyst, has been informed that the development team has plans to develop an application which does not meet the company's password policy. Which of the following should Pete do NEXT? A. Contact the Chief Information Officer and ask them to change the company password policy so that the application is made compliant. B. Tell the application development manager to code the application to adhere to the company's password policy. C. Ask the application development manager to submit a risk acceptance memo so that the issue can be documented. D. Inform the Chief Information Officer of non-adherence to the security policy so that the developers can be reprimanded.
B
Q173 Pete's corporation has outsourced help desk services to a large provider. Management has published a procedure that requires all users, when receiving support, to call a special number. Users then need to enter the code provided to them by the help desk technician prior to allowing the technician to work on their PC. Which of the following does this procedure prevent? A. Collusion B. Impersonation C. Pharming D. Transitive Access
B
Q180 Pete, the system administrator, has blocked users from accessing social media web sites. In addition to protecting company information from being accidentally leaked, which additional security benefit does this provide? A. No competition with the company's official social presence B. Protection against malware introduced by banner ads C. Increased user productivity based upon fewer distractions D. Elimination of risks caused by unauthorized P2P file sharing
B
Q189 Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called: A. firewalls. B. content filters. C. routers. D. NIDS.
B
Q191 A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces? A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128. B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it. C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic. D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.
B
Q196 A trojan was recently discovered on a server. There are now concerns that there has been a security breach that allows unauthorized people to access data. The administrator should be looking for the presence of a/an: A. logic bomb. B. backdoor. C. adware application. D. rootkit.
B
Q199 Which of the following security concepts would Sara, the security administrator, use to mitigate the risk of data loss? A. Record time offset B. Clean desk policy C. Cloud computing D. Routine log review
B
Q201 After Matt, a user, enters his username and password at the login screen of a web enabled portal, the following appears on his screen: `Please only use letters and numbers on these fields' Which of the following is this an example of? A. Proper error handling B. Proper input validation C. Improper input validation D. Improper error handling
B
Q207 An administrator notices an unusual spike in network traffic from many sources. The administrator suspects that: A. it is being caused by the presence of a rogue access point. B. it is the beginning of a DDoS attack. C. the IDS has been compromised. D. the internal DNS tables have been poisoned.
B
Q209 Users at a company report that a popular news website keeps taking them to a web page with derogatory content. This is an example of which of the following? A. Evil twin B. DNS poisoning C. Vishing D. Session hijacking
B
Q210 An encrypted message is sent using PKI from Sara, a client, to a customer. Sara claims she never sent the message. Which of the following aspects of PKI BEST ensures the identity of the sender? A. CRL B. Non-repudiation C. Trust models D. Recovery agents
B
Q212 Users require access to a certain server depending on their job function. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate strategy for securing the server? A. Common access card B. Role based access control C. Discretionary access control D. Mandatory access control
B
Q215 Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, MOST likely implement in order to allow employees to have secure remote access to certain internal network services such as file servers? A. Packet filtering firewall B. VPN gateway C. Switch D. Router
B
Q217 A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default? A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23
B
Q227 Which of the following describes how Sara, an attacker, can send unwanted advertisements to a mobile device? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Bluejacking C. Bluesnarfing D. Packet sniffing
B
Q234 Which of the following can Pete, a security administrator, use to distribute the processing effort when generating hashes for a password cracking program? A. RAID B. Clustering C. Redundancy D. Virtualization
B
Q237 Mike, a user, receives an email from his grandmother stating that she is in another country and needs money. The email address belongs to his grandmother. Which of the following attacks is this? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Spoofing C. Relaying D. Pharming
B
Q238 Which of the following protocols can be used to secure traffic for telecommuters? A. WPA B. IPSec C. ICMP D. SMTP
B
Q240 Which of the following is a management control? A. Logon banners B. Written security policy C. SYN attack prevention D. Access Control List (ACL)
B
Q244 In order for Sara, a client, to logon to her desktop computer, she must provide her username, password, and a four digit PIN. Which of the following authentication methods is Sara using? A. Three factor B. Single factor C. Two factor D. Four factor
B
Q246 Mike, a server engineer, has received four new servers and must place them in a rack in the datacenter. Which of the following is considered best practice? A. All servers' air exhaust toward the cold aisle. B. All servers' air intake toward the cold aisle. C. Alternate servers' air intake toward the cold and hot aisle. D. Servers' air intake must be parallel to the cold/hot aisles.
B
Q247 Mike, a security analyst, has captured a packet with the following payloaD. GET ../../../../system32\/cmd.exe Which of the following is this an example of? A. SQL injection B. Directory traversal C. XML injection D. Buffer overflow
B
Q248 A security administrator needs to open ports on the firewall to allow for secure data transfer. Which of the following TCP ports would allow for secure transfer of files by default? A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25
B
Q253 In planning for a firewall implementation, Pete, a security administrator, needs a tool to help him understand what traffic patterns are normal on his network. Which of the following tools would help Pete determine traffic patterns? A. Syslog B. Protocol analyzer C. Proxy server D. Firewall
B
Q257 Which of the following application attacks is used to gain access to SEH? A. Cookie stealing B. Buffer overflow C. Directory traversal D. XML injection
B
Q258 Which of the following does a second authentication requirement mitigate when accessing privileged areas of a website, such as password changes or user profile changes? A. Cross-site scripting B. Cookie stealing C. Packet sniffing D. Transitive access
B
Q260 Which of the following ports does DNS operate on, by default? A. 23 B. 53 C. 137 D. 443
B
Q264 Which of the following is true concerning WEP security? A. WEP keys are transmitted in plain text. B. The WEP key initialization process is flawed. C. The pre-shared WEP keys can be cracked with rainbow tables. D. WEP uses the weak RC4 cipher.
B
Q266 Which of the following can be implemented on a lost mobile device to help recover it? A. Remote sanitization B. GPS tracking C. Voice encryption D. Patch management
B
Q267 Sara, a security administrator, needs to implement the equivalent of a DMZ at the datacenter entrance. Which of the following must she implement? A. Video surveillance B. Mantrap C. Access list D. Alarm
B
Q268 Jane, a security analyst, is reviewing logs from hosts across the Internet which her company uses to gather data on new malware. Which of the following is being implemented by Jane's company? A. Vulnerability scanner B. Honeynet C. Protocol analyzer D. Port scanner
B
Q272 Sara, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a corporation, wishes to receive her corporate email and file attachments on her corporate mobile computing device. If the device is lost or stolen, the BEST security measure to ensure that sensitive information is not comprised would be: A. to immediately file a police report and insurance report. B. the ability to remotely wipe the device to remove the data. C. to immediately issue a replacement device and restore data from the last backup. D. to turn on remote GPS tracking to find the device and track its movements.
B
Q278 Which of the following passwords is the LEAST complex? A. MyTrain!45 B. Mytr@in!! C. MyTr@in12 D. MyTr@in#8
B
Q28 Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques? A. Mime-encoding B. SSL C. FTP D. Anonymous email accounts
B
Q286 An administrator might choose to implement a honeypot in order to: A. provide load balancing for network switches. B. distract potential intruders away from critical systems. C. establish a redundant server in case of a disaster. D. monitor any incoming connections from the Internet.
B
Q3 Which of the following is the BEST approach to perform risk mitigation of user access control rights? A. Conduct surveys and rank the results. B. Perform routine user permission reviews. C. Implement periodic vulnerability scanning. D. Disable user accounts that have not been used within the last two weeks.
B
Q31 Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following? A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production C. Upper level management users from standard development employees D. The network access layer from the application access layer
B
Q39 Which of the following may significantly reduce data loss if multiple drives fail at the same time? A. Virtualization B. RAID C. Load balancing D. Server clustering
B
Q42 Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic? A. Connect the WAP to a different switch. B. Create a voice VLAN. C. Create a DMZ. D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.
B
Q46 A company is sending out a message to all users informing them that all internal messages need to be digitally signed. This is a form of which of the following concepts? A. Availability B. Non-repudiation C. Authorization D. Cryptography
B
Q5 All of the following are valid cryptographic hash functions EXCEPT: A. RIPEMD. B. RC4. C. SHA-512. D. MD4.
B
Q52 A system administrator decides to use SNMPv3 on the network router in AuthPriv mode. Which of the following algorithm combinations would be valid? A. AES-RC4 B. 3DES-MD5 C. RSA-DSA D. SHA1-HMAC
B
Q54 Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue? A. Spam filter B. Protocol analyzer C. Web application firewall D. Load balancer
B
Q59 Which of the following would MOST likely ensure that swap space on a hard disk is encrypted? A. Database encryption B. Full disk encryption C. Folder and file encryption D. Removable media encryption
B
Q61 A username provides which of the following? A. Biometrics B. Identification C. Authorization D. Authentication
B
Q66 Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application's security controls are in place? A. Code review B. Penetration test C. Protocol analyzer D. Vulnerability scan
B
Q68 A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. This implementation relates to which of the following concepts? A. Confidentiality B. Availability C. Succession planning D. Integrity
B
Q71 Which of the following components MUST be trusted by all parties in PKI? A. Key escrow B. CA C. Private key D. Recovery key
B
Q75 Which of the following is the below pseudo-code an example of? IF VARIABLE (CONTAINS NUMBERS = TRUE) THEN EXIT A. Buffer overflow prevention B. Input validation C. CSRF prevention D. Cross-site scripting prevention
B
Q78 A system administrator is using a packet sniffer to troubleshoot remote authentication. The administrator detects a device trying to communicate to TCP port 49. Which of the following authentication methods is MOST likely being attempted? A. RADIUS B. TACACS+ C. Kerberos D. LDAP
B
Q87 An ACL placed on which of the following ports would block IMAP traffic? A. 110 B. 143 C. 389 D. 465
B
Q92 In which of the following categories would creating a corporate privacy policy, drafting acceptable use policies, and group based access control be classified? A. Security control frameworks B. Best practice C. Access control methodologies D. Compliance activity
B
Q249 Which of the following technologies would allow for a secure tunneled connection from one site to another? (Select TWO). A. SFTP B. IPSec C. SSH D. HTTPS E. ICMP
BC
Q44 Which of the following algorithms has well documented collisions? (Select TWO). A. AES B. MD5 C. SHA D. SHA-256 E. RSA
BC
Q81 Which of the following can use RC4 for encryption? (Select TWO). A. CHAP B. SSL C. WEP D. AES E. 3DES
BC
Q97 Which of the following symmetric key algorithms are examples of block ciphers? (Select THREE). A. RC4 B. 3DES C. AES D. MD5 E. PGP F. Blowfish
BCF
Q279 During a penetration test from the Internet, Jane, the system administrator, was able to establish a connection to an internal router, but not successfully log in to it. Which ports and protocols are MOST likely to be open on the firewall? (Select FOUR). A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 69 E. 3389 F. SSH G. Terminal services H. Rlogin I. Rsync J. Telnet
BCFJ
Q230 Pete, an employee, is terminated from the company and the legal department needs documents from his encrypted hard drive. Which of the following should be used to accomplish this task? (Select TWO). A. Private hash B. Recovery agent C. Public key D. Key escrow E. CRL
BD
Q72 Which of the following should Matt, a security administrator, include when encrypting smartphones? (Select TWO). A. Steganography images B. Internal memory C. Master boot records D. Removable memory cards E. Public keys
BD
Q226 Which of the following are used to implement VPNs? (Select TWO). A. SFTP B. IPSec C. HTTPS D. SNMP E. SSL
BE
Q100 Which of the following protocols is used to authenticate the client and server's digital certificate? A. PEAP B. DNS C. TLS D. ICMP
C
Q103 Jane, an IT security technician, receives a call from the vulnerability assessment team informing her that port 1337 is open on a user's workstation. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware? A. Logic bomb B. Spyware C. Backdoor D. Adware
C
Q109 A company has asked Pete, a penetration tester, to test their corporate network. Pete was provided with all of the server names, configurations, and corporate IP addresses. Pete was then instructed to stay off of the Accounting subnet as well as the company web server in the DMZ. Pete was told that social engineering was not in the test scope as well. Which of the following BEST describes this penetration test? A. Gray box B. Black box C. White box D. Blue box
C
Q110 Which of the following is an authentication and accounting service that uses TCP for connecting to routers and switches? A. DIAMETER B. RADIUS C. TACACS+ D. Kerberos
C
Q113 Which of the following should be connected to the fire alarm system in order to help prevent the spread of a fire in a server room without data loss to assist in an FM-200 deployment? A. Water base sprinkler system B. Electrical C. HVAC D. Video surveillance
C
Q117 A security administrator has installed a new KDC for the corporate environment. Which of the following authentication protocols is the security administrator planning to implement across the organization? A. LDAP B. RADIUS C. Kerberos D. XTACACS
C
Q118 Which of the following uses only a private key? A. RSA B. ECC C. AES D. SHA
C
Q130 Jane, a security architect, is implementing security controls throughout her organization. Which of the following BEST explains the vulnerability in the formula that a Risk = Threat x Vulnerability x Impact? A. Vulnerability is related to the risk that an event will take place. B. Vulnerability is related to value of potential loss. C. Vulnerability is related to the probability that a control will fail. D. Vulnerability is related to the probability of the event.
C
Q138 Which of the following settings can Jane, the network administrator, implement in the computer lab to ensure that user credentials cannot be captured by the next computer user? A. Implement full drive encryption on all lab computers. B. Reverse the computer to its original state upon reboot. C. Do not display last username in logon screen. D. Deploy privacy screens on all lab computers.
C
Q139 Jane, a security administrator, is reviewing the company's official documentation to mitigate the risk of data loss due to personally owned devices being connected to perform company related work. Which of the following documentation should Jane MOST likely review and update? A. Acceptable risk B. Data retention policy C. Acceptable use policy D. End user license agreement
C
Q141 Pete, a security administrator, has implemented SSH across all network infrastructure devices in the enterprise. Which of the following protocols will be used to exchange keying material within SSH? A. Transport layer protocol B. IPSec C. Diffie-Hellman D. Secure socket layer
C
Q142 Matt, a security analyst, needs to select an asymmetric encryption method that allows for the same level of encryption strength with a lower key length than is typically necessary. Which of the following encryption methods offers this capability? A. Twofish B. Diffie-Hellman C. ECC D. RSA
C
Q144 Matt must come up with a design solution which will enable remote users to securely access network resources. Which of the following design elements will enable Matt to meet this objective? A. DMZ B. VLAN C. VPN D. NAT
C
Q145 Sara, a security technician, has been asked to design a solution which will enable external users to have access to a Web server, while keeping the internal network unaffected by this access. Which of the following would BEST meet this objective? A. Place the Web server on a VLAN B. Place the Web server inside of the internal firewall C. Place the Web server in a DMZ D. Place the Web server on a VPN
C
Q146 Pete needs to open ports on the firewall to allow for secure transmission of files. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall? A. TCP 23 B. UDP 69 C. TCP 22 D. TCP 21
C
Q149 Sara, a security architect, has developed a framework in which several authentication servers work together to increase processing power for an application. Which of the following does this represent? A. Warm site B. Load balancing C. Clustering D. RAID
C
Q15 Which of the following MUST be updated immediately when an employee is terminated to prevent unauthorized access? A. Registration B. CA C. CRL D. Recovery agent
C
Q150 How would a technician secure a router configuration if placed in an unsecured closet? A. Mount the router into an immovable rack. B. Enable SSH for maintenance of the router. C. Disable the console port on the router. D. Label the router with contact information.
C
Q176 Jane, the security administrator, is having issues with unauthorized users connecting to the wireless network. For administrative reasons, she cannot implement any wireless encryption methods. Which of the following can she implement to prevent unauthorized users from connecting to the network? A. NIPS B. Disable unused ports C. MAC filtering D. WEP
C
Q183 Jane, a network administrator, has configured a 48-port switch to isolate four different departments. Which of the following has Jane MOST likely configured on the switch? A. NAC B. 802.1x C. VLAN D. DMZ
C
Q186 Which of the following is an important implementation consideration when deploying a wireless network that uses a shared password? A. Authentication server B. Server certificate C. Key length D. EAP method
C
Q187 Which of the following would satisfy wireless network implementation requirements to use mutual authentication and usernames and passwords? A. EAP-MD5 B. WEP C. PEAP-MSCHAPv2 D. EAP-TLS
C
Q192 Digital Signatures provide which of the following? A. Confidentiality B. Authorization C. Integrity D. Authentication E. Availability
C
Q197 Which of the following anti-malware solutions can be implemented to mitigate the risk of phishing? A. Host based firewalls B. Anti-spyware C. Anti-spam D. Anti-virus
C
Q202 Which of the following should the security administrator do when taking a forensic image of a hard drive? A. Image the original hard drive, hash the image, and analyze the original hard drive. B. Copy all the files from the original into a separate hard drive, and hash all the files. C. Hash the original hard drive, image the original hard drive, and hash the image. D. Image the original hard drive, hash the original hard drive, and analyze the hash.
C
Q203 Matt, a developer, recently attended a workshop on a new application. The developer installs the new application on a production system to test the functionality. Which of the following is MOST likely affected? A. Application design B. Application security C. Initial baseline configuration D. Management of interfaces
C
Q204 A marketing employee requests read and write permissions to the finance department's folders. The security administrator partially denies this request and only gives the marketing employee read-only permissions. This is an example of which of the following? A. Job rotation B. Separation of duties C. Least privilege D. Change management
C
Q206 Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the company's sales websites. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task? A. HIDS B. Firewall C. NIPS D. Spam filter
C
Q214 Matt, the security administrator, notices a large number of alerts on the NIDS. Upon further inspection, it is determined that no attack has really taken place. This is an example of a: A. false negative. B. true negative. C. false positive. D. true positive.
C
Q216 Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished? A. Create a VLAN without a default gateway. B. Remove the network from the routing table. C. Create a virtual switch. D. Commission a stand-alone switch.
C
Q218 Which of the following could cause a browser to display the message below? "The security certificate presented by this website was issued for a different website's address." A. The website certificate was issued by a different CA than what the browser recognizes in its trusted CAs. B. The website is using a wildcard certificate issued for the company's domain. C. HTTPS://127.0.01 was used instead of HTTPS://localhost. D. The website is using an expired self signed certificate.
C
Q22 Which of the following can be used by a security administrator to successfully recover a user's forgotten password on a password protected file? A. Cognitive password B. Password sniffing C. Brute force D. Social engineering
C
Q220 Which of the following pseudocodes can be used to handle program exceptions? A. If program detects another instance of itself, then kill program instance. B. If user enters invalid input, then restart program. C. If program module crashes, then restart program module. D. If user's input exceeds buffer length, then truncate the input.
C
Q221 Which of the following devices can Sara, an administrator, implement to detect and stop known attacks? A. Signature-based NIDS B. Anomaly-based NIDS C. Signature-based NIPS D. Anomaly-based NIPS
C
Q224 While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Pete, an administrator, avoid implementing? A. EAP-TLS B. PEAP C. WEP D. WPA
C
Q228 Matt, a security administrator, is receiving reports about several SQL injections and buffer overflows through his company's website. Which of the following would reduce the amount of these attack types? A. Antivirus B. Anti-spam C. Input validation D. Host based firewalls
C
Q23 A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use? A. Password history B. Password logging C. Password cracker D. Password hashing
C
Q231 When employees that use certificates leave the company they should be added to which of the following? A. PKI B. CA C. CRL D. TKIP
C
Q232 A company had decided to assign employees laptops instead of desktops to mitigate the risk of company closures due to disasters. Which of the following is the company trying to ensure? A. Succession planning B. Fault tolerance C. Continuity of operations D. Removing single points of failure
C
Q233 Which of the following mitigation strategies is established to reduce risk when performing updates to business critical systems? A. Incident management B. Server clustering C. Change management D. Forensic analysis
C
Q235 Which of the following should Jane, a security administrator, perform before a hard drive is analyzed with forensics tools? A. Identify user habits B. Disconnect system from network C. Capture system image D. Interview witnesses
C
Q241 Which of the following risk concepts BEST supports the identification of fraud? A. Risk transference B. Management controls C. Mandatory vacations D. Risk calculation
C
Q243 Which of the following security strategies allows a company to limit damage to internal systems and provides loss control? A. Restoration and recovery strategies B. Deterrent strategies C. Containment strategies D. Detection strategies
C
Q245 Which of the following must Jane, a security administrator, implement to ensure all wired ports are authenticated before a user is allowed onto the network? A. Intrusion prevention system B. Web security gateway C. Network access control D. IP access control lists
C
Q25 Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device? A. EFS B. TrueCrypt C. TPM D. SLE
C
Q254 TKIP uses which of the following encryption ciphers? A. RC5 B. AES C. RC4 D. 3DES
C
Q26 Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection? A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic C. Validating user input in web applications D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
C
Q261 Sara from IT Governance wants to provide a mathematical probability of an earthquake using facts and figures. Which of the following concepts would achieve this? A. Qualitative Analysis B. Impact Analysis C. Quantitative Analysis D. SLE divided by the ARO
C
Q262 A buffer overflow can result in which of the following attack types? A. DNS poisoning B. Zero-day C. Privilege escalation D. ARP poisoning
C
Q270 Jane, a security analyst, wants to ensure that data is being stored encrypted, in the event that a corporate laptop is stolen. Which of the following encryption types will accomplish her goal? A. IPSec B. Secure socket layer C. Whole disk D. Transport layer security
C
Q275 Sara, a security administrator, is configuring a new firewall. She has entered statements into the firewall configuration as follows: Allow all Web traffic Deny all Telnet traffic Allow all SSH traffic Mike, a user on the network, tries unsuccessfully to use RDP to connect to his work computer at home. Which of the following principles BEST explains why Mike's attempt to connect is not successful? A. Explicit deny B. Loop protection C. Implicit deny D. Implicit permit
C
Q277 Users at a corporation are unable to login using the directory access server at certain times of the day. Which of the following concepts BEST describes this lack of access? A. Mandatory access control B. Least privilege C. Time of day restrictions D. Discretionary access control
C
Q280 During an anonymous penetration test, Jane, a system administrator, was able to identify a shared print spool directory, and was able to download a document from the spool. Which statement BEST describes her privileges? A. All users have write access to the directory. B. Jane has read access to the file. C. All users have read access to the file. D. Jane has read access to the directory.
C
Q32 A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed? A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team. B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process. C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process. D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
C
Q38 Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware? A. Logic bomb B. Worm C. Trojan D. Adware
C
Q41 To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation? A. Management B. Administrative C. Technical D. Operational
C
Q50 To reduce an organization's risk exposure by verifying compliance with company policy, which of the following should be performed periodically? A. Qualitative analysis B. Quantitative analysis C. Routine audits D. Incident management
C
Q64 In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened? A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location. B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys. C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients. D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.
C
Q67 Which of the following would be used to identify the security posture of a network without actually exploiting any weaknesses? A. Penetration test B. Code review C. Vulnerability scan D. Brute Force scan
C
Q80 Which of the following can be used in code signing? A. AES B. RC4 C. GPG D. CHAP
C
Q82 Which of the following defines a business goal for system restoration and acceptable data loss? A. MTTR B. MTBF C. RPO D. Warm site
C
Q83 Which of the following defines an organization goal for acceptable downtime during a disaster or other contingency? A. MTBF B. MTTR C. RTO D. RPO
C
Q85 Which of the following is an attack vector that can cause extensive physical damage to a datacenter without physical access? A. CCTV system access B. Dial-up access C. Changing environmental controls D. Ping of death
C
Q88 Which of the following provides the HIGHEST level of confidentiality on a wireless network? A. Disabling SSID broadcast B. MAC filtering C. WPA2 D. Packet switching
C
Q89 Which of the following controls should be used to verify a person in charge of payment processing is not colluding with anyone to pay fraudulent invoices? A. Least privilege B. Security policy C. Mandatory vacations D. Separation of duties
C
Q91 Which of the following network architecture concepts is used to securely isolate at the boundary between networks? A. VLAN B. Subnetting C. DMZ D. NAT
C
Q94 A malicious program modified entries in the LMHOSTS file of an infected system. Which of the following protocols would have been affected by this? A. ICMP B. BGP C. NetBIOS D. DNS
C
Q98 Which of the following should be implemented to stop an attacker from mapping out addresses and/or devices on a network? A. Single sign on B. IPv6 C. Secure zone transfers D. VoIP
C
Q10 Which of the following is a best practice before deploying a new desktop operating system image? A. Install network monitoring software B. Perform white box testing C. Remove single points of failure D. Verify operating system security settings
D
Q102 An IT security technician needs to establish host based security for company workstations. Which of the following will BEST meet this requirement? A. Implement IIS hardening by restricting service accounts. B. Implement database hardening by applying vendor guidelines. C. Implement perimeter firewall rules to restrict access. D. Implement OS hardening by applying GPOs.
D
Q104 Which of the following is the MOST specific plan for various problems that can arise within a system? A. Business Continuity Plan B. Continuity of Operation Plan C. Disaster Recovery Plan D. IT Contingency Plan
D
Q106 Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption? A. The initialization vector of WEP uses a crack-able RC4 encryption algorithm. Once enough packets are captured an XOR operation can be performed and the asymmetric keys can be derived. B. The WEP key is stored in plain text and split in portions across 224 packets of random data. Once enough packets are sniffed the IV portion of the packets can be removed leaving the plain text key. C. The WEP key has a weak MD4 hashing algorithm used. A simple rainbow table can be used to generate key possibilities due to MD4 collisions. D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key.
D
Q107 Which of the following is used to ensure message integrity during a TLS transmission? A. RIPEMD B. RSA C. AES D. HMAC
D
Q108 Sara, the Chief Security Officer (CSO), has had four security breaches during the past two years. Each breach has cost the company $3,000. A third party vendor has offered to repair the security hole in the system for $25,000. The breached system is scheduled to be replaced in five years. Which of the following should Sara do to address the risk? A. Accept the risk saving $10,000. B. Ignore the risk saving $5,000. C. Mitigate the risk saving $10,000. D. Transfer the risk saving $5,000.
D
Q12 Which of the following would be used when a higher level of security is desired for encryption key storage? A. TACACS+ B. L2TP C. LDAP D. TPM
D
Q126 A security technician is attempting to explain why some of the company policies should be changed for high risk IT positions. Which of the following concepts BEST explains the support for fraud detection? A. Time of day restrictions is more likely to discover fraud than the other fraud detection methods. B. Least privilege principles allow internal audit teams to discover fraud while a staff member is out of the office. C. Separation of duties is a better fraud detection method than mandatory vacations; therefore, it should be used. D. Mandatory vacations support the company discovering fraud while staff members are out of the office.
D
Q13 A security administrator needs to determine which system a particular user is trying to login to at various times of the day. Which of the following log types would the administrator check? A. Firewall B. Application C. IDS D. Security
D
Q131 The information security department regularly walks the campus and around the buildings looking for unauthorized open wireless networks. This is an example of which of the following? A. A site survey B. Antenna placement C. War dialing D. War driving
D
Q134 Which of the following can be used to discover if a security attack is occurring on a web server? A. Creating a new baseline B. Disable unused accounts C. Implementing full disk encryption D. Monitoring access logs
D
Q136 Pete, the system administrator, wishes to monitor and limit users' access to external websites. Which of the following would BEST address this? A. Block all traffic on port 80. B. Implement NIDS. C. Use server load balancers. D. Install a proxy server.
D
Q151 Which of the following firewall rules would only block tftp traffic and record it? A. deny udp any server log B. deny udp any server eq 69 C. deny tcp any server log D. deny udp any server eq 69 log
D
Q153 A security administrator has a requirement to encrypt several directories that are non-hierarchical. Which of the following encryption models would BEST meet this requirement? A. AES512 B. Database encryption C. File encryption D. Full disk encryption
D
Q156 Which of the following BEST explains the use of an HSM within the company servers? A. Thumb drives present a significant threat which is mitigated by HSM. B. Software encryption can perform multiple functions required by HSM. C. Data loss by removable media can be prevented with DLP. D. Hardware encryption is faster than software encryption.
D
Q157 Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements? A. Data loss prevention B. Trusted platform module C. Hard drive encryption D. Cloud computing
D
Q161 Which of the following is MOST closely associated with BitLocker? A. ACL B. DOS C. DLP D. TPM
D
Q168 Which of the following is the LEAST volatile when performing incident response procedures? A. Registers B. RAID cache C. RAM D. Hard drive
D
Q170 An encryption method where the plain text and cipher text are always the same size is an example of which of the following types of encryption? A. RC4 B. MD5 C. Steam Cipher D. Block Cipher
D
Q171 The information security team does a presentation on social media and advises the participants not to provide too much personal information on social media web sites. This advice would BEST protect people from which of the following? A. Rainbow tables attacks B. Brute force attacks C. Birthday attacks D. Cognitive passwords attacks
D
Q172 The compliance team comes out with a new policy that all data stored on tapes over 3 years must be degaussed. This BEST describes which of the following types of policies? A. Data handling B. Data classification C. Data labeling D. Data disposal
D
Q174 Pete, the security engineer, would like to prevent wireless attacks on his network. Pete has implemented a security control to limit the connecting MAC addresses to a single port. Which of the following wireless attacks would this address? A. Interference B. Man-in-the-middle C. ARP poisoning D. Rogue access point
D
Q178 Sara, the IT administrator, wants to control which devices can connect to the wireless network. Which of the following can she implement to accomplish this task? A. WPA2 Enterprise with AES encryption B. Decrease the WAP's power levels C. Static IP addressing D. MAC address filtering
D
Q179 Pete, the system administrator, has instituted a policy banning personal digital music and video players from the company premises. Which of the following would be the BEST reason for such a policy? A. The company would be legally liable for any personal device that is lost on its premises. B. It is difficult to verify ownership of offline device's digital rights management and ownership. C. The media players may act as distractions during work hours and adversely affect user productivity. D. If connected to a computer, unknown malware may be introduced into the environment.
D
Q19 A security administrator is observing congestion on the firewall interfaces and a high number of half open incoming connections from different external IP addresses. Which of the following attack types is underway? A. Cross-site scripting B. SPIM C. Client-side D. DDoS
D
Q193 Which of the following protocols uses TCP instead of UDP and is incompatible with all previous versions? A. TACACS B. XTACACS C. RADIUS D. TACACS+
D
Q195 An administrator notices that former temporary employees' accounts are still active on a domain. Which of the following can be implemented to increase security and prevent this from happening? A. Implement a password expiration policy. B. Implement an account expiration date for permanent employees. C. Implement time of day restrictions for all temporary employees. D. Run a last logon script to look for inactive accounts.
D
Q198 Which of the following can be used to mitigate risk if a mobile device is lost? A. Cable lock B. Transport encryption C. Voice encryption D. Strong passwords
D
Q20 Which of the following tools would Matt, a security administrator, MOST likely use to analyze a malicious payload? A. Vulnerability scanner B. Fuzzer C. Port scanner D. Protocol analyzer
D
Q205 Sara, a company's security officer, often receives reports of unauthorized personnel having access codes to the cipher locks of secure areas in the building. Sara should immediately implement which of the following? A. Acceptable Use Policy B. Physical security controls C. Technical controls D. Security awareness training
D
Q211 Which of the following protocols would be used to verify connectivity between two remote devices at the LOWEST level of the OSI model? A. DNS B. SCP C. SSH D. ICMP
D
Q222 Which of the following protocols would be implemented to secure file transfers using SSL? A. TFTP B. SCP C. SFTP D. FTPS
D
Q236 Pete, the security administrator, wants to ensure that traffic to the corporate intranet is secure using HTTPS. He configures the firewall to deny traffic to port 80. Now users cannot connect to the intranet even through HTTPS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue? A. The web server is configured on the firewall's DMZ interface. B. The VLAN is improperly configured. C. The firewall's MAC address has not been entered into the filtering list. D. The firewall executes an implicit deny.
D
Q252 Using proximity card readers instead of the traditional key punch doors would help to mitigate: A. impersonation. B. tailgating. C. dumpster diving. D. shoulder surfing.
D
Q263 Which of the following is an authentication service that uses UDP as a transport medium? A. TACACS+ B. LDAP C. Kerberos D. RADIUS
D
Q269 Sara, a senior programmer for an application at a software development company, has also assumed an auditing role within the same company. She will be assessing the security of the application. Which of the following will she be performing? A. Blue box testing B. Gray box testing C. Black box testing D. White box testing
D
Q273 In her morning review of new vendor patches, a security administrator has identified an exploit that is marked as critical. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. The security administrator should wait seven days before testing the patch to ensure that the vendor does not issue an updated version, which would require reapplying the patch. B. The security administrator should download the patch and install it to her workstation to test whether it will be able to be applied to all workstations in the environment. C. The security administrator should alert the risk management department to document the patch and add it to the next monthly patch deployment cycle. D. The security administrator should download the patch to the test network, apply it to affected systems, and evaluate the results on the test systems.
D
Q276 Jane, a security administrator, notices that a program has crashed. Which of the following logs should Jane check? A. Access log B. Firewall log C. Audit log D. Application log
D
Q283 Which of the following is a hardware-based security technology included in a computer? A. Symmetric key B. Asymmetric key C. Whole disk encryption D. Trusted platform module
D
Q285 Jane, the administrator of a small company, wishes to track people who access the secured server room, which is secured only by a simple hardware key lock. Jane does not have much of a budget or the approval to make significant construction changes. Given the limitations, which of the following can she do in the meantime? A. Implement an access log and a security guard B. Install a 24/7 closed-circuit camera system C. Install a separate hardware lock with limited keys D. Implement a cipher key lock
D
Q29 A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI? A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages B. Issues and signs all private keys C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs D. Issues and signs all root certificates
D
Q33 Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described? A. Phishing B. Tailgating C. Pharming D. Vishing
D
Q34 The security administrator wants each user to individually decrypt a message but allow anybody to encrypt it. Which of the following MUST be implemented to allow this type of authorization? A. Use of CA certificate B. Use of public keys only C. Use of private keys only D. Use of public and private keys
D
Q35 A user in the company is in charge of various financial roles but needs to prepare for an upcoming audit. They use the same account to access each financial system. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely be implemented within the company? A. Account lockout policy B. Account password enforcement C. Password complexity enabled D. Separation of duties
D
Q36 An employee is granted access to only areas of a network folder needed to perform their job. Which of the following describes this form of access control? A. Separation of duties B. Time of day restrictions C. Implicit deny D. Least privilege
D
Q37 A CRL is comprised of: A. malicious IP addresses. B. trusted CA's. C. untrusted private keys. D. public keys.
D
Q40 Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring? A. CCTV B. Environmental monitoring C. Multimode fiber D. EMI shielding
D
Q47 Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server? A. SSLv2 B. SSHv1 C. RSA D. TLS
D
Q48 Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process. Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk? A. Incident management B. Clean desk policy C. Routine audits D. Change management
D
Q49 A server containing critical data will cost the company $200/hour if it were to be unavailable due to DoS attacks. The security administrator expects the server to become unavailable for a total of two days next year. Which of the following is true about the ALE? A. The ALE is $48. B. The ALE is $400. C. The ALE is $4,800. D. The ALE is $9,600.
D
Q51 Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP? A. TFTP is slower than FTP. B. TFTP is more secure than FTP. C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP. D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.
D
Q55 Which of the following specifications would Sara, an administrator, implement as a network access control? A. 802.1q B. 802.3 C. 802.11n D. 802.1x
D
Q57 Which of the following defines when Pete, an attacker, attempts to monitor wireless traffic in order to perform malicious activities? A. XSS B. SQL injection C. Directory traversal D. Packet sniffing
D
Q62 Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following? A. Password security B. Regular auditing C. Baseline management D. Individual accountability
D
Q73 When checking his webmail, Matt, a user, changes the URL's string of characters and is able to get into another user's inbox. This is an example of which of the following? A. Header manipulation B. SQL injection C. XML injection D. Session hijacking
D
Q76 Which of the following would an antivirus company use to efficiently capture and analyze new and unknown malicious attacks? A. Fuzzer B. IDS C. Proxy D. Honeynet
D
Q77 Why is it important for a penetration tester to have established an agreement with management as to which systems and processes are allowed to be tested? A. Penetration test results are posted publicly, and some systems tested may contain corporate secrets. B. Penetration testers always need to have a comprehensive list of servers, operating systems, IP subnets, and department personnel prior to ensure a complete test. C. Having an agreement allows the penetration tester to look for other systems out of scope and test them for threats against the in-scope systems. D. Some exploits when tested can crash or corrupt a system causing downtime or data loss.
D
Q8 After verifying that the server and database are running, Jane, the administrator, is still unable to make a TCP connection to the database. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this? A. The server has data execution prevention enabled B. The server has TPM based protection enabled C. The server has HIDS installed D. The server is running a host-based firewall
D
Q86 Which of the following concepts is BEST described as developing a new chain of command in the event of a contingency? A. Business continuity planning B. Continuity of operations C. Business impact analysis D. Succession planning
D
