Sgt Test File

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266. Seagull management - a. include technical skills, administrative skills, conceptual skills, and people skills. b. The manager that hears something's wrong, flies in, makes a lot of noise, craps on everybody and flies away. c. are also jointly involved in planning, organizing, staffing, and budgeting. d. Managers focus on task, leaders focus on people.

275. Encode - a. how messages are conveyed usually follows the chain of command. b. is to place a message into a form to be transmitted. c. is to decipher a message. d. the specialized language of a field.

277. The most effective communication is three-way exchange. a. True b. False

280. Active listening - a. is the weakest link in the communication process. b. includes concentration, full attention, and thought. c. is the process by which the sender knows whether the receiver has understood the message. d. showed 10 percent of the message delivered is verbal and 90 percent is nonverbal.

283. Each inmate ___________ be fingerprinted and photographed. (Ref 265.6) a) may b) should c) will d) shall

287. Internal communication - a. includes all interactions with agencies and people outside the department, including the news media and citizen contacts. b. is within the department c. may be downward ( supervisor to employee), upward (Subordinate to supervisor) (vertical) or lateral(subordinate to subordinate) (horizontal). It may also be internal or external. d. informal channel of communication within the agency or department, also referred to as the rumor mill.

291. The releasing officer shall be certain that authorized release orders ___________________ for the discharge or release of the inmate. (Ref 267.2) a) are forth coming b) have been presented c) have been issued d) all the above

295. In the event an inmate refuses to sign the property return receipt, the releasing officer, ____________, shall note the refusal and sign the receipt. (Ref 267.5) a) and booking officer b) with a witness present c) booking officer and supervisor d) and supervisor

30. An inmate being released to another's custody shall be searched by what agency? (Ref 267.3) a. receiving agency b. releasing agency c. both agencies d. none of the above, this area is not addressed by TCJS

301. Consensus decision - a. in contrast to command decision making, uses input and opinions from others. b. is made democratically by a group. c. does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. d. is one managers make on their own, with little or no input from others.

303. Left-brain thinking - a. processes images and is primarily emotional. b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

306. Revised complete reports shall be submitted to the Commission within ___ days of the end of the affected reporting period indicating the correct information for all paper ready inmates confined during the reporting period. (Ref 269.14) a) 30 b) 60 c) 90 d) 120

308. Focus group - a. is free flowing b. usually consist of people from the educational community, the religious community, Neighborhood watch groups and the like. c. in contrast is evaluative, rational, and objective. d. the negative tendency for members of a group to submit to peer pressure and endorse the majority opinion even if it individually is unacceptable.

309. Inmates shall be classified and housed in the _________ restrictive housing available without jeopardizing staff, inmates or the public. (Ref 271.1(a)(1) a) most b) least c) justified d) none of the above

305. Creative procrastination - a. processes images and is primarily emotional. b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique

310. The Nominal Group Technique - a. a way to have individual input; uses open-minded questionnaires completed by individuals. Answers are shared, and the questionnaires are again completed until consensus is achieved. b. an objective way to achieve consensus on the most effective alternatives by using an objective ranking of alternatives propose by a group of people. c. identifies forces (driving and restraining) that impedes (equilibrium is the problem) and enhance goal attainment. d. uses objective rather than open-ended questions.

329. Each facility shall report to the Texas Department of Health (TDH) the release of an inmate who is receiving treatment for ________ in accordance with TDH Guidelines. a) Hepatitis b) Tuberculosis c) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) d) All the Above

333. Among the most common external time abusers - a. activities or tasks that waste time, for example, socializing, drop- in visitors and telephone tag. b. are the telephone; the e-mail chime; people who "drop in"; nonessential meetings; socializing; and "firefighting," or handling crises. c. Sort task, Purge whatever you can, Assign a time, Containerize the time needed to do the task and Equalize. d. are drop-in employees, procrastination, failure to set goals and objectives, failure to prioritize, failure to delegate, personal errands, indecision, failure to plan and lack of organization.

336. Procrastination - a. states that grouping similar tasks together can reduce the amount of time each takes, sometimes by as much as 80%. b. putting things off. c. putting off things that don't really matter. d. tasks that must be done, have big payoff and prevent negative consequences.

347. Narrow eye span - a. time spent in the agency or dept long after a shift ends on weekends when not on duty to make sure you are seen putting in extra time by those with the power to promote you. b. occurs when a person focuses on one word at a time rather than taking in groups of words and phrases in one look. c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. the principle that work expands to fill the time available for its completion. Sometimes we cannot make time, but instead use available time better.

350. Norms - a. the sum of the beliefs and values held in common by those within the organization that formally and informally communicate what is expected. b. the attitudes and beliefs held by a group. c. detailed, formally stated summary of duties and responsibilities for a position. d. overriding expectations of a given group, for example, do not volunteer or do not criticize.

354. Code of silence - a. that officers must back each other up. Psychological backup, emotional backup, and ethical backup. b. encourages officers not to speak up when they see another doing something wrong. c. must be to defend the constitution and laws of the United States, his or her state constitution and laws and local laws. d. officers are furiously loyal to one another and this culture is often a separation from society.

360. Managers - a. Managers who contribute their efforts to accomplishing dept goals while simultaneously developing their subordinates into top performers are superior balanced performer managers who empower others. b. can shape the workplace culture by doing the following: 1. Identify existing norms. 2. Evaluate the norms - do they work for or against the dept's mission? 3. Encourage positive norms and try to eliminate negative ones through modeling and training. c. a model made of 4 parts to help illustrate how people can learn more about others and themselves (open self, hidden self, blind self, and undiscovered/subconscious self) d. dependent, independent, and interdependent

362. Hidden self - a. what you know about yourself and what you show others. b. that which is secret and which you do not share with others c. that part others can see but you do not know about. d. that part of you neither you nor others have yet discovered.

364. Food shall be served only under the immediate supervision of __________________. a) a kitchen staff member b) a staff member c) a supervisor d) a trusty

368. Key result areas. a. include all aspects of a person's life: career/job, financial, personal, family/relationships and spiritual/service. b. the goals of an organization. c. targets that are specific, measurable outcomes with a timeline. d. what people say is important to them.

369. Inmates who destroy bedding or clothing may be deprived of such items. This shall be reviewed and documented every ______ hours. (Ref 283.1(4)(D) a) 12 b) 24 c) 48 d) 72

374. Each inmate shall be allowed one hour of supervised physical exercise or physical recreation (Ref 285.1) a) every three days b) three days per week c) every other day d) once every 5 days

376. Majority worldview - a. means understanding the diversity of United States, the dynamics of minority-majority relationships, the dynamics of sexism and racism and the issues of nationalism and separatism. b. beliefs held by those in the majority. c. beliefs held by those in the minority d. showed that black and Hispanic males are at increased risk for citations, searches, arrests, and uses of force.

378. Television, radio, arts, crafts, dominoes, checkers, chess and similar diversions should be considered as possible alternatives to physical recreation and/or physical exercise. (Ref 285.3) a) True b) False

383. ethics - a. falsifying patrol logs to make the numbers come out right to avoid charges of racial profiling. b. standards of fair and honest conduct. c. that which is moral and right. d. steadfast adherence to an ethical code.

307. Convergent thinking - a. is free flowing b. usually consist of people from the educational community, the religious community, Neighborhood watch groups and the like. c. in contrast to divergent thinking is evaluative, rational, and objective. d. the negative tendency for members of a group to submit to peer pressure and endorse the majority opinion even if it individually is unacceptable.

308. Juvenile Jail Logs shall be submitted annually and shall include information for July 1 to June 30. The reports shall be delivered to the Commission no later than ______________ of each year. a) July 5 b) July 10 c) July 15 d) July 30

385. The key elements of corrupt behavior - a. 70% of officers surveyed someone accepting free coffee or food or speeding unnecessarily. b. are that it (1) is prohibited by law or rule, (2) involves misuse of position and (3) involves a reward or personal gain for the officer. c. a favor or gift, usually in the form of money, given in return for service, for example a tip given to a waiter in a restaurant. d. posits that police corruption begins with a lowering of ethical expectations and values to attain a gratuity of minor value, for example, accepting a cup of coffee.

389. Trautman, Director of the National Institute of Ethics - a. During the socialization process, some officers receive the message they are special and above the law. b. "The most destructive form of police misconduct is administrators ignoring obvious ethical problems." c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. unethical behavior concerns the noble cause corruption dilemma, in which officers believe unlawful means are justified when the result is the protection of human life or some other cause.

39. Sally Port - a. A cell designed for the temporary holding of intoxicated persons. b. A secured space inside or abutting a facility for vehicles to deliver or pick up inmates or goods. c. A single occupancy padded cell for the temporary holding of inmates harmful to themselves and or others. d. An infirmary area holding a number of inmates.

399. Self-actualization - a. employee needs can be classified as hygiene factors and motivator factors. b. refers to achievement, to meeting individual goals and fulfilling one's potential. c. tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking. d. external motivators such as salary, bonuses, insurance, retirement plans, favorable working conditions, paid vacation and holidays, titles and adequacy of equipment.

403. Vroom's Expectancy Theory - a. intangible rewards that can cause satisfaction. b. employees will choose the level of effort that matches the performance opportunity for reward. c. internal motivators such as goals, achievement recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement or to make a contribution and belief in individual and department goals. d. suggests that positive reinforcement rewards and increases a given behavior; negative reinforcement decreases a given behavior by reinforcing another, desired behavior.

407. Morse and Lorsch 's Contingency Theory - a. says managers have these options to influence people's behavior at work: (1) reward good behavior (positive reinforcement), (2) punish bad behavior (negative reinforcement), (3) threaten people who do bad behavior and (4) ignore the bad behavior. The most effective option is to reward the good behavior. b. suggests fitting tasks, officers and the agency's goals so that officers can feel competent. c. programs designed to motivate d. tangible rewards

410. External, tangible motivators - a. include absenteeism, constant complaining, lack of care for equipment, lack of respect for other officers, lack of respect for rules and regulations, low morale, sleeping or loafing on duty, slovenly appearance. b. perks, the compensation package, incentive programs, working conditions, and schedules, security, social, and status. c. goals, achievement, recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement, opportunity to make a contribution and belief in individual and departmental goals. d. what managers and supervisors expect of their officers and how they treat them largely determine their performance and career progress. (encouragement)

415. Hawthorne effect - a. the theory that people live up to expectations. If people believe they can do a job, they usually can. If people believe they cannot do a job, they usually cannot. b. workers are positively affected by receiving attention. This affects research efforts. c. is a active form of communication. d. acting in an expected way from personal choice. Law enforcement is a self motivating jobs.

422. Indicators of low morale - a. is a person's or group's state of mind, level of enthusiasm and amount of involvement with work and with life. b. include lack of productivity, enthusiasm and cooperation; absenteeism; tardiness; grievances; complaints; and excessive turnover. c. include poor management, job dissatisfaction and failure to meet important individual needs. d. the angle in which we view things, makes a tremendous difference in what they see.

426. Assessment centers - a. that most likely will be able to raise or lower individual and department morale is the manager/supervisor through leadership and open communication. b. places participants in the position of actually performing tasks related to the anticipated position. Incorporates situational techniques in a simulated environment under standardized conditions. c. must be fair and based on management qualities, not on technical skills or seniority. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

43. How often shall an inmate be given the opportunity to shower? (Ref 277.6) a. at least daily b. at least every other day c. at least weekly d. upon reasonable request

435. Maintaining discipline - a. General Conduct, Performance of Duty, Restrictions on Behavior. b. is a fundamental management right. c. uses training to foster compliance with rules and regulations and performance at peak performances. d. is the foundation on which most discipline must be based.

439. 10/80/10 principle - a. discrepancies between an agency's formal policies and informal practices; occurs when an organization adopts a splashy new policy but then never really implements it to change or explains how the work gets done. b. divides the work force into three categories: 10 % self-motivated high achievers, 80 % average achievers and 10 % unmotivated troublemakers who cause 90 % of management's problems. c. formalize department policy on a particular issue and are a central mechanism to law enforcement leadership confronting recurring and potentially problematic enforcement issues. d. exhibits abnormal behavior to the extent that the behavior is detrimental to organizational needs and goals as well as the needs and goals of other law enforcement personnel.

448. Insubordination - a. can costs a department an additional 150 % over the budgeted amount with OT pay. (Orrick) b. failure to obey a lawful and direct order from a supervisor. c. unwelcome, unsolicited and deliberate action of a sexual nature that occurs in the workplace or extension of the workplace. d. involves a supervisor's demand for sexual favors from an employee in return for a job benefit.

457. Justifiable force - a. the illegal or unreasonable use of force, with reasonableness determined by whether a reasonably prudent officer would have used the same amount of force in the same situation, in light of the information available to the officer at the time. b. Force used in accordance with the law; force was reasonable in light of the circumstances faced and known by the officer at the time it was used. c. Force likely to cause serious bodily injury or death. d. when an officer present at the scene where use of force is in question and is obviously excessive and the nonfactor officer did nothing to prevent it, that officer is also held liable by the courts.

459. Negative discipline - a. a form of civil disobedience reflecting a philosophy of nonviolence. Often used by protestors and demonstrators. b. punishment or reprimand in an effort to compel expected behavior. c. (1) a sound policy, (2) effective mechanisms for enforcing the policy and producing accountability and (3) integrated training that teaches officers when and how to use force appropriately. (Fridell) d. is that it should be carried out as close to the time of the violation as possible.

46. What is the purpose of a critical incident report? a. Evaluate facilities and equipment. b. Evaluate staff performances, equipment and resources. c. Evaluate resources, vehicles, lodging. d. Evaluate resources, vehicles, lodging, and budget.

463. Progressive discipline - a. how the offense was committed and the offender's attitude and past performance are important considerations in assessing penalties. b. uses disciplinary steps based on severity of the offense and how often it is repeated. Oral and Written reprimands, Suspension/demotion, and Discharge c. should be corrective. Only when corrective discipline, training and counseling have little or no effect should disciplinary action be punitive. d. formal criticism of behavior. May be oral or written.

469. Suspension - a. being fired from employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline. b. being barred from a position for a period of time. May be with or without pay. Often part of progressive discipline. c. places an employee in a position of lower responsibility and pay. Often a part of progressive discipline. d. termination of employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline.

480. An effective manager - a. Both praises and reprimands can be effectively accomplished in one minute. b. usually gives four times more praise than blame. c. using positive strokes rather negative, crooked or plastic strokes. They are positive, negative, absent, crooked, and plastic. d. five step approach to employee performance problems: Pinpoint, Record, Involve, Coach, Evaluate.

483. Complainant - a. a statement of a problem. b. a complaint may be made by the general public, by people arrested or by employees of the law enforcement department, including peers, or managers. The person or group that files a complaint. c. statements of a problem made by a person or group outside the law enforcement organization. d. a formally registered complaint. A claim by an employee that a rule or policy has been misapplied or misinterpreted to the employee's detriment.

488. Complaints - a. statements of problems made by officers or employees within a law enforcement agency. b. can be reduced through effective recruitment and selection, training, policy and procedure manuals, effective supervision, community outreach and data collection and analysis. c. often included in external complaints are crime, excessive force, false arrest, improper entry, unlawful search, harassment, offensive demeanor, and rule infractions. d. bringing in a neutral third party to assist in negotiations

493. Most internal complaints - a. A pinch, minor problem can turn into a crunch, a major problem. It demonstrates the importance of communication in dealing with complaints and the consequences of not communicating effectively. b. are related to working conditions or management style. c. is directly related to job performance. Those who are dissatisfied on the job and communicate perform better than those who are satisfied and do not communicate. d. never take a complaint lightly.

501. Arbitration - a. the person or group filing a grievance. b. turning a decision over to an individual or panel to make the final recommendation. Unlike the mediator's recommendation, the recommendation of the arbitration is often binding. c. have ordinances, statutes or formal procedures for handling grievances. d. with physical working conditions and equipment causes the majority of grievances. Almost a third of grievances are caused by dissatisfaction with management's action.

505. Exonerated - a. complaint or grievance in which the investigative facts support the charge. b. a complaint or grievance in which the investigation determines that the matter did occur, but was proper and legal. c. usually results in one of four findings: sustained, not sustained, exonerated or unfounded. d. complaint or grievance in which the act did not occur or the complaint/grievance was false.

508. Positive conflict - a. determines whether it is negative or a positive force within the organization. b. challenges the status quo and offers constructive alternatives. c. disagreements that are destructive. d. a mental or physical fight, a controversy, disagreement or clash.

513. Conflict - a. properly handled, motivates individuals and organizations. It exposes problems, defines causes, obtains input from those involved toward constructive solutions and may develop new outlooks. b. is normal in all organizations and becomes negative only when left unresolved. c. can be extremely beneficial to a law enforcement organization, keeping it innovative and responsive to change. d. is usually to deal directly with those involved, determine the cause of the conflict and seek a solution.

514. Conflicts - a. insisting that two disputing people or groups meet face-to-face to resolve their differences, may effectively resolve conflicts, or it may make them worse. b. that arise during crises must be managed by following established procedures and the chain of command. c. may come from individual (personal issues), interpersonal (i.e. Cultural differences), or job-related sources (i.e. poor equipment, ineffective polices) as well as from sources outside the organization. Change is a major source of conflict. d. exists because officers' perception of their duties may differ from the public's.

521. Keys to maintaining healthy conflict - a. (1) win-lose - The subordinate must either obey or face disciplinary actions, (2) lose-lose - the conflict is settled through an ineffective compromise, with neither side feeling they have accomplished their purpose, and (3) win-win - the focus is on the basic merits of each side rather than on interpersonal haggling. b. include open, two-way communication, receptivity to new ways of doing things; and encouragement of risk taking. c. is to pursue agreement with understanding. d. uses 3 by 5 inch cards as a means to get people in conflict to share their most important ideas about a problem and to come to a mutual understanding of and respect for each other's viewpoints.

523. Reframing - a. a higher-level approach to effective mediation that focuses on mutually satisfying options. b. a conflict resolution skill; a psycholinguistic technique that shifts a person's perspective to recast conflict as a positive, rather than negative, force. c. is directly related to job performance. Those who are dissatisfied on the job and communicate perform better than those who are satisfied and do not communicate. d. never take a complaint lightly.

527. The cost accounting system - a. a plan or schedule adjusting expenses during a certain period to the estimated income for that period. b. measures the flow of expenditures through the organization and assigns them to specific activities. c. are the budget and the cost accounting system. d. a list of possible expenses and income during a given period, most often one year.

535. Bottom-line philosophy - a. everyone affected by the budget helps prepare it. Managers at all levels should be responsible for the budget they need, based on input from subordinates. b. permits departments to shift funds from one category to another as long as the total budget bottom line is not exceeded. c. 1) planning document, (2) Political document, (3) Living document. It is a tool. d. are developed by revising the previous year's budget based on logical assumptions.

537. Justification - a. money set aside for unforeseen emergencies. b. requires the department to justify budget request based on the output of the department's services. c. identifies specific categories (line items) and dollars allocated for each. d. includes the reasons the item is needed and the effect it would have on the department's operations if eliminated.

54. Violations of rules and regulations, which constitute serious offenses against persons and property and pose a serious threat to institutional order and safety, would be what type of infraction? (Ref 283.1(2) a. Serious b. Major c. Moderate d. Minor

540. Activity-based costing (ABC) - a. identifies programs and allocates funds for each. b. a modern version of the program budgeting system, except rather than breaking cost down by program, the approach breaks down costs by activity. c. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. Also called fixed cost. d. begins with a clean slate, justifying each expenditure anew.

544. Variances in the budget - a. include salaries, and wages, services and supplies, training and travel, contractual services and other or miscellaneous. b. are caused by one of three things: (1) price change (either higher or lower), (2) volume (using more or less of a line item), or (3) efficiency of operation (equipment is operating more or less efficiently than anticipated). c. comparing actual costs against what was budgeted and examining the differences. d. usually account for at least ¾ of the operating budget.

548. The first step in solving cost problems - a. means providing the same or more services with less funding. Also called budget reduction or reduced expenditure spending. b. is to identify waste areas. c. allocates dollars based on productivity. d. are major cost problems in most organizations.

555. Employees can suggest ways to cut costs - a. where the agency keeps a storehouse of uniforms b. through an employee cost improvement suggestion program. c. using consolidating services, establishing community resource centers, contracting, using quartermaster system, using volunteers. d. to common problems allow multiple jurisdictions to pool their resources to form and share teams not needed full time, for example, SWAT, scuba, accident reconstruction and crime scene units.

557. The Supreme Court - a. Agencies use private correctional facilities to cut cost. b. considers asset forfeiture to be governed by the Eight Amendment, which forbids cruel and unusual punishment. It is up to the states to make this determination. c. awarded to states or localities based on population and crime rates. Also called a block grant d. by fundraising, donations, charging for some services, using asset forfeiture statutes to their advantage and seeking grants.

562. Fixed costs - a. awarded based on the judgment of the awarding state or federal agency. b. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. c. the 12 month accounting period used by an agency. A calendar year, from January 1 through December 31, may or may not be the same as an agency's fiscal year. d. is the lead federal funding agency for law enforcement.

565. Evaluate - a. can provide an objective assessment of individual officers, managers, innovations, programs and the entire agency. b. to determine the worth of, to find the amount or value of or to appraise. c. are line inspections, spot inspections, and staff inspections. d. formal evaluation of on-the-job functioning; usually conducted annually.

568. Staff inspection - a. It can provide information related to the budget. It can also help defend against lawsuits and assess citizen satisfaction with the service provided. b. formal inspections and help uncover potential problems before they reach proportions that negatively affect the department. c. is the day to day review of a subordinate's appearance. d. unannounced and done by someone other than the inspected person's chain of command.

575. Standards - a. who provide the most immediate direction of subordinates should do the evaluation. b. may involve quality of performance, quantity and meeting established goals. Targets to be met, including level of performance. c. is to improve employee performance. d. include promoting common understanding of individual performance levels, needs, work objectives and standards; providing feedback and suggesting specific courses of action to improve, including training.

577. Law Enforcement agencies - a. may include areas such as physical energy to perform and emotional stability while performing law enforcement tasks; individual judgment; reliability; loyalty and ability to get along with the public, fellow employees and managers; creativeness and innovation; attitude; knowledge of tasks; competence; and amount of required management. b. that do not have fitness tests, standards or programs may face charges of negligence in hiring, training, supervision or retention. c. make it easier for employees to meet requirements and for managers to determine whether they have been met. d. makes evaluations more objective by using a numerical scale for each characteristic or dimension rated.

315. CHEERS - a. management ascertains what problems exist and tries to solve them, redefining the role of law enforcement from incident driven and reactive to problem oriented and proactive. b. Scanning: (identifying the problem), 2. Analysis: (looking at alternatives), 3. Response: (implementing alternatives), 4. Assessment: (evaluating the results). (Eck and Spelman) c. Six required elements of a problem are community, harm, expectation, events, recurring, and similarity. Occurs during the Scanning portion of SARA. d. Qualitative data examines the excellence (quality of the response. Quantitative data examines the amount of change (quantity) as a result of the response.

316. Persons assigned to a detoxification cell shall be transferred to a housing or holding cell __________________. (Ref 271.1(a)(8) a) upon completion of magistration b) upon completion of magistration and prior to classification c) as soon as they can care for themselves d) if at any time they become the sole inmate confined in a detoxification cell

319. Impact evaluations - a. determines whether the response was implemented as planned b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. determines whether the problem declined. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

322. Killer phrases - a. are habits people fall into without recognizing what they are doing. b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. judgmental, critical statements that serve as put-downs and stifle other's creativity. d. thinking patterns that prevent innovative thinking.

323. The owner/operator of each facility shall provide ________, _______ and________ services in accordance with the approved health services plan. (Ref 273.1) a) physical, psychological and dental b) medical, dental and social c) medical, dental and mental d) medical, dental and social

581. Promotability/assignment factors - a. an attempt to make evaluation "count for something", Redondo Beach police department gave individuals a higher chance for promotion/assignment based on the score of their evaluation. b. Those who rate highly might be considered for promotions, special assignments or pay raises. Those who rate below the acceptable range might be given counseling; training; a demotion; salary reduction; probation; or in extreme cases, termination. c. a procedure to allow those being evaluated to have input by completing a form outlining their accomplishments. d. (1) Ratings by individual traits or behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS), (2) Critical incident ratings, (3) Group or composite ratings, (4) narrative, essay or description, (5) Overall comparison ratings, and (6) Self-Evaluations.

582. Evaluations should have consequences - a. an attempt to make evaluation "count for something", Redondo Beach police department gave individuals a higher chance for promotion/assignment based on the score of their evaluation. b. Those who rate highly might be considered for promotions, special assignments or pay raises. Those who rate below the acceptable range might be given counseling; training; a demotion; salary reduction; probation; or in extreme cases, termination. c. a procedure to allow those being evaluated to have input by completing a form outlining their accomplishments. d. (1) Ratings by individual traits or behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS), (2) Critical incident ratings, (3) Group or composite ratings, (4) narrative, essay or description, (5) Overall comparison ratings, and (6) Self-Evaluations.

585. Critical Incident Ratings - a. A group of supervisors evaluate a individual. b. keeping a critical incident log that records good and bad performances of employees. c. raters use a description of what they observed rather than a rating scale. d. specific characteristics for a position are determined. Employees are then rated against these characteristics by on-the-job behaviors in each area.

591. Overall Comparison Ratings - a. allow employees to rate themselves. b. Managers review all their subordinates then rate which one is top and bottom with all others in between. c. private, one-on-one discussions of performance appraisal by manager and subordinate. d. should help employees do their jobs better and therefore improve individual performance and productivity.

595. The most common recommendation for frequency of performance appraisals - a. tendency to rate one who performs above average in one area above average in all areas or vice versa. b. is twice a year and more frequently for employees who perform below expectations. c. allowing one negative trait to influence the rater negatively on other traits as well. d. appraisals that are well grounded and sound in which the factors rated are job related and the raters are trained.

599. In addition to internal surveys - a. may also be used to identify department-wide training needs and to assess the effectiveness of training. b. the department should also conduct a self-assessment, perhaps through a committee established for this purpose.. c. suggest that organizations regulate themselves by gathering and reacting to information about their performance. d. the process by which an institution or agency proves that it meets certain standards.

6. Balance performer managers - a. A more experienced person who helps a less experienced person develop his or her capabilities and maximize potential. b. Managers who contribute their efforts to accomplishing dept goals while simultaneously developing their subordinates and empower others. c. Treats employees as the organization's most valuable assets. Is employee centered and focused on empowerment. d. Managers that build a team and view themselves as part of this team.

606. Lack of Faith in appraisal system - a. are (1) lack of faith in appraisal system, (2) late inning results count most, (3) inaccurate numerical or force-choice methods, (4) unfair percentage ratings, rating personality rather than performance and rating at the extremes. b. some managers have a defeatist attitude about performance rating. c. when ratings are performed annually, the actions and performance in the final months of the rating period are often better remembered and given more weight. d. Numericals ratings do not provide the information needed for improving employee performance because they do not indicate specifics about individuals

609. Rater Bias - a. Some raters tend to use their personal prejudices to rate employees. b. Closely related to rating personality is allowing one's personal biases to interfere with evaluation, for example, preferring men over women or non-minorities over minorities. c. When raters must place a percentage of employees in the upper, middle and lower third of ratings scales, they tend to be unfair. d. Some evaluators rate in extremes of too lenient or too strict.

8. The most important responsibility of a receiver is to: a. Provide feedback b. Listen c. Delegate authority d. Enhance communication

89. Inmate Correspondence - Privileged correspondence can be opened or interfered with regardless of whether a search warrant is obtained. a. True b. False

99. During admission, the inmate should be advised the he/she will be allowed to contact any attorney (Ref 265.8) a) after booking and classification b) upon reasonable request c) immediately following magistration d) in the county which the charge(s) was/were filed

A classification custody reassessment shall be conducted within ___ to ___ days of the initial custody assessment. a) 30 to 60 b) 30 to 90 c) 45 to 60 d) 45 to 90

A documented observation of a restrained inmate shall be conducted ________. a) continuously b) every 15 minutes at a minimum c) every 30 minutes at a minimum d) hourly at a minimum

A multiple occupancy cell is designed to accommodate a) 1 to 8 inmates b) 2 to 8 inmates c) 1 to 24 inmates d) 2 to 24 inmates

A routine contact visit allows an inmate to visit for ____ minutes as long as he has been incarcerated for a period of ___ days. a. 20, 30 b. 25, 60 c. 30, 30 d. 28, 30

A written record of all incidents which result in physical harm or serious threat of physical harm to an employee, visitor or inmate of a facility, shall be prepared and submitted to the Sheriff/operator within ____ hours of the incident. (Ref 269.1(3) a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 36 hours d) 48 hours

Adequate records of all required life safety plans, drills and inspection of equipment shall be maintained and shall be readily available for inspection by _____________. (Ref 263.70) a. local fire and rescue inspectors b. Texas Commission on Jail Standards c. Texas Commissions on Law Enforcement d. County Health Department Inspector

After the initial training, training for all jail personnel for emergency situations shall be no less than each calendar _____________. a) month b) quarter c) mid year d) year

Alarm systems shall be tested on what intervals? a. Calendar monthly b. Calendar quarterly c. Calendar biannually d. Calendar annually

All requests for inmate hospital visitation privileges will be directed to: a. section sergeant b. section lieutenant c. bureau captain d. chaplain

All staff shall be trained and ____________ drills conducted in the operation of self-contained breathing apparatuses. a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannually d) annually

An employee , who desires to resign in good standing with the Sheriff's Office, shall submit his/her written resignation to his/her supervisor and the Sheriff's personnel section and give at least ______ weeks notice of intent to leave the organization. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

An inmate has filed a grievance, and the investigation by the Grievance Officer has substantiated the grievance. Jail Standards requires that a grievance plan provides for (Ref 283.3(6) a) written apology from the Sheriff b) meaningful relief of substantiated grievances, (such as reinstatement of good time, additional visitation privileges) c) administrative discipline against offending staff member d) all the above

Areas where inmates are known to be assaultive, mentally ill, potentially suicidal, or who have demonstrated bizarre behavior are confined, observation shall be performed at least (Ref 275.1) a. every 15 minutes b. every 30 minutes c. every 45 minutes d. every hour

Balance of consequences analysis - a. uses both positive and negative discipline to achieve individual and organizational goals. b. a grid used to analyze problem behavior and the consequences that follow the behavior in an attempt to understand how the consequences might be to alter the change in problem behavior. c. consequences are stronger than organizational, delayed or uncertain (ODU). d. so that employees are rewarded for desired behavior and punished for undesired behavior---not vice versa.

Basic Management skills include these skills a. technical, administrative, planning, coordinating b. conceptual, people, administrative, technical c. planning, organizing, coordinating, budgeting d. none of the above

Care shall be taken that hot foods are served reasonably warm and that cold foods are served (Ref 281.5) a. Chilled b. reasonably cold c. on time d. reasonably cool

Career currency - a. cooperate, care for, assist and support the team effort. Last stage of growth supervisors aspire for employees. b. is the sum of all the professional qualities, characteristics, traits and skills an officer possesses as well as what the officer does and how it is done. (Borrello). c. a more experienced person who helps a less experience person develop his or her capabilities and maximize potential. d. where the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.

Closed circuit television may be used in lieu of the required personal observation of inmates by corrections officers. (275.1) a) True b) False

325. Morgenstern - Time Map - a. is planning and organizing time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. b. is the greatest management resource. c. a visual diagram of your daily, weekly, and monthly schedule. d. the period between two events or during which something exists, happens or acts; it is thought of in terms of measurable intervals. e. Both b and d

Communication barriers a. is to listen. b. Time, volume of information, tendency to say what we think others want to hear, certainty, failure to select the best word, prejudices (both sender and receiver), and strained relationship between sender and receiver. c. differences between men and women that can result in miscommunication. (Zielinski) d. techniques for reducing or eliminating barriers to communication, including properly encoding messages, selecting the best channel, describing, Equality, openness, problem orientation, positive intent and empathy.

Communication process - a. complex process through which information is transferred from one person to another through common symbols. b. involves a message, a sender, a channel and a receiver. It may include feedback c. messages conveyed by body language as well as tone of voice. d. messages conveyed by gestures, facial expressions, stance and physical appearance.

Currently, new maximum-security design requires that separate, secure weapon storage shall be provided at _____ entrances to the security perimeter for weapons and ammunition (259.118) a. high traffic b. all c. secured d. most

Deprivation of all correspondence privileges when the offense is related to a violation of the institutional rules regulations regarding correspondence is permissible. a) True b) False

Descriptive statistics a. consists of meeting a set of standards established by professionals in the field authorized to do so. Currently, accreditation may be granted by the Commission on the Accreditation of Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA) or by some state agencies. Established in 1979. b. focus on simplifying, appraising and summarizing data. c. focus on making statistically educated guesses from a sample of data. d. is through focus groups, forums or roundtable discussions.

Discretionary budget - a. deals with all expenses needed to run the department: salaries, insurance, electricity and the like. b. funds to be used as the need arises. c. deals with "big ticket" items such as land, buildings and improvements to systems; vehicles; and office equipment. d. serve as a plan for and a means to control resources.

Due process provisions for inmate discipline requires that a documented appeals process shall be provided an inmate a) if the Review Board discovers discrepancies in the process b) if requested by the inmate c) by majority vote of the Disciplinary Board d) With the approval of the Sheriff/Operator

During intervals of at least ___ months and at least 2 times each year, the sheriff/operator shall inspect each facility for which he/she is responsible inquiring into the security, control, conditions and state of compliance with the rules of the commission. (Ref 297.1) a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 9

During visitation, the accompaniment by parent, guardian or legal counsel of an inmate's minor children a) is required b) may be required c) shall be required d) is required by U.S. Federal Law 1983 Section R.13

Each Sheriff/Operator should develop and implement a mental disabilities/suicide prevention plan. a) true b) false

Each facility shall have and implement a written plan, approved by the commission, for inmate medical, mental and _______ services. a. Religious b. Dental c. Diet d. Marital

Existing facilities have a capacity of ___ inmates or less may operate with a single exit with the approval of the Commission. a) 50 b) 45 c) 40 d) none of the above, the Commission cannot give such an approval.

Existing facilities shall provide emergency illumination and this may be accomplished by utilizing a battery back-up system capable of continuous operation for ______ hour(s). (Ref 263.50(b) a) 1 b) 1 ½ c) 2 d) 2 ½

Exit doors to cells, day rooms, and other rooms where inmates are confined, up to 48 inmates, shall have a minimum clear width of _____. a) 26 inches b) 28 inches c) 32 inches d) 36 inches

Female and male inmates shall always be separated by sight and sound. a) True b) False

For purposes of inmate discipline, violations of institutional rules and regulations shall be divided into two categories. What are they a. minimum and maximum infractions b. minor and major infractions c. low and high infractions d. none of the above, infractions are divided into three categories minor, moderate and major infractions

Hot foods shall be served ________. a) hot b) reasonably warm c) at least 3 times per week d) at least one meal a day

How many exits are required on each floor of each facility? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

How often should an inmate in restraints, have the position changed, offered nourishment and liquids, offered toilet facilities? a) every hour b) every 2 hours c) every 3 hours d) every 4 hours

If an inmate is booked into the facility more than once during a ___ month period, a retest for tuberculosis is not required. a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

If only 1 corrections officer is on duty, the_________ officer should stay until the inmate is locked into the facility. a) arresting b) delivering c) supervising d) none of the above

In _____, the Texas Legislature added the requirement for county payment, and transfer of inmates when precipitated by crowded conditions as well as expanding the Commission's role of consultation and technical assistance. (Ref 251.1) a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993

In a new maximum security design, a utility sink should be provided in _______. a) multiple occupancy cells b) day rooms c) dormitories d) all the above

In a new maximum security design, all plumbing in inmate occupied areas shall have ________ shut off capability. a) remote b) quick c) automatic d) manual

In a new maximum security design, an arsenal or secure storage area for weapons and tactical equipment shall be provided and shall be located outside the security perimeter. a) true b) false

In a new maximum security design, dayrooms shall be provided to a) Separation cells b) Multiple occupancy cells c) Medical cells d) All the above

In a new maximum security design, each dormitory shall have adequate toilets, lavatories and showers. (Ref 259.135) a) True b) False

In a new maximum security design, exercise areas for facilities housing over 100 inmates, shall provide ____ square feet per inmate for the maximum number of inmates expected to use the space at 1 time. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

In a new maximum security design, exercise areas for facilities of less than 100 inmates based on design capacity shall not be less than ____ square feet. a) 600 b) 800 c) 1000 d) 1200

In a new maximum security design, facility construction should protect against the entrance and infestation of vermin. a) True b) False

In a new maximum security design, holding cells shall be located to facilitate supervision of the cell area and to materially reduce ____________. a) inmate abuse b) noise c) confusion d) stress

In a new maximum security design, inmates shall not be held for more than ____ hours in a remote holding cell. (Ref 259.138(b) a) 6 hours b) 8 hours c) 12 hours d) 16 hours

In a new maximum security design, junctions between kitchen floors and walls shall be covered. Walls and ceilings shall be finished with smooth, washable, ______ colored surfaces. (Ref 259.123 (3) a) dark b) light c) solid d) none of the above, TCJS does not include the color of the surface

In a new maximum security design, power operated locks shall be motor, solenoid or _________ type a) hydraulic b) pneumatic c) diesel d) non-mercury based

In a new maximum security design, safety vestibules shall have ____ or _____ interior doors and a main entrance door. a) 1 or 2 b) 1 or more c) 2 or more d) manual or automatic

In a new maximum security design, when using steel plate for ceilings and exterior and interior walls within inmate housing areas, it must be ____ inches thick. a) 1/8 b) 3/16 c) 5/16 d) 7/16

In accordance with Texas Commission on Jail Standards Chapter 273, all medical instructions of designated physicians shall a. be challenged b. be followed c. be considered d. be confirmed

In accordance with Texas Commission on Jail Standards, all inmate personal clothing shall be a. secured in paper bags, chain of custody initiated and stored in a secure property room b. cleaned or sprayed with a disinfectant and stored c. accounted for, stored in a secured, well ventilated area d. none of the above

In the event an inmate refuses to sign the property receipt, the receiving officer, _______________, shall note the refusal and sign the receipt. (Ref 265.10) a) and supervisor b) with a witness present c) and delivering officer d) delivering officer and supervisor

Incoming privileged correspondence shall (Ref 291.2(2)(C) a) be opened and inspected for contraband prior to leaving a mail room or other such defined area b) be opened in the presence of the inmate with an inspection limited to locating contraband c) be opened in the presence of the inmate and not searched d) is to be delivered to the inmate without any interference in accordance with U.S. Postal Code 573.009 of the U.S. Governmental Code.

330. Pareto Principle - a. a set of file folders, organized by year, month and day, into which lists of tasks to be accomplished are placed. b. is to ensure that you are accomplishing the tasks that must be done. c. 20 % (vital tasks) of what a person does accounts for 80 % of the results. Also 80% of trivial tasks can hinder results 20%. d. can tell you how you really spend your time, as opposed to how you perceive you spend it.

331. Morgenstern - SPACE formula - a. activities or tasks that waste time, for example, socializing, drop- in visitors and telephone tag. b. are the telephone; the e-mail chime; people who "drop in"; nonessential meetings; socializing; and "firefighting," or handling crises. c. Sort task, Purge whatever you can, Assign a time, Containerize the time needed to do the task and Equalize. d. are drop-in employees, procrastination, failure to set goals and objectives, failure to prioritize, failure to delegate, personal errands, indecision, failure to plan and lack of organization.

335. Creative procrastination - a. states that grouping similar tasks together can reduce the amount of time each takes, sometimes by as much as 80%. b. putting things off. c. putting off things that don't really matter. d. tasks that must be done, have big payoff and prevent negative consequences.

34. An initial custody assessment instrument to determine custody levels prior to housing assignment must be completed within what time frame? (Ref 271) a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours

342. Subvocalization - a. reading materials rapidly for specific information b. reading information rapidly for the main ideas, usually the first and last paragraph, the first sentence of all other paragraphs and the captions of any charts or figures. c. is moving lips and/or tongue to form words being read. This causes slow reading. d. is looking back over previously read material, which slows what is being read.

347. Personnel employed or appointed as jailers or guards of county jails shall be licensed as per the requirements of the _____________________. (Ref 275.2) a) Texas Commission on Jail Standards b) Texas Jail Association c) Texas Commission On Law Enforcement d) Texas Sheriff's Association

35. Observation shall be performed at least: a. Every 40 minutes in areas where inmates known to be assaultive, potentially suicidal, mentally ill, or who have demonstrated bizarre behavior are confined. b. Every 15 minutes in areas where inmates known to be assaultive, potentially suicidal, mentally ill, or who have demonstrated bizarre behavior are confined. c. Every 30 minutes in areas where inmates known to be assaultive, potentially suicidal, mentally ill, or who have demonstrated bizarre behavior are confined. d. Every 60 minutes in areas where inmates known to be assaultive, potentially suicidal, mentally ill, or who have demonstrated bizarre behavior are confined.

353. An officer's first loyalty - a. that officers must back each other up. Psychological backup, emotional backup, and ethical backup. b. encourages officers not to speak up when they see another doing something wrong. c. must be to defend the constitution and laws of the United States, his or her state constitution and laws and local laws. d. officers are furiously loyal to one another and this culture is often a separation from society.

358. Johari window (Joe and Harry) - a. Managers who contribute their efforts to accomplishing dept goals while simultaneously developing their subordinates into top performers are superior balanced performer managers who empower others. b. can shape the workplace culture by doing the following: 1. Identify existing norms. 2. Evaluate the norms - do they work for or against the dept's mission? 3. Encourage positive norms and try to eliminate negative ones through modeling and training. c. a model made of 4 parts to help illustrate how people can learn more about others and themselves (open self, hidden self, blind self, and undiscovered/subconscious self) d. dependent, independent, and interdependent

359. No more than _____ hours shall pass between meals without supplemental food being served. a) 13 b) 13 ½ c) 14 d) 14 ½

360. Meals should be served in ________ or _____ when possible. a) individual cells or day rooms b) direct observation cells or indirect observation cells c) dining rooms or day rooms d) direct observation cells or dining rooms

363. Blind self - a. what you know about yourself and what you show others. b. that which is secret and which you do not share with others c. that part others can see but you do not know about. d. that part of you neither you nor others have yet discovered

371. Mentor - a. cooperate, care for, assist and support the team effort. Last stage of growth supervisors aspire for employees. b. is the sum of all the professional qualities, characteristics, traits and skills an officer possesses as well as what the officer does and how it is done. (Borrello). c. a more experienced person who helps a less experience person develop his or her capabilities and maximize potential. d. where the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.

375. Minority worldview - a. means understanding the diversity of United States, the dynamics of minority-majority relationships, the dynamics of sexism and racism and the issues of nationalism and separatism. b. beliefs held by those in the majority. c. beliefs held by those in the minority d. showed that black and Hispanic males are at increased risk for citations, searches, arrests, and uses of force.

379. Racial profiling - a. established police have the right to stop suspicious motorists. Racial profiling b. dea agent detain a young black male at a airport because he was roughly dressed, had a nonstop flight to a targeted drug area. As long as suspicions are based on behavior, it is not racial profiling. c. unfairly stopping unoffending motorists to protect officers from the "statistical microscope" individually or collectively. d. is defined by Batton and Kadleck as the use of discretionary authority by law enforcement officers in encounters with minority motorists, typically within the context of a traffic cop, that result in the disparate treatment of minorities.

38. Other than health personnel, who may administer the health screening procedure upon the admission of an inmate to the facility? (Ref 273.4(a) a. a trained corrections officer b. any officer being supervised by a trained corrections officer c. a trained booking officer d. both "a" and "b"

380. Balancing - a. established police have the right to stop suspicious motorists. Racial profiling b. dea agent detain a young black male at a airport because he was roughly dressed, had a nonstop flight to a targeted drug area. As long as suspicions are based on behavior, it is not racial profiling. c. unfairly stopping unoffending motorists to protect officers from the "statistical microscope" individually or collectively. d. is defined by Batton and Kadleck as the use of discretionary authority by law enforcement officers in encounters with minority motorists, typically within the context of a traffic cop, that result in the disparate treatment of minorities

388. Gratuity - a. 70% of officers surveyed someone accepting free coffee or food or speeding unnecessarily. b. are that it (1) is prohibited by law or rule, (2) involves misuse of position and (3) involves a reward or personal gain for the officer. c. a favor or gift, usually in the form of money, given in return for service, for example a tip given to a waiter in a restaurant. d. posits that police corruption begins with a lowering of ethical expectations and values to attain a gratuity of minor value, for example, accepting a cup of coffee.

393. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs - a. report that the most motivated employees have values aligned closely with the organization's values. b. is an inner or outer drive to meet a need or goal. c. (1) physiological, (2) safety and security, (3) social, (4) esteem, and (5) self-actualization. d. is an impetus, impulsive or an intention that causes a person to act, individually or collectively with others, in a directed manner.

398. Hygiene factors - a. employee needs can be classified as hygiene factors and motivator factors. b. refers to achievement, to meeting individual goals and fulfilling one's potential. c. tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking. d. external motivators such as salary, bonuses, insurance, retirement plans, favorable working conditions, paid vacation and holidays, titles and adequacy of equipment.

40.Standard facility clothing shall be issued to all inmates held over ______ hours? (Ref 277.1) a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours

402. Intangible rewards - a. intangible rewards that can cause satisfaction. b. employees will choose the level of effort that matches the performance opportunity for reward. c. internal motivators such as goals, achievement recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement or to make a contribution and belief in individual and department goals. d. suggests that positive reinforcement rewards and increases a given behavior; negative reinforcement decreases a given behavior by reinforcing another, desired behavior.

409. Internal, intangible motivators - a. include absenteeism, constant complaining, lack of care for equipment, lack of respect for other officers, lack of respect for rules and regulations, low morale, sleeping or loafing on duty, slovenly appearance. b. perks, the compensation package, incentive programs, working conditions, and schedules, security, social, and status are all external motivators for employees. c. goals, achievement, recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement, opportunity to make a contribution and belief in individual and departmental goals. d. what managers and supervisors expect of their officers and how they treat them largely determine their performance and career progress. (encouragement)

413. Effective listening - a. the theory that people live up to expectations. If people believe they can do a job, they usually can. If people believe they cannot do a job, they usually cannot. b. workers are positively affected by receiving attention. This affects research efforts. c. is an active form of communication. d. acting in an expected way from personal choice. Law enforcement is a self motivating jobs.

419. Job enlargement - a. changing the job assignment or shift provides training opportunity and variety. b. Job rotation, Job enlargement, and Job enrichment. c. assigning additional responsibilities to an existing job. d. is similar to job enlargement, except that in job enrichment is the quality if the new jobs assigned rather than the quantity

425. Causes for low morale - a. is a person's or group's state of mind, level of enthusiasm and amount of involvement with work and with life. b. include lack of productivity, enthusiasm and cooperation; absenteeism; tardiness; grievances; complaints; and excessive turnover. c. include poor management, job dissatisfaction and failure to meet important individual needs. d. the angle in which we view things, makes a tremendous difference in what they see.

427. Promotions - a. that most likely will be able to raise or lower individual and department morale is the manager/supervisor through leadership and open communication. b. places participants in the position of actually performing tasks related to the anticipated position. Incorporates situational techniques in a simulated environment under standardized conditions. c. must be fair and based on management qualities, not on technical skills or seniority. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

437. Positive discipline - a. General Conduct, Performance of Duty, Restrictions on Behavior. b. is a fundamental management right. c. uses training to foster compliance with rules and regulations and performance at peak performances. d. is the foundation on which most discipline must be based.

Injuries - a. If an employee is exposed to blood or body fluid, the employee should report to the hospital of choice with the Authorization for Treatment Form within (1) hour of the exposure, for evaluation. The employee's supervisor will immediately notify the CompKey Managed Care representative for specific instructions at (888) 747-6215. b. If an employee is exposed to blood or body fluid, the employee should report to the hospital of choice with the Authorization for Treatment Form within (2) hours of the exposure, for evaluation. The employee's supervisor will immediately notify the CompKey Managed Care representative for specific instructions at (888) 747-6215. c. If an employee is exposed to blood or body fluid, the employee should report to the hospital of choice with the Authorization for Treatment Form within (30) minutes of the exposure, for evaluation. The employee's supervisor will immediately notify the CompKey Managed Care representative for specific instructions at (888) 747-6215. d. If an employee is exposed to blood or body fluid, the employee should report to the hospital of choice with the Authorization for Treatment Form immediately following the exposure, for evaluation. The employee's supervisor will immediately notify the CompKey Managed Care representative for specific instructions at (888) 747-6215.

Inmate Authority - Inmates shall have access to inmate records, handle inmate money or commissary accounts, and have access to any computer. a. True b. False

Inmate Furloughs - A furlough is an authorized inmate absence from the Jail for a period not to exceed ______ hours. During that time, the offender is without official escort. a. 36 b. 72 c. 48 d. 24

Inmate activities, which are non-physical in nature, may be supervised by other inmates. a) True b) False

Inmate request for religious practices shall be ______. (Ref 291.5(3) a) granted b) reviewed c) met d) limited to Catholic or Protestant services only

Inmate showers shall be supervised by ______. (Ref 265.11) a) any trained corrections officer b) a corrections officer of the same gender c) trained booking officers of the same gender d) well supervised corrections officers of the same gender

Inmate visitation periods shall be at least ____ minutes in duration. a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 45

Inmate work shall be assigned by a. senior trusty b. staff c. kitchen personnel d. TCJS

Inmates confined in a holding cell or detoxification cell shall be observed by facility personnel at intervals not to exceed. a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 45 minutes d. hourly

Inmates in a holding cell or detoxification cell shall be observed by facility personnel at intervals not to exceed _____ minutes. a) 15 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 45 minutes d) 60 minutes

Inmates on work assignments and those making court appearances shall be given an opportunity to shower________. a) immediately after work completion or immediately prior to court b) daily c) at least every other day d) per the inmates request

Inmates shall be allowed a minimum of ___ visit(s) per week. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Inmates should be required to shower at least ______. a) daily b) every other day c) weekly d) no requirement

Interior stairways serving as emergency exits for new facilities and new additions shall be separated by a __ hour fire rated enclosure and self-closing fire doors. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Interoperability - a. a plan, usually referring to a meeting outline or program: a list of things to be accomplished. b. the ability of public safety emergency to work seamlessly with other systems or products without special efforts. c. good information that is stated briefly. d. occurs when highly publicized criminal cases result in a shift in processing for similarly charged but non-publicized cases.

Keys will be handled in all ways except: a. fastened to belt b. in desk drawer c. in pocket d. in key pouch

190. Convergent thinking includes: a. decision making, testing, judging, rating b. fantasizing, free associating, dissimilar elements c. peer pressure, group census, testing, focused d. evaluative thinking, criticizing, time management

204. Cell phones may be brought into the jail with the permission of: a. Major b. Captain c. Lieutenant d. Not at all

205. Staff members refrain from "showing or displaying" unauthorized items (contraband), which have been found, as confidentiality may be required to enable successful investigation and prosecution. a. true b. false

217. Female inmates in active labor will not be restrained. a. true b. false

83. Booking - a. Arrestees are afforded two (2) completed telephone calls not later than (4) hours after arrival into the Booking facility. A toll call is made at the arrestee's expense or on a "collect call" basis. Arrestee's are not deprived of the ability to make a phone call because a lack of funds. The arrestee's telephone calls are recorded on the documents for each receiving facility. b. Arrestees are afforded (1) completed telephone calls not later than (4) hours after arrival into the Booking facility. A toll call is made at the arrestee's expense or on a "collect call" basis. Arrestee's are not deprived of the ability to make a phone call because a lack of funds. The arrestee's telephone calls are recorded on the documents for each receiving facility. c. Arrestees are afforded two (2) completed telephone calls not later than (2) hours after arrival into the Booking facility. A toll call is made at the arrestee's expense or on a "collect call" basis. Arrestee's are not deprived of the ability to make a phone call because a lack of funds. The arrestee's telephone calls are recorded on the documents for each receiving facility. d. Arrestees are afforded (4) completed telephone calls not later than (4) hours after arrival into the Booking facility. A toll call is made at the arrestee's expense or on a "collect call" basis. Arrestee's are not deprived of the ability to make a phone call because a lack of funds. The arrestee's telephone calls are recorded on the documents for each receiving facility.

An inmate Grievance Board must consist of at least _____ staff members and/or inmates from another section, they will have ______ days to report their findings. a. 3, 15 b. 2, 10 c. 5, 15 d. 4, 10

Documents or entries can be removed from an EDF by the Chain of Command, if the document is determined to be false. It can be removed and destroyed. a. true b. false

In an extreme emergency the Lieutenant may approve for a strip search to be done by someone of the opposite sex. a. true b. false

Law Enforcement can be motivated in 3 important ways - a. changing the job assignment or shift provides training opportunity and variety. b. Job rotation, Job enlargement, and Job enrichment. c. assigning additional responsibilities to an existing job. d. is similar to job enlargement, except that in job enrichment is the quality if the new jobs assigned rather than the quantity.

Legitimate power which is given to the Sheriff to manage the Departments personnel & other resources. a. Power b. Authority c. Constitutional right d. Ultimate Over sight

Morale - a. training expected to produce a desired behavior - controlled behavior or administering punishment. Also a state of affairs or how employees act, in contrast to morale, which is how employees feel. b. is how a person feels; discipline is how a person acts. c. self imposed rules for self-control. d. is to promote desired behavior, which may be done by encouraging acceptable behavior or punishing unacceptable behavior.

203. Section Lieutenants will perform__ inspections of their assigned area. a. Daily b. Monthly c. Weekly d. Every 2 weeks

213. The rank insignia worn by the Sheriff is a. a gold oak leaf b. 3 gold stars c. 2 gold stars d. 4 gold stars

An inmate dissatisfied with the resolution by a Grievance supervisor may appeal to the section Captain/Director within _______ days. The Captain/Director has ____ days to respond to the inmate. a. 7 , 15 b. 5, 15 c. 10, 20 d. 3, 10

An objective way to achieve consensus on the most effective alternatives by ranking them is the definition for: a. Delphi Technique b. Nominal Group Technique c. Problem Oriented Policing d. Driving Force

Authorized absence from work with pay for military duty may not exceed ____ hours and employees are not required to work____ hours before reporting for military duty. a. 160, 12 b. 120, 8 c. 80, 10 d. 150, 4

Direct Supervision a. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 12 hours per day. b. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 24 hours per day. c. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 36 hours per day. d. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 48 hours per day.

Motivation a. report that the most motivated employees have values aligned closely with the organization's values. b. is an inner or outer drive to meet a need or goal. c. (1) physiological, (2) safety and security, (3) social, (4) esteem, and (5) self-actualization. d. is an impetus, impulsive or an intention that causes a person to act, individually or collectively with others, in a directed manner.

Negligent retention - a. request for a decision to be reviewed by someone higher in the command structure. b. failing to terminate an employee when justified. c. discretionary authority used when a supervisor feels an officer is not fit for duty or for any reason the supervisor feels a need for immediate action. Also called summary punishment. d. occurs when managers or supervisors accumulate negative behaviors of a subordinate and then dump them all on the employee at the same time rather than correcting them as they occurred.

No inmate will be subjected to any of the following, except a. corporal punishment b. necessary force c. harassment d. deliberate property damage

One of the best ways a supervisors can help their employees know they are important is to ignore them. a. True b. False

208. An inmate found guilty of ------------ for the same minor infraction by a disciplinary board or ________ waivers can be classified as an "Habitual Disrupter." a. 4, 2 b. 2,1 c. 2,2 d. 3,1

214. The Unit Health Services Coordinator and Counseling Supervisor will accomplish licensure and certificate re-certification every. a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

218. Any staff member receiving information regarding the death of an inmate family member must obtain the name of the deceased, name of the inmate, relationship of the deceased to the inmate and a. The name of the Funeral Home b. The name of the hospital c. Name and telephone number of the informant d. The date of the funeral

81. Escorted Trips - a. The Lieutenant or designee will make the final decision on all escorted trips for any inmate housed in their area of responsibility. Escorted trips for funerals will be limited to the memorial service at a church, mosque, synagogue or funeral home. Graveside services will be authorized. b. The Shift supervisor will make the final decision on all escorted trips for any inmate housed in their area of responsibility. Escorted trips for funerals will be limited to the memorial service at a church, mosque, synagogue or funeral home. Graveside services will not be authorized. c. The Captain/Director or designee will make the final decision on all escorted trips for any inmate housed in their area of responsibility. Escorted trips for funerals will be limited to the memorial service at a church, mosque, synagogue or funeral home. Graveside services will not be authorized. d. None of the above

The five steps of the PRICE Method are: a. pinpoint, record, innovative, coach, evaluate b. professional, record, involve, coach, evaluate c. pinpoint, record, involve, coach, evaluate d. pinpoint, record, imagine, coach, educate

Three generations of Community Policing are: a. innovation, diffusion, strategic planning b. reactive, proactive, problem solving c. institutionalization, diffusion, innovation d. community and organizational changes

Participative Leadership - a. the 21st trend to not tie the leadership to rank, but rather to instill leadership qualities throughout the department. b. managers build a team and view themselves as part of this team. Relates to the organic model c. views personnel as total individuals who make up their team. d. occurs when the whole is greater than the sum of its parts; the team activities more than each could accomplish as individuals.

Physician prescribed diets for inmates shall be served as required provided the portion size or quantity does not exceed the contractual agreement with the vendor. (Ref 281.4) a. True b. False

Pretrial detainees may not volunteer to participate in any work program operated by the sheriff that uses the labor of convicted misdemeanants. (Ref 289.2) a) True b) False

Privileged mail may be read in the presence of the inmate: a. True b. False

Provisions for law library use by inmates, shall be included in the written library plan for approval by the commission. (Ref 287.4) a. true b. false

Skimming - a. reading materials rapidly for specific information b. reading information rapidly for the main ideas, usually the first and last paragraph, the first sentence of all other paragraphs and the captions of any charts or figures. c. is moving lips and/or tongue to form words being read. This causes slow reading. d. is looking back over previously read material, which slows what is being read.

Subsequently, officers will observe the restrained inmate at ______________ intervals. These periodic observations will be recorded in a log. Opportunities to use the bathroom and get a drink of water will be provided during these checks. a. 30 b. 15 c. 60 d. 120

The Civil Service Commission rules apply to the employees of the Sheriff's Office that are specifically exempted as designated by the Sheriff. a. true b. false

The KISS principle means a. Keep It Simple Stupid b. Keep It Short and Simple c. Keep it short and safe d. Keep it simple and stable

The Travis County Sheriff's Office Vision Statement is - a. committed to professionalism, partnership and community b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Recognizing the value of each person and treating them with decency and dignity. d. steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed

The availability to an inmate of a telephone for a free local telephone call is not addressed by TCJS. This is a departmental policy issue. a. true b. false

The emergency back-up generator system shall be capable of operating uninterrupted for a minimum period of ____ hour(s) without refueling. a) 1 b) 1 ½ c) 2 d) 2 ½

The excessive storage of food in cells and day rooms shall be _____. (Ref 279.1(10) a) limited b) prohibited c) discouraged d) all the above

The fire alarm system shall provide annunciation at the local fire department. a) True b) False

The first step in controlling time - a. a set of file folders, organized by year, month and day, into which lists of tasks to be accomplished are placed. b. is to ensure that you are accomplishing the tasks that must be done. c. 20 % (vital tasks) of what a person does accounts for 80 % of the results. Also 80% of trivial tasks can hinder results 20%. d. can tell you how you really spend your time, as opposed to how you perceive you spend it.

The health services plan shall provide procedures for the rights of inmates to refuse health care in accordance with informed consent standards for any type treatments and procedures. a) True b) False

The inmate should be advised that he will be allowed to contact any attorney upon ________ request. a) written b) reasonable c) justifiable d) none of the above

The inmate visitation plan shall contain procedures for a) out-of-state parental visitors b) emergency visitation c) conjugal d) all the above

The resolution of a grievance is final and not subject to appeal. a) True b) False

The smoke management systems shall be operationally tested _______. a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannually d) annually

Time is also: a. Researching and creating time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. b. the greatest management resource. c. Planning and organizing time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. d. Planning and researching time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible.

To deal with problem people - a. include yes people, passives, avoiders, pessimists, complainers, know-it-alls, exploders, bullies and snipers. b. get their attention, identify the problem behavior, point out the consequences, ask questions listen and explain expectations. Avoid defensiveness. c. employee who has demonstrated ability to perform but who does just enough to get by. d. are abuse of sick leave, substance abuse, corruption, insubordination, sexual harassment and use of excessive force.

To what agency shall a facility report the release of an inmate who is receiving treatment for Tuberculosis? (Ref 273.4(d) a. local county health department b. Texas Department of Health c. U. S. Department of Health d. Texas Department of Health, only after receiving written authorization from the inmate to release confidential medical information

Two-way voice communication between inmates and corrections officers shall be available. (Ref 275.1) a. twice daily b. at all times c. at the senior floor officer's discretion d. during visitation

Under no circumstances will restraints be left in place for more than _________ hours without supervisor's approval and further documentation. Such authorization will be documented by the duty supervisor on the "Application of Protective Restraints" form to include the date and time. a. hour b. two hours c. three hours d. four hours

United States v. Weaver - a. established police have the right to stop suspicious motorists. Racial profiling b. dea agent detain a young black male at a airport because he was roughly dressed, had a nonstop flight to a targeted drug area. As long as suspicions are based on behavior, it is not racial profiling. c. unfairly stopping unoffending motorists to protect officers from the "statistical microscope" individually or collectively. d. is defined by Batton and Kadleck as the use of discretionary authority by law enforcement officers in encounters with minority motorists, typically within the context of a traffic cop, that result in the disparate treatment of minorities.

Upon _______, a file on each inmate shall be established. a) booking b) intake c) arrest d) classification

Water tight garbage containers with tight fitting covers shall be located in the _________. a) infirmary b) kitchen c) inmate holding cells d) throughout the facility

Weapons and ammunition should not be _________ . a) stored together b) permitted beyond the security perimeter c) left in the trunks of patrol cars in the sally port d) all the above

Weapons shall not be allowed a. inside the sally port b. within the security perimeter of the facility c. to be stored with "live" ammunition d. all the above

What is the minimum ridge height above the floor in a tent used as temporary housing? (Ref 259.509) a. 6 ½ feet b. 7 feet c. 7 ½ feet d. 8 feet

When an inmate waives the right to a disciplinary hearing, the following sanction cannot be included in the waiver a) 30 days in disciplinary segregation b) loss of good time c) loss of visitation d) loss of dayroom privileges

When does the Counties fiscal year start and end? a. Aug 30th - Aug 30th b. Oct. 1 - Sept. 30th c. July 3 - Aug 19th d. Oct. 1st - Oct 31st

Which is the definition of quid pro quo sexual harassment? a. the employees job performance is interfered with as a result of the offensive behavior or the work atmosphere becomes hostile and intimidating b. the employee must submit to the offensive conduct as an explicit or implicit condition of employment or the employee rejects advances and may or may not risk losing a job, promotion, privileges or benefits c. the employee is subjected to actual touching or objectionable contact d. All of the Above

An incident report is optional when restraints are applied to aggressive or assaultive inmates. a. True b. False

Two conditions determine liability for employers in cases of hostile environment sexual harassment: - a. any nonnegotiable use of police authority to influence citizen behavior. (Luna) b. (1) The employer knew or should have known about the harassment, and (2) the employer failed to take appropriate corrective action. c. occurs when employees who are not the target of the harassment lose potential job benefits to other less qualified employees who submit to harassment. d. whether by co-employees or by supervisors, consists of unwelcome sexual behavior, such as jokes, cartoons, posters, banter, repeated requests for dates, requests for sexual favors, references to body parts, or physical touching that has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.

147. If an inmate dies in custody, CID will release the inmate's personal property to the family when the investigation is complete. a. True b. False

b. False, CID will release to property room. Chaplain will notify inmate's family

104. FAILURE TO REPORT DEATH OF PRISONER - Which of the following does not apply? a. A person commits this charge if the person fails to give notice of the death of an inmate and the person fails to give the notice and conduct an investigation and file a report b. fails to conduct the investigation or file the report c. fails to include in the report facts known to the person or discovered by the person in the investigation. d. An offense under this section is a Class C misdemeanor e. All of the above

178. The Expectancy Theory looks at options employees have on the job. This theory was proposed by a. Skinner b. McDonald c. Morse & Lorsch d. Vroom

209. Correctional staff that are not commissioned peace officers may file criminal charges, but the____________ must be filed by a peace officer. a. Complaint b. Offense Report c. Case Jacket d. Probable Cause Affidavit

418. Job Enrichment - a. changing the job assignment or shift provides training opportunity and variety. b. Job rotation, Job enlargement, and Job enrichment. c. assigning additional responsibilities to an existing job. d. is similar to job enlargement, except that it is the quality of the new jobs assigned rather than the quantity.

A body cavity search is authorized by a. Lieutenant b. Captain c. Major d. All of the above e. None of the above

Escorted Trips a. An escorted trip may be available to those inmates in the Jail who do not meet the furlough criteria. Inmates in this category may be considered for an emergency trip, under escort, to assist with immediate family emergencies such as serious illness, childbirth or deaths. b. Only mothers, fathers, sons, daughters, sisters, brothers, husbands, wives or grandparents are considered as immediate family. c. Escorted trips will not be approved outside of Travis County. d. All of the above

Escorted Trips - a. An escorted trip may be available to those inmates in the Jail who do not meet the furlough criteria. Inmates in this category may be considered for an emergency trip, under escort, to assist with immediate family emergencies such as serious illness, childbirth or deaths. b. Only mothers, fathers, sons, daughters, sisters, brothers, husbands, wives or grandparents are considered as immediate family. c. Escorted trips will not be approved outside of Travis County. d. All of the above

Escorted Trips - a. The Building Supervisor or designee will make the final decision on all escorted trips for any inmate housed in their area of responsibility. Escorted trips for funerals will be limited to the memorial service at a church, mosque, synagogue or funeral home. Graveside services will not be authorized. b. The Major/Director or designee will make the final decision on all escorted trips for any inmate housed in their area of responsibility. Escorted trips for funerals will be limited to the memorial service at a church, mosque, synagogue or funeral home. Graveside services will not be authorized. c. The Captain/Director or designee will make the final decision on all escorted trips for any inmate housed in their area of responsibility. Escorted trips for funerals will be limited to the memorial service at a church, mosque, synagogue or funeral home. Graveside services will be authorized. d. The Captain/Director or designee will make the final decision on all escorted trips for any inmate housed in their area of responsibility. Escorted trips for funerals will be limited to the memorial service at a church, mosque, synagogue or funeral home. Graveside services will not be authorized.

Furloughs may be granted for distances that exceed 100 miles or more by a. Lieutenant b. Major c. Sergeant d. Captain/Director

Medical and Correctional Staff are trained to respond to emergencies within__ minutes. a. 2 b. 5 c. 3 d. 4

200. Only the Jail Management Team may place inmates on Level Status. a. True b. False

b. False, The Jail Management Team or supervisory personnel may place inmates on Level Status. An inmate may be initially placed on the appropriate a level status for up to thirty (30) days. The behavior of each inmate assigned to a Level Status will be reviewed at the weekly JMT meeting. Level Status inmates who have not violated the rules of conduct may be moved to the next lower Level Status or removed altogether by the JMT, at anytime during the thirty (30) day period. The JMT may also increase an inmate's Level Status or continue their current status due to inappropriate conduct or valid security concerns.

191. Management Objectives (MBO) involves managers and subordinates setting goals and objectives individually. a. True b. False

b. False. Management Objectives (MBO) involves managers and subordinates setting goals and objectives together.

The sheriff, commissioners court and county attorney shall each appoint one person to serve as a member of the civil service commission: a. True b. False

b. False. The Sheriff, Commissioners Court, and District Attorney shall each appoint one person to serve as a member. The Sheriff shall designate one of the members as Chairperson of the Commission.

All inmate calls will be recorded, unbeknownst to the inmate a. True b. False

False. Automated notification will preclude each connection

188. Individuals who are dissatisfied and communicate, perform better than those who are satisfied and do not communicate. a. True b. False

True

1. In what year did the Texas Legislature create the Texas Commission on Jail Standards? a. 1973 b. 1974 c. 1975 d. 1976

114. Detoxification Cell - a. A secured space inside or abutting a facility for vehicles to deliver or pick up inmates or goods. b. A cell designed for the temporary holding of inmates c. A cell designed for the temporary holding of intoxicated persons. d. Special housing unit, usually a separation or single cell, when staff determines that such close custody is needed for the safety of inmates or staff, for the security of the facility, or to promote order in the facility.

129. The Travis County Sheriff's Office Values - Firm Commitment is to have a. being answerable and responsible for our actions b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed. d. Use our differences to enhance our service to and with the community by respecting each individual e. having the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant

134. Who coordinates all drug testing and is the recipient of all test results? a. personnel b. captain of section c. internal affairs d. backgrounds

140. A clear definition of the functions and objectives for a proposed new facility, renovation, or addition ________ be provided to the Commission for approval. a) may b) should c) shall d) will

140. Inmates who are subjected to protective restraint must be evaluated by supervisory and medical staff at least every: a. 30 minutes b. hour c. Two hours d. Four hours

149. In a new maximum security design, facilities having an inmate capacity of over 200 shall have a minimum of ___ separation cells and a sufficient number of single cells with adjacent day rooms to accommodate a total of at least 10% of the capacity in single occupancy cells. (Ref 259.114(b)(2) a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

153. What is the acceptable temperature range inside the facility? a. 60 to 85 degrees b. 65 to 80 degrees c. 65 to 85 degrees d. 70 to 85 degrees

155. In a new maximum security design, staff toilets and lavatories shall be provided_________________. (Ref 259.122 a) distinguishable as either male or female lavatories b) within all guard stations c) within close proximity to guard stations d) with a securable means

159. In a new maximum security design, group dining may be provided. Group dining should avoid concentrations of more than ______ inmates under direct supervision. (Ref 259.124) a) 24 b) 36 c) 48 d) 96

167. Inmate cells shall contain at least how much clear floor space: a. 30 sq ft b. 36 sq ft c. 40 sq ft d. 10 sq ft

168. In a new maximum security design, the exercise areas of a facility housing over 100 inmates shall not been less than _____ square feet for each exercise area. (Ref 259.132) a) 600 b) 800 c) 1000 d) 1200

170. In a new maximum security design, multiple occupancy cells _______ not be provided in direct supervision facilities. a) will b) may c) should d) shall

177. In a new maximum security design, a separation cell shall contain not less than ____ square feet of clear floor space. (Ref 259.137(3) a) 35 b) 37 ½ c) 40 d) 45

177. The acronym CHEERS stands for a. community, harm, simple, expectation, events, recurring b. community, helpful, events, expectations, recurring, simple c. community, harm, expectations, events, recurring, similarity d. None of the above

18. In a new long-term incarceration design, what are the required temperature levels in all occupied areas? (Ref 259.764) a. 35 - 45 degrees C b. 30 - 45 degrees C c. 65 - 85 degrees F d. 68 - 85 degrees F

19. In a new minimum security design, what are the required temperatures levels in all occupied areas? (Ref 259.451) a. 35 - 45 degrees C b. 30 - 45 degrees C c. 65 - 85 degrees F d. 68 - 85 degrees F

194. What do Sergeants do? a. oversee the activities of their divisions b. provide correctional services involving the health, safety and security of inmates c. provide first line supervision of their shift of employees, and implement day-to-day operations of their sections d. All of the above

197. What is the policy on staff interaction with inmates? a. that staff shall conduct inmate living area inspections daily and direct inmates to clean their living areas regularly b. that staff shall for security reasons search inmates, their possessions, cells and areas of the facility c. that staff shall interact and establish personal contact with inmates on a regular basis throughout each day d. All of the above

"Health tags" which may identify the inmate as having special medical needs shall be noted in the inmate's medical record and brought to the attention of health personnel and/or the supervisor on duty. a) True b) False

1. Which of the following below best describes what managers and supervisors are jointly involved in: a. planning, organizing, staffing, and budgeting. b. Planning, organizing, recruiting and scheduling c. Accomplishing goals and delegating authority d. Deescalating issues and promoting growth

10. Feedback - is the process by which the sender knows whether the receiver has understood the message. a. True b. False

113. Sally Port - a. A secured space inside or abutting a facility for vehicles to deliver or pick up inmates or goods. b. A cell designed for the temporary holding of inmates c. A cell designed for the temporary holding of intoxicated persons. d. Special housing unit, usually a separation or single cell, when staff determines that such close custody is needed for the safety of inmates or staff, for the security of the facility, or to promote order in the facility.

200. In a new maximum security design, tables and benches shall be not less than 12" wide, and linear seating shall be not less than ___ continuous inches per person. a) 12 b) 16 c) 18 d) 20

218. In a new maximum security design, cold water faucets with standard hose connections shall be provided in plumbing access space or corridors. Distance between hose connections shall not be more than ____ feet apart. (Ref 259.164) a) 80 b) 90 c) 100 d) 110

22. Honesty is - a. being answerable and responsible for our actions b. having the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant. c. to be truthful and forthright in our thoughts, words and deeds. d. recognizing the value of each person and treating them with decency and dignity. e. None of the above

116. Holding Cell - a. One or more holding cells shall be provided to hold inmates pending intake, processing, release, or other reason for temporary holding. Inmates shall not be held for more than 48 hours b. One or more holding cells shall be provided to hold inmates pending intake, processing, release, or other reason for temporary holding. Inmates shall not be held for more than 36 hours c. One or more holding cells shall be provided to hold inmates pending intake, processing, release, or other reason for temporary holding. Inmates shall not be held for more than 24 hours d. One or more holding cells shall be provided to hold inmates pending intake, processing, release, or other reason for temporary holding. Inmates shall not be held for more than 2 hours

117. Major infractions are violations of rules and regulations which constitute serious offenses against persons and property and pose a serious threat to institutional order and safety. a. True b. False

124. The Travis County Sheriff's Office Mission Statement is - a. committed to professionalism, partnership and community b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Recognizing the value of each person and treating them with decency and dignity. d. steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed

128. The Travis County Sheriff's Office Values - Full Accountability is a. being answerable and responsible for our actions b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed. d. Use our differences to enhance our service to and with the community by respecting each individual e. having the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant

137. A field contact card is a tool this office uses to document a. detention of subject b. arrest of subject c. citation of subject d. to document use of force

143. Anyone, inside or outside the facility can request a counseling referral for an inmate. a. True b. False

148. In a new maximum security design, facilities having an inmate capacity of 200 or less shall provide sufficient separation cells to accommodate not less than ____ of the facility capacity. a) 10 % b) 15 % c) 20% d) 25%

15. In an existing minimum security design what is the minimum temperature level in all occupied areas? (Ref 261.350) a. Above 65 degrees F b. Above 68 degrees F c. Above 70 degrees F d. Above 72 degrees F

151. An inmate confined to a wheelchair should not be housed in TCJ even though they have elevators. a. True b. False

160. After booking, but not more than 4 hrs after arrival a person shall be allowed at least 2 completed phone calls: a. True b. False

164. In a new maximum security design, one or more multipurpose rooms having a minimum of _____ square feet of floor space each shall be provided for each increment of 100 inmates based on design capacity. (Ref 259.131) a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500

165. Inmates personal clothing must be cleaned or sprayed with disinfectant: a. True b. False

171. Once a supervisor has been notified that one of his/her officer's has been arrested, sergeant must notify the sheriff or his designee: a. immediately b. within twelve hours c. with 24 hours d. next business day

172. The Sheriff ________ ask an employee to take a polygraph when investigating a citizen complaint against that employee. a. may b. may not c. shall d. shall not

174. Synergism occurs when the whole is greater than the sum of its parts, the team achieves more than the individual. a. True b. False

178. In a new maximum security design, separation cells shall be provided with a, toilet, lavatory, shower and ________.(Ref 259.137(2) a) floor drain b) mirror c) anti-suicide shelf d) lower bunk

179. The balance of consequences analysis considers behavior in terms of what positive and negative results the behavior produces and then focuses on those results. a. True b. False

183. In a new maximum security design, remote holding cells are separate from the facility and utilized for direct court holding, processing or for inmates awaiting transportation. (Ref 259.138(b) a) True b) False

189. In a new maximum security designed violent cells, the type of material used to cover the walls, floor, door and bench shall be fire resistive and _____. (Ref 259.140(4) a) nontoxic b) non-slick c) puncture resistive d) all the above

234. Travel distance between any point on the floor of the facility and an exit shall not exceed ____ feet. a) 100 b) 125 c) 150 d) 200

238. Situational Leadership -. a. Five management styles: (Lower right corner has high concern for results and low concern for people) Authority-compliance; (Upper left corner has low concern for results and high concern for people) Country club management style; (Lower left corner has low concern for results: low concern for people) Impoverished management; (Center has moderate concern for results and moderate concern for people) middle of the road manager: (Upper right corner has high concern for results and high concern for people) Team manager) Blake/Mouton b. treats employees as the organization's most valuable assets. Is employee centered and focused on empowerment c. specifies that initially workers need support and direction. As they become more task-ready( task behavior), they need less direction and more support, up to the point where even support can be reduced. This leadership theory is made by Henry and Blanchard. d. managers make decision without participant input.. Completely authoritative, showing little or no concern for subordinates.

238. Stairs shall provide 0.3" of width for each inmate utilizing stairs for exit access, but in no case shall such width be less than _______. (Ref 263.14) a) 36 inches b) 40 inches c) 44 inches d) 46 inches

243. Democratic leadership - a. Common sense always represents the action that gets the best results, with the least cost or side effects. Cottringer b. involves nonintervention; lets everything run itself. There is little or no control. Also relates to free-rein leadership. c. does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. d. employees' ideas and input are welcomed, but the manager makes the final decision. Relates to the mechanistic model.

248. Holistic management /Leadership - a. the 21st trend to not tie the leadership to rank, but rather to instill leadership qualities throughout the department. b. managers build a team and view themselves as part of this team. Relates to the organic model c. views personnel as total individuals who make up their team. d. occurs when the whole is greater than the sum of its parts; the team activities more than each could accomplish as individuals.

199. In a new maximum security design, tables and seating in direct supervision day rooms are not required to be anchored. (Ref 259.143(d) a) True b) False

199. The three special management units include administrative segregation, Protective custody, and/or disciplinary detention. a. True b. False

2. Authority is the legal right to get things done through others by influencing behavior. a. True b. False

2. When did the Texas Legislature expand the jurisdiction of the commission to include county and municipal jails operated under vendor contract? (Ref 251.1) a. 1983 b. 1984 c. 1985 d. 1986

201. Minimum and maximum custody inmates shall be housed separately. All other custody level inmates should be housed separately. a. True b. False

210. In a new maximum security design, how many additional set(s) of keys shall be maintained by the operator. (Ref 259.154) a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

215. In a new maximum security design, __________ water shall be provided at all showers. (Ref 259.162) a) warm b) cool c) hot d) wet

216. The safekeeping and maintenance of all inmate medical records is the responsibility of a. The Director of Inmate Services b. Medical Records Clerk c. Charge Nurse d. Nursing Supervisor

229. In a new maximum security design, a minimum of ____ negative pressure separation cell shall be provided for systems with a capacity of 100 or more inmates. (Ref 259.170) a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

230. In a new maximum security design, a negative pressure cell shall be provided with a convenient electrical receptacle with ground fault protection. (Ref 259.170 (1) a) True b) False

232. Min score of placement on eligibility list must be 140. a. True b. False

235. A supervisor may relieve a subordinate from duty when he/she believes that employee's continued presence is dangerous to him/herself. a. True b. False

236. The most preferred means of correcting and developing behavior. a. Counseling/Training b. Written Reprimand c. Coaching Report

239. Managerial/Leadership Grid Theory - a. Five management styles: (Lower right corner has high concern for results and low concern for people) Authority-compliance; (Upper left corner has low concern for results and high concern for people) Country club management style; (Lower left corner has low concern for results: low concern for people) Impoverished management; (Center has moderate concern for results and moderate concern for people) middle of the road manager: (Upper right corner has high concern for results and high concern for people) Team manager) Blake/Mouton b. treats employees as the organization's most valuable assets. Is employee centered and focused on empowerment c. specifies that initially workers need support and direction. As they become more task-ready( task behavior), they need less direction and more support, up to the point where even support can be reduced. This leadership theory is made by Henry and Blanchard. d. managers make decision without participant input.. Completely authoritative, showing little or no concern for subordinates.

242. The use of combustible supplies and permitting of hazardous material and trash to collect shall ___________. (Ref 263.19(c) a) be minimized and avoided where possible b) be in accordance with the local fire code c) be in accordance with both the local fire and health code d) not be allowed.

245. Common Sense Leadership - a. Common sense always represents the action that gets the best results, with the least cost or side effects. Cottringer b. involves nonintervention; lets everything run itself. There is little or no control. Also relates to free-rein leadership. c. does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. d. employees' ideas and input are welcomed, but the manager makes the final decision. Relates to the mechanistic model.

247. Dispersed leadership - a. the 21st trend to not tie the leadership to rank, but rather to instill leadership qualities throughout the department. b. managers build a team and view themselves as part of this team. Relates to the organic model c. views personnel as total individuals who make up their team. d. occurs when the whole is greater than the sum of its parts; the team activities more than each could accomplish as individuals.

250. Management - a. the administrative ordering of things. b. Influencing, working with and through individuals and groups to accomplish a common goal. c. to ensure what needs to be accomplished during any given shift is accomplished effectively and legally. d. Recognizes that organizations and employees mature/grow to become interdependent. Organizations provide jobs and people perform them. (Argyris)

255. Four system approach - System 1 uses coercion and a few economic rewards. System 2 is when economic rewards replace coercion. System 3 is liberal. It uses employee initiative and gives employees more responsibility. System 4 is participative, final decisions are made by management but only after employee's input. (Likert) a. True b. False

257. Theory Y - a. views employees as committed and motivated by growth and development. (McGregor) b. managers and subordinates work together to accomplish goals. c. (has to do with business like manufactory types) states that managers should create constancy of purpose for improvement of product and service, adopt new philosophy, improve constantly, institute modern methods of training on the job, institute modern methods of supervision, drive fear from the workplace, breakdown barriers between staff areas, eliminate numerical goals for the work force, remove barriers that rob people of pride and workmanship, institute a vigorous program of education and training. d. views employees as lazy and motivated by pay.

260. Mechanical smoke control systems and smoke removal systems shall be provided for alL a) cells, day rooms, dormitories, and special purpose cells b) cells, day rooms, dormitories, special purpose cells and recreation yards c) cells, day rooms, dormitories, special purpose cells, recreation yards and sally ports d) cells, day rooms, dormitories, special purpose cells, recreation yards, and all administrative areas both within and out of the security perimeter of the facility

264. SMART goals and objectives are specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and trackable. a. True b. False

265. Basic Management Skills - a. include technical skills, administrative skills, conceptual skills, and people skills. b. manager hears something's wrong, flies in, makes a lot of noise, craps on everybody and flies away. c. are also jointly involved in planning, organizing, staffing, and budgeting. d. Managers focus on task, leaders focus on people.

269. Communication - a. complex process through which information is transferred from one person to another through common symbols. b. involves a message, a sender, a channel and a receiver. It may include feedback c. messages conveyed by body language as well as tone of voice. d. messages conveyed by gestures, facial expressions, stance and physical appearance.

27. A telephone and what other item shall be available for an inmate's use within the processing area? (Ref 265.7) a. a telephone directory b. a current list of defense attorneys c. instructions for the operations of the telephone in both English and Spanish d. all the above

271. A minimum of ___ self-contained breathing apparatus(es) shall be provided for each building of a multi-building facility and on each floor a multistory facility. (Ref 263.54) a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

272. Emergency power equipment shall be tested at least once each week and the electric load transferred to the circuits at least ______. a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannually d) annually

276. Channels of communications a. how messages are conveyed, usually follows the chain of command. b. is to place a message into a form to be transmitted. c. is to decipher a message. d. the specialized language of a field.

278. Listening - a. is the weakest link in the communication process. b. includes concentration, full attention, and thought. c. is the process by which the sender knows whether the receiver has understood the message. d. showed 10 percent of the message delivered is verbal and 90 percent is nonverbal.

282. The most important responsibility of a receiver is - a. to listen. b. Time, volume of information, Tendency to say what we think others want to hear, certainty, failure to select the best word, prejudices (both sender and receiver), and strained relationship between sender and receiver. c. differences between men and women that can result in miscommunication. (Zielinski) d. techniques for reducing or eliminating barriers to communication, including properly encoding messages, selecting the best channel, describing, Equality, openness, problem orientation, positive intent and empathy.

285. A property receipt signed by the receiving officer ______ shall be maintained in the inmate's file. (Ref 265.10) a) and the inmate b) the inmate and supervisor c) the inmate and arresting officer d) the inmate and delivering officer

29. When shall a medical record be established on an inmate? (Ref 265.4(b) a. upon intake b. upon booking c. upon classification d. upon the inmate having a medical need

294. Agenda - a. a plan, usually referring to a meeting outline or program: a list of things to be accomplished. b. the ability of public safety emergency to work seamlessly with other systems or products without special efforts. c. good information that is stated briefly. d. occurs when highly publicized criminal cases result in a shift in processing for similarly charged but non-publicized cases.

295. Departments typically have four types of meetings - informational, opinion seeking, problem solving, and new-idea seeking. a. True b. False

296. Deconfliction - a. avoiding conflict when working with other agencies during an investigation; deployed with declassified and confidential investigations. b. involves nonintervention; lets everything run itself. There is little or no control. Also relates to free-rein leadership. c. comes from body language and tone of voice between two people. d. lies with the local police and the intelligence they can provide to federal authorities.

300. Consultative decision - a. in contrast to command decision making, uses input and opinions from others. b. is made democratically by a group. c. does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. d. is one managers make on their own, with little or no input from others.

304. Each Sheriff shall retain completed copies of each inmate's TDCJ-ID Document Checklist and copies of issued white warrants for a period of ___ year(s) from the date of transfer or release of the inmate from the jail. (Ref 269.13) a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 10

306. Divergent thinking - a. is free flowing b. usually consist of people from the educational community, the religious community, Neighborhood watch groups and the like. c. in contrast is evaluative, rational, and objective. d. the negative tendency for members of a group to submit to peer pressure and endorse the majority opinion even if it individually is unacceptable.

317. An intake screening is to be completed______ on all inmates admitted for purposes of identifying any medical, mental health or other special needs. (Ref 271.(b)(1) a) immediately b) during booking c) prior to booking d) prior to classification

317. Problem oriented policing - a. management ascertains what problems exist and tries to solve them, redefining the role of law enforcement from incident driven and reactive to problem oriented and proactive. b. Scanning: (identifying the problem), 2. Analysis: (looking at alternatives), 3. Response: (implementing alternatives), 4. Assessment: (evaluating the results). (Eck and Spelman) c. Six required elements of a problem are community, harm, expectation, events, recurring, and similarity. Occurs during the Scanning portion of SARA. d. Qualitative data examines the excellence (quality of the response. Quantitative data examines the amount of change (quantity) as a result of the response.

318. Process evaluations - a. determines whether the response was implemented as planned b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. determines whether the problem decline. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

32. How often shall the status of inmates placed in administrative separation be reviewed and documented? (Ref 271.1(A)(10) a. at least every 10 days b. at least every 15 days c. at least every 30 days d. monthly

321. The classification plan shall provide that all staff whose duties include classification shall undergo a least _______ hours of training on the principles, procedures and instruments for classification assessments, housing assignments, reassessments and inmate needs. (Ref 271.3) a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

321. Thinking traps - a. are habits people fall into without recognizing what they are doing. b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. judgmental, critical statements that serve as put-downs and stifle other's creativity. d. thinking patterns that prevent innovative thinking.

324. Time management - a. is planning and organizing time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. b. is the greatest management resource. c. a visual diagram of your daily, weekly, and monthly schedule. d. the period between two events or during which something exists, happens or acts; it is thought of in terms of measurable intervals. e. Both b and d

332. Time abusers - a. activities or tasks that waste TIME, for example, socializing, drop- in visitors and telephone tag. b. are the telephone; the e-mail chime; people who "drop in"; nonessential meetings; socializing; and "firefighting," or handling crises. c. Sort task, Purge whatever you can, Assign a time, Containerize the time needed to do the task and Equalize. d. are drop-in employees, procrastination, failure to set goals and objectives, failure to prioritize, failure to delegate, personal errands, indecision, failure to plan and lack of organization.

337. Learning Curve Principle - a. states that grouping similar tasks together can reduce the amount of time each takes, sometimes by as much as 80%. b. putting things off. c. putting off things that don't really matter. d. tasks that must be done, have big payoff and prevent negative consequences.

339. Posteriorities - a. tasks that do not have to be done, have a minimal payoff and have very limited negative consequences. b. tasks that must be done, have big payoff and prevent negative consequences. c. Proper planning prevents poor performance! d. not picking up a piece of paper until you are ready to do something with it.

344. Scanning - a. reading materials rapidly for specific information b. reading information rapidly for the main ideas, usually the first and last paragraph, the first sentence of all other paragraphs and the captions of any charts or figures. c. is moving lips and/or tongue to form words being read. This causes slow reading. d. is looking back over previously read material, which slows what is being read.

346. Face time - a. time spent in the agency or dept long after a shift ends on weekends when not on duty to make sure you are seen putting in extra time by those with the power to promote you. b. occurs when a person focuses on one word at a time rather than taking in groups of words and phrases in one look. c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. the principle that work expands to fill the time available for its completion. Sometimes we cannot make time, but instead use available time better.

356. Unconditional backup - a. that officers must back each other up. Psychological backup, emotional backup, and ethical backup. b. encourages officers not to speak up when they see another doing something wrong. c. must be to defend the constitution and laws of the United States, his or her state constitution and laws and local laws. d. officers are furiously loyal to one another and this culture is often a separation from society.

359. Balance performer managers - a. Managers who contribute their efforts to accomplishing dept goals while simultaneously developing their subordinates into top performers are superior balanced performer managers who empower others. b. can shape the workplace culture by doing the following: 1. Identify existing norms. 2. Evaluate the norms - do they work for or against the dept's mission? 3. Encourage positive norms and try to eliminate negative ones through modeling and training. c. a model made of 4 parts to help illustrate how people can learn more about others and themselves (open self, hidden self, blind self, and undiscovered/subconscious self) d. dependent, independent, and interdependent

361. Open self - a. what you know about yourself and what you show others. b. that which is secret and which you do not share with others c. that part others can see but you do not know about. d. that part of you neither you nor others have yet discovered.

369. interdependent - a. cooperate, care for, assist and support the team effort. Last stage of growth supervisors aspire for employees. b. is the sum of all the professional qualities, characteristics, traits and skills an officer possesses as well as what the officer does and how it is done. (Borrello). c. a more experienced person who helps a less experience person develop his or her capabilities and maximize potential. d. where the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.\

374. Cultural awareness - a. means understanding the diversity of United States, the dynamics of minority-majority relationships, the dynamics of sexism and racism and the issues of nationalism and separatism. b. beliefs held by those in the majority. c. beliefs held by those in the minority d. showed that black and Hispanic males are at increased risk for citations, searches, arrests, and uses of force

375. Each inmate shall be allowed at least three hours of physical exercise or physical recreation each calendar week. These three hours can be given in which of the following manners. (Ref 285.1) a) three one hour periods b) two 90 minute periods c) one three period d) any of the above

378. Whren v. United States - a. established police have the right to stop suspicious motorists. Racial profiling b. dea agent detain a young black male at a airport because he was roughly dressed, had a nonstop flight to a targeted drug area. As long as suspicions are based on behavior, it is not racial profiling. c. unfairly stopping unoffending motorists to protect officers from the "statistical microscope" individually or collectively. d. is defined by Batton and Kadleck as the use of discretionary authority by law enforcement officers in encounters with minority motorists, typically within the context of a traffic cop, that result in the disparate treatment of minorities.

38. Direct Supervision - a. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 24 hours per day. b. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 8 hours per day. c. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 11.43 hours per day. d. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 12 hours per day.

381. Ghosting - a. falsifying patrol logs to make the numbers come out right to avoid charges of racial profiling. b. standards of fair and honest conduct. c. that which is moral and right. d. steadfast adherence to an ethical code.

390. Above the Law - a. During the socialization process, some officers receive the message they are special and above the law. b. "The most destructive form of police misconduct is administrators ignoring obvious ethical problems." c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. unethical behavior concerns the noble cause corruption dilemma, in which officers believe unlawful means are justified when the result is the protection of human life or some other cause.

392. Knozes and Posner - a. report that the most motivated employees have values aligned closely with the organization's values. b. is an inner or outer drive to meet a need or goal. c. (1) physiological, (2) safety and security, (3) social, (4) esteem, and (5) self-actualization. d. is an impetus, impulsive or an intention that causes a person to act, individually or collectively with others, in a directed manner.

397. Herzberg's Two-Factor Hygiene/Motivator Theory - a. motivational theory that employees' needs can be classified as hygiene factors (tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking) and motivator factors (intangible rewards that can create satisfaction). b. refers to achievement, to meeting individual goals and fulfilling one's potential. c. tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking. d. external motivators such as salary, bonuses, insurance, retirement plans, favorable working conditions, paid vacation and holidays, titles and adequacy of equipment.

40. Detoxification Cell - a. A cell designed for the temporary holding of intoxicated persons. b. A secured space inside or abutting a facility for vehicles to deliver or pick up inmates or goods. c. A single occupancy padded cell for the temporary holding of inmates harmful to themselves and or others. d. An infirmary area holding a number of inmates.

400. Motivator factors - a. intangible rewards that can cause satisfaction. b. employees will choose the level of effort that matches the performance opportunity for reward. c. internal motivators such as goals, achievement recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement or to make a contribution and belief in individual and department goals. d. suggests that positive reinforcement rewards and increases a given behavior; negative reinforcement decreases a given behavior by reinforcing another, desired behavior.

405. Each facility under the Commission's jurisdiction shall be inspected by the Commission's staff at least (Ref 297.2) a) once each fiscal year b) once every other fiscal year c) once every other year d) once each third fiscal year

411. Symptoms of an unmotivated officer - a. include absenteeism, constant complaining, lack of care for equipment, lack of respect for other officers, lack of respect for rules and regulations, low morale, sleeping or loafing on duty, slovenly appearance. b. perks, the compensation package, incentive programs, working conditions, and schedules, security, social, and status are all external motivators for employees. c. goals, achievement, recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement, opportunity to make a contribution and belief in individual and departmental goals. d. what managers and supervisors expect of their officers and how they treat them largely determine their performance and career progress. (encouragement)

414. Self-fulfilling prophecy - a. the theory that people live up to expectations. If people believe they can do a job, they usually can. If people believe they cannot do a job, they usually cannot. b. workers are positively affected by receiving attention. This affects research efforts. c. is a active form of communication. d. acting in an expected way from personal choice. Law enforcement is a self motivating jobs.

417. "Every job is a self-portrait of the person who did it. Autograph your work with excellence." a. True b. False

428. The individual - a. that most likely will be able to raise or lower individual and department morale is the manager/supervisor through leadership and open communication. b. places participants in the position of actually performing tasks related to the anticipated position. Incorporates situational techniques in a simulated environment under standardized conditions. c. must be fair and based on management qualities, not on technical skills or seniority. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

429. When possible, promotions should be from within. a. True b. False

436. Typical rules and Regulations for Law Enforcement Departments - a. General Conduct, Performance of Duty, Restrictions on Behavior. b. is a fundamental management right. c. uses training to foster compliance with rules and regulations and performance at peak performances. d. is the foundation on which most discipline must be based.

442. Difficult people - a. include yes people, passives, avoiders, pessimists, complainers, know-it-alls, exploders, bullies and snipers. b. get their attention, identify the problem behavior, point out the consequences, ask questions listen and explain expectations. Avoid defensiveness. c. employee who has demonstrated ability to perform but who does just enough to get by. d. are abuse of sick leave, substance abuse, corruption, insubordination, sexual harassment and use of excessive force.

449. Abuse of sick leave - a. can costs a department an additional 150 % over the budgeted amount with OT pay. (Orrick) b. failure to obey a lawful and direct order from a supervisor. c. unwelcome, unsolicited and deliberate action of a sexual nature that occurs in the workplace or extension of the workplace. d. involves a supervisor's demand for sexual favors from an employee in return for a job benefit.

452. Quid pro quo third party sexual harassment - a. usually involves a supervisor's demand for sexual favors from an employee in return for a job benefit, such as passing probation, getting a promotion, getting a good performance evaluation, not being written up for doing something wrong and so on. b. (1) The employer knew or should have known about the harassment, and (2) the employer failed to take appropriate corrective action. c. occurs when employees who are not the target of the harassment lose potential job benefits to other less qualified employees who submit to harassment. d. whether by co-employees or by supervisors, consists of unwelcome sexual behavior, such as jokes, cartoons, posters, banter, repeated requests for dates, requests for sexual favors, references to body parts, or physical touching that has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.

453. Force - a. any nonnegotiable use of police authority to influence citizen behavior. (Luna) b. (1) The employer knew or should have known about the harassment, and (2) the employer failed to take appropriate corrective action. c. occurs when employees who are not the target of the harassment lose potential job benefits to other less qualified employees who submit to harassment. d. whether by co-employees or by supervisors, consists of unwelcome sexual behavior, such as jokes, cartoons, posters, banter, repeated requests for dates, requests for sexual favors, references to body parts, or physical touching that has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment

456. Excessive force - a. the illegal or unreasonable use of force, with reasonableness determined by whether a reasonably prudent officer would have used the same amount of force in the same situation, in light of the information available to the officer at the time. b. Force used in accordance with the law; force was reasonable in light of the circumstances faced and known by the officer at the time it was used. c. Force likely to cause serious bodily injury or death. d. when an officer present at the scene where use of force is in question and is obviously excessive and the nonfactor officer did nothing to prevent it, that officer is also held liable by the courts

460. Passive Resistance - a. a form of civil disobedience reflecting a philosophy of nonviolence. Often used by protestors and demonstrators. b. punishment or reprimand in an effort to compel expected behavior. c. (1) a sound policy, (2) effective mechanisms for enforcing the policy and producing accountability and (3) integrated training that teaches officers when and how to use force appropriately. (Fridell) d. is that it should be carried out as close to the time of the violation as possible.

464. The offense and offender - a. how the offense was committed and the offender's attitude and past performance are important considerations in assessing penalties. b. uses disciplinary steps based on severity of the offense and how often it is repeated. Oral and Written reprimands, Suspension/demotion, and Discharge c. should be corrective. Only when corrective discipline, training and counseling have little or no effect should disciplinary action be punitive. d. formal criticism of behavior. May be oral or written.

470. Appeal - a. request for a decision to be reviewed by someone higher in the command structure. b. failing to terminate an employee when justified. c. discretionary authority used when a supervisor feels an officer is not fit for duty or for any reason the supervisor feels a need for immediate action. Also called summary punishment. d. occurs when managers or supervisors accumulate negative behaviors of a subordinate and then dump them all on the employee at the same time rather than correcting them as they occurred.

477. Comprehensive discipline - a. uses both positive and negative discipline to achieve individual and organizational goals. b. a grid used to analyze problem behavior and the consequences that follow the behavior in an attempt to understand how the consequences might be to alter the change in problem behavior. c. consequences are stronger than organizational, delayed or uncertain (ODU). d. so that employees are rewarded for desired behavior and punished for undesired behavior---not vice versa.

478. One-minute managing - a. Both praises and reprimands can be effectively accomplished in one minute. b. usually gives four times more praise than blame. c. using positive strokes rather negative, crooked or plastic strokes. They are positive, negative, absent, crooked, and plastic. d. five step approach to employee performance problems: Pinpoint, Record, Involve, Coach, Evaluate.

485. Complaint - a. a statement of a problem. b. a complaint may be made by the general public, by people arrested or by employees of the law enforcement department, including peers, or managers. The person or group that files a complaint. c. statements of a problem made by a person or group outside the law enforcement organization. d. a formally registered complaint. A claim by an employee that a rule or policy has been misapplied or misinterpreted to the employee's detriment.

491. Pinch Model - a. A pinch, minor problem can turn into a crunch, a major problem. It demonstrates the importance of communication in dealing with complaints and the consequences of not communicating effectively. b. are related to working conditions or management style. c. is directly related to job performance. Those who are dissatisfied on the job and communicate perform better than those who are satisfied and do not communicate. d. never take a complaint lightly.

497. A careful investigation of a complaint - a. instills confidence in management's fairness and protects those accused of wrongdoing. b. a written notification that an officer is making his or her statement or report in an internal affairs investigation involuntarily. c. is charged with a violation of rules and regulations and thinks the charge is unjust, the officer can request a hearing. d. (1) protecting the public, (2) protecting the department, (3) protecting the employee, (4) removing unfit personnel and (5) correcting procedural problems.

498. Grievant - a. the person or group filing a grievance. b. turning a decision over to an individual or panel to make the final recommendation. Unlike the mediator's recommendation, the recommendation of the arbitration is often binding. c. have ordinances, statutes or formal procedures for handling grievances. d. with physical working conditions and equipment causes the majority of grievances. Almost a third of grievances are caused by dissatisfaction with management's action.

504. Sustained - a. complaint or grievance in which the investigative facts support the charge. b. a complaint or grievance in which the investigation determines that the matter did occur, but was proper and legal. c. usually results in one of four findings: sustained, not sustained, exonerated or unfounded. d. complaint or grievance in which the act did not occur or the complaint/grievance was false.

507. How managers approach conflict - a. determines whether it is negative or a positive force within the organization. b. challenges the status quo and offers constructive alternatives. c. disagreements that are destructive. d. a mental or physical fight, a controversy, disagreement or clash.

512. A healthy amount of conflict - a. properly handled, motivates individuals and organizations. It exposes problems, defines causes, obtains input from those involved toward constructive solutions and may develop new outlooks. b. is normal in all organizations and becomes negative only when left unresolved. c. can be extremely beneficial to a law enforcement organization, keeping it innovative and responsive to change. d. is usually to deal directly with those involved, determine the cause of the conflict and seek a solution.

531. Operating budget - a. deals with all expenses needed to run the department: salaries, insurance, electricity and the like. b. funds to be used as the need arises. c. deals with "big ticket" items such as land, buildings and improvements to systems; vehicles; and office equipment. d. serve as a plan for and a means to control resources.

532. A budget can be viewed as a - a. everyone affected by the budget helps prepare it. Managers at all levels should be responsible for the budget they need, based on input from subordinates. b. permits departments to shift funds from one category to another as long as the total budget bottom line is not exceeded. c. 1) planning document, (2) Political document, (3) Living document. It is a tool. d. are developed by revising the previous year's budget based on logical assumptions.

534. All-levels budgeting - a. everyone affected by the budget helps prepare it. Managers at all levels should be responsible for the budget they need, based on input from subordinates. b. permits departments to shift funds from one category to another as long as the total budget bottom line is not exceeded. c. 1) planning document, (2) Political document, (3) Living document. It is a tool. d. are developed by revising the previous year's budget based on logical assumptions.

539. Contingency funds - a. money set aside for unforeseen emergencies. b. requires the department to justify budget request based on the output of the department's services. c. identifies specific categories (line items) and dollars allocated for each. d. includes the reasons the item is needed and the effect it would have on the department's operations if eliminated.

543. Program budgeting - a. identifies programs and allocates funds for each. b. a modern version of the program budgeting system, except rather than breaking cost down by program, the approach breaks down costs by activity. c. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. Also called fixed cost. d. begins with a clean slate, justifying each expenditure anew.

547. Common budgets - a. include salaries, and wages, services and supplies, training and travel, contractual services and other or miscellaneous. b. are caused by one of three things: (1) price change (either higher or lower), (2) volume (using more or less of a line item), or (3) efficiency of operation (equipment is operating more or less efficiently than anticipated). c. comparing actual costs against what was budgeted and examining the differences. d. usually account for at least ¾ of the operating budget.

55. How long does a employee have to appeal in writing to the next level in his or her chain of command? - a. The employee may, within (10) working days. b. The employee may, within (5) working days c. The employee may, within (15) working days d. The employee may, within (30) working days

550. Cutback budgeting - a. means providing the same or more services with less funding. Also called budget reduction or reduced expenditure spending. b. is to identify waste areas. c. allocates dollars based on productivity. d. are major cost problems in most organizations.

553. Quartermaster system - a. where the agency keeps a storehouse of uniforms b. through an employee cost improvement suggestion program. c. using consolidating services, establishing community resource centers, contracting, using quartermaster system, using volunteers. d. to common problems allow multiple jurisdictions to pool their resources to form and share teams not needed full time, for example, SWAT, scuba, accident reconstruction and crime scene units.

558. Privatization - a. Agencies use private correctional facilities to cut cost. b. considers asset forfeiture to be governed by the Eight Amendment, which forbids cruel and unusual punishment. It is up to the states to make this determination. c. awarded to states or localities based on population and crime rates. Also called a block grant d. by fundraising, donations, charging for some services, using asset forfeiture statutes to their advantage and seeking grants.

563. Discretionary grant - a. awarded based on the judgment of the awarding state or federal agency. b. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. c. the 12 month accounting period used by an agency. A calendar year, from January 1 through December 31, may or may not be the same as an agency's fiscal year. d. is the lead federal funding agency for law enforcement.

566. Evaluation - a. can provide an objective assessment of individual officers, managers, innovations, programs and the entire agency. b. to determine the worth of, to find the amount or value of or to appraise. c. are line inspections, spot inspections, and staff inspections. d. formal evaluation of on-the-job functioning; usually conducted annually.

574. Managers... a. who provide the most immediate direction of subordinates should do the evaluation. b. may involve quality of performance, quantity and meeting established goals. Targets to be met, including level of performance. c. is to improve employee performance. d. include promoting common understanding of individual performance levels, needs, work objectives and standards; providing feedback and suggesting specific courses of action to improve, including training.

578. Standards - a. may include areas such as physical energy to perform and emotional stability while performing law enforcement tasks; individual judgment; reliability; loyalty and ability to get along with the public, fellow employees and managers; creativeness and innovation; attitude; knowledge of tasks; competence; and amount of required management. b. that do not have fitness tests, standards or programs may face charges of negligence in hiring, training, supervision or retention. c. make it easier for employees to meet requirements and for managers to determine whether they have been met. d. makes evaluations more objective by using a numerical scale for each characteristic or dimension rated.

58. Classification criteria shall not include race, ethnicity or (Ref 271.1(a)(2) a. religious preference b. prior convictions c. age d. alcohol and/or drug abuse

586. Group or composite rating evaluation - a. A group of supervisors evaluate a individual. b. keeping a critical incident log that records good and bad performances of employees. c. raters use a description of what they observed rather than a rating scale. d. specific characteristics for a position are determined. Employees are then rated against these characteristics by on-the-job behaviors in each area.

59. When under direct, visual and proximate supervision, both male and female inmates may simultaneously participate in work and program activities. (Ref 271.1(a)(6) a. true b. false

590. Self-evaluation - a. allow employees to rate themselves. b. Managers review all their subordinates then rate which one is top and bottom with all others in between. c. private, one-on-one discussions of performance appraisal by manager and subordinate. d. should help employees do their jobs better and therefore improve individual performance and productivity.

594. The Halo effect - a. tendency to rate one who performs above average in one area above average in all areas or vice versa. b. is twice a year and more frequently for employees who perform below expectations. c. allowing one negative trait to influence the rater negatively on other traits as well. d. appraisals that are well grounded and sound in which the factors rated are job related and the raters are trained.

598. Evaluation - a. may also be used to identify department-wide training needs and to assess the effectiveness of training. b. the department should also conduct a self-assessment, perhaps through a committee established for this purpose.. c. suggest that organizations regulate themselves by gathering and reacting to information about their performance. d. the process by which an institution or agency proves that it meets certain standards.

603. Accreditation - a. consists of meeting a set of standards established by professionals in the field authorized to do so. Currently, accreditation may be granted by the Commission on the Accreditation of Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA) or by some state agencies. Established in 1979. b. focus on simplifying, appraising and summarizing data. c. focus on making statistically educated guesses from a sample of data. d. is through focus groups, forums or roundtable discussions.

607. Some problems of performance appraisals - a. are (1) lack of faith in appraisal system, (2) late inning results count most, (3) inaccurate numerical or force-choice methods, (4) unfair percentage ratings, rating personality rather than performance and rating at the extremes. b. some managers have a defeatist attitude about performance rating. c. when ratings are performed annually, the actions and performance in the final months of the rating period are often better remembered and given more weight. d. Numericals ratings do not provide the information needed for improving employee performance because they do not indicate specifics about individuals

611. Rating Personality Rather Than Performance - a. Some raters tend to use their personal prejudices to rate employees. b. Closely related to rating personality is allowing one's personal biases to interfere with evaluation, for example, preferring men over women or non-minorities over minorities. c. When raters must place a percentage of employees in the upper, middle and lower third of ratings scales, they tend to be unfair. d. Some evaluators rate in extremes of too lenient or too strict.

68. Use of Restraints - Supervisory and medical staff will evaluate restrained inmates at least every __________ to determine if continued restraint is required. These evaluations will be documented in a log. a. hour b. thirty minutes c. fifteen minutes d. twenty minutes

81. Non-privileged mail, incoming and outgoing may be opened and read (Ref 291.2(3)(b)(c) a. true b. false

90. Inmate Correspondence - a. All incoming and outgoing inmate mail should not be held for more than 24 hours and packages are held for no more than 48 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, except for holding mail for inmates who are temporarily absent from the facility. b. All incoming and outgoing inmate mail should not be held for more than 36 hours and packages are held for no more than 56 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, except for holding mail for inmates who are temporarily absent from the facility. c. All incoming and outgoing inmate mail should not be held for more than 12 hours and packages are held for no more than 24 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, except for holding mail for inmates who are temporarily absent from the facility. d. All incoming and outgoing inmate mail should be held for more than 24 hours and packages are held for more than 48 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, except for holding mail for inmates who are temporarily absent from the facility.

94. TESTING FOR AIDS AND CERTAIN OTHER DISEASES - a. On request of the victim of the alleged offense, the court shall order the defendant to undergo the test not later than 48 hours after an indictment for the offense is presented against the defendant or the defendant waives indictment. b. On request of the victim of the alleged offense, the court shall order the defendant to undergo the test not later than 36 hours after an indictment for the offense is presented against the defendant or the defendant waives indictment. c. On request of the victim of the alleged offense, the court shall order the defendant to undergo the test not later than 24 hours after an indictment for the offense is presented against the defendant or the defendant waives indictment. d. On request of the victim of the alleged offense, the court shall order the defendant to undergo the test not later than 12 hours after an indictment for the offense is presented against the defendant or the defendant waives indictment.

A Texas Uniform Health Status Update form, shall be completed and forwarded to the receiving criminal justice facility _________. a) At the time of the transfer b) Within one week prior to the scheduled transfer c) Within one calendar week after the completed transfer d) Within 10 days of the completed transfer

A change of clothing shall be furnished at least __ a week. a) once b) twice c) three times d) four times

A copy of the institutional rules and regulations shall be available to (Ref 283.2) a) each inmate b) each housing unit c) all inmates prior to classification d) all the above

A disciplinary hearing may be conducted by a disciplinary officer for what type infractions? a) minor b) moderate c) major d) both "a" and "c"

A facility design shall provide for support functions and equipment to insure safe, secure, and ________ operations. a) efficient b) effective c) effective d) manageable

A facility must issue standard bedding and linens to an inmate held over what period of time? a. Overnight b. upon booking and classification c. upon completion of magistration d. upon posting of bond

A managers' responsibility in a conflict situation is to recognize conflict when it occurs, have system for reporting conflict and_____________________. a. take action as soon as possible b. discipline both parties c. keep it innovative d. maintain healthy conflict

A manual override capability of the smoke removal system shall be provided in the event of detection failure and for testing purposes. a) True b) False

A negative balance may be maintained on the inmate's commissary account for indigent postage and correspondence supplies. a. true b. false

A property inventory of an inmate's property shall be performed in the presence of whom? (Ref 265) a. the inmate b. the inmate and delivering officer c. the inmate and senior booking officer d. the inmate and senior corrections officer

A rule, amendment, or repeal shall be valid when approved by formal action of the Commission and published in accordance with the Administrative Procedure and Texas Register Act. a) True b) False

A smoke management system shall include the consideration of (Ref 263.51(a) a) automatic and manual fire detection b) automatic and manual removal of smoke to another area of the facility c) override capabilities of smoke management system for faulty equipment d) all the above

A telephone shall be available for free local calls for those inmates who otherwise would be unable to complete the two (2) required calls. (Ref291.1(1) a) true b) false

A written acknowledgement by the inmate that the rules have been explained shall be retained. (Ref 283.2) a) true b) false

Access to religious leaders is an addition to normal visitation. a) True b) False

Air conditioning and ventilation duct work, which is not part of the smoke detection or smoke management system, shall close automatically upon the detection of smoke. a) True b) False

All inmates being discharged or released from the facility shall sign a receipt for property returned. a) True b) False

An approved mental disabilities/suicide-screening instrument shall be completed on all inmates admitted. This intake requirement will be accomplished (Ref 273.5(b) a) immediately b) during booking c) after booking d) after classification

An employee has the right to appeal the Sheriff's final decision relating to a disciplinary action or grievance. a. True b. False

An initial custody assessment shall be conducted immediately upon any disciplinary action and/or change in legal status which would affect classification. a) True b) False

An inmate could loose good conduct credit for a major infraction of facility rules and regulations. a. true b. false

An inmate may be a member of a grievance board. a) True b) False

An inmate shall be provided an appeals process for classification assessments. (Ref 271.4) a. true b. false

At the conclusion of a disciplinary hearing, the Disciplinary Board or Disciplinary Officer will prepare a written statement indicating a) the evidence relied upon and the reasons for the disciplinary action taken b) the composition of the Disciplinary Board and all relevant witnesses c) the composition of the Disciplinary Board, and a synopsis of their consensus d) the composition of the Disciplinary Board, a synopsis of their consensus and verification that the appeals process was explained to the inmate

At what times shall toilet paper be available? a. At all times b. Daily c. Upon request d. Upon reasonable request

CONDITIONS REQUIRING AIDS AND HIV INSTRUCTION - A magistrate ______ require as a condition of bond that a defendant charged with an offense under Section 43.02, Penal Code, receive counseling or education, or both, relating to acquired immune deficiency syndrome or human immunodeficiency virus. a. may b. shall c. will d. may not

Communication - may be downward (supervisor to employee), upward (Subordinate to supervisor) (vertical) or lateral (subordinate to subordinate) (horizontal). It may also be internal or external. Most effective communication is two way. a. True b. False

Community policing and problem solving are the two key elements of community policing. a. True b. False

Conflict can result in 3 situations: - a. (1) win-lose - The subordinate must either obey or face disciplinary actions, (2) lose-lose - the conflict is settled through an ineffective compromise, with neither side feeling they have accomplished their purpose, and (3) win-win - the focus is on the basic merits of each side rather than on interpersonal haggling. b. include open, two-way communication, receptivity to new ways of doing things; and encouragement of risk taking. c. is to pursue agreement with understanding. d. uses 3 by 5 inch cards as a means to get people in conflict to share their most important ideas about a problem and to come to a mutual understanding of and respect for each other's viewpoints.

Confrontation technique - a. insisting that two disputing people or groups meet face-to-face to resolve their differences, may effectively resolve conflicts, or it may make them worse. b. that arise during crises must be managed by following established procedures and the chain of command. c. may come from individual (personal issues), interpersonal (i.e. Cultural differences), or job-related sources (i.e. poor equipment, ineffective polices) as well as from sources outside the organization. Change is a major source of conflict. d. exists because officers' perception of their duties may differ from the public's.

Construction of new maximum-security design requires that the total capacity of all dormitory space shall not exceed ______ of the systems capacity (Ref 259.114(d) a. 40 % b. 50 % c. 60 % d. 75 %

Decoupling - a. discrepancies between an agency's formal policies and informal practices; occurs when an organization adopts a splashy new policy but then never really implements it to change or explains how the work gets done. b. divides the work force into three categories: 10 % self-motivated high achievers, 80 % average achievers and 10 % unmotivated troublemakers who cause 90 % of management's problems. c. formalize department policy on a particular issue and are a central mechanism to law enforcement leadership confronting recurring and potentially problematic enforcement issues. d. exhibits abnormal behavior to the extent that the behavior is detrimental to organizational needs and goals as well as the needs and goals of other law enforcement personnel.

Do not count time but make time count! Don't manage time, instead manage ourselves. This requires Discipline! a. True b. False

Each facility shall have a written plan approved by the commission for providing recreational library services to inmates. a) True b) False

Each section that houses female inmates will conduct in-house training for all new hires and newly transferred staff that covers cross gender supervision and sexual misconduct. a. True b. False

Evaluation - a. It can provide information related to the budget. It can also help defend against lawsuits and assess citizen satisfaction with the service provided. b. formal inspections and help uncover potential problems before they reach proportions that negatively affect the department. c. is the day to day review of a subordinate's appearance. d. unannounced and done by someone other than the inspected person's chain of command.

Exclusive of any obstruction, the distance between tents shall be how many feet? a. 16 feet b. 17 feet c. 18 feet d. 19 feet

External communication a. includes all interactions with agencies and people outside the department, including the news media and citizen contacts. b. is within the department c. may be downward ( supervisor to employee), upward (Subordinate to supervisor) (vertical) or lateral(subordinate to subordinate) (horizontal). It may also be internal or external. d. informal channel of communication within the agency or department, also referred to as the rumor mill.

Failure to complete probation may result in termination of employment. a. true b. false

Final and Temporary Releases - It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to release inmates under proper legal conditions using procedures that ensure the security of the Jail and the welfare of the inmate. a. True b. False

Financial budget - a. a plan or schedule adjusting expenses during a certain period to the estimated income for that period. b. measures the flow of expenditures through the organization and assigns them to specific activities. c. are the budget and the cost accounting system. d. a list of possible expenses and income during a given period, most often one year.

Following booking, and_______________, inmates should be showered. a) prior to housing assignment b) prior to magistration c) prior to being placed into a holding cell d) prior to release

Holistic personal goals - a. include all aspects of a person's life: career/job, financial, personal, family/relationships and spiritual/service. b. the goals of an organization. c. targets that are specific, measurable outcomes with a timeline. d. what people say is important to them.

How many members of the commission constitutes a quorum: a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

In a new maximum security design, a public lobby or waiting area shall be provided for the convenience of the public, including seating, drinking fountains, and rest rooms and should include lockers or storage for visitors' articles. (Ref 259.105) a) true b) false

In a new maximum security design, a seating height of 16" to 20" shall be provided and stools shall be not less than ___ in diameter. (Ref 259.143(d) a) 12" b) 14" c) 16" d) 18"

In a new maximum security design, a stationary bench in a detoxification cell shall not be higher than _____ above the finished floor. (Ref 259.139(1) a. 8 inches b. 12 inches c. 18 inches d. 22 centimeters

In a new maximum security design, adequate _____ and ______ water shall be provided for food preparation, cleaning and dish washing. a) hot and cold b) hot and cool c) hot and chlorine treated d) wet and dry

In a new maximum security design, detoxification cells shall be constructed to house ______ inmates. Ref 259.139(3) a) 1 to 8 b) 1 to 12 c) 1 to 16 d) not more than 24

In a new maximum security design, inmate toilet and shower areas in dormitories, multiple occupancy cells, single occupancy cells, holding cells, and day rooms shall be configured or equipped to provide reasonable privacy from exposure to persons outside the cell. a) True b) False

In a new maximum security design, inmates should be capable of controlling some lighting. a) True b) False

In a new maximum security design, minimum space allocations shall provide for inmate processing. This includes a) booking b) visiting c) squad rooms d) both "a" and "b"

In a new maximum security design, mop sinks with hot and cold water shall be provided within the security perimeter and administrative area. (Ref 259.163) a) True b) False

In a new maximum security design, night lights sufficient to permit continuous observation shall be provided. a) True b) False

In a new maximum security design, plate doors shall be constructed of material not less than ____ inches thick. a) 3/16 b) 1/4 c) 5/16 d) 3/8

In a new maximum security design, safety vestibules shall be provided for each inmate living area and day room used for confinement of ____ or more inmates. a) 3 b) 4 c) 8 d) 9

In a new maximum security design, two-way voice communication shall be available___________ between inmates and corrections officers. a) at all times b) during emergencies c) during lights out d) during the intake process

In an existing county correctional center (CCC) design, what are the required temperature levels in all occupied areas? a. 65 - 85 degrees F b. 68 - 88 degrees F c. 72 - 88 degrees F d. reasonable

In an existing lockup design what are the required temperature levels in all occupied areas? a. 65 - 85 degrees' F b. 68 - 85 degrees F c. 72 - 85 degrees F d. reasonable

Indigent inmates shall be furnished paper, pencils, envelopes and stamps to post at least (Ref 291.2(1)(d) a. 3 letters a week b. 10 letters a week c. 1 letter per day d. 5 letters per week

Inmate correspondence may be rejected on a case by case basis, a) provided it is a violation of inmate rules b) determined by the senior supervisor present c) with approval of the Jail Administrator d) None of the above, Correspondence may be delayed, but shall be routed to the inmate/addressee immediately after it is censored and cleared

Inmate religious practices requests, which cannot be accommodated, shall be documented. a) True b) False

Inmates confined longer than 10 days shall be allowed access to sunlight no less than a. 1 hour weekly b. 3 times per week c. every other day d. 1 hour three times per week

Inmates confined longer than 10 days shall be allowed: a. at least 1 hr of sunlight weekly b. should get recreation every day c. must have a window in their unit d. All of the above

Inmates held over 48 hours who are unable to supply themselves with personal care items because of indigence, shall be furnished the following. a. toothbrush, toothpaste or toothpowder, soap, comb and shaving implements b. toothbrush, toothpaste or toothpowder, soap, razor and deodorant c. toothbrush, toothpaste or toothpowder, soap, comb, shampoo and shaving implements d. toothbrush, toothpaste or toothpowder, soap, comb, sanitary pads, shaving implements and shampoo

Inmates may be exempt from the screening test when the test conflicts with the tenets of an organized religion to which the inmate belongs. (Ref 273.7(a) a) True b) False

Inmates may receive correspondence in any quantity, amount and number of pages. (Ref 291.2(B) a) true b) false

Inmates shall be able to appeal their classification. a) True b) False

Inmates shall be classified and housed in the least restrictive housing available without jeopardizing staff, inmates or public. a) true b) false

Inmates suspected of having _____ communicable disease shall be isolated and immediate arrangements made for the inmate's transfer to a facility equipped to handle the suspected disease, unless the admitting facility can safely and effectively segregate and maintain a medically prescribed course of treatment. a) a reportable b) a potentially fatal c) treatable d) none of the above

Internal complaints - a. statements of problems made by officers or employees within a law enforcement agency. b. can be reduced through effective recruitment and selection, training, policy and procedure manuals, effective supervision, community outreach and data collection and analysis. c. often included in external complaints are crime, excessive force, false arrest, improper entry, unlawful search, harassment, offensive demeanor, and rule infractions. d. bringing in a neutral third party to assist in negotiations.

Jail Population Reports shall be delivered to the Commission not later than ______ days after the last day of the reporting period. a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 d) 15

Job rotation - a. changing the job assignment or shift provides training opportunity and variety. b. Job rotation, Job enlargement, and Job enrichment. c. assigning additional responsibilities to an existing job. d. is similar to job enlargement, except that in job enrichment is the quality if the new jobs assigned rather than the quantity.

Juveniles shall be separated by sight and sound from adults in accordance with the Family Code a) True b) False

Leadership Styles include: autocratic, democratic, participative, and laissez-faire. a. True b. False

Learning Curve Principle - states a. that grouping similar tasks together can reduce the amount of time each takes, sometimes by as much as 80%. b. 20 % (vital tasks) of what a person does accounts for 80 % of the results. Also 80% of trivial tasks can hinder results 20%. c. Planning and organizing time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. d. reading information rapidly for the main ideas, usually the first and last paragraph, the first sentence of all other paragraphs and the captions of any charts or figures.

McDonald's Rule of Four - a. says managers have these options to influence people's behavior at work: (1) reward good behavior (positive reinforcement), (2) punish bad behavior (negative reinforcement), (3) threaten people who do bad behavior and (4) ignore the bad behavior. The most effective option is to reward the good behavior. b. suggests fitting tasks, officers and the agency's goals so that officers can feel competent. c. programs designed to motivate d. tangible rewards

Media Access to the Jail - Written correspondence between inmates and media representatives is privileged communication. a. True b. False

Misconduct - a. 70% of officers surveyed someone accepting free coffee or food or speeding unnecessarily. b. are that it (1) is prohibited by law or rule, (2) involves misuse of position and (3) involves a reward or personal gain for the officer. c. a favor or gift, usually in the form of money, given in return for service, for example a tip given to a waiter in a restaurant. d. posits that police corruption begins with a lowering of ethical expectations and values to attain a gratuity of minor value, for example, accepting a cup of coffee.

Morale - a. is a person's or group's state of mind, level of enthusiasm and amount of involvement with work and with life. b. include lack of productivity, enthusiasm and cooperation; absenteeism; tardiness; grievances; complaints; and excessive turnover. c. include poor management, job dissatisfaction and failure to meet important individual needs. d. the angle in which we view things, makes a tremendous difference in what they see

No employee may secretly carry a recording device within the TCSO facility. a. True b. False

Observation shall be performed at least every _____ minutes in areas where inmates are known to be assaultive, potentially suicidal, mentally ill, or who have demonstrated bizarre behavior are confined. a. 30 b. 20 c. 15 d. 60

One of the inmate visitation periods shall be allowed during evenings or on weekends. (Ref 291.4(2) a) True b) False

Only inmates classified as minimum custody should be assigned to work outside the security perimeter and should be supervised by a. corrections officers b. armed deputies c. jail staff with dual certification d. un-armed deputies

Principled negotiation - a. a higher-level approach to effective mediation that focuses on mutually satisfying options. b. a conflict resolution skill; a psycholinguistic technique that shifts a person's perspective to recast conflict as a positive, rather than negative, force. c. is directly related to job performance. Those who are dissatisfied on the job and communicate perform better than those who are satisfied and do not communicate. d. never take a complaint lightly.

Provisions shall be made for inmates to call relevant witnesses on his/her behalf for disciplinary hearings a) when not unduly hazardous to institutional safety and correctional goals b) when the disciplinary officer's investigation indicates the potential of mitigating circumstance's) c) when authorized by the disciplinary officer d) all the above

Right-brain thinking - a. processes images and is primarily emotional. b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

258. Total quality management - a. views employees as committed and motivated by growth and development. (McGregor) b. managers and subordinates work together to accomplish goals. c. (has to do with business like manufactory types) states that managers should create constancy of purpose for improvement of product and service, adopt new philosophy, improve constantly, institute modern methods of training on the job, institute modern methods of supervision, drive fear from the workplace, breakdown barriers between staff areas, eliminate numerical goals for the work force, remove barriers that rob people of pride and workmanship, institute a vigorous program of education and training. d. views employees as lazy and motivated by pay. (McGregor)

Shift Briefing & Remedial Training - a. Shift briefing or roll call training supplements other training programs. The scheduling and conduct of this training is the responsibility of the supervisor. It usually takes no more than 20 minutes and should be scheduled when call and activity load is at a minimum. b. Shift briefing or roll call training supplements other training programs. The scheduling and conduct of this training is the responsibility of the supervisor. It usually takes no more than 25 minutes and should be scheduled when call and activity load is at a minimum. c. Shift briefing or roll call training supplements other training programs. The scheduling and conduct of this training is the responsibility of the supervisor. It usually takes no more than 15 minutes and should be scheduled when call and activity load is at a minimum. d. Shift briefing or roll call training supplements other training programs. The scheduling and conduct of this training is the responsibility of the supervisor. It usually takes no more than 10 minutes and should be scheduled when call and activity load is at a minimum.

Single cells may be utilized for disciplinary or administrative separation provided inmates are allowed access to a shower and dayroom how often? a. at least 1 hour every day b. at least 1 hour every other day c. daily, there is no specified time requirement d. None of the above, single cells can only be used for disciplinary separation not administrative separation.

Smoke management shall be provided throughout all detention and support areas within the security perimeter. a) True b) False

Staff Interaction With Inmates - Post Officers shall conduct a visual, observation of all inmates at least once _____. This shall be accomplished by walk-through inspections (post visuals) of inmate living and work areas, by observing conditions and conversing with inmates. a. hourly b. every 30 minutes c. every 2 hours d. every other hour

Termination - a. being fired from employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline. b. being barred from a position for a period of time. May be with or without pay. Often part of progressive discipline. c. places an employee in a position of lower responsibility and pay. Often a part of progressive discipline. d. termination of employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline.

The Delphi Technique a. a way to have individual input; uses open-ended questionnaires completed by individuals. Answers are shared, and the questionnaires are again completed until consensus is achieved. b. an objective way to achieve consensus on the most effective alternatives by using an objective ranking of alternatives propose by a group of people. c. identifies forces (driving and restraining) that impedes (equilibrium is the problem) and enhance goal attainment. d. uses objective rather than open-ended questions.

The Sheriff/operator shall maintain a ____________ record of the number of inmates in the facility. (Ref 269.1(1) a) daily b) weekly c) monthly d) quarterly

The Travis County Sheriff's Office Values - Service is to a. to prepare, provide and work for and with others in a timely, courteous and professional manner b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed. d. Use our differences to enhance our service to and with the community by respecting each individual e. having the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant

The application process may include; written exams, medical exams, and physical conditioning. a. true b. false

The first phase of post traumatic stress disorder, the initial impact phase, may last for a few minutes or a few days a. True b. False

The following shall be available for purchase by inmates from the inmate commissary a) hygiene items and sundries b) hygiene items and over the counter medicines c) sundries and reading materials d) all the above

The health services plan shall provide procedures for all examinations, treatments and other procedures to be performed in a reasonable and dignified manner and ________. a) place b) time c) by an individual of the same gender d) by their family physician when request by the inmate

The smoke management system shall be deemed to be controlling smoke migration if smoke from the detection test does not migrate from the affected area for a period of ___ minutes from the time of detection and activation of the smoke control system. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

The term of office shall be for two years except for the first commission, which shall select one member by the drawing of lots to serve for one year. a. true b. false

Tickler file system - a. a set of file folders, organized by year, month and day, into which lists of tasks to be accomplished are placed. b. is to ensure that you are accomplishing the tasks that must be done. c. 20 % (vital tasks) of what a person does accounts for 80 % of the results. Also 80% of trivial tasks can hinder results 20%. d. can tell you how you really spend your time, as opposed to how you perceive you spend it.

Time is a. the period between two events or during which something exists, happens or acts; it is thought of in terms of measurable intervals. b. 20 % (vital tasks) of what a person does accounts for 80 % of the results. Also 80% of trivial tasks can hinder results 20%. c. putting things off. d. putting off things that don't really matter.

Training for emergency situations shall include fire, emergency, evacuation and location and use of equipment. a) True b) False

Washable items such, as towels and mattress covers shall be exchanged for clean replacements at least once a week. a. true b. false

What type of audit will be conducted on an annual basis regarding the classification system? a. internal b. external c. point system d. category

When an employee is unavailable to sign his time sheet, the word "unavailable" will be written on the sheet. Upon the employee's return a signature will be obtained and route to payroll. a. true b. false

When under direct, visual supervision inmates of different custody levels may simultaneously participate in work and program activities. a) true b) false

Workplace culture - a. the sum of the beliefs and values held in common by those within the organization that formally and informally communicate what is expected b. must be to defend the constitution and laws of the United States, his or her state constitution and laws and local laws. c. targets that are specific, measurable outcomes with a timeline. d. the attitudes and beliefs held by a group.

Workplace culture - a. the sum of the beliefs and values held in common by those within the organization that formally and informally communicate what is expected. b. the attitudes and beliefs held by a group. c. detailed, formally stated summary of duties and responsibilities for a position. d. overriding expectations of a given group, for example, do not volunteer or do not criticize.

150. The sexual offender registration notice will be forwarded to CID, who will mail it to whom within 3 days a. Tx Dept of Public Safety b. Victim c. Sheriff d. Austin Police Dept

261. Strategic planning - a. Long term planning. It is futuristic planning. b. Short term planning. It includes the current year's plans. c. the negative consequences of fear and failure. d. have clear goals, a commitment to excellence, feedback, and support.

a. Long term planning. It is futuristic planning.

Name a diversionary program for those cases not suitable for prosecution. a. SHORT b. WIP c. SMART d. SAFID

a. SHORT (SHORT -System of healthy options for release and transition)

11. What temperature levels in tents are acceptable by the commission? (Ref 259.517) a. Seasonable b. Reasonable c. 65-85 degrees d. None of the above

112. Holding Cell - a. A secured space inside or abutting a facility for vehicles to deliver or pick up inmates or goods. b. A cell designed for the temporary holding of inmates. c. A cell designed for the temporary holding of intoxicated persons. d. Special housing unit, usually a separation or single cell, when staff determines that such close custody is needed for the safety of inmates or staff, for the security of the facility, or to promote order in the facility.

119. In accordance with TCJS, each inmate shall be allowed a minimum of _____ visitation period(s) per week, of a least ______ minutes duration. a) 1, 20 b) 2, 20 c) 1, 30 d) 2, 30

121. Major Infractions - Which of the following sanctions are allowed? a. deprivation of physical recreation or physical exercise b. Removal from work details or programs c. Privileged correspondence be suspended d. deprivation of correspondence privileges when the offense is unrelated to a violation of the institutional rules and regulations regarding correspondence e. All of the above are Major Infraction sanctions

130. An inmate supervision management style in which corrections officer(s) are stationed inside a housing unit 24 hours per day, is a definition of (Ref 253.1) a) in-direct supervision b) direct supervision c) close observation d) linear-direct

137. The owner shall notify the Executive Director not less than ___ days prior to completion of construction to schedule an occupancy inspection. (Ref 257.7) a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 90 days

139. Any county contemplating construction, renovation of or addition to a facility shall determine the _______ and ______ needs and possible expansion of the existing or proposed facility. a) past and future b) present and future c) county and municipality d) county and state

145. In a new maximum security design, the design and construction shall preclude ______ vision into inmate occupied areas by the public. (Ref 259.106) a) obstructed b) direct c) in-direct d) remote

154. In a new maximum security design, a secure visiting area should be provided for contact visits from law enforcement officers, attorneys, _____ and probation and parole officers. a) bonding officials b) clergy c) family d) all the above

155. A dormitory holds how many inmates: a. 2 to 8 b. 9 to 48 c. 48 to 72 d. 9 to 96

161. An indigent inmate shall be provided with paper, pencil and stamped envelopes to post at least how many non privileged letters per week: a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

162. Privileged mail consists of correspondence to courts, attorneys, jail standards, but not the media: a. True b. False

164. Standard inmate clothing shall be issued to all inmates held over how many hours: a. 24 b. 48 c. 36 d. 72

166. Inmates shall not be held for more than how many hours in a holding cell, utilized for court holding, processing or awaiting transportation: a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

168. There shall be no less than how many exits on each floor of facility: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

183. By-the-numbers evaluation makes evaluation more subjective by using a numerical scale for each dimension a. True b. False

188. In a new maximum security design, a violent cell shall be equipped with a minimum 2'3" wide and 6'3" long bench not more than ___ above the floor (Ref 259.140(1) a) 10 inches b) 8 inches c) 6 inches d) 4 inches

190. In a new maximum security design, all cells and day rooms shall be not less than ____ from finished floor to ceiling and 5'6" from wall to wall. (Ref 259.141) a) 7'6" b) 8'0" c) 8'6" d) 8'9"

193. In a new maximum security design, the mattress surface of the bunk shall measure not less than ________ wide and ________ long. (Ref 259.143(a) a) 2'0", 6'0" b) 2'3", 6'3" c) 2'6", 6'3" d) 2'6", 6"6"

194. In a new maximum security design, each cell shall provide 1 toilet and lavatory capable of providing drinking water for each group or increment of ____ inmates. (Ref 259.143(b) a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

196. In a new maximum security design, a showerhead shall not be less than ___ high. (Ref 259.143(c) a) 6'6" b) 7'0" c) 7'6" d) 8'0"

206. In a new maximum security design, hollow metal doors shall be constructed of ___ to ___ gauge steel inside the security perimeter. (Ref 259.151) a) 10 to 12 b) 12 to 14 c) 14 to 16 d) 16 to 18

209. In a new maximum security design, all cell doors shall be not less than 28" in clear width and not less than ____ high. (Ref 259.151) a) 6'6" b) 6'8" c) 6'10" d) 7'in

21. All swinging doors to cells, dayrooms and inmate activity areas shall be installed to swing in which direction? (Ref 263.18) a. direction entry traffic b. direction of exit traffic c. TCJS does not address this area d. The only specification according to TCJS is that all swinging doors within the facility will open the same direction

213. In a new maximum security design, all doors to cells and day rooms shall be capable of being _____________ by a manual means at the door or a remote location. (Ref 259.158) a) locked b) unlocked c) secured d) all the above

226. In a new maximum security design, closed circuit television monitoring may be provided to supplement control and security functions. This may include the viewing of toilet and shower areas provided a written notice is affixed in the immediate area. This notice will be in English, Spanish or any other understandable language deemed necessary. (Ref 259.168) a) True b) False

226. The legitimate power which is given to the Sheriff to manage the office's personnel and other resources. a. Amendment b. Authority c. Jurisdiction d. Command

23. Inmates shall be classified and assigned a. Recognizing the value of each person and treating them with decency and dignity. b. to the least restrictive housing available without jeopardizing staff, inmates or the public c. for participation in vocational, educational, mental health, substance abuse and other treatment or work programs d. None of the above

231. A minimum of 8 board members is required to convene a board with a max of 10. a. True b. False

232. Minimum security inmate housing not provided with a smoke removal system shall be separated from all other inmate occupancy areas by fire resistive partitions of at least ___ hour rating. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

233. Leave time taken for family of medical leave will be included in the calculation of the probationary period. a. True b. False

239. All corridors and passages to exits, the exits themselves, discharging stairways, and other means of egress shall be continuously illuminated at all points with not less than ____ foot-candle measured at the floor. (Ref 263.15) a) .5 b) 1.0 c) 2.0 d) 10.0

260. Wallenda Effect - a. Long term planning. It is futuristic planning. b. Short term planning. It includes the current year's plans. c. the negative consequences of fear and failure. d. have clear goals, a commitment to excellence, feedback, and support.

261. Smoke control systems shall be designed so that smoke is (Ref 263.51(d)(4) a) controlled when entering the means of egress during the evacuation of inmates b) minimized from entering the means of egress during the evacuation of inmates c) restricted from entering the means of egress during the evacuation of inmates d) diluted sufficiently so as to not cause substantial harm if introduced into the egress route for the evacuation of inmates

267. Managers and supervisors - a. include technical skills, administrative skills, conceptual skills, and people skills. b. The manager that hears something's wrong, flies in, makes a lot of noise, craps on everybody and flies away. c. are also jointly involved in planning, organizing, staffing, and budgeting. d. Managers focus on task, leaders focus on people.

268. Portable fire extinguishers of the __________, __________, and __________ and in appropriate locations or in accordance with NFPA 101 shall be provided. a) color, size and type b) number, color and type c) number, size and type d) number, color and size

274. Decode - a. how messages are conveyed usually follows the chain of command. b. is to place a message into a form to be transmitted. c. is to decipher a message. d. the specialized language of a field.

281. Feedback - a. is the weakest link in the communication process. b. includes concentration, full attention, and thought. c. is the process by which the sender knows whether the receiver has understood the message. d. showed 10 percent of the message delivered is verbal and 90 percent is nonverbal.

240. Transformational Leadership - a. Five management styles: (Lower right corner has high concern for results and low concern for people) Authority-compliance; (Upper left corner has low concern for results and high concern for people) Country club management style; (Lower left corner has low concern for results: low concern for people) Impoverished management; (Center has moderate concern for results and moderate concern for people) middle of the road manager: (Upper right corner has high concern for results and high concern for people) Team manager) Blake/Mouton b. treats employees as the organization's most valuable assets. Is employee centered and focused on empowerment c. specifies that initially workers need support and direction. As they become more task-ready( task behavior), they need less direction and more support, up to the point where even support can be reduced. This leadership theory is made by Henry and Blanchard. d. managers make decision without participant input.. Completely authoritative, showing little or no concern for subordinates.

244. Laissez-faire leadership - a. Common sense always represents the action that gets the best results, with the least cost or side effects. Cottringer b. involves nonintervention; lets everything run itself. There is little or no control. Also relates to free-rein leadership. c. does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. d. employees' ideas and input are welcomed, but the manager makes the final decision. Relates to the mechanistic model.

245. The alarm systems should be tested in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation, but shall be tested at least on calendar ____________ intervals. (Ref 263.32) a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannual d) annual

252. Leadership is a. the administrative ordering of things. b. Influencing, working with and through individuals and groups to accomplish a common goal. c. to ensure what needs to be accomplished during any given shift is accomplished effectively and legally. d. Recognizes that organizations and employees mature/grow to become interdependent. Organizations provide jobs and people perform them. (Argyris)

297. 93% of communication - a. avoiding conflict when working with other agencies during an investigation; deployed with declassified and confidential investigations. b. involves nonintervention; lets everything run itself. There is little or no control. Also relates to free-rein leadership. c. comes from body language and tone of voice between two people. d. lies with the local police and the intelligence they can provide to federal authorities.

259. Management by objectives - a. views employees as committed and motivated by growth and development. (McGregor) b. managers and subordinates work together to accomplish goals. c. (has to do with business like manufactory types) states that managers should create constancy of purpose for improvement of product and service, adopt new philosophy, improve constantly, institute modern methods of training on the job, institute modern methods of supervision, drive fear from the workplace, breakdown barriers between staff areas, eliminate numerical goals for the work force, remove barriers that rob people of pride and workmanship, institute a vigorous program of education and training. d. views employees as lazy and motivated by pay. (McGregor)

262. Tactical planning - a. Long term planning. It is futuristic planning. b. Short term planning. It includes the current year's plans. c. the negative consequences of fear and failure. d. have clear goals, a commitment to excellence, feedback, and support.

441. General orders - a. discrepancies between an agency's formal policies and informal practices; occurs when an organization adopts a splashy new policy but then never really implements it to change or explains how the work gets done. b. divides the work force into three categories: 10 % self-motivated high achievers, 80 % average achievers and 10 % unmotivated troublemakers who cause 90 % of management's problems. c. formalize department policy on a particular issue and are a central mechanism to law enforcement leadership confronting recurring and potentially problematic enforcement issues. d. exhibits abnormal behavior to the extent that the behavior is detrimental to organizational needs and goals as well as the needs and goals of other law enforcement personnel.

445. Marginal performer - a. include yes people, passives, avoiders, pessimists, complainers, know-it-alls, exploders, bullies and snipers. b. get their attention, identify the problem behavior, point out the consequences, ask questions listen and explain expectations. Avoid defensiveness. c. employee who has demonstrated ability to perform but who does just enough to get by. d. are abuse of sick leave, substance abuse, corruption, insubordination, sexual harassment and use of excessive force.

447. Sexual harassment - a. can costs a department an additional 150 % over the budgeted amount with OT pay. (Orrick) b. failure to obey a lawful and direct order from a supervisor. c. unwelcome, unsolicited and deliberate action of a sexual nature that occurs in the workplace or extension of the workplace. d. involves a supervisor's demand for sexual favors from an employee in return for a job benefit.

45. Inmates held over ______ hours, that cannot furnish themselves with personal care items because of indigence, shall be furnished personal hygiene supplies. (Ref 277.4) a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours

465. Any initial disciplinary action - a. how the offense was committed and the offender's attitude and past performance are important considerations in assessing penalties. b. uses disciplinary steps based on severity of the offense and how often it is repeated. Oral and Written reprimands, Suspension/demotion, and Discharge c. should be corrective. Only when corrective discipline, training and counseling have little or no effect should disciplinary action be punitive. d. formal criticism of behavior. May be oral or written.

476. Personal, immediate and certain - a. uses both positive and negative discipline to achieve individual and organizational goals. b. a grid used to analyze problem behavior and the consequences that follow the behavior in an attempt to understand how the consequences might be to alter the change in problem behavior. c. consequences are stronger than organizational, delayed or uncertain (ODU). d. so that employees are rewarded for desired behavior and punished for undesired behavior---not vice versa.

482. External complaints - a. a statement of a problem. b. a complaint may be made by the general public, by people arrested or by employees of the law enforcement department, including peers, or managers. The person or group that files a complaint. c. statements of a problem made by a person or group outside the law enforcement organization. d. a formally registered complaint. A claim by an employee that a rule or policy has been misapplied or misinterpreted to the employee's detriment.

489. Categories of officer misconduct - a. statements of problems made by officers or employees within a law enforcement agency. b. can be reduced through effective recruitment and selection, training, policy and procedure manuals, effective supervision, community outreach and data collection and analysis. c. often included in external complaints are crime, excessive force, false arrest, improper entry, unlawful search, harassment, offensive demeanor, and rule infractions. d. bringing in a neutral third party to assist in negotiations.

492. Communication - a. A pinch, minor problem can turn into a crunch, a major problem. It demonstrates the importance of communication in dealing with complaints and the consequences of not communicating effectively. b. are related to working conditions or management style. c. is directly related to job performance. Those who are dissatisfied on the job and communicate perform better than those who are satisfied and do not communicate. d. never take a complaint lightly.

496. If a police officer - a. instills confidence in management's fairness and protects those accused of wrongdoing. b. a written notification that an officer is making his or her statement or report in an internal affairs investigation involuntarily. c. is charged with a violation of rules and regulations and thinks the charge is unjust, the officer can request a hearing. d. (1) protecting the public, (2) protecting the department, (3) protecting the employee, (4) removing unfit personnel and (5) correcting procedural problems

5. In a new medium security design, multiple occupancy cell, how many square feet of clear floor space is required for the first bunk? (Ref 259.329) a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45

50. Staff Interaction With Inmates - a. Shift Supervisors shall conduct patrols (visuals) of all areas under their authority occupied by inmates, at least once a day, including holidays and weekends, observing and conversing with inmates and staff. b. Shift Supervisors shall conduct patrols (visuals) of all areas under their authority occupied by inmates, at least once every other day, including holidays and weekends, observing and conversing with inmates and staff. c. Shift Supervisors shall conduct patrols (visuals) of all areas under their authority occupied by inmates, at least once each shift, including holidays and weekends, observing and conversing with inmates and staff. d. Shift Supervisors shall conduct patrols (visuals) of all areas under their authority occupied by inmates, at least twice each shift, including holidays and weekends, observing and conversing with inmates and staff.

500. Many law enforcement departments - a. the person or group filing a grievance. b. turning a decision over to an individual or panel to make the final recommendation. Unlike the mediator's recommendation, the recommendation of the arbitration is often binding. c. have ordinances, statutes or formal procedures for handling grievances. d. with physical working conditions and equipment causes the majority of grievances. Almost a third of grievances are caused by dissatisfaction with management's action.

502. A complaint or grievance investigation - a. complaint or grievance in which the investigative facts support the charge. b. a complaint or grievance in which the investigation determines that the matter did occur, but was proper and legal. c. usually results in one of four findings: sustained, not sustained, exonerated or unfounded. d. complaint or grievance in which the act did not occur or the complaint/grievance was false.

509. Negative conflict - a. determines whether it is negative or a positive force within the organization. b. challenges the status quo and offers constructive alternatives. c. disagreements that are destructive. d. a mental or physical fight, a controversy, disagreement or clash.

51. For a minor infraction, what is the maximum time an inmate can be placed in disciplinary separation? ((Ref 283.1(1)(E) a. 7 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. 30 days

511. Conflict that opposes without antagonizing - a. properly handled, motivates individuals and organizations. It exposes problems, defines causes, obtains input from those involved toward constructive solutions and may develop new outlooks. b. is normal in all organizations and becomes negative only when left unresolved. c. can be extremely beneficial to a law enforcement organization, keeping it innovative and responsive to change. d. is usually to deal directly with those involved, determine the cause of the conflict and seek a solution.

517. Conflict - a. insisting that two disputing people or groups meet face-to-face to resolve their differences, may effectively resolve conflicts, or it may make them worse. b. that arise during crises must be managed by following established procedures and the chain of command. c. may come from individual (personal issues), interpersonal (i.e. Cultural differences), or job-related sources (i.e. poor equipment, ineffective polices) as well as from sources outside the organization. Change is a major source of conflict. d. exists because officers' perception of their duties may differ from the public's.

518. A key to positive conflict - a. (1) win-lose - The subordinate must either obey or face disciplinary actions, (2) lose-lose - the conflict is settled through an ineffective compromise, with neither side feeling they have accomplished their purpose, and (3) win-win - the focus is on the basic merits of each side rather than on interpersonal haggling. b. include open, two-way communication, receptivity to new ways of doing things; and encouragement of risk taking. c. is to pursue agreement with understanding. d. uses 3 by 5 inch cards as a means to get people in conflict to share their most important ideas about a problem and to come to a mutual understanding of and respect for each other's viewpoints.

52. For a major infraction, what is the maximum time an inmate may be placed in disciplinary separation? (Ref 283.1(2)(D) a. 15 days b. 20 days c. 30 days d. 45 days

525. The principal mechanisms for controlling an organization's financial resources - a. a plan or schedule adjusting expenses during a certain period to the estimated income for that period. b. measures the flow of expenditures through the organization and assigns them to specific activities. c. are the budget and the cost accounting system. d. a list of possible expenses and income during a given period, most often one year.

529. The Capital budget - a. deals with all expenses needed to run the department: salaries, insurance, electricity and the like. b. funds to be used as the need arises. c. deals with "big ticket" items such as land, buildings and improvements to systems; vehicles; and office equipment. d. serve as a plan for and a means to control resources.

536. Line-item budgeting - a. money set aside for unforeseen emergencies. b. requires the department to justify budget request based on the output of the department's services. c. identifies specific categories (line items) and dollars allocated for each. d. includes the reasons the item is needed and the effect it would have on the department's operations if eliminated.

542. Overhead - a. identifies programs and allocates funds for each. b. a modern version of the program budgeting system, except rather than breaking cost down by program, the approach breaks down costs by activity. c. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. Also called fixed cost. d. begins with a clean slate, justifying each expenditure anew.

545. Variance analysis - a. include salaries, and wages, services and supplies, training and travel, contractual services and other or miscellaneous. b. are caused by one of three things: (1) price change (either higher or lower), (2) volume (using more or less of a line item), or (3) efficiency of operation (equipment is operating more or less efficiently than anticipated). c. comparing actual costs against what was budgeted and examining the differences. d. usually account for at least ¾ of the operating budget.

551. Performance budgeting - a. means providing the same or more services with less funding. Also called budget reduction or reduced expenditure spending. b. is to identify waste areas. c. allocates dollars based on productivity. d. are major cost problems in most organizations

552. Regional approaches - a. where the agency keeps a storehouse of uniforms b. through an employee cost improvement suggestion program. c. using consolidating services, establishing community resource centers, contracting, using quartermaster system, using volunteers. d. to common problems allow multiple jurisdictions to pool their resources to form and share teams not needed full time, for example, SWAT, scuba, accident reconstruction and crime scene units.

556. Formula grant - a. Agencies use private correctional facilities to cut cost. b. considers asset forfeiture to be governed by the Eight Amendment, which forbids cruel and unusual punishment. It is up to the states to make this determination. c. awarded to states or localities based on population and crime rates. Also called a block grant d. by fundraising, donations, charging for some services, using asset forfeiture statutes to their advantage and seeking grants.

56. Employee Development Folders - a. If the document/entry is determined to be false, the officer must request a civil service hearing to have it removed from the EDF and destroyed. b. If the document/entry is determined to be true, the officer will give a written apology submitted to their chain of command. c. If the document/entry is determined to be false, it will be removed from the EDF and destroyed. d. If the document/entry is determined to be true, it will only be removed from the EDF after the officer has completed remedial training.

561. Fiscal year - a. awarded based on the judgment of the awarding state or federal agency. b. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. c. the 12 month accounting period used by an agency. A calendar year, from January 1 through December 31, may or may not be the same as an agency's fiscal year. d. is the lead federal funding agency for law enforcement.

567. The 3 typical forms of inspections - a. can provide an objective assessment of individual officers, managers, innovations, programs and the entire agency. b. to determine the worth of, to find the amount or value of or to appraise. c. are line inspections, spot inspections, and staff inspections. d. formal evaluation of on-the-job functioning; usually conducted annually.

570. Line inspections - a. It can provide information related to the budget. It can also help defend against lawsuits and assess citizen satisfaction with the service provided. b. formal inspections and help uncover potential problems before they reach proportions that negatively affect the department. c. is the day to day review of a subordinate's appearance. d. unannounced and done by someone other than the inspected person's chain of command.

572. The main purpose of performance evaluation - a. who provide the most immediate direction of subordinates should do the evaluation. b. may involve quality of performance, quantity and meeting established goals. Targets to be met, including level of performance. c. is to improve employee performance. d. include promoting common understanding of individual performance levels, needs, work objectives and standards; providing feedback and suggesting specific courses of action to improve, including training.

579. Job standards - a. may include areas such as physical energy to perform and emotional stability while performing law enforcement tasks; individual judgment; reliability; loyalty and ability to get along with the public, fellow employees and managers; creativeness and innovation; attitude; knowledge of tasks; competence; and amount of required management. b. that do not have fitness tests, standards or programs may face charges of negligence in hiring, training, supervision or retention. c. make it easier for employees to meet requirements and for managers to determine whether they have been met. d. makes evaluations more objective by using a numerical scale for each characteristic or dimension rated.

580. Pre-evaluation - a. an attempt to make evaluation "count for something", Redondo Beach police department gave individuals a higher chance for promotion/assignment based on the score of their evaluation. b. Those who rate highly might be considered for promotions, special assignments or pay raises. Those who rate below the acceptable range might be given counseling; training; a demotion; salary reduction; probation; or in extreme cases, termination. c. a procedure to allow those being evaluated to have input by completing a form outlining their accomplishments. d. (1) Ratings by individual traits or behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS), (2) Critical incident ratings, (3) Group or composite ratings, (4) narrative, essay or description, (5) Overall comparison ratings, and (6) Self-Evaluations.

584. Narrative, Essay or Description - a. A group of supervisors evaluate a individual. b. keeping a critical incident log that records good and bad performances of employees. c. raters use a description of what they observed rather than a rating scale. d. specific characteristics for a position are determined. Employees are then rated against these characteristics by on-the-job behaviors in each area.

589. Performance interviews - a. allow employees to rate themselves. b. Managers review all their subordinates then rate which one is top and bottom with all others in between. c. private, one-on-one discussions of performance appraisal by manager and subordinate. d. should help employees do their jobs better and therefore improve individual performance and productivity.

6. After initial approval, how long may a tent be used for temporary housing without review and approval by the commission? (Ref 259.501) a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

602. Inferential statistics - a. consists of meeting a set of standards established by professionals in the field authorized to do so. Currently, accreditation may be granted by the Commission on the Accreditation of Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA) or by some state agencies. Established in 1979. b. focus on simplifying, appraising and summarizing data. c. focus on making statistically educated guesses from a sample of data. d. is through focus groups, forums or roundtable discussions.

605. Late-Inning Results Count Most - a. are (1) lack of faith in appraisal system, (2) late inning results count most, (3) inaccurate numerical or force-choice methods, (4) unfair percentage ratings, rating personality rather than performance and rating at the extremes. b. some managers have a defeatist attitude about performance rating. c. when ratings are performed annually, the actions and performance in the final months of the rating period are often better remembered and given more weight. d. Numericals ratings do not provide the information needed for improving employee performance because they do not indicate specifics about individuals

610. Unfair Percentage Ratings - a. Some raters tend to use their personal prejudices to rate employees. b. Closely related to rating personality is allowing one's personal biases to interfere with evaluation, for example, preferring men over women or non-minorities over minorities. c. When raters must place a percentage of employees in the upper, middle and lower third of ratings scales, they tend to be unfair. d. Some evaluators rate in extremes of too lenient or too strict.

7. Communication process involves: a. an agenda, a sender, information and a receiver. It may include feedback b. a message, a sender, a channel and a receiver. It may include language c. a message, a sender, a channel and a receiver. It may include feedback d. None of the above

77. Special Management Inmates - a. Those inmates who are violent or mentally disordered or who demonstrate unusual or bizarre behavior will receive more frequent observation, generally every 35 minutes. b. Those inmates who are violent or mentally disordered or who demonstrate unusual or bizarre behavior will receive more frequent observation, generally every 25 minutes. c. Those inmates who are violent or mentally disordered or who demonstrate unusual or bizarre behavior will receive more frequent observation, generally every 15 minutes. d. Those inmates who are violent or mentally disordered or who demonstrate unusual or bizarre behavior will receive more frequent observation, generally every 10 minutes.

78. Inmates With Serious & Infectious Diseases - a. Inmates confined in jail longer than (21) days will be tested for Tuberculosis on or before the seventh day of confinement. b. Inmates confined in jail longer than (14) days will be tested for Tuberculosis on or before the seventh day of confinement. c. Inmates confined in jail longer than (7) days will be tested for Tuberculosis on or before the seventh day of confinement. d. Inmates confined in jail longer than seven (3) days will be tested for Tuberculosis on or before the seventh day of confinement.

99. GRIEVANCES - Which of the following does not apply? a. It is the policy of the Office that grievances are dealt with directly, quickly and fairly. b. It is recognized that occasions or events may occur when an employee believes, rightly or wrongly, that a condition of employment or decision affecting him/her is unjust or inequitable. c. A related document in a criminal case that may be filed in electronic form with a judge or clerk of the court authorized to receive the document. d. It is important to employee morale and the maintenance of Office teamwork that these complaints be resolved.

A disciplinary board shall be _______________ and shall not include anyone involved in the claimed violation or charges. a) composed of both commissioned peace officers and noncommissioned officers b) composed of both civilian and commissioned peace officers c) neutral, impartial d) appointed by the Sheriff, neutral

A mental disabilities/suicide prevention plan shall provide procedures for intake screening to identify inmates who are mentally disabled and/or ______. a) displaying suicidal actions b) making suicidal comments c) potentially suicidal d) are suicidal

A record shall be kept of the ____ and ___ of release. a) location and time b) release order and location c) release order and time d) release order and location

A separation cell is designed to accommodate 1 inmate. The cell minimally contains a) 1 bunk, toilet, lavatory, shower, table and seat b) 1 bunk, toilet, lavatory, shower c) 1 bunk, mirror, toilet, lavatory, shower, table and seat d) 1 bunk, mirror, toilet, lavatory, shower, table with seat and provide a capability for inmate drinking water

A strip search shall be conducted by______ officer(s) of the same gender in a reasonable and dignified manner and place. a) medical b) supervising c) corrections d) peace

A subpoena for documents goes to who? a. Detective b. Sheriff c. Internal Affairs d. Chief deputy

A thorough pat or __________ search shall be conducted on each inmate upon entry into the facility and prior to booking. a) gender b) strip c) frisk d) cavity

All inmates being released to other custody shall be searched by the a) transporting agency b) receiving agency c) releasing agency d) all the above

An employee the Sheriff has designated as exempt as outlined in the local Government code. a. Civil Service Staff b. Designee c. Exempt Employee

An inmate shall be allowed a minimum of ____ telephone call(s) within ____ hour(s) of arrival to the jail. a. 1,1 b. 1,4 c. 2, 4 d. 2, 6

An inmate shall be provided ______ attorney/client visitation. a) unlimited b) contact c) reasonable d) unrestricted

Because doors are locked and windows are secured in jails, provisions shall be made for the rapid removal of occupants by such reliable means as the remote control of doors, or by keying all locks to keys readily available to staff who are continually on duty, and have a) been duly certified, by the state as corrections officers b) been issued a temporary jail license, minimum c) undergone emergency drills d) a working knowledge of the physical layout of the facility

Blanchard suggests that managers can use ________to get subordinates to perform at peak efficiency with high morale. a. Coaching b. praise c. one minute managing d. stroke approach

Communication - a. includes all interactions with agencies and people outside the department, including the news media and citizen contacts. b. is within the department c. may be downward ( supervisor to employee), upward (Subordinate to supervisor) (vertical) or lateral(subordinate to subordinate) (horizontal). It may also be internal or external. d. informal channel of communication within the agency or department, also referred to as the rumor mill.

Custody level assignments shall not exceed the construction ______________ level. (Ref 271.2) a) custody b) classification c) security d) certification

Cybernetics - a. may also be used to identify department-wide training needs and to assess the effectiveness of training. b. the department should also conduct a self-assessment, perhaps through a committee established for this purpose.. c. suggest that organizations regulate themselves by gathering and reacting to information about their performance. d. the process by which an institution or agency proves that it meets certain standards.

Demotion - a. being fired from employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline. b. being barred from a position for a period of time. May be with or without pay. Often part of progressive discipline. c. places an employee in a position of lower responsibility and pay. Often a part of progressive discipline. d. termination of employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline.

Designs for smoke removal systems which provide air change rates of less than ____ air changes per hour shall not be utilized. a) 7 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

During a disciplinary hearing, a confidential informant a) is guaranteed protection from disclosure b) should not be utilized c) may be protected from disclosure d) shall not be utilized

Each Sheriff shall submit to the Commission Jail Population Reports for each month indicating the ____ and ____ of inmates confined in the jail. a) age and sex b) number and sex c) number and type d) age and number

Gender barrier - a. is to listen. b. Time, volume of information, Tendency to say what we think others want to hear, certainty, failure to select the best word, prejudices (both sender and receiver), and strained relationship between sender and receiver. c. differences between men and women that can result in miscommunication. (Zielinski) d. techniques for reducing or eliminating barriers to communication, including properly encoding messages, selecting the best channel, describing, Equality, openness, problem orientation, positive intent and empathy.

Goals - a. include all aspects of a person's life: career/job, financial, personal, family/relationships and spiritual/service. b. the goals of an organization. c. targets that are specific, measurable outcomes with a timeline. d. what people say is important to them

Groupthink is to: a. Usually consist of people from the educational community, the religious community, Neighborhood watch groups and the like. b. an objective way to achieve consensus on the most effective alternatives by using an objective ranking of alternatives propose by a group of people. c. the negative tendency for members of a group to submit to peer pressure and endorse the majority opinion even if it individually is unacceptable. d. a way to have individual input; uses open-minded questionnaires completed by individuals. Answers are shared, and the questionnaires are again completed until consensus is achieved.

How many times shall food be served in any 24-hour period? a. one time during the initial 24 hour period b. twice c. three times d. four times, if more than 15 hours passes between any meal

In _____, the Texas Legislature affirmed that counties, municipalities and private vendors housing out-of-state inmates are within the Commission's jurisdiction. a) 1995 b) 1996 c) 1997 d) 1998

In a new maximum security design, ____ and _____ water shall be provided at all lavatories. a) hot and cold b) warm and cool c) warm and cold d) hot and cool

In a new maximum security design, a facility shall provide separate cells and day rooms of varying capacities for inmates to provide adequate segregation of different ____________ of male and female inmates. (Ref 259.114 (a) a) isolation b) criminal sophistication c) classification d) degree of charges

In a new maximum security design, an illumination level of ____ foot candles shall be provided at mirrors and tables. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

In a new maximum security design, at what capacity should an infirmary be provided? a. 100 b. 150 c. 200 d. 250

In a new maximum security design, audible communications ___________ be provided between the inmate and visitor. a) may b) should c) shall d) will

In a new maximum security design, based on design capacity, each day room, unless otherwise approved by the commission, shall provide 1 shower for each group or increment of ____ inmates. a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

In a new maximum security design, day rooms shall contain, not less than ____ square feet of clear floor space for the first inmate plus ____ square feet of clear floor space for each additional inmate. a) 40, 15 b) 40, 16 c) 40, 18 d) 40, 20

In a new maximum security design, floor drains shall be provided in every area where ______, ________ or ____ are located. a) toilets, lavatories or inmate bunks b) toilets, showers or inmate bunks c) toilets, lavatories or showers d) toilets, lavatories or dayrooms

In a new maximum security design, public areas shall be located outside the security perimeter. Public access to the security perimeter shall be ____________. a) patrolled b) denied c) controlled d) scrutinized

In a new maximum security design, remote holding cells seating shall be sufficient to provide not less than ___ linear inches per inmate at cell capacity. a) 18 b) 20 c) 24 d) 30

In a new maximum security design, shower areas shall be not less than _____ square per showerhead. a) 2'0" b) 2'3" c) 2'6" d) 2'8"

In a new maximum security design, storage area for inmate property shall be a) 1 cubic foot per inmate b) 2 cubic feet per inmate c) 3 cubic feet per inmate d) 1 cubic yard per inmate

In a new maximum security design, storage areas based upon facility capacity shall provide a) 1 cubic foot per inmate for storage of inmate uniforms and linens b) 2 cubic feet per inmate for storage of inmate uniforms and linens c) 3 cubic feet per inmate for storage of inmate uniforms and linens d) 4 cubic feet per inmate for storage of inmate uniforms and linens

In a new maximum security design, violent cells shall not contain less than ____ square feet of clear floor space. a) 35 b) 37 ½ c) 40 d) 45

In new facilities, new additions, and major renovations to existing facilities shall be equipped with an emergency back-up electrical generator designed to operate both ________________ and ______________ upon interruption of the primary electrical power source. (Ref 263.50(a) a) remotely and automatically b) quickly and effectively c) manually and automatically d) timely and effectively

In new jail maximum security design, the facility shall be planned to protect inmates from one another, protect staff and visitors from inmates, and a) protect inmates from visitors b) protect surrounding populace from inmates c) deter or prevent escapes d) deter or prevent riots

Incentive programs - a. says managers have these options to influence people's behavior at work: (1) reward good behavior (positive reinforcement), (2) punish bad behavior (negative reinforcement), (3) threaten people who do bad behavior and (4) ignore the bad behavior. The most effective option is to reward the good behavior. b. suggests fitting tasks, officers and the agency's goals so that officers can feel competent. c. programs designed to motivate d. tangible rewards

Incoming and outgoing nonprivileged mail may be censored provided a ______ penological interest exists. a) verified b) confirmed c) legitimate d) logical

Inmate to inmate correspondence may be prohibited where______ penological interest exists. a) logical b) a severe c) legitimate d) none of the above, inmate to inmate correspondence shall not be permitted

Inmates can work a maximum of how many hours a week: a. 24 b. 36 c. 48 d. 40

Inmates confined in the jail for more than 7 days shall be tested for TB on or before the ____ day of confinement. (Ref 273.7(a) a) 3rd b) 5th c) 7th d) 10th

Inmates confined longer than _ days shall be allowed access to sunlight no less than 1 one hour weekly. a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 d) 14

Inmates not wishing to participate where group religious services are held shall a) be isolated b) be segregated c) be removed d) not be restricted in any manner

Inmates shall be allowed a minimum of ___ visitation period(s) per week of at least _ minutes duration each. a) 1, 20 b) 1, 30 c) 2, 20 d) 2, 30

Inmates should not be required to work more than a. 40 hours per week, except in an emergency b. 44 hours per week on the same task c. 48 hours per week, except in an emergency d. 56 hours per week, without being given two days off duty

Job Description - a. the sum of the beliefs and values held in common by those within the organization that formally and informally communicate what is expected. b. the attitudes and beliefs held by a group. c. detailed, formally stated summary of duties and responsibilities for a position. d. overriding expectations of a given group, for example, do not volunteer or do not criticize.

Juvenile Jail Logs shall be submitted to the Commission each year indicating all information necessary to determine compliance with the law concerning secure confinement of persons __________ of age in county jails and lockups. a) 17 and under years b) 14 and under years c) under 17 years d) under 18 years

Major Infractions - Which of the following sanctions are not prohibited? a. Deprivation of clothing or bedding; inmates who destroy bedding or clothing may be deprived of such items. This shall be reviewed and documented every twenty-four hours b. use of a violent cell c. loss of good conduct credit d. Deprivation of items necessary to maintain an acceptable level of personal hygiene. e. All of the above are Major Infractions

Minimum and maximum custody level inmates ________ be housed separately. a) may b) should c) shall d) all the above

One corrections officer shall be provided on each floor of the facility where ____ inmates are housed. a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

People listen and think ______ times faster than they talk. a. two b. three c. four d. five

Post Orders - A review of the post orders by the appropriate supervisory staff shall be documented at least __________________. Supervisors should note any changes in job duties or responsibilities. Any revisions or suggestions for changes shall be sent to the Accreditation Office. a. SEMI-ANNUALLY b. BI-ANNUALLY c. ANNUALLY d. QUARTERLY

Prior to a disciplinary hearing, an inmate must be given a written notification, how much time must elapse from notification until the hearing? a. 8 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours

Searches for contraband should be timed __________________. a) so not to interfere with the normal operations of the facility b) during a time in which the majority of corrections personnel are available c) so that they cannot be anticipated by the inmates d) both "a" and "c"

Self-discipline - a. training expected to produce a desired behavior - controlled behavior or administering punishment. Also a state of affairs or how employees act, in contrast to morale, which is how employees feel. b. is how a person feels; discipline is how a person acts. c. self imposed rules for self-control. d. is to promote desired behavior, which may be done by encouraging acceptable behavior or punishing unacceptable behavior.

Sight and sound shall separate juveniles from adults in accordance with ___. a. U.S. constitution b. Section 39.03, Texas Penal Code c. The Family Code 51.12 d. Article 118., UCMJ

Sound bite - a. a plan, usually referring to a meeting outline or program: a list of things to be accomplished. b. the ability of public safety emergency to work seamlessly with other systems or products without special efforts. c. good information that is stated briefly. d. occurs when highly publicized criminal cases result in a shift in processing for similarly charged but non-publicized cases.

Staff Interaction With Inmates - Post Officers shall conduct a visual, observation of all inmates at least once a. every 30 minutes. b. every 15 minutes. c. hourly. d. every other hour.

Stroke approach - a. Both praises and reprimands can be effectively accomplished in one minute. b. usually gives four times more praise than blame. c. using positive strokes rather negative, crooked or plastic strokes. They are positive, negative, absent, crooked, and plastic. d. five step approach to employee performance problems: Pinpoint, Record, Involve, Coach, Evaluate.

Summary discipline - a. request for a decision to be reviewed by someone higher in the command structure. b. failing to terminate an employee when justified. c. discretionary authority used when a supervisor feels an officer is not fit for duty or for any reason the supervisor feels a need for immediate action. Also called summary punishment. d. occurs when managers or supervisors accumulate negative behaviors of a subordinate and then dump them all on the employee at the same time rather than correcting them as they occurred.

Supervision - a. the administrative ordering of things. b. Influencing, working with and through individuals and groups to accomplish a common goal. c. to ensure what needs to be accomplished during any given shift is accomplished effectively and legally. d. Recognizes that organizations and employees mature/grow to become interdependent. Organizations provide jobs and people perform them. (Argyris)

The Horn effect - a. tendency to rate one who performs above average in one area above average in all areas or vice versa. b. is twice a year and more frequently for employees who perform below expectations. c. allowing one negative trait to influence the rater negatively on other traits as well. d. appraisals that are well grounded and sound in which the factors rated are job related and the raters are trained.

The grievance plan shall provide (Ref 283.3(1-8) a) for the expeditious handling a grievance on inmates having an impending release date b) an inmate the ability to restrict the release of information in regards to a grievance c) safeguards to prevent reprisals against the inmate in the resolution of a grievance d) all the above

The inmate commissary shall indicate a) the items available for purchase b) the amount of items for purchase c) the frequency of services d) all the above

The means of smoke management shall be a combination of a) identification, containment and smoke removal b) identification, containment and egress c) compartmentation, control of smoke migration from the affected area and means of removing smoke to the exterior of the building d) identification, localization, egress and staff training

The name of any institution to which the inmate's health record has been released shall be reflected in the inmate's _________________. (Ref 273.4(b) a) jail folder b) jail file c) health record d) both "b" and "c"

The officer to inmate ratio shall be a. 1:24 b. 1:36 c. 1:48 d. 1:54

Time management - is a. Researching and creating time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. b. Researching and organizing time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. c. Planning and organizing time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. d. Planning and researching time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible.

Upon determination that the completed facility meets the requirements of minimum jail standards, the Executive Director shall issue a letter of occupancy to the owner and Sheriff/Operator. The facility ________ not be occupied before approval by the Executive Director or designee. a) may b) should c) shall d) will

What are the criteria that would require a supplemental meal to be served? a. more than 13 hours pass between meal b. more than 13 ½ hours pass between meals c. more than 14 hours pass between meals d. more than 14 ½ hours pass between meals

What is the maximum time an inmate may be confined in a lockup? a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 96 hours

What is the policy of the Sheriff's Office? a. to have an office committed to professionalism, partnership and community b. to meet the needs of the community with exemplary service c. to have a unified commitment to protect and serve our community with integrity, pride and professionalism d. All of the Above

When are arrestees offered to complete telephone calls? a. No later than 6 hours after arrival into Booking Facility. b. No later than 8 hours after arrival into Booking Facility. c. No later than 4 hours after arrival into Booking Facility. d. No later than 2 hours after arrival into Booking Facility

When shall a file be established on an inmate? a. upon arrest b. upon booking c. upon intake d. upon classification

When smoke testing, the smoke detection system shall alarm and initiate the smoke control and removal system(s) within _____ seconds of the beginning of smoke introduction. a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 90

Whenever clearly justified for health or sanitary reasons who may require an inmate to receive a haircut? a. Supervisory personnel b. Corrections Officers c. Captain or Director d. Major

Which of the following would not qualify as privileged mail (Ref 291.2(2)(a) a. mail addressed to the inmates attorney b. mail addressed to TCJS c. Mail addressed to the N.R.A. d. mail addressed to the Governor of Texas

______ members of the commission constitute a quorum. a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 8

_______ and ________ cleaning equipment shall be provided. (Ref 279.3) a) up to date and safe b) safe and secure c) adequate and safe d) vandalism proof and adequate

_____________ criteria for eligibility shall be established for inmates wanting to participate in educational and rehabilitation programs. (Ref 287.2) a) strict b) justifiable c) reasonable d) non restricting

_________and _________mattresses only, to include the core and ticking shall be used. a) fire resistant and waterproof b) fire resistant and vandal resistive. c) fire resistant and nontoxic d) fire resistant and properly sterilized

ethical behavior - a. falsifying patrol logs to make the numbers come out right to avoid charges of racial profiling. b. standards of fair and honest conduct. c. that which is moral and right. d. steadfast adherence to an ethical code.

311. Force Field Analysis - a. a way to have individual input; uses open-minded questionnaires completed by individuals. Answers are shared, and the questionnaires are again completed until consensus is achieved. b. an objective way to achieve consensus on the most effective alternatives by using an objective ranking of alternatives propose by a group of people. c. identifies forces (driving and restraining) that impedes (equilibrium is the problem) and enhance goal attainment. d. uses objective rather than open-ended questions.

340. 5P principle - a. tasks that do not have to be done, have a minimal payoff and have very limited negative consequences. b. tasks that must be done, have big payoff and prevent negative consequences. c. Proper planning prevents poor performance! d. not picking up a piece of paper until you are ready to do something with it.

Law Enforcement managers need (3) essential elements in dealing with use of force in their agencies: - a. a form of civil disobedience reflecting a philosophy of nonviolence. Often used by protestors and demonstrators. b. punishment or reprimand in an effort to compel expected behavior. c. (1) a sound policy, (2) effective mechanisms for enforcing the policy and producing accountability and (3) integrated training that teaches officers when and how to use force appropriately. (Fridell) d. is that it should be carried out as close to the time of the violation as possible.

100. A strip search shall be conducted in a reasonable and dignified manner and place. This type of search shall be conducted by a) medical personnel only b) by a corrections officer with medical personnel present c) two or more staff members regardless of designation d) corrections officers of the same gender

100. Restricted keys - Which of the following does not apply? a. Some keys stored on the control room key box will be classified as restricted keys to be issued only to certain designated employees. b. Restricted keys will only be issued to the person authorized for their use, or as designated by the Captain/Director. c. Restricted keys will be those providing access to the food service storeroom, pharmacy, inmate records office, commissary, business office, Jail Administrator's office, and warehouse, etc. d. Restricted keys will only be issued to the person authorized for their use, or as designated by the Building Lt or Shift supervisor.

101. Any inmate who leaves the security perimeter of the facility shall be thoroughly searched for contraband (Ref 275.6(b) a) in a secure remote area of the facility b) immediately upon entry into the secure perimeter of the facility c) out of sight and hearing of the general population d) before reentering the security perimeter

111. Each facility shall have and implement a written health services plan. The plan shall provide (Ref 273.2) a) procedures for regularly scheduled sick calls b) procedures for pre-employment screening of medical personnel c) procedures for long term, convalescent and necessary care for disabled inmates d) both "a" and "c"

112. Separate health records shall reflect (Ref 273.4(b) a) all subsequent findings, diagnoses, treatment b) disposition, special housing assignments, medical isolation c) distribution of medications, name of institution to which the inmate's health record has been released d) all the above

12. In buildings utilized as temporary housing, the distance from finished floor to ceiling in all cells and dayrooms shall be no less than how many feet? (Ref 259.609) a. 6 1/2 feet b. 7 feet c. 7 1/2 feet d. 8 feet

127. In _____, the legislative function expanded the role of the Commission again by requiring that it provide consultation and technical assistance for the State Jail program. (Ref 251.1) a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993

127. The Travis County Sheriff's Office Values - To Embrace Diversity is to a. committed to professionalism, partnership and community b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service. c. Recognizing the value of each person and treating them with decency and dignity. d. Use our differences to enhance our service to and with the community by respecting each individual. e. having the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant

129. The capacity of a facility, is the number of inmates a facility is authorized by the commission to house, excluding (Ref 253.1) a) holding cells b) infirmary cells c) violent cells d) both "a" and "c"

132. The Travis County Sheriff's Office Values - Respect is to a. to prepare, provide and work for and with others in a timely, courteous and professional manner b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed. d. Recognizing the value of each person and treating them with decency and dignity. e. having the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant

136. Unauthorized jewelry includes all but: a. oversized belt buckles b. necklace displayed outside uniform c. nose ring d. small hoop earrings

14. Killer phrases are a. Phrases that provide feedback b. Phrases that do not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. c. the negative tendency for members of a group to submit to peer pressure and endorse the majority opinion even if it individually is unacceptable d. Judgmental, critical statements that serve as put-downs and stifle other's creativity.

148. All sheriffs' vehicles must be legally parked unless: a. Emergency aid b. unloading evidence or bulky property c. unloading a prisoner d. all of the above

157. In a new maximum security design, food service areas shall be adequately ventilated to control disagreeable odors and moisture. All openings to the outside shall be secured and _ a) prevent reverse air flow b) have the ability to be c) closed d) provided with insect screens e) both "a" and "b"

171. In a new maximum security design, dormitories shall contain not less than 40 square feet of clear floor space for the first bunk and ___ square feet of clear floor space for each additional bunk. (Ref 259.135) a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18

176. In a new maximum security design, power to electrical receptacles should be_____________ controlled outside of the cell. a) remotely b) easily c) manually d) individually

180. In a new maximum security design, holding cells shall contain not less than ____ square feet of floor space for the first inmate. (Ref 259.138(a)(3) a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40

184. Stress is related to: a. heart problems, hypertension, cancer, ulcers, chronic headaches b. excessive eating, greasy foods, dizziness, muscle tics c. decreased sex drives, fatigue, asthma, backaches, frequent urination. d. a & c e. a & b

196. What are included in corrective/developmental measures for disciplinary actions? a. written reprimand; suspension without pay b. counseling or training; oral reprimand; coaching report c. demotion or dismissal d. All of the above

198. In a new maximum security design, tables and seating shall be (Ref 259.143(d) a) fire resistive b) reasonably remote from toilet areas c) securely anchored d) all the above

227. In a new maximum security design, the closed circuit television viewing of toilet and shower areas shall not be allowed except in medical and ______________ areas. (Ref 259.168) a) visitation b) restricted c) inmate holding d) special observation

231. In a new maximum security design, a negative pressure shall not contain less than ____ gross square feet of floor space. (Ref 259.170(3) a) 40 b) 58 c) 60 d) 80

234. An employee who is arrested or involved in a situation requiring inquiry from law enforcement authorities for alleged criminal activities shall notify immediate supervisor a. Immediately b. Within 72 hrs c. Within 7 days d. Within 24 hrs

24. Upon an inmate's refusal to sign a property receipt, what shall the receiving officer do in the presence of a witness? (Ref 265.10) a. confirm the inmate's refusal b. notify a supervisor c. inform the inmate that refusal to sign a property receipt is a rule violation d. note the refusal and sign the receipt

24. When under direct, visual supervision - a. Inmates should be answerable and responsible for their actions b. Inmates should have the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant. c. Shall be truthful and forthright in their thoughts, words and deeds. d. inmates of different custody levels may simultaneously participate in work and program activities e. None of the above

241. autocratic leadership - a. Five management styles: (Lower right corner has high concern for results and low concern for people) Authority-compliance; (Upper left corner has low concern for results and high concern for people) Country club management style; (Lower left corner has low concern for results: low concern for people) Impoverished management; (Center has moderate concern for results and moderate concern for people) middle of the road manager: (Upper right corner has high concern for results and high concern for people) Team manager) Blake/Mouton b. treats employees as the organization's most valuable assets. Is employee centered and focused on empowerment c. specifies that initially workers need support and direction. As they become more task-ready( task behavior), they need less direction and more support, up to the point where even support can be reduced. This leadership theory is made by Henry and Blanchard. d. managers make decision without participant input.. Completely authoritative, showing little or no concern for subordinates.

242. Consultative leadership - a. Common sense always represents the action that gets the best results, with the least cost or side effects. Cottringer b. involves nonintervention; lets everything run itself. There is little or no control. Also relates to free-rein leadership. c. does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. d. employees' ideas and input are welcomed, but the manager makes the final decision. Relates to the mechanistic model

247. Each facility shall have and implement a written plan, approved by the Commission, for (Ref 263.40) a) Escapes, fire and evacuation b) Escapes, fire and rebellions c) Escapes, fire and civil disasters d) all the above

249. Synergism - a. the 21st trend to not tie the leadership to rank, but rather to instill leadership qualities throughout the department. b. managers build a team and view themselves as part of this team. Relates to the organic model c. views personnel as total individuals who make up their team. d. occurs when the whole is greater than the sum of its parts; the team accomplishes more than each could accomplish as individuals.

254. Mature Employee Theory - a. the administrative ordering of things. b. Influencing, working with and through individuals and groups to accomplish a common goal. c. to ensure what needs to be accomplished during any given shift is accomplished effectively and legally. d. Recognizes that organizations and employees mature/grow to become interdependent. Organizations provide jobs and people perform them. (Argyris)

255. Back-up electrical power shall be provided for necessary equipment and life safety systems to include (Ref 263.50(a) a) emergency illumination systems b) audible communication systems c) smoke management systems d) all he above

256. Theory X - a. views employees as committed and motivated by growth and development. (McGregor) b. managers and subordinates work together to accomplish goals. c. (has to do with business like manufactory types) states that managers should create constancy of purpose for improvement of product and service, adopt new philosophy, improve constantly, institute modern methods of training on the job, institute modern methods of supervision, drive fear from the workplace, breakdown barriers between staff areas, eliminate numerical goals for the work force, remove barriers that rob people of pride and workmanship, institute a vigorous program of education and training. d. views employees as lazy and motivated by pay. (McGregor)

263. Successful managers - a. Long term planning. It is futuristic planning. b. Short term planning. It includes the current year's plans. c. the negative consequences of fear and failure. d. have clear goals, a commitment to excellence, feedback, and support.

264. The smoke management system shall be tested in both ________ and _________ power modes. a) automatic and manual b) full and half c) maximum and minimum d) normal and emergency

268. Manage things! Lead People! - a. include technical skills, administrative skills, conceptual skills, and people skills. b. The manager that hears something's wrong, flies in, makes a lot of noise, craps on everybody and flies away. c. are also jointly involved in planning, organizing, staffing, and budgeting. d. Managers focus on task, leaders focus on people.

270. Nonverbal communication - a. complex process through which information is transferred from one person to another through common symbols. b. involves a message, a sender, a channel and a receiver. It may include feedback c. messages conveyed by body language as well as tone of voice. d. messages conveyed by gestures, facial expressions, stance and physical appearance.

272. Body language - a. complex process through which information is transferred from one person to another through common symbols. b. involves a message, a sender, a channel and a receiver. It may include feedback c. messages conveyed by body language as well as tone of voice. d. messages conveyed by gestures, facial expressions, stance and physical appearance.

276. When facility personnel____, inmates should undergo a thorough strip search for weapons and contraband which may pose a threat to the security or safety of the facility. (Ref 265.2(b) a) have a signed search warrant b) want to establish control c) have justifiable probable cause d) reasonably believe it to be necessary

279. Ray Birdwhistell - a. is the weakest link in the communication process. b. includes concentration, full attention, and thought. c. is the process by which the sender knows whether the receiver has understood the message. d. showed 10 percent of the message delivered is verbal and 90 percent is nonverbal.

281. Upon intake, a medical record shall be established and _________ be kept separate. (Ref 265.4(b) a) may b) should c) could d) shall

283. Communication enhancers - a. is to listen. b. Time, volume of information, Tendency to say what we think others want to hear, certainty, failure to select the best word, prejudices (both sender and receiver), and strained relationship between sender and receiver. c. differences between men and women that can result in miscommunication. (Zielinski) d. techniques for reducing or eliminating barriers to communication, including properly encoding messages, selecting the best channel, describing, Equality, openness, problem orientation, positive intent and empathy.

289. Grapevine - a. includes all interactions with agencies and people outside the department, including the news media and citizen contacts. b. is within the department c. may be downward ( supervisor to employee), upward (Subordinate to supervisor) (vertical) or lateral(subordinate to subordinate) (horizontal). It may also be internal or external. d. informal channel of communication within the agency or department, also referred to as the rumor mill.

293. News media echo effect a. a plan, usually referring to a meeting outline or program: a list of things to be accomplished. b. the ability of public safety emergency to work seamlessly with other systems or products without special efforts. c. good information that is stated briefly. d. occurs when highly publicized criminal cases result in a shift in processing for similarly charged but non-publicized cases.

298. Combating Terrorism - a. avoiding conflict when working with other agencies during an investigation; deployed with declassified and confidential investigations. b. involves nonintervention; lets everything run itself. There is little or no control. Also relates to free-rein leadership. c. comes from body language and tone of voice between two people. d. lies with the local police and the intelligence they can provide to federal authorities.

299. Each sheriff/operator should maintain fiscal records which will clearly indicate the costs for the facility. This should include a) feeding b) clothing c) commissary shortfalls d) both a and b e) all the above

3 stages of growth - a. Managers who contribute their efforts to accomplishing dept goals while simultaneously developing their subordinates into top performers are superior balanced performer managers who empower others. b. can shape the workplace culture by doing the following: 1. Identify existing norms. 2. Evaluate the norms - do they work for or against the dept's mission? 3. Encourage positive norms and try to eliminate negative ones through modeling and training. c. a model made of 4 parts to help illustrate how people can learn more about others and themselves (open self, hidden self, blind self, and undiscovered/subconscious self) d. dependent, independent, and interdependent

301.Each sheriff/operator shall have an implement a written procedure providing for equitable treatment regardless of (Ref 269.4) a) race, religion gender b) race, religion, national origin c) race, religion, age d) all the above

302. Brainstorming - a. processes images and is primarily emotional. b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. a method of shared problem solving in which members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas, no matter how wild, without any criticism or critique.

305. The Sheriff shall notify the Commission __________ upon determination that an inaccurate Jail Population Report was submitted by the sheriff to the Commission. a) in person b) in a reasonable time frame c) in person and in a reasonable time frame d) immediately

309. Groupthink - a. is free flowing b. usually consist of people from the educational community, the religious community, Neighborhood watch groups and the like. c. in contrast is evaluative, rational, and objective. d. the negative tendency for members of a group to submit to peer pressure and endorse the majority opinion even if it individually is unacceptable.

31. How often shall the status of persons confined to a violent cell be reassessed and documented? (Ref 271.1(A)(9) a. at least every 4 hours b. at least every 8 hours c. at least every 12 hours d. at least every 24 hours

311. Custody levels and special housing needs shall be assessed to include _______, _______ and ___________ custody levels. a) minor, moderate and major b) minimum, moderate and maximum c) low, medium and high d) minimum, medium and maximum

313. The Modified Delphi technique - a. a way to have individual input; uses open-minded questionnaires completed by individuals. Answers are shared, and the questionnaires are again completed until consensus is achieved. b. an objective way to achieve consensus on the most effective alternatives by using an objective ranking of alternatives propose by a group of people. c. identifies forces (driving and restraining) that impedes (equilibrium is the problem) and enhance goal attainment. d. uses objective rather than open-ended questions

320. Mental locks - a. are habits people fall into without recognizing what they are doing. b. processes language and is primarily logical. c. judgmental, critical statements that serve as put-downs and stifle other's creativity. d. thinking patterns that prevent innovative thinking.

328. Keeping a daily log or time list - a. a set of file folders, organized by year, month and day, into which lists of tasks to be accomplished are placed. b. is to ensure that you are accomplishing the tasks that must be done. c. 20 % (vital tasks) of what a person does accounts for 80 % of the results. Also 80% of trivial tasks can hinder results 20%. d. can tell you how you really spend your time, as opposed to how you perceive you spend it.

33. Restraints if determined to be necessary a. Shall be used in a humane manner. b. Shall be used for the prevention of injury. c. Shall not be used as a punitive measure. d. All of the above

334. Among the most common internal time wasters - a. activities or tasks that waste time, for example, socializing, drop- in visitors and telephone tag. b. are the telephone; the e-mail chime; people who "drop in"; nonessential meetings; socializing; and "firefighting," or handling crises. c. Sort task, Purge whatever you can, Assign a time, Containerize the time needed to do the task and Equalize. d. are drop-in employees, procrastination, failure to set goals and objectives, failure to prioritize, failure to delegate, personal errands, indecision, failure to plan and lack of organization

335. The decision to apply restraints shall be made by ______________> (Ref 273.6(1) a) medical personnel b) supervisory personnel c) Jail Administrator d) Both "a" and "b"

338. While in restraints, an inmate should receive medical care a minimum of every ____________. a) 30 minutes b) hour c) 90 minutes d) 2 hours

34. In no case shall an inmate be kept in restraints longer than: a. 48 hours. b. 36 hours. c. 12 hours. d. 24 hours.

343. Regression - a. reading materials rapidly for specific information b. reading information rapidly for the main ideas, usually the first and last paragraph, the first sentence of all other paragraphs and the captions of any charts or figures. c. is moving lips and/or tongue to form words being read. This causes slow reading. d. is looking back over previously read material, which slows what is being read.

351. Supernorms - a. the sum of the beliefs and values held in common by those within the organization that formally and informally communicate what is expected. b. the attitudes and beliefs held by a group. c. detailed, formally stated summary of duties and responsibilities for a position. d. overriding expectations of a given group, for example, do not volunteer or do not criticize.

355. Socialization process - a. that officers must back each other up. Psychological backup, emotional backup, and ethical backup. b. encourages officers not to speak up when they see another doing something wrong. c. must be to defend the constitution and laws of the United States, his or her state constitution and laws and local laws. d. officers are furiously loyal to one another and this culture is often a separation from society.

357. Toilets, lavatories, showers and other equipment shall be maintained in good working order ___________. (Ref 279.1(5) a) within the kitchen b) within all inmate occupied cells c) within all infirmary cells d) throughout the facility

36. How often shall an internal audit be conducted on the classification system? a. monthly b. quarterly c. biannual d. annual

362. Menus should be approved and reviewed by ____________. (Ref 281.3) a) licensed dietitian b) provisional licensed dietitian c) medical doctor with a degree in nutrition d) both "a" and "b"

364. Undiscovered or subconscious self - a. what you know about yourself and what you show others. b. that which is secret and which you do not share with others c. that part others can see but you do not know about. d. that part of you neither you nor others have yet discovered.

365. Touchstone values - a. include all aspects of a person's life: career/job, financial, personal, family/relationships and spiritual /service. b. the goals of an organization. c. targets that are specific, measurable outcomes with a timeline. d. what people say is important to them.

370. synergy - a. cooperate, care for, assist and support the team effort. Last stage of growth supervisors aspire for employees. b. is the sum of all the professional qualities, characteristics, traits and skills an officer possesses as well as what the officer does and how it is done. (Borrello). c. a more experienced person who helps a less experience person develop his or her capabilities and maximize potential. d. where the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.

373. Engel and Calnon - a. means understanding the diversity of United States, the dynamics of minority-majority relationships, the dynamics of sexism and racism and the issues of nationalism and separatism. b. beliefs held by those in the majority. c. beliefs held by those in the minority d. showed that black and Hispanic males are at increased risk for citations, searches, arrests, and uses of force.

382. Integrity - a. falsifying patrol logs to make the numbers come out right to avoid charges of racial profiling. b. standards of fair and honest conduct. c. that which is moral and right. d. steadfast adherence to an ethical code.

386. Sherman's slippery slope of corruption - a. 70% of officers surveyed someone accepting free coffee or food or speeding unnecessarily. b. are that it (1) is prohibited by law or rule, (2) involves misuse of position and (3) involves a reward or personal gain for the officer. c. a favor or gift, usually in the form of money, given in return for service, for example a tip given to a waiter in a restaurant. d. posits that police corruption begins with a lowering of ethical expectations and values to attain a gratuity of minor value, for example, accepting a cup of coffee

391. Noble cause and Ends versus means - a. During the socialization process, some officers receive the message they are special and above the law. b. "The most destructive form of police misconduct is administrators ignoring obvious ethical problems." c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. unethical behavior concerns the noble cause corruption dilemma, in which officers believe unlawful means are justified when the result is the protection of human life or some other cause

395. Motive - a. report that the most motivated employees have values aligned closely with the organization's values. b. is an inner or outer drive to meet a need or goal. c. (1) physiological, (2) safety and security, (3) social, (4) esteem, and (5) self-actualization. d. is an impetus, impulsive or an intention that causes a person to act, individually or collectively with others, in a directed manner.

4. Delegation is: a. Transferring authority. b. A necessary and often difficult aspect of management. c. Requiring and placing trust in others to do the job as well as, or better than, the manager would do it. d. All of the above.

405. Perks - a. says managers have these options to influence people's behavior at work: (1) reward good behavior (positive reinforcement), (2) punish bad behavior (negative reinforcement), (3) threaten people who do bad behavior and (4) ignore the bad behavior. The most effective option is to reward the good behavior. b. suggests fitting tasks, officers and the agency's goals so that officers can feel competent. c. programs designed to motivate d. tangible rewards

406. All regular Commission inspections by TCJS shall be announced _____ days prior to the Commission's staff arrival a) 7 b) 10 c) 14 d) none of the above

408. Pygmalion Effect - a. include absenteeism, constant complaining, lack of care for equipment, lack of respect for other officers, lack of respect for rules and regulations, low morale, sleeping or loafing on duty, slovenly appearance. b. perks, the compensation package, incentive programs, working conditions, and schedules, security, social, and status are all external motivators for employees. c. goals, achievement, recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement, opportunity to make a contribution and belief in individual and departmental goals. d. what managers and supervisors expect of their officers and how they treat them largely determine their performance and career progress. (encouragement)

412. Self-motivation - a. the theory that people live up to expectations. If people believe they can do a job, they usually can. If people believe they cannot do a job, they usually cannot. b. workers are positively affected by receiving attention. This affects research efforts. c. is a active form of communication. d. acting in an expected way from personal choice. Law enforcement jobs are self motivating jobs.

424. Perception - a. is a person's or group's state of mind, level of enthusiasm and amount of involvement with work and with life. b. include lack of productivity, enthusiasm and cooperation; absenteeism; tardiness; grievances; complaints; and excessive turnover. c. include poor management, job dissatisfaction and failure to meet important individual needs. d. the angle in which we view things, makes a tremendous difference in what they see.

430. The purpose of discipline - a. training expected to produce a desired behavior - controlled behavior or administering punishment. Also a state of affairs or how employees act, in contrast to morale, which is how employees feel. b. is how a person feels; discipline is how a person acts. c. self imposed rules for self-control. d. is to promote desired behavior, which may be done by encouraging acceptable behavior or punishing unacceptable behavior.

431. Discipline - a. training expected to produce a desired behavior - controlled behavior or administering punishment. Also a state of affairs or how employees act, in contrast to morale, which is how employees feel. b. is how a person feels; discipline is how a person acts. c. self imposed rules for self-control. d. is to promote desired behavior, which may be done by encouraging acceptable behavior or punishing unacceptable behavior.

438. A problem employee - a. discrepancies between an agency's formal policies and informal practices; occurs when an organization adopts a splashy new policy but then never really implements it to change or explains how the work gets done. b. divides the work force into three categories: 10 % self-motivated high achievers, 80 % average achievers and 10 % unmotivated troublemakers who cause 90 % of management's problems. c. formalize department policy on a particular issue and are a central mechanism to law enforcement leadership confronting recurring and potentially problematic enforcement issues. d. exhibits abnormal behavior to the extent that the behavior is detrimental to organizational needs and goals as well as the needs and goals of other law enforcement personnel.

444. Among the most challenging and serious problem behaviors - a. include yes people, passives, avoiders, pessimists, complainers, know-it-alls, exploders, bullies and snipers. b. get their attention, identify the problem behavior, point out the consequences, ask questions listen and explain expectations. Avoid defensiveness. c. employee who has demonstrated ability to perform but who does just enough to get by. d. are abuse of sick leave, substance abuse, corruption, insubordination, sexual harassment and use of excessive force.

446. Quid pro quo - a. can costs a department an additional 150 % over the budgeted amount with OT pay. (Orrick) b. failure to obey a lawful and direct order from a supervisor. c. unwelcome, unsolicited and deliberate action of a sexual nature that occurs in the workplace or extension of the workplace. d. involves a supervisor's demand for sexual favors from an employee in return for a job benefit.

450. Hostile work environment - a. any nonnegotiable use of police authority to influence citizen behavior. (Luna) b. (1) The employer knew or should have known about the harassment, and (2) the employer failed to take appropriate corrective action. c. occurs when employees who are not the target of the harassment lose potential job benefits to other less qualified employees who submit to harassment. d. whether by co-employees or by supervisors, consists of unwelcome sexual behavior, such as jokes, cartoons, posters, banter, repeated requests for dates, requests for sexual favors, references to body parts, or physical touching that has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.

458. A primary rule of effective discipline - a. a form of civil disobedience reflecting a philosophy of nonviolence. Often used by protestors and demonstrators. b. punishment or reprimand in an effort to compel expected behavior. c. (1) a sound policy, (2) effective mechanisms for enforcing the policy and producing accountability and (3) integrated training that teaches officers when and how to use force appropriately. (Fridell) d. is that it should be carried out as close to the time of the violation as possible.

462. Reprimand - a. how the offense was committed and the offender's attitude and past performance are important considerations in assessing penalties. b. uses disciplinary steps based on severity of the offense and how often it is repeated. Oral and Written reprimands, Suspension/demotion, and Discharge c. should be corrective. Only when corrective discipline, training and counseling have little or no effect should disciplinary action be punitive. d. formal criticism of behavior. May be oral or written.

467. Dismissal - a. being fired from employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline. b. being barred from a position for a period of time. May be with or without pay. Often part of progressive discipline. c. places an employee in a position of lower responsibility and pay. Often a part of progressive discipline. d. termination of employment. Usually the final step in progressive discipline.

471. Gunnysack approach - a. request for a decision to be reviewed by someone higher in the command structure. b. failing to terminate an employee when justified. c. discretionary authority used when a supervisor feels an officer is not fit for duty or for any reason the supervisor feels a need for immediate action. Also called summary punishment. d. occurs when managers or supervisors accumulate negative behaviors of a subordinate and then dump them all on the employee at the same time rather than correcting them as they occurred.

475. Change the balance of consequences - a. uses both positive and negative discipline to achieve individual and organizational goals. b. a grid used to analyze problem behavior and the consequences that follow the behavior in an attempt to understand how the consequences might be to alter the change in problem behavior. c. consequences are stronger than organizational, delayed or uncertain (ODU). d. so that employees are rewarded for desired behavior and punished for undesired behavior---not vice versa.

484. Grievances - a. a statement of a problem. b. a complaint may be made by the general public, by people arrested or by employees of the law enforcement department, including peers, or managers. The person or group that files a complaint. c. statements of a problem made by a person or group outside the law enforcement organization. d. a formally registered complaint. A claim by an employee that a rule or policy has been misapplied or misinterpreted to the employee's detriment.

486. Mediation - a. statements of problems made by officers or employees within a law enforcement agency. b. can be reduced through effective recruitment and selection, training, policy and procedure manuals, effective supervision, community outreach and data collection and analysis. c. often included in external complaints are crime, excessive force, false arrest, improper entry, unlawful search, harassment, offensive demeanor, and rule infractions. d. bringing in a neutral third party to assist in negotiations.

490. A basic rule: - a. A pinch, minor problem can turn into a crunch, a major problem. It demonstrates the importance of communication in dealing with complaints and the consequences of not communicating effectively. b. are related to working conditions or management style. c. is directly related to job performance. Those who are dissatisfied on the job and communicate perform better than those who are satisfied and do not communicate. d. never take a complaint lightly.

5. Which of the following below best describes Participative Leadership? a. Lets everything run itself. b. Does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. c. Common sense always represents the action that gets the best results, with the least cost or side effects. d. Managers that build a team and view themselves as part of this team.

503. Unfounded - a. complaint or grievance in which the investigative facts support the charge. b. a complaint or grievance in which the investigation determines that the matter did occur, but was proper and legal. c. usually results in one of four findings: sustained, not sustained, exonerated or unfounded. d. complaint or grievance in which the act did not occur or the complaint/grievance was false.

506. Conflict - a. determines whether it is negative or a positive force within the organization. b. challenges the status quo and offers constructive alternatives. c. disagreements that are destructive. d. a mental or physical fight, a controversy, disagreement or clash.

51. Female Inmates - a. Supervisors in facilities housing female inmates will sufficiently and appropriately staff the facility to ensure that at least (2) female Corrections Officer is on duty for each shift, twenty-four (24) hours per day. b. Supervisors in facilities housing female inmates will sufficiently and appropriately staff the facility to ensure that at least one (1) female Corrections Officer is on duty for each shift, (12) hours per day. c. Supervisors in facilities housing female inmates will sufficiently and appropriately staff the facility to ensure that at least one (1) female or male Corrections Officer is on duty for each shift, twenty-four (24) hours per day. d. Supervisors in facilities housing female inmates will sufficiently and appropriately staff the facility to ensure that at least one (1) female Corrections Officer is on duty for each shift, twenty-four (24) hours per day.

510. The best method to resolve conflict - a. properly handled, motivates individuals and organizations. It exposes problems, defines causes, obtains input from those involved toward constructive solutions and may develop new outlooks. b. is normal in all organizations and becomes negative only when left unresolved. c. can be extremely beneficial to a law enforcement organization, keeping it innovative and responsive to change. d. is usually to deal directly with those involved, determine the cause of the conflict and seek a solution.

515. The potential for conflict between officers and the public - a. insisting that two disputing people or groups meet face-to-face to resolve their differences, may effectively resolve conflicts, or it may make them worse. b. that arise during crises must be managed by following established procedures and the chain of command. c. may come from individual (personal issues), interpersonal (i.e. Cultural differences), or job-related sources (i.e. poor equipment, ineffective polices) as well as from sources outside the organization. Change is a major source of conflict. d. exists because officers' perception of their duties may differ from the public's.

519. Intersubjectivity approach - a. (1) win-lose - The subordinate must either obey or face disciplinary actions, (2) lose-lose - the conflict is settled through an ineffective compromise, with neither side feeling they have accomplished their purpose, and (3) win-win - the focus is on the basic merits of each side rather than on interpersonal haggling. b. include open, two-way communication, receptivity to new ways of doing things; and encouragement of risk taking. c. is to pursue agreement with understanding. d. uses 3 by 5 inch cards as a means to get people in conflict to share their most important ideas about a problem and to come to a mutual understanding of and respect for each other's viewpoints.

530. Budgets - a. deals with all expenses needed to run the department: salaries, insurance, electricity and the like. b. funds to be used as the need arises. c. deals with "big ticket" items such as land, buildings and improvements to systems; vehicles; and office equipment. d. serve as a plan for and a means to control resources.

541. Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) - a. identifies programs and allocates funds for each. b. a modern version of the program budgeting system, except rather than breaking cost down by program, the approach breaks down costs by activity. c. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. Also called fixed cost. d. begins with a clean slate, justifying each expenditure anew.

546. Personnel costs - a. include salaries, and wages, services and supplies, training and travel, contractual services and other or miscellaneous. b. are caused by one of three things: (1) price change (either higher or lower), (2) volume (using more or less of a line item), or (3) efficiency of operation (equipment is operating more or less efficiently than anticipated). c. comparing actual costs against what was budgeted and examining the differences. d. usually account for at least ¾ of the operating budget.

549. Absenteeism and turnover - a. means providing the same or more services with less funding. Also called budget reduction or reduced expenditure spending. b. is to identify waste areas. c. allocates dollars based on productivity. d. are major cost problems in most organizations.

554. Reduce costs by sharing resources - a. where the agency keeps a storehouse of uniforms b. through an employee cost improvement suggestion program. c. using consolidating services, establishing community resource centers, contracting, using quartermaster system, using volunteers. d. to common problems allow multiple jurisdictions to pool their resources to form and share teams not needed full time, for example, SWAT, scuba, accident reconstruction and crime scene units.

559. Departments might increase revenue - a. Agencies use private correctional facilities to cut cost. b. considers asset forfeiture to be governed by the Eight Amendment, which forbids cruel and unusual punishment. It is up to the states to make this determination. c. awarded to states or localities based on population and crime rates. Also called a block grant d. by fundraising, donations, charging for some services, using asset forfeiture statutes to their advantage and seeking grants.

56. An automatic fire detection and alarm system shall be provided for all facilities. The system shall include (Ref 263.30) a. automatic fire detection for all areas of the facility b. manual fire alarm pull station for staff use c. visual an audible annunciation of all fire detection devices and fire extinguishing systems at continuously staffed locations d. all the above

560. The Department of Justice's (DOJ) Office of Justice Program (OJP) - a. awarded based on the judgment of the awarding state or federal agency. b. expenses that do not vary in total during a period even though the amount of service provided may be more or less than anticipated, for example, rent and insurance. c. the 12 month accounting period used by an agency. A calendar year, from January 1 through December 31, may or may not be the same as an agency's fiscal year. d. is the lead federal funding agency for law enforcement.

564. Performance appraisal - a. can provide an objective assessment of individual officers, managers, innovations, programs and the entire agency. b. to determine the worth of, to find the amount or value of or to appraise. c. are line inspections, spot inspections, and staff inspections. d. formal evaluation of on-the-job functioning; usually conducted annually.

569. Spot inspection - a. It can provide information related to the budget. It can also help defend against lawsuits and assess citizen satisfaction with the service provided. b. formal inspections and help uncover potential problems before they reach proportions that negatively affect the department. c. is the day to day review of a subordinate's appearance. d. unannounced and done by someone other than the inspected person's chain of command.

573. Purposes of performance appraisals - a. who provide the most immediate direction of subordinates should do the evaluation. b. may involve quality of performance, quantity and meeting established goals. Targets to be met, including level of performance. c. is to improve employee performance. d. include promoting common understanding of individual performance levels, needs, work objectives and standards; providing feedback and suggesting specific courses of action to improve, including training.

576. By-the-numbers evaluation - a. may include areas such as physical energy to perform and emotional stability while performing law enforcement tasks; individual judgment; reliability; loyalty and ability to get along with the public, fellow employees and managers; creativeness and innovation; attitude; knowledge of tasks; competence; and amount of required management. b. that do not have fitness tests, standards or programs may face charges of negligence in hiring, training, supervision or retention. c. make it easier for employees to meet requirements and for managers to determine whether they have been met. d. makes evaluations more objective by using a numerical scale for each characteristic or dimension rated.

587. Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) - a. A group of supervisors evaluate a individual. b. keeping a critical incident log that records good and bad performances of employees. c. raters use a description of what they observed rather than a rating scale. d. specific characteristics for a position are determined. Employees are then rated against these characteristics by on-the-job behaviors in each area.

588. The performance appraisal interview - a. allow employees to rate themselves. b. Managers review all their subordinates then rate which one is top and bottom with all others in between. c. private, one-on-one discussions of performance appraisal by manager and subordinate. d. should help employees do their jobs better and therefore improve individual performance and productivity.

593. Valid - a. tendency to rate one who performs above average in one area above average in all areas or vice versa. b. is twice a year and more frequently for employees who perform below expectations. c. allowing one negative trait to influence the rater negatively on other traits as well. d. appraisals that are well grounded and sound in which the factors rated are job related and the raters are trained.

600. Another way to obtain community input - a. consists of meeting a set of standards established by professionals in the field authorized to do so. Currently, accreditation may be granted by the Commission on the Accreditation of Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA) or by some state agencies. Established in 1979. b. focus on simplifying, appraising and summarizing data. c. focus on making statistically educated guesses from a sample of data. d. is through focus groups, forums or roundtable discussions.

608. Rating at the Extremes - a. Some raters tend to use their personal prejudices to rate employees. b. Closely related to rating personality is allowing one's personal biases to interfere with evaluation, for example, preferring men over women or non-minorities over minorities. c. When raters must place a percentage of employees in the upper, middle and lower third of ratings scales, they tend to be unfair. d. Some evaluators rate in extremes of too lenient or too strict.

65. Observation shall be performed - a. every 25 minutes on all inmates who are placed on suicide watch or in a restraint device. b. every 10 minutes on all inmates who are placed on suicide watch or in a restraint device. c. every 35 minutes on all inmates who are placed on suicide watch or in a restraint device. d. every 15 minutes on all inmates who are placed on suicide watch or in a restraint device.

9. Job Description - is a: a. A mandate that encourages officers not to speak up when they see another doing something wrong. b. Dictation that officers must back each other up. Psychological backup, emotional backup, and ethical backup. c. A mandate that explains how people actually spend their time and energy. d. detailed, formally stated summary of duties and responsibilities for a position

93. DUTY OF SHERIFF AS TO PRISONERS - Every sheriff shall - a. keep safely a person committed to his custody. He shall use cruel or unusual means to secure this end, but shall adopt all necessary measures to prevent the escape of a prisoner. He may summon a guard of sufficient number, in case it becomes necessary to prevent an escape from jail, or the rescue of a prisoner b. keep safely a person committed to his custody. He shall use no cruel or unusual means to secure this end, but shall adopt all necessary measures to prevent the escape of a prisoner. He may not summon a guard of sufficient number, in case it becomes necessary to prevent an escape from jail, or the rescue of a prisoner c. keep safely a person committed to his custody. He may use no cruel or unusual means to secure this end, but shall adopt all necessary measures to prevent the escape of a prisoner. He may summon a guard of sufficient number, in case it becomes necessary to prevent an escape from jail, or the rescue of a prisoner d. keep safely a person committed to his custody. He shall use no cruel or unusual means to secure this end, but shall adopt all necessary measures to prevent the escape of a prisoner. He may summon a guard of sufficient number, in case it becomes necessary to prevent an escape from jail, or the rescue of a prisoner

95. Haircuts by reasonably skilled persons shall be available on a voluntary basis to a) sentenced inmates only b) unsentenced inmates only c) trustees and weekenders d) all inmates, sentenced and unsentenced

95. Which is not the FILING OF CHARGING INSTRUMENT OR RELATED DOCUMENT IN ELECTRONIC FORM - a. An indictment b. information c. A related document in a criminal case that may be filed in electronic form with a judge or clerk of the court authorized to receive the document. d. A municipal parking ticket e. All of the above

97. Which of the following does not constitute grounds for initiation of a grievance? (Ref 283.3(2) a) violation of civil rights b) criminal act c) prohibited act by facility staff d) staff failure to provide "make-up" recreation due to inclement weather

98. Which of the following outgoing mail would not be considered as privileged correspondence. a) officials of the federal, state and local courts b) U. S. President c) Bona Fide News media d) American Communist Party (ACP)

A __________ audit of the commissary shall be completed by the county auditor in accordance with the Local Government Code. a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannual d) yearly

A corrections officer shall physically count inmates at frequent and regular intervals. a. at least twice daily b. at least three times a day c. in the morning and in the evening d. no less than once per day

A dormitory is a cell designed to accommodate a) 8 to 24 inmates b) 8 to 48 inmates c) 9 to 24 inmates d) 9 to 48 inmates

A health record on each inmate is maintained separately. The record shall include a health screening procedure administered by a) medical personnel only b) any trained corrections officer or a medical officer c) a corrections officer performing the initial intake procedure d) health personnel or by a trained booking officer

A record of each inmate shall include (Ref 269.1(2) a) intake, identification, classification b) medical, commissary, discipline c) property, incidents or unusual occurrences, documentation relating to the continued custody of inmates d) all the above

A single cell must contain: a. table and seat b. lavatory c. mirror d. a and b

Accreditation - a. may also be used to identify department-wide training needs and to assess the effectiveness of training. b. the department should also conduct a self-assessment, perhaps through a committee established for this purpose.. c. suggest that organizations regulate themselves by gathering and reacting to information about their performance. d. the process by which an institution or agency proves that it meets certain standards

Adequate records of all required life safety plans, drills and inspection of equipment shall be maintained and shall be readily available for inspection by the Commission. The records shall include date, time, ________ and __________. (Ref 263.70) a) location and signature of supervisor. b) location and results. c) results and Sheriff's signature conducting inspection. d) results and signature of person conducting inspection.

Administrative Separation - a. A secured space inside or abutting a facility for vehicles to deliver or pick up inmates or goods. b. A cell designed for the temporary holding of inmates. c. A cell designed for the temporary holding of intoxicated persons. d. Special housing unit, usually a separation or single cell, when staff determines that such close custody is needed for the safety of inmates or staff, for the security of the facility, or to promote order in the facility.

Administrative separation is for: a. safety of inmates b. security of facility c. to promote order in the facility d. all the above

An agency's policy and procedure manual - a. General Conduct, Performance of Duty, Restrictions on Behavior. b. is a fundamental management right. c. uses training to foster compliance with rules and regulations and performance at peak performances. d. is the foundation on which most discipline must be based

An approved mental disabilities/suicide prevention screening instrument shall be completed ______ on all inmates admitted. a) during the booking process b) prior to magistration c) prior to housing assignment d) immediately

An educational and rehabilitation should include programs such as testing and counseling in connection with a) family problems b) job placement c) alcohol or other drug abuse problems d) all the above

An inmate can stay in lock up facility, ie: booking a. 36 hrs b. 48 hrs c. 96 hrs d. None of the above

An inmate discipline plan, approved by TCJS, shall provide for the ________, _______ and _________ application of rules and regulations. a) firm, fair and continuous b) firm, fair and harsh c) firm, reasonable and consistent d) firm, fair and consistent

An inmate file shall include a) name of inmate, marital status education level b) name of inmate, gender, address c) record of injuries, property inventory, previous criminal record d) both "b" and "c"

Blanchard's PRICE Method - a. Both praises and reprimands can be effectively accomplished in one minute. b. usually gives four times more praise than blame. c. using positive strokes rather negative, crooked or plastic strokes. They are positive, negative, absent, crooked, and plastic. d. five step approach to employee performance problems: Pinpoint, Record, Involve, Coach, Evaluate.

Budget - a. a plan or schedule adjusting expenses during a certain period to the estimated income for that period. b. measures the flow of expenditures through the organization and assigns them to specific activities. c. are the budget and the cost accounting system. d. a list of possible expenses and income during a given period, most often one year.

Citations and other notices of suit against TCSO are to be served upon who? a. Commissioners Court b. a written order from a magistrate, directed to a peace officer or some other person specially named, commanding him to take the body of the person accused of an offense, to be dealt with according to law. c. Sheriffs Internal Affairs d. Sheriffs Paralegal Office

Command decision - a. in contrast to command decision making, uses input and opinions from others. b. is made democratically by a group. c. does not mean every decision is made by a vote, but rather that decisions are made only after discussion and input from employees. d. is one managers make on their own, with little or no input from others.

Correspondence - may be rejected on a case by case basis, provided it is a violation of the inmate rules. For purposes of this plan such correspondence is defined as: a. containing information regarding the manufacture of explosives, weapons, or drugs b. containing material that a reasonable person would construe as written solely for the purpose of communicating information designed to achieve the breakdown of jails through inmate disruption such as strikes or riots c. a specific factual determination has been made that the publication is detrimental to inmate's rehabilitation because it would encourage deviate criminal sexual behavior. d. All of the above

Dissatisfaction a. the person or group filing a grievance. b. turning a decision over to an individual or panel to make the final recommendation. Unlike the mediator's recommendation, the recommendation of the arbitration is often binding. c. have ordinances, statutes or formal procedures for handling grievances. d. with physical working conditions and equipment causes the majority of grievances. Almost a third of grievances are caused by dissatisfaction with management's action.

Emergency plans shall provide for a. use and response to alarms b. prompt release and evacuation of emergency areas (including non-ambulatory inmates) c. protection of staff during emergencies d. all the above

Exit markings shall be __________, and shall never be covered or obstructed. a) automatically activated during a time of emergency which may result in an evacuation b) automatically activated during a time of emergency which will result in an evacuation c) automatically activated, with a manual over-ride provided, during a time of emergency which may result in an evacuation d) continuously illuminated

Grooming and Dress - a. Employees maintain at all times a serviceable uniform and the necessary equipment to perform uniformed field duty. Employees are responsible for the maintenance and replacement of issued uniforms and equipment. This Office will normally replace uniform clothing items every (2) years. A memorandum drafted by a supervisor to Supply is sufficient for replacement. Any replacement not due to the five (2) year exchange or an on duty work related activity will require written approval from a Captain or higher ranking authority. b. Employees maintain at all times a serviceable uniform and the necessary equipment to perform uniformed field duty. Employees are responsible for the maintenance and replacement of issued uniforms and equipment. This Office will normally replace uniform clothing items every (3) years. A memorandum drafted by a supervisor to Supply is sufficient for replacement. Any replacement not due to the five (3) year exchange or an on duty work related activity will require written approval from a Captain or higher ranking authority. c. Employees maintain at all times a serviceable uniform and the necessary equipment to perform uniformed field duty. Employees are responsible for the maintenance and replacement of issued uniforms and equipment. This Office will normally replace uniform clothing items every (4) years. A memorandum drafted by a supervisor to Supply is sufficient for replacement. Any replacement not due to the (4) year exchange or an on duty work related activity will require written approval from a Captain or higher ranking authority. d. Employees maintain at all times a serviceable uniform and the necessary equipment to perform uniformed field duty. Employees are responsible for the maintenance and replacement of issued uniforms and equipment. This Office will normally replace uniform clothing items every five (5) years. A memorandum drafted by a supervisor to Supply is sufficient for replacement. Any replacement not due to the five (5) year exchange or an on duty work related activity will require written approval from a Captain or higher ranking authority.

How often must restraints be checked? a. Every 15 Minutes. b. Every 30 Minutes. c. Every Hour. d. Every 2 Hours

How often shall a written menu be reviewed and approved for compliance with nationally recognized allowances for basic nutrition. a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannually d) annually

How often shall blankets be laundered or dry-cleaned? (Ref 277.9) a. at least twice monthly b. monthly c. at every other month d. at least every three months

In a new maximum security design, ____ gauge hollow metal doors may be used outside the security perimeter. a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18

In a new maximum security design, ____ square feet of floor space shall be provided for each additional inmate to be confined after the first inmate is confined. a) 10 b) 15 c) 16 d) 18

In a new maximum security design, at what is the minimum clear floor space for a single cell? (Ref 259.133) a. 34 b. 35 c. 36 d. 40

In a new maximum security design, control areas and means of egress shall be illuminated a) 30 minutes prior to dusk and 30 minutes after dawn b) 1 hour prior to dusk and 1 hour after dawn c) by a movement activated means d) continuously

In a new maximum security design, doors to __________ , multiple occupancy cells, dormitories and day rooms shall be capable of being locked and unlocked individually by control means located remote from the cell area. a) holding cells b) disciplinary cells c) violent cells d) single cells

In a new maximum security design, facilities shall have ___ electrical receptacle(s) in corridors or chases for food carts, janitorial and maintenance equipment. a) at least one b) at least two c) evenly spaced d) adequate

In a new maximum security design, food passes should not be less than ___ inches wide and 4 ½" high. a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15

In a new maximum security design, minimum space allocations shall provide for support/services. This includes a) visiting b) multipurpose rooms c) library d) both "b" and "c"

In a new maximum security design, multiple occupancy cells shall provide 40 square feet of clear floor space for the first bunk plus ___ square feet of clear floor space for each additional bunk. a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18

In a new maximum security design, one or more holding cells shall be provided to hold inmates pending (Ref 259.138. a) booking b) court appearance c) identification d) all the above

In a new maximum security design, processing areas shall be provided with access to ________ and ________. a) toilets and lavatories b) toilets and bunks c) time notification instruments and toilets d) drinking fountains and toilets

In a new maximum security design, the laundry room shall be equipped with _____. a) 1 washer and 1 dryer per 100 inmates b) 1 washer and 1 dryer per 150 inmates c) 1 washer and 1 dryer per 200 inmates d) a sufficient number of washers and dryers to accommodate the anticipated laundry load.

In a new maximum security design, the multipurpose rooms may be used for a) conferences b) religious services c) counseling d) all the above

In a new maximum security design, warm water shall be between _____ and _____ degrees Fahrenheit. (Ref 259.162) a) 90 and 110 b) 90 and 120 c) 100 and 110 d) 100 and 120

In a new maximum security design, when an infirmary is provided, it shall include at least 1 single occupancy room or cell with ____ square feet of floor space a) 20 b) 40 c) 60 d) 80

In accordance with the Texas Commission on Jail Standards, chapter 301.25, all inmates shall have reasonable access to the law library, provided (Ref NONE) a. manpower permits b. The inmate is acting Pro Se on his/her case c. the inmate is researching a civil case d. none of the above, TCJS does not address law library operations

In an existing maximum security design, what is the maximum temperature level in an occupied area? (Ref 261.160) a. Below 80 degrees F b. Below 82 degrees F c. Below 84 degrees F d. Below 85 degrees F

Inaccurate Numerical or Forced-Choice Methods - a. are (1) lack of faith in appraisal system, (2) late inning results count most, (3) inaccurate numerical or force-choice methods, (4) unfair percentage ratings, rating personality rather than performance and rating at the extremes. b. some managers have a defeatist attitude about performance rating. c. when ratings are performed annually, the actions and performance in the final months of the rating period are often better remembered and given more weight. d. Numericals ratings do not provide the information needed for improving employee performance because they do not indicate specifics about individuals.

Inmates exhibiting behavior indicating that they are a danger to themselves or others shall be managed in such a way as to minimize threat of __________________. a) injury or escape b) injury or death c) injury or movement d) injury or harm

Inmates shall not be kept in restraints longer than ________ hours. (Ref 273.6(6) a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

Institutional rules and regulations shall be read to a) indigent inmates b) all inmates c) all non-speaking inmates d) illiterate inmates

It is a violation in accordance with TCJS if a corrections officer opens and reads an inmates incoming nonprivileged mail, unless a) the officer is in the presence of the inmate b) the officer has informed the inmate of such an action being taken c) the officer has a search warrant d) none of the above

Jargon- a. how messages are conveyed usually follows the chain of command. b. is to place a message into a form to be transmitted. c. is to decipher a message. d. the specialized language of a field.

Maintenance of locking systems and other security detention devices shall a) be only be performed by inmates under constant supervision by corrections officers b) only be performed by inmate trusties c) only be performed by properly skilled inmates under constant supervision by corrections officers d) not be performed by inmates

Major Infractions - Which of the following sanctions are not prohibited? a. deviation from normal feeding procedures b. corporal punishment c. Administration of any form of disciplinary action or supervision by inmates. d. disciplinary separation for a period not to exceed thirty days e. All of the above are Major Infractions

Most law enforcement budgets - a. everyone affected by the budget helps prepare it. Managers at all levels should be responsible for the budget they need, based on input from subordinates. b. permits departments to shift funds from one category to another as long as the total budget bottom line is not exceeded. c. 1) planning document, (2) Political document, (3) Living document. It is a tool. d. are developed by revising the previous year's budget based on logical assumptions.

Nonactor liability - a. the illegal or unreasonable use of force, with reasonableness determined by whether a reasonably prudent officer would have used the same amount of force in the same situation, in light of the information available to the officer at the time. b. Force used in accordance with the law; force was reasonable in light of the circumstances faced and known by the officer at the time it was used. c. Force likely to cause serious bodily injury or death. d. when an officer present at the scene where use of force is in question and is obviously excessive and the nonfactor officer did nothing to prevent it, that officer is also held liable by the courts.

Out going privileged correspondence may be opened a. with approval of the Post Master General b. in the presence of the inmate c. provided another staff member is present d. provided a search warrant is obtained

Outcome based budgeting - a. money set aside for unforeseen emergencies. b. requires the department to justify budget request based on the output of the department's services. c. identifies specific categories (line items) and dollars allocated for each. d. includes the reasons the item is needed and the effect it would have on the department's operations if eliminated.

Parkinson's Law - a. time spent in the agency or dept long after a shift ends on weekends when not on duty to make sure you are seen putting in extra time by those with the power to promote you. b. occurs when a person focuses on one word at a time rather than taking in groups of words and phrases in one look. c. delaying decisions, allowing time for minor difficulties to work themselves out. d. the principle that work expands to fill the time available for its completion. Sometimes we cannot make time, but instead use available time better.

Power is different from Authority in what ways? a. Power is the ability to get things done with or without a legal right. b. Power is generally granted by law or an order. c. Power relies on persuasion. d. Both a and c

Priorities - a. states that grouping similar tasks together can reduce the amount of time each takes, sometimes by as much as 80%. b. putting things off. c. putting off things that don't really matter. d. tasks that must be done, have big payoff and prevent negative consequences.

Risk factors to use when classifying inmates include a) offense history b) alcohol and/or drug abuse c) stability factors d) all the above

Safety Inspections - a. Post Officers will conduct daily inspections of his/her post immediately upon taking over the assigned post, and prior to releasing the inmates from their cells. b. The section Lieutenant or designee will conduct weekly inspections of all facilities under his/her supervision c. The Safety Officer(s) will conduct monthly inspections of all Jail facilities and will serve as coordinators of an internal inspection program. d. All of the above.

Single handling - a. tasks that do not have to be done, have a minimal payoff and have very limited negative consequences. b. tasks that must be done, have big payoff and prevent negative consequences. c. Proper planning prevents poor performance! d. not picking up a piece of paper until you are ready to do something with it.

Skinner's Reinforcement Theory - a. intangible rewards that can cause satisfaction. b. employees will choose the level of effort that matches the performance opportunity for reward. c. internal motivators such as goals, achievement recognition, self-respect, opportunity for advancement or to make a contribution and belief in individual and department goals. d. suggests that positive reinforcement rewards and increases a given behavior; negative reinforcement decreases a given behavior by reinforcing another, desired behavior.

Some barriers of communication are: a. time, certainty ,not listening b. failure to select the best word c. prejudices, volume of information d. All of the above

Special purpose cells include, (Ref 253.1) a) holding cell b) negative pressure cell c) separation cell d) all the above

Substitute aid shall be provided if the inmate is illiterate or if the complexity of the issue makes it unlikely that the inmate will be able to collect and present evidence necessary for adequate comprehension of the case. Substitute aid will be a) from the inmate population, designated by the Board b) a staff member only, designated by the Board c) a staff member and one trusty designated by the Board d) from the staff or an inmate designated by the staff

Tangible rewards - a. employee needs can be classified as hygiene factors and motivator factors. b. refers to achievement, to meeting individual goals and fulfilling one's potential. c. tangible rewards that can cause dissatisfaction if lacking. d. external motivators such as salary, bonuses, insurance, retirement plans, favorable working conditions, paid vacation and holidays, titles and adequacy of equipment.

Tents used for inmate sleeping areas shall provide how many square feet of clear floor space for each additional bunk after the first bunk? a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18

The _____________ officer shall determine inmate identity before discharge or release. a) transporting b) supervising c) floor d) releasing

The facility shall be inspected ____ by a local fire official. a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannually d) annually

The following disciplinary sanctions are prohibited a) corporal punishment b) use of violent cell c) administration of any form of disciplinary action or supervision by inmates d) all the above

The mental disabilities/suicide prevention plan shall address which of the following a) identification b) housing c) intervention and emergency treatment d) all the above

The storing and drying of mops and other cleaning tools _______. (Ref 279.1(8) a) shall be accomplished out doors b) should be conducted in a janitors room specifically designed for such c) shall be accomplished in a janitors room in which the humidity is no greater than 45% and the temperature is maintained between 65 and 85 degrees d) shall be located in a well ventilated place

Travel distance between any point on the floor and an exit may be increased by ___ feet in fully sprinklered facilities not to exceed ____ feet of total travel distance. a) 25, 125 b) 25, 225 c) 50, 150 d) 50, 200

Use of Restraints - a. Officer b. FTO c. lieuteneant d. duty supervisor

Victim Notification of Offender Release - a. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make a phone call to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, prior to the release of the inmate charged with the offense. b. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make a reasonable attempt to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, prior to the release of the inmate accused of the offense. c. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make a reasonable attempt to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, after the release of the inmate charged with the offense. d. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make a reasonable attempt to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, prior to the release of the inmate charged with the offense.

Victim Notification of Offender Release - a. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make a certain attempt to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, prior to the release of the inmate charged with the offense. b. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make any attempt to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, prior to the release of the inmate suspected of a offense. c. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make a phone call, type a email, or send a certified letter to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, prior to the release of the inmate charged with the offense. d. It is the policy of the Sheriff's Office to make a reasonable attempt to give personal notice to the victim or other person designated by the victim of a family violence, stalking, or harassment offense, prior to the release of the inmate charged with the offense.

Water and sewage systems not part of a city system and food preparation areas shall be inspected at least ________ by health authorities and record kept for each inspection. a) monthly b) quarterly c) biannually d) annually

What are 2 reasons an employee may be required to submit to drug testing? a. Vehicular accidents b. Civilian or supervisor request c. discharge of a firearm d. Both a and c e. Both a and b

What clearly justified reasons must exist for the Sheriff/Operator to require an inmate haircut? a. Upon the intake of an inmate who has altered the color of his/her hair. b. To eliminate "cult cuts" c. For health or sanitary reasons d. For health, sanitary or security reasons

What is required to be accomplished when storing mattresses prior to reissue? a. mattresses are to be swept, aired and sprayed with a non-toxic disinfectant b. mattresses are to be swept and sprayed with a non-toxic disinfectant c. mattresses are to be swept, sprayed with a non-toxic disinfectant and stored off the floor d. mattresses are to be swept, aired, sprayed with a non-toxic disinfectant and stored off the ground

What is the maximum capacity for a tent used as a temporary housing? (Ref 259.510) a. 8 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48

When are arrestees offered to complete telephone calls? a. No later than 6 hours after arrival into Booking Facility b. No later than 8 hours after arrival into Booking Facility c. No later than 2 hours after arrival into Booking Facility d. No later than 4 hours after arrival into Booking Facility

Which of the following is an approved sanction for a major rules infraction (Ref 283.1(2)C a) deviation from normal feeding procedures b) use of a violent cell c) corporal punishment d) removal from work details or programs

Which of the following is an approved sanction that can be imposed by a disciplinary board for a major infraction. a. corporal punishment b. loss of privileges not to exceed 15 days c. 48 hours in a violent cell d. loss of privileges not to exceed 30 days

Which of the following is considered contraband? a. glassware of metal utensils b. cellular phones c. tobacco products or lighters d. All of the above

Which of the following is not a requirement of the health services plan? a) provide procedures for regularly scheduled sick calls b) provide that adequate first aid equipment and patient evacuation equipment be on hand at all times c) provide procedures for efficient and prompt care for acute and emergency situations. d) None of the above

Which of the following is not an approved sanction for a minor rules infraction a) disciplinary separation for fifteen days b) verbal or written reprimand c) loss of privileges for fifteen days d) removal from work details or programs

Which of the following is not an item required in the health screening procedure? a) current medical, mental, and dental care and treatment b) inventory of body deformities c) presence of lice and vermin d) none of the above

Which of the following would necessitate a facility's need to implement a plan for tuberculosis screening tests of its employees, volunteers and inmates? a) facilities having a capacity of 100 or more inmates b) housing inmates from another state c) housing inmates transferred from a facility with a capacity of at least 100 beds d) all the above

_____ inmates may be required to keep their immediate living area clean. (Ref 289.2) a) convicted b) pretrial c) county d) all

______ may be utilized in conjunction with recreational and exercise activities. a) attorneys b) bondsmen c) trusties d) volunteers

495. Five functions of the Internal Affairs process: - a. instills confidence in management's fairness and protects those accused of wrongdoing. b. a written notification that an officer is making his or her statement or report in an internal affairs investigation involuntarily. c. is charged with a violation of rules and regulations and thinks the charge is unjust, the officer can request a hearing. d. (1) protecting the public, (2) protecting the department, (3) protecting the employee, (4) removing unfit personnel and (5) correcting procedural problems.

583. Common types of Performance Evaluations - a. an attempt to make evaluation "count for something", Redondo Beach police department gave individuals a higher chance for promotion/assignment based on the score of their evaluation. b. Those who rate highly might be considered for promotions, special assignments or pay raises. Those who rate below the acceptable range might be given counseling; training; a demotion; salary reduction; probation; or in extreme cases, termination. c. a procedure to allow those being evaluated to have input by completing a form outlining their accomplishments. d. (1) Ratings by individual traits or behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS), (2) Critical incident ratings, (3) Group or composite ratings, (4) narrative, essay or description, (5) Overall comparison ratings, and (6) Self-Evaluations.

101. The use of force against another is not justified - a. he intentionally or knowingly damages or destroys the tangible property of the owner b. A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly harms or threatens to harm another by an unlawful act c. to resist an arrest or search that the actor knows is being made by a peace officer, or by a person acting in a peace officer's presence and at his direction, even though the arrest or search is unlawful. d. in response to verbal provocation alone e. Both c and d

118. Which of the following sanctions are not Major Infraction sanctions? a. loss of good conduct credit b. loss of privileges for a period not to exceed thirty days c. Removal from work details or programs. d. disciplinary separation for a period not to exceed thirty days e. All of the above are Major Infractions

142. A supervisor will review all incident reports for accuracy and make a recommendation as to the disposition of the incident. Which of the following is not a recommendation a supervisory may suggest? a. File charges b. a waiver of a disciplinary hearing c. oral reprimand d. counseling or no further action e. automatic major disciplinary sanctions without a disciplinary hearing

144. Inmate phone usage may be suspended for which of the following reasons? a. quiet time b. emergencies c. counts d. Any security related issue e. all of the above

20. Privileged correspondence is mail addressed or received from the following persons or organizations - a. Officials of the federal, state and local courts b. All Federal and State officials and agencies c. Letters to bona fide news media d. The inmate's attorney e. All of the above

37. Privileged Correspondence include all of the following but: a. Officials of the federal, state, and local courts. b. All federal officials and officers, including the President of the United States. c. State officials and officers, including the Texas Commission on Jail Standards and the Governor. d. Letters to bona fide news media or to or from the inmate's attorney. e. Personal letters from the inmates immediate family. f. All of the above.

48. Post Orders - a. Personnel shall read the appropriate post order each time they assume a new post they have never worked before, and shall sign and date the post order acknowledgment form. b. A review of the post orders by the appropriate supervisory staff shall be documented at least semi-annually. c. A review of the post orders by the appropriate supervisory staff shall be documented at least annually. d. Personnel shall read the appropriate post order each time they assume a new post they worked before, and shall sign and date the post order acknowledgment form. e. Both a and c f. Both b and d

52. Female Inmates - a. Facilities housing both male and female inmates shall have at least one male and one female Corrections Officer on duty at all times. b. Facilities housing male inmates exclusively may have staff members of either gender. c. Any building or post that houses female inmates and is a single person post will be assigned to female Corrections Officers only. d. Female Corrections Officers will be assigned to guarding female inmates who are hospitalized and will provide escort duties for all off-site medical appointments. e. All of the above

53. Inmate Authority - a. No inmate or group of inmates shall be given control or authority over other inmates at any time for any reason. If observed, staff will immediately bring it to the attention of a supervisor. b. Personnel shall supervise all inmate activities, work details and programs. c. Inmates are not to be left unsupervised at any time. d. All staff who see or come into contact with them will supervise inmates who walk or ride bikes around the Travis County Correctional Complex. e. All of the above

54. Shift Briefing & Remedial Training - a. Remedial training is designed to correct deficiencies in skills, knowledge and abilities necessary to perform the responsibilities of various assignments. b. Any time an employee's immediate supervisor believes that remedial training is required; the supervisor may assign the employee to such training to correct the deficiency. c. All remedial training should be documented in the Employee's Development Folder (EDF). The employee should be given sufficient time to correct the deficiency, as determined by supervisory staff. d. Failure to attend and/or successfully complete the remedial training may subject the employee for disciplinary review. e. All of the above

60. Limits of Authority - a. All personnel shall abide by constitutional, state, local and Office regulations regarding the rights of suspects and persons accused of a crime. b. a written order from a magistrate, directed to a peace officer or some other person specially named, commanding him to take the body of the person accused of an offense, to be dealt with according to law. c. This includes, but is not limited to, interviewing, interrogating, and providing access to counsel. d. A affidavit made before the magistrate or district or county attorney if it charges the commission of an offense. e. Both a and c

96. TESTING FOR AIDS AND CERTAIN OTHER DISEASES - A person performing a test shall make the test results available to - a. the local health authority. b. the victim of the alleged offense. c. the defendant. d. the victim of the alleged offense and to the defendant. e. Both a and d

Fire Safety and Prevention - a. The most important aspect of an effective fire protection program is prevention. b. The Safety Officer is assigned to manage, direct, and supervise the institutional fire prevention and suppression, safety, and sanitation programs. c. The most important aspect of an effective fire protection program is annotation. d. The Safety Officer is assigned to manage, direct, and supervise the institutional fire prevention and suppression, safety, and sanitation programs, and work units. e. Both a and b

Key Control - a. The facility Major or his/her designee will approve any keys permanently issued to staff. b. These employees will be responsible for the care custody and control of the issued keys. c. Upon reassignment, the employee will relinquish custody of the issued key(s) to their immediate supervisor or designated custodian. d. This number will be kept to a minimum and will not include security keys. e. All of the above

Sanctions may include: a. loss of good conduct credit b. loss of privileges for a period not to exceed thirty c. removal from work details d. Disciplinary separation for a period not to exceed thirty days. e. All of the above

Sight and sound. a. shall separate female inmates from male inmates b. shall determine the distance between inmates when in the dayroom. c. When under indirect, visual and proximate supervision, male and female inmates may simultaneously participate in work and program activities. d. When under direct, visual and proximate supervision, male and female inmates may simultaneously participate in work and program activities. e. Both a and d

The Travis County Sheriff's Office Values - Honesty is to a. being answerable and responsible for our actions b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed. d. Use our differences to enhance our service to and with the community by respecting each individual e. to be truthful and forthright in our thoughts, words and deeds

The Travis County Sheriff's Office Values - Integrity is a. committed to professionalism, partnership and community b. Exceeding community expectations through exemplary service c. Recognizing the value of each person and treating them with decency and dignity. d. steadfast resolve and dedication to succeed e. having the courage to do the right thing for the right reasons even when it is unpopular or unpleasant

Time - a. is planning and organizing time to accomplish your most important goals in the shortest time possible. b. is the greatest management resource. c. a visual diagram of your daily, weekly, and monthly schedule. d. Is the period between two events or during which something exists, happens or acts; it is thought of in terms of measurable intervals. e. Both b and d

Time and Attendance - a. A Break may be taken at any time during the shift, at the discretion of the supervisor. b. Captains/Directors are authorized to modify hours to meet the needs of a given facility. c. However, the FLSA Breaks must occur as described for applicable staff. d. Staff may not refuse Breaks. e. All of the above

The three basic principles of futurists are: a. the unity and interconnectedness of reality b. the significance of ideas c. influenced future outcomes d. Both a and b e. None of the above

e, None of the above pg. 519 1. The future is not predictable 2. The future is not predetermined 3. Future outcomes can be influenced by individual choice

123. Correspondence - Correspondence addressed to or received from the following persons or organizations shall be considered privileged correspondence: a. officials of the federal, state, and local courts b. all federal officials and officers, including the President of the United States c. State officials and officers, including the Texas Commission on Jail Standards and the Governor. d. letters to bona fide news media e. the inmate's attorney(s) f. All of the above

74. Critical Incident Documentation and Reporting - a. The purpose of the Critical Incident Peer Review Report is to evaluate staff performance, equipment and resources. b. Undue criticism and personal opinions can be included. c. Undue criticism and personal opinions will not be included. d. The purpose of the Critical Incident Peer Review Report is to document disciplinary decisions. e. Both a and b f. Both c and d

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