SIE Exam pt 2

Other positions aside, when an investor sells a put, would they be bullish or bearish?

Bullish. The seller of a put wants the market price of the underlying stock to remain neutral or go up slightly.

In 2018, an attorney who is not an active participant in a retirement plan earns $150,000 annually and the attorney's spouse is unemployed. The maximum tax deduction allowed under IRA Federal Tax rules is? (A) $5,500 (B) $2,000 (C) $11,000 (D) $3,000

[A]

One of your clients holds a preferred stock which has not paid dividends for the past two quarters. The paperwork for the preferred stock REQUIRES that dividends that were not paid must be paid prior to any dividends are paid to stockholders of common shares. What kind of preferred stock does your client hold? (A) Your client has a cumulative feature on their preferred stock. (B) Your client has a conversion feature on their preferred stock. (C) Your client has a participating feature on their preferred stock. (D) Your client has a call feature on their preferred stock.

[A]

Which of the following investments allow a maximum contribution limit of 100% of earned income, not to exceed $5500, assuming the investor is less than 50 years of age? (A) A traditional IRA (B) A Keogh Plan (C) A 401(k) Plan (D) An Education IRA

[A]

Assume that interest rates have remained stable while stock prices have been declining. An investor is most concerned about the loss of principal when investing and asks his registered representative whether a balanced fund or a growth fund would provide better preservation of capital. The RR should tell the customer that the (A) balanced fund is better because the debt securities and preferred stocks in the portfolio will provide downside protection in this scenario. (B) growth fund is better because of the greater potential for gains. (C) balanced fund is better because of the inclusion of blue chip stocks in the portfolio. (D) growth fund is better because such funds typically hold a diverse portfolio of AAA-bonds.

[A] if interest rates are going down -> existing bonds will go up in price (wont be able to get as high of a coupon rate after change). balanced fund - most conservative / least volatile / least amount of appreciation; made up of bonds, ps, cs growth fund - objective is appreciation of capital therefore these funds generally d not pay dividends and have a lower yield. typically invest in small-cap cs and therefore more volatile than other funds

Assume that interest rates have remained stable while stock prices have been declining. An investor is most concerned about the loss of principal when investing and asks his registered representative whether a balanced fund or a growth fund would provide better preservation of capital. The RR should tell the customer that the [A] balanced fund is better because the debt securities and preferred stocks in the portfolio will provide downside protection in this scenario. [B] growth fund is better because of the greater potential for gains. [C] balanced fund is better because of the inclusion of blue chip stocks in the portfolio. [D] growth fund is better because such funds typically hold a diverse portfolio of AAA-bonds.

[A] - A balanced fund holds common stock, preferred stock, and bonds. It is a very conservative type of fund because of this diversification of asset classes. It typically performs better than a pure stock fund in a declining market. A growth fund is typically a pure stock fund, often comprised of small capitalization stocks.

A member firm is associated with Mr. Smith, an independent contractor of the member firm. Mr. Smith sells mutual funds from his home office. All of the following are true regarding this association EXCEPT: [A] Since Mr. Smith is an independent contractor, he will not be supervised by the firm. [B] Mr. Smith's home office must be registered as a branch office if he uses his home address in ads. [C] Mr. Smith must be registered. [D] Mr. Smith's mutual fund trades must be reviewed and approved by a Registered Principal of the member firm.

[A] - All choices are true except A. Mr. Smith would be under the supervision of the member firm.

One of your clients holds a preferred stock which has not paid dividends for the past two quarters. The paperwork for the preferred stock REQUIRES that dividends that were not paid must be paid prior to any dividends are paid to stockholders of common shares. What kind of preferred stock does your client hold? [A] Your client has a cumulative feature on their preferred stock. [B] Your client has a conversion feature on their preferred stock. [C] Your client has a participating feature on their preferred stock. [D] Your client has a call feature on their preferred stock.

[A] - Cumulative features require that all dividends in arrears (dividends that have not been paid) must be paid to preferred stockholders PRIOR to any payment of dividends to common stockholders.

Upon the expiration of S&P index options, all options that are "in the money" will be settled by the delivery of: [A] Cash [B] U.S. Treasury bills [C] S&P 100 stocks [D] Dow Jones Industrial Average stocks

[A] - Index options are settled in cash (i.e. the difference between the exercise price and the current market value of the index).

Which of the following types of bonds secures its income from fees charged to users? [A] Revenue bond [B] General obligation bond [C] Collateral bond [D] Convertible bond

[A] - Municipal bonds are broken up into two separate categories: general obligation and revenue bonds. General obligation bonds are paid out of taxes levied on the taxpayers of a given area, while revenue bonds are paid for by user fees from the project. An example of a project for which a revenue bond would be issued would be a toll road.

When a client opens an options account at a firm, regulations dictate that the firm must receive an account agreement signed by the customer in what time frame? [A] Following approval of the account, the firm must receive the signed account agreement within 15 days. [B] The firm must receive the signed account agreement prior to approval of the account. [C] Following approval of the account, the firm must receive the signed account agreement within one month. [D] The firm must receive the signed account agreement no fewer than 10 business days before approval of the account.

[A] - Options regulations at the exchange level require that the signed option account agreements be received by the firm no later than 15 days following the firm's approval of the account for options trading. Options disclosure document (ODD) - at or before approval Options Account Agreement (OAA) - within 15 calendar days from the time the account is approved

Which of the following statements about preferred stock is true? [A] Preferred stock is considered an equity security. [B] Preferred stocks have maturity dates that are fixed. [C] Generally, preferred shares come with voting privileges. [D] Most preferred stock has an equal claim to company assets as common stock in the event that a company becomes insolvent.

[A] - Preferred stock represents equity (ownership). Generally, they don't have voting rights or fixed maturity dates. They have a prior claim on the assets of corporation upon dissolution (company becomes insolvent or goes bankrupt).

Preferred stock carries which of the following traits? (i) Dividends on preferred stock are typically paid on a quarterly basis. (ii) Preferred stockholders have a priority claim on assets of a company upon dissolution over common stockholders. (iii) Preferred stock is issued in relation to the amount of corporate debt carried by the company. (iv) Shareholders of preferred stock have the right to vote for the Board of Directors. [A] I and II [B] I and III [C] II and III [D] II and IV

[A] - Preferred stockholders have a priority claim on assets of the company in the event of failure over common stockholders. Dividends on preferred and on common stock are normally paid quarterly. Preferred shareholders normally do not have voting rights and the level of debt is not correlated to the amount of preferred stock issued by the corporation.

The TWO orders an investor would generally use to protect a profit or limit a loss are: (i) Buy stop (ii) Sell stop (iii) Buy limit (iv) Sell limit [A] I and II [B] I and IV [C] II and III [D] II and IV

[A] - Stop orders are orders to buy or sell at the market price once the security has traded at a specified price, called the stop price or trigger price. The primary purpose of a buy stop is to protect a profit or limit a loss on a short sale. The primary purpose of a sell stop is to protect a profit or limit a loss on a security already bought at a higher price. Stop orders are sometimes called stop loss orders.

When could one expect changes in the net asset value of a mutual fund? [A] When there are changes in the value of securities within the fund's portfolio [B] When customers redeem fund shares [C] When customers exchange fund shares for another fund's shares within the same family [D] When shares of the fund are split

[A] - The Net Asset Value of a fund is calculated by taking the closing market value of all securities in the portfolio plus other assets and cash, minus liabilities and dividing that number by the total number of shares outstanding, therefore the best answer offered would be "A".

The term "spread" in the OTC market refers to the difference between the [A] bid and ask prices of a security. [B] Treasury bill yield and the yield on corporate bonds. [C] market maker's inventory in the security from the opening to the close of the trading day. [D] market price of the security and the price at which a firm would offer the security.

[A] - The term "spread" has different meanings in different contexts. In the OTC securities market it means the difference between the bid and ask (offer) price. For example, if a stock is bid at $50 and offered at $51, the spread is $1. The spread widens or narrows depending on supply and demand.

Which of the following investments allow a maximum contribution limit of 100% of earned income, not to exceed $5500, assuming the investor is less than 50 years of age? [A] A traditional IRA [B] A Keogh Plan [C] A 401(k) Plan [D] An Education IRA

[A] - Traditional IRAs are subject to the stated maximum contribution limits. Additional catch-up contributions are only allowed for those over age 50. The contribution limit for an Education IRA is not linked to earned income. Keogh and 401(k) plans have higher contribution limits.

A RR in California has a client in Colorado. To make trades for the Colorado client, the RR MUST: [A] Be registered in Colorado [B] Obtain the branch manager's approval [C] Keep a letter of authorization on file [D] Transfer the account to the firm's Colorado branch office

[A] - Under Blue Sky Laws registered representatives are required to be registered in the state(s) where their clients reside.

In order to free up time for the registered representatives, a member firm has several non-registered persons telemarket prospective clients with a script. The script states the following: "Good morning, my name is _____ and I'm calling you from Make Money Securities. Our firm expects market increases in ABC Fund, which is offered for sale by our registered representatives. May I connect you with one of our representatives or send you further information?" Which of the following is CORRECT about this situation? [A] Under no circumstances may an unregistered person perform such activities. [B] All actions are permissible except projecting the future return of the ABC Fund. [C] The non-registered persons can perform such actions provided they obtain the appropriate registration within 30 calendar days. [D] As long as registered persons are standing by to take phone calls and the non-registered persons are closely supervised, the situation is acceptable.

[A] - Under no circumstances may non-registered persons make sales calls to prospective clients. There are no exceptions to these rules. Also, it is prohibited to make projections on the performance of a mutual fund.

Which of the following options positions would give the maximum protection when hedging by using options? (i) Long Calls (ii) Short Calls (iii) Long Puts (iv) Short Puts [A] I and III [B] I and IV [C] II and III [D] II and IV

[A] - When looking for maximum protection, long calls and long puts provide the most protection since the only protection a writer can get is the amount of premium received when the option is written.

A common stockholder has all of the following rights except: (A) voting (B) demand dissolution of the company's assets (C) residual claim on the company's assets (D) to examine certain books and records

[B]

One of your clients purchases a callable corporate bond. The bond is callable at 106.55. What will the customer receive if the corporation calls the bonds and the customer tenders them back to the corporation? (A) The customer will receive $1,065.50 for the bond and accrued interest up to the call date will be subtracted from that figure. (B) The customer will receive $1,065.50 for the bond and accrued interest up to the call date will be added to that figure. (C) The customer will receive par value for the bond of $1,000 and will receive $65.50 in accrued interest. (D) The customer will receive par value for the bond of $1,000 and will receive $106.55 in accrued interest.

[B]

A customer buys U.S. Government Bonds Friday, March 6. Regular Way settlement is? (A) Friday, March 6 (B) Monday, March 9 (C) Friday, March 13 (D) Monday, March 16

[B] Regular way settlement for government securities occurs the next business day after trade is issued

A broker/dealer firm has become insolvent. SIPC liquidation procedures have begun. Jill and Jack are married and each of them have individual accounts along with a joint account with each other at the firm. The following are their account balances: Jill's individual account has $275,000 in fully-paid securities Jack's individual account has $265,000 in fully-paid securities Jill and Jack's joint account has $475,000 in fully-paid securities What would SIPC cover in relation to these accounts? (A) SIPC coverage would total $500,000 for the three accounts since the two parties are married. (B) SIPC coverage would pay $275,000 for Jill's account, $265,000 for Jack's account, and $475,000 for the joint account. (C) SIPC coverage would pay $1,500,000 in this case, because each account is insured for $500,000, regardless of the amount held when the broker/dealer firm became insolvent. (D) SIPC would not cover any of these claims.

[B] SIPC covers up to $500k for separate accounts, and $250k for cash claims -------------------------------------------------------- Jill's individual account has $275,000 in fully-paid securities -> fully covered -> +275,000 + Jack's individual account has $265,000 in fully-paid securities -> fully covered -> +265,000 + Jill and Jack's joint account has $475,000 in fully-paid securities -> fully covered -> +475,000

529 Education Savings Plan accounts have all of the following features EXCEPT: [A] Beneficiaries of the 529 education savings accounts can be changed by the owner. [B] Annual contributions to the account can total no more than $2,000. [C] The owner of the account maintains control over the account. [D] As long as withdrawals are qualified, federal income tax does not apply.

[B] - 529 educations savings plan accounts do not have annual limitations on contributions like IRAs and Keogh plans. They are fully controlled by the owner who can change the beneficiary of the account. As well, withdrawals meeting qualification requirements are free from federal income tax.

An RR must explain sales charges to prospective mutual fund clients so that they [A] can negotiate the all sales charges and fees [B] understand breakpoint discounts and maximum charges related to buying mutual fund shares [C] aware of the SEC fees that are included in each mutual fund transaction [D] understand how the RR's commission is generated

[B] - A RR is required to explain sales charges to help the prospect understand the cost of buying shares in the fund at both the maximum sales charge (the Ask price) and at the reduced sales charge that the prospect may be eligible for because of a quantity purchase (breakpoints).

Which of the following BEST describes a call feature? [A] This is a feature of a bond that allows the bond to be converted to common stock at the option of the issuer. [B] A feature that allows the issuer of a bond to redeem the bond ahead of the final maturity date, typically including a premium above face value of the bond and most commonly used when interest rates have decreased. [C] This is a feature of a bond that allows the bond's coupon rate to be adjusted upward or downward in relation to interest rates in the current market. [D] A feature that forces the issuer to redeem a bond ahead of schedule at the option of the bondholder.

[B] - A call feature allows the issuer of a bond to redeem or call in the bond ahead of the bond's final maturity date. If bonds are called, there is typically a premium that is added to the face or par value of the bond to compensate for payout ahead of final maturity. The most common reason that a bond is called is due to a reduction in interest rates, which would allow the issuer to reduce interest costs associated with the debt. Conversion features differ from call features in that they allow the bondholder to convert their bond to common stock. Variable rate bonds can exist, where the bond's coupon rate is adjusted for interest rate fluctuations, but this feature of a bond differs significantly from a call feature. In relation to call features, issuers have control over redemption, not bondholders.

A common stockholder has all of the following rights except: [A] voting [B] demand dissolution of the company's assets [C] residual claim on the company's assets [D] to examine certain books and records

[B] - A common stockholder cannot demand the company to sell off its assets.

A broker-dealer has fired a registered representative (RR) for cause related to a violation of securities regulations. This RR will continue to be subject to FINRA jurisdiction for what period of time following the filing of the Form U-5? [A] 1 year [B] 2 years [C] 3 years [D] 4 years

[B] - A terminated RR (or associated person) will continue to be subject to the jurisdiction of FINRA for two years after the effective date of termination of registration for any violation that occurred while still employed.

Which of the following is generally NOT TRUE in relation to Corporate Commercial Paper? [A] Commercial paper is normally offered in book-entry form. [B] Commercial paper is normally issued in callable form. [C] Commercial paper is normally sold at a discount. [D] Commercial paper is normally unsecured debt of a corporation.

[B] - Commercial paper represents unsecured, short-term debt of a corporation. Generally it is sold in book-entry form at a discount and redeemed at face value on a specified date. Commercial paper is NOT normally issued as callable.

Mr. Smith advises his registered representative to sell 300 shares of his ABC common stock whenever the price is right. Later that day ABC starts to move up and the RR enters a market order to sell the stock. Which of the following statements is true? [A] The RR was in violation because he did not have written discretionary authority for this customer. [B] The RR handled the order appropriately since the only decisions required were related to time and price. [C] The RR should have sought the approval of a supervisory person prior to entering the order. [D] The RR should have refused to take the order and asked the customer to call him back later in the day to see where the stock was trading.

[B] - Decisions as to "time and price" only DO NOT require written discretionary authority, therefore the RR handled the situation appropriately.

The manager of Introducing Broker/Dealer wants to thank the manager at Clearing Broker/Dealer for their assistance with some increased trading volume as of late. Which of the following gifts is permissible under FINRA Rules if limited to once annually? [A] Two front-row seats to an upcoming concert, valued at $175 per seat. [B] A gift card to a local sporting goods store for exactly $100. [C] A nice, lined rain jacket embroidered with Introducing Broker/Dealer's logo, valued at $145. [D] A fly-fishing rod/reel combo for an upcoming fishing trip, valued at $450.

[B] - FINRA Rules permit gifts of up to $100 annually, so the gift card to the local sporting goods store is within those guidelines. Each of the other gifts exceeds the $100 limitation.

A day trader of blue chip common stocks would be most concerned with which of the following risks? [A] purchasing power risk [B] timing risk [C] default risk [D] interest rate risk

[B] - Generally day traders are most concerned with timing.

A client recently purchased a sizeable number of mutual fund shares and knows that the Net Asset Value will change daily. The customer asks the RR how the NAV number is computed. Which of the following best describes the computation to arrive at NAV per share? (A) NAV per share is calculated by finding the average value on a per share basis over the previous quarter. (B) NAV per share is calculated by subtracting the liabilities of the fund from the total assets of the fund, then dividing this number by the total number of shares currently outstanding. (C) NAV per share is calculated by taking the total value of the portfolio of the fund, adding sales charges received, and then dividing this figure by the total number of shares currently outstanding. (D) NAV per share is calculated by finding the total appreciation of the portfolio and dividing this figure by the total number of shares outstanding.

[B] - NAV = net assets / total outstanding stock

Mr. Smith, your client, has maintained about 80% of his portfolio in fixed income securities. Interest rates are expected to decline over the next 12 month period. Mr. Smith calls you because he is concerned about this prediction and his portfolio. Which of the following recommendations would be appropriate for you to give to Mr. Smith? [A] Move 50% of his portfolio into equity securities [B] Leave his portfolio the way it is now [C] Move 60% of his portfolio into Money Market funds [D] Move 25% of his portfolio into Limited Partnerships

[B] - Of the choices offered the best choice would be to leave his portfolio in fixed income securities. If interest rates decline the value of his bonds will go up and his overall portfolio value will increase. He also would be able to continue to receive the income from the coupons on the bonds he currently owns.

Common stockholders have all of the following rights EXCEPT: [A] attend the issuer's annual meeting [B] vote for the senior management of the company [C] Assign the right to vote for directors to another person [D] receive a pro rata share of the remaining assets upon liquidation of the company

[B] - Officers and senior management are selected by the Board of Directors, not the stockholders.

When a bond is trading at a discount, the current yield on the bond is: [A] unrelated to its yield to maturity [B] less than its yield to maturity [C] equal to its yield to maturity [D] more than its yield to maturity

[B] - On a discounted bond, current yield is always going to be less than yield to maturity (YTM) because YTM includes the value of the future cash flows from the interest payments and principal, while current yield only focuses on the current year's coupon payment and the current market price.

A basis point equals: (A) 1/1000 of 1% (B) 1/100 of 1% (C) 1/10 of 1% (D) 1%

[B] - One basis point is 0.01% therefore == 0.0001 or 1/100 of 1% A basis point equals 1/100 of 1% (i.e., .01%). Thus, 100 basis points equal 1%. It is the smallest measure in quoting yields on bills, notes, and bonds. For example, if a bond's yield increased from 7% to 7.40%, it has 40 basis points.

A customer buys U.S. Government Bonds Friday, March 6. Regular Way settlement is? [A] Friday, March 6 [B] Monday, March 9 [C] Friday, March 13 [D] Monday, March 16

[B] - Regular Way settlement for U. S. Government securities is the next business day after trade date.

A broker/dealer firm has become insolvent. SIPC liquidation procedures have begun. Jill and Jack are married and each of them have individual accounts along with a joint account with each other at the firm. The following are their account balances: Jill's individual account has $275,000 in fully-paid securities Jack's individual account has $265,000 in fully-paid securities Jill and Jack's joint account has $475,000 in fully-paid securities What would SIPC cover in relation to these accounts? [A] SIPC coverage would total $500,000 for the three accounts since the two parties are married. [B] SIPC coverage would pay $275,000 for Jill's account, $265,000 for Jack's account, and $475,000 for the joint account. [C] SIPC coverage would pay $1,500,000 in this case, because each account is insured for $500,000, regardless of the amount held when the broker/dealer firm became insolvent. [D] SIPC would not cover any of these claims.

[B] - SIPC coverage handles the amounts within an account at the time the broker/dealer becomes insolvent. This would mean that Jill and Jack would be fully covered for the amounts in their individual accounts, and the joint account would also be fully covered, since the maximum coverage is $500,000 per separate customer. SIPC does not pay $500,000 to each account when the total value of the account is less than $500,000 in the account.

All of the following are defensive except: [A] automobile repair service [B] tool and die manufacturer [C] natural gas supplier [D] Supermarket chain

[B] - Service companies, public utilities, and supermarket chains would be less subject to react to changes in the economy, making these products/services defensive. Manufacturing, such as tool and die companies are typically more cyclical and not considered defensive.

One of your clients refers a friend. After talking with the referred friend, she opens an account with you, deposits $20,000, and states that she wants you choose some stocks that will have good growth potential whenever you feel it is the right time to buy. The next step you should take would be to: [A] choose appropriate stocks, execute the orders, and report the transactions back to the new customer. [B] get written discretionary authorization from her prior to executing any transactions. [C] advise her that she needs to pick the stocks and enter the orders herself using the firm's online trading platform. [D] check with your original client to obtain his assessment of her risk tolerance prior to executing orders in the new client's account.

[B] - Since this client did not indicate the stocks and number of shares she wants to buy and wants the RR to make that decision the next step the RR would take would be to get written discretionary authorization from the client prior to executing any orders.

In preparation for a Secondary distribution a member firm decides to make purchases on the floor which would cause the price of the stock to rise so that the secondary distribution could be made at a higher price. Such activity is [A] allowed since anyone is allowed to enter buy orders [B] prohibited as market manipulation is not allowed [C] allowed if complete disclosure is made to the public [D] allowed if there are sufficient pre-sale orders received

[B] - Such activity would be considered to market manipulation and is prohibited under securities industry regulations.

Which of the following statements is FALSE when discussing the Federal Funds Rate? [A] Changes to the supply of money and demand for money cause fluctuations in the federal funds rate. [B] The Federal Reserve directly sets the Federal Funds Rate. [C] Historically, the discount rate has been lower than the Federal Funds Rate. [D] The calculation of the Federal Funds Rate takes place daily.

[B] - The Federal Funds Rate is set by banks that have met their reserve requirement and have excess funds which can be loaned to other banks who fall short of meeting their reserve requirements. The rate is NOT set by the FED.

A client recently purchased a sizeable number of mutual fund shares and knows that the Net Asset Value will change daily. The customer asks the RR how the NAV number is computed. Which of the following best describes the computation to arrive at NAV per share? [A] NAV per share is calculated by finding the average value on a per share basis over the previous quarter. [B] NAV per share is calculated by subtracting the liabilities of the fund from the total assets of the fund, then dividing this number by the total number of shares currently outstanding. [C] NAV per share is calculated by taking the total value of the portfolio of the fund, adding sales charges received, and then dividing this figure by the total number of shares currently outstanding. [D] NAV per share is calculated by finding the total appreciation of the portfolio and dividing this figure by the total number of shares outstanding.

[B] - The net asset value of a fund reflects the closing value of all shares in the fund's portfolio and is calculated by taking the total assets of the fund, minus the total liabilities, divided by the total number of outstanding shares.

Eurodollars are BEST described with which of the following statements? [A] Eurodollars are the currency of a group of European countries. [B] Eurodollars represent currency of the U.S. that is currently being held in foreign (non-U.S.) banks. [C] Eurodollars represent currency of a group of European countries that are held in domestic banks (banks in the U.S.). [D] Eurodollars represent currency that may only be traded in European markets.

[B] - The term "Eurodollar" represents U.S. currency that is currently being held in a foreign bank (banks outside of the U.S.). Historically, Eurodollars are mostly found in European banks and are used to settle foreign transactions.

One of your clients purchases a callable corporate bond. The bond is callable at 106.55. What will the customer receive if the corporation calls the bonds and the customer tenders them back to the corporation? [A] The customer will receive $1,065.50 for the bond and accrued interest up to the call date will be subtracted from that figure. [B] The customer will receive $1,065.50 for the bond and accrued interest up to the call date will be added to that figure. [C] The customer will receive par value for the bond of $1,000 and will receive $65.50 in accrued interest. [D] The customer will receive par value for the bond of $1,000 and will receive $106.55 in accrued interest.

[B] - This is an example of a corporate bond being quoted as a percentage of par. The 106.55 is the equivalent of 106.55% of the par value of $1,000. This means that the bond's call value is $1,065.50 (1.0655 x 1,000) or ($10 X 106.55 = $1,065.50). The bond will be called at this call price and on top of that, the investor can expect to receive any accrued interest that would be due at the date of call on top of the call price.

One of your clients placed a trade in their cash account without the funds to pay for the securities. No additional funds were added to the account and no extension was obtained for additional time to deposit funds. The firm liquidates the purchased position. In order to comply with Reg T guidelines, the customer's account must be frozen for what amount of time? [A] The account must be frozen for 180 days. [B] The account must be frozen for 90 days. [C] The account must be frozen for 30 days. [D] The account need not be frozen.

[B] - Under Regulation T, when a security is purchased in an account and the funds are not available to pay for the securities at settlement, no extension has been granted, and the position has been liquidated, the account must be frozen for 90 days.

Which of the following are true about the purchase of variable annuities? [A] The monthly premium varies. [B] The monthly payout varies. [C] The monthly premium is voluntary. [D] The monthly payout is fixed.

[B] - When purchasing variable annuities the monthly pay out after annuitization varies and the monthly premium during the accumulation period is fixed.

Common stockholders have all of the following rights EXCEPT: (A) attend the issuer's annual meeting (B) vote for the senior management of the company (C) Assign the right to vote for directors to another person (D) receive a pro rata share of the remaining assets upon liquidation of the company

[B] - right to vote on Board of Directors not senior management

The filing of a SAR (Suspicious Activity Report) may be required for which TWO of the following? I. A $10,000 personal check deposited into an account annually II. A quarterly direct deposit for $7,000 into an account III. The deposit of a cashier's check once every other week for $9,000 IV. Wire transfers into and out of an account at frequent intervals (A) I & II (B) II & III (C) III & IV (D) I & IV

[C]

Which of the following statements about REPOs (Repurchase Agreements) is FALSE? (A) Typically REPOs denominations start at a minimum of $1,000,000. (B) REPOs are considered money market instruments. (C) REPOs are often thought of as risk-free investments. (D) REPOs typically have maturities of less than three months.

[C]

Which of the following statements by an RR is TRUE regarding dividends? [A] "It is possible for a long-term equity anticipation security to pay dividends." [B] "An investor can expect to receive dividends on the underlying security in the event that they own a call option." [C] "An investor who owns an American Depositary Receipt can expect to receive dividends from their investment when declared and paid." [D] "When an investor owns a warrant or right, they are entitled to receive dividends in accordance with these securities."

[C]

Form letters, telemarketing scripts, and seminar texts are examples of: [A] Correspondence [B] Advertisements [C] Sales literature [D] Educational material

[C] - "Sales literature" is defined as marketing material where the recipients can be targeted and the firm can control who receives the materials. "Advertisements" are marketing materials where the firm cannot control who receives the information and cannot designate or specify a target audience.

Which of the following would be the MOST typical portfolio make up for a mutual fund that is categorized as "balanced"? [A] A portfolio consisting of bonds that are all investment grade [B] A portfolio consisting of municipal bonds with diversified ratings and maturities [C] A portfolio consisting of equity securities such as common and preferred, along with bonds from various issuers including government, municipal, and corporate [D] A portfolio consisting of large-cap "blue chip" equity securities

[C] - A Balance Mutual Fund is considered to be the most conservative and least volatile type of fund because it invests in various bond issues, preferred stocks, and common stocks.

The agreement that authorizes a broker-dealer to pledge a customer's margin securities as collateral for a loan from a bank to the broker-dealer is called: [A] A credit agreement [B] A loan consent agreement [C] A hypothecation agreement [D] A joint account agreement

[C] - A hypothecation agreement between a broker-dealer and a customer pledges the customer's securities to cover margin loans and authorizes the broker-dealer to pledge the same securities to a bank to collateralize a broker's loan.

When an investor in the U.S. owns an ADR (American Depositary Receipt), what does that mean? [A] It means that the investor owns U.S. bank-issued CDs (Certificates of Deposit). [B] It means that the investor has an equity position in an U.S. company, but that equity position is not tied to common stock. [C] It means that the investor holds a certificate representing ownership of a foreign company which is held by a custodian who is a third party to the ownership. [D] It means that the investor holds U.S. index fund shares.

[C] - ADRs (American Depositary Receipts) are certificates that represent ownership of a foreign company by a U.S. investor. The stock of the company is typically held by a third-party bank in the foreign country where the stock was issued or in another foreign country.

Which of the following statements by an RR is TRUE regarding dividends? [A] "It is possible for a long-term equity anticipation security to pay dividends." [B] "An investor can expect to receive dividends on the underlying security in the event that they own a call option." [C] "An investor who owns an American Depositary Receipt can expect to receive dividends from their investment when declared and paid." [D] "When an investor owns a warrant or right, they are entitled to receive dividends in accordance with these securities."

[C] - ADRs can pay dividends. Each of the other items listed do NOT pay dividends. They may have underlying securities which pay dividends, but exercise of the derivative along with ownership of the security must take place. Warrants, Rights, and options do not pay dividends.

Which of the following is TRUE of an open-end investment company? [A] The transfer agent selects the fund's Investment Advisor. [B] Shareholders of a given fund can vote to list on an exchange. [C] Capital gains must be distributed to shareholders on an annual basis. [D] Undistributed capital gains are taxable to the investment company.

[C] - All capital gains must be distributed to shareholders at least annually. Some funds choose to pay monthly or quarterly, but in any case, 100% of capital gains are distributed to shareholders.

In 2018, an attorney who is not an active participant in a retirement plan earns $150,000 annually and the attorney's spouse is unemployed. The maximum tax deduction allowed under IRA Federal Tax rules is? [A] $5,500 [B] $2,000 [C] $11,000 [D] $3,000

[C] - An IRA for an eligible unemployed spouse: The maximum deductible contribution is $11,000.00 ($5,500.00 per person).

A customer contributes the maximum $2,000 to an educational savings account which can be used for elementary, secondary and higher education costs. With these features in mind, this account is most likely what type? [A] Roth IRA [B] Pre-paid tuition plan [C] Coverdell Account [D] 529 Plan

[C] - An educational saving account which can be used for elementary, secondary and higher education costs with a maximum annual contribution limit per beneficiary of $2,000 is a Coverdell Account.

Customers of member firms are required to receive statements of their accounts at a MINIMUM of [A] weekly. [B] monthly. [C] quarterly. [D] semi-annually.

[C] - FINRA Rule 2340 requires that customers must receive account statements at least QUARTERLY.

All of the following are true regarding IRA contributions EXCEPT: [A] Although a tax return is filed prior to April 15th, the IRA contribution may be delayed until April 15th. [B] Contributions may be made at any time between January 1st and April 15th of the following year. [C] If an extension for a tax return is obtained, the IRA contribution may be delayed until the date the tax return is filed. [D] Persons not participating in any other type of retirement plan may deduct their IRA contributions up to certain limits.

[C] - If an extension is granted for the filing of a tax return, the IRA contribution must still be made no later than April 15th.

A pharmaceutical company plans to release a new drug next month. Prior to the release, one of your clients buys 1,000 shares. Two weeks prior to the release, the FDA publicly announces a delay in the approval of the drug. Your customer's shares drop approximately 20% in value. Which of the following types of risk is BEST represented by this scenario? [A] This is an example of re-investment risk. [B] This is an example of market or systematic risk. [C] This is an example of legislative or regulatory risk. [D] This is an example of unsystematic or business risk.

[C] - In this situation, the risk most represented would be legislative risk. Legislative risk or regulatory risk is risk which is related to changes in laws or regulations, as well as examples such as this, a delay by the FDA. The company has no control over the FDA, and thus the reduction in price of the company's stock is directly attributed to the risk assumed due to regulations and the delay by the FDA.

The filing of a SAR (Suspicious Activity Report) may be required for which TWO of the following? I. A $10,000 personal check deposited into an account annually II. A quarterly direct deposit for $7,000 into an account III. The deposit of a cashier's check once every other week for $9,000 IV. Wire transfers into and out of an account at frequent intervals [A] I & II [B] II & III [C] III & IV [D] I & IV

[C] - Of the choices offered the two which seem to be the MOST suspicious would be the cashier's checks just under the $10,000 limit several times a month and the wire transfers. The direct deposit and the personal check deposited once a year are not as suspicious.

An investor, Mrs. Smith, is seeking a mutual fund offering a high yield. Which of the following is the best choice for Mrs. Smith? [A] Aggressive Growth Fund [B] Hedge Fund [C] Income Fund [D] Emerging Growth Fund

[C] - Of the choices offered, the income fund would offer the best "yield". A Growth fund would offer more capital appreciation (low yield). Hedge Funds are not a type of mutual fund - they are in a class by themselves and are sold to institutional and accredited investors.

An investor, Mrs. Smith, is seeking a mutual fund offering a high yield. Which of the following is the best choice for Mrs. Smith? [A] Aggressive Growth Fund [B] Hedge Fund [C] Income Fund [D] Emerging Growth Fund

[C] - Of the choices offered, the income fund would offer the best "yield". A Growth fund would offer more capital appreciation. Hedge Funds are not a type of mutual fund - they are in a class by themselves and are sold to institutional and accredited investors.

Regular Way Settlement for corporate securities such as common stocks, preferred stocks, and bonds is: [A] Same day as trade date [B] Trade date plus one business day [C] Trade date plus two business days [D] Trade date plus three business days

[C] - Regular-way settlement on corporate and municipal securities is Trade Date Plus Three Business Days (T+2). The former rule was T+3. Regulation T Settlement is T+4, formerly T+5.

When an investor regularly trades in and out of five or six different stocks daily and does not maintain any positions over night would be a: [A] Programmed Trader [B] Specialist [C] Manager [D] Pattern Day Trader

[D] - Pattern Day Traders do not maintain positions overnight and are in and out of stock positions daily.

A Registered Representative thoroughly reads a preliminary prospectus and then writes a brief review of the prospectus which he wants to send to clients he believes are suitable. [A] This may only be done with the Branch Office manager's approval. [B] This may be done without restriction. [C] This may only be done with the approval of a supervisory analyst. [D] This may not be done under any circumstances.

[D] - Preliminary Prospectus must be sent w/o any attachments or anything with it

A customer calls their RR. Which of the following statements by the customer would allow the RR to take action in effecting a transaction for the customer? [A] "I'm in the market for some of that new IPO that we discussed, so if you ever see it under $50 per share, buy 150 shares for me." [B] "I think a mutual fund of some kind would be a good addition to my portfolio. Go ahead and find one and buy it for me." [C] "When you think that the price is right today, buy 200 shares of ABC for me." [D] "I've got some shares of MNO that I'd like to get rid of some time later this month. Sell 50 shares of MNO later this month, but for nothing less than $25 per share."

[C] - The only instructions that would be acceptable would be the instructions that give the broker "time and price" discretion only. Time and price discretion is only good for the day the instructions are given. All of the other statements would require the client to sign over discretionary authority to the RR.

A market maker is quoting ABCD common stock, a NASDAQ security. The spread in this security is best described as the difference between [A] the dealer's cost and the sale price with the mark-up [B] the dealer's cost and the quoted bid price [C] the dealer's quoted bid and ask price [D] the highest bid and the highest ask of all market makers

[C] - The spread in a market maker's quote is the difference between the quoted bid and ask price published by the market maker, which is based on the current value of the stock, not the market maker's cost.

The following quote appears on a consolidated tape: XYZ P 25.13 + .25 B 25 A 25.25 How much should you expect to pay to buy 100 shares? [A] $25 per share [B] $25.13 per share [C] $25.25 per share [D] $25.38 per share

[C] - This is a quote from the consolidated tape. "XYZ" is the symbol for the company's security. "P" means that the last trade was on The Pacific Stock Exchange. $25.13 was the last trade price for a round lot (100 shares). That trade was .25 higher than the previous trade. "B" is the bid price of $25 and "A" is the ask price of $25.25.

Which of the following statements about REPOs (Repurchase Agreements) is FALSE? [A] Typically REPOs denominations start at a minimum of $1,000,000. [B] REPOs are considered money market instruments. [C] REPOs are often thought of as risk-free investments. [D] REPOs typically have maturities of less than three months.

[C] - Though REPOs have a very low level of risk, they are not considered "risk free" or "riskless" investments. All of the other statements about REPOs are true.

When a company calls an issue of bonds, all of the following would typically be FALSE EXCEPT: [A] The ratio of debt to net worth will increase. [B] The company's credit rating will be reduced. [C] The holders of called bonds will receive the face value of the bond plus a call premium. [D] The holders of called bonds will be able to reinvest and receive a higher coupon.

[C] - Typically when a bond is called prior to its maturity due to a call feature, the bond holders will receive a premium over the face value of the bonds as a means of compensation for the early call (e.g., A bond with a face value of 100 and a final maturity in 10 years is callable this year. The company may pay 102 or 103 on the call to compensate them for the early call).

When an investor buys a call option, regardless of whether it is an Equity or Stock Index option, the maximum risk or loss potential to the investor is the [A] premium that was paid for the contract plus any out-of-the-money amount [B] premium that was paid for the contract less the in-the-money amount [C] premium that was paid for the contract [D] exercise price on the contract plus the premium paid for the contract

[C] - When an investor buys an option (put or call) on a stock index or equity security, the maximum loss potential to that investor is the cost of the premium paid for the option (limited loss potential).

A client has held a long position in BCD Common for several years and has seen a sizeable increase in price since initially buying the stock. The client fears that BCD is headed for a slight downturn in price and wishes to protect the profits that he holds from the previous increase. Which option strategy provides the MAXIMUM protection for this client? [A] This client would be best suited by buying calls on BCD. [B] This client would be best suited by selling calls on BCD. [C] This client would be best suited by buying puts on BCD. [D] This client would be best suited by selling puts on BCD.

[C] - When looking for the "maximum" or "best" protection for an existing position, one would always end up being a buyer when using options strategies. In this case, the investor fears a downturn, so this investor would want downside protection. This makes buying puts on BCD the best option strategy for protection of the profits already seen from the appreciation.

All of the following are true regarding IRA contributions EXCEPT: (A) Although a tax return is filed prior to April 15th, the IRA contribution may be delayed until April 15th. (B) Contributions may be made at any time between January 1st and April 15th of the following year. (C) If an extension for a tax return is obtained, the IRA contribution may be delayed until the date the tax return is filed. (D) Persons not participating in any other type of retirement plan may deduct their IRA contributions up to certain limits.

[C] - even if extension is granted, contributions may not be made past April 15 or risk being in the next tax year

Jane left the securities industry 5 years ago to raise her two children. The children are now in school full time and Jane has decided to go back to work at the same broker-dealer where she previously worked. Which of the following is true regarding Jane's registration status with the firm? (A) If Jane's firm paid the annual registration fees, Jane's license would still be valid and she could come back to work without having to take the qualification exams again, provided she kept up with the continuing education requirements of her license. (B) If Jane's firm paid the annual registration fees, Jane's license would still be valid and she could come back to work without having to take the qualification exams again but she would be required to complete the continuing education requirements to reactive her license. (C) Jane's licenses would have remained valid since she always intended to come back to work after her children went to school full time and had an agreement in place to come back to work at the firm. (D) Jane's licenses have lapsed and she will be required to take the qualification exams again.

[D]

SEC Rule 144A permits the resale of non registered securities to all of the following EXCEPT: (A) insurance companies (B) banks (C) mutual funds (D) individuals

[D]

Which TWO of the following would be affected by a corporation's decision to declare a split in the corporation's common stock? (i) The corporation's working capital would be affected by such a decision. (ii) The corporation's retained earnings would be affected by such a decision. (iii) The common stock's market price would be affected by such a decision. (iv) The common stock's par value would be affected by such a decision. (A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and IV (D) III and IV

[D]

When a customer opens a margin account at a broker/dealer, they are required to sign certain documents. Which of the following best describes the agreement between the customer and the broker/dealer related to the terms and conditions of financing involved in purchasing on margin? (A) This is covered in the customer's new account form. (B) This is covered in a consent by the client to the loan from the broker/dealer. (C) This is covered in the customer's hypothecation agreement. (D) This is covered in the Credit Agreement for a line of credit with the customer.

[D] -

Which of the following would NOT be considered to be a Money Market Instrument? [A] Jumbo Certificates of Deposit [B] Bankers Acceptances [C] Treasury Bills [D] ADRs (American Depositary Receipts)

[D] - A Money Market Instrument would have a maturity of 12 months or less and includes CD's, Bankers Acceptances, Commercial Paper and Treasury Bills. American Depositary Receipts trade like common stock and do not have set maturities.

Good-till cancelled orders have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: [A] They will be confirmed or renewed periodically [B] They are permitted for round lots and odd lots [C] They are also called open orders [D] They are permitted for common stock only

[D] - A good-till cancelled order (a.k.a. an open order) is a customer's order to buy a security, usually at a particular price, that remains in effect until executed or cancelled. GTC orders can be entered on Common Stock, Preferred Stock, Bonds and Options therefore choice "D" is incorrect.

Which of the following accurately describes a secondary offering or secondary distribution? [A] An offering of securities that remained after an initial public offering that was not fully sold [B] A rights offering of primary shares that would take place after the completion of an initial public offering [C] Transactions that take place within an underwriting syndicate before shares are actually made available to the public [D] An offering in the secondary market of securities owned by one or more major owners wishing to sell large volumes of their shares.

[D] - A secondary offering or secondary distribution is the redistribution or sale of a large block of securities held by one or more major shareholders who wish to sell a large volume of shares. Large shareholders are often restricted in the amount of shares that can be sold through normal channels in the secondary market. A registered secondary offering provides the opportunity for these individuals to sell larger volumes of shares than what may be permitted through normal secondary market trades.

Mr. Jones has a conservative investing approach. He has a large portfolio of blue chip common stocks and wants to use options to receive additional income from the portfolio. Which of the following would be the MOST suitable recommendation for Mr. Jones? (A) Buy Puts options on the portfolio of securities (B) Write Put options on the portfolio of securities (C) Buy Call options on the portfolio of securities (D) Write Call options on the portfolio of securities

[D] - Conservative -> should only write covered calls

A broker explaining a Section 529 College Savings Plan to clients who are the parents of a college bound child who are interested in making advance provision for the costs of college should disclose all of the following characteristics of such plans EXCEPT: [A] Although contributions to these plans are not tax deductible for federal income tax purposes, any annual earnings and qualified withdrawals are tax free. [B] Although these plans are not mutual funds, many offer mutual funds as investment options. [C] These plans typically charge enrollment fees, annual maintenance fees, asset management fees and sales charges for broker sold plans. [D] The maximum contribution limit can be set at more than $200,000 .depending on the state and the contribution is exempt from federal gift taxes.

[D] - Contributions to a Education Savings Plan are not exempt from federal gift taxes. However, the donor may take advantage of the annual gift tax exclusion of $14,000 per student or $28,000.per student if the donor's spouse joins in the gift, as of 2014. Also, five years of future exclusions can be advanced into the current year in which case the exclusion would be $70,000.or $140,000, respectively. All of the other question choices are correct and should be disclosed to the parents.

Trading stock on the basis of inside information would violate SEC rules in which of the following cases? (i) The manager of the company's accounting department (ii) The daughter-in-law of the corporate secretary (iii) The husband of the corporate president (iv) An attorney who at times handles the company's legal work [A] III [B] II and III [C] I, II, and III [D] All of the above

[D] - Insider Trading applies to anyone that trades securities based on inside non-public information.

When an investor buys either a corporate or municipal bond, how frequently is interest paid? [A] Interest is paid every week. [B] Interest is paid every month. [C] Interest is paid on a quarterly basis. [D] Interest is paid on a semi-annual basis.

[D] - Interest on both corporate and municipal bonds is normally paid semi-annually. Remember it is dividend payments that are made quarterly.

A Registered Representative thoroughly reads a preliminary prospectus and then writes a brief review of the prospectus which he wants to send to clients he believes are suitable. [A] This may only be done with the Branch Office manager's approval. [B] This may be done without restriction. [C] This may only be done with the approval of a supervisory analyst. [D] This may not be done under any circumstances.

[D] - Preliminary prospectus' must be sent to clients without any attachment, comment or review.

SEC rule 415 allows "Shelf Registration." This permits one registration statement to cover all securities to be issued during the next: [A] Six months. [B] One year. [C] Two years. [D] Three years.

[D] - Rule 415 used to permit one registration statement to cover all securities to be issued during the next two years until it was amended in 2005 and the standard was set at three years.

SEC Rule 144A permits the resale of non registered securities to all of the following EXCEPT: [A] insurance companies [B] banks [C] mutual funds [D] individuals

[D] - SEC Rule 144A permits the sale of restricted securities to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIB's) but not individual investors.

Mr. Jones has a conservative investing approach. He has a large portfolio of blue chip common stocks and wants to use options to receive additional income from the portfolio. Which of the following would be the MOST suitable recommendation for Mr. Jones? [A] Buy Puts options on the portfolio of securities [B] Write Put options on the portfolio of securities [C] Buy Call options on the portfolio of securities [D] Write Call options on the portfolio of securities

[D] - Since he has a conservative investment approach, he should only be advised to write covered call options as this is the MOST conservative of all the four choices.

When a customer opens a margin account at a broker/dealer, they are required to sign certain documents. Which of the following best describes the agreement between the customer and the broker/dealer related to the terms and conditions of financing involved in purchasing on margin? [A] This is covered in the customer's new account form. [B] This is covered in a consent by the client to the loan from the broker/dealer. [C] This is covered in the customer's hypothecation agreement. [D] This is covered in the Credit Agreement for a line of credit with the customer.

[D] - The agreement from the broker/dealer which must be signed by the client related to the terms and conditions of financing involved in a margin account would be the Credit agreement. A separate agreement called the Hypothecation Agreement discloses that securities purchased on margin may be pledged by the broker-dealer as collateral in order to finance such margin accounts. In the "real world" the Credit Agreement is normally rolled into the Margin Agreement, therefore the customer signing the Margin Agreement serves as the Credit Agreement.

What happens when an RR FAILS to complete the regulatory element of continuing education? [A] The RR will only be cut off from receiving commissions. [B] The RR only must stop prospecting and soliciting new clients. [C] The RR will automatically be terminated from their position. [D] The RR must immediately stop performing all activities which require the RR to be registered.

[D] - This question is tough, because you must read ALL of the answers. Answer "D" is the best answer, because it most accurately describes what must occur. The RR must stop all activities which require registration, not just one or two.

Under FINRA rules, in which of the following situations would a member be permitted to give a gift to another member? [A] The member gives another member two tickets to a play valued at $75 each. [B] Gifts are prohibited. [C] The member gives another member ten $20 gifts during the year. [D] The member gives another member one gift for the year valued at $100.

[D] - Under FINRA Rule 3220, members may give other members gifts for a total value of $100 over the course of the entire year.

Which TWO of the following would be affected by a corporation's decision to declare a split in the corporation's common stock? (i) The corporation's working capital would be affected by such a decision. (ii) The corporation's retained earnings would be affected by such a decision. (iii) The common stock's market price would be affected by such a decision. (iv) The common stock's par value would be affected by such a decision. [A] I and II [B] I and III [C] II and IV [D] III and IV

[D] - When a corporation declares a split in common stock, the par value and market price of the common will change. Retained earnings and working capital are not affected by a stock split because the actual value of all common stock is not affected, only the prices of such securities (e.g., a 2 for 1 split of $100 per share stock would result in two $50 shares which is equal to $100).

Jane left the securities industry 5 years ago to raise her two children. The children are now in school full time and Jane has decided to go back to work at the same broker-dealer where she previously worked. Which of the following is true regarding Jane's registration status with the firm? [A] If Jane's firm paid the annual registration fees, Jane's license would still be valid and she could come back to work without having to take the qualification exams again, provided she kept up with the continuing education requirements of her license. [B] If Jane's firm paid the annual registration fees, Jane's license would still be valid and she could come back to work without having to take the qualification exams again but she would be required to complete the continuing education requirements to reactive her license. [C] Jane's licenses would have remained valid since she always intended to come back to work after her children went to school full time and had an agreement in place to come back to work at the firm. [D] Jane's licenses have lapsed and she will be required to take the qualification exams again.

[D] - When a registered person leaves a firm, a U-5 Form is filed and that person has 2 years from the date of the U-5 to reinstate their license without having to test again. Since Jane was out of the business for 5 years, she would be required to re-qualify.

An investor wants to exchange shares of one fund with shares of another fund that is within the same family of funds. Which of the following is NOT an important consideration when making such an exchange? [A] The fund's investment objectives [B] The investment risk profile of the fund [C] Tax consequences [D] The sales load of the new fund

[D] - When doing a conversion or switching of shares within the same family there would generally not be any sales load imposed; therefore, sales load would not be a consideration.

An investor, whose investment objective is speculation, would MOSTLY be concerned with which of the following? [A] Their exposure to reinvestment risk [B] Their exposure to currency risk [C] Their exposure to interest rate risk [D] Their exposure to capital risk

[D] - When purchasing speculative investments, your biggest risk is going to be capital risk. Capital risk is the risk that the investor may lose all or part of the principal invested. When investing in highly speculative companies, this risk is amplified because of the business risk of the underlying company.