SLAMPIG

What are the 6 missions of assault support escort operations?

1. Protection from Fixed Wing threat. 2. Protection from Rotary wing threat. 3. Protection from Ground fire. 4. Route reconnaissance. 5. Clearing the landing zone by fire. 6. Support of a downed aircraft.

List all HF backscatter avoidance techniques

1. Rotate 2-3º into missile 2. Use LOAL Dir w/ min delay 3. Change Designator 4. Change Target 5. Change Position (Relocate)

What are the four categories of mission precedence?

1. Routine: Admin or tactical, time not critical 2. Priority: Delay will jeopardize mission success and loss of material. 3. Emergency: Safety of US or friendly personnel, immediate transport of vital supplies. 4. Mandatory: Possible loss of life/national prestige, normally unacceptable risks are taken

Descibe TSS cuing for 3D, 2D, ADL.

3D: cues on all axis. 2D: cues two dimensionally (no elevation change). ADL: where ADL is pointed.

The Jaybird and Highlark are ____ generation FSU AI Radars

3rd

The TSS is a ____ generation _____ wave FLIR, consisting of Focal plane array of _____ horizontal and _____ vertical ______ detectors.

3rd generation. MID wave. 640 x 480 indium antimonide.

A transfer alignment field of merit value of _____ and below are optimal for TSS coordinated Accuracy generation.

4

It is recommended that if there is difficulty getting a boresight to pass that a minimum of ____ be attempted.

4 boresights, system resets after 3

LOBL shots the missile leaves the rail at what degree and skids must be a minimum of ____ feet above the highest terrain within ____ meters of the aircraft.

4 degrees 10 feet above highest terrain 200 meters in front of aircraft.

When the gun disagrees in elevation or azimuth by more than ___ degrees from the mission computer position command signal, the gun reticle flashes and the Mission computer terminates the trigger command.

4 degrees.

After half time of flight the round will have dropped ____ feet. at one time of flight the round will have dropped ____ feet.

4, 16'.

APKWS times of flight.

4,5,8,12,18.

Fram saving may take up to ____ minutes.

4.

With an off board laser from an RQ-7B, AGM-114 employment should not be farther than ____ from the target location.

4.1 kilometers.

Goggle field of view and difference between NVG compatible and friendly lighting.

40 degree. Compatible must fall outside the range. Friendly is visible to both eye and goggles but wont degain.

The elevator will go to the stow position when the helicopter is less than _____ knots and the collective position is less than ____ percent up.

40 knots. 10 percent.

When RIPPLE is selected on the back of a LAU, one aircraft firing pulse fires all rockets with a ______ millisecond interval.

40 millisecond.

On a moonless night, about ____ percent of the energy is provided by emissions from atoms and molecules in the upper atmosphere known as ____.

40%. Airglow.

LOAL Scan Pattern

40* Horizontal x 12* vertical Relative to missile body

The human eye is sensitive to energy wavelengths between ____ and ____ nanometers.

400 and 700 nanometers.

The I2 tubes are sensitive from ____ to ____ nanometers with peak sensitivity between ____ and ___ nanometers but are effectively filtered for cockpit compatibility below ____.

400 to 950. 600-900 peak. 665.

Total fuel capacity? unusable?

409, 5 gallons, 5 seconds,

HF seeker detector spins at

4200rpm

The hover box may be displayed once the aircraft is slowed below ___ knots and cyclic 9 is pressed.

45 knots.

Max velocity of the missile is ____ meters per second, Mach ____, with an average velocity of ____ meters per second.

475 meters per second. Mach 1.4. 375 meters per second.

The Flashdance and Slotback are _____ generation FSU AI Radars.

4th

At a maximum range of ____, APKWS requires ____ feet of cloud clearance above the launching platform.

5 kilometers 1000'

Recommended holding prior to IP for tiltrotor.

5 nautical miles for tiltrotor.

Fuel available for how long in negative g flight?

5"

Which CSC panel knob controls the volume for threat audio and EW annunciations?

5.

How many clutter levels are available for the HMSD? What boresight error is acceptable?

5. 0,1,2,3,4. .3 degree and below.

Beam Divergence for the TSS

5.9"/km

What do you expect to hear from a JTAC that gives you clearance to fire for a type 3 simulated hellfire engagement?

"C/s Good read backs, cleared to engage, time xxx"

Minimum and Maximum numbers for: LOBL

(0/20 degrees) 500 / 1000m. Max: 7km

LOAL-DIR/Mod-Lo: Min/Max, offset

(0/7.5) 1200/2000 meters minimum 7000 meters maximum If visibility is less than 5 kilometers max seeker offset is 5 degrees.

LOAL-HI max range is ____ kilometers. Min range is ____ meters. To clear a ____ foot mask, min standoff is ____ meters.

(0/7.5) 8 kilometers, 2100 / 3500 meters. 1000' mask, 1500 meters.

Legacy LOAL-LO max range is ____ kilometers. Min range is ____ meters. To clear a ____ foot mask, min standoff is ____ meters.

(0/7.5) 8km max, 1400/2100 meters min. 260', 600 meters

Casualty Classifications

(1, 4, 24) Urgent: Patients require emergency medical within a max of 2 hours. Priority: Patients require prompt care within 4 hours. Routine: Do not require immediate attention, should be evacuated within 24 hours. Convenience.

Danger Close / MSD 20mm 2.75" Rockets

(300. 800, 1500m) 20mm: 45, 95, 155m / 500 2.75": 110, 135, 170 / 700 (HE) 600m (TP)

List the 11 METLs

(6xA TFOCS) Aviation ops from expeditionary sea based sites, Aviation ops from expeditionary shore based sites, Active air defense, AR, AI, Arial escort, TRAP, FAC(A), Offensive Anti-Air Warfare, CAS, SCAR

What do the following symbology mean for the TSS yardstick? (999). 999. (---). (xxx).

(999): estimated, 999: actual, (---): exceeds, and (xxx): cannot be computed.

What are the 3 types of ADA fire that may be encountered?

(ABC) Aimed, Barrage, Curtain

At a minimum, AMCs and flight leaders should consider the following contingencies for escort:

(CATIE) Casevac. Asset attrition. TRAP. Immediate reembark. Emergency Extract.

For flares know: Nomenclature: 1. Pyro type 2. Overt or covert 3. Burn Time: 4. Rise Time: 5. Micron Range: 6. Temperature:

-

The RWS responds to radar signals associated with hostile search, track, and fire control radar in the ____ to ____ frequency bands, spiral antennas. Missile guidance signals in the ____ and ____ bands, blade monopoles.

E - J. C and D.

What are elements of LZ brief?

Elevation. Location. Mark. Obstacles. Winds. Friendlies. Enemies. Remarks.

Conditions for effective CAS

FASTPACE Favorable weather (Environmental Conditions) Air superiority (Control of Air) Streamlined and flexible procedures Target marking and acquisition Planning and integration Appropriate ordnance Command and Control Effective training and proficiency

List mandatory read backs for restrictions:

FAT-DPA Final attack headings. ACAs. TOT. Approval forward of the HA/BP. Post Launch Abort. Danger close with commanders initials.

Which is effected more by moisture in the atmosphere, NVGs or FLIR? What atmospheric molecules affect the most?

FLIR. Water vapor, carbon dioxide, ozone

What is the primary purpose of permissive Fire Support Coordination Methods? Restrictive?

Facilitate the attacks of targets. TO safeguard friendly fires

True or False: With a transfer alignment value of 9 and a TSS boresight of 111, you can NOT accurately provide laser energy for a Hellfire autonomous shot.

False

Dissimilar rocket warheads may be selected for multiple station firing, however, ____ and ____ warheads cannot be selected for firing in combination with any other warhead.

Illumination and flechette.

What are the three major factors that influence NVD performance?

Illumination, terrain contrast, atmospheric obscurations.

DACM Engaged Role Responsibilities

Kill the Bandit Remain Unpredictable Deny the bandit weapons employment Drive the engagement Force the bandit to lose sight Keep Sight of the bandit Clear your own six

DACM Free Role Responsibilities

Kill the bandit Call for Supporting Arms Keep track of the bandit Maintain energy Break phase and plane with the fight Maneuver to direct the flight and disengage Clear engaged six and your own six

Cooling methods for AIM-9

LAU-7 Nitrogen bottle, gives 8 hours continuous LAU-7 PAGS, gives continuous cooling

What are the Hellfire 2 temperature limits?

LOBL: above 125 degrees F, 30 minutes.

ASE Modes

Manual: manually dispense flares and chaff Man+Semi: Auto dispense flares, manual dispense chaff Man+Auto: Auto dispense chaff and flares with appropriate indication

MSEL

Master Scenario Event List

This is defined as the lowest equivalent thermal difference between a target and it's background that can be detected by an observer using the particular FLIR system.

Minimal resolvable temperature difference.

What are the elements of a CAS check in?

Mission Number Number and type of aircraft Position and altitude Ordnance Time on station available Capabilities Abort code

Warheads & fuze combinations: Flechette

Mk 149: Model 113A. WDU-4A/A: Model 113A.

Which smoke rocket has improved cook off characteristics and does not require special handling?

Mk 67 mod 1.

Warhead fuze combinations Smoke and Illumination:

Mk 67: M427, Mk 352 mod 2. M 156: M 427. Illum (M257/M278): M 442.

List the 4 restrictive FSCMs.

NFA: no fire area RFL: restrictive fire line RFA: restrictive fire area ACA: airspace coordination area

TSS Boresight [111] Meaning

Narrow (N), Very Narrow (VN), and TV Narrow good boresights.

List three things required to have HAVEQUICK communications:

Net ID. Time of Day. Word of day or Multiple word of day.

List 4 things required to have SINCGARS communication.

Net ID. Transec. Hopset. Lockout set (if used)

Sensor tasking brevity terms define: Neutral, Offensive, and Defensive.

Neutral: Lead is friendly focused, dash 2 is scanning objective area then back to friendlies. Offensive: Both scan objective area. Defensive: Lead on friendly, dash 2 sanitizes route ahead of friendlies.

If an engine failure is detected based on ____ less than ____ for the failed engine, the torque gauge for the operating engine resets to OEI limits.

Ng. 60 percent.

NUC

Non-Uniformity Correction (1 Touch): occurs any time the sensor goes from standby to operate. Recalibrates FLIR picture & clears up any noise. Can take up to 1 minute.

2.75 inch rocket fuzes are classified according to their location in the warhead. the two classifications are ____ and _____ fuze. Further classified into 3 modes of operation.

Nose. Base. Point detonation. Acceleration/deceleration. Mechanical timing

The Mk 435 is a ____ fuze. It is the Navy IM compliant versions of the ____ and the _____ fuzes. Arming distance is ____ to ____ meters.

Nose/Impact. M423 and M427. 43 to 92 meters. (550-1400')

The Mk 423 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet and time to arm is ____ to ____ seconds.

Nose/impact. 140-300 feet. 0.63 to 0.82 seconds

The M 427 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet and time to arm is ____ to ____ seconds.

Nose/impact. 800 to 1250 feet. 1.09 to 1.34 seconds.

The Mk 352 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet. and time to arm is ____ to ____.

Nose/impact. 800 to 1200 feet. 1.07-1.36 seconds.

AN/APR-39BV2 Software

OFP - 240.1 MDS - 400 series (500 Series for AAQ-45 Mod)

AN/APR-39DV2 Software

OFP - U510 MDS - 400 series (not compatible with AAQ-45)

AN/AAR-47EV2 Software

OFP 42.00

Hellfire firing order.

Outboard to inboard, bottom to top, alternating #1 side to #2 side. Uses entire outboard HML prior to moving to the inboard.

What is the nomenclatures for our overt, covert, and flare simulators?

Overt: MJU-32. Covert: MJU-49B MJU-67 SIM: SM-875A

Phosphor screen uses ____ phosphor that exhibits a primary peak our of ____ which closely matches the peak sensitivity of the eye.

P43 545 nanometers. P45 White Phosphor

What are the three primary internal components of the GEN-3 tubes?

Photocathode, Micro-channel plate, Phosphor screen.

Turret Lockouts

Position Error: 4* Az + El Stops Reached Rockets: 0.5 seconds Hellfire: 1.5 sec + 1.5 sec = 3.0 sec total AIM: 4-5 sec

The AGM-179A precursor warhead contains _______ lbs of __________ and main charge contains __________ lbs of ____________.

Precursor: 1.1lbs PBXN-9 Main Warhead: 6.2lbs PBXN-9

PIM

Pulse Interval Modulation. Pseudo-random pulse train comprising of random pulse spacing.

PRF

Pulse Repetition Frequency. Repetitive Pulse Train.f

List the nomenclature for the following ASE components: RWS, MLWS, and CMDS.

RWS: AN/APR-39BV2 + AN/APR-39DV2 MLWS: AN/AAR-47V2 CMDS: AN/ALE-47

TSS Ranging and Designating Pulses per Second

Ranging = 20 PPS Designating = 10 PPS

State Manpads NATO names

SA-7 Grail SA-14 Gremlin SA-16 Gimlet SA-18 Grouse SA-24 Grinch SA-29 Gizmo QW-1, CSA-7 QW-2, CSA-8 FN-6, CSA-10 QW-18, CSA-11 FN-16, CSA-14

What do the following missile states mean on the Weapons Page? SEL, RDY, SLV, TRK.

SEL: Selected for spin up. RDY: Missile has accepted code. SLV: Slaving TRK: Missile has acquired laser energy and is tracking.

What are the two types of preplanned missions

Scheduled and on call

The Hellfire propulsion section is a _______ stage, ________ thrust ________ propellant motor. Burn time is ___ to ___ seconds, depending on temperature.

Single. Single. Solid. 2. 3.

What is standard timing for a mark prior to TOT for smoke and illumination:

Smoke: minus 30 seconds. Illum: minus 45 seconds.

How does the N-5 differ from the N?

Software change to lower the angle of attack on impact for the LOBL and LOAL-DIR only.

K2A Sleeve Material and Weight

Steel. 4.5lbs.

Fill in 3 track modes for TSS (4 with TRMC). List Tracker and Cue for each.

A: (Air to Air) Centroid, body. G: (Air to Ground) Centroid, Terrain. U: (Urban) Correlation, Terrain. M: (Maritime) Centroid, Terrain

AA-10 Alamo varients

A: Semi active B: IR C: Semi active ER D: IR ER

Functionality for switch 4L (AGC)

AGC on: Fwd: man focus far, aft: man focus near, left: auto focus far, right: auto focus near AGC off: fwd: increase gain/contrast, aft: decrease gain/contrast, left: decrease level/brightness, right: decrease level/brightness

Missiles: AGM-65 AGM-84 AGM-158A AGM-176

AGM-65: Maverick / 165 / 1300 AGM-84: SLAM-ER / 230 AGM-158A: JASSM / 350 AGM-176: Griffin / 120 / N/A

APKWS approved warhead/fuze combinations.

AGR-19A M151 w/ M423 fuze Mk152Mod0 w/ Mk435Mod 0 fuze AGR-19B M282 MPP w/ M423 fuze WTU-1B Inert warhead

What are the two common fuel delivery methods?

AGS and ADGR. Aviation ground support and Aerial delivered ground refueling.

Which weapons symbology has precedence over hellfire and will replace hellfire reticles if selected?

AIM-9.

What are the types of stores automatically identified on the weapons tree?

AIM-9. Hellfire. Aux tank.

If WOG sensing or the internal WOG circuit fails, the WOG output sill default to _____.

AIR.

What does a flashing plus (+) symbol displayed in the center of the EW display mean?

APR-39 threat detection capability degraded

PL-12

Active Radar Guided Missile Chinese version of the AIM-120 AMRAAM

Assuming that IR pointer and laser is armed in tactical, pressing the first detent will fire ____ and the second will fire.

Active laser. Active laser and Pointer or Diode.

Employing Hellfire in a dive the seeker references:

Actual horizon

Define: CAS.

Air action by aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and requires detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.

What does AIM stand for.

Air launched, intercept aerial, guided missile.

The three primary terrain factors that need to be examined for proper NVG mission planning include:

Albedo Contrast Shadowing

JDAM Series/Weights/REDs/MSD.

All are GPS guided. GBU 39: 250 SDB / 225 / 1200 38V4: 500 LCDB / 185 / 1100 38: 500 pound. / 270 / 1100 32: 1000 pound. / 340 / 1400 31: 2000 pound. / 380 / 1300 51B: 500 LCDB / 175 / Inert: 500m

Dumb Bombs Series/Weights/Reds/MSD

All are unguided. MK82: 500 pound / 285 / 1300 MK83: 1000 pound / 390 / 1500 MK84: 2000 pound / 405 / 1600

The Metal augmented charge in the AGM-114N is a mixture of ______ at a _____ ratio.

Aluminum and Viton at a 9/1 ratio.

AA-9

Amos Semi Active Homing + INS Active terminal guidance MiG-31

2 types of FARPs

Assault: Assembly line with the aircraft running and moving to each location. Static: Aircraft remains running in the same spot. Can be hot or cold.

List the 5 permissive FSCMs.

BCL: battle coordination line CFL: coordinated fires line FFA: free fire area FSCL: fires support coordination line Kill box

What do the following Hellfire missile indications mean on the weapons page? BF, MF, HF, SF, UL, BIT.

BF: missile failed BIT. MF: Missile fail. (MF flashing is misfire) HF: Hang Fire. SF: Station Fail. UL: Missile unlatched. BIT: missile undergoing bit.

Define BOT and BOC.

BOT: Requires attacking aircraft to be correlated on intended target. BOC: Lines 4 and 6 read backs complete correlation.

List the eight designation errors.

BSBABESOUP 1. Boresight error. 2. Beam divergence. 3. Backscatter. 4. Underspill. 5. Spot Jitter. 6. Attenuation. 7. Overspill. 8. Entrapment.

FAC(A) capabilities:

BTR TRACS BDA. Terminal Attack Control Radio relay. Target marking, designation, and coordinate generation. Reconnaissance. Asset coordination/deconfliction. CFF. SEAD

The Model 113A a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet and time to arm is ____ seconds.

Base /Acceleration/deceleration. 550 to 1400 feet. 1.6 seconds.

When verifying the laser codes on an APKWS rocket, the first laser switch assembly determines if CCM will be on or off. Which is off?

Black w/ white writing.

The AGM-114M is a ____ warhead that contains ____ pounds of ____ and _____ pounds of _____.

Blast frag warhead. 5.5 pounds of PBXN-109. 0.49 pounds of Zirconium.

What does "buzzer on" and "music on" mean?

Buzzer on: commence communication jamming Music on: commence radar jamming (memory aid "Mr.")

List the 5 operating modes of the Hellfire seeker.

Cage, Scan, Stare, Slave and Track. Cage: Inhibited until gyro spun up. Scan: Seeker scans. Stare: in LOBL stares straight ahead. Slave: commanded to LOS. Track: following laser energy.

What are the elements of an inflight report, IFREP.

Callsign. Mission number. Location. TOT. Results. Remarks.

TLE Categories

Categories I: 0-6m (0-20 ft) II: 7-15m (21-50 ft) III: 16-30m (51-100 ft) IV: 31-91m (101-300 ft) V: 92-305m (301-1000 ft) VI: >305m (>1000 ft)

List naming convention for the following: Checkpoints, LZ, LS, LP, BP, HA, FP, IP, MCA, ACA, FARPs, AAR.

Checkpoints: cities. Landing zones: birds. Landing Sites: Colors and cardinal directions. Landing points: Numbered. Battle Positions: Animals, starting with snakes. Holding areas: Women. Firing Points: Numbered. Initial Points: Cars. Mission coordination areas: Sodas. Airspace coordination areas: Cameras. FARPs: fastfood. Air to air refueling tracks: Gas stations.

Define civil, nautical and astronomical twilight.

Civil: 0-6 degrees below horizon. Nautical: 6-12. Astronomical: 12-18.

Timing for continuous, interrupted and non standard.

Continuous: -60, -30, TOT, +30, +60. Interrupted: -60, -30, TOT. Non Standard - As requested

Where does the IAS automatically display EW information with auto-display enabled.

DFD.

Define Detect, Recognize, ID.

Detect: Something from nothing. Recognize: Can tell the class, tank, APC... Identify: Specific military designation.

FLIR theory/polarity: ____ hot produces bright targets that can generally be detected at greater ranges while ___ hot tends to produce a more natural scene.

Detection: White hot. Natural image: Black hot.

LOAL max trajectories for Direct, Low and High

Direct: 400'. Low: 800'. High: 1400'

Minimum launch delay for RIPL is ____ seconds.

0.5 seconds.

APKWS passively searches for laser energy ____ to ____ seconds after launch.

0.7 to 0.8 seconds after launch.

Starlight, the other significant illumination souce in the night sky, provides _____ lux.

.00022 lux.

HLL and infinity focus distance.

.0022 lux. 150 feet.

Penetration rules of thumb for rolled homogenous armor (RHA)

.50 cal: .75"/19mm 20mm HEI: .5"/12.5mm 20mm PGU: 1"/25mm 2.75": 1"/25mm HF (shaped charge): ~4'

The AGM-114F pre-cursor warhead contains ____ pounds of ____ and the main charge contains ____ pound of ____.

.64 pounds of LX-14. 13.7 pounds of LX-14.

M278: Candle power, and time. Amount of time for flare to deploy and rate it falls at. Downrange and height at what degree

.7 - 1.1 micron range with a .8 peak. Burns for 3 minutes. 22 degree launch angle, 3000 Meters downrange and 2500 feet high.

When in INS only mode the INS may drift up to ____ nautical miles per hour.

.8.

Stow position for the 20mm is ____ degrees azimuth, and ____ degrees elevation.

0 degrees, 8.93 degrees.

The RADALT indicator indicates AGL altitudes from ___ to ____ feet and _____ in pitch and roll.

0 to 5,000 feet. plus or minus 45 degrees.

Required alternate airfield weather chart: Destination and alternate weather columns.

0-0 up to but not including published mins. Alternate weather must be 3,000 and 3 or better. Destination weather is published mins up to but not including 3000 and 3. Alternate: NP: published mins plus 300 and 1. precision plus 200 and 1/2. Destination 3000 and 3 or better, no alternate.

When one main electrical inverter has failed, the still operating inverter can power how many launchers/missiles? What happens if you attempt to power more? How can you manually isolate which receive power?

1 HML and it's missiles Thermal overload / failure Pull left/right SSE if launchers are on opposite sides.

The vertical lead (elevation) Rules of Thumb for Air-to-Air gun employment at 1 and 1/2 TOF for all deflection angles is?

1 TOF: 5 mils 1/2 TOF: 2 mils

An alternate airfield is required when the weather at the destination is forecast to be less than 3000 feet ceiling and 3 statute mile vis plus or minus ____ of ETA.

1 hour.

M257: Candle power, and time. Amount of time for flare to deploy and rate it falls at. Downrange and height at what degree

1 million candle power for 2 minutes. 13.5 seconds to deploy and falls at 13-15 feet per second. 15 degree launch angle, 3500 Meters downrange and 1800 feet high.

Default range for rockets with flechette warheads is ____ meters and can be edited for ranges of ____ to ____ meters.

1,000. 500 to 1,500.

Default range is ____ meters for rockets and _____ meters for gun.

1,500. 1,000.

Threat reactions: RWR Track.

1. "Chaff, Chaff, Chaff" while dispensing. 2. Make evasive maneuver. 3. IFREP DASC.

Threat reactions: IR SAM or Air to Air missile.

1. "flares, flares, flares" and dispense. 2. make evasive maneuver. 3. suppress the threat. 4. Maneuver to terrain mask. 5. Continue based on go/no go criteria. 6. IFREP to DASC.

Flight plans shall be filed based on the following 3 weather criteria:

1. Actual weather at point of departure and time of clearance. 2. Existing and forecast weather for route of flight. 3. Destination and alternate forecast plus or minus one hour of ETA.

What are the required comms for escort?

1. Callsign/checkpoint 2. Ice/Cherry from EFL to AFL/AMC. 2. IP inbound from AFL to EFL. 3. Continue/hold, established BP from AFL to EFL. Amplifying info as required. 4. Lifting or Waveoff, from AFL to EFL.

Threat reactions: Non-effective small arms.

1. Continue mission. 2. Notify the flight. 3. IFREP to DASC.

Role of Care.

1. First responder. Self/Buddy/Corpsman 2. Surgical capes BAS/STP/MTF/FRSS. 3. Specialty care. Hospital Ship/ EMF 4. CONUS/OCONUS MTF

List the 5 stages of air assault planning in the order that they should be planned:

1. Ground tactical plan. 2. Landing plan. 3. Air movement plan. 4. Loading plan. 5. Staging plan. Memory aid: plan backwards.

The amount of light provided by the moon is highly variable and is influenced by these four factors listed in order of primacy:

1. Lunar cycle. 2. Moon angle. 3. Lunar albedo. 4. Earth moon distance variation.

Threat reactions: Effective small arms.

1. Make evasive maneuver. 2. Suppress the threat. 3. Notify the flight. 4. Maneuver to terrain mask. 5. IFREP to DASC.

Threat reactions: RWR Search/Acquisition.

1. Maneuver to terrain mask. 2. Notify flight with "Dirt X oclock". 3. Continue mission. 4. IFREP DASC.

Hot start preventer: when the following conditions are present simultaneously, the DECU trips the ODB and prevents fuel from flowing to the engine.

1. Ng less than 60%. 2. Np less than 50%. 3. MGT greater than 900.

List elements of 5 line.

1. Observer, warning order, game plan 2. Friendly location and mark. 3. Enemy location. 4. Enemy description and mark. 5. Remarks.

When designating for PGMs inside ____ meters, it is unlikely the operator will have sufficient time to manually reacquire a target that has broken its active track.

3000 meters

List elements of the execution template.

1. Routing and safety of flight. 2. CAS check in. 3. Situation update. 4. Gameplan. 5. Attack brief 6. Remarks and restrictions. 7. Readbacks. 8. Correlation. 9. Attack. 10. Assess. 11. BDA or Reattack. 12. Routing safety of flight.

BEADWINDOW categories: 1 to 7.

1. position. 2. capabilities. 3. operations. 4. EW. 5. Personnel. 6. Comsec. 7. Wrong circuit.

In LOAL seeker lock on is inhibited until approximately___ seconds after launch.

1.5 seconds.

A.P.K.W.S. has a release envelope of ____ to ____ kilometers with an optimum employment range of ____ to ____ kilometers.

1.5 to 5 kilometers. 3 to 4 kilometers.

The Hellfire K2A has a blast frag sleeve that is ____ inches thick and _____ inches long.

1/8 inches thick and 6.75 inches long.

The Hellfire missile arms when acceleration exceeds ____ G's between ____ and ____ meters in front of the aircraft.

10 G's. 150 to 300 meters.

FLIR Max Designation Range

10 kilometers.

What is the bursting radius of the M151 warhead?

10 meters

The FLIR may take up to ____ minutes to cool down, the magnification for the following Fields of view are: WFOV, MFOV, NFOV, VNFOV.

10 minutes. 1, 3, 14, 42.

When conducting rocket and gun delivery using laser range, it may take up to ____ seconds to obtain an optimal solution in ESAF mode and ____ seconds in tactical.

10 seconds Ranging: .5" Designating: 1"

Threats that cease to illuminate the helicopter are displayed as a ghosted image for ____ seconds then disappear.

10 seconds.

The hover aid graphic presents three concentric circles representing ____, ____, and ____ knots for ground speed and ____, ____, and ___ meter radius of movement.

10, 20, 30 knots. 6, 12, 18 meters.

Mark hazards within ____ of planned route. Mark cities, beacons, and other features that emit large amounts of light within ____ of route.

10, 30 nautical miles.

Best glide airspeed is approximately ____ KCAS and the minimum rate of descent airspeed is approximately ____ KCAS.

106 and 76 Knots Calibrated Airspeed.

The elevator can move through a range of ____ degrees at a maximum rate of one degree per second.

11.5 degrees.

Ng governor: During an overspeed condition, Ng greater than or equal to ____ percent, the Ng governor cuts fuel flow causing a flameout.

110 +- 2 percent.

If Hellfire is NOT selected and the TSS operator has "A" selected at L5 on the TSS top page, what PRF is used while designating

1111

Which laser codes achieve better missile performance and how often do which codes update the missile?

1111-1488 1111 updates missile every 70 feet 1688 updates missile every 140 feet

Np overspeed: When Np exceeds ______ percent, the DECU signals the overspeed solenoid on the ODV stopping fuel flow to the engine.

115.6 +- 1.1

The Mk 149 contains ____ of ____ grain flechettes. Optimum pattern occurs approximately ____ to ____ meters after flechette explosion.

1179 of 60 grain. 150 to 250 meters.

The recommended flight profile to conduct in flight boresight of the TSS is straight and level at ____ to ___ knots. Heading should maintain within ____ of heading at initiation.

120 Knots (NTTP) 80 to 100 knots. (NATIP) plus or minus 2 degrees.

Minimum field of regard for the TSS is plus or minus ____ degrees in azimuth, and plus _____ and minus ____ in elevation.

120. Plus 45. minus 105.

AIM 120 AIM 9 AIM 7

120: AMRAAM. (Advanced Medium Range Air to Air Missile) Active. 9: Sidewinder. IR Passive. 7: Sparrow. Semi Active.

Define alert conditions: 120, 60, 30, 15, and 5 minutes.

120: ordnance stage and aircraft signed for. 60: ordnance loaded and aircraft preflighted. 30: aircraft is turned up and ops checked then shut down. 15: aircrew in the aircraft. 5: spinning.

What are the restricted PRF codes for the AGM-114N?

1217-1231. 1436-1452. 1685-1721.

The AGM-114A,B,C warhead variants contain a unitary shape charge warhead with ____ pound of ____ main charge.

13.7 pounds of LX-14.

A Mk 66 rocket motor produces an average thrust of ____ pounds for a duration of ____ seconds.

1360 pounds for 1.1 seconds.

Gravity fueling limit.

138gpm

Expended links from the 20mm may impact the airframe and tail rotor above____ knots. Vne for SUU-25 and 77 gal aux tank?

140. 152 165

Low fuel pressure will cause the engine flameout due to fuel starvation within ____ seconds.

15

No pilot shall sign for an aircraft for a night flight without having flown that model aircraft within the previous ____ days.

15.

APU fuel consumption:

150 pounds per hour.

What is the maximum airspeed you can fly with the following stores on your aircraft? SUU-25, 77-gallon tank.

152 knots. 165 knots.

The acceleration deceleration fuze used in flechette rockets begins arming at ____ G's and the armed fuze fires when the rocket decelerates below ____ G's. The fuze is completely armed in about ____ seconds.

17.5 G's, 11 G's,1.6 seconds.

Hostile Fire Types

1: Tracer Rounds 2: Ball Ammo 3: Rockets/RPGs Only detects 1 + 3

The muzzle velocity of the M50 and PGU series is ____ feet per second, at ___ feet.

3380 +/- 50 feet per second. 3410 feet per second. 78 feet

Setting for standard lighting conditions 1 through 6.

1: day. Pos bright anticollision on overt. 2: unaided. same with form on 5. 3: Outside restricted. Pos on dim. Anticollison off, form on 5, rotor on 5. (last a/c anticol on norm) 4: Inside restricted. Pos off, anticollision on IR 5, form 5 IR, Rotor off. (last a/c form 5 and anticol norm) 5: all covert. Same as 4 for both aircraft. 6: no lights.

The RR-129 chaff has a frequency coverage between ____ and ____ GHZ.

2 and 18.

Hellfire missile spin-down time can take up to ____ minutes. After a missile has been deselected it should not be selected again for _____ minutes.

2 minutes. (LOBL Only)

Minimum steady on target time prior to impact for Hellfire.

2 through 6: 6 seconds. 7 is 7 seconds. 8 is 8 seconds.

Why can we expect a degraded image in VNOF?

2 times electronic magnification of NFOV.

The rocket motor for the Hellfire missile has a burn time of _____ to _____?

2 to 3 seconds.

The M156 smoke rocket contains ____ pounds of ____.

2.0 pounds of white phosphorus.

The AGM-114K pre cursor contains ____ pounds of ____ and the main charge contains ____ pounds of ____.

2.2 pounds of LX-14. 12.6 pounds of LX-14.

The AGM-114K2 pre cursor contains ____ pounds of ____ and the main charge contains ____ pounds of ____.

2.2 pounds of PBXN-9. 12.4 pounds of PBXN-9

The Mk 67 Mod 1 smoke rocket contains ____ pounds of ____.

2.6 pounds of red phosphorus.

After internal temperature changes of more than ___ degrees C, a BSR will be displayed in the FOR box. How long does it take for TSS temperature to stabilize?

20 degrees celcius. 20-30 minutes

In no case shall the planned fuel reserve after final landing at destination or alternate airfield be less than that needed for _____ minutes of flight.

20 minutes.

Laser range automatically updates based on helicopter movement sensed by the EGI for ____ seconds after laser input.

20 seconds.

The moon is about ____ percent brighter during the first quarter, waxing, than it is during the third quarter, waning, due to differences in the lunar surface.

20%.

Checkpoints should be no further than ____ nautical miles apart in terrain of varying elevation, ____ over flat terrain and in no case should the last 100 miles have less than ___ checkpoints.

20, 40, 5.

The M50 series fuze has a delayed arming distance of ___ to ____ feet after it leaves the muzzle of the gun.

20-35'.

Absolute minimums for single piloted helicopter aircraft executing an approach are _____.

200 and 1/4.

Gun manual range entry has a range of ____ to ____ meters.

200 to 2,000.

Cloud ceiling rule of thumb: ____ feet and above is no limit. Ceilings from ____ feet to ____ feet allow LOAL direct and Low. for ceilings below ____ feet use LOAL direct only. using direct allows ____ kilometer of standoff per ____ feet of ceiling.

2000'. 800' to 2000'. 800'. 1 kilometer of standoff per 100'

The WDU-4A/A contains ____ of ____ grain flechettes. Optimum employment range is between _____ and ____.

2205, 20. Range: 1200 to 1500 meters.

one Time of flight fo 20mm is ____. Half time of flight is ____.

2500'. 1500'.

Lunar month is:

29.5 days.

Regarding an elevated target and LOBL employment, seeker target acquisition should not be expected if the target is more than ____ feet above the launch aircraft for each kilometer of ground range.

290' above the launch aircraft for each kilometer of ground range.

Which level of EMCON is the most restrictive?

3

A weather brief is valid for ____ hours past delivery time or ETD plus ____ hours.

3 hours and .5 hours.

Hellfire time of flight:

3, 7, 10, 14, 19, 24, 29, 36.

During weapons checks expend a continuous ____ second burst of 20mm to assess boresight.

3-5 seconds.

A dry mid-latitude winter day with an absolute humidity of ____ grams per meter cubed is almost completely transparent to far IR energy, where a wet tropical atmosphere of ____ becomes an effective wall that severely hinders the operational capability of the FLIR.

3.5 and 20.

During SOP scan pattern, lead will designate a base heading and adjacent aircraft will scan a ____ degree FOB with ____ degree overlap.

30 degree. 10 degree.

Hellfire detector has a plus or minus ____ degree gimbal limit from missile centerline. the constraints circle depicted on the MFD represents a plus or minus ____ degree constraint in relation to missile centerline.

30 degree. 20 degree.

Standard position lights shall be displayed during the period ___ min before sunset until ____ min after sunrise or anytime prevailing visibility is less than ____.

30 min before or after, 3 statute miles.

Individual missiles may take up to ____ seconds to spin up and code.

30 seconds.

Takeoff minimums: Published mins for NPA but not less than______. For PA with mins less than 300 and 1, takeoff is good for mins for runway but not less than ____.

300 feet and 1 mile NPA. 200 feet and 1/2 mile PA.

____ is default minimum laser range and one touch process for TSS may take up to ____ to complete.

300 meters. 1 minute.

Rocket manual range entry has a range of ___ to ____ meters.

300 to 7,000.

Rounds from the M197 are roughly ____ feet apart.

300'

For all LOAL modes, the min effective engagement ranges apple to launch altitudes less than ____ feet above the target. increase min range by _____ meters for altitudes ___ feet to ___ feet above the target and ____ meters for altitudes ____ feet to ____ feet above the target.

50 feet above target. increase 500 meters for 50 feet to 400 feet and 1000 meters for 400 feet to 800 feet.

When operating in class B, C, or D airspace; and when no other guidance is provided, pilots of helicopters shall not exceed ____ AGL unless specifically cleared by the tower or other control agency.

500 feel AGL.

To conduct special VFR within controlled airspace, the pilot must obtain authorization for ATC and weather must be a min of ____ feet with ____ statute mile visibility.

500 feet. 1 statute mile.

If APKWS is employed ballistically, no laser energy, outside of ____ meters it will fly long due to the flaperons deploying.

500 meters.

Max recommended range for TSS CTVC hellfire employment

5000 meters

The 77 gallon AUX tank can provide an extra ____ pound of fuel.

525 pounds.

Ng should be monitored during engine start to ensure automatic disengagement occurs at Ng speeds of _____. Eng out warning light illums in red if Ng falls below what?

55 +/- 3 percent. 60%

Delay in anti ice and idle stop solonnoid.

6 and 5 seconds.

The micro channel plate is comprised of ____ tiny tubes tilted to ____ bias angle.

6,000,000 tubes. 5 degree tilt.

EMER will display in the gun status box of the MFD weapons page indicating the gun is stowed in the emergency stow position of ____ to ___ degrees elevation.

6.5 to 7 degrees.

Danger close distance: All mortar/arti and naval 5 inch.

600 meters. 750 meters for naval 5 inch.

If aircraft or EGI has been moved by more than ____ nm, acquisition of satellites and determination of a fix may take as long as ____ minutes.

600 nm. 45 minutes.

TACAN air to air requires channels be ____ apart.

63.

The M197 20mm automatic gun fires at a rate of ____ rpm and is restricted to a firing schedule not to exceed a ____ round burst, with a minimum of ____ minutes cooling time prior to firing the remaining rounds.

650+/- 50 RPM, 450 round burst. 6 minutes cooling.

The linkless feed system holds up to ____ rounds of 20mm and weighs ____ rounds empty and ____ pounds full.

652. 206 pounds. 520 pounds.

List nomenclature, Reds and MSDs for the following AGMs: 65, 84, 88, 114, 154, 176, 179

65: Maverick 84: SLAM-ER (standoff land attack missile-expanded response) 88: HARM (high-speed anti-radiation missile) 114: Hellfire. 154: JSOW (Joint standoff weapon) 176: Griffin. 179: JAGM

The moon reflects ____ percent of the sunlight that strikes it.

7%.

The mil dispersion of the M197 is ____ mils.

7.5

In an autorotation, maximum rotor rpm is achieved at a steady state of ____ to _____ KIAS.

70-90 Knots Indicated Airspeed.

Spent illum rocket motors will impact the ground how far beyond illum point?

700-1000 meters.

Aux fuel: Although the fuel transfer may have been selected ON, actual transfer does not begin until approximately ____ pound of fuel have been used from the internal fuel tanks.

750 pounds.

Assuming you are firing in RAPID, missiles may be launched with a ____ second delay if each adjacent target is no further than ____ meters apart.

8 second. (10 sec recommended) 100 meters.

When tracking a moving target using the centroid tracker, tracks that break lock and coast will automatically delete after ____ seconds if automatic re-acquisition does not occur.

8 seconds.

LOBL Scan Pattern

8* FOV 1 Missile: 14 horizontal x 20 vertical (5* above horizon) 2 Missiles: 23 x 20 3 Missiles: 32 x 20

Warning: Engaging any outer loop hold function with the torque greater than _____ percent may result in overtorque, attitude oscillations, and aircraft unusual attitudes. Cross start: have to pull to ___% Q.

85 percent. 38%

Time delay on the AGM-114M/N

9 +-5 msecff

All hellfire min/max and offset numbers are based on a probability of hit (Ph) above:

90%

The DECU controls a temperature limiting circuit that operates when MGT reaches _____ degrees C for the 401 engines and _____ for the 401-C engines, AEO and OEI.

910. 891.

Pressing the ENG OVSP TEST A and B switches simultaneously with Np above 96% resets the overspeed reference point to _____ percent.

93.6 percent.

The engine RPM wheel selects the governor setting for both engines simultaneously in the range of ____ to ____.

94 percent to 101 percent.

Due to the possibility of non-extinguished flares igniting a ground fire, the min recommended altitude for dispensing flares in a training environment is ____ feet AGL.

960.

FWD/AFT FUEL TANK LOW WCA comes on at?

<287#

Rule of thumb for rocket wind considerations.

For every 10 knots of wind a correction of 300 meters or 5 degree heading change into wind.

Define the weapons conditions: Free, tight, hold

Free: May engage anything not positively identified as friendly, Tight: May engage anything positively identified as Enemy. Hold: May fire only in self defense.

Seeker acquisition zone for Hellfire.

From WTL: plus or minus 10 degrees is avoid plus or minus 45 degrees and outside of avoid is optimal plus or minus 60 degrees is max

LGB Series/Weights/REDs/MSD:

GBU 12: 500 pound. / 270 / 1000 16: 1000 pound. / 345 / 1300 10: 2000 pound. / 380 / 1300 Inert: 500m

LJDAM Series/Weights/Reds/MSD.

GBU-49: 500 / 270 / (GPS or Laser, not both) GBU-54: 500 LJDAM / 270 / 1100 54v4: LCDB / 185 / 1100 54v5: LCDB / 145 / 1100

Nomenclature for the M50 and the PGU series for HEI, TP, TP-T, HEI-T.

HEI: M56A3/A4, PGU-28. TP: M55A2, PGU-27 TP-T: M221, PGU-30 HEI-T: M242

What is the difference between the M-36E1 and the M36E3 training missiles?

Hellfire 1 variant seeker and Hellfire 2 variant seeker.

Danger Close / MSDs Hellfire APK Flech

Hellfire: 115m / 900m APK: 105m / 700 Flech: 235m / 700

Transfer alignment is a process by which the ____ position and ___ position are correlated to establish alignment between both the TV and FLIR, and the aircraft. XA FOM range from ____ to ____. ___ is optimal.

IMU and EGI. 0 and 9. 0 best.

If during escort you are lost comms with the assaults, how do you signal that the LZ is ice or cherry?

Ice: steady searchlight overt day or IR night and join at 5 and 7. Cherry: Flashing searchlight and proceed to IP.

With four rocket pods selected, single, and quantity one, what is the order of firing for 4 trigger pulls?

Left to right, outboard to inboard, alternating #1 and #2 sides.

What are three threat levels?

Low: Allows tactical operation to proceed without interference. Medium: Allows acceptable exposure to enemy air defense. High: En has air defense with integrated fire control and EW.

Define Low, Medium and Hight Altitudes

Low: NOE to 500' Medium: 500' to 3000' High: 3000' and up

Which Hellfire variants have the delayed fuze?

M and N.

Kill categories and definitions

M-Kill: mobility kill - can't move F-Kill: firepower kill - can't shoot MSN-Kill: can't complete assigned mission but not removed from inventory K-Kill: catastrophic kill - surface damage beyond what is feasible to repair P-Kill: Passenger/personnel kill - incapacitation of transported personnel (crewmembers not included) Incapacitation-Kill - personnel unable to complete critical functions.

HE Frag warhead explosive and compound weights:

M151: 2.3 pounds of Comp B-4. M229: 4.8 pounds of Comp B-4. Mk 152: 2.1 pounds of PBXN-110. Mk 146: 4.3 pounds of PBXN-110.

Warheads & fuze combinations HE-FRAG

M151: M423, M427. M229: M423. Mk 152: Mk435 mod 0. Mk 146: Mk435 mod 0.

M50 and PGU tracer burnouts in distance and PGU seconds of burn.

M220/221: 1170m PGU-30: 1800-2200 (3.2s)

The ____ is an overt illumination warhead used to provide battlefield illumination. The permanently installed base fuze functions ____ seconds after launch and provides a ____ second delay prior to drogue chute deployment. Total time from launch to flare ignition is _____ seconds. The warhead produces ____ candlepower for ____ minutes and illuminates ____ of area.

M257, 1.5 seconds and provides 9 second delay. 13.5 seconds. 1 million, 2 minutes, 1 square mile.

The ____ is a covert illumination warhead and produces ____ candlepower for ____ minutes.

M278, 700 candlepower for 3 minutes.

The ____ Hellfire launcher can carry up to four Hellfire missiles. The Holdback latch retains the missile in place and requires ____ to ____ pounds of force to release the missile.

M299 360 to 700 pounds.

What is the difference between the type of fuze used by the M50 and the PGU?

M50 is mechanical fuze ball and rotor assembly. PGU is chemical consisting of RS40 and RS41.

AN/ALE-47 Software

MDF: 4909 (Z) OFP: 1137 Sequencer: 3053

Hydraulic system number 1 powers:

MRA. Oil cooler fan motor, primary. Tail rotor actuator, primary. Rotor brake. Cyclic secondary boost actuators. Pitch SCAS. Yaw SCAS.

Hydraulic system number 2 powers:

MRA. Oil cooler fan, backup. Tail rotor actuator, backup. Roll SCAS.

Loss of MRGB oil pressure and CBOX rising oil temperature numbers for helo unflyable.

MRGB: 15 minutes. CBOX: 2.5 minutes.

List the symbols for the threats HMSD and DFD: MW threat, RF threat, Laser Threat, HFI.

MW threat: Christmas tree and letter M. RF Threat: Triangle and Letter R. Laser threat: Astrick and letter L. HFI: G in diamond and Letter G.

DRI rule of thumb for TSS & CTVC

TSS Low: 30, 8.5, 4.5km TSS Medium: 30, 12.6, 9.5km CTCV Low: 16.9, 7.9, 4.7km CTVC Med: 25.3, 11.8, 8.9km

TSS Lasers/NOHD

Tactical: 1.064 microns / 17.7km Eyesafe: 1.57 microns / 0 meters AD: .83 microns / 500 meters. IR POINTER: .86 microns / 260 meters.

List the operating wavelengths of lasers: Tactical, ESAF, IR PTR, IRAD.

Tactical: 1.064. Eye Safe: 1.57. IR pointer: 0.86. IR alignement diode: 0.83.

K2B Sleeve Material and Weight

Tantalum. 10.5lbs.

What does TAR-GE stand for?

Target, Azimuth, Range, Grid, Elevation.

The AGM-114N is a ____ warhead that contains ____ pounds of ____, and ____ pounds of ____ explosive.

Thermobaric. 4.1 pounds of MAC liner 4.6 pounds of PBXN-112 explosive.

List elements of situation update.

Threat. Enemy situation. Friendlies. Artillery. Clearance authority. Hazards. Remarks/restrictions.

The 442 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ feet and time to arm is ____ seconds.

Time. 2137 feet. 1 second.

What is the M - 34 HF training missile?

Training for armament personnel or for simulating a load. Bronze bands

M197 traverse range is____ degrees either side of centerline. Elevation limits are ____ at centerline, ____ degrees at 40 degree azimuth, and ____ degrees at 110º azimuth. Gun depression limit is ____º below centerline.

Traverse: 110º Centerline: 8.92º 40: 14.53 110: 5.98º Depression: 50º

True or false: Manual automatically goes to laser range when the gun is selected and the pilot starts lasing.

True

List 3 types of controls.

Type 1: JTAC requires controls of individual attacks and can visually acquire aircraft and target. Type 2: JTAC requires controls of individual attacks but cannot acquire both aircraft and target. Type 3: Multiple attacks given in form on "engagement window".

Collective switch 6 for page selection

Up: EW Down: TSS Left: WCA Right: system

A scene based correlations track can be initiated by selecting the ____ track mode on the TSS top page and uses ____ dynamic track windows to maintain the track symbology about the track current FOV.

Urban, 19 dynamic track windows.

Recommended distances for flechette rocket employment

WDU-4A/A: 1200-1500 MK-149: 600-800

____ is the only TSS FOV that will indicate the position of the AIM-9M reticle in relation to the actual position of the target.

WFOV

What conditions must be met in order to conduct an ISMS reset?

WOG = Ground.

For a raid, define landing at the X, Y, and Offset.

X: less than 300 meters. Y: 300 to 1000 meters. Offset: Greater than 1000 meters.

Is the K2A authorized for shipboard use?

Yes

LOBL peak altitudes:

at 3 kilometers, 300 feet 5 kilometers 500 feet 7 kilometers 600 feet

Hellfire designator safety zone

extends from the shooter. 43 degrees either side of WTL. 34 Degrees up (HFII). 17800' at max range (8km)

What are the elements of a Call for fire?

first transmission: Observer Id, Warning order. Second transmission: Target Location. Third transmission: Target description, method of engagement, method of fire and control.

With the DEPR LT on, the gun depression is limited to negative ____ degrees.

negative 3 degrees.