Surface Anatomy Final
coccyx, PSIS, greater trochanter
Piriformis should be palpated by outlining a "T" shape between which landmarks?
Trapezoid and Conoid ligaments
What are the two distinct portions of the coracoclavicular ligament?
plantar aponeurosis
What attaches to the medial tubercle of the calcaneus?
deltoid ligament (posterior attachment)
What attaches to the medial tubercle of the talus?
spring ligament (supports head of talus and provides floor of talo-navicular joint)
What attaches to the sustentaculum tali?
rotate tibia (laterally for medial, medially for lateral)
What can you do to make the menisci more prominent?
IT band
What inserts on Gerdy's tubercle?
LCL
What inserts on the fibular head?
ankle in max plantarflexion
What is the best way to palpate the dome of the talus?
lateral epicondyle
What is the common origin of the wrist extensors?
medial epicondyle
What is the common origin of the wrist flexors?
tunnel of Guyon
What is the common site of ulnar nerve compression in the hand?
flexion, slight abduction, external rotation
What is the loose pack position of the hip?
ATFL; plantarflexion and inversion
What is the most commonly injured ankle ligament and by what mechanism of injury?
lunate
What is the most mobile carpal bone?
capitate
What is the most stable carpal bone?
sinus tarsi
What is the site of anterior capsular impingement in the foot?
LCL and MCL
What originate from the lateral and medial epicondyles, respectively?
narrow toe box of shoes
What typically causes Morton's neuroma (pinched digital nerve) between the metatarsal heads?
gluteal tuberosity of femur
Where does gluteus maximus insert?
Ribs 3-5
Where does pectoralis minor terminate?
ASIS --> pubic tubercle
Where does the inguinal ligament run?
elevation, depression, protraction, retraction
Which actions are possible at the SC joint?
calcaneus
Which bone contains the peroneal tubercle?
- medial, middle, lateral cuneiform - cuboid
Which bones contribute to forming the transverse arch?
scaphoid
Which carpal bone sits in the floor of the snuff box?
C7
Which cervical spinous process is most prominent?
semimembranosus
Which hamstring muscle inserts on the posterior tibial plateau, posterior joint capsule, and posterior medial meniscus?
Adductor brevis, adductor magnus
Which hip adductors are deep?
Pectineus, Adductor Longus, Gracilis (anterior to medial)
Which hip adductors are superficial?
Gracilis, adductor longus
Which hip adductors originate at the pubic bone?
C2
Which is the first palpable spinous process in the cervical spine?
Iliac crest, ASIS, PSIS
Which landmarks of the pelvis are used to identify alignment issues?
12th rib, posterior iliac crest, lumbar TVPs
Which landmarks should be found to isolate the borders of quadratus lumborum?
iliac crest, greater trochanter
Which landmarks should be found to outline the shape of glut med?
2 and 3; 1, 4, and 5
Which metacarpals are stable? Which are mobile?
second
Which metatarsal is most stable?
4 and 5
Which metatarsals are most mobile?
adductor longus and inguinal ligament
Which muscle and ligament attach to the pubic tubercles?
pectineus
Which muscle attaches to the superior pubic ramus?
adductor magnus
Which muscle inserts on the adductor tubercle?
Masseter
Which muscle of mastication attaches to the zygomatic bone?
fibularis tertius
Which muscle tendon is palpable in the sinus tarsi region?
Abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longus
Which muscle tendons make up the anatomical snuffbox?
ankle dorsiflexors and everters
Which muscles are innervated by the common fibular nerve?
coracobrachialis, pec minor, biceps brachii
Which muscles attach to the coracoid process?
Scalenes and levator scapulae
Which muscles attach to the transverse processes of C2-C7?
1: Extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus 2: Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis 3: Extensor pollicis longus 4: Extensor digitorum, extensor indicis 5: Extensor digiti minimi 6: Extensor carpi ulnaris
Which muscles make up the extensor compartments? 1: 2: 3: 4: 5: 6:
abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis brevis
Which muscles make up the thenar eminence?
sciatic nv
Which nerve can be compressed if the piriformis is tight?
common fibular (peroneal) nerve
Which nerve wraps around the fibular neck?
b. Parapatellar bursa
Which of these is NOT a bursa of the knee? a. Suprapatellar bursa b. Parapatellar bursa c. Infrapatellar bursa d. Prepatellar bursa
b. Levator scapulae
Which of these muscles does not attach to the mastoid process? a. SCM b. Levator scapulae c. Splenius capitis d. Digastric
AIIS
Which pelvic landmark is an attachment site for the rectus femoris muscle?
side-lying (move off anterior ischial tubercle)
Which position should the patient be in to palpate adductor magnus?
supine, slight hip flexion and lateral rotation
Which position should the patient be in to palpate the psoas major?
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor
Which rotator cuff muscle(s) attach(es) to the greater tubercle?
subscapularis
Which rotator cuff muscle(s) attach(es) to the lesser tubercle?
Tibialis posterior, Extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, tibial nerve
Which structures lie posterior to the medial melleolus?
brachial plexus and subclavian artery
Which structures pass between the first rib and clavicle?
- FDS, FDP, FPL tendons - median nerve
Which structures pass through the flexor retinaculum?
tibialis anterior
Which tendon inserts on the dorsum of the foot at the medial cuneiform and first metatarsal?
Sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus
Which tendons make up the pes anserine?
Murphy's percussion test - percussive thump with one hand on the other with ulnar edge of fist to check for pain
Which test is used to rule out kidney involvement?
multifidus
Which transversospinale muscle is most superficial?
Biceps tendon --> brachial artery --> median nerve --> musculocutaneous nerve
What are the contents of the cubital fossa, from lateral to medial?
Femoral nerve, artery, vein Inguinal lymph nodes
What are the contents of the femoral triangle?
Tibial nerve, artery and vein
What are the contents of the popliteal fossa (superficial to deep)?
TFL and glut max
Fibers from which muscles extend to the IT band?
angled downward
How are the thoracic spinous processes oriented?
ulnar deviate the wrist
How can you make the triquetrum more prominent?
internally rotate the hip
How do you contract the TFL?
Biceps femoris lies more posterior
How do you distinguish the biceps femoris tendon from the IT band on the lateral side of the knee?
flex knee beyond 90°
How do you feel a greater surface of the femoral condyles?
externally rotate the tibia
How do you isolate the biceps femoris?
passively evert the subtalar joint
How do you make the sustentaculum tali more prominent?
laterally rotate the hip against light resistance
How would you have the patient contract the piriformis?
have patient externally rotate and flex hip (as if cross legs)
How would you isolate the sartorius?
internally rotate the tibia
How would you isolate the semimembranosus and semitendinosus?
flex hip slightly, sink in during exhalation
How would you palpate the iliacus?
patient prone with their arm off the side of the plinth
Latissimus dorsi is best palpated in which position?
Annular ligament
Laxity of which ligament can result in subluxation of the radial head?
ASIS and umbilicus on right side
McBurney's point is palpated halfway between which landmarks?
supine (across anterolateral portion of upper 8-9 ribs)
Serratus anterior should be palpated with the patient in which position?
left shoulder
Spleen malfunction can refer pain to where?
Anterior and middle: Rib 1 Posterior: Rib 2
What are the insertions of the scalenes?
fibularis longus, brevis, tertius, gastroc, soleus
What are the lateral and posterior compartment muscles of the foot?
- laterally flex to same side - rotate to opposite side - bilaterally flex neck
What are the actions of the SCM?
inspiration
The diaphragm contracts during _____.
Galeazzi's sign
The femoral condyles should be examined in 90° for leg length to observe for _____.
navicular
The head of the talus articulates with what tarsal bone?
T7
The inferior angle of the scapula is located at which vertebral level?
triceps brachii (long head)
The infraglenoid tubercle is the attachment site for which muscle?
Baker's cyst
The large palpable mass that can sometimes be observed in the popliteal fossa, developing as a result of surgery, injury or other irritation, is called what?
Lateral: brachioradialis Medial: pronator teres
What are the borders of the cubital fossa?
inguinal ligament, sartorius, adductor longus
What are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?
RUQ: liver, r. kidney, gall bladder, colon, pancreas LUQ: stomach, l. kidney, spleen, colon, pancreas RLQ: appendix, colon, small intestine, ureter LLQ: colon, small intestine, ureter
What are the contents of the abdominal quadrants? RUQ: LUQ: RLQ: LLQ:
pes anserine
The proximal anterior medial tibial expansion is the site of insertion for what?
rectus abdominis
The pubic crest is an attachment site for which muscle?
prone
The quadratus lumborum is most easily palpated in which position?
adductor hiatus
The saphenous nerve passes through what?
opposite
The scalenes unilaterally rotate the head to the ____ side.
C4 - T5
The semispinalis muscles attach along which transverse processes?
opposite; mastoid process
The transverse processes of C1 can be palpated by rotating the head to the _____ side and sliding slightly anterior and inferior to the _____.
maximal flexion
The trochlear groove should be palpated with the knee in which position?
ipsilateral
To palpate levator scapulae, you would have the patient perform a(n) ______ rotation.
low back pain
Transverse abdominis changes in firing rate/onset in patients with what condition?
weakness of glut med
Trendelenburg gait is a result of what?