Test
1.1-29. In Latin, the word credo means
a. "I believe."
10.1-7. There are 12 members in your group. How many members must be in favor of a proposal when deciding by authority rule?
a. 1
13.1-29. When displaying presentation aids, which of the following delivery techniques should you use when presenting a set of slides?
a. Display the slide, and then explain the point.
12.1-15. Your textbook suggests all of the following strategies for keeping a meeting moving at a comfortable pace EXCEPT
a. Do not begin the meeting until all the important group members are present.
7.1-9. All of the following communication strategies can help improve a group's team talk
a. Express your individual needs.
6.1-27. Which of the following statements is most accurate about using punishment as a motivational tool?
a. It does not motivate.
11.1-21. "According to a 1984 article in the Midland Times Herald, gang activity is not a significant problem in the community." What criticism should be made about this piece of evidence?
a. It's not recent.
14.1-22. Duarte and Snyder recommend a set of best practices for making electronic meeting system conferences more effective. Which of the following answers in NOT a best practice for this type of group meeting?
a. Make sure everyone in the group has a turn facilitating the meeting to keep the group moving through the agenda.
9.1-5. Which of the following statements characterizes constructive conflict?
a. Members focus on the issues.
4.1-26. Which characteristics are common in monochronic time cultures?
a. Members like to concentrate on one job before moving to another.
4.2-15. Sensor personalities in the Myers-Briggs typology prefer to deal with details.
a. True
7.1-7. Which of the following statements illustrates the Social Equality Dimension of team talk?
b. "Hey guys, let's find out where Lee stands on this before we do anything this far out."
3.1-19. According to McCroskey's research, what percent of the general population experiences very high levels of communication apprehension?
b. 20%
8.1-3. Several studies report that without listening training, most people listen at
b. 25%
4.1-38. Which generation is described as follows: they are workaholics who are willing to challenge the status quo and are politically adept on the job. They believe that they are always right, but are willing to work hard to get what they want.
b. Boomers
4.1-20. Which of the following groups of countries is the most collectivist?
b. Central and South America
12.2-3. The chairperson of a meeting is always the group's leader.
b. False
3.2-12. An opinion seeker is fulfilling group maintenance roles.
b. False
8.2-22. The Golden Listening Rule is: speak unto others as you would have them speak to you.
b. False
8.2-25. You can help your group by regularly interrupting a group discussion to remind everyone that it's important to listen well.
b. False
6.1-24. Leaders with power are more likely to motivate their members.
b. referent and persuasive
6.1-8. Which theory would explain why even when a goal is highly valued (becoming a billionaire or dancing with the stars), you may not be highly motivated to pursue that goal if the chance of reaching it is very small?
c. Expectancy Value Theory
15.1-14. How should a motion be introduced?
d. "I move that . . ."
1.1-21. All of the following pairs of common folk proverbs illustrate the contradictory nature of dialectic tensions EXCEPT
d. "Waste not, want not" and "Music makes the world go 'round. "
10.1-28. All of the following are considered guidelines for effective brainstorming
d. Avoid combining ideas.
2.2-12. During the assimilation phrase of newcomer socialization, established members and newcomers blend into a comfortable state of working together to achieve a common goal.
a. True
2.2-13. Locke and Latham's Goal Theory emphasizes the value of setting group goals.
a. True
2.2-15. When setting goals, groups should ask questions about the goal's clarity, difficulty, meaningfulness, and cost.
a. True
2.2-16. Hidden agendas occur when a member's private goal conflicts with the group's goal.
a. True
2.2-18. Although group norms are often difficult to express in words, they are real and have a major effect on group productivity and member satisfaction.
a. True
2.2-2. During the forming stage of Tuckman's Group Development model, the group's most important job to "orient itself to itself."
a. True
2.2-20. Your textbook divides norms into four categories: interaction norms, procedural norms, status norms, and achievement norms.
a. True
2.2-22. When a group is having difficulty deciding and the leader has the right to make the final decision, the group is abiding by a status norm.
a. True
2.2-23. Stanley Milgram and Philip Zimbardo's classic studies demonstrated that people in authority positions exert enormous pressure on people to conform.
a. True
2.2-24. When there is enormous pressure for group members to conform, a disruptive member can help the group by not conforming to group norms. a. True
a. True
2.2-25. Destructive nonconformity occurs when a member resists conforming to norms without regard for the best interests of the group and its goals.
a. True
2.2-28. You can change group communication norms by changing the way you speak during a discussion.
a. True
2.2-29. In Carl Larson and Frank LaFasto's three-year study of characteristics that explain how and why effective groups develop, they put "a clear and elevated goal" at the top of their list.
a. True
2.2-31. Carl Larson and Frank LaFasto describe principled leadership as the ability of leaders to curb their own ego needs in favor of the group's goal.
a. True
2.2-4. Most groups experience some form of primary and secondary tension during the forming and storming stages of group development.
a. True
2.2-5. Groups resolve primary tension by being positive and energetic, patient and open- minded, and well prepared.
a. True
2.2-6. Face-to-face meetings may be desirable in the early stages of virtual groups.
a. True
2.2-8. Bormann's secondary tension has similar characteristics to the behavior of members during Tuckman's storming stage of group development.
a. True
3.2-1. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs ranks critical needs in the following order:
a. True
3.2-10. A member who seeks attention or tries to impress other members may have a strong inclusion need.
a. True
3.2-13. One group member can function effectively in several different roles at the same time.
a. True
3.2-14. Benne and Sheats's roles include information seeker, energizer, harmonizer, compromiser, aggressor, and clown.
a. True
3.2-16. According to Belvin, a successful coordinator/chair role is filled by a person who is calm, trusting, mature, confident, and decisive.
a. True
3.2-17. According to Benne and Sheats, the gatekeeper of a group encourages quiet members to speak and talkative members to stop speaking.
a. True
3.2-19. The Personal Report of Communication Apprehension (PRCA) measures a relatively permanent personality type that is unlikely to change significantly unless there is some type of effective intervention or training.
a. True
3.2-20. As a result of talking less, apprehensive participants are often viewed as less confident, less assertive, and less responsible.
a. True
3.2-21. Communication apprehension has significant effects on the amount of talk, the content of communication, and the resulting perceptions of other group members. a. True
a. True
3.2-22. Group members who experience communication apprehension tend to speak less, agree with others rather than voice disagreement, and use more filler phrases such as "well," "you know," and "uh."
a. True
3.2-24. Group members who speak more are often better liked than those who speak infrequently and are more likely to become a group's leader.
a. True
3.2-25. Research has found that some people are more confident when communicating online and in computer-mediated discussions than they are communicating face- to-face with group members.
a. True
3.2-28. Assertiveness can help raise a group member's level of confidence and reduce communication apprehension.
a. True
3.2-3. Maslow's most basic needs are physiological and safety needs.
a. True
3.2-30. Passive group members are rarely satisfied with their group experiences.
a. True
3.2-31. Compulsive talkers try or tend to direct the course of a group's discussion and take charge of the group.
a. True
3.2-32. Passive-aggressive group members often get their way by working against or undermining other members behind their backs and by appearing to agree while privately planning an opposite action.
a. True
3.2-33. Group member effectiveness increases as you move from passivity to assertiveness and then decreases as you move beyond assertiveness into aggressiveness.
a. True
3.2-34. When deciding how to say "No" to someone, make sure your statement is clear, as in "No, I'm not willing to take notes again."
a. True
3.2-5. Will Schutz's FIRO theory examines the impact of 3 interpersonal needs: the need for inclusion, control, and affection.
a. True
3.2-6. If Julie confides in and tries to become very close with every group member, she may be exhibiting behavior characteristic of an overpersonal member.
a. True
3.2-7. An abdicrat is a group member whose control needs are met, who has no problem with power, and who is comfortable giving and taking orders.
a. True
3.2-9. You can help satisfy a member's control need by giving that person responsibility for and leadership of a special project or a highly visible and important subcommittee.
a. True
4.2-12. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator looks at the different ways in which people prefer to use their minds: specifically, the way they perceive and the way they make judgments.
a. True
4.2-13. In group discussions, introverts find it hard to both absorb all the information and formulate an opinion about it.
a. True
4.2-14. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, sensor is the opposite personality trait preference of intuitive.
a. True
4.2-16. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, perceivers value flexibility, dislike deadlines, and often do their work at the last minute.
a. True
4.2-19. 4 of Geert Hofstede's cultural dimensions are individualism-collectivism, power distance, uncertainty avoidance, and masculine-feminine values.
a. True
4.2-2. A culture is a learned set of shared interpretations about beliefs, values, and norms which affect the behaviors of a relatively large group of people.
a. True
4.2-20. To someone from a collectivist culture, a U.S. communicator's style and behavior may be viewed as selfish, arrogant, antagonistic, power-hungry, ruthless, and impatient.
a. True
4.2-21. In collectivist cultures, there is greater readiness to cooperate with group members.
a. True
4.2-23. Low power distance cultures include those in Israel, New Zealand, and Denmark.
a. True
4.2-25. The way in which Japanese people bow to one another in a face-to-face greeting demonstrates how the culture expresses power distance.
a. True
4.2-26. Group members with more feminine cultural values may be highly effective and supportive but are less likely to achieve a real voice or influence in group decision making or leadership.
a. True
4.2-28. Germans represent people from a low-context culture.
a. True
4.2-29. Polychronic time people are frequently late for appointments or may not show up at all.
a. True
4.2-3. American Indian tribes, African Americans, Hispanic/Latino Americans, Asian Americans, Arab Americans, Irish Americans, and members of large and small religious groups are all examples of co-cultures.
a. True
4.2-32. Books such as Men Are from Mars, Women Are from Venus have perpetuated stereotypes that cause harm to both men and women, including women's opportunities in the workplace, couple conflict and communication, and self- esteem problems among teenagers.
a. True
4.2-33. Research in group communication claims that some female members feel undervalued or invisible when working with male group members.
a. True
4.2-35. In light of Myers-Briggs personality traits, women may be more effective by asking men what they think rather than what they feel.
a. True
4.2-36. Cheris Kramarae's Muted Group Theory claims that those with power in a society
a. True
4.2-39. Baby Boomers—the workaholic generation—are often adept when it comes to navigating political minefields in the workplace.
a. True
4.2-40. Religious literacy requires the ability to understand and use the religious terms, symbols, images, beliefs, practices, scripture, heroes, themes, and stories that are employed in American public life.
a. True
4.2-42. Members of the Christian Scientist religious group believe that disease is a delusion of the carnal mind that can be cured by prayer.
a. True
4.2-5. 4 barriers to working in diverse groups are ethnocentrism, stereotyping, prejudice, and discrimination.
a. True
4.2-6. A study of college students in the 1990s found that African Americans were stereotyped as lazy and loud, and Jews were described as shrewd and intelligent. a. True
a. True
4.2-8. Discrimination describes how we act out and express prejudices.
a. True
4.2-9. Stereotypes often lead to prejudices.
a. True
5.2-1. All groups need leadership.
a. True
5.2-10. If you want to emerge as the leader of a group, you should talk first and more often than other members.
a. True
5.2-11. When someone from within a group is appointed as its leader, the new leader should openly discuss leadership and seek members' help in resolving potential problems.
a. True
5.2-13. Autocratic leaders may be effective during a serious crisis when there's not enough time to hold a group discussion.
a. True
5.2-15. Laissez-faire leaders may have power, but they hesitate to exert their influence on group members and group work.
a. True
5.2-16. In mature and highly productive groups, a laissez-faire leader may be a good match for the group.
a. True
5.2-17. Functional Leadership Theory claims that an effective group can have more than one member serving in a leadership role.
a. True
5.2-19. According to Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness, task- motivated leaders gain satisfaction from completing a task even if the cost is bad feelings between the leader and group members.
a. True
5.2-21. According to Hersey and Blanchard, "member readiness" refers to the extent to which members are willing and able to work together.
a. True
5.2-23. Hersey and Blanchard's selling stage of leadership is similar to Tuckman's storming stage of group development.
a. True
5.2-25. Transformational leaders help members understand the need for change, both emotionally and intellectually.
a. True
5.2-26. The 5M Model of Leadership Effectiveness divides leadership tasks into 5 interdependent leadership functions: (1) Model leadership behavior; (2) Motivate members; (3) Manage the group process; (4) Make decisions; and (5) Mentor members.
a. True
5.2-27. In the 5M Model of Leadership Effectiveness, leaders Manage group process by organizing and fully preparing for group meetings and work sessions.
a. True
5.2-28. According to the 5M Model of Leadership Effectiveness, effective leaders explain the rationale or reasons for the decisions they make.
a. True
5.2-29. Women are less likely than men to be preselected as leaders.
a. True
5.2-3. Bennis and Nanus claim that power is the quality without which leaders cannot lead.
a. True
5.2-31. Research indicates that there are only slight differences in the behavior and style of male and female leaders.
a. True
5.2-32. In his book, Good to Great, Jim Collins claims that effective leaders act modestly, do not boast, and shun public glorification.
a. True
5.2-35. Group members from uncertainty avoidance cultures want more structure and instruction from a leader.
a. True
5.2-36. A leader who prefers a democratic approach to decision making may frustrate members who come from high power distance cultures.
a. True
5.2-6. According to researchers, reward, legitimate, and coercive power are less effective than referent and expert power.
a. True
5.2-7. Coercive power can be effective when group members are aware of the leader's expectations and are warned in advance about the penalties for failing to comply. a. True
a. True
5.2-8. A designated leader is selected by group members or by an outside authority.
a. True
6.2-1. In order to achieve an optimal group experience, groups must negotiate several dialectic tensions such as engaged ? disengaged and task dimensions ? social dimensions.
a. True
6.2-11. Group members from low-context cultures often complain that they never receive praise or rewards when, in fact, they are highly respected and valued by others.
a. True
6.2-13. When groups experience apathy, intrinsic motivators—such as a sense of meaningfulness and progress—are minimal or missing.
a. True
6.2-14. In order to motivate the members of virtual groups, provide a detailed agenda well in advance of a scheduled meeting, along with any resources and online documents needed for the meeting.
a. True
6.2-18. When providing informational feedback to group members, "it" statements avoid using the word "you" when describing individual or group behavior.
a. True
6.2-20. For the most part, extrinsic rewards do not motivate groups to work together in pursuit of a shared goal.
a. True
6.2-21. Completing a challenging group project can provide intrinsic rewards.
a. True
6.2-22. One study examining employee turnover found that the chief reason people give for leaving a job is the lack of intrinsic rewards.
a. True
6.2-23. Groups or leaders with the power to reward members should make sure the rewards are fair, equitable, competitive, and appropriate.
a. True
6.2-25. If each group member does not have an equal opportunity to earn rewards, the group may become less productive.
a. True
6.2-26. Researchers have found that high-performing groups participate in a wide variety and frequency of celebrations where recognition and appreciation is expressed.
a. True
6.2-27. The highest-performing managers show more warmth, fondness, and affection towards others than do the bottom 25% of managers.
a. True
6.2-29. Punishment—subjecting members to a penalty or negative consequence—does not motivate.
a. True
6.2-3. Maslow's belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization needs are classified as motivators rather than satisfiers.
a. True
6.2-4. Money can satisfy deficiency needs, but it will not necessarily motivate a group or its members to work harder or better.
a. True
6.2-6. According to Schutz's FIRO Theory, if you know that some group members have an unmet inclusion need, you can motivate them by asking them to participate more actively and telling them how valuable they are to the group.
a. True
6.2-7. Brainstorming often works best in a high-inclusion, low-control atmosphere.
a. True
6.2-8. In Myers-Briggs terms, thinkers should be thanked for their analysis but also reminded that logical decisions impact real people.
a. True
7.2-1. Group members' tone of voice, eye contact, and physical proximity can tell you as much or more about their thoughts and feelings than the words they speak.
a. True
7.2-10. The 6 dimensions in Donnellon's team talk include conflict management, negotiation, and identification.
a. True
7.2-11. "Hey Fred, try to find out whether Bob will be able to hang out with us after the meeting is over" is an example of the social equality dimension of team talk
a. True
7.2-13. Effective group members in positions of power engage in team talk by refraining from talking and interrupting more than others do.
a. True
7.2-16. Group members who look for meaning in the people using words rather than in the words themselves are less likely to bypass or be bypassed.
a. True
7.2-18. When dealing with a group member who uses abusive language to attack or intimidate others, your textbook suggests asking the person to repeat what he or she has said.
a. True
7.2-2. African American and Latino members may be more sensitive to the nonverbal components of messages, whereas European Americans may rely on and trust a member's words to convey meaning.
a. True
7.2-21. Male speech is generally characterized as more direct and forceful than female speech.
a. True
7.2-22. Dialects are distinct from the commonly accepted form of a particular language.
a. True
7.2-24. A consistent finding across several studies is that speakers of Standard American
a. True
7.2-25. Many middle-class African Americans engage in codeswitching as they speak both
a. True
7.2-28. Good-looking people tend to make more money and get promoted more often than those with average looks.
a. True
7.2-31. If you slouch in your chair, other group members may interpret your posture as lack of interest or dislike for the group.
a. True
7.2-32. Touch in groups can result in greater teamwork, solidarity, and sharing among members.
a. True
7.2-35. We usually use Hall's social distance (4 to 8 feet apart) with new acquaintances and strangers.
a. True
7.2-37. Sociologist Jack Gibb describes a defensive climate as one in which members devote attention to protecting themselves and defeating their perceived opponents. a. True
a. True
7.2-38. There may be times when a group member may need to behave in a way that creates a defensive climate in order to help a group achieve its goal.
a. True
7.2-39. The dialectic opposite of the defensive behavior Gibb labels as evaluation is a supportive behavior Gibb labels as description.
a. True
7.2-40. A group member engaging in Gibb's supportive behavior labeled empathy might say, "I can't believe he said that to you. No wonder you're upset."
a. True
7.2-42. Groups in supportive climates show evidence of nonverbal immediacy.
a. True
7.2-5. In connotative language, a word always has only one meaning.
a. True
7.2-6. Abstract words refer to ideas or concepts you cannot see or touch, such as dignity, hope, and faith.
a. True
7.2-7. Concrete words refer to specific things you perceive with your senses—things you can see, hear, touch, smell, or taste.
a. True
7.2-8. Speaking in an active voice ("Our group has completed the report due next week") rather than a passive voice ("The report due next week has been completed by our group") follows a team talk recommendation.
a. True
7.2-9. In Donnellon's recommendations for effective team talk, you would use the negotiation strategy to ask "what if" questions, propose solution criteria, and summarize areas of agreement.
a. True
8.2-10. Stephen Covey, author of The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People, defines a habit as a practice requiring knowledge, skills, and desire.
a. True
8.2-12. You can enhance listening comprehension by asking good questions during a discussion.
a. True
8.2-13. Effective comprehensive listeners ask themselves, "Can I accurately identify the main ideas and evidence used to support a group member's claims?"
a. True
8.2-14. Effective analytical listeners ask themselves, "Are group members' claims valid and based on logical reasoning?"
a. True
8.2-17. Members who excel in task and maintenance roles are often skilled listeners.
a. True
8.2-18. Members who assume self-centered group roles may be excellent listeners.
a. True
8.2-2. Listening is our number one communication activity.
a. True
8.2-21. Thought speed is the speed (in words per minute) that most people can think compared to the speed at which others can speak.
a. True
8.2-23. According to your textbook, it may be easier to "listen" to group members in a text-based virtual meeting than in a face-to-face setting.
a. True
8.2-24. If Will asks, "Could you help me out and summarize your point in a couple of sentences?" he is using the listening strategy referred to as listen for big ideas. a. True
a. True
8.2-26. Active listeners often have higher blood pressure, a higher pulse rate, and perspire more than members who are passive listeners.
a. True
8.2-27. Paraphrasing is a form of feedback—a listening check—that asks, "Am I right—is this what you mean?"
a. True
8.2-3. Effective listeners make themselves listen even when the topic or members' comments are boring.
a. True
8.2-30. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator predicts that introverts will be better comprehensive listeners than extroverts.
a. True
8.2-33. Good listeners adjust their note-taking system to a group's agenda or impose a note-taking pattern on a disorganized discussion.
a. True
8.2-34. "Do members seems to be listening to me or do I seem to be talking to a blank wall?" is a question that can help you translate member feedback into useful information about the way you speak.
a. True
8.2-5. Your textbook describes a study in which personnel managers identified effective listening as the most important communication skill needed by their employees.
a. True
8.2-6. According to your textbook, people without listening training listen at only 25%
a. True
8.2-9. Of the total time we spend communicating, about 10-20% of that time is spent reading.
a. True
9.2-1. Conflict in groups occurs when members disagree about issues, ideas, decisions, actions, or goals.
a. True
9.2-11. All 5 of the traditional conflict styles reflect 2 factors: concern for individual goals and concern for group goals.
a. True
9.2-13. When an issue is not very important to you but very important to other group members, an accommodation conflict style may be appropriate.
a. True
9.2-15. The competitive conflict style reflects a high concern for self and a low concern for the group.
a. True
9.2-16. The collaborative conflict style searches for new solutions that achieve both the goals of individual members and the goals of the group.
a. True
9.2-19. The 4Rs Method helps group members analyze the conflict before selecting a method for resolving the conflict.
a. True
9.2-2. Substantive conflict in groups can improve group problem solving, promote cohesiveness, increase group knowledge, enhance creativity, and help members achieve the group's common goal.
a. True
9.2-21. The first step in the 4Rs Method of examining group conflict is to ask "What are the Reasons why we are having this conflict?"
a. True
9.2-22. In Wisinski's A-E-I-O-U Model of conflict resolution, the first step involves believing that other group members want to resolve the conflict.
a. True
9.2-25. A mediator does not take sides in a dispute.
a. True
9.2-26. Arbitration involves a third party who, after considering all sides in a dispute, decides the conflict will be resolved.
a. True
9.2-27. Studies show that men and women from similar cultures do not differ significantly in terms of the conflict strategies and styles they use.
a. True
9.2-28. Studies show that men and women from similar cultures do not differ significantly in terms of the conflict strategies and styles they use.
a. True
9.2-29. In intercultural terms, "face" is the positive image a group member wishes to create or preserve.
a. True
9.2-31. Cultures that place a great deal of value on "saving face" discourage personal attacks and outcomes in which one person "loses."
a. True
9.2-32. Group cohesiveness is characterized by high levels of interaction and a friendly and supportive communication climate.
a. True
9.2-34. Highly cohesive groups are at greater risk of succumbing to groupthink.
a. True
9.2-36. The groupthink symptom of rationalization is illustrated in the following comment by a group member: "What do they expect—miracles? We didn't have enough time, members, or resources to solve this problem."
a. True
2.1-8. In which of which of Carolyn Anderson's group socialization stages do members adjust to group expectations, assume needed roles, and balance their personal goals with the group's goals?
c. encounter phrase
15.1-23. In parliamentary procedure, the previous question motion means
c. end debate vote on the motion.
7.1-34. Toby presents a proposed solution to a group problem and says "If it's okay with everyone, I'd like to explain how this solution worked in a group I once belonged
c. equality
3.1-2. Which of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is primarily met when someone joins an exclusive club or is elected as leader of a prestigious group?
c. esteem
6.1-5. Which of Maslow's needs can a group meet if it deliberately limits its membership to carefully selected, notable individuals?
c. esteem needs
10.1-9. "How many of our company employees hire a daycare provider to watch their children during the workday?" This group discussion question represents a question of
c. fact.
13.1-27. Your textbook makes 2 recommendations to help you "exercise restraint" when designing presentation slides. One of those recommendations is
c. follow the 6-by-6 rule.
2.1-3. You have just joined a newly formed group responsible for developing a recycling program for your community. At first, group members are somewhat uncomfortable working with strangers. Which of Tuckman's stages of group development is your group experiencing?
c. forming
4.1-39. A 2007 study of college students investigating whether men or women talk more found that
c. generally, men talk more than women.
11.1-37. "Don't go to that restaurant. I went once, and the service was awful." What fallacy is being committed in this statement?
c. hasty generalization
10.1-33. The major advantage and reason for using the DOT method is that it
c. helps reduce and refine a large number of suggestions into a manageable number of ideas.
8.1-4. Unlike working memory theory, short-term memory
c. helps you remember about 7 (plus or minus 2) different items or bits of information at one time.
5.1-4. Dianna has been elected as leader of the research group because she has published more than any other team member on the research topic. What type of power is this?
c. informational power
10.1-26. All of the following answers represent basic stages in the development of group creativity EXCEPT
c. interpretation.
13.1-28. Edward Tufte, a well-respected graphic designer, criticizes PowerPoint because
c. it disrupts, dominates, and trivializes content.
5.1-10. Trait Leadership Theory, also known as the "Great Man" theory, contends that
c. leaders are born, not made.
12.1-16. When members are late to a meeting, the chairperson should
c. let latecomers sit without participating until they have observed enough to be able to contribute.
4.1-24. In cultures, people are more dependent on language to express what they mean.
c. low-context
14.1-27. Which of the following types of member behaviors are unique in causing problems for groups using email to conduct business?
c. lurkers and loafers
5.1-26. Modeling leadership behavior in the 5M Model of Leadership Effectivness includes all of the following strategies EXCEPT
c. maintaining control at all times.
12.1-20. Deborah Duarte and Nancy Snyder point out that "technology cannot make up for poor planning or ill-conceived meetings. In fact, it can make the situation worse. " In order to avoid such problems in a virtual meeting, you should
c. make sure that participants have access to the technology and know how to use it effectively.
7.1-36. All of the following nonverbal behaviors are characteristics of nonverbal immediacy EXCEPT
c. more leaning back.
8.1-2. Studies have found that listening occupies of a college student's communicating time.
c. more than 50%
15.1-12. A parliamentarian
c. must have a thorough knowledge of parliamentary procedure.
1.1-13. Guests who appear on talk shows and interact with other guests for the benefit of an audience are participating in a
c. panel discussion.
15.1-27. All of the following items may be debated EXCEPT
c. point of order.
10.1-13. A Congressional debate on a bill to increase penalties for fraud committed by business CEOs is a question of
c. policy.
11.1-25. "Our town should enact a curfew for all juveniles." This statement is an example of
c. policy.
10.1-38. There are several problem-solving realities that can prevent a group from working effectively and ethically. For example, a strong and stubborn leader can lead group members off on tangents and irrelevant discussions that have nothing to do with the group's goal. In this particular case, will likely affect the outcome of every decision and problem the group confronts.
c. power
4.1-7. People who have biased beliefs about group members that are not based on direct experience and firsthand knowledge or have irrational feelings of dislike and even hatred for certain groups would be classified as
c. prejudiced.
13.1-15. Which organizational pattern would probably be most effective for a presentation that explains why trash recycling is needed and how the community can implement a more effective recycling program?
c. problem-solution
2.1-13. Implicit norms are
c. rarely discussed by members.
3.1-13. R. Meredith Belvin's Team-Role Theory differs from the older Benne and Sheats's role classifications in that Belvin's roles
c. recognize that group members seek out and perform roles that are most natural to them.
5.1-1. At the end of every month, a sales manager offers a cash bonus to the most
c. reward power
5.1-16. Which theory of leadership explains how leaders can become more effective once they have carefully analyzed themselves, their groups, and the circumstances in which they must lead?
c. situational theory
1.1-22. In group dialectic terms, effective groups balance structure and
c. spontaneity.
11.1-27. When presenting an argument, in which order should you use the following steps?
c. state your claim, support your claim, provide reasons, summarize your argument
11.1-14. "More than 40% of American claim to have read The da Vinci Code." What type of evidence is used in this example?
c. statistic
9.1-1. The members of a civic association's committee on community safety disagree on whether to install more expensive street lighting throughout the development. What type of conflict is the group experiencing?
c. substantive
3.1-23. Cognitive restructuring is an anxiety reduction technique that involves
c. substituting worrisome, irrational thoughts about communicating with more positive thoughts.
14.1-4. Computer conferences that occur simultaneously in real time are examples of
c. synchronous communication.
10.1-20. The first 3 steps in the Standard Agenda format of group problem solving are
c. task clarification, problem identification, fact finding.
2.1-21. In Philip Zimbardo's famous study, students were assigned the role of guard or prisoner in a realistic-looking prison in a Stanford University basement. The experiment was halted before its scheduled completion because
c. the "guards" became abusive and the "prisoners" became passive and depressed.
5.1-27. According to the 5M Model of Leadership Effectiveness, all of the following items are characteristic of effective decision making by group leaders EXCEPT
c. the ability to identify and make popular decisions.
2.1-10. According to Locke and Latham's Goal Theory, all of the following criteria are critical for developing effective group goals EXCEPT
c. the goals are simple and easy to achieve.
14.1-9. Group polarization often intensifies in virtual groups because
c. there are fewer nonverbal cues to moderate members' opinions and behavior.
12.1-8. The Committee to Save the Park began a discussion of plans to organize a park clean-up day. There was not enough time during the meeting to finish the discussion. In what part of the agenda for the next meeting should this issue appear?
c. unfinished business
14.1-25. When engaging in a virtual group meeting via email, you should
c. use correct grammatical form.
11.1-10. Which component of the Toulmin Model of Argument is represented in Part II of the following argument? I. Joan would be a good leader. / II. Good leaders are effective communicators. / III. Joan got an A in the communication course she took.
c. warrant
11.1-7. Which component of the Toulmin Model of Argument explains why the evidence supports the claim?
c. warrant
12.1-24. Complexity Theory helps explain
c. why groups need to balance dialectic tensions.
5.1-30. Research verifies all of the following conclusions about women and leadership
c. women who act "ladylike" are viewed as much more effective than women who behave like strong male leaders.
9.2-38. The groupthink symptom of self-censorship is illustrated in the following comment by a group member: "I'm not crazy about this idea, but everyone else seems to think it's terrific. I guess I'll go along with the group and vote 'yes' when it's time to approve or disapprove the proposal."
a. True
9.2-39. You can reduce the chances of groupthink by following a formal decision-making procedure that encourages members to disagree and evaluate one another's ideas. a. True
a. True
9.2-5. When a group cannot negotiate a both/and approach to the individual goal ? group goal dialectic, hidden agendas are likely to result.
a. True
9.2-6. "She acted that way because she doesn't like me and doesn't want our group to succeed" could be a conclusion explained by the principles in Attribution Theory. a. True
a. True
9.2-7. In groups that engage in constructive conflict, disagreement is not punished and low-status members are free to challenge higher-status group members.
a. True
1.1-30. All of the following principles of ethical communication are included in the National Communication Association's Credo for Ethical Communication EXCEPT
a. We endorse freedom of speech only when the truth does not cause detrimental results or harm others.
9.1-11. Which conflict style has a high concern for group goals and a low concern for the member's personal goals?
a. accommodation
9.1-9. Which conflict style would be appropriate if the issue is very important to others but is not very important to you; you realize that you are wrong or that you have changed your mind; it is more important to preserve group harmony than resolve the issue?
a. accommodation
2.1-26. Which of the following characteristics was NOT one of the 8 characteristics that emerged in the Carl Larson and Frank LaFasto study that asked "What are the secrets of successful teams?"
a. adherence to group norms
9.1-3. Joe gets angry with Delores during a committee meeting because she interrupts his remarks and suggests that his ideas are a waste of time. What type of conflict is occurring in this situation?
a. affective
8.1-8. Two committee members make significantly different recommendations for the date and format of the company's annual picnic. Which type of listening will help you decide which suggestion to support?
a. analytical listening
12.1-7. At what point in the agenda does a chairperson officially begin a meeting?
a. at the call to order
13.1-14. Which organizational pattern would probably be most effective for a presentation designed to explain a company's hiring procedures step by step?
a. time arrangement
15.1-11. If you are the chair of a parliamentary session and are also the group leader or an association officer, you should only vote
a. to make or break a tie.
1.2-32. "Two's company; three's a crowd" and "Music makes the world go 'round" are examples of dialectic tensions.
b. False
1.2-36. When a group functions as an open system, it guards its boundaries and discourages input from or interaction with the outside.
b. False
1.2-38. Empowered groups feel free to exert control over other groups in order to achieve their personal goals.
b. False
1.2-7. According to your textbook, leadership is the single factor that separates successful groups from unsuccessful groups.
b. False
1.2-8. As groups grow larger, member satisfaction increases.
b. False
10.2-10. A question of value asks whether something good or bad will or will not happen.
b. False
10.2-11. "It just feels like the right thing to do" describes the thought process of a dependent decision maker.
b. False
10.2-14. Research has identified the Standard Agenda approach as the most effective problem-solving model.
b. False
10.2-15. The Standard Agenda requires group members to follow 7 steps that begin with task clarification and end with solution suggestions.
b. False
10.2-19. Each step of the Functional Approach to group problem solving should be completed in order.
b. False
10.2-2. The process of decision making requires a group to analyze a problem, debate pros and cons, and select and implement a solution.
b. False
10.2-22. The Preparation Function in the Functional Approach to problem solving requires that group members establish and use agreed-upon criteria to evaluate possible solutions.
b. False
10.2-25. One of the factors that makes the Single Question Format of group problem solving unique is its focus on identifying and analyzing possible solutions.
b. False
10.2-28. The 3 creative problem-solving methods described in your textbook are the Single
b. False
10.2-29. Brainstorming is based on several models including John Dewey's Reflective
b. False
10.2-32. "All Input, No Putdown" is a characteristic of the Nominal Group Technique
b. False
10.2-33. Nominal Group Technique is a way of minimizing participation in problem solving and maximizing interpersonal interaction and debate.
b. False
10.2-36. Nominal Group Technique is a decision-making tool that helps groups reduce and refine a large number of suggestions into a manageable number of ideas.
b. False
10.2-38. DOT is a brainstorming technique intended primarily to generate more ideas.
b. False
10.2-4. Voting is the best way to make group decisions.
b. False
10.2-40. The steps in the Decreasing Options Technique should be taken in the following order: generate ideas, sort ideas, post ideas, dot the ideas.
b. False
10.2-45. Groups should ignore the fact that members may have preexisting preferences about what a group should do.
b. False
10.2-6. Consensus occurs when the majority of group members agree to support a decision or action.
b. False
10.2-9. A question of policy asks whether something will or will not happen.
b. False
11.2-10. Rather than asking "How did you get there?" a warrant asks "What have you got to go on?"
b. False
11.2-12. In the Toulmin Model of Argument, backing refers to exceptions to an argument that may invalidate the claim.
b. False
11.2-13. As a form of evidence, a fact is a statement that evaluates an event, idea, person, or object.
b. False
11.2-15. "Leadership is the ability to make strategic decisions and use communication effectively to mobilize group members toward achieving a common goal" is an example of an opinion.
b. False
11.2-19. The question "Is the information recent?" is the test for explaining why The New
b. False
11.2-2. An argument and an opinion are essentially the same concept.
b. False
11.2-21. "The Volvo is the best family vehicle in the market" is a claim of fact.
b. False
11.2-25. Refutation is the process of presenting an argument's claim, evidence, and warrant.
b. False
11.2-28. The following fallacy is an example of appeal to tradition: "Who are you to support our troops? As I recall, you were arrested at an anti-war demonstration in the early 1970s."
b. False
11.2-31. The following fallacy is an example of an appeal to popularity: "Everybody I've talked to on my street intends to vote for Ms. Kullen. I'm sure she'll win."
b. False
11.2-32. An appeal to tradition is a fallacy that justifies an action because many others do the same thing or share the same opinion.
b. False
11.2-33. Men are more likely than women to use evidence in arguments.
b. False
11.2-35. During the course of an argument, men are much more likely to search out many different perspectives on a subject as well as ask questions.
b. False
11.2-37. Rybacki and Rybacki's 4 ethical responsibilities in argumentation focus on claims of fact, conjecture, value, and policy.
b. False
11.2-39. In effective arguments, group members should use logical reasoning rather than engaging emotional intelligence to make effective decisions.
b. False
11.2-42. Self-concept, self-disclosure, self-assertion, and selflessness characterize emotional intelligence.
b. False
11.2-5. Arguing in groups is always disruptive and should be avoided.
b. False
11.2-7. Highly argumentative members dislike having their positions challenged.
b. False
12.2-10. You should balance the sequence of discussion topics in an agenda by putting important and difficult items at the very beginning of the meeting.
b. False
12.2-12. Once the chairperson has prepared an agenda, group members should not request modifications or additions before or during the meeting.
b. False
12.2-18. The person assigned as a meeting recorder is responsible for reviewing the minutes, distributing the minutes of the meeting, and sending any reports that were prepared.
b. False
12.2-4. A chairperson's job is complete when a meeting adjourns.
b. False
12.2-8. All meetings follow the traditional sequence of business agenda items.
b. False
12.2-9. After group members approve a business meeting's agenda and minutes, the next step is to take up new business.
b. False
13.2-12. If your listeners agree with you or are undecided, the 2 best strategies to use are finding common ground and setting modest, realistic goals.
b. False
13.2-14. According to researchers, the 3 components of speaker credibility are likability, attractiveness, and immediacy.
b. False
13.2-15. Aristotle's concept of ethos has evolved into what we now call speaker content.
b. False
13.2-20. An effective presentation that summarizes the arguments used by those who support and oppose the teaching of evolution in public schools should use a problem-solution organizational pattern.
b. False
13.2-25. Reading from the script of your presentation ensures that your presentation will be accurate and well received by your audience.
b. False
13.2-26. The most tolerable and useful all-purpose rate of presentation speaking is 180-250 words per minute.
b. False
13.2-3. Selecting appropriate content is the first and most important step in developing a successful presentation.
b. False
13.2-30. Team presentations save time, effort, and money for those preparing and making the presentation.
b. False
13.2-32. If you want to make sure that audience members participate in a question-and- answer session, begin each session with the following question: "Are there any questions?"
b. False
13.2-34. The 6-by-6 rule says you should not display more than 6 computer-generated slides in 6 minutes of speaking time.
b. False
13.2-38. The use of PowerPoint to create presentation slides has been criticized because it is less interesting than a live speaker.
b. False
13.2-41. Paper handouts cannot show text, numbers, data, graphics, and images more effectively than slides can.
b. False
13.2-5. A presentation's purpose answers the question "How can I connect with my audience and enhance my believability?"
b. False
13.2-7. The individual attributes of audience members include age, gender, ethnicity, religion, and marital status.
b. False
13.2-9. If most of your listeners disagree with you, focus on introducing new information and summarizing important ideas and arguments.
b. False
14.2-10. Virtual groupthink describes the tendency of group members to express more extreme opinions and take more extreme actions.
b. False
14.2-12. Virtual groups always communicate asynchronously.
b. False
14.2-15. Audioconferences take 3 basic forms: conferences calls, computer-based voice links, and teleconferences.
b. False
14.2-18. 2 of the primary disadvantages of audioconferences are that they are ineffective for brainstorming and frustrate members who need to talk through ideas and debate issues.
b. False
14.2-19. Preparation for a videoconference is the same as it would be for a face-to-face meeting.
b. False
14.2-21. In general, videoconferences are NOT effective for collecting and sharing data, collaborative decision making, or negotiating interpersonal problems.
b. False
14.2-24. Textconferences are effective for collaborative decision making and resolving interpersonal problems.
b. False
14.2-3. When tasks are complex, computer-mediated groups usually perform better than face-to-face groups.
b. False
14.2-32. Email discussions are effective for brainstorming, debating issues, making difficult decisions, and solving complex problems.
b. False
14.2-33. Like email, a bulletin board is a synchronous text-based communication medium.
b. False
14.2-36. An expert-led investigation by the magazine Nature found that the web-based Wikipedia's content was less current and more inaccurate than the prestigious Encyclopedia Britannica.
b. False
14.2-5. Media Richness Theory contends that virtual groups are more successful because they can see and respond instantly to feedback and use a natural speaking/writing style.
b. False
14.2-8. Media Synchronicity Theory was developed before and led to Media Richness
b. False
15.2-1. All meetings should use parliamentary procedure.
b. False
15.2-11. A quorum is always 51% of group members who are eligible to vote.
b. False
15.2-16. If the chair of a meeting using parliamentary procedure votes to create a tie, the proposed action is accepted.
b. False
15.2-20. If a member moves the previous question, the group must reconsider an amendment to a main motion.
b. False
15.2-25. In a parliamentary meeting, the chair must recognize the person who seconds a motion.
b. False
15.2-26. The person who seconds a motion in a meeting using parliamentary procedure must vote for the motion.
b. False
15.2-27. A second is not required in order for a main motion to be discussed.
b. False
15.2-28. You can amend a motion by substituting a totally different motion for the one under consideration by a group.
b. False
15.2-32. A main motion has precedence over motions to end debate, refer to a committee, and questions of privilege.
b. False
15.2-4. Only corporations and government legislatures are required to use parliamentary procedure to conduct official meetings.
b. False
15.2-5. By protecting the rights of all members to speak for or against a proposal, parliamentary procedure ensures that the majority will prevail.
b. False
15.2-8. The 4 guiding principles of parliamentary procedure focus on guaranteeing the best decisions, majority rights, argumentations, and timely progress.
b. False
2.2-1. The correct order for the 5 stages in Tuckman's Group Development Stages are forming, performing, storming, norming, adjourning.
b. False
2.2-11. During the antecedent phase of newcomer socialization, new members adjust to group expectations and assume needed roles.
b. False
2.2-14. Locke and Latham's Goal Theory concludes that groups function best when their goals are easy to accomplish and are set by a strong leader.
b. False
2.2-17. Groups should avoid discussing hidden agendas openly in order to avoid member embarrassment and the potential for interpersonal conflict.
b. False
2.2-19. Explicit norms are rarely discussed or openly communicated, whereas implicit norms are put in writing or stated verbally.
b. False
2.2-21. When group members expect and receive an agenda in advance of meetings and follow the agenda during meetings, they are abiding by an interaction norm.
b. False
2.2-26. Members who engage in disruptive or nonconforming behavior should always be confronted about their behavior as soon as possible.
b. False
2.2-27. When a highly disruptive member prevents a group from achieving its common goals, a group should use the following strategies—in the following order—to deal with the troublesome member: confront, exclude, and accept.
b. False
2.2-3. The frustration and personality conflicts that occur in groups as members compete for acceptance and status are the source of primary tension.
b. False
2.2-30. In Carl Larson and Frank LaFasto's three-year study of characteristics of highly effective groups, "the ability to change group norms" was included in their list of eight key characteristics.
b. False
2.2-7. During the norming stage of group development, groups primarily confront the conflict ? cohesion dialectic and the leadership ? followership dialectic.
b. False
2.2-9. During Tuckman's performing stage of group development, feelings of trust and clear goals emerge as members become more comfortable with one another and agree upon group procedures.
b. False
3.2-11. Group maintenance roles affect a group's ability to achieve its common goal by focusing on behaviors that help get the job done.
b. False
3.2-15. Belvin's team roles include information seeker, energizer, harmonizer, compromiser, aggressor, and clown.
b. False
3.2-18. Communication apprehension occurs only in a public speaking situation.
b. False
3.2-2. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs includes control, inclusion, and affection needs.
b. False
3.2-23. Richmond and McCroskey report that "almost 50% of the population reports being scared about communicating with a person or group at some point in their lives."
b. False
3.2-26. The strategies of cognitive restructuring help highly apprehensive group members communicate more confidently because they teach them important skills for participating in a discussion.
b. False
3.2-27. There is nothing a group can do to help members who suffer from high levels of communication apprehension.
b. False
3.2-29. Aggressive communicators ask and answer questions without fear or hostility and stand up for their beliefs even when others disagree.
b. False
3.2-4. When people join groups for the personal reward that comes with helping others, they are satisfying Maslow's belongingness need.
b. False
3.2-8. If Gabe tries to impress others with what and whom he knows and frequently attracts attention to compensate for feelings of inadequacy, he may be exhibiting behavior characteristic of an overpersonal member.
b. False
4.2-1. During the 1990s, the African American population increased 58%, and the
b. False
4.2-10. Prejudices are based on extensive and direct experience as well as personal, firsthand knowledge about a group of people.
b. False
4.2-11. Scott Page, a political scientist at the University of Michigan, concludes that "intelligence alone is the most important factor in guaranteeing a group different perspectives on a problem."
b. False
4.2-17. The ideal group would be composed of members who represent the Myers-Briggs personality type of extroverted thinker.
b. False
4.2-18. Edward Hall's work on cultural differences identifies 2 dimensions that characterize cultural groups: uncertainty avoidance and masculine-feminine values.
b. False
4.2-22. About 70% of the world's population regards independence and individualism as a more important value than collectivism.
b. False
4.2-24. In low power distance cultures, members accept major differences in power as normal, assuming that all people are not created equal.
b. False
4.2-27. Members of a high-context culture tend to speak more, speak louder, and speak more rapidly than people from a low-context culture.
b. False
4.2-30. People in polychronic cultures usually adhere to plans, schedules, and deadlines because time is valuable.
b. False
4.2-31. People from low-context cultures may prefer more information-rich technologies (such as videoconferences), as well as those that offer the feeling of social presence. a. True
b. False
4.2-34. In light of Myers-Briggs personality traits, women will be more successful in groups if they do not use sarcasm with male members or tell them that they're illogical.
b. False
4.2-37. In general, women talk more than men do.
b. False
4.2-38. Generation Xers or the Generation X are confident and have high self-esteem.
b. False
4.2-4. The second layer of diversity depicted in your textbook represents internal dimensions over which you have no control such as religion, marital status, and educational background.
b. False
4.2-41. Islam is older than Judaism.
b. False
4.2-7. Ethnocentrism is a generalization about a group of people that oversimplifies their characteristics.
b. False
5.2-12. Traits Leadership Theory assumes that leaders are made, not born.
b. False
5.2-14. According to Styles Leadership Theory, the democratic leadership style is always best.
b. False
5.2-18. According to Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness, relationship-motivated leaders perform best in extremes—such as when the situation is highly controlled or when it is almost out of control.
b. False
5.2-2. Whereas managers focus on effectiveness, leaders are concerned with efficiency.
b. False
5.2-20. Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness claims that there are 2 important dimensions to every leadership situation: the level of leader charisma and the level of leader power.
b. False
5.2-22. According to Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Model, a leader should tell a group what to do and closely supervise its work when members are able but not unwilling or insecure.
b. False
5.2-24. Charismatic leaders rely on reward, coercive, and legitimate power.
b. False
5.2-30. Multiple leaders are the exception rather than the rule in virtual groups.
b. False
5.2-33. In his book, Good to Great, Jim Collins claims that effective leaders do what needs to be done to achieve the group's goal in order to win public fame and fortune.
b. False
5.2-34. Leaders can motivate members from collectivist cultures by helping members achieve personal goals and high status positions.
b. False
5.2-4. Position power includes reward and coercive power whereas personal leadership power includes legitimate and informational power.
b. False
5.2-5. Legitimate power is role model power—the ability to influence that arises when one person admires another.
b. False
5.2-9. According to the Center for Business Ethics, an ethical leader would bypass a competent person in order to promote a less competent relative or close friend. a. True
b. False
6.2-10. You can motivate judgers by assuring them that they will be given opportunities to reconsider all decisions and make midcourse adjustments whenever needed.
b. False
6.2-12. Members from polychronic time cultures are motivated in groups that concentrate on a specific task or goal and that meet their deadlines.
b. False
6.2-15. In order to motivate members of virtual groups, insist that all members stay online throughout the meeting regardless of the issues being discussed.
b. False
6.2-16. Informational feedback tells people what to do whereas controlling feedback tells people how they are doing.
b. False
6.2-17. When providing informational feedback to group members, "it" statements focus more on personal traits of individual group members than on the task.
b. False
6.2-19. Reprimands motivate because they threaten to withhold valued extrinsic rewards.
b. False
6.2-2. Motivation recognizes and financially compensates group members for work well done.
b. False
6.2-24. Leaders with referent and informational power are least likely to motivate their group members.
b. False
6.2-28. If you and your group decide that someone deserves to be punished, the punishment should be unpredictable, gradual, and personal.
b. False
6.2-5. Meeting Maslow's self-actualization needs can motivate group members when they provide prestige, status, and a sense of achievement.
b. False
6.2-9. In Myers-Briggs terms, you can motivate intuitives by providing a detailed agenda, firm deadlines, and clear standards and expectations for success.
b. False
7.2-12. "Wouldn't it be great if you submitted a plan based on total group consensus?" is an example of the minimal power differentiation dimensions of team talk.
b. False
7.2-14. Bypassing is the means we use to achieve group goals, the stimulus we use to build group relationships, and the evidence we use to assess group work.
b. False
7.2-15. Effective group members who understand the importance of team talk use "I" language more than they use "you" and "we" language.
b. False
7.2-17. The use of jargon is always counterproductive in communication.
b. False
7.2-19. When dealing with a group member who uses abusive language to attack or intimidate others, your textbook recommends using controlling behaviors such as raising your own voice, swearing, or using sarcasm.
b. False
7.2-20. Men tend to language that includes tag questions such as "Let's move on to the next item on the agenda. Okay?"
b. False
7.2-23. A dialect is the sound of one language imposed on another.
b. False
7.2-26. "Those who know do not speak. Those who speak do not know" is a Chinese proverb that recognizes the power of speech.
b. False
7.2-27. Researchers suggest that more than 90% of the meaning generated when interacting with others is conveyed through nonverbal behavior.
b. False
7.2-29. Direct and consistent eye contact is insulting to many North Americans.
b. False
7.2-3. Denotation, rather than connotation, is more likely to influence how we respond to words.
b. False
7.2-30. Emoticons such as J or :-( are very effective substitutes for communicating feelings and emotions in virtual groups.
b. False
7.2-33. A number of studies have demonstrated that group members prefer face-to-face seating for cooperative activities.
b. False
7.2-34. Members of well-established groups who use Hall's personal zone to communicate with one another will find it difficult to maintain comfortable interaction.
b. False
7.2-36. Latino, Arab, and Greek group members are usually comfortable with more personal space than a North American.
b. False
7.2-4. Semanticist S. I. Hayakawa refers to "denotation" as "the aura of feelings, pleasant or unpleasant, that surround practically all words."
b. False
7.2-41. According to Jack Gibb's characteristics of supportive and defensive communication climates, control is the opposite of spontaneity.
b. False
7.2-43. A group member showing nonverbal immediacy would lean back, sit farther away from members, and rarely make eye contact.
b. False
8.2-1. Listening is the same thing as hearing.
b. False
8.2-11. Discriminative listening reveals prejudices that impair our ability to listen effectively to others.
b. False
8.2-15. Evaluating evidence while it is being presented interferes with good listening skills.
b. False
8.2-16. Effective empathic listeners welcome opportunities to hear something new or challenging and pay special attention to the eloquence of a member's words. a. True
b. False
8.2-19. Effective leaders fake attention when listening to others as a way of showing that they are interested in all members and their comments.
b. False
8.2-20. Most people can speak much faster than they can think.
b. False
8.2-28. According to your textbook, the phrasing of an effective paraphrase can vary in 3 critical ways: knowledge, emotion, and desire.
b. False
8.2-29. In general, women are more likely to listen to the content of what is said, while men tend to focus on the relationships among speakers.
b. False
8.2-31. One study concludes that international students see U.S. students as being more willing and more patient as listeners than students from African, Asian, South American, or European cultures.
b. False
8.2-32. Ralph Nichols notes that the volume of notes taken increases their value to the note taker.
b. False
8.2-35. You can engage in useful self-listening by asking yourself, "What do I really want to say to this member or the group?" and then saying it.
b. False
8.2-4. The social pressure to listen is greater in groups than it is in a conversation with just one person.
b. False
8.2-7. Working memory functions to help people remember a series of numbers, words, sentences, or paragraphs immediately after hearing them.
b. False
8.2-8. Of the total time we spend communicating, about 20-35% of that time is spent listening.
b. False
9.2-10. The 5 traditional conflict styles reflect a dialectic tension of leadership
b. False
9.2-12. Avoidance is the most useful and safest conflict style.
b. False
9.2-14. When you have strong beliefs about an issue and believe that the group may be acting unethically or illegally, a compromise conflict style may be the most appropriate.
b. False
9.2-17. The collaborative approach to conflict works best in all situations.
b. False
9.2-18. Email messages are the best way to resolve conflict in virtual groups.
b. False
9.2-20. The first step in the 4Rs Method of examining group conflict is to ask "What are the Results of the conflict if the group fails to act?"
b. False
9.2-23. Negotiation and mediation are 2 terms for the same process.
b. False
9.2-24. Negotiation requires third-party intervention in which an outsider who has conflict resolution skills can help the group analyze and resolve a conflict.
b. False
9.2-3. Conflict in groups is destructive and should be avoided if at all possible.
b. False
9.2-30. In individualistic cultures, members believe that displaying conflict publically threatens everyone's "face."
b. False
9.2-33. You can enhance group cohesiveness by using terms such as "I" and "my" instead of "we" and "our."
b. False
9.2-35. In order to avoid groupthink, you should discourage individual group members from working on the group's problem individually.
b. False
9.2-37. The groupthink symptom of mindguarding is illustrated in the following comment by a group member: "Let's not worry about the subcommittee report—they can't even correctly spell the name of the woman who did the research."
b. False
9.2-4. When members disagree about issues, ideas, decisions, actions, or goals, substantive, affective, and procedural conflicts are likely to arise.
b. False
9.2-8. Constructive conflict is characterized by competition and conflict avoidance.
b. False
9.2-9. Once a group member apologizes for a hurtful comment or a harmful action, that member should demand forgiveness from other group members.
b. False
4.1-18. Which scholar(s) define(s) an intercultural dimension as an aspect of a culture that can be measured relative to other cultures?
b. Geert Hofstede
2.1-11. occur when members' private goals conflict with the group's common goals and represent what people really want rather than what they say they want. a. The storming stage
b. Hidden agendas
2.1-12. All of the following statements are true about hidden agendas EXCEPT
b. Hidden agendas occur when there is poor group leadership.
10.1-6. What are the signs of a false consensus?
b. In order to avoid disagreement and conflict, group members agree on a common decision.
4.1-30. According to Hofstede's dimensions of culture, which country is ranked #1 in terms of masculine values?
b. Japan
6.1-17. Which of the following strategies is NOT an effective tool for motivating virtual groups?
b. Let the group create its own agenda.
8.1-1. is the ability to understand, analyze, respect, and respond to the meaning of another person's spoken and nonverbal messages.
b. Listening
9.1-6. You can help promote constructive conflict by abiding by all of the following principles EXCEPT
b. Members encourage tough competition among one another in order to make the best decisions.
5.1-28. As the group's leader, Grace makes sure that everyone in her group is committed to the group's common goal. She also helps solve interpersonal problems and conflicts, recognizing outstanding group work. Which of the following leadership functions in the 5M Model of Leadership Effectiveness does Grace's behavior exemplify?
b. Motivating members
8.1-26.
b. Paraphrasing depth
6.1-15. Which of the following motivational strategies can help you promote a sense of progress in your group?
b. Recognize and celebrate group accomplishments.
15.1-5. All of the following rules apply when using parliamentary procedure EXCEPT
b. Several subjects may be discussed at the same time.
14.1-1. Which country is the most wired nation on the planet?
b. South Korea
6.1-6. Which of the following strategies is most likely to motivate group members with strong inclusion needs?
b. Tell them how valuable they are to the group.
8.1-30. Your textbook describes the dilemma students face when taking notes during a discussion or in the classroom. Which of the following statements best describes this dilemma?
b. The value of notes decreases as the volume of your notes increase.
14.1-29. Which of the following answers is an advantage of using bulletin boards to conduct virtual meetings?
b. They are effective for brainstorming and information sharing.
14.1-24. Which of the following answers is NOT an advantage of using electronic meeting systems to conduct group work?
b. They require training, facilitation, and technical support.
14.1-23. Which of the following answers is NOT an advantage of using electronic meeting systems?
b. They require very little technical training and assistance.
8.1-29. A study of ways in which the college students from different cultures listen concludes that students are less willing and less patient listeners than students from other cultures.
b. U.S. American
1.1-15. A college appoints a moderator and holds an open discussion to provide students with the opportunity to ask questions and express their concerns regarding a proposed increase in tuition. This setting for group communication is an example of a
b. forum.
11.1-33. "My uncle's visit to New Mexico was horrible. The weather was bad and the people were unfriendly. New Mexico is not a good choice for a vacation." What fallacy is being committed in this statement?
b. hasty generalization
4.1-29. People who share beliefs such as "It is the duck that squawks that gets shot," or
b. high-context
10.1-24. The first 3 steps in the Single Question Format for problem solving are
b. identify the problem, create a collaborative setting, analyze the issues.
3.1-14. According to Belvin's Team-Role Theory, which of the following roles describes a conscientious, methodical person who transforms group decisions into practical actions?
b. implementer
2.1-17. Whenever your department has a staff meeting, the supervisor always sits at the head of the table. Group members know they should not take the seat at the head of the table even though they have not been told to avoid that seat. A(n)
b. implicit norm
14.1-26. Dr. Ivan Goldberg lightheartedly posted a diagnosis for , which he described as a maladaptive pattern of internet use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress.
b. internet addiction disorder
12.1-19. A sentence such as "Let Debbo finish her point first, and then we'll hear other viewpoints" can help a group deal with a member whose disruptive behavior fits the description of a
b. interrupter.
4.1-17. Jason appears to be a very private person. He carefully thinks about what he is going to say before speaking. He enjoys the group but would prefer to work alone. Which Myers-Briggs personality trait best describes Jason?
b. introvert
10.1-14. In their book, Decision Making Styles, Suzanne Scott and Reginald Bruce look at 5 decision-making styles. Group members who say "It just feels like the right thing to do" are most likely using the decision-making style.
b. intuitive
15.1-21. A main motion
b. is one of the lowest ranked motions in terms of precedence.
13.1-5. Which of the following items will a speaker examine when analyzing the individual attributes of an audience or group of listeners?
b. job titles
4.1-14. Dennis is always the most organized member of his group. He frequently encourages the group to plan ahead. He develops lengthy "To Do" lists of tasks for the group to follow. Which Myers-Briggs personality trait best describes Dennis?
b. judger
4.1-16. Reggie is highly structured and good at coordinating the group's work and keeping it organized. He never misses a deadline and expects others to do the same. Which Myers-Briggs personality trait best describes Reggie?
b. judger
11.1-29. What are the first 4 steps in refuting an argument?
b. listen to the argument, assess the evidence, state the claim you oppose, give an overview of your objections
6.1-12. Kenneth Thomas describes 4 categories of intrinsic motivation needed to energize and reinforce work. They are
b. meaningfulness, choice, competence, and progress.
5.1-25. The 5M Model of Leadership Effectiveness focuses on all of the following interdependent leadership functions EXCEPT
b. mediating conflict.
9.1-24. Which method of conflict resolution employs the services of an impartial third party for the purpose of guiding, coaching, and encouraging the disputants toward agreement?
b. mediation
10.1-31. Researchers investigating the usefulness of brainstorming and Nominal Group Technique conclude that Nominal Group Technique (NGT) works better for generating ideas for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
b. members in brainstorming sessions produce fewer ideas than NGT groups.
10.1-30. During Phase 1 (Idea Generation) of Nominal Group Technique,
b. members, in turn, present one idea from their privately written list.
15.1-24. If a member wants to suggest that the group end debate on an issue and vote immediately, what type of motion should be made?
b. move the previous question
15.1-16. If a group member is recognized by the chair of a meeting and says "I move that we close debate and move immediately to a vote," the member is
b. moving the previous question.
7.1-35. Aisha laughs and smiles when she talks, stands close to other group members in a relaxed posture, and uses direct eye contact. What characteristic of nonverbal communication is she using?
b. nonverbal immediacy
15.1-18. The first step in making a main motion is to
b. obtain the floor.
3.1-26. Assertiveness seeks an appropriate balance between
b. passivity and aggression.
13.1-24. Which element of presentation speaking is represented by the following guideline for a team presentation: "Practice until the team presentation approaches perfection"?
b. performance
7.1-28. Members of most well-established groups interact with one another at Hall's
b. personal distance.
3.1-21. Your textbook suggests all of the following strategies for reducing communication apprehension in groups EXCEPT
c. Force yourself to speak as much and as often as you can to a variety of large and small audiences.
1.1-17. Which of the following characteristics demonstrates one of the disadvantages of working in groups?
c. Groups require significant time, energy, and resources.
4.1-2. During the 1990s, were the fastest growing racial/ethnic group.
c. Hispanic/Latino Americans
11.1-8. The warrant in an argument answers the question
c. How did you get there?
12.1-4. The meeting planning questions in your textbook include all of the following
c. How should we write the agenda?
9.1-29. When helping group members from collectivist cultures maintain and save "face," you should keep in mind all of the following perspectives about conflict and "face" EXCEPT
c. In individualistic cultures, "saving face" is more important than winning an argument.
8.1-25. Which of the following statements is NOT a characteristic of effective paraphrasing?
c. It is the ability to repeat what a person has said.
14.1-18. Which of the following answers is NOT an advantage of using textconferencing for virtual group communication?
c. It reduces nonverbal influences.
7.1-17. In reviewing the research on dialects, Carley Dodd has drawn several conclusions.
c. It would be unethical to speak differently at home than you would speak at work.
11.1-20. "According to NORML (National Organization to Reform Marijuana Laws), marijuana is a harmless drug that has no long-term side effects." What criticism should be made about this piece of evidence?
c. It's biased.
4.1-41. Which of the following religions is the oldest?
c. Judaism
8.1-20. All of the following answers describe the strong link between listening skills and successful leadership EXCEPT
c. Leaders interrupt members who talk too much to ensure that everyone gets an equal chance to speak and listen.
3.1-8. functions describe group members who strive to get along and satisfy one another's needs while pursuing a shared goal.
c. Maintenance
13.1-8. If, when analyzing your listeners' opinions, you discover that most of them disagree with you, which of the following strategies would be most successful in adapting to or changing their attitudes?
c. Make sure the goal of your presentation is realistic.
9.1-30. Which of the following statements is characteristic of a cohesive group?
c. Members want to conform to group expectations.
13.1-25. All of the following answers are guidelines for handling a question-and-answer session after an individual or team presentation EXCEPT
c. Provide the most comprehensive answer possible.
9.1-21. What do the 4Rs stand for in the 4Rs Method of Analyzing a Conflict?
c. Reasons, Reactions, Results, Resolution
6.1-14. Which of the following strategies can help you motivate other members by promoting a sense of choice in your group?
c. Seek and take advantage of new opportunities.
7.1-16. Which of the following answers represents an accent rather than a dialect?
c. Someone from Asia says "lice" instead of rice.
1.1-28. A both/and approach to resolving dialectic tensions in groups empowers members.
c. The group has the freedom to make decisions and implements its decisions.
11.1-6. Which of the following statements best describes a highly argumentative group member?
c. The member is less likely to be persuaded by others.
14.1-7. Which of the following statements best explains an advantage of synchronous communication?
c. There is more spontaneous and dynamic interaction.
14.1-15. All of the following statements represent disadvantages to using audioconferences
c. They are less expensive than videoconferences.
3.1-28. All of the following are characteristics of passive (nonassertive) group members
c. They feel a greater sense of power.
3.1-30. All of the following are characteristics of passive-aggressive group members
c. They usually follow through with promised contributions.
9.1-28. All of the following behaviors are more characteristic of the ways in which women respond to conflict EXCEPT
c. Women are more likely to address conflict privately rather than in front of the entire group.
4.1-36. All of the following communication behaviors are discussed in Cheris Kramarae's
c. Women should avoid challenging men in positions of power.
8.1-11. What type of listening is most appropriate when you want to form appropriate
c. analytical listening
11.1-34. "Everyone in our group has signing the petition. You should, too." What fallacy is being committed in this statement?
c. appeal to popularity
1.1-25. The open system ? closed system group dialectic can be described as
c. balancing external support and recognition with internal group solidarity and rewards.
1.1-20. When seeking to resolve group tensions, the dialectic approach recommends a
c. both/and
10.1-27. Your group needs to come up with a discussion topic for a class assignment. The group works together, suggesting as many topics as possible. Members
c. brainstorming
13.1-16. Which organizational pattern would probably be most effective for a presentation describing the hardships experienced by undocumented workers who do not seek medical care when they are very ill?
c. causes and effects
15.1-10. Who is ultimately responsible for making sure that the rules of parliamentary procedure are enforced in a group meeting?
c. chair
12.1-13. The person appointed or elected to conduct a meeting is the
c. chairperson.
7.1-19. When African Americans speak one way among white people or in business settings and quite differently at home, they are
c. codeswitching.
9.1-15. When a member searches for new solutions that will achieve both the individual goals of group members and the group goals, what conflict style is the member using?
c. collaboration
9.1-8. When a member is more concerned with his or her own goals than meeting the needs of the group, which conflict style is the member using?
c. competition
14.1-10. Some group members find it easier, more comfortable, and
c. conflict ? cohesion
14.1-8. Which group dialectic is represented in Patricia Wallace's concept of group polarization?
c. conformity ? nonconformity
7.1-1. Which of the following terms is used to describe the personal feelings and
c. connotation
7.1-3. If reading or hearing the word "computer" evokes a negative image of an increasingly complex software nightmare that frustrates and infuriates you, what type of meaning is influencing your response to the word?
c. connotation
14.1-31. In assessing the value and validity of Wikipedia, a study in the journal Nature found Wikipedia's content more and equal in to the prestigious Encyclopedia Britannica.
c. current . . . accuracy
10.1-15. In their book, Decision Making Styles, Suzanne Scott and Reginald Bruce look at 5 decision-making styles. Groups members who say "If you think it's okay, then I'll do it" are most likely using the decision-making style.
c. dependent
10.1-1. Problem solving occurs when a group
c. develops a plan for reducing or eliminating the harmful effects of a problem.
4.1-31. High uncertainty avoidance is characterized by beliefs that
c. deviant ideas and behavior should be suppressed.
3.1-27. Compulsive talkers tend to
c. dominate discussions.
3.1-17. If a group member says "That's a stupid idea. Think you could come up with anything better?" as a way of intimidating others, asserting authority, and monopolizing discussion, which role is this person demonstrating?
c. dominator
8.1-18. Maintenance-oriented members tend to be particularly effective at
c. empathic and appreciative listening.
1.2-37. The key to balancing both the complex and competing elements in a group is a commitment to working toward the group's goal.
a. True
1.2-39. The National Communication Association's Credo for Ethical Communication states that every group member should condemn communication that degrades individuals and that expresses intolerance or hatred.
a. True
1.2-4. The basic components of group communication are members, interaction, independence, goals, and working.
a. True
1.2-40. The National Communication Association's Credo for Ethical Communication contends that group members should accept the consequences of their communication and expect the same of others.
a. True
1.2-5. A group of 5 members has the potential for 90 different types of interaction.
a. True
1.2-6. In groups with more than 15 members, coordination and control become difficult.
a. True
1.2-9. Generally, there are 2 sources of noise: external and internal.
a. True
10.2-1. Decision making results in a position, judgment, or action.
a. True
10.2-12. "It feels like the right thing to do" describes the thought process of an intuitive decision maker.
a. True
10.2-13. The Standard Agenda is based on John Dewey's Reflective Thinking Process.
a. True
10.2-16. During the fact-finding step of the Standard Agenda, members must answer questions such as "How serious or widespread is the problem?" and "What are the causes of the problem?"
a. True
10.2-17. Analysis paralysis can immobilize a group because members cannot determine the cause of problem or because they cannot figure out a way to change human
a. True
10.2-18. The Functional Approach to group problem solving is based on several models including John Dewey's Reflective Thinking Process.
a. True
10.2-20. The Functional Approach to group problem solving claims that communication is the instrument groups use to reach decisions and generate solutions.
a. True
10.2-21. The Functional Theory Approach to problem solving emphasizes that group members must identify the resources and research necessary for making a decision before selecting appropriate procedures for developing an effective solution.
a. True
10.2-23. One of the factors that makes the Single Question Format of group problem solving unique is its focus on creating a collaborative communication climate. a. True
a. True
10.2-24. One of the factors that makes the Single Question Format of group problem solving unique is its focus on goal clarity and issue analysis.
a. True
10.2-26. Creativity requires the nonjudgmental process of searching for, separating, and connecting unrelated ideas and elements.
a. True
10.2-27. When a group uses creativity to enhance problem solving, insight represents the
a. True
10.2-3. As a rule, group problem solving generates more ideas and produces better solutions to complex problems.
a. True
10.2-30. Brainstorming is based n the assumption that quantity of ideas and output breeds quality.
a. True
10.2-31. In a brainstorming session, the group should assign someone to write down the group's ideas rather than asking each member to write down all the group's ideas. a. True
a. True
10.2-34. The Nominal Group Technique (NGT) is structured so that all group members have the opportunity to share ideas and know that their ideas will be considered by the group as a whole.
a. True
10.2-35. In a Nominal Group Technique (DOT) session, each group member writes down his or her ideas before sharing them with others.
a. True
10.2-37. Studies of brainstorming and Nominal Group Technique have found that Nominal Group Technique often works better for generating ideas that are both numerous and creative.
a. True
10.2-39. The Decreasing Options Technique (DOT) is a decision-making tool that helps groups reduce and refine a large number of suggestions into a manageable number of ideas.
a. True
10.2-41. The DOT method works best when a group has generated a significant number of competing ideas and wants to restrain dominant members from exerting too much influence.
a. True
10.2-42. In virtual groups, all types of technology are not equally suited to all types of group interaction.
a. True
10.2-43. One way of encouraging creativity is to encourage innovation and discourage problem solving through instruction and imitation.
a. True
10.2-44. Metaphors can help members explain, understand, guide, and direct creative thinking in ways they would not have thought of otherwise.
a. True
10.2-46. Politics can impair group problem when, for example, a member who wants to get ahead is reluctant to oppose an idea supported by the boss.
a. True
10.2-5. Voting works best when a group is pressed for time and the issues is not highly controversial.
a. True
10.2-7. When your group is trying to reach consensus, you should not agree to a decision or solution you adamantly dislike and can't possibly support.
a. True
10.2-8. False consensus occurs when members give in to group pressure and accept a decision they do not like or support.
a. True
11.2-1. Critical thinking is a process that always results in an outcome.
a. True
11.2-11. In the Toulmin Model of Argument, the qualifier states the degree to which the claim appears to be true.
a. True
11.2-14. "Robert's Rules of Order is used by the majority of groups that follow the rules of parliamentary procedure" is an example of a fact.
a. True
11.2-16. "A claim of value evaluates whether something is good or bad, right or wrong, worthwhile or worthless" is an example of a definition.
a. True
11.2-17. "In one study, workers rate 69% of the meetings they attended as ineffective" is an example of statistics used as evidence.
a. True
11.2-18. Whereas an example refers to a specific case or instance, illustrations are longer, extended examples.
a. True
11.2-20. Questions such as "Are the author's identify and qualifications evident?" and "Does the site account for opposing points of view?" can help you determine the validity of internet research.
a. True
11.2-22. "You should floss your teach every morning and every night before you go to sleep" is a claim of policy.
a. True
11.2-23. When presenting an argument, you should state your claim, support your claim with evidence, and provide reasons why your evidence supports your claim.
a. True
11.2-24. When you provide reasons why your evidence supports your claim in an argument, you are explaining the argument's warrant.
a. True
11.2-26. When refuting an argument, make sure you have assessed whether the argument's evidence supports the claim or is faulty.
a. True
11.2-27. The faulty cause fallacy is the basis for many superstitions.
a. True
11.2-29. The ad hominem fallacy involves attacking a person rather than the substance of that person's argument.
a. True
11.2-3. An argument is an idea or opinion supported by evidence and reasoning.
a. True
11.2-30. The following fallacy is an example of a faulty analogy: "Last semester I had an excellent student whose last name was Whipple. This semester I have another student by that name, and I'm expecting good work from her."
a. True
11.2-34. In general, women tend to search out more different perspectives in argument than do men.
a. True
11.2-36. One of the most significant cultural differences in argumentation is the way people use evidence to support a claim.
a. True
11.2-38. When ethical arguers look beyond their own needs and consider the circumstances of others, they are demonstrating the common good responsibility for ethical argumentation.
a. True
11.2-4. Argumentation can improve decision making.
a. True
11.2-40. Researchers such as Daniel Goleman and Antonio Damasio claim that feelings and emotions are indispensable for rational decision making.
a. True
11.2-41. Self-awareness, self-regulation, self-confidence, and self-control characterize emotional intelligence.
a. True
11.2-6. Highly argumentative group members enjoy the challenge of a good argument and are eager to defend their points of view with confidence.
a. True
11.2-8. Highly argumentative members create more arguments on both sides of a position, which helps a group avoid groupthink.
a. True
11.2-9. The 3 essential components in the Toulmin Model of Argument are the claim, evidence, and warrant.
a. True
12.2-1. If there is nothing important to talk about, a meeting can do more harm than good.
a. True
12.2-11. A business agenda should include several items including a call to order, approval of the agenda, reports, unfinished business, and new business.
a. True
12.2-13. A meeting's official chairperson is responsible for reviewing the minutes, distributing the minutes of the meeting, and sending any reports that were prepared.
a. True
12.2-14. If members come late to a scheduled meeting, they should sit without participating until they have observed enough of the meeting's discussion to contribute responsibly.
a. True
12.2-15. Effective groups learn how to adapt to member misbehaviors.
a. True
12.2-16. By looking through a group's minutes over a period of time, you can learn about the group's activities and measure how productive the group has been.
a. True
12.2-17. The person assigned as a meeting recorder should make sure to word decisions, motions, action items, and deadlines exactly as the group makes them.
a. True
12.2-19. The person assigned as a meeting recorder can leave some members' comments "off the record" if the group decides that the comments are irrelevant or inappropriate.
a. True
12.2-2. A coincidental gathering of group members does not constitute a meeting.
a. True
12.2-20. Robert's Rules of Order is considered the "parliamentary bible" by many organizations.
a. True
12.2-21. Regardless of the complexity or importance of an issue, parliamentary rules state that a group must accepts the will of the majority even if the majority wins by only 1 vote.
a. True
12.2-5. One study concluded that "there is a direct correlation between time spent each week in meetings and an employee's desire to find another job. "
a. True
12.2-6. Questions such as "Is an immediate decision needed?" and "Are members prepared to discuss the topic?" should be asked when determining the Meeting Planning Question "Why are we meeting?"
a. True
12.2-7. In general, the optimal meeting length is one hour.
a. True
13.2-1. Group presentations include those you give to group members in the group's meeting and those you give to a nongroup audience on behalf of your group. a. True
a. True
13.2-10. When trying to find common ground with listeners, find a belief or value that you share with those who disagree with you.
a. True
13.2-11. If most of your listeners disagree with you, make sure you have set realistic goals for your presentation.
a. True
13.2-13. Your credibility as a speaker represents the extent to which listeners believe you and the things you say.
a. True
13.2-16. If you are not a recognized expert on a subject, you should try to demonstrate that you are well-prepared to address the subject.
a. True
13.2-17. A presentation's logistics refers to the strategic planning, arranging, and use of people, facilities, time, and materials relevant to your presentation.
a. True
13.2-18. An effective presentation on how to fill out a social security application should use time arrangement as an organizational pattern.
a. True
13.2-19. An effective presentation that focuses on explaining why global warming increased significantly in the 20th century should use a causes and effects organizational pattern.
a. True
13.2-2. The key elements of presentation speaking are purpose, audience, credibility, logistics, content, organization, and performance.
a. True
13.2-21. An effective presentation that informs an audience about ways to prevent children from being exposed to the dangers of online pornography should use a problem- solution organizational pattern.
a. True
13.2-22. If 1 of the main points in your presentation is not as strong as 2 others, place it in the middle position of your presentation outline.
a. True
13.2-23. Extemporaneous speaking involves using an outline or a set of notes to guide you through your presentation.
a. True
13.2-24. Impromptu speaking is a form of delivery in which a speaker does not have time to prepare or practice a presentation in advance.
a. True
13.2-27. The only kind of eye contact that successfully establishes the feeling of connection with audience members is a reasonably long, in-focus look at individual listeners. a. True
a. True
13.2-28. In audioconferences, you must rely on your voice to communicate your meaning and emotions.
a. True
13.2-29. As is the case with individual presentations, an effective team presentation should follow the 7 elements and guiding principles of presentation speaking.
a. True
13.2-31. When answering questions in a question-and-answer session, a speaker should be brief, honest, and specific.
a. True
13.2-33. If, despite your best efforts, you don't get any questions in a question-and-answer session, be prepared with some of your own.
a. True
13.2-35. Do not use more than 2 different fonts on a single slide.
a. True
13.2-36. When preparing computer slides, avoid type that is smaller than 24 points.
a. True
13.2-37. In general, avoid using a variety of background sound effects or music when supporting your presentation with computer-generated slides.
a. True
13.2-39. The use of PowerPoint to create presentation slides has been criticized because it often dominates and trivializes content.
a. True
13.2-4. A presentation's purpose answers the question "What do I want my listeners to know, think, believe, or do as a result of my presentation?"
a. True
13.2-40. A survey of college students about the ways in which their professors use PowerPoint found that many professors cram slides with text and then recite the text during class.
a. True
13.2-42. As a back-up plan, you should always be prepared to make a presentation without your presentation aids.
a. True
13.2-6. Demographic traits include age, gender, race, ethnicity, religion, and marital status.
a. True
13.2-8. If most of your listeners agree with you or are undecided, focus on introducing new information or summarizing important idea and arguments.
a. True
14.2-1. Researchers have discovered that more than 2/3 of the U.S. workers they've surveyed engage in virtual work, and nearly 1/2 are involved in virtual group work at least once a week.
a. True
14.2-11. When group members use computers to interact simultaneously in real time, they are engaged in synchronous communication.
a. True
14.2-13. Emails and bulletin boards are examples of asynchronous communication media.
a. True
14.2-14. The disadvantages of asynchronous communication include lack of spontaneity and a reliance on linear rather than interactive communication.
a. True
14.2-16. In general, effective audioconferences should limit participation to no more than 5 active participants and provide members an agenda well in advance.
a. True
14.2-17. 2 of the primary advantages of audioconferences are that they are easy to set up and use and are effective for reaching members in emergencies.
a. True
14.2-2. Preparing an agenda for a virtual group meeting is just as important as preparing an agenda for a face-to-face meeting.
a. True
14.2-20. When you talk to participants at other sites in a videoconference, look directly at the camera, not at other members' images on a television monitor.
a. True
14.2-22. Videoconferences are expensive, but save travel and lodging costs as well as travel time for members.
a. True
14.2-23. Compared to face-to-face interaction and teleconferences, textconferences save time and money.
a. True
14.2-25. A significant reliance on netlingo and netspeak can make reading a text message difficult and annoying as well as making you and your writing appear immature. a. True
a. True
14.2-26. Electronic meeting systems are very effective for brainstorming, problem solving, decision making, editing documents, and voting.
a. True
14.2-27. Electronic meeting systems are very expensive because they require special facilities, hardware, software, and staff support.
a. True
14.2-28. A computer-based electronic whiteboard allows members to work on the same document synchronously.
a. True
14.2-29. Psychiatrist Ivan Goldberg proposed a diagnosis of Internet Addiction Disorder
a. True
14.2-30. People who have Internet Addiction Disorder often lie about or conceal the amount of time they spend on the internet.
a. True
14.2-31. In order to maximize communication effectiveness when using email to conduct a virtual group meeting, members should observe good grammatical forms (correct spelling, grammar, formatting, capitalization, etc. ).
a. True
14.2-34. A blog is a website in which text, images, web links, and other files are posted on a regular basis.
a. True
14.2-35. An expert-led investigation by the magazine Nature found that the web-based Wikipedia's content is more current than and just as accurate as the prestigious Encyclopedia Britannica.
a. True
14.2-37. The digital divide refers to inequalities in access to and technical abilities related to computer-mediated communication.
a. True
14.2-38. A U.S. government survey found that urban households earning more than
a. True
14.2-39. Software programs and gaming often reinforce gender bias and stereotyped gender roles in computer use.
a. True
14.2-4. In general, computer-mediated group discussions are less efficient than face-to-face groups.
a. True
14.2-40. Dr. Ramon Barquin's "Ten Commandments for Computer Ethics" urges computer users to respect the copyrights on content and images held by others. a. True
a. True
14.2-6. Media Richness Theory claims that when you use more communication channels, you will be more successful communicating with others.
a. True
14.2-7. Media Synchronicity Theory claims that the key to using media effectively is to match the media's characteristics to the kind of communication required to perform the task.
a. True
14.2-9. Group polarization is more common in virtual groups because there are fewer nonverbal cues to moderate opinions and behavior.
a. True
15.2-10. According to parliamentary procedure's rules, a group cannot conduct official business if it does not have a quorum.
a. True
15.2-12. Depending on the size of a group and the significance of an issue, a quorum can be
a. True
15.2-13. Parliamentary procedure requires that someone chair a meeting.
a. True
15.2-14. The chair of a meeting using parliamentary procedure should not join the discussion or express personal opinions during a discussion.
a. True
15.2-15. The chair of a meeting using parliamentary procedure can only vote when members use secret ballots or to make or break a tie.
a. True
15.2-17. In a meeting using parliamentary procedure, the chair, not the parliamentarian, makes the final determination on the application of parliamentary rules.
a. True
15.2-18. A motion is a proposal by a group member that the group as a whole take a certain action.
a. True
15.2-19. Main motions propose a new action or decision.
a. True
15.2-2. Parliamentary procedure rules are used to determine the will of the majority.
a. True
15.2-21. If a member moves the previous question, the group must end debate of a motion and consider moving to an immediate vote.
a. True
15.2-22. If a member calls for the orders of the day, the group must conform to its agreed- upon agenda and timing of business.
a. True
15.2-23. Before you can make a motion or speak in a parliamentary session, you must be recognized by the chair to "obtain the floor."
a. True
15.2-24. In a parliamentary meeting, you must be recognized by the chair in order to offer a main motion.
a. True
15.2-29. Someone must second an amendment before a group can debate its merits.
a. True
15.2-3. Robert's Rules of Order is the most popular official rulebook for conducting meetings that use parliamentary procedure.
a. True
15.2-30. All motions are given a precedence, an order in which they must be considered.
a. True
15.2-31. A motion to adjourn has precedence over motions to recess, table the question, and limit debate.
a. True
15.2-33. The chair of a meeting using parliamentary procedure must grant a member who introduces a question of privilege the right to speak even if a major debate is taking place on a significant motion.
a. True
15.2-34. "The motion that just passed did not receive the required 2/3 votes" is an example of a member raising a point or order.
a. True
15.2-35. In less formal groups, the chair is usually permitted to join the discussion and make motions.
a. True
15.2-36. In informal groups, issues may be discussed at great length before a specific motion is made.
a. True
15.2-37. Even though parliamentary procedure is designed to ensure the will of the majority, a well-organized minority can block and delay an action until it no longer has a chance of passage.
a. True
15.2-6. Even though parliamentary procedure guarantees that a group cannot ignore minority viewpoints, parliamentary rules are designed to ensure that the majority ultimately wins.
a. True
15.2-7. The 4 guiding principles of parliamentary procedure focus on guaranteeing majority will, minority rights, balanced discussion, and orderly progress.
a. True
15.2-9. All members share the responsibility of ensuring that parliamentary rules are followed.
a. True
2.2-10. During Tuckman's performing stage of group development, members focus their energies on both the task and social dimensions of group work as they make major decisions and solve critical problems.
a. True
15.1-3. Which of the following organizations is/are likely to use parliamentary procedure when conducting official business?
e. all of the above
4.1-1. When analyzing and adapting group member diversity, you should consider members'
e. all of the above
4.1-3. Which of the following groups would be considered a co-culture?
e. all of the above
5.1-15. Laissez-faire leaders
e. all of the above
6.1-1. In order to achieve an optimal group experience, which of the following dialectic tensions should a group negotiate to achieve a both/and resolution?
e. all of the above
7.1-10. How should you use team talk to produce a stronger, more cooperative group?
e. all of the above
7.1-21. Researchers maintain that good-looking people than less attractive people.
e. all of the above
8.1-16. You can become a more effective appreciative listener by
e. all of the above
4.1-27. In cultures with masculine values,
e. all of the above are true
4.1-34. In You Just Don't Understand, Deborah Tannen's two-world hypothesis concludes that
e. all of the above are true
1.1-5. According to your textbook, a group's context refers to
e. all of the above.
13.1-19. An effective outline for a presentation should include
e. all of the above.
1.1-27. The engaged ? disengaged group dialectic can be described as
e. balancing member energy and labor with the group's need for rest and renewal.
15.1-13. In a group using parliamentary procedure, who is responsible for taking the minutes and providing a record of the results of all votes?
e. clerk
5.1-20. According to Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness, which of the following situations is the best match for a relationship-motivated leader?
d. There are moderately good leader-member relationships, a moderately clear task, and a moderate amount of power.
3.1-29. All of the following are characteristics of aggressive group members EXCEPT
d. They are highly respected.
14.1-20. All of the following statements represent disadvantages to using text conferences
d. They can limit participation by highly talkative members.
10.1-5. All of the following guidelines help a group achieve consensus EXCEPT
d. Use techniques such as trading one decision for another.
4.1-32. Which cultural dimension would be characterized by the following components: (1) subordinates should be consulted; (2) privileges and status symbols are frowned upon; (3) parents treat their children as equals; and (4) teachers expect students to express their opinions in class?
d. low power distance
4.1-5. According to your textbook, there are 3 levels of diversity in every group. Which of the following dimensions characterize the third (external) dimension?
d. education, religion, and income,
9.1-31. As leader of her group, Mira frequently reminds members that their combined contributions are essential to group success. Which strategy for developing group cohesiveness is Mira using?
d. emphasizing teamwork
8.1-15. You can become a more effective analytical listener by
d. evaluating the quality of arguments and evidence.
2.1-16. Your group has discussed and decided that members will take turns recording and typing the minutes from each meeting. A(n) has been established.
d. explicit norm
3.1-6. Control in a group refers to the
d. extent to which members feel competent, confident, and free to make their own decisions.
14.1-3. Media Rich Theory claims that
d. face-to-face group communication is often the most successful because it is the richest communication medium.
11.1-36. "If lawyers develop their cases with help from other lawyers, why can't I write my term paper with help from other students?" What fallacy is being committed in this statement?
d. faulty analogy
13.1-26. Your book makes 2 recommendations to help you "exercise restraint" when designing presentation slides. One of those recommendations is
d. make only 1 point on each slide.
4.1-28. According to Hofstede, the people of Japan, Venezuela, and Italy live in a(n)
d. masculine
2.1-1. In which of Tuckman's Group Development Stages do members resolve status
d. norming
4.1-25. More monochronic cultures are in
d. northern Europe and North America.
11.1-19. The president and chief executive of a virtual web space in which users can share comments claims that "The best innovations occur when you have networks of people with diverse backgrounds gathering around a problem." What type of evidence is used in this example?
d. opinion
3.1-5. According to Schutz's FIRO Theory, if group members' affection needs are not met, they may become
d. overpersonal or underpersonal members.
3.1-31. Mark agrees to take notes during an important meeting at which he disagrees with many group decisions. The group asks him to bring copies of the notes to the next meeting so that everyone has a written record of the discussion and group decisions. At the next meeting, Mark is absent. At the following meeting, he tells everyone that he's still working on the notes and may not have them for awhile. What sort of behavior does Mark exhibit?
d. passive aggression
5.1-23. The participating stage in Hersey-Blanchard's Situational Leadership Model is similar to Tuckman's stage of group development.
d. performing
9.1-32. Which symptom of groupthink is expressed when one group member confronts another by saying "Why aren't you in favor of this? You're the only one who's against it. Give it up!"?
d. pressure on dissent
2.1-18. Which of the 4 categories of norms is operating in the following example? Your group makes decisions by majority rule. A(n) is operating in this circumstance.
d. procedural norm
11.1-12. Which component of the Toulmin Model of Argument is indicated by words in a claim such as "likely," "possibly," or "probably"?
d. qualifier
8.1-22. Identify the negative listening attitude that does not follow the Golden Listening
d. superior
1.1-9. The cooperative interaction of several factors that results in a combined effect greater than the total of all individual parts is referred to as
d. synergy.
10.1-32. Consider using the Decreasing Options Technique (DOT) when
d. the group wants to ensure equal opportunities for input by all members.
15.1-9. A quorum is
d. the minimum number of members who must be present for the group to transact business.
6.1-23. A survey examining employee turnover found that the chief reason people give for leaving a job is related to
d. the need for praise and recognition.
1.1-7. In a communication transaction, feedback represents
d. the response or reaction to a message.
10.1-3. As a decision-making method, voting works best when
d. there is no other way to break a deadlock.
4.1-15. Even when everyone else in the group is upset or confused, Anthony stays cool, calm, and objective. He doesn't mind making tough decisions and can't understand why other group members get upset about things that are not relevant to the issue under discussion. In most situations, Anthony thinks it is more important to be right than liked. Which Myers-Briggs personality trait best describes Anthony?
d. thinker
15.1-25. All of the following motions may be amended EXCEPT
d. to recess.
11.1-40. According to Rybacki and Rybacki, the social code responsibility requires that ethical group members
d. treat other group members as equals.
3.1-15. "Maria, we haven't heard from you yet and want to make sure that everyone gets a chance to weigh in on this issue. " This statement would most likely be made by a group member functioning in which of the following roles?
d. gatekeeper
1.1-16. A college's Board of Trustees that makes public policy decisions may be classified as a
d. governance group.
10.1-35. Lee Towe presents 4 sources of action that guide how we solve problems. Which source does Towe describe as "We have developed a new way to do it"?
d. innovation
13.1-7. All of the following answers constitute an aspect of an audience's demographics
d. knowledge.
5.1-13. Even though Wayne is chairperson of the finance committee, he does little or nothing to help the group. He tends to let the group take charge of its decisions and actions. Which leadership style is Wayne using?
d. laissez-faire
5.1-3. You have been promoted to a management position at work. You expect employees to fulfill your requests because you are the boss. What type of power is this?
d. legitimate power
8.1-23. When Ralph Nichols wrote "We must always withhold evaluation until our comprehension is complete," which listening strategy was he describing?
d. listen before you leap
14.1-14. Which of the following answers describes 1 of the many advantages of using audioconferences as a medium for virtual group work? Audioconferences
d. use telephones to which most members have easy access.
11.1-26. "Our group is the best in the class." This statement is an example of a claim of
d. value.
9.1-10. Some club members want to increase membership dues by $7.00. Other club members want to increase them by $3.00. They have reached an impasse on the issue, so they decide to split the difference and raise the dues by $5.00. What type of conflict style did the group use?
e. compromise
7.1-30. According to Jack Gibb and his notion of supportive/defensive communication, which communication behavior is the opposite of strategic?
e. spontaneous
12.1-17. All of the following labels represent how member behavior can disrupt a meeting
e. tension releaser.
9.1-25. Which of the following conflict management methods is expressed as "We should express our concerns about the conflict and suggest a solution"?
e. the A-E-I-O-U Model
10.1-10. "Is it appropriate for parents to bring their children to work when they can't get a babysitter or their daycare center closes for a day?" This group discussion question represents a question of
e. value.
6.1-13. In terms of Thomas's 4 categories of motivators, you can promote a sense of meaningfulness by
e. volunteering for worthwhile group tasks that interest you.
4.1-23. In cultures with high uncertainty avoidance, people
e. want predictability and clear rules of behavior.
5.1-17. If "task-motivated" describes your leadership style, Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness predicts that you will be least successful when
e. you have a moderate degree of power and task structure.
1.2-27. A Microsoft study found that nonproductive meetings can waste 2 of every 5 workdays.
a. True
1.2-28. Without understanding group communication theories, you will have difficulty understanding why a particular method works in one situation and fails in another.
a. True
1.2-30. Relational Dialectics Theory claims that relationships are characterized by ongoing tensions between the contradictory and complex elements of human experiences.
a. True
1.2-31. In the best of groups, individual goals support the group's common goal.
a. True
1.2-33. Groups without constructive conflict have difficulty analyzing the wisdom of their decisions.
a. True
1.2-34. The structure ? spontaneity dialectic relies on both tested procedures to help a group achieve its goal as well as creative thinking.
a. True
1.2-35. Heterogeneous groups include members who are different from one another.
a. True
1.2-25. When a task is complex and the answers are unclear, an effective group will perform better than individuals working alone.
a. True
13.1-13. Regardless of whether you have 5 minutes or 1 hour for your presentation, do not add more than % to your allotted time.
a. 5
5.1-7. The Center for Business Ethics at Bentley College poses all of the following questions to help leaders decide whether their behavior is ethical EXCEPT
a. Do you avoid expressing your own opinions to make sure that they do not influence how group members think and act?
10.1-2. All of the following statements describe decision making in groups EXCEPT
a. Groups usually take less time to make a decision than an individual working alone.
1.1-8. Which of the following examples best illustrates the systems theory principle that
a. Members may take time off to "play" when work becomes too intense.
6.1-10. In terms of the 8 basic Myers-Briggs types, which of the following strategies is most likely to motivate an introvert?
a. Provide thinking time before and during discussions.
3.1-9. functions describe negative roles in which individual needs are put ahead of both the group's goal and other members' needs.
a. Self-centered
9.1-26. Mediation experts Stephen Littlejohn and Kathy Domenici suggest the following strategies for resolving conflict constructively EXCEPT
a. Show strength and conviction by supporting your own position.
2.1-27. How do virtual groups differ from face-to-face groups during the storming stage of group development?
a. Technical problems and differences in members' technical expertise affect how members compete for high-status roles.
15.1-7. All of the following statements express a guiding principle of parliamentary procedure EXCEPT
a. The group grants individual members special privileges and speaking opportunities when an issue is controversial.
12.1-23. All of the following guiding principles form the basis for parliamentary procedure
a. The group uses a 2/3 vote to ensure that the majority rules.
6.1-22. Which of the following statements about the value of extrinsic rewards is the most accurate?
a. They are granted by supervisors rather than group members.
14.1-17. Which of the following answers is a disadvantage of using videoconferences to conduct group meetings?
a. They are not effective for collecting data and detailed planning.
4.1-8. All of the following statements are characteristics of people who have prejudices
a. They deny opportunities granted to certain groups of people such as employment, equal rights, and housing.
1.2-1. According to a study commissioned by the Association of American Colleges and Universities, "teamwork skills and the ability to collaborate with others in diverse group settings" was ranked first as an essential learning outcome in 2 of 4 major categories.
a. True
1.2-10. A soft speaking voice can create noise in a communication transaction.
a. True
1.2-12. When group members work together to achieve a common goal, the size of the group, the physical setting, and the group's role and status in an organization are components of the communication context.
a. True
1.2-13. Your biases, distracting thoughts about other activities, fatigue, and hunger can cause noise in a communication transaction.
a. True
1.2-15. Systems theory assumes that groups and their members are unpredictable.
a. True
1.2-17. Synergy refers to a situation in which "the whole is greater than the sum of its individual parts."
a. True
1.2-19. On college campuses, intramural athletic teams as well as sororities and fraternities are examples of social groups.
a. True
1.2-20. Work groups collaborate to achieve specific goals on behalf of a business or organization.
a. True
1.2-22. In a panel discussion, several group members interact with one another on a common topic for the benefit of an audience.
a. True
10.1-8. A company's recycling task force gathered information on various recycling programs and met several times to choose which program would best suit the needs of the company. The group's recommendation was presented to the company's vice president of operations, who ultimately chose a program other than the one recommended by the task force. Which method of decision making was used in this situation?
a. authority rule
11.1-39. According to Rybacki and Rybacki, the reasoning responsibility requires that ethical group members
a. avoid making arguments containing fallacies.
7.1-33. After presenting a proposed solution to a group problem, Carlos says "I can't see any other way of solving this that makes sense. " Which defensive behavior is exemplified in Carlos's statement?
a. certainty
1.1-6. To which basic element of communication is Grace giving special attention when she prepares for an important group meeting by making sure her business suit is pressed, that her hair is well-groomed, that her perfume is pleasant but subtle, and that she takes a breath mint before entering the meeting room?
a. channels
11.1-9. Which component of the Toulmin Model of Argument is represented in Part I of the following argument? I. Joan would be a good leader. / II. Good leaders are effective communicators. / III. Joan got an A in the communication course she took. a. claim
a. claim
13.1-10. The textbook identifies 3 major factors that contribute to a speaker's credibility.
a. competence, character, and caring
8.1-17. Task-oriented members tend to be particularly effective at
a. comprehensive and analytical listening.
8.1-10. What type of listening is most appropriate when you want to accurately understand the meaning of group members' spoken and nonverbal messages? a. comprehensive listening
a. comprehensive listening
9.1-16. When a member concedes some goals in order to achieve others, what conflict style is the member using?
a. compromise
11.1-22. Paulo survived a car crash without any major injury while not wearing a seatbelt.
a. consistency.
5.1-12. As chairperson of the PTA's election committee, Vicky believes in practicing social equality. She shares decision making with the group. According to Styles Leadership Theory, which leadership style is Vicky using?
a. democratic
4.1-6. People who believe that their culture is better than other cultures or that their culture should be the role model for other cultures would be classified as
a. ethnocentric.
5.1-24. All of the following characteristics distinguish transformational leadership
a. experience.
4.1-9. Which of the following traits are included in the Big Five Personality Traits and in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?
a. extraversion
13.1-22. According to your textbook, which of the following answers is the most important physical characteristic in a presentation?
a. eye contact
11.1-15. "The Biltmore Mansion is the largest private residence in the United States." What type of evidence is used in this example?
a. fact
11.1-24. "Sex education in schools promotes teenage promiscuity." This statement is an example of a claim of
a. fact.
6.1-25. The textbook suggests 4 criteria for developing a reward system for groups.
a. fair; equitable; competitive; appropriate
2.1-6. Ernest Bormann's description of primary tension resembles Tuckman's
a. forming
2.1-4. Which is the correct order for Tuckman's 5 group development stages?
a. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
13.1-4. Which of the following items will a speaker examine when analyzing the demographic traits of an audience or group of listeners?
a. gender
10.1-34. Which is the correct order of the four steps in the Decreasing Options Technique?
a. generate ideas, post ideas, sort ideas, dot ideas
14.1-32. A study by the American Association of University Women found that, in general,
a. girls consistently rate themselves lower on computer ability than boys do.
3.1-4. According to Schutz's FIRO Theory, a group member who feels accepted by the group is an
a. ideal social member.
7.1-11. The statement "Let's keep working on this report until we're ready for a dinner break. That way we may not have to meet tomorrow" is an indicator of which team talk dimension?
a. identification
4.1-22. In high-context cultures, messages are
a. implicit.
7.1-25. According to your textbook, task-oriented leaders are attracted to the head of a table, while more socially oriented leaders are likely to sit
a. in the middle position at the side of a table.
10.1-17. All of the following benefits can result when a group uses structured problem- solving procedures effectively EXCEPT
a. increased time and effort.
4.1-19. Which of the following cultural dimensions is ranked very high in the United
a. individualism
14.1-30. The digital divide refers to
a. inequalities in access to, distribution of, and use of information technology between 2 or more populations.
3.1-10. "I will check our Affirmative Action Policy and see what it says about. . . ." This statement would most likely be made by a group member functioning in which of the following task roles?
a. information seeker
8.1-28. Differences in personality types may affect the way group members listen. Which of the Myers-Briggs personality types may be the best comprehensive listeners in a group?
a. introverts
1.2-3. Your textbook defines group communication as the interaction of 5 to 7 people working to make a good decision.
b. False
8.1-27. Suppose Julia says, "Among all the other things I worry about, I have an important exam coming up and I fear that, given my busy schedule, I won't have enough time to study." Responding with, "You seem to be very upset about doing well on the exam" would be an inaccurate paraphrase because
a. it responds to only one example, instead of responding to Julia's larger problem of coping with a busy schedule.
7.1-22. The study of body movement and physical expression is referred to as
a. kinesics.
5.1-18. Fred Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness contends that the 3 important dimensions in every leadership situation are
a. leader-member relations, task structure, and the leader's amount of power and control.
8.1-19. All of the following behaviors are examples of self-centered listening EXCEPT
a. listening to evaluate the quality of arguments and evidence used by others.
13.1-12. "What is the size and shape of the room? Do I need a microphone? Will I make the presentation in the morning or afternoon? What is my time limit?" Which oral presentation guideline is addressed by these questions?
a. logistics
15.1-15. If a group member is recognized by the chair of a meeting and says "I move that we change our annual meeting to November rather than December," the member is
a. making a main motion.
5.1-32. Members from uncertainty avoidance cultures prefer
a. more structure and instructions from a leader.
3.1-25. Group members with low levels of communication apprehension can help members with high apprehension reduce their level of fear and anxieties about communicating by using all of the following strategies EXCEPT
a. openly discuss a member's apprehension with the entire group.
6.1-4. Which 2 of Maslow's needs would be classified as satisfiers rather than motivators?
a. physiological and safety needs
10.1-11. "How can the company assist employees with their childcare needs?" This group discussion question represents a question of
a. policy.
10.1-39. There are several problem-solving realities that can prevent a group from working effectively and ethically. For example, a member may side with a group leader into order to gain the leader's attention and backing. In this particular case, will likely affect the outcome of every decision and problem the group confronts.
a. politics
2.1-22. Stanley Milgrim (Yale University) and Philip Zimbardo (Stanford University)
a. pressure to conform to authority rule.
1.1-11. Your family is an example of a
a. primary group.
15.1-20. Most parliamentary motions are given a precedence, an order in which they must be considered. Which of the following motions must be considered before the others listed below?
a. question of privilege
10.1-16. In their book, Decision Making Styles, Suzanne Scott and Reginald Bruce look at 5 decision-making styles. Which of these styles is most like the Myers-Briggs's personality trait of thinker?
a. rational
5.1-6. Your group has chosen Madeleine as its leader because she has demonstrated strong organizational and problem-solving skills as well as a talent for motivating members and resolving conflict. What type of power does Madeleine have?
a. referent power
1.1-18. A virtual group is one which
a. relies on technology to communicate.
12.1-9. At what point in a business meeting should group members approve the agenda and minutes?
a. right after the call to order
3.1-1. Which of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is primarily met when a neighborhood watch group forms to deter crime in the community?
a. safety
6.1-3. For the purpose of discussing group motivation, Maslow's 5 needs can be divided into 2 categories: satisfiers and motivators. Which one of the following needs would be classified as a satisfier rather than a motivator?
a. safety needs
4.1-12. Wanda tends to focus on details of the group project. She prefers to concentrate on one task at a time. Of all the group members, Wanda may be the most practical and realistic. Which Myers-Briggs personality trait best describes Wanda?
a. sensor
2.1-19. Which of the 4 categories of norms is operating in the following example? Most group members defer to or agree with Tasha and Bill when they make a recommendation. A(n) is operating in this circumstance.
a. status norm
12.1-2. Which two group dialectics are particularly relevant when planning and conducting meetings?
a. structure ? spontaneity and leadership ? followership
1.1-14. A group of police officers presenting short, uninterrupted speeches on different aspects of community safety are participating in a
a. symposium.
3.1-16. "That's fine with me. Just tell me what to do." This statement would most likely be made by a group member functioning in which of the following roles?
a. teamworker-follower
5.1-21. According to the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership Model, as a group's readiness increases, leaders should move through 4 different leadership behaviors. Which answer depicts the order in which these behaviors usually occur?
a. tell, sell, participate, delegate
6.1-18. Controlling feedback
a. tells members what to do.
10.1-18. Which of the following problem-solving procedures is based on John Dewey's
a. the Standard Agenda
12.1-21. The written record of a group's discussion and activities is referred to as
a. the minutes.
1.1-19. Statements that explain or predict how people communicate are
a. theories.
11.1-5. All of the following traits characterize highly argumentative group members
a. they promote hostility in the group.
11.1-38. According to your textbook, one of the most significant cultural differences in argumentation is the way in which people use evidence to support a claim. In which of the following cultures is physical evidence often rejected because no connection is seen between the physical world and human actions?
b. Chinese culture
3.1-32. Which of the following strategies and skill are effective when you need to and should say "No" to someone?
b. Don't say "Yes" or "No" until you hear and understand a specific request
14.1-16. Which of the following answers is NOT an essential guideline for conducting and participating in an effective videoconference?
b. Dress appropriately.
6.1-9. In terms of the 8 basic Myers-Briggs types, which of the following strategies is most likely to motivate an intuitive?
b. Encourage visioning, creativity, and brainstorming.
13.1-20. is the most common form of presentation delivery.
b. Extemporaneous speaking
1.2-11. Feedback is always verbal rather than nonverbal.
b. False
1.2-14. Unlike the digestive system, a computer system, or even the solar system, groups do not function as a system because they involve interdependent members interacting with one another.
b. False
1.2-16. The term synergy comes from the Greek word synonym which means "similar meaning."
b. False
1.2-18. PTAs, labor unions, veterans' groups, fire and police auxiliary groups, and neighborhood and community associations are examples of self-help groups. a. True
b. False
1.2-2. Employers view proficiency in a field of study as more important than group communication skills.
b. False
1.2-21. Ad hoc committees remain active in order to accomplish ongoing tasks on behalf of a larger group.
b. False
1.2-23. In a group symposium, group members interact with one another on a common topic for the benefit of an audience.
b. False
1.2-24. Asynchronous group communication occurs simultaneously and in real time.
b. False
1.2-26. Generally, a smart person can generate more innovative ideas and creative solutions than a group can.
b. False
1.2-29. Resolving group dialects requires an either/or approach rather than a both/and
b. False
14.1-2. A study by Staples and Webster identifies several "best practices" that can significantly improve group performance and member satisfaction in virtual groups. Which of the following answers is NOT one of their best practices?
b. We have members who prefer to work in virtual groups rather than in face- to-face meetings.
13.1-3. What question should you ask when determining a presentation's purpose?
b. What do you want listeners to know, think, believe, or do as a result of your presentation?
1.1-4. According to your textbook, the most important factor separating successful groups from unsuccessful ones is
b. a clear goal.
6.1-20. A reprimand can best be described as
b. a form of feedback that identifies deficiencies.
4.1-4. In the homogeneous ? heterogeneous group dialectic, homogeneous refers to
b. a group composed of members who are the same or similar.
6.1-16. The most visible symptom of an unmotivated group is
b. apathy.
10.1-36. One of the reasons groups are often reluctant to think creatively is that they have preconceived notions about what can and can't be done. In such cases, your group may want to try the method of enhancing creativity.
b. ask "what if?"
7.1-15. Researchers such as Deborah Tannen claim that men and women use language differently. Men, she maintains, are more likely to
b. assert their ideas and verbally compete with others.
14.1-11. A is a coordinated phone call among 3 or more group members.
b. audioconference
5.1-11. Vu tries to maintain strict control over the Spring Festival Planning Committee.
b. autocratic
9.1-17. When a member attempts to change the topic, which conflict style is a member using?
b. avoidance
1.1-26. The homogeneous ? heterogeneous group dialectic can be described as
b. balancing member similarities and differences.
2.1-23. Nonconformity
b. can improve group performance.
5.1-2. A supervisor threatens to dismiss any member of the sales team who does not meet the sales quota by the end of the quarter. What type of power is this leader using? a. referent power
b. coercive power
1.1-23. In dialectic terms, effective groups balance conflict with
b. cohesion.
9.1-12. Family members disagree about where to go for a vacation this year. Some members want a location where there will be a lot to do. Other members just want to relax. They discuss many possible sites before deciding on a cruise. They agree that a cruise offers opportunities for both relaxation and recreation. Which approach to conflict did this family use?
b. collaboration
3.1-11. All of the following functions are group task roles EXCEPT
b. compromiser.
13.1-1. Which key element of presentation speaking is represented by the guiding principle
b. credibility
11.1-18. "Horsepower is a unit for measuring the power of engines roughly equal to 746 watts or 33,000 foot-pounds per minute. " What type of evidence is used in this example?
b. definition
7.1-2. Defining a computer as "a programmable electronic device that stores, retrieves, and processes data" represents what type of meaning?
b. denotation
8.1-6. Stephen Covey, author of The 7 Habits of High Effective People, uses listening to illustrate the 3 components of an effective habit. According to Covey, which of the following answers is a critical component of an effective listening habit?
b. desire
7.1-18. The variations in vocabulary, pronunciation, syntax, and style that distinguish speakers from different ethnic groups and geographic areas are referred to as a. denotative differences.
b. dialects.
12.1-10. According to the guidelines presented in the textbook, when is the best time to address important and difficult issues?
b. during the middle portion of the meeting
14.1-21. According to your textbook, software and hardware that provide group members with the ability to generate and evaluate ideas, make decisions, and use different voting procedures are known as
b. electronic meeting systems.
8.1-12. What type of listening is most appropriate when you want to understand and identify a person's feelings or motives?
b. empathic listening
8.1-7. Suppose your group suggests having a meeting on Saturday morning. Nicole seems upset. You want to understand how she feels about the proposed meeting. When she explains her concerns, you should focus your efforts on
b. empathic listening.
10.1-19. All of the following steps are part of the Standard Agenda format for group problem solving EXCEPT
b. establishment of procedure
7.1-31. The statement "That's a stupid way to approach the problem" is an example of which type of response?
b. evaluative
11.1-11. Which component of the Toulmin Model of Argument is represented in Part III of the following argument? I. Joan would be a good leader. / II. Good leaders are effective communicators. / III. Joan got an A in the communication course she took.
b. evidence
6.1-7. Expectancy-Value Theory
b. explains why the probability of achieving a goal is as important as the goal itself.
4.1-11. Oscar is very outgoing and tends to talk more than others during group discussions. He enjoys working in the group and encourages others to get involved. Which Myers-Briggs personality trait best describes Jasper?
b. extrovert
2.1-2. In which of Tuckman's Group Development Stages are members socially cautious and overly polite?
b. forming
9.1-20. Your textbook offers all of the following guidelines for making an effective apology EXCEPT
c. Explain why your actions are justified.
10.1-37. There are several problem-solving realities that can prevent a group from working effectively and ethically. For example, if members resist or dismiss information that doesn't mesh with their personal inclinations and attitudes, what problem-solving reality may impair group effectiveness?
b. pre-existing preferences
6.1-26. The textbook suggests 4 criteria for punishing a group member. Which answer reflects these criteria?
b. predictable; immediate; consistent; impersonal
2.1-20. Stanley Milgram's classic experiment to find out whether people would obey commands to give "subjects" painful electric shocks demonstrated that
b. pressure from an authority figure can outweigh individual judgment and morality.
2.1-7. Ernest Bormann's description of resembles Tuckman's forming stage of group development.
b. primary tension
2.1-5. Because most members of a new group want to create a good first impression, they tend to be overly polite with one another during their initial meetings. They don't interrupt one another and avoid expressing strong opinions. These behaviors are characteristic of
b. primary tension.
5.1-31. Jim Collins, author of Good to Great, claims that unless you are willing to keep your ego in check for the sake of the group, you won't be an effective leader. In other words, you must seek a balance between
b. professional will and personal humility.
11.1-3. Effective argumentation in groups
b. promotes critical thinking.
7.1-32. Which dimension of a supportive communication climate is evident when group members are flexible, offer ideas, and welcome suggestions from others?
b. provisionalism
15.1-26. Which motion allows one to interrupt the speaker?
b. question of privilege
15.1-17. If a group member is recognized by the chair of a meeting and says, "This motion is out of order because we must vote on the amendment before we vote on the main motion," the member is
b. raising a point of order.
11.1-28. The act of proving an argument either erroneous or false, or both, is defined as
b. refutation.
3.1-7. When a group member exhibits a unique set of skills or behavioral patterns that serve specific functions within the group, that member has assumed a(n)
b. role
1.1-12. A local Alcoholics Anonymous chapter is an example of a
b. self-help group.
1.1-10. A stamp collecting club is an example a
b. social group.
13.1-18. Which organizational pattern would probably be most effective for a presentation examining 6 school systems and how public school funding varies based on the location and wealth of each school system's community?
b. space arrangement
12.1-3. Which of the following answers depicts the 3 elements of a meeting described in the textbook?
b. structure, schedule, chairperson
9.1-23. If you assume that group members mean well and you feel free to express your feelings and ideas to others, you are on your way to dealing with conflict using a. the 4Rs Method.
b. the A-E-I-O-U Model.
15.1-6. A group may decide it does not need to use parliamentary procedure when
b. the group faces little controversy.
11.1-1. Argumentation is
b. the way we advocate proposals, examine competing ideas, and influence one another.
9.1-19. When face-to-face interaction is not convenient or possible, which of the following communication technologies is best suited for groups dealing with conflict?
b. videoconferences
7.1-8. Which of the following statements illustrates the Conflict Management Dimension of team talk?
c. "Could we back up and look at this from a different angle?"
6.1-19. All of the following guidelines can help you use "it" statements to provide informative feedback EXCEPT
c. "It" statements provide your personal opinion about a member of the group.
4.1-40. All of the following statements about religion are true EXCEPT
c. 1/2 of the world's population is Muslim.
13.1-21. In general, the best rate for presentation speaking is words per minute.
c. 140-180
7.1-27. What are the distance parameters most North Americans use when interacting with new acquaintances and strangers?
c. 4 feet to 8 feet
1.1-3. What is the ideal group size for a problem-solving discussion?
c. 5-7 people
12.1-6. is the outline of items to be discussed and the tasks to be accomplished at a meeting.
c. An agenda
9.1-35. All of the following methods are appropriate for minimizing the potential for groupthink EXCEPT
c. Avoid asking questions and do not demand justifications from others.
3.1-18. refers to the level of fear or anxiety associated with either real or anticipated communication with another person or persons.
c. Communication apprehension
14.1-12. Which of the following guidelines will help you conduct and participate in an effective audioconference?
c. Distribute the minutes of the meeting as soon as possible.
1.1-24. In dialectic terms, effective groups balance task dimensions with
e. social dimensions.
5.1-9. All of the following behaviors are recommended strategies for becoming an emergent group leader EXCEPT
d. Avoid expressing your own opinion.
2.1-14. Which of the following examples depicts an explicit norm?
d. Everyone abides by the "be on time; be out on time" rule set on the first day of the group meetings.
9.1-7. Which of the following suggestions can help you apologize to a group when an apology is appropriate?
d. Follow through on any promises to correct the situation.
12.1-1. Which of the following reasons is sound justification for scheduling or attending a group meeting?
d. Group input and interaction are critical.
4.1-33. Which of the following statements would be made by someone from a low-context culture?
d. I like to be accurate, clear, and direct when I talk to others.
10.1-25. Which of the following characteristics makes the Single Question Format different compared to the Standard Agenda?
d. It focuses on goal clarity and cultivating a supportive communication climate.
1.1-1. Which of the following situations best represents group communication as defined in the textbook?
d. Jury members deliberating a court case.
2.1-15. Which of the following examples depicts an implicit norm?
d. Members have learned that because meetings usually begin fifteen minutes later than scheduled, they can arrive a little late.
4.1-37. Which generation is described as follows: they are confident and have high self- esteem, are collaborators who favor teamwork, and generally like keeping their career options open.
d. Millennials
10.1-29. was developed by Delbecq and Van de Ven as a way of maximizing participation in problem-solving and program-planning groups while minimizing some of the interpersonal problems associated with group interaction. a. The Standard Agenda
d. Nominal Group Technique
9.1-22. Which of the following is NOT part of the 4R method of Conflict Management?
d. Reinterpretation
7.1-6. is the means we use to achieve group goals, the stimulus we use to build relationships, and the evidence we use to assess group work.
d. Team talk
12.1-22. All of the following statements about the minutes of a meeting are true EXCEPT
d. The minutes should be a word-for-word record of everything that members say.
13.1-23. In a presentation to the county council, a group consisting of the parent of a disabled child, the director of the local disabilities commission, the school superintendent, and a disabled adult working at a local grocery store are given a total of 20 minutes to present and justify their request for better quality disability services. This presentation is an example of
d. a team presentation.
11.1-4. Argumentativeness is a
d. a willingness to argue controversial issues with others.
9.1-14. When a member gives in to others at the expense of his or her own goals, what conflict style is the member using?
d. accommodation
15.1-19. Most parliamentary motions are given a precedence, an order in which they must be considered. Which of the following motions must be considered before the others listed below?
d. adjourn
14.1-13. Which of the following consequences is a drawback of audioconferencing?
d. all of the above
2.1-24. Which of the following strategies is recommended as an effective method for dealing with destructive nonconformity in groups?
d. all of the above
10.1-21. Getting bogged down in analyzing the problem is referred to as
d. analysis paralysis.
11.1-32. Some group members have suggested that the company sponsor an annual picnic rather than a more formal annual dinner. John disagrees with the others because the company has held a formal dinner every year for more than 10 years. Which fallacy of argument could be attributed to John's comment?
d. appeal to tradition
8.1-9. What type of listening is most appropriate when you want to acknowledge a member's effective language skills, use of humor, or skillful presentation of arguments?
d. appreciative listening
6.1-28. Suppose someone tells your group "If you finish this eighteen-month project on time, I'll send each of you a person thank-you note. " According to your textbook, this reward is not based on well-conceived, objective criteria. In this case, the reward is not
d. appropriate.
3.1-24. Walther's theory of hyperpersonal communication in virtual groups indicates that some members
d. are more confident in mediated settings than face-to-face meetings.
2.1-9. In which of which of Carolyn Anderson's group socialization stages do members become fully integrated into the group's culture?
d. assimilation phase
14.1-5. Email is an example of
d. asynchronous communication.
9.1-13. Nang tries to change the subject whenever group members argue. She also refuses to comment on controversial issues. What conflict style does Nang use?
d. avoidance
12.1-14. In order to keep a meeting moving at a comfortable pace, the chairperson should
d. begin on time without waiting for latecomers.
7.1-24. While preparing for a corporate job interview, Richard pays careful attention to selecting appropriate clothing (including the long-sleeved shirt to hide his tattoo), reminding himself to smile and establish eye contact with the person who will be interviewing him, and answering possible questions in a strong, confident voice. What aspect of nonverbal communication has Richard failed to consider?
d. body movement
14.1-28. Threaded discussions are characteristics of virtual groups using
d. bulletin boards.
7.1-5. Which of the following words would be considered the most concrete description of a member's behavior?
d. burps
7.1-26. Anthropologist Edward T. Hall identifies 4 zones of interaction used by most North Americans. Which of the following answers is NOT one of Hall's zones? a. intimate distance
d. business distance
15.1-2. The rules governing how an organization operates are often included in the organization's constitution or
d. bylaws.
7.1-13. At a regular study group meeting, one member asks that everyone be able to "summarize the most important information in each chapter." At the next meeting, a group member distributes an outline of the textbook's important concepts but wonders why no one else in the group has made the same effort. This misunderstanding is an example of
d. bypassing.
4.1-21. Collectivist cultures place greater value on
d. collaboration and cooperation.
13.1-6. When you identify a belief or value that you share with audience members who disagree, you have found a basis for
d. common ground.
13.1-17. Which organizational pattern would probably be most effective for a presentation assessing the merits of 2 political candidates?
d. compare and contrast
9.1-18. Which dialectic tension is represented in the 5 traditional conflict styles: accommodation, avoidance, collaboration, competition, and compromise? a. reward ? punish
d. concern for personal goals ? Concern for group goals
10.1-12. "Who will be the next student government president?" This discussion question represents a question of
d. conjecture.
13.1-2. Which key element of presentation speaking is represented by the guiding principle
d. content
13.1-11. Aristotle's concept of ethos has evolved into what communication scholars now call
d. credibility.
9.1-27. Which of the following elements in the Harvard Negotiation Project's principled negotiation process asks a group to seek fair standards for resolving a conflict or choosing an option?
d. criteria
5.1-22. According to the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership Model, a leader should try to when group members are able as well as willing and
d. delegate
11.1-16. "Sufism is not a sect of Islam, like Shiism or Shunnism, but rather the mystical sides of Islam: a personal, experiential approach to Allah, which contrasts with the more prescriptive, doctrinal approach of fundamentalism like the Taliban." What type of evidence is used in this example?
d. description
10.1-4. A company's recycling task force is composed of 15 members. If the task force makes decisions based on a consensus, how many members must be in favor of the group decision?
e. 15
8.1-5. Researchers conclude that of the total time most people spend communicating in a given day, they spend about % of that time listening.
e. 40-70
7.1-20. Research suggests that nonverbal communication accounts for between
e. 60-70
1.1-2. A group with 7 members has the potential for different types of interactions.
e. 966
15.1-8. What percent of group members who are eligible to vote must be present to meet the requirement of having a quorum in order to conduct official business?
e. Any of the above may be acceptable, depending on the group's bylaws.
5.1-14. Autocratic leaders
e. Both b and c.
12.1-18. What does your textbook suggest a group can do to curb the disruptive behavior of a loudmouth?
e. Do any or all of the above.
11.1-23. You should ask all of the following questions when trying to determine the objectivity or accuracy of evidence from an internet source EXCEPT
e. Do you agree with the source's claims and point of view?
3.1-22. All of the following are means of providing constructive feedback EXCEPT
e. Give feedback to advance your own goals.
6.1-11. Group members' Myers-Briggs types affect their beliefs about and behavior in groups. Which of the following beliefs would be characteristic of a perceiver?
e. Groups need freedom to examine multiple options during a discussion.
3.1-20. Which of the following descriptions is likely to be true of highly apprehensive group members compared to low apprehensive members?
e. Highly apprehensive members agree with others rather than voice disagreement.
8.1-31. All of the following questions can help you assess your internal thought processes as you listen EXCEPT
e. How can I interrupt to comment on what I'm hearing?
8.1-21. Good listeners use their extra thought speed productively. They do all of the following EXCEPT
e. Listen exclusively for specific facts and statistics.
5.1-29. Raphael has been assigned the leadership task of managing an office in which most of the employees are young or new to the company. He decides that when problems or setbacks occur, he will not blame the group or its members. Instead, he will use the situation as a teachable moment and make sure that members accept personal responsibility for a problem and its consequences. He will also look for situations in which group members can assume leadership responsibilities. Which of the following leadership functions in the 5M Model of Leadership Effectiveness does Raphael's behavior exemplify?
e. Mentoring members
15.1-1. is a systematic method used by groups to determine the
e. Parliamentary procedure
15.1-4. Parliamentary procedure should be used when
e. Parliamentary procedure should be used for all of the above reasons.
14.1-33. Dr. Ramon C. Barquin published a "Ten Commandments for Computer Ethics." All of the following commandments are included in his list EXCEPT
e. Thou shalt not express controversial opinions that could distress or offend others.
9.1-4. Attribution Theory is useful in explaining the sources of group conflict. All of the following answers are examples of how attributions can prompt anger among group members EXCEPT
e. What other members do seems to reflect member needs.
6.1-21. Before reprimanding a group member or a group as a whole, be sure you can answer all of the following questions EXCEPT
e. Will the reprimand help you achieve your personal goals?
4.1-35. Your textbook urges both men and women to adapt to the opposite sex's way of thinking and making decisions by heeding all of the following recommendations EXCEPT
e. Women should avoid disagreeing and arguing with men.
11.1-2. An argument is
e. a claim supported by evidence and reasons for accepting it.
4.1-10. In dialectic terms, the opposite or counterpart of a Myers-Briggs judger is
e. a perceiver.
11.1-31. "My opponent says we can lower taxes. He can't be believed or trusted. Ten years ago, he admitted to being an alcoholic. "What fallacy is being committed in this statement?
e. ad hominem attack
10.1-22. In what way is Functional Theory different than the Standard Agenda method of problem solving?
e. all of the above
11.1-13. Which of the following answers is an example of the kind of evidence you could use in an argument?
e. all of the above
11.1-41. Emotional intelligence can benefit a group engaged in argumentation because members will strive to
e. all of the above
14.1-6. Which of the following answers describes a characteristic of asynchronous communication?
e. all of the above
2.1-25. Max was disturbed by the way in which group members interrupted one another during discussions. He could see that some of the quieter members were intimidated by this norm. Max decided that he would try to change the norm by continuing to talk right through an interruption in the hope that the members who usually interrupted would stop. What strategy was Max using to change group norms?
e. continued interaction using a different behavior
13.1-9. If, at the end of your presentation, listeners conclude that you lack expertise on the subject and that they have reason to question your honesty and sincerity, you have failed to devote enough attention to
e. credibility.
9.1-34. All of the following answers are characteristic of groupthink EXCEPT
e. critically evaluating options.
7.1-29. Jack Gibb describes 6 pairs of communication behaviors that influence whether a group's climate is defensive or supportive. Which of the following communication behaviors is the opposite of evaluation?
e. description
8.1-13. What type of listening is so essential that it forms the basis for the other 4 types of listening?
e. discriminative listening
5.1-8. When designated leaders are "plucked from a group in order to lead," they should
e. discuss ground rules for interaction while assuring group members of continued friendship.
12.1-12. The chairperson of a meeting should
e. do all of the above.
8.1-14. You can become a more empathic listener by
e. doing all of the above.
6.1-2. Which of the following group dialectics is MOST applicable in Chapter 6, "Group
e. engaged ? disengaged
11.1-17. The Wings of Freedom tour includes 3 famous World War II vintage airplanes: a B-17 Flying Fortress, a B-24 Liberator, and a North American P-51. What type of evidence is used in this example?
e. example
14.1-19. A study by Graetz and his colleagues concludes that group members using text- only communication
e. experience all of the above.
5.1-5. Which category of power is operating when a group member nominates someone as a leader by saying, "I recommend that Romero be appointed chair of the building committee given his extensive experience as a successful contractor"?
e. expert power
7.1-14. In a section on avoiding abusive language, your textbook suggests that if you take action against others, make sure you avoid all forms of verbal abuse EXCEPT
e. expressing your personal objections.
7.1-4. Which of the following is an example of an abstract word?
e. fairness
11.1-35. "I knew I wouldn't win the lottery because a black cat crossed my path right after
e. faulty cause
4.1-13. Kim is people-oriented. She wants everyone in the group to get along. She often spends extra time helping other group members. Which Myers-Briggs personality trait best describes Kim?
e. feeler
8.1-24. Which of the follow listening strategies would you be using if you asked "Am I right in saying that all of us agree to meet on Saturday to finish the project?" a. listen for big ideas
e. help your group listen
5.1-33. A leader who prefers a democratic approach to decision making and leadership may frustrate members who come from a(n) culture.
e. high power distance
9.1-33. Which symptom of groupthink is expressed when a group member says "Of course, we're right. We have a perfect safety record, have done this many times, and nothing's gone wrong"?
e. illusions of invulnerability
12.1-5. All of the following criteria should be considered when determining who should be invited to a meeting EXCEPT
e. individuals who are uninvolved in the issues scheduled for discussion.
3.1-12. All of the following functions are group maintenance roles EXCEPT
e. information giver.
7.1-12. The specialized or technical language of a profession is referred to as
e. jargon.
7.1-23. Posture, touch, and gestures are examples of
e. kinesics.
5.1-19. Fred Fiedler's Contingency Model of Leadership Effectiveness claims that relationship-motivated leaders
e. may do all of the above.
3.1-3. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, in what order do we satisfy the following needs?
e. physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization
10.1-23. The Functional Theory approach to problem solving focuses on
e. preparation, competence, and communication.
11.1-30. Which step in refuting an argument would be characterized by a statement such as "I don't support the increase in student activity fees for 2 reasons: the college just raised tuition 5%, and the poor economy has stressed many students and their parents to the limit"?
e. preview your objections
9.1-2. The members of a civic association committee charged with addressing safety issues in the community disagree over whether to begin by surveying residents about their safety concerns or to start by consulting local law enforcement for safety suggestions. What type of conflict is the group experiencing?
e. procedural
15.1-22. The members of a relatively large group using parliamentary procedure are having difficulty seeing and hearing when members speak. Ricky wants to suggest that speakers stand up and speak louder. What type of motion should
e. question of privilege
12.1-11. The elections committee of the Student Government Council is making preparations for the upcoming campus elections. During what part of the agenda should the elections committee chairperson report on the status of the committee's work?
e. reports from individuals and subcommittees
11.1-42. All of the following traits are characteristic of emotional intelligence EXCEPT
e. self-assertion.
