Testout Final Review

An after-school care center allows children to browse the internet. They want to limit the websites that the children can access. Which of the following network hosts would MOST likely provide this service? Proxy server Print server Web server DHCP server

Proxy server EXPLANATION One function of a proxy server is to intercept request from a client browser, and either forward it on to the internet or deny access to the internet site. A print server manages network printers and makes them available to computers throughout the network. Print jobs are sent to the print server instead of directly to the printer. A web server offers web pages to clients. Many organizations have their own web server which is accessible from the internet or from the internal network. A DHCP server leases IP addresses to client computers when they first connect to the network.

You have a workstation running a 64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Professional that you would like to upgrade to Windows 10 Professional. You want to perform the upgrade with the lowest cost and least effort. Which of the following would be the BEST way to install Windows 10? Purchase a 32-bit full version of Windows 10 and perform an in-place upgrade. Purchase a 64-bit upgrade version of Windows 10 and perform a custom installation. Purchase a 64-bit upgrade version of Windows 10 and perform an in-place upgrade. Purchase a 64-bit full version of Windows 10 and perform a custom installation.

Purchase a 64-bit upgrade version of Windows 10 and perform an in-place upgrade. EXPLANATION You can purchase a 64-bit upgrade version of Windows 10 when moving from Windows 7. In this scenario, you can perform an in-place upgrade because you are moving to the same or higher edition. If you were moving to a lower edition (such as a Home edition), you would need to perform a new installation. You can't upgrade from a 64-bit version of Windows to a 32-bit version of Windows.

A company has subscribed to a cloud service that offers cloud applications and storage space. Through acquisition, the number of company employees quickly doubled. The cloud service vendor was able to add cloud services to these additional employees without requiring hardware changes. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent? Measured service On-demand Resource pooling Rapid elasticity

Rapid elasticity EXPLANATION Rapid elasticity describes the cloud provider's ability to increase or decrease service levels to meet customer needs without requiring hardware changes. Measured service refers to the way cloud services are measured or metered for billing purposes or according to a service level agreement. An on-demand cloud service is available to user at any time. Cloud services providers use resource pooling to supply services to multiple customers using shared physical resources.

You're troubleshooting a notebook system that uses a digitizer pad and stylus for user input. The user has complained that the digitizer pad registers stylus registers taps about one inch to the right of where the taps actually occur. Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix this issue? Replace the stylus. Remove any scratches from the digitizer pad. Replace the digitizer pad. Hold the stylus at an increased angle. Recalibrate the digitizer pad.

Recalibrate the digitizer pad. EXPLANATION To fix this problem, you need to recalibrate the digitizer pad. Over time, digitizer pads on notebooks can develop drift. You can fix this issue by running a recalibration program, which is usually included with the pad.

Which tool lets you view and directly edit the registry? Msinfo32 System Configuration Utility Control Panel Regedit

Regedit EXPLANATION Use Regedit to view and directly edit the registry. The System Configuration Utility (msconfig) configures the way your system boots to enable optimal troubleshooting to diagnose technical issues. Although it does make registry changes, it doesn't allow you to directly edit the registry. Msinfo32 is used to view information about the hardware and software installed in the system. Control Panel makes changes to the registry, but it does not allow you to do so directly.

You have purchased a used computer from a computer liquidator. When you boot the computer, you find that there has been a password set on the BIOS. You need to clear the password so that you can edit the CMOS settings. What should you do? Remove the motherboard battery for a few seconds. Press Ctrl + Alt + Del while booting the computer. Flash the BIOS. Press F2 while booting the computer.

Remove the motherboard battery for a few seconds. You can clear the BIOS password by removing the motherboard battery for few seconds or, on older systems, by setting a motherboard jumper. Flashing the BIOS probably will not remove the password.

A user reports that an older laptop is having trouble connecting with newer wireless networks. Which of the following actions should a technician consider as an alternative to replacing the laptop? Replace the internal wireless card. Replace the system board. Add more memory. Replace the hard drive with one with a larger capacity.

Replace the internal wireless card. EXPLANATION A newer wireless card may allow the laptop to connect with newer wireless protocols. Additional memory will not affect wireless connectivity. A larger hard drive will not affect wireless connectivity. A new system board using the same wireless card will not affect wireless connectivity.

You have just installed a maintenance kit in your laser printer. Which of the following is the BEST next step to perform? Reinstall the print drivers. Check the gap between the print head and the paper. Reset the page count. Use the automatic cleaning feature.

Reset the page count. EXPLANATION After installing a maintenance kit in your laser printer, you should reset the page count. The parts in a maintenance kit are replaced on a regular basis (usually after about 20,000 pages of printing).On dot matrix printers, you should check the gap between the printer head and the paper to avoid printer images become faint. Use an inkjet's automatic cleaning feature if letters have missing lines. The print drivers may need reinstallation if they become corrupt.

You installed a new toner cartridge in a company-owned laser printer and did some maintenance tasks that you noticed needed to be done. Which of the following BEST describes the next step you should perform? Check the gap between the printer head and the paper. Use the automatic cleaning feature. Reset the page count. Reinstall the print drivers.

Reset the page count. EXPLANATION After performing regular maintenance tasks on a laser printer, you should reset the page count. A printer needs maintenance on a regular basis (usually after about 20,000 pages of printing), so it helps to know how many pages have been printed since the last time it was serviced. On dot matrix printers, you should check the gap between the printer head and the paper to avoid printer images becoming faint. Use an inkjet's automatic cleaning feature if letters have missing lines. The print drivers would only need reinstallation if they had become corrupted.

For the past few days, a mobile phone has stopped functioning and will not respond to touchscreen input. A soft reset no longer returns functionality. Which of the following is the BEST step the user can take to fix this problem? Perform a force stop Reset to factory default Close all running apps Remove and replace the battery

Reset to factory default EXPLANATION Resetting to factory default will uninstall all apps and remove all data. This is the best option in this scenario. If the mobile phone does not respond to touchscreen input, there will be no way to close all running apps. Removing and replacing the battery is similar to a soft reset, which has not corrected the problem. If the mobile phone does not respond to touchscreen input, there is no way to perform a force stop.

The chain of custody is used for what purposes? Identifying the owner of evidence Retaining evidence integrity by identifying people coming into contact with evidence Detailing the timeline between creation and discovery of evidence Maintaining compliance with federal privacy laws

Retaining evidence integrity by identifying people coming into contact with evidence The chain of custody is used to track the people who came in contact with evidence. The chain of custody starts at the moment evidence is discovered. It lists the identity of the person who discovered, logged, gathered, protected, transported, stored, and presented the evidence. The chain of custody helps to insure the admissibility of evidence in court.

A technician is replacing a hard drive in a laptop. Which of the following is the FIRST action the technician should perform before opening the laptop case? Create written disassembly notes and tape screws and parts to the notes. Obtain the appropriate hand tools. Review the laptop manufacturer's documentation. Document and label cable and screw locations.

Review the laptop manufacturer's documentation. EXPLANATION The first step in repairing a mobile device is to refer to the manufacturer's documentation. This will guide you while disassembling, disconnecting, reconnecting, and reassembling the device. Documenting and labeling cable and screw locations adheres to proper procedures, but is not the first action. Obtaining the appropriate hand tools adheres to proper procedures, but is not the first action. Producing written disassembly notes and taping screws and parts to the notes adheres to proper procedures, but is not the first action.

An internal laptop keyboard is generally connected to the laptop's system board using a: PS/2 port USB connector Ribbon cable Mini-molex connector

Ribbon cable EXPLANATION A laptop keyboard is generally connected to the system board using a flat, ribbon-like cable. PS/2 ports are used to attach external devices, such as keyboards and mice, to older laptops. USB connectors are used to connect external keyboards to a laptop. The power cable for floppy drives uses a mini-molex connector.

A technician is tasked to add a valid certificate to a mobile device so that encrypted emails can be opened. Which of the following email protocols is being used? IMEI POP3 IMAP S/MIME

S/MIME EXPLANATION S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a protocol used to encrypt emails. It allows the sender to digitally sign and encrypt emails. An encrypted email server will encrypt email communications between the server and an email client, but will store the email in an unencrypted form. A proper certificate must be used to encrypt and decrypt S/MIME emails. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is an email protocol that downloads and deletes emails from a mail server. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is an email protocol that can be used to synchronize email between multiple email clients on multiple devices. IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) is an number a manufacturer assigns to a mobile device.

Which of the following network services or protocols uses TCP/IP port 22? SSH IMAP4 NNTP TFTP

SSH EXPLANATION The Secure Shell (SSH) service uses TCP/IP port 22. SSH is a terminal emulation program that provides a secure authenticated connection to a remote system over the network. It is most commonly used with UNIX and Linux systems, but can be used on Windows as well. The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a connectionless service for downloading files from a remote system. TFTP uses TCP/IP port 69. The Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) is used to access and download messages from newsgroup servers. NNTP uses TCP/IP port 119. The Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4) is used to download email from remote servers. IMAP 4 uses TCP/IP port 143.

Which of the following protocols can be enabled so email is encrypted on a mobile device? SSL SMTP IMAP POP3

SSL EXPLANATION SSL, or Secure Socket Layer, can be enabled so email is encrypted on a mobile device. IMAP and POP3 are email retrieval protocols. SMTP is the protocol used to route email through the internetwork.

Which of the following cloud computing solutions delivers software applications to a client either over the internet or on a local area network? DaaS PaaS SaaS IaaS

SaaS EXPLANATION Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers software applications to the client either over the internet or on a local area network. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) delivers infrastructure to the client, such as processing, storage, networks, and virtualized environments. The client deploys and runs software without purchasing servers, data center space, or network equipment. Platform as a Service (PaaS) delivers everything a developer needs to build an application onto the cloud infrastructure. The deployment comes without the cost and complexity of buying and managing the underlying hardware and software layers. Data as a Service (DaaS) stores and provides data from a centralized location without the need for local collection and storage.

Occasionally, Rachel works from another Mac in her office, rather than her own, and needs to be able to access her Mac while she is away from her desk. Which option can Rachel use to access her MAC? Telnet Remote Desktop Protocal SSH Screen Sharing

Screen Sharing EXPLANATION You can use screen sharing to access your Mac while you're away, solve a problem on someone else's Mac, or collaborate with others on a project such as a website or presentation. Remote Desktop Protocol is a Windows solution. SSH is used to establish a secure terminal connection over a network. Telnet is used to establish an unsecure connection over a network.

You have just installed the latest Windows updates on your Windows 10 computer. After the computer has rebooted, you get the following error message: Error: Windows failed to start. A recent hardware or software change might have caused the issue after you installed Windows updates. Since your computer won't start, you have booted your computer into the Advanced Options section of the Windows 10 recovery environment (see image). While troubleshooting this issue, which of the advanced options would be the BEST to try first? (no image) System Image Restore System Image Startup Repair Command Prompt Startup Settings

Startup Repair EXPLANATION The Startup Repair option scans your PC for problems like missing or damaged system files. It can't fix hardware issues or Windows installation problems, but it is the best first place to start if you are experiencing trouble booting into Window. System Restore lets you restore your computer back to a previous restore point. Although this may work, it will undo any change you have made since the last restore point was created. Therefore, it is best to try the Start-up Repair option first. System Image Recovery erases all of the data on your drive and replaces it with an image of Windows, which you must create prior. This would fix your issue, but you would lose any changes made to your computer after the image was created. For individuals who are well versed in command-line troubleshooting tools, the Command Prompt option may be of use. However, using this method, you must know the command to use. No menu options are provided. Selecting the Startup Settings option will restart your computer and bring up Startup Settings, a menu full of various special ways to boot to Windows, including Safe Mode. Attempting to boot to Safe Mode is a valid method, but will most likely fail in this scenario, as the installation of the Windows update has probably corrupted or inadvertently deleted a critical file required for booting.

What are the two protocols used most often with IoT devices? (Select TWO.) Zbot Zensys Zigbee Z-Wave Zerg

Zigbee Z-Wave EXPLANATION Zigbee and Z-Wave are two radio protocols many IoT devices work with because they are designed for low-data rate, low-power applications. They link all IoT devices to form a mesh network.

While troubleshooting a Windows computer, you open a command prompt to explore the folders (directories) on the hard drive. You notice that one of the folders required for your project is missing. Which of the following Microsoft command line tools would allow you to QUICKLY create the missing folder? rd del sfc md cd

md EXPLANATION The md command (Make Directory) creates a directory/folder or subdirectory/subfolder. The rd command removes a directory. The cd command changes which directory you are working in. The del command (delete) deletes files and directories. The sfc command scans the integrity of all protected system files and replaces incorrect versions with correct Microsoft versions.

Which commands can you use to create a new directory? (Select TWO). newdir rd md cd mkdir

md mkdir EXPLANATION Use md or mkdir to create a directory. Use cd to show the current directory. Use rd to delete a directory.

You want to scan the integrity of all protected system files on your Windows 10 system, but not repair them. Which command should you use? sfc /verifyfile sfc /scannow sfc /verifyonly sfc /scanfile

sfc /verifyonly EXPLANATION Use sfc /verifyonly to scan the integrity of all protected system files, but not repair them. sfc /scannow scans the system and replaces altered files. sfc /scanfile scans the integrity of a specific file and repairs it if it has problems. sfc /verifyfile scans the integrity of a specific file, but does not repair it.

Which of the following file extension types can be run from the command prompt? (Select THREE). .com .exe .sys .bat .dll

.com .exe .bat EXPLANATION .exe, .bat, and .com files can all run stand-alone from the command prompt, while .dll and .sys files work in conjunction with other programs.

Which of the following extensions identifies a program packaged for use by Windows Installer? .dll .msi .pkg .exe .bat

.msi EXPLANATION The .msi extension identifies installation packages formatted for use by the Windows Installer. The .exe extension indicates a program file. The .bat extension indicates a batch file. The .dll extension indicates a dynamic link library system file.

Which of the following file extensions indicates a Windows system file? (Select TWO). .rtf .vxd .msi .com .dll

.vxd .dll Windows system file extensions include .dll (dynamic link library), .drv (device driver), and .vxd (virtual device driver). Program file extensions include .exe and .com. Document file extensions include .rtf (rich text). Windows installer files use the .msi extension.

Which wireless standard can stream data at a rate of up to 54 Mbps using a frequency of 5 GHz? 802.11a 802.11n 802.11b 802.11g

802.11a 802.11a can stream data at a rate of up to 54 Mbps using a frequency of 5 GHz. 802.11b can stream data at a rate of up to 11 Mbps using a frequency of 2.4 GHz. 802.11g can stream data at a rate of up to 54 Mbps using a frequency of 2.4 GHz. 802.11n can stream data at a rate of up to 600 Mbps using a frequency of 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz.

A public library has purchased a new laptop computer to replace their older desktop computers and is concerned that they are vulnerable to theft. Which of the following laptop features should be used to physically secure the laptop? A cable lock Biometric authentication A multi-factor password policy An external encryption device

A cable lock EXPLANATION A cable lock can be used to physically secure a laptop to deter theft. Biometric authentication does not physically secure a laptop. A multi-factor password policy does not physically secure a laptop. An external encryption device does not physically secure a laptop.

A sales person typically carries a laptop computer to several off-site customer meetings each day, but needs the flexibility to quickly attach other peripherals and charge the laptop battery while at their office desk. Which of the following laptop feature would BEST meet these requirements? A keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) switch A USB 3.0 hub A USB-to-RJ45 dongle A laptop docking station

A laptop docking station EXPLANATION A docking station can quickly connect a laptop to an external monitor, keyboard, and other peripherals, as well as charge the laptop battery. A KVM switch allows several computers to connect to a single monitor, keyboard, and mouse. A USB hub can connect the laptop to several peripherals, but would not charge the laptop battery. A USB-to-RJ45 dongle would only connect the laptop to a wired network.

You connect your computer to a wireless network available at the local library. You find that you can't access several websites you need to on the internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this problem? The router has not been configured to perform port forwarding. Port triggering is redirecting traffic to the wrong IP address. A firewall is blocking ports 80 and 443. A proxy server is filtering access to websites.

A proxy server is filtering access to websites. EXPLANATION A proxy server can be configured to block internet access based on website or URL. Many schools and public networks use proxy servers to prevent access to websites with objectionable content. Ports 80 and 443 are used by HTTP to retrieve all web content. If a firewall were blocking these ports, access would be denied to all websites. Port forwarding directs incoming connections to a host on the private network. Port triggering dynamically opens firewall ports based on applications that initiate contact from the private network.

When assisting users, a technician often uses the Mac OS Force Quit functions and the Linux kill command. Which of the following situations would require their use? A runaway application does not respond to user input. A user accidently sends a large job to a printer. The operating system needs to be rebooted. A remote desktop connection needs to be closed.

A runaway application does not respond to user input. EXPLANATION The Mac OS Force Quit functions and the Linux kill command can be used to stop a runaway application does not respond to user input. Force Quit and kill are not used to cancel a print job. Force Quit and kill are not used when the operating system needs to be rebooted. Force Quit and kill are not used to close a remote desktop connection.

You want to create a new user account on a Windows system that can create and edit private files, start and stop the system, install applications, and add new device drivers. Which group should this user be a member of? Guests Users Administrators Power Users

Administrators EXPLANATION The user should be a member of the Administrators group. No other group can add new device drivers or install new applications.

A user stores sensitive data on a USB flash drive. Which of the following can be used to encrypt the data on this drive? Run as administrator Single sign-on Bitlocker To Go Administrative share

Bitlocker To Go Bitlocker To Go can be used to encrypt a USB flash drive. A single sign-on permits a user and their programs to use their credentials to automatically log in to other sites and services. It's not used for encryption. Run as administrator is used to run an application with elevated privileges, not to encrypt data. An administrative share is used by administrators to access system drives. It's not used for encryption.

You need a type of wireless connection that can transfer data between your phone, PDA, and laptop. You are transferring sensitive information. Which of the following would be the BEST choice? Cellular WAN Bluetooth Infrared Wireless Ethernet

Bluetooth EXPLANATION A Bluetooth connection would be the best choice because it automatically detects Bluetooth-enabled devices and creates a wireless PAN between them. It can be used for both voice and data signals, and it also provides 128-bit encryption to protect sensitive information in transit. Infrared is a line-of-sight medium, so it may be difficult to maintain connectivity. It doesn't provide encryption. Cellular WAN provides very little security for information in transit and requires a cellular connection for each device. Wireless Ethernet is used to transfer data, not to connect devices.

Which type of printer uses an inked ribbon? Laser Dot matrix Dye sublimation Ink jet

Dot matrix EXPLANATION Dot matrix printers use an inked ribbon. The printing mechanism strikes the ribbon to put ink onto the paper. A dye sublimation printer is a non-impact printer that uses film-embedded dye. Inkjet printers are quiet, non-impact printers that store ink in a reservoir. Bubble jet printers are the most popular form of inkjet printers. Laser printers use lasers and electrical charges to transfer images to paper.

Which of the following printer types is considered an impact printer? Laser Dot matrix Inkjet Bubble jet

Dot matrix EXPLANATION Impact printers have a print head that comes in contact with the paper surface. A dot matrix printer is an example of an impact printer. Inkjet printers are quiet non-impact printers that store ink in a reservoir. Bubble jet printers are the most popular form of inkjet printers. Laser printers use lasers an electrical charges to transfer images to paper.

A technician upgrades the hard drive on a computer in the accounting department and decides to donate the old drive to a local trade school. Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure that the accounting data can't be recovered? Degauss Standard format diskpart format Drive wipe

Drive wipe EXPLANATION Drive wipe is a software-based method of overwriting the actual data that makes up files on the hard drive. The overwriting process is performed multiple times to remove the magnetic traces of previous data. The drive remains usable after a disk wipe. A standard format removes only the reference to files and does not remove the actual data that made up the files. Software tools can easily recover this data. Degaussing a disk removes the data, but also removes lower-level formatting making the disk unusable for the local trade school. Like a standard format, data from a disk that is repartitioned using diskpart can be recovered.

Which of the following security solutions would prevent a user from reading a file which she did not create? VPN IPSec EFS BitLocker

EFS EXPLANATION EFS is a Windows file encryption option that encrypts individual files so that only the user who created the file can open it. Decryption is automatic when the file owner opens it. Other users cannot open the encrypted file unless specifically authorized. BitLocker is a Microsoft security solution which encrypts the entire contents of a hard drive, protecting all files on the disk. BitLocker uses a special key which is required to unlock the hard disk. You cannot unlock/decrypt a drive simply by moving it to another computer. A virtual private network (VPN) uses an encryption protocol (such as IPSec, PPTP, or L2TP) to establish a secure communication channel between two hosts, or between one site and another site. Data that passes through the unsecured network is encrypted and protected.

A company has chosen a UTM instead of an IDS or IPS appliance to protect their network. Which of the following UTM security features is not available with an IDS or IPS? Intrusion detection Anomaly logs and alerts Email and antispam filtering Intrusion prevention

Email and antispam filtering EXPLANATION A unified threat management (UTM) appliance offers the best network protection in a single device. It has all the features of an intrusion detection system (IDS) or intrusion prevention system (IPS). One of the features of a UTM that is not found in an IDS or IPS is email and antispam filtering. UTMs, IDSs, and IPSs all provide intrusion detection functions. Both UTMs and IPSs provide intrusion prevention functions. UTMs, IDSs, and IPSs all log anomalies and send alerts.

You have just purchased a new laptop with built-in 802.11 wireless and Bluetooth capabilities. When you boot into Windows, you do not see a Bluetooth adapter listed in Device Manager. Which of the following would be BEST to perform first? Enable the Bluetooth device in Device Manager. Replace the wireless card in the laptop. Update the device driver in Windows. Enable Bluetooth in the BIOS/UEFI configuration.

Enable Bluetooth in the BIOS/UEFI configuration. EXPLANATION You can enable and disable built-in devices in the system BIOS/UEFI configuration. Check the BIOS/UEFI configuration before trying to replace components. You cannot enable the device or update the driver in Windows until Windows can see the device. With the device disabled in the BIOS/UEFI configuration, Windows does not know that the device exists.

A technician is installing a new SOHO wireless router in a home office. The customer wants to secure the wireless network so only a smartphone, tablet, and laptop can connect. Which of the following router settings should the technician change? Disable SSID broadcast Enable port forwarding Enable MAC filtering Disable DHCP

Enable MAC filtering EXPLANATION MAC filtering can be used to limit connectivity to a list of MAC addresses. Disabling the SSID broadcast will increase security, but SSID can be easily captured using wireless analyzers and then used to connect to the wireless network. Disabling DHCP will require static IP addresses, but will not limit network connectivity. Enabling port forwarding allows the router to redirected on the internal network. It will not limit network connectivity.

A technician is installing a SOHO router at an after-school community center. The customer would like to keep children from accessing inappropriate while browsing the web. Which of the following actions would help accomplish this goal? Update firmware Enable content filtering Disable SSID broadcast Disable DHCP

Enable content filtering EXPLANATION Parental controls or content filters restrict or block specific web traffic based on keywords, URLs, or the time of day. Disabling the SSID broadcast would increase security, but does nothing to restrict web browsing results. Disabling DHCP would require static IP addresses, but does nothing to restrict web browsing results. Updating firmware may improve security by fixing vulnerabilities, but does nothing to restrict web browsing results.

A user has purchased an external speaker to play music from a mobile device over a wireless connection. Which of the following actions is MOST likely needed for speaker connectivity. Enable pairing Create hotspot Configure tethering Disable airplane mode

Enable pairing EXPLANATION Wireless external speakers most often use Bluetooth. A mobile device and an external speaker must be paired when Bluetooth communication is used. Tethering describes the ability to use a cellular connection on a mobile phone to provide internet connectivity to another mobile device. This is usually done through a physical cable. A hotspot is created on a mobile phone to supply internet connectivity to multiple devices through the phones cellular connection. Airplane mode will disable all external communication methods on a mobile device to conform to airline requirements.

Rachel, an employee in the support department, wants to run a virtual machine on her computer from which she can troubleshoot customer issues. Which of the following must you complete before virtualization will work on her computer? Install the extra hard disk from the new virtual machine will run on. Flash the computer's BIOS to add virtualization support. Install additional memory. Enable virtualization support in the BIOS settings.

Enable virtualization support in the BIOS settings. EXPLANATION For virtualization to work on Rachel's PC, you must ensure that the virtualization support is enabled in the BIOS settings. Some CPUs will have Virtualization Support turned on by default, and others will not. Although additional memory will increase performance of a computer using virtualization, it may not be required depending on the amount of memory currently installed. Likewise, an additional hard disk may be advantages in storing or running virtual machines, but they are not a requirement. Most modern CPUs support virtualization and do not require the BIOS to be flashed.

Which of the following features is supplied by WPA2 on a wireless network? (Select TWO). Filtering of traffic based on packet characteristics Encryption Centralized access for clients Authentication Refusal of client connections based on MAC address Identification of the network

Encryption Authentication Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks. MAC address filtering allows or rejects client connections based on the hardware address. The SSID is the network name or identifier. A wireless access point (called an AP or WAP) is the central connection point for wireless clients. A firewall allows or rejects packets based on packet characteristics (such as address, port, or protocol type).

You provide desktop support for a small company. The company has two locations in the same city, but they are several miles away. You get a call from a user who is having problems with an application. He tries to describe what he is doing in the application, but you just can't understand what he is doing that might be causing the problem. What should you do? Establish a Remote Desktop connection and perform the task on the user's system. Schedule the user to get more training on using the application. Drive to the other location as soon as possible and then watch as the user performs the task. Establish a Remote Assistance connection and watch what the user is doing.

Establish a Remote Assistance connection and watch what the user is doing. EXPLANATION Use Remote Assistance to watch what another user is doing. In the remote session, you can also take control and show the user how to complete the task. With Remote Desktop, you could try to do the task on the user's computer, but the other user would not be able to see what you were doing.

You need to protect the user data on a Windows 10 system. Which tools could you use to do this? Storage Spaces File History Previous Versions Windows 7 (Backup and Restore) Work Folders

File History Windows 7 (Backup and Restore) EXPLANATION You can protect user data on a Windows 10 system using the following tools: File History can be used to protect user data. All user profile files (such as documents, music, and videos) are automatically backed up at a regular interval to a second storage device in the system. Windows 7 (Backup and Restore) can be used to back up user data to backup media on a specified schedule. Previous Versions was used on Windows 7 to provide a similar function to File History on Windows 8.1 and later. Storage Spaces are used to aggregate storage space from multiple storage devices in the system. Work Folders are used to make files available on other devices, even when the main system is offline.

You need to replace the video card in a laptop. What is the first step? Remove the display wires if the video card is integrated into the motherboard. Remove the bezel. Find a service manual with correct disassembly procedures. Remove the access panel at the bottom of the laptop. Remove the keyboard.

Find a service manual with correct disassembly procedures. EXPLANATION Before replacing the video card, find the documentation to determine the location of screws and to identify installation sequences for accessing the system components. On most notebooks, you access the video card by removing the keyboard. Some video cards are integrated on the motherboard and cannot be replaced. If the video card can be replaced, you will need to disconnect the display wires. You can typically view or add memory to a laptop by removing the access panel on the bottom of the notebook. The bezel is the case in which the LCD screen is set and typically houses the antenna for wireless network cards.

Which type of biometric authentication uses the ridges of your skin? Retina scan Fingerprint Face scan Keystroke dynamics

Fingerprint Fingerprint biometrics use the ridges of your skin, which are known as ridge minutiae. Retina scans use blood vein patters, facial scans use a facial pattern, and keystroke dynamics use a behavioral system.

A user can't make an RDP connection from outside the network to a server inside the network. Which network device will a network administrator MOST likely configure to allow this connection? Switch Hub Firewall Access point

Firewall EXPLANATION A firewall filters network traffic based on a set of rules. The network administrator will most likely configure the firewall to allow RDP traffic. A switch maintains a table of MAC addresses by port and forwards network frames to only the port that matches the MAC address. An access point gives Wi-Fi access to a network. A hub transmits a data frame to every port except the port that received the data frame.

A mobile device user is comparing methods for securing the device. Which of the following methods for securing a mobile device can affect the device's performance? Remote backup applications Full device encryption Locator applications Biometric authentication

Full device encryption EXPLANATION Full device encryption is an effective security method for mobile devices. However, it usually requires processing resources and will slow performance. Biometric authentication uses physical attributes such as a retinal, face, or fingerprint scan for authentication. Its drain on processing resources is minimal. A locator application can be used to find a lost or stolen device. Its drain on processing resources is minimal. Remote backup refers to applications that back up data on the mobile device. Usually, the backup data is stored in the cloud. While this can add a processing load, most backup applications will meter the processing so that it does not affect normal operations.

After removing the printed paper from your laser printer, the toner smudges and can be wiped off in places. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? Print drum Fuser rollers Secondary corona Primary corona

Fuser rollers EXPLANATION Because the fuser rollers heat and press the entire paper, dirty fuser rollers are the most likely problem. The other components do not touch the paper directly.

One of the employees in your company calls and complains that text printed on the laser printer smudges easily and is staining hands and cloths. Which of the following, if adjusted or replaced, would BEST fix the printer? Photoreceptor drum OPC drum Toner hopper Laser Fuser unit

Fuser unit EXPLANATION After the toner has been applied to the paper, the pater passes through two heated rollers known as the fuser, or fuser unit. The heat and pressure from the rollers fuse the toner particles into the fibers of the paper. If the toner on the finished printed paper is smudging, the most likely issue is that the fuser unit is malfunctioning in some way. Since the text is being printed, the toner hopper is dispensing toner. The photoreceptor and the environmentally friendly version known as the organic photo conductor drums (OPC drums )received the charge from the corona wire. If these parts were not working, the text would not be transferred to the paper. Likewise, if the laser were not working, the image of the text would not be drawn on the photoreceptor drum, and the paper would come out blank.

Which function is commonly associated with the following icon? Wireless (on/off) GPS (on/off) Dual displays Airplane mode Bluetooth (on/off)

GPS (on/off) EXPLANATION This icon is commonly associated with the GPS (on/off) function key.

You are purchasing several PC system that will be used as thin clients in a large organization. Which of the following hardware selection criteria would be the MOST important for this system? RAID 0 array High-end video adapter 64-bit 8-core processor Gigabit Ethernet adapter

Gigabit Ethernet adapter EXPLANATION A thin client only needs to be able to connect to a remote desktop session, so it only needs to meet the minimum requirements for running Windows locally. You should select a system with the fastest network adapter supported by the network it will be connected to. Gigabit speeds (or faster) are recommended. This will help ensure that the remote desktop session provides a reasonable end user experience. A RAID 0 array, high-end video adapter, or 8-core CPU really isn't needed in this type of system.

On a Windows system, which of the following is true of groups? A group allows multiple users to share a single logon. Users can log on as the group and have all access rights assigned to the group. Group members have the access rights assigned to the group. Users and local resources, such as printers and shared folders, can be made members of a group. All group members have access to all resources in the same group.

Group members have the access rights assigned to the group. EXPLANATION A Windows group is used to identify groups of user accounts that have similar access needs. Group members have the permissions and rights assigned to the group. Using groups simplifies administration. Instead of assigning permissions to each individual user account, you can assign permissions to the group and then make user accounts members of the group. Group accounts cannot be used for logon on a Windows system. Local hardware resources cannot be made members of a group on Windows.

Which component within a tablet device, senses rotation to measures acceleration horizontally and vertically at the same time? Gyroscope Attitude indicator G-Sensor Accelerometer

Gyroscope EXPLANATION Within a tablet device, a gyroscope measures the vertical and horizontal orientation of the device. It does this using the Earth's gravity to sense rotation. An accelerometer is also called a g-sensor. It detects the physical movements of the tablet by measuring its linear acceleration in one dimension. An attitude indicator is a type of gyroscope used in airplanes.

You are a PC technician for a national computer retailer. You are asked to build each of the systems listed on the right. You need to use the most appropriate hardware components to ensure that each of these systems will fulfill its intended role. Drag and drop the most appropriate list of components on the left to the system type on the right that needs the component to function fully. (One list of components will not be the most appropriate for any listed system.) Home office server Gaming PC Home theater PC Virtualization workstation Thin client workstation Audio/video editing workstation

Home office server - 2 TB RAID 5-disk array 600W power supply No audio adapter Integrated video adapter Gaming PC - 1000W power supply 1 TB SATA HD Dual SLI 6GB PCIe video adapters 5.1 channel surround sound adapter Liquid CPU cooler Home theater PC - HDMI output Compact form factor 5.1 channel surround sound adapter TV tuner adapter Virtualization workstation - AMD 12-core 4 GHz CPU 4 TB SATA HD 32 GB DDR4 RAM Hardware-assisted virtualization Thin client workstation - Intel Celeron dual-core 2.7 GHz CPU 500 GB SATA HD 2 GB DDR3 RAM Few or no applications installed Audio/video editing workstation - Intel Core i7 six-core 3.4 GHz CPU 2 TB SSD SATA HD 16 GB DDR4 RAM High-end audio adapter with speaker system High-end video adapter with dual displays EXPLANATION Audio/video editing workstation: Select the most powerful processor that you can afford. Audio and video editing applications require a great deal of processing power. A 64-bit multi-core processor should be the minimum processor considered. Implement a high-end video adapter with dual displays. Audio and video editing applications require extensive video processing and screen real estate. Implement a high-end audio adapter and speaker system. Implement a very large and very fast hard disk drive. Audio and video editing applications require extensive disk space and speed. You may want to consider using an SSD drive instead of a traditional hard disk. Virtualization workstation: Virtualization hosts require extensive RAM and CPU processing power. Each virtual machine running on the system must share the system processor and RAM; therefore, you need to implement the maximum amount of RAM supported by the motherboard in dual- or triple-channel mode. A 64-bit multi-core processor should be the minimum processor considered. You may want to consider a system with multiple processors. Video and audio performance are of secondary concern. Gaming system: Gaming applications require a great deal of processing power. A 64-bit multi-core processor should be the minimum processor considered. Gaming applications can cause the systems processor, RAM, and video adapter to generate excessive heat. You should implement a high-end cooling solution to dissipate this heat. Implement a high-end video adapter with a GPU. Gaming applications require a great deal of video processing. Implement a high-end audio adapter with a surround-sound speaker system. Home theater system: Implement a high-end audio adapter with a surround-sound speaker system. Implement a video adapter with a TV tuner and HDMI output. To save space, you may want to select a system that uses the Home Theater PC (HTPC) compact form factor. Thin client: A thin client only needs to be able to connect to a remote desktop session. As such, it needs to meet only the minimum requirements for running Windows locally. A thin client workstation needs to be optimized to run only very basic applications. Ensure the system has enough processing power, disk space, and RAM to support the applications that will be installed on it. Install the fastest network adapter supported by the network it will be connected to. Gigabit speeds (or faster) are recommended. This will help ensure that the remote desktop session provides a reasonable end-user experience. Home or small office server: A home or small office server is typically used for media streaming, file sharing, and printer sharing. As such, you should install the fastest network adapter supported by the network it will be connected to. Gigabit speeds (or faster) are recommended. You should implement a storage solution that provides both speed and redundancy to protect data. You should consider using a RAID array that uses striping (for performance) along with mirroring or parity (for protection). RAID 5, RAID 1+0, or RAID 0+1 would be good choices. A 64-bit multi-core processor should be the minimum processor considered. Implement the recommended amount of RAM for your server operating system in dual- or triple-channel mode.

You are a PC technician for a national computer retailer. A customer asks you to build three custom computers for him to use at his home office. He requests a gaming PC, a home office server, and a thick client workstation. Drag and drop each PC hardware configuration on the left to the most appropriate workstation type on the right. Home office server Gaming PC Thick client workstation

Home office server - 2 TB RAID 5 disk array 600 W power supply No audio adapter Integrated video adapter Gaming PC - 1000 W power supply 1 TB SATA HD Dual SLI 6 GB PCIe video adapters 5.1 channel surround sound adapter Liquid CPU cooler Thick client workstation - 400 W power supply 500 GB SATA HD 512 MB PCIe video adapter Basic desktop applications installed EXPLANATION A home office server needs to store a lot of data quickly and reliably. Video and audio performance are of less concern. However, the increased number of storage devices require an upgraded power supply. The following hardware issufficient for this system: 2 TB RAID 5 disk array 600 W power supply No audio adapter Integrated video adapter A thick client needs to be able to run desktop applications locally and also needs to connect to a remote desktop session. As such, it only needs to meet the minimum requirements for the local operating system and installed applications. The following hardware would be sufficient: 400 W power supply 500 GB SATA HD 512 MB PCIe video adapter Basic desktop applications installed A gaming PC needs high-end graphics and audio, such as dual SLI-linked video adapters. These devices consume a lot of power, so a high-end power supply will be required, as well as additional cooling capacity. The following hardware would be appropriate: 1000 W power supply 1 TB SATA HD Dual SLI 6 GB PCIe video adapters 5.1 channel surround sound adapter Liquid CPU cooler

While traveling in a car, a user who has an unlimited data plan on a smartphone opens a wireless connection to share the internet with other passengers. Which of the following connection types is MOST likely being used? Lightning NFC Hotspot MicroUSB

Hotspot EXPLANATION A mobile device such as a smartphone can be set up as a wireless hotspot to allow others access to the internet. A near-field communication (NFC) connection can only be made by bringing two devices within 10 cm (3.9 in) of each other. This would be impractical for connecting multiple devices. A microUSB connection is used to connect two devices using a physical cable. A lightning connection requires a physical cable.

Which term describes the layer of software that resides between the virtual operating system and the physical hardware it runs on in a virtualization environment? Virtual hard disk Hypervisor Virtual machine Workload management

Hypervisor EXPLANATION A hypervisor is a thin layer of software that resides between the virtual operating system(s) and the hardware. A hypervisor allows virtual machines to interact with the hardware without going through the host operating system. A hypervisor manages access to system resources such as: CPU Storage RAM A virtual machine is a software implementation of a computer system that executes programs like a physical machine. A Virtual hard disk is a disk file used by a virtual machine. Workload management relates to the portability of virtual machines.

Which of the following protocols provides authentication and encryption services for VPN traffic? SSL TCP IPsec L2TP

IPsec EXPLANATION IPsec is a security implementation that provides security for all other TCP/IP based protocols. IPsec provides authentication through a protocol called IPsec Authentication Header (AH) and encryption services through a protocol called IPsec Encapsulating Security Payloads (ESP). The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a transport layer connection-oriented protocol that provides data transmission services. It is not a secure protocol, and relies on other measures, such as IPsec, to provide security. The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is an application layer protocol that is designed to secure network traffic from certain other protocols, such as Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3). It does not provide security for protocols lower in the TCP/IP protocol stack, such as TCP and UDP. The Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a protocol used to encapsulate Point-to-Point protocol (PPP) traffic.

You were recently hired by a small start-up company. The company is in a small office and has several remote employees. You have been asked to find a business service that would accommodate the current size of the company but would also be able to scale as the company grows. The service needs to provide adequate storage, as well as additional computing power. Which cloud service model should you use? DaaS PaaS SaaS IaaS

IaaS EXPLANATION Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) delivers infrastructure to the client, such as processing, storage, networks, and virtualized environments. The client deploys and runs software without purchasing servers, data center space, or network equipment. Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers software applications to the client either over the Internet or on a local area network. Platform as a Service (PaaS) delivers everything a developer needs to build an application onto the cloud infrastructure. The deployment comes without the cost and complexity of buying and managing the underlying hardware and software layers. Data as a Service (DaaS) stores and provides data from a centralized location without the need for local collection and storage.

You are an IT administrator for a large company that is doing very well in their business endeavors. As a result, the company is hiring new employees on a regular basis. In addition to your normal workload, you have been asked to install and configure the new employees' computers with a Windows operating system and the applications your company uses to do their business. To make this process easier, you only give new employees the choice of one of two laptops. Which of the installation types would make the BEST use of your time installing and configuring these laptops? Upgrade Recovery partition Image deployment Clean install

Image deployment EXPLANATION Since only two types of computers are being offered, using an image preloaded with the correct drivers, applications, and files is the quickest and easiest way to deploy Windows and any supplemental software (such as Microsoft Office). A recovery partition is used to restore a corrupt computer back to the state it was in at purchase. This option would not provide all the customizations needed for the company software. An upgrade is only used to migrate from an existing operating system to a newer operating system. Since these are new computers, an upgrade in not necessary or possible. A clean install is the process of installing Windows over the top of an existing operating system and, in the process, cleaning or erasing all of the existing data. This would require more time and would not install any of the supplemental software required.

You have been asked to recommend a printer that will be used in a travel agency. The printer will be used to print airline tickets. Each ticket has four pages (multi-part carbon-based forms), and the same information must show up on all four pages with a single pass of the printer. Which printer type would you recommend? Laser Ink Jet Dye sublimation Impact

Impact EXPLANATION Because dot matrix (impact) printers strike the image onto paper, they are good printers to use when carbon-copy documents are being printed. A dye sublimation printer uses film-embedded dye. Laser printers use lasers and electrical charges to transfer images to paper. Inkjet printers spray ink from ink stored in a reservoir.

A small company hires a technician to review their wireless security. The technician discovers that the wireless signal is available outside of the building. Which of the following could the technician recommend to correct this problem? (Select TWO). Enable MAC filtering. Implement a directional antennae. Update firmware. Decrease radio power levels. Disable SSID broadcast.

Implement a directional antennae. Decrease radio power levels. EXPLANATION Directional antennae can be positioned to point wireless signals toward more desired areas and away from less desired areas. Decreasing radio power levels can limit the radius of the effective wireless signal. MAC filtering can be used to block devices from connecting, but does not limit the wireless signal. Disabling SSID broadcast can make a wireless network more secure, but does not limit the wireless signal. Updating firmware is a good practice, but does not limit the wireless signal.

A small business named BigBikes, Inc. has hired you to evaluate their wireless network security practices. As you analyze their facility, you note the following: They use an 802.11a wireless network. The wireless network SSID is set to BWLAN. The wireless network is not broadcasting the network SSID. The wireless network uses WPA2 with AES security. Omnidirectional access points are positioned around the periphery of the building. Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend your client do to increase their wireless network security? Upgrade to an 802.11g wireless network. Enable SSID broadcast. Implement directional access points. Configure the wireless network to use WEP security. Change the SSID to something similar to BigBikeInc.

Implement directional access points. 13.9.5 Practice Questions Candidate: Liberty Depriest ([email protected]) Date: 12/2/2021 11:18:06 am • Time spent: 01:04 Score: 100%Passing Score: 80% INDIVIDUAL RESPONSES OBJECTIVE ANALYSIS Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 1:checkmarkCorrectCorrect You are a security consultant and have been hired to evaluate an organization's physical security practices. All employees must pass through a locked door to enter the main work area. Access is restricted using a smart card reader. Network jacks are provided in the reception area such that employees and vendors can access the company network for work-related purposes. Users within the secured work area have been trained to lock their workstations if they will be leaving them for any period of time. Which of the following recommendations would you MOST likely make to this organization to increase their security? Correct Answer: Replace the smart card reader with a key code lock. Correct Answer: Move the receptionist's desk into the secured area. Correct Answer: Require users to use screensaver passwords. Correct Answer: Disable the switch ports connected to the network jacks in the reception area. EXPLANATION You should recommend the company disable the switch ports connected to the network jacks in the reception area. Having active network jacks in an unsecured area allows anyone who comes into the building to connect to the company's network. Smart card readers are generally considered more secure than key code locks because access codes can be easily shared or observed. Training users to lock their workstations is more secure than screensaver passwords, although this may be a good idea as a safeguard in case a user forgets. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.1.1 Best Practices for Securing WorkstationsMissing localization: icon-text13.1.2 Workstation Security FactsMissing localization: icon-demo13.3.5 Configure a Screen Saver PasswordMissing localization: icon-lab13.3.6 Require a Screen Saver PasswordMissing localization: icon-demo13.5.2 Configure BIOS/UEFI Security SettingsMissing localization: icon-video13.7.1 AuthenticationMissing localization: icon-demo13.7.3 Configure Password Policies on WindowsMissing localization: icon-text13.7.4 Password FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.1 Wired Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.2 Wired Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.3 Wireless Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.4 Wireless Network Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 2:checkmarkCorrectCorrect Your organization is frequently visited by sales reps. While on-site, they frequently plug their notebook systems into any available wall jack, hoping to get internet connectivity. You are concerned that allowing them to do this could result in the spread of malware throughout your network. Which of the following would BEST protect you from guest malware infection? (Select TWO). Correct Answer: Implement SNMP traps on your network switch. Correct Answer: Enable port analysis on your network switch. Correct Answer: Implement static IP addressing. Correct Answer: Implement MAC address filtering. Correct Answer: Implement private IP addressing with a Network Address Translation (NAT) router facing the internet. EXPLANATION You should consider enabling MAC address filtering. MAC filtering is configured on your network switches and is used to restrict network access to only systems with specific MAC addresses. You could also consider assigning static IP addresses to your network hosts. By not using DHCP, visitor laptops connected to a wired Ethernet jack won't receive a valid IP address and won't be able to communicate with other hosts on your network. Implementing SNMP traps, port analysis, or a NAT router will not prevent visitors from connecting to your network. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.9.1 Wired Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.2 Wired Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.3 Wireless Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.4 Wireless Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-text7.3.5 Access Point Configuration Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 3:checkmarkCorrectCorrect Which of the following is the most secure security protocol for wireless networks? Correct Answer: BitLocker Correct Answer: 802.11n Correct Answer: WPA Correct Answer: WPA2 Correct Answer: WEP EXPLANATION WEP, WPA, and WPA2 are all security protocols for wireless networks. However, WPA2 provides much stronger security than WEP or WPA. 802.11n is a wireless standard with specific parameters for wireless data transmission. BitLocker is a Microsoft solution that provides hard drive disk encryption. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.8.5 BitLockerMissing localization: icon-text13.8.6 BitLocker FactsMissing localization: icon-demo13.8.7 Use BitLockerMissing localization: icon-video7.1.4 Wireless SecurityMissing localization: icon-text7.1.5 Wireless Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 4:checkmarkCorrectCorrect Which of the following features is supplied by WPA2 on a wireless network? (Select TWO). Correct Answer: Filtering of traffic based on packet characteristics Correct Answer: Encryption Correct Answer: Centralized access for clients Correct Answer: Authentication Correct Answer: Refusal of client connections based on MAC address Correct Answer: Identification of the network EXPLANATION Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks. MAC address filtering allows or rejects client connections based on the hardware address. The SSID is the network name or identifier. A wireless access point (called an AP or WAP) is the central connection point for wireless clients. A firewall allows or rejects packets based on packet characteristics (such as address, port, or protocol type). REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video7.1.4 Wireless SecurityMissing localization: icon-text7.1.5 Wireless Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 5:checkmarkCorrectCorrect Which of the following measures will make your wireless network less visible to the casual attacker? Correct Answer: Use a form of authentication other than Open authentication Correct Answer: Implement MAC address filtering Correct Answer: Disable SSID broadcast Correct Answer: Implement WPA2 Personal Correct Answer: Change the default SSID EXPLANATION Wireless access points are transceivers which transmit and receive radio signals on a wireless network. Each access point has a service set ID (SSID) which identifies the wireless network. By default, access points broadcast the SSID to announce their presence and make it easy for clients to find and connect to the wireless network. You can turn off the SSID broadcast to keep a wireless 802.11 network from being automatically discovered. When SSID broadcasting is turned off, users must know the SSID to connect to the wireless network. This helps to prevent casual attackers from connecting to the network, but any serious hacker with the right tools can still connect to the wireless network. Using authentication with WPA2 helps prevent attackers from connecting to your wireless network, but does not hide the network. Changing the default SSID to a different value does not disable the SSID broadcast. Implementing MAC address filtering prevents unauthorized hosts from connecting to your WAP, but it doesn't disable the SSID broadcast. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.9.1 Wired Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.2 Wired Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.3 Wireless Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.4 Wireless Network Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 6:checkmarkCorrectCorrect What is the least secure place to locate an omnidirectional access point when creating a wireless network? Correct Answer: Near a window Correct Answer: In the center of the building Correct Answer: In common or community work areas Correct Answer: Above the third floor EXPLANATION The least secure location for an omnidirectional wireless access point is against a perimeter wall. So, placement near a window would be the worst option from this list of selections. For the best security, omnidirectional wireless access points should be located in the center of the building. This will reduce the likelihood that the wireless network's access radius will extend outside of the physical borders of your environment. It is important to place wireless access points where they are needed, such as in a common or community work area. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.9.1 Wired Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.2 Wired Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.3 Wireless Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.4 Wireless Network Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 7:checkmarkCorrectCorrect You've just finished installing a wireless access point for a client. Which action best protects the access point from unauthorized tampering with its configuration settings? Correct Answer: Changing the default administrative password Correct Answer: Disabling SSID broadcast Correct Answer: Disabling DHCP Correct Answer: Implementing MAC address filtering EXPLANATION To prevent administrative access to the access point, change the default administrator password. If you do not change the password, users can search the internet for the default password and use it to gain access to the access point and make configuration changes. Disabling SSID broadcast, disabling DHCP, and using MAC address filtering helps prevent unauthorized access to the wireless network. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.9.1 Wired Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.2 Wired Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.3 Wireless Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.4 Wireless Network Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 8:checkmarkCorrectCorrect You have just installed a wireless access point (WAP) for your organization's network. You know that the radio signals used by the WAP extend beyond your organization's building and are concerned that unauthorized users outside may be able to access your internal network. Which of the following steps will BEST protect the wireless network? (Select TWO. Each option is a complete solution.) Correct Answer: Implement a WAP with a shorter range. Correct Answer: Disable the spread-spectrum radio signal feature on the WAP. Correct Answer: Use the WAP's configuration utility to reduce the radio signal strength. Correct Answer: Disable SSID broadcast on the WAP. Correct Answer: Install a radio signal jammer at the perimeter of your organization's property. Correct Answer: Configure the WAP to filter out unauthorized MAC addresses. EXPLANATION To increase the security of the wireless network, you can use the WAP's configuration utility to reduce the radio signal strength. This will reduce or even eliminate signal emanation outside of your building. You can also configure the WAP to filter out unauthorized MAC addresses. Enabling MAC address filtering denies access to unauthorized systems. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.9.1 Wired Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.2 Wired Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.3 Wireless Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.4 Wireless Network Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 9:checkmarkCorrectCorrect A small business named Widgets, Inc. has hired you to evaluate their wireless network security practices. As you analyze their facility, you note the following using a wireless network locator device: They use an 802.11n wireless network. The wireless network is broadcasting the SID Linksys. The wireless network uses WPA2 with AES security. Directional access points are positioned around the periphery of the building. Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend your client do to increase their wireless network security? (Select TWO). Correct Answer: Disable SSID broadcast. Correct Answer: Upgrade to an 802.11g wireless network. Correct Answer: Change the SSID to something other than the default. Correct Answer: Implement omnidirectional access points. Correct Answer: Configure the wireless network to use WPA with TKIP security. EXPLANATION You should recommend the following: Disable SSID broadcast. This makes the network harder (but not impossible) to locate. Change the SSID to something other than the default. This obscures what type of AP is in use. Using WPA instead of WPA2 would decrease the security of the wireless network, as would implementing omnidirectional APs. Switching to an 802.11g network would dramatically reduce the speed of the network without providing any security enhancements. REFERENCES Missing localization: icon-video13.9.1 Wired Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.2 Wired Network Security FactsMissing localization: icon-video13.9.3 Wireless Network Security Best PracticesMissing localization: icon-text13.9.4 Wireless Network Security Facts Missing localization: icon-caret-downQuestion 10:checkmarkCorrectCorrect A small business named BigBikes, Inc. has hired you to evaluate their wireless network security practices. As you analyze their facility, you note the following: They use an 802.11a wireless network. The wireless network SSID is set to BWLAN. The wireless network is not broadcasting the network SSID. The wireless network uses WPA2 with AES security. Omnidirectional access points are positioned around the periphery of the building. Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend your client do to increase their wireless network security? Correct Answer: Upgrade to an 802.11g wireless network. Correct Answer: Enable SSID broadcast. Correct Answer: Implement directional access points. Correct Answer: Configure the wireless network to use WEP security. Correct Answer: Change the SSID to something similar to BigBikeInc. EXPLANATION You should recommend that they implement directional access points along the periphery of the building. Using omnidirectional APs in these locations can cause the wireless network radio signal to emanate outside the building, making it readily available to malicious individuals. Enabling SSID broadcasts and using an SSID that is easily identifiable reduces the security of the wireless network, as would switching to WEP security. Switching to an 802.11g network offers no speed or security benefits and would require retrofitting all wireless equipment in the organization.

You want to be able to monitor and filter VM-to-VM traffic within a virtual network. What should you do? Implement a virtual firewall within the hypervisor. Define VLAN memberships on each VM. Create a virtual router with VRF technology. Route VM-to-VM traffic through a physical firewall and back to the virtual network.

Implement a virtual firewall within the hypervisor. EXPLANATION Virtualized hosts are susceptible to the same network exploits as physical network hosts and need to be protected by a firewall. By implementing a virtual firewall within the hypervisor itself, you can monitor and filter traffic on the virtual network as it flows between virtual machines. While routing VM-to-VM traffic through a physical firewall would work, it is very inefficient. A virtual router with VRF is used to create multiple networks from a single router interface. Configuring VLAN membership would not allow you to monitor and filter traffic.

You have implemented a regular backup schedule for a Windows system, backing up data files every night and creating a system image backup once a week. For security reasons, your company has decided to not store a redundant copy of the backup media at an offsite location. Where would be the next best place to keep your backup media? In a locked fireproof safe. On a shelf next to the backup device. In a locked room. In a drawer in your office.

In a locked fireproof safe. EXPLANATION If you can't store backup tapes at an offsite location, you should make sure that the backup tapes are locked up (for security), and that measures are taken to protect the tapes from a disaster (such as a fire). Strategies such as locking the tapes in a different room, keeping them on a shelf, or storing them in a drawer do not address both concerns.

Which of the following paths opens the Computer Management tool in Windows 10? (Select TWO). Right-click the Windows icon and select Run. Then enter cmd in the Run field. Right-click the Windows icon and then select System. In the Control Panel, open System and Security > Administrative Tools and then double-click the Computer Management icon. Right-click the Windows icon and select Computer Management.

In the Control Panel, open System and Security > Administrative Tools and then double-click the Computer Management icon. Right-click the Windows icon and select Computer Management. EXPLANATION Some common ways to start Computer Management include: Right-click the Windows icon and select Computer Management. In the Control Panel, open System and Security > Administrative Tools and then double-click the Computer Management icon. On a Windows 10 system, you open the command prompt by right-clicking the Windows icon, selecting Run, and then entering cmd in the Run field. To see System Properties, right-click the Windows icon and then select System.

You want to configure Power Plans on your Windows 10 laptop computer. Which of the following can do this? (Select TWO.) In the Notification Area, double-click the battery icon. Click Power Options. Right-click the Desktop and select Properties. On the Screen Saver tab, click the Power... button. Go to Settings > System > Power & sleep. Click Start and then open the Control Panel. Double-click the System icon. On the Advanced tab, click the Settings button for performance. Click Start and then right-click Computer and select Properties. Click Advanced System Settings.

In the Notification Area, double-click the battery icon. Click Power Options. Go to Settings > System > Power & sleep. EXPLANATION To edit Power Plans in the Windows 10 operating system, go to Settings > System > Power & sleep. Alternatively, you can also click the battery icon in the Notification Area for Power Options.

You recently installed several applications on a Windows system. After doing so, you notice that the system takes much longer to boot up. You suspect that the new applications include one or more helper applications that are automatically loaded when the system boots. To improve performance, you want to identify any such helper applications and disable them. Click on the tab in Task Manager that you would use to do this.

In this scenario, you would access the Startup tab and then disable any undesired startup applications. The Processes tab displays a list of running applications on the system. The Performance tab displays graphs for CPU, memory, disk, and network utilization. The App History tab displays performance statistics for apps from the Microsoft Store that are running on the system. The Users tab displays utilization statistics for each user logged into the system. The Details tab displays extended information about each process running on the system. The Services tab is used to view information about the services configured on the system.

Which of the following is a 172-pin DIMM often used in laptops? MicroDIMM TinyDIMM DIMM+ MacroDIMM

MicroDIMM EXPLANATION MicroDIMM is a 172-pin DIMM often used in laptop computers. MacroDIMM, DIMM+, and TinyDIMM do not exist.

Which of the following is an extra button or knob on a laptop keyboard that moves the mouse cursor? ExpressCard Pointing stick Digitizer Touch pad

Pointing stick EXPLANATION Pointing sticks (also called a trackpoint) are small knobs in the center of the keyboard. Pushing on this knob moves the cursor. The touchpad is located below the keyboard. Moving your finger across the pad moves the mouse. You can also tap the touchpad to click the mouse. A digitizer pad is used in Tablet PCs to receive input. Input is written onto the pad with a stylus pen, and then those motions are transferred into data that is processed by the system. An ExpressCard is an expansion card for laptops.

A technician is installing a network-enabled smart home control system in a SOHO. To access the system from the internet, which of the following configurations is MOST likely required on the SOHO router? DHCP QoS NAT Port forwarding

Port forwarding Access to the smart home control system from the internet through the SOHO router is most likely gained using port forwarding. QoS gives priority to certain types of network traffic, such as VoIP phone traffic. DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to clients in the local network. NAT translates private IP addresses on the local network to public IP addresses on the internet.

A technician assists Joe, an employee in the sales department who needs access to the client database, by granting him administrator privileges. Later, Joe discovers he has access to the salaries in the payroll database. Which of the following security practices was violated? Principle of least privilege Multifactor authentication Strong password policy Entry control roster

Principle of least privilege EXPLANATION The technician violated the principle of least privilege, the practice of limiting access rights for users to the bare minimum permissions they need to perform their work. Strong passwords are recommended to prevent unauthorized access, but in this scenario, the database is not password-protected. Multifactor authentication is the process of authenticating a user by validating two or more claims presented by the user, each from a different category, such as a password and the possession of a mobile phone, or a password and a fingerprint. Security personnel can grant access to a physical area using the entry control roster. A database is not normally protected by physical security.

Which of the following allows a computer to communicate with a printer? Print spooler Print driver Print queue Printer port

Print driver EXPLANATION The print driver is the software that allows the computer to communicate with the printer. The print queue is the portion of the hard drive where print jobs are stored before going to the printer. The printer port is the means by which a printer connects to a print server.

Which printer management component would you use to view the drivers used by a printer? Print server properties Print spooling service Print queue Printer properties

Printer properties EXPLANATION View the printer properties to see the drivers used by a printer. You can also use the printer properties to view the port used by a printer, manage user permissions, and configure color management profiles. Use the print server properties to view all printer ports used on the computer. This function can also be used to view the print drivers used on the system, including drivers required by network users, notifications, and the spooler location. The Print spooling service is a software process that captures print jobs from applications, places them in the print queue, and then sends each print job to the print device. The print queue is a location on the hard disk that holds print jobs waiting to be processed.

You're using a Linux distribution that uses RPM for package management. Which command would you use to install httpd, the Apache HTTP Server package, and all its dependencies? apt-get install httpd yum install httpd -dep apt-get update httpd yum install httpd yum update httpd

yum install httpd On a Linux distribution that uses RPM for package management, entering yum install httpd at the command line will install the Apache HTTP Server package and all its dependencies. yum automatically locates and downloads RPM packages for you by searching one or more repositories on the internet. It can install a software package and all of its dependencies at the same time.

You are designing a wireless network for a client. Your client needs the network to support a data rate of at least 150 Mbps. In addition, the client already has a wireless telephone system installed that operates 2.4 GHz. Which 802.11 standard will work best in this situation? 802.11a 802.11b 802.11g 802.11n

802.11n 802.11n is the best choice for this client. 802.11b and 802.11g both operate in the 2.4 GHz to 2.4835 GHz range, which would cause interference with the client's wireless phone system. 802.11a operates in the 5.725 GHz to 5.850 GHz frequency range, which doesn't interfere with the phone system. However, its maximum speed is limited to 54 Mbps.

Your laser printer prints a vertical black line on every page. You change the toner cartridge, but the problem does not go away. What is the MOST likely problem? The fuser assembly is damaged. The photosensitive drum is wearing out. The paper is poor quality. A corona wire is dirty.

A corona wire is dirty. EXPLANATION If a corona wire is dirty, it might not create a uniform charge. As a result, the toner might not be attracted correctly to the photosensitive drum or paper. A vertical stripe is a typical symptom of this problem. Be careful when cleaning a corona wire because they are delicate.

You need to install a 32-bit application on a 32-bit version of Windows 10. In which default directory will the application be installed? %systemdrive%\Applications %systemdrive%\Program Files (x86) %systemdrive%\Applications (32-bit) %systemdrive%\Program Files

%systemdrive%\Program Files EXPLANATION On a 32-bit operating system, all programs are installed in the Program Files directory (the Program Files [x86] directory doesn't exist).

Which of the following printers would produce the highest print quality? 24-pin 18-pin 600 DPI 300 DPI

600 DPI EXPLANATION The dots per inch (DPI) describe the level of detail produced by a printer. The higher the DPI, the higher the print quality.

A technician is tasked with replacing a Wi-Fi antenna in a laptop computer. Which of the following places would the antenna MOST likely to be located? Next to the laptop battery Around the laptop's bezel Near the memory expansion slots Under the laptop keyboard

Around the laptop's bezel EXPLANATION A Wi-Fi antenna performs best when placed in an elevated location. For most laptops, this is around the display within the lid of the laptop. Under the laptop keyboard, next to the laptop battery, and near the memory expansion slots are not likely locations for a Wi-Fi antenna.

What do biometrics use to authenticate identity? Biological attributes Possession of a device Ability to perform tasks Knowledge of passwords

Biological attributes EXPLANATION Biometrics is based on biological attributes. Biometrics is a strong form of authentication because each person has unique characteristics. When these unique characteristics are used for authentication, they are more reliable and stronger than the best passwords. For example, no two people have the exact same fingerprint or retina pattern.

Drag the group policy setting on the left to the appropriate description of how the setting is enforced on the right. Causes the policy to be enforced - Does not change the current setting for the policy - Prevents the policy from being enforced -

Causes the policy to be enforced - Enabled Does not change the current setting for the policy - Not configured Prevents the policy from being enforced - Disabled EXPLANATION Each policy can be configured using one of the following settings: Not Configured has no value and does not change the current setting for this policy. Enabled causes the policy to be enforced. Disabled prevents the policy from being enforced.

Which type of interface is typically used for internal wireless networking cards in laptops? Firewire ExpressCard Mini-PCI PCI USB

Mini-PCI EXPLANATION Most internal wireless network cards in laptops connect using a mini-PCI interface. USB, Firewire, and ExpressCard are external buses for external devices.

You are in the process of preparing a storage device and must determine which file system to use. Under which of the following conditions are you MOST likely to you choose exFAT over FAT32 or NTFS? (Select TWO). When formatting removable hard drives. When formatting removable flash devices. When storing files larger than 4 GB in size. When creating a volume less than 10 MB in size. When the device needs to be readable by other operating systems, such as MacOS or Linux.

When formatting removable flash devices. When storing files larger than 4 GB in size. EXPLANATION exFAT was designed to optimize storage for removable flash devices. Windows does not currently support using exFAT for hard drives. exFAT supports file sizes over 4 GB (FAT32 has a 4 GB file size limitation). Use FAT32 when creating a volume smaller than 10 MB

Which of the following is an example of a strong password? Robert694 a8bT11$yi at9iov45a desktop#7

a8bT11$yi EXPLANATION A strong password should not contain dictionary words or any part of the login name. They should include upper- and lower-case letters, numbers, and symbols. In addition, longer passwords are stronger than shorter passwords.

Portable devices have a software-controlled switch that disables all wireless functionality. What is the name of this software-controlled switch?

airplane mode Instead of a physical switch, some portable devices have a software-controlled switch called Airplane Mode. When in Airplane Mode, all wireless functionality is disabled.

You are working at the command line and want to add the Read-only attribute to a file and remove the Hidden attribute. Which command would you use? attrib add r remove h attrib /add r /remove /h attrib +ro -h attrib +r -h

attrib +r -h EXPLANATION Use attrib +r -h to add the Read-only attribute and remove the Hidden attribute.

Which command would you use to change the current directory to the immediate parent directory? pdir dir cd .. cd

cd .. EXPLANATION Use cd .. to change the current directory to the immediate parent directory. The cd command by itself shows the current directory. Use dir to display a list of files and subdirectories in a directory.

Which Windows command displays a list of files and subdirectories in a directory? md list ls dir attrib cd

dir Use the dir command to display a list of files and subdirectories in a directory on a Windows system. Use the cd command to work with the current directory. Use the md (and mkdir) command to create a directory. Use the attrib command to change or view the attributes of one or more files. The ls command is used on Linux systems. List is not a command line command.

A technician uses the ps command to find information about a process that is running a browser application on a Linux computer. The technician knows the name of the process, but the list is very long. Which of the following commands would help the technician find and display only the information about the browser process? sudo cd ls grep

grep EXPLANATION The grep command is used to search text. The technician could save the output of the ps command in a text file and then search the files, or the technician could pipe the output from the ps command into the grep command. The ls command list the contents of a directory. The cd command is used to change the current directory, or the directory in which the user is currently working. The sudo command is short for "superuser do" or "substitute user do." It allows a user with proper permissions to execute a command as another user, such as a superuser.

Which command would you use to display a simple list of all processes running on a Linux distribution that uses either RPM or dpkg for package management? apt-get -e apt-get -ef yum info ps -ef yum -ef yum process info yum -e ps -e

ps -e EXPLANATION The ps utility is used to display running processes on a Linux system. Entering ps -e will display a simple list (without extended information) of all processes running on the system. ps -ef will display a list with extended information about all the processes running on the system. yum and apt-get are package management tools. They are not used for process management.

After installation, you Windows 10 client systems are joined to the WestSim.com domain. You need to verify that these clients are configured to get time from the correct time provider. Which commands can you use to do this? (Select TWO. Each response is a complete solution.) net time /querysntp w32tm /query /source w32tm /config /update w32tm /query /status w32tm /debug

w32tm /query /source w32tm /query /status EXPLANATION To view the time provider used by a domain-joined Windows workstation, you can use either of the following commands: w32tm /query /source w32tm /query /status The w32tm /config /update command notifies the time service that its configuration has been modified and that changes need to be applied. The w32tm /debug command is used to enable or disable the local Windows time service provider log. The net time /querysntp command was used in earlier versions of Windows to view time provider information, but is now deprecated and no longer works.

Which option, used with the copy command, makes sure that all copied files are written correctly after they have been copied? /v /a /y /n

/v EXPLANATION The copy /v command verifies files after they are copied. The copy /a specifies that the file is an ASCII text file. The copy /n command copies files using short filenames. The copy /y command will not prompt you before each overwrite operation.

You need to copy several hundred files from one directory to another. Most of the files exist in the target directory, but you want to overwrite the existing files with the ones you will copy. You want the file copy to proceed automatically without prompting you to overwrite existing files. Which copy command switch should you use? /v /y /o /a

/y EXPLANATION The copy /y command will not prompt you before each overwrite operation. The copy /v command verifies files after they are copied. The copy /a command specifies that the file is an ASCII text file.

Match each notebook Fn key icon labels on the left to the corresponding key on the right.

1 Touchpad (on/off) 2 Screen orientation 3 Wireless (on/off) 4 Bluetooth (on/off) 5 Dual displays 6 Play/Pause media EXPLANATION The notebook Fn key icons are used as follows: 1. Turn the touchpad on or off 2. Change the screen orientation 3. Turn the wireless on or off 4. Turn Bluetooth on or off 5. Enable dual displays 6. Play or pause media

What is the maximum range of the Bluetooth 2.0 specification for Class 1 devices? 30 M 300 M 100 M 10 M 50 M

100 M Bluetooth version 2.0 class 1 devices have a maximum range of about 100 meters. Earlier versions had a maximum range of only about 10 meters.

Which data transmission rate is defined by the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard? 150 Mbps 11 Mbps 2 Mbps 54 Mbps 10 Mbps

11 Mbps The IEEE 802.11b standard defines wireless transmission rates up to 11 Mbps. 802.11b wireless network interface cards and wireless access points (also called wireless hubs or wireless routers) will automatically negotiate the best transmission speed up to 11 Mbps based on current network traffic load and the quality of the wireless connection between the client and access point. The wireless communications are affected by distance, dense physical obstructions, and other electromagnetic interference producing devices. IEEE 802.11a and 802.11g defines wireless transmission rates up to 54 Mbps. The IEEE 802.3 standard defines Ethernet 10baseT cable based transmissions of 10 Mbps. IEEE 802.11n defines wireless transmission rates of 150 and 300 Mbps.

Which feature makes it possible to close some notebook computers and still use the touchscreen? 180 degree rotating touchscreen Dual display Removable touchscreen External touchscreen

180 degree rotating touchscreen EXPLANATION Some notebooks have special touchscreens that can rotate 180 degrees, allowing the notebook to close and the screen to still be visible. Some notebooks have a removable touchscreen. This turns the notebook into a tablet.

Which of the following are characteristics of Bluetooth? (Select TWO.) Red spectrum light waves 5.75 GHz radio wireless 2.4 GHz radio wireless Line-of-sight transmission Ad hoc connections

2.4 GHz radio wireless Ad hoc connections Bluetooth is a wireless networking standard that uses 2.4 GHz radio waves. These are the same type of radio waves used with 802.11 wireless networking, so radio transmission can go through walls (not limited to line-of-sight connections). Bluetooth uses ad hoc connections between devices. Infrared uses red spectrum light waves and is limited to line-of-sight transmissions.

Which frequencies does Zigbee operate on? 2.7 GHz, 400 MHz, and 865 MHz 1.4 GHz, 90 MHz, and 500 MHz 2.4 GHz, 900 MHz, and 868 MHz 2.4 GHz, 500 MHz, and 818 MHz

2.4 GHz, 900 MHz, and 868 MHz Zigbee is a specification based on IEEE 802.15.4. The WPANs operate on 2.4 GHz, 900 MHz, and 868 MHz frequencies.

You need to replace the hard disk in your laptop computer. Which of the following hard drive sizes would you likely choose for the laptop? 3.5" 2.5" 1.25" 5.25"

2.5" EXPLANATION Notebook hard drives and SSD drives are typically 2.5". 3.5" drives are normal sized drives for desktop computers. 5.25" are older hard drives and floppy drives.

To access your company's internal network from home, you use Secure Shell (SSH). The administrator has recently implemented a new firewall at the network perimeter and disabled as many ports as possible. Which port needs to remain open so you can still work from home? 23 80 21 22 443

22 EXPLANATION SSH uses port 22. This port would need to remain open for you to access your company's internal network from home. SSL uses port 443, FTP uses port 21, and HTTP uses port 80. Telnet uses port 23.

Which port does Telnet use? 25 34 23 80

23 EXPLANATION Telnet uses port 23. However, you should avoid using the Telnet protocol for remote access connections because it opens a plain text, unsecured, remote console connection that is easy for an attacker to monitor or hijack. Port 25 is used by the SMTP protocol. Port 34 is not used by default by any network protocol. Port 80 is used by the HTTP protocol.

What is the maximum number of nodes Z-Wave allows on its mesh network? 232 231 223 322

232 EXPLANATION Z-Wave allows up to 232 nodes on the mesh network.

Which of the following is the maximum transmission speed for Bluetooth v3 and v4 devices? 24 Mbps 11 Mbps 1 Mbps 3 Mbps

24 Mbps EXPLANATION Bluetooth v3 and v4 devices have a maximum transmission speed of 24 Mbps. Bluetooth v1.2 devices have a maximum transmission speed of 1 Mbps. Bluetooth v2 devices have a maximum transmission speed of 3 Mbps. The wireless standard 802.11b transmits data at a rate of up to 11 Mbps.

You are configuring a network firewall to allow SMTP outbound email traffic and POP3 inbound email traffic. Which of the following IP ports should you open on the firewall? (Select TWO). 25 443 143 21 110

25 110 EXPLANATION The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses IP port 25. The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses IP port 110. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses IP Ports 20 and 21. The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses IP port 143. IP port 443 is used by the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol.

Which port must be opened in the firewall of a Windows system so that a Remote Desktop connection can be established? 3389 123 22 23

3389 EXPLANATION The firewall on a Windows system must be configured to allow Remote Desktop traffic through. This is done by opening TCP port 3389 (by default). This port is opened automatically on the Remote Desktop host when remote connections are enabled. Port 22 is used by the SSH protocol. Port 23 is used by the Telnet protocol. Port 123 is used by the Network Time Protocol.

To increase security on your company's internal network, the administrator has disabled as many ports as possible. Now, however, you can browse the internet, but you are unable to perform secure credit card transactions when making purchases from e-commerce websites. Which port needs to be enabled to allow secure transactions? 21 443 69 80 23

443 EXPLANATION To perform secure transactions, SSL on port 443 needs to be enabled. HTTPS uses port 443 by default.

You are purchasing a PC system that will be used as a file and print server in a small business. Which of the following hardware selection criteria is the MOST important for this system? (Select TWO). 64-bit multi-core processor RAID 1+0 array High-end video adapter with GPU HDMI output RAID 0 array

64-bit multi-core processor RAID 1+0 array EXPLANATION The following hardware selection criteria is most important for a PC system that will be used as a file and printer server in a small business: RAID 1+0 array 64-bit multi-core processor A high-end video board with HDMI output is not required for a server system. A RAID 0 array offers performance, but does not protect data with redundancy.

Which IEEE wireless standards specify transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps? (Select TWO.) 802.11a 802.11b Bluetooth 802.11g 802.1x

802.11a 802.11g EXPLANATION Both the 802.11a and the 802.11g wireless standards specify maximum transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps. Bluetooth is a wireless standard commonly used to connect peripheral devices and operates at 720 Kbps. The 802.11b wireless standard provides transmission speeds of 11 Mbps. 802.1x is a wireless security standard that provides an authentication framework for 802-based networks.

A customer is experiencing a sporadic interruption of their Wi-Fi network in one area of their building. A technician investigates and discovers signal interference caused by a microwave oven. The customer approves replacing the wireless access point that covers the area, but asks that the wireless speed also be increased. Which of the following Wi-Fi standards should the replacement device support to BEST fulfill the customer's needs? 802.11a 802.11b 802.11g 802.11ac

802.11ac EXPLANATION The microwave oven interferes with wireless signals operating at 2.4 GHz. The 802.11ac standard is the best choice. It operates at 5.0 GHz and has a maximum throughput of 1300 Mbps. Both the 802.11b and 802.1g standards operate at 2.4 GHz. The 802.11a standard operates at 5.0 GHz, but has a maximum throughput of 54 Mbps.

The 802.11ac wireless networking standard provides increased bandwidth and communication speeds by using which of the following technologies? (Select TWO). 802.11b 802.11ac 802.11g 802.11a 802.11n

802.11ac The 802.11ac standard uses the 5 GHz frequency and supports data transmission speeds up to 1.3 Gbps. 802.11n supports data transmission speeds up to 600 Mbps. 802.11g and 802.11a both support data transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps. 802.11b supports data transmission speeds up to 11 Mbps.

You have been contacted by OsCorp to recommend a wireless internet solution. The wireless strategy must support a transmission range of 150 feet, use a frequency range of 2.4 GHz, and provide the highest possible transmission speeds. Which of the following wireless solutions would you recommend? 802.11g 802.11a 802.11n 802.11b

802.11n Of the technologies listed, only the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard addresses the desired requirements. The 802.11a wireless standard offers maximum speeds of 54 Mbps and uses the 5 GHz frequency range. The 802.11g wireless standard offers maximum speeds of 54 Mbps. 802.11b uses the 2.4 GHz frequency range but supports only 11 Mbps transfer speeds.

Drivers for a small trucking company rely on a smartphone navigation application. When the smartphone loses internet connectivity, the maps don't update properly. Also, the company pays extra for a premium data service plan to support the application. Which of the following mobile devices could replace the smartphone navigation application, could provide map coverage when internet connectivity is lost, and does not require a data plan? Wearable smart glasses A GPS-enabled tablet A GPS-enabled phablet A GPS-enabled personal navigation device

A GPS-enabled personal navigation device EXPLANATION A GPS-enabled personal navigation device stores map information on the device instead of downloading it when needed. The device does not need internet connectivity to function. Both tablets and phablets require constant internet connectivity to update map data. Wearable smart glasses must be paired to a smartphone or other mobile device to provide navigation.

What is a cookie? A malicious program that disguises itself as a useful program. A malicious program that runs when you read an email attachment. An executable file that runs in the background and tracks internet use. A file saved on your hard drive that tracks website preferences and use.

A file saved on your hard drive that tracks website preferences and use. EXPLANATION A cookie is a file saved on your hard drive that tracks website preferences and use. Many legitimate websites use cookies to remember your preferences and make the websites easier to use. However, other sites can use cookies to track personal information. Spyware is a program that runs in the background and reports internet use to servers on the internet. A Trojan horse is a malicious program that disguises itself as a useful program. Programs do not run when you simply read an email attachment. However, many malicious script programs are disguised as simple text files and can cause damage if you run the script file.

Mobile devices can connect to the internet and other devices using a variety of connection types. Drag the connection type on the left to the appropriate description on the right. A physical location where you can obtain wireless internet access using a WLAN. A connector used to emulate cryptographic smart card functionalities. Provides mobile devices with access to network resources and software applications on their home network when they connect using other wireless or wired networks. Allows you to share the internet connection of a phone with a laptop. A wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances.

A physical location where you can obtain wireless internet access using a WLAN. - Hotspot A connector used to emulate cryptographic smart card functionalities. - NFC Provides mobile devices with access to network resources and software applications on their home network when they connect using other wireless or wired networks. - Mobile VPN Allows you to share the internet connection of a phone with a laptop. - Tethering A wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances. - Bluetooth EXPLANATION The following are a few of the mobile device connection types: Hotspot--a physical location where you can obtain wireless internet access using a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a router connected to an internet service provider. Tethering--a means for connecting one device to another. In the context of mobile phones and tablet computers, tethering allows sharing the internet connection of the phone or tablet with other devices like laptops. Mobile VPN--provides mobile devices with access to network resources and software applications on their home network when they connect using other wireless or wired networks. NFC--a type of connector used to emulate cryptographic smart card functionalities for RFID tags or memory cards. Bluetooth--a wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short distances from fixed and mobile devices and for building personal area networks (PANs). It can connect several devices, overcoming problems of synchronization.

A manufacturing company has customized a computer application that supervisors will use to track line worker efficiency. Supervisors will interact with the application while walking within and between work areas and will also use the laptop while sitting at their desks. Which of the following laptop features would BEST minimize the awkward movement of carrying a bulky laptop with a hinged display while providing the flexibility to use the device at a desk? Special function keys A laptop docking station A touchscreen display A rotating or removable screen

A rotating or removable screen EXPLANATION A laptop with a removable or rotating screen gives the user the flexibility of a notepad or tablet computer, especially if stylus functionality is included. When removed from a docking station, a hinged laptop is still awkward to carry in an opened position. Special function keys do not make a hinged laptop less awkward to use. A touchscreen display is usually incorporated into a laptop with a removable or rotating screen, but is also available for hinged laptops. This feature would not make the device less awkward to carry.

Which of the following are true of libraries? (Select TWO.) A single folder can be added to multiple libraries. A single folder can only be added to one library. A library is a single folder in the file system that holds files of a different type. Each library can contain multiple folders from different file system locations.

A single folder can be added to multiple libraries. Each library can contain multiple folders from different file system locations. EXPLANATION The Libraries feature is used to group files and folders, stored both locally and on network locations, into a single logical folder. When you open a library, you see the files and folders associated with that library as if they were in a single folder, even though the library contents might exist in several different locations in the file system. Each library can hold multiple folders. A single folder can be added to multiple libraries.

You are the owner of a small startup company consisting of only five employees. Each employee has their own computer. Due to the type of services your company offers, you don't foresee the employee count increasing much in the next year or two. As a startup company, you want to keep costs low and facilitate easier file sharing, internet access, printers, and other local network resources. Which of the following would be the BEST implementation for your business? A Tree A workgroup A domain A forest

A workgroup EXPLANATION If you only have five PCs and the network is not growing, a Windows workgroup will let you organize your computers in a peer-to-peer network. This workgroup network lets you share files, internet access, and printers between the five employees. A domain would do the same thing, but in this case, it is not a good idea because Windows Server brings in a bunch of new costs and complexity that probably wouldn't pay off for such a small company. In addition, you are introducing a single point of failure, the server. Trees and forests are subsets, or components, of a domain.

You are currently managing a few Apple iPad devices that run the iOS operating system. Which of the following BEST describes the architecture used by this device? x86 Intel64 x86-64 ARM

ARM EXPLANATION Most tablet devices, such as the iPad, use the ARM architecture. ARM is more power-efficient and less expensive to manufacture than x86. Android also runs primarily on ARM. The x86 architecture is used on some tablet PCs. It is compatible with standard x86 PC hardware and software, which allows the device to run operating systems such as Windows. Some newer versions of Android can also run on the x86 architecture. x86-64 and Intel64 are architectures used in desktop and notebook PCs.

When a user rotates a mobile device, the operating system changes the screen orientation so that the display remains upright to the user. Which of the following technologies is uses to detect this device movement? (Select TWO). Wi-Fi Accelerometer GPS Gyroscope Geotracking

Accelerometer Gyroscope EXPLANATION There are two technologies that mobile operating systems use to detect device movement, accelerometers and gyroscopes. GPS can detect lateral device movements, but not screen orientation movements. Wi-Fi is used for network connections. Geotracking determines the location of a mobile device by obtaining its GPS data.

A technician is tasked with preparing a conference room so that at least 20 guests will be able to wirelessly connect laptop computers to the company network. Which of the following network devices would be the BEST choice for this connectivity? Access point Switch Firewall Router

Access point EXPLANATION An access point gives Wi-Fi access to a network. A firewall filters network traffic based on a set of rules. A switch maintains a table of MAC addresses by port and forwards network frames only to the port that matches the MAC address. A router manages IP traffic between networks.

What is the name of the service included with the Windows Server operating system that manages a centralized database containing user account and security information? SQL Active Directory Active Desktop Access

Active Directory EXPLANATION Active Directory (AD) is the centralized database that is included with the Windows Server operating system. Active Directory is used to store information about a network, such as user accounts, computers, printers, and security policies. SQL and Access are relational databases. Active Desktop was a feature of early versions of Microsoft Internet Explorer.

Which type of configuration would you use if you wanted to deploy 802.11n technology to communicate directly between two computers using a wireless connection? WEP WAP Ad hoc Infrastructure

Ad hoc Configure an ad hoc connection to connect one computer directly to another using a wireless connection. An infrastructure configuration uses a Wireless Access Point (WAP) to create a network. Devices communicate with each other through the WAP. WEP is a security mechanism used for authentication.

While browsing the internet, you notice that your browser displays pop-ups containing advertisements that are related to recent keyword searches you have performed. What is this an example of? Worm Trojan Adware Grayware

Adware Adware monitors actions that denote personal preferences and then sends pop-ups and ads that match those preferences. Adware is: Usually passive. Invasive. Installed on your machine when you visit a website or run an application. Usually more annoying than harmful. A worm is a self-replicating virus. Grayware is software that might offer a legitimate service, but also includes features that you aren't aware of or features that could be used for malicious purposes. A Trojan horse is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate or desirable software.

Joe is working on a design team that uses a computer-aided design (CAD) system. Joe has been complaining that it takes too long to perform tasks such as panning, rotating, and zooming. You have been asked to look at Joe's computer and to make any changes required to increase Joe's productivity. Which of the following changes would BEST meet Joe's needs? Add a very high-end video board. Increase the memory for the onboard video embedded in the motherboard. Configure Joe's workstation with dual monitors. Add a second high-capacity hard drive to Joe's computer.

Add a very high-end video board. EXPLANATION CAD applications need workstation graphics cards that can manipulate complex geometry and computing. Therefore, the best solution presented is to add a very high-end video board with a fast GPU. The GPU's job is to process all graphical information and output it to a display, which will increase performance for CAD-type systems. The onboard embedded video will not be sufficient for high-end applications such as a CAD system. Adding a second drive or monitor will not increase the performance of the issues Joe is describing.

You want to upgrade your Windows 7 Professional computer to Windows 10 Professional. You begin by checking the hardware and discover it has 1 GB of RAM, a 2.0 GHz dual-core processor, a 128 GB solid state drive, and a video adapter with 128 MB RAM and DirectX 9 support. You want to install the 64-bit version of Windows 10. What should you do? Add more memory. Upgrade the video adapter. Upgrade to a processor with at least four cores. Install a larger solid state drive or hard drive. Upgrade to a faster processor.

Add more memory. EXPLANATION The 64-bit version of Windows 10 requires a minimum of 2 GB of memory. The following are also minimum requirements for Windows 10: 1 GHz processor 20 GB of free disk space DirectX support Of course, the system will run much better with a better CPU and video adapter. However, they are not required to complete the installation.

Consider the virtual memory configuration for the Windows 10 system shown in the exhibit. Given that this Windows 10 system has 16 GB of system RAM and three hard disks installed, which configuration change could you make to the paging file to increase system performance? Set the maximum size of the paging file to 32 GB. Remove the paging file from the C: volume. Add paging files to the E: and F: volumes. Set the initial size of the paging file to 8 GB.

Add paging files to the E: and F: volumes. EXPLANATION You can sometimes achieve a modest increase in system performance by adding paging files to other storage devices in the system. This offloads some of the paging file work to a disk other than the system volume. However, generally speaking, you should keep a paging file on the system volume. Without it, Windows can't create a dump file if the system crashes. With the amount of system RAM installed in this computer, creating a large paging file probably won't increase system performance.

You manage two folders in your computer as follows: C:\Confidential D:\PublicReports Both the C:\ and D:\ drives are formatted with the NTFS file system. In the C:\Confidential folder, you edit the properties for the following two files and assign the Deny Read permission to the Users group: Reports.doc Costs.doc The D:\ drive allows the Full Control permission to the Users group. There are no other permissions assigned except for the default permissions. You then take the following actions: Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports. Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports. Which of the following BEST describes the permission the members of the Users group will have for the two files in the D:\PublicReports folder? Deny Read to both. Allow Full Control to both. Allow Full Control to Reports.doc; Deny Read to Costs.doc. Deny Read to Reports.doc; Allow Full Control to Costs.doc.

Allow Full Control to both. EXPLANATION Users have Allow Full Control to both files. Moving or copying files to a different NTFS partition removes any existing NTFS permissions so that only inherited permissions apply.

A technician is assisting Ann, who reports that the display on her company-issued smartphone is too dim to read in a dark room, even after she adjusts the brightness setting. Which of the following actions should the technician perform FIRST? (Choose TWO). Adjust the adaptive or automatic brightness control. Replace the display. Close all running apps. Adjust the battery saver setting. Replace the battery.

Adjust the adaptive or automatic brightness control. Adjust the battery saver setting. EXPLANATION Before replacing hardware, the technician should adjust the settings that control display brightness, including adjusting the adaptive or automatic brightness control and adjusting the battery saver setting. Replacing the battery may affect screen brightness, but is not the first action to take. A faulty display may be the cause, but replacing it is not the first action to take. Too many running apps is not likely to be the problem in this scenario.

Which tool would you use to configure the paging file location and size on a Windows system? Hardware and Sound in Control Panel Clock, Language, and Region in Control Panel Administrative Tools in Control Panel Advanced System Settings in Control Panel

Advanced System Settings in Control Panel You manage virtual memory on a Windows system using Advanced System Settings in Control Panel. You can control the size and the location of the paging file. Use Hardware and Sound in Control Panel to manage hardware devices, such as printers. Use Administrative Tools to load MMC consoles such as Services or Computer Management. Cconfigure regional and language preferences using Clock, Language, and Region in Control Panel.

Joe, a frequent visitor to a branch office, attempts to connect his tablet to the office wireless network, but is unable to connect to the internet, even though he has verified that the SSID and password are correct. Joe attempts to connect to a coworker's hotspot, but is still unable to connect to the internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? MAC filtering has been enabled on the branch office wireless access point. The connection between the branch office router and internet service provider is down. Joe's tablet has been configured with full device encryption. Airplane mode has been set on the tablet.

Airplane mode has been set on the tablet. EXPLANATION When a mobile device has no wireless connectivity, the most frequent reason is that Airplane Mode has been set on the device. The tablet could not connect to the internet from neither the office wireless access point, nor from a coworker's hotspot. This indicates a problem with the tablet, not a problem with the branch office network. The tablet would not be able to connect to the branch office wireless network if MAC filtering was enabled and the tablet was not on the approved list. If the tablet was on the approved list, MAC filtering would not affect internet connectivity. While full device encryption may affect the tablet's performance, it would not affect internet connectivity.

Alice has received several calls from her friends informing her that they are receiving strange emails containing content that seems odd coming from her. Which of the following MOST likely happened on Alice's computer? Alice's email account was hijacked. A Trojan horse is running on Alice's computer. A virus or malware was installed on Alice's computer. A family member used her account to send prank emails.

Alice's email account was hijacked. EXPLANATION Although a family member may have tried to play a trick on Alice, it is more plausible that her email was hijacked. Hijacked or hacked email accounts are suspected when those receiving the emails are confused by or suspicious of the email's content. Another indication of a hijacked email account is automated replies from unknown sent email. Email accounts can be hijacked using several techniques. Therefore, it may or may not be caused by malware or a Trojan horse. For example, some email providers, such as Yahoo, can have their systems compromised, and your email information (username and password) are sold and used to access your account. Since it is also possible that your email was compromised through malicious software, you should take the proper steps to verify that all malware software is removed.

A technician is tasked with increasing the RAM memory on a laptop by adding a SODIMM module to an empty memory slot. Which of the following processes will seat the module in the slot? Align the notch on the long side of the memory module with the rise in the memory slot. Insert the module pins into the slot at a 90-degree angle to the motherboard and press down until the side hold-down clips snap into place. Add the mounting pegs to the side of the memory module. Attach the ribbon cable and press into place until the mounting clips catch the mounting pegs. Slide the memory into the external Expresscard slot horizontally until the card is even with the laptop case and you hear a click. Align the notch on the long side of the memory module with the rise in the memory slot. Insert the module pins into the slot at a 45-degree angle. Rotate the module by pressing down until the side hold-down clips snap into place.

Align the notch on the long side of the memory module with the rise in the memory slot. Insert the module pins into the slot at a 45-degree angle. Rotate the module by pressing down until the side hold-down clips snap into place. EXPLANATION Install SODIMM by aligning the notch on the long side of the memory module with the rise in the memory slot, inserting the module pins into the slot at a 45-degree angle, and rotating the module by pressing down until the side hold-down clips snap into place. Aligning the notch on the long side of the memory module with the rise in the memory slot, inserting the module pins into the slot at a 90-degree angle to the motherboard, and pressingdown until the side hold-down clips snap into place is the process for installing DIMM memory in a desktop computer. SODIMM memory is never added using the expresscard slot. Adding mounting pegs to the side of the memory module, attaching the ribbon cable, and pressing into place until the mounting clips catch the mounting pegs is the process for installing a hard drive in a laptop.

Which of the following security practices are the BEST example of the principle of least privilege? Autorun has been disabled on a Windows workstation. All users on a Windows workstation have been assigned strong passwords. All users on a Windows workstation are limited users except for one user, who is responsible for maintaining the system. The Guest user account on a Windows workstation has been disabled.

All users on a Windows workstation are limited users except for one user, who is responsible for maintaining the system. EXPLANATION The principle of least privilege specifies that users should have only the degree of access to the workstation necessary for them to complete their work and no more. Making all users limited users except for those who need administrative access is an example of the principle of least privilege. The other practices listed are workstation security best practices, but are not necessarily examples of the principle of least privilege.

Your computer has a single NTFS partition used for the C: drive with the following folders: C:\Confidential C:\PublicReports You configure NTFS permissions on the C:\Confidential folder and deny the Read permission to the Users group. For the C:\PublicReports folder, you allow Full Control permission to the Users group. You have not configured any permissions other than the defaults on any other folders or files. You take the following actions: Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports. Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports. Which of the following BEST describes the permission the members of the Users group will have for the two files in the C:\PublicReports folder? Allow Full Control to Reports.doc; Deny Read to Costs.doc. Deny Read to both. Allow Full Control to both. Deny Read to Reports.doc; Allow Full Control to Costs.doc.

Allow Full Control to both. EXPLANATION Users have Allow Full Control to both files in the C:\PublicReports folder. When you move or copy files to an NTFS partition, the files inherit the permissions configured for the parent folders. If you had configured explicit permissions for the files, then moving the file would retain the explicit permissions assigned to the file. Copying files to new folders or partitions removes any existing permissions, and only inherited permissions apply.

You have removed the bezel from a notebook display that has stopped functioning. You see a DC-to-AC power inverter at the base of the screen. Which of the following BEST describes the type of display you are working with? An LCD display that uses CCFL backlighting. A plasma display that does not use backlighting. An LED display that does not use backlighting. An LCD display that uses LEDs for backlighting.

An LCD display that uses CCFL backlighting. EXPLANATION The inverter looks like a long, rectangular circuit board and is used to convert DC power into the AC power used by the fluorescent tubes for the CCFL backlighting. The inverter is usually located at the base of the screen. LED backlighting does not use a power inverter.

Which of the following describes a man-in-the-middle attack? An IP packet is constructed which is larger than the valid size. An attacker intercepts communications between two network hosts by impersonating each host. A person over the phone convinces an employee to reveal their logon credentials. Malicious code is planted on a system where it waits for a triggering event before activating.

An attacker intercepts communications between two network hosts by impersonating each host. EXPLANATION A man-in-the-middle attack is a technological attack where a malicious person intercepts network communications between two hosts, posing as the sender to the receiver and as the receiver to the sender. Convincing an employee over the phone to reveal his logon credentials is an example of a social engineering attack. Constructing an IP packet which is larger than the valid size is a form of denial of service attack. Planting malicious code on a system where it waits for a triggering event before activating is a logic bomb.

Bob calls and complains that he has suddenly started getting a lot of unwanted email. Which of the following is the BEST type of software to install to help solve Bob's problem? Anti-plagiarism Anti-spam Anti-malware Anti-virus

Anti-spam EXPLANATION In computer terms, SPAM email (or junk email) is the unsolicited email users receive. One of the best ways to prevent receiving this type of email is to use anti-spam software. Anti-malware software helps protects a computer from software that is intentionally designed to cause harm or damage to your computer. Anti-virus software helps protect the infiltration and spread of malicious code that is designed to alter the way a computer operates. Anti-plagiarism software helps detect when someone has plagiarized someone else's material.

A company executive has just bought a new Android mobile device. She wants you to help her make sure it is protected from malware threats. What options are available and important to use to protect Android devices? (Select TWO.) Android mobile devices, like iOS devices, are not susceptible to malware threats. Any Android anti-virus app will be about as effective as any other. Anti-virus apps are available for purchase from Android app stores. Anti-virus apps for Android have not been developed yet. Android operating system updates are sufficient to protect against malware threats. App reviews and ratings will help you choose an effective anti-virus app.

Anti-virus apps are available for purchase from Android app stores. App reviews and ratings will help you choose an effective anti-virus app. EXPLANATION Anti-virus apps are available for purchase from Android app stores, but many are not able to protect your Android device from more than 65% of the known malware threats. As you shop for an anti-virus app, be sure to refer to app reviews and ratings to help you choose an effective anti-virus app. Android devices can be infected by malware, so it is important to take steps to protect them.

Which file attribute identifies the file as having been modified since the last backup? Archive Hidden Encrypted Read-only

Archive EXPLANATION The Archive (A) attribute identifies whether a file has been modified since the last backup. A file attribute is metadata that gives certain qualities to a file after the attribute has been assigned. The Read-only (R) attribute marks a file as read-only, meaning that the file cannot be altered by subsequent users. The Encrypted attribute encrypts a file. The Hidden (H) attribute hides a file within the file system so it cannot be viewed or accessed by users that do not have access to its specific filename.

A mobile device has poor performance and is slow to respond to screen inputs. After troubleshooting, a technician decides to perform a factory reset. Which of the following actions should a technician take before doing so? Back up all data to an attached computer or a cloud backup service. Close all running applications. Ensure that the battery is fully charged. Perform a remote wipe to clear any personal data.

Back up all data to an attached computer or a cloud backup service. EXPLANATION A factory reset will clear all data from the mobile device. To prevent the loss of this data, it should be backed up to an attached computer or a cloud backup service. A remote wipe will clear all personal data, which will be lost if it has not been backed up. All running applications will be closed and overwritten during a factory reset. A factory reset can be done whether the battery is fully charged or not.

You work as the IT administrator for a small startup company. Lily's computer has two internal hard drives and runs Windows 10. She is concerned that she may accidently delete a file or that her primary hard disk may fail at some future time. She has come to you for suggestions about how to protect her files. Due to the size and revenue of this startup company, resources are somewhat limited. Which of the following would BEST protect Lily's files? Back up her files using File History. Purchase a third-party backup software. Create a network share to which Lily can copy her files. Configure scheduled disk maintenance.

Back up her files using File History. Windows 10 includes the ability to back up files to another drive. This service is known as Back up using File History and can be found under Settings > Update & Security > Backup. This drive could include such things as a second drive in a computer, a USB-connected drive, or a network drive. Lily could use this feature to back up her files from her primary drive to her second drive, or you could purchase her an inexpensive USB drive she could automatically back files to. With the limited funds available, buying a third-party backup software probably isn't feasible at this time. Having Lily copy her files to a network share would work for files she creates, but counting on her to back these up on a regular basis is risky. Scheduled disk maintenance allows the system to diagnose and repair disk errors. It does not back up files.

You have a computer with a removable disk drive formatted with NTFS. You want the drive to use FAT32 so it is compatible with more operating systems. The drive is currently configured using drive letter D:. Which of the following MUST you complete to accomplish this task? Back up the data on the D: drive. Run convert.exe. Back up the data on the D: drive. Run format /fs:NTFS. Upgrade the disk to a dynamic disk. Back up the data on the D: drive. Reformat the D: drive using FAT32. Restore the data.

Back up the data on the D: drive. Reformat the D: drive using FAT32. Restore the data. EXPLANATION The only way to go from NTFS to FAT32 is to reformat the drive. Because reformatting destroys all data, you should back up the drive before formatting and then restore the data after formatting the drive.

Which of the following is an important aspect of evidence gathering? Backing up all log files and audit trails Purging transaction logs Monitoring user access to compromised systems Restoring damaged data from backup media

Backing up all log files and audit trails EXPLANATION When gathering evidence, it is important to make backup copies of all log files and audit trails. These files will help reconstruct the events leading up to the security violation. They often include important clues as to the identity of the attacker or intruder. Users should not be granted access to compromised systems while evidence gathering is taking place. Damaged data should not be restored, and transaction logs should not be purged while evidence gathering is taking place.

Which of the following are characteristics of the 802.11g wireless standard? (Select THREE.) Backwards compatible with 802.11b devices Operates in the 2.4 GHz range Backwards compatible with 802.11a devices Maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps Maximum bandwidth of 11 Mbps Operates in the 5.75 GHz range

Backwards compatible with 802.11b devices Operates in the 2.4 GHz range Maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps EXPLANATION 802.11g wireless networks: Operate in the 2.4 GHz range Have a maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps Are backwards compatible with 802.11b networks 802.11b provides 11 Mbps bandwidth. 802.11a operates in the 5.75 GHz range. For this reason, 802.11a is not compatible with 802.11b or 802.11g.

A user has configured his mobile device to unlock using facial recognition. Which of the following methods for securing a mobile device is being used? An antivirus application Trusted source A locator application Biometric authentication

Biometric authentication EXPLANATION Facial recognition uses biometric data for authentication. A locator application can be used to find a lost or stolen device. An antivirus application is used to detect and remove malware. Trusted source refers to the approved location for obtaining mobile applications, Google Play Store, App Store, and Microsoft Store.

Employees currently access a data center using RFID badges. The company is concerned that an unauthorized person could gain access using a lost or stolen badge. Which of the following could be implemented to increase the physical security? Security tokens Biometric locks Key fobs Smart cards

Biometric locks EXPLANATION Biometric locks require a user to authenticate with a unique personal attribute such as their iris, fingerprint, or voice. Smart cards can be lost or stolen as easily as any other badge. Key fobs contain a security code that changes at predetermined intervals. Like badges, they can be lost or stolen. Tokens are the security components used in devices to provide the holder of the token the proper access level. They can be transmitted via card readers, magnetic swipes, or wireless communication. The company's current RFID badges would include these tokens.

You want a security solution that protects the entire hard drive, preventing access even when it is moved to another system. Which of the following is the BEST method for achieving your goals? BitLocker VPN IPsec EFS

BitLocker EXPLANATION BitLocker is a Microsoft security solution that encrypts the entire contents of a hard drive, protecting all files on the disk. BitLocker uses a special key, which is required to unlock the hard disk. You cannot unlock/decrypt a drive simply by moving it to another computer. EFS is a Windows file encryption option, but only encrypts individual files. Encryption and decryption is automatic and dependent upon the file's creator and whether other uses have read permissions. A virtual private network (VPN) uses an encryption protocol (such as IPsec, PPTP, or L2TP) to establish a secure communication channel between two hosts or between one site and another site. Data that passes through the unsecured network is encrypted and protected.

Which of the following functions are performed by proxy servers? (Select TWO). Block employees from accessing certain websites Filter unwanted email Cache web pages Block unwanted packets from entering your private network Store client files

Block employees from accessing certain websites Cache web pages EXPLANATION A proxy, or proxy server, stands between client computers and web servers. You can use a proxy server to prevent access to specific websites, or to cache (save) frequently used web pages. When a proxy receives a request from the client, it checks to verify that the client is allowed access to the website. If allowed, it then checks its cache to see if the requested page is in the cache. If the page is already cached, then the proxy server fulfills the request by displaying the requested page from the cache rather than retrieving it from the internet. Receiving a web page from a local proxy server is much faster than downloading the page from the internet.

You want to use a wireless keyboard and mouse with your laptop computer. Which method should you choose? IEEE 1394 PS/2 USB Bluetooth 802.11g wireless

Bluetooth EXPLANATION Bluetooth would be the best choice because it has a high transfer rate and because it automatically detects other Bluetooth devices in the area and creates an encrypted PAN between them. 802.11g is a wireless networking standard for communicating between computers, not for connecting wireless devices to a computer. PS/2, IEEE 1394 (Firewire), and USB are all wired connection standards.

Bob is a member of the Accounting group. The Accounting group has been granted the Read and Write NTFS permissions to the WeeklyReport.xls file. Bob is also a member of the Everyone group, which has been given the Full Control permission to the WeeklyReport.xls file. Which of the following statements MOST correctly describes Bob's ability to access the WeeklyReport.xls file? Bob can find the file in a search, but cannot open the file. Bob can open, read, and write changes to the file. Bob can open and read the file, but cannot write changes to the file. Bob has Full Access to the file and can open, read, write changes, delete, and change permissions on the file. Bob cannot search for or open the file.

Bob can open, read, and write changes to the file. EXPLANATION When evaluating the interaction between Share and NTFS permissions, remember that the most restrictive set of permissions takes precedence. In this case, the NTFS permissions (Read and Write) are more restrictive than the Full Control permission granted to the Everyone group through the share, so the effective permissions are Read and Write.

Your anti-malware software has detected a virus on your Windows 10 system. However, the anti-malware software is unable to remove it. When you try to delete the files, you can't because they are in use. Which of the following actions would be BEST to try first? Update the anti-malware definition files. Run Sfc.exe. Boot into Safe Mode and try removing the malware. Reset the operating system.

Boot into Safe Mode and try removing the malware. EXPLANATION If a malware process is running and you are unable to stop it, try booting into Safe Mode and then run the scanning software to locate and remove the malware (or delete the files manually). Safe Mode loads only the required drivers and processes. Anti-malware definition files are used to identify a virus; in this case, the anti-malware software has already detected the virus so the files are sufficiently up-to-date to detect the virus. Resetting the operating system might be necessary, but should only be tried after all other measures have failed. Sfc.exe checks and repairs system files.

One day, while trying to start your Windows 10 computer, the system displays the following error: Windows could not start. Could not read from the selected boot disk. Check boot path and disk hardware. Which of the following will most likely fix the problem? Boot into the recovery environment and restore to a restore point. Boot into the recovery environment and run the bootrec /rebuildbcd command. Boot into the recovery console and copy the NTLDR file to the boot volume. Boot into the recovery console and run the bootcfg /rebuild command. Boot into the recovery console and run the fixmbr command on the boot volume.

Boot into the recovery environment and run the bootrec /rebuildbcd command. EXPLANATION This error message is generated when the system cannot find the partition specified in the BCD database where the operating system files are located. For example, the database might be pointing to the D: drive for the operating system files, but that drive does not exist. Run bootrec /rebuildbcd to rebuild the boot loader database with a list of valid operating system locations. bootcfg /rebuild and fixmbr were used in early versions of Windows to fix boot problems. Reverting to a restore point will not fix the damaged boot files in this scenario.

Wendy had been searching the internet for a great deal on jewelry. While looking at one site, a pop-up was displayed that told her she had just been chosen as the winner of a nice prize. Being excited to win, Wendy clicked on the link provided to claim her prize. The next day, when Wendy tried to turn on her computer, her computer displayed the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD). After interviewing Wendy, you suspect that the pop-up she clicked on installed some malicious software that has caused her computer to lock up. Which of the following is the BEST place to begin repairing Wendy's computer? Boot the computer from the Windows installation disc and run Reset this PC. Boot the computer from the Windows installation disc and run Startup Repair. Boot the computer from the Windows installation disc and perform a clean installation of Windows. Boot the computer from the Windows installation disc and run System Restore.

Boot the computer from the Windows installation disc and run Startup Repair. EXPLANATION Although BSOD can be caused by many things, given the circumstances and your suspicion that malware may be the cause, you should first isolate Wendy's computer and then try to make her computer bootable by running Startup Repair. Startup Repair attempts to fix problems that keep Windows from loading. If this process fixes her computer, you would then take the proper steps to find and remove the malicious software that caused the issue in the first place. If the computer does not boot after completing the above, you can try to run a System Restore. This would recover your computer to a previous point, but all of the changes made after the restore point was created would be lost. If the restore process fails, you could then try to Reset the PC. Keep in mind that this step may get the computer running again, but it will remove all of the applications and settings. If this step does work, you must still check for malicious software that may be disguised as a personal file. If all else fails, a clean installation of Windows can be performed. And if a backup of Wendy's files are available, they can be restored.

Rodney, a user in the research department, reports that he is experiencing blue screen errors while using his Windows computer. You ask Rodney if anything has changed on the computer recently. Rodney explains that he recently installed a TV tuner board in an expansion slot. Now he has to reboot the computer every time he loads the TV tuner application to watch TV. You need to fix Rodney's computer and prevent Rodney from using the TV until you can install an updated driver. What should you do? Re-install Windows from the installation disc. Use the Reset This PC option in the Settings app. Boot the system into Safe Mode. Disable the TV tuner driver in Device Manager. Boot the system from a Windows installation disc and select the Startup Repair option. Reboot the system and select Safe Mode. Edit the properties of the TV tuner driver in Device Manager and select Roll Back Driver.

Boot the system into Safe Mode. Disable the TV tuner driver in Device Manager. EXPLANATION You should disable the driver. Although you might be able to disable the driver without booting in Safe mode, booting in Safe mode is a good way to prevent drivers that could interfere with your task from being loaded. Resetting or reinstalling the operating system are drastic troubleshooting options. You should try simpler resolutions first before restoring to more aggressive options. Because the boot process is functioning, there is no indication that the boot sector or master boot record needs fixing using the Startup Repair.

Which of the following types of printers heats the ink in its print head to print? Piezoelectric crystal inkjet Thermal Laser Bubble jet (inkjet)

Bubble jet (inkjet) The bubble jet inkjet printer applies heat to the ink and squirts it through tiny nozzles in the print head and onto the paper. A laser printer also uses heat, but the heat is applied to thermal rollers (not a print head). A piezoelectric printer uses pressure to apply ink. A thermal printer uses heat to cause a reaction on specially treated paper.

The integrated mouse, the small monitor, and the compact nature of the keyboard are impeding your work when you use your notebook, but you still need a system that is portable if necessary. You currently own a spare USB mouse and keyboard, as well as a nice monitor. Which option will give you the portability you need while at the same time save money and not impede your work? Buy a docking station for your notebook. Switch to a tablet device. Connect an external keyboard, mouse, and monitor when necessary. Buy a small, lightweight desktop computer. Buy the biggest notebook possible so you don't feel so confined.

Buy a docking station for your notebook. EXPLANATION A docking station lets you use your notebook system as a desktop system. The docking station includes special ports that connect to the back of the notebook and let you use the normal-sized external mouse, keyboard, and monitor you currently own. The docking station provides a quick and easy way to connect these peripheral devices by simply snapping your notebook into the docking station. A lightweight desktop computer is not very portable, as it would require you to bring your external devices (such as the keyboard and mouse) with you as you go from place to place. A big notebook would be portable and would have a larger screen and keyboard but would cost a lot more than a simple docking station. While you may be able to connect your external keyboard, mouse, and monitor manually each time, using the docking station will be more convenient.

Which of the following statements are true regarding administrative shares? (Select TWO). If you are a member of the Administrators group, the administrative shares are visible when browsing the network. Default administrative shares are accessed by members of the Administrators or Power Users group. By default, Windows automatically creates an administrative share for every volume. To connect to an administrative share, you must use the UNC path.

By default, Windows automatically creates an administrative share for every volume. To connect to an administrative share, you must use the UNC path. EXPLANATION By default, Windows automatically creates an administrative share for every volume. The share name is the volume letter plus the dollar sign (such as C$). Because administrative shares are not visible when browsing the network, you must use the UNC path to connect to an administrative share. Default administrative shares can only be accessed by a member of the Administrators group.

Where system root is the C: drive, what is the path to the directories that hold user profiles in Windows 10? C:\Users\username C:\Documents and Settings\username C:\Users\Profiles\username C:\Users\Documents and Settings\username

C:\Users\username EXPLANATION On Windows 10, user profiles are stored on the system root drive in the Users\username directories. If C: is the system root drive, user profiles are stored in C:\Users\username.

Which file system path is the default location for system files in Windows 10? C:\Program Files (x86) C:\Windows\System32 C:\System32 C:\Windows C:\Windows\Program Files (x86)

C:\Windows EXPLANATION In Windows 10, the default location of system files is C:\Windows.

Where system root is the C: drive, where are fonts stored on a Windows 10 system? C:\Windows\Documents and Settings\Fonts\ C:\Documents and Settings\Fonts\ C:\Fonts\ C:\Windows\Fonts\

C:\Windows\Fonts\ EXPLANATION On all versions of Windows, fonts are stored in the %systemroot%\Fonts\ directory. For Windows 10, %systemroot% is C:\Windows by default. The %systemdrive% variable identifies the drive where Windows is installed (by default the C:\ drive).

You are a PC technician for a national computer retailer. A business customer asks you to build three custom computers to be used by employees at a branch office: CAD / CAM design workstation Home theater PC Virtualization workstation Drag and drop each PC hardware configuration on the left to the most appropriate workstation type on the right. CAD / CAM design workstation Virtualization workstation Home theater PC

CAD / CAM design workstation - 2 GB GDDR5 PCIe video adapter 16 GB PC3-21300 DDR4 ECC RAM 1 TB SATA HD Virtualization workstation - 32 GB PC4-21300 DDR4 RAM 4 TB SATA HD Integrated video adapter Home theater PC - HDMI output Compact form factor 5.1 channel surround sound adapter TV tuner adapter EXPLANATION Virtual machines place a very heavy load on the host hypervisor's RAM and CPU. Video and audio performance is of secondary concern. Therefore, the most important criteria to be included in the design for this workstation would be: 32 GB PC4-21300 DDR4 RAM 4 TB SATA HD Integrated video adapter A CAD / CAM workstation also places a heavy load on the the system CPU and RAM. In addition, because of the extensive mathematical calculations used by the software on these systems, it is strongly recommended that ECC memory be used. A high-end video adapter that uses GDDR5 memory instead of DDR3 memory is also recommended. The following hardware is sufficient: 2 GB GDDR5 PCIe video adapter 16 GB PC3-21300 DDR4 ECC RAM 1 TB SATA HD A home theater PC (HTPC) is a dedicated system that is optimized to play media on a television set. The following hardware is appropriate: HDMI output Compact form factor 5.1 channel surround sound adapter TV tuner adapter

You replaced the print cartridge on an inkjet printer. What should you do next? Replace the fuser roller assembly. Send the printer to the factory for a realignment. Calibrate the printer. Replace the ribbon as well.

Calibrate the printer. EXPLANATION After replacing print cartridges, perform a calibration. The calibration uses the self test to check the printed image and make minor adjustments automatically. Calibration will help avoid blurry text, misalignment (jagged lines), or incorrect colors. Dot matrix printers use a ribbon and should be replaced if printer images become faint. Fuser roller assemblies are found in laser printers and should be replaced or cleaned if there are lines or splotches at regular intervals on the print job.

You replaced the print cartridge on an inkjet printer. Which of the following BEST describes the next step you should perform? Replace the ribbon. Calibrate the printer. Replace the fuser roller assembly. Send the printer to the factory for a realignment.

Calibrate the printer. EXPLANATION After replacing print cartridges, perform a calibration. The calibration uses the self-test to check the printed image and make minor adjustments automatically. Calibration helps avoid blurry text, misalignment (jagged lines), and incorrect colors. Dot matrix printers use a ribbon and should be replaced if printer images become faint. Fuser roller assemblies are found in laser printers and should be replaced or cleaned if there are lines or splotches at regular intervals on the print job.

A technician installs a new touch screen on a laptop. Directly touching on an on-screen button doesn't depress or activate the button, but touching near the button does. Which of the following actions will correct the misalignment? Disable all mouse or touchpad devices. Lower the screen resolution. Calibrate the touchscreen. Update the touchscreen display driver.

Calibrate the touchscreen. EXPLANATION The misalignment can be corrected by running the utility to calibrate the touchscreen. A reboot may be required after you save the calibration data. Updating the touchscreen driver does not recalibrate or correct the misalignment. Other mouse or touchpads actions does not affect the screen misalignment. The screen resolution is independent of the screen misalignment.

You manage a group of 20 Windows workstations that are currently configured as a workgroup. You have been thinking about switching to an Active Directory configuration. Which advantages would you gain by switching to Active Directory? (Select TWO.) Centralized authentication Centralized configuration control Increased local control of workstation settings Reduced need for specialized hardware Decreased implementation cost

Centralized authentication Centralized configuration control EXPLANATION Installing an Active Directory database provides several advantages: Improved scalability Centralized configuration control Reduced data backup complexity Centralized authentication Centrally applied security settings Active Directory also include some drawbacks: Increased cost Specialized hardware and software needed Increased planning time for implementation

You have been asked to draft a document related to evidence gathering that contains details about personnel in possession and control of evidence from the time of discovery up through the time of presentation in court. What type of document is this? CPS (certificate practice statement) Rules of evidence FIPS-140 Chain of custody

Chain of custody The chain of custody is a document related to evidence gathering that contains details about personnel in possession and control of evidence from the time of discovery up through the time of presentation in court. A CPS (certificate practice statement) is a document written by a certificate authority outlining their certificate handling, management, and administration procedures. FIPS-140 is a government standard that defines procedures, hardware, and software that can be employed when performing forensic investigations of cyber crime. The rules of evidence are the restrictions that must be adhered to in order to ensure the admissibility of collected evidence.

A SOHO customer finds that their VoIP conversations frequently break up and become unintelligible. This happens most often when one person in the office streams video from the internet. Which of the following configuration changes on the SOHO router is MOST likely to improve VoIP performance? Forward UDP ports 5060 to 5065 to the VoIP phone. Change DHCP to give the VoIP phone a static IP address. Create a DMZ and add the VoIP phone to it. Change QoS settings to give VoIP traffic more priority.

Change QoS settings to give VoIP traffic more priority. EXPLANATION Poor VoIP performance is likely due to insufficient bandwidth to support both video streaming and VoIP calls. Changing the router's QoS settings to give a higher priority to VoIP traffic will most likely improve VoIP performance. Since VoIP functions correctly but gives poor performance, any port forwarding needed for VoIP must already be in place. Configuring the VoIP phone with a static IP address will not improve performance. Creating a DMZ and adding the VoIP phone to it will not resolve any traffic contention between video and VoIP traffic.

You have a Windows system with two SATA hard drives, one used for the operating system and the other used for storing data. You have traced recent problems to a fault in the system motherboard. You replaced the motherboard and reconnected all the hardware. When you started the computer, the system showed the startup information screen, but then returned an error that an operating system could not be found. What should you do? (Select TWO. Each option is part of the complete solution.) Press F6 during startup and load the SATA drivers. Boot into Safe Mode and import the disks in Disk Management. Change the boot order in the UEFI configuration. Verify the operating system SATA drive is configured as the boot drive in the UEFI configuration. Boot into the recovery console and run the bootrec /rebuildbcd command.

Change the boot order in the UEFI configuration. Verify the operating system SATA drive is configured as the boot drive in the UEFI configuration. EXPLANATION The most likely cause is that the boot configuration in the UEFI firmware of the new motherboard needs to be modified. First, you should specify that the SATA hard disk with the operating system installed is the hard disk to boot from. Then set the boot order to boot from the hard disk first. When you replace the motherboard, the UEFI chips are replaced and previous boot configuration is lost.

A technician is installing a new SOHO wireless router. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the technician should do to secure the router? Change the router's default password Press the WPS button Adjust the radio power levels Disable SSID broadcast

Change the router's default password EXPLANATION The first security configuration on the router should be to change the router's default password. Disabling the SSID broadcast may be desirable for added security, but it is not the first action you should take. Adjusting the radio power levels will limit the broadcast area and may be desirable for added security, but it is not the first action you should take. Pressing the WPS button temporarily broadcasts the SSID and passphrase, which would degrade security.

Which of the following are likely symptoms of malware infection? (Select TWO). Changed file permissions Renamed system files Receipt of phishing emails in your inbox Operating system updates that were installed without your knowledge Cookies placed by a website recently visited

Changed file permissions Renamed system files EXPLANATION Common symptoms of a malware infection include the following: Slow computer performance Internet connectivity issues Operating system lock ups Windows update failures Renamed system files Disappearing files Changed file permissions Access denied errors Cookies are commonly placed by legitimate websites and aren't considered a major security threat. Windows operating systems automatically install updates by default. Receiving phishing emails doesn't necessarily indicate that the system is infected with malware. It's more likely your email address has been picked up and included on a list.

You've just finished installing a wireless access point for a client. Which action best protects the access point from unauthorized tampering with its configuration settings? Changing the default administrative password Disabling SSID broadcast Disabling DHCP Implementing MAC address filtering

Changing the default administrative password EXPLANATION To prevent administrative access to the access point, change the default administrator password. If you do not change the password, users can search the internet for the default password and use it to gain access to the access point and make configuration changes. Disabling SSID broadcast, disabling DHCP, and using MAC address filtering helps prevent unauthorized access to the wireless network.

Which of the following techniques are used in a pharming attack to redirect legitimate web traffic to malicious websites? (Select TWO). Search engine results poisoning Dictionary attack Man-in-the-middle attack Changing the hosts file of a user's computer Exploiting DHCP servers to deliver the IP address of poisoned DNS servers

Changing the hosts file of a user's computer Exploiting DHCP servers to deliver the IP address of poisoned DNS servers Pharming redirects one website's traffic to a bogus website designed to look like the real website. Once the user is there, the attacker tricks the user into supplying personal information, such as bank account and PIN numbers. Pharming works by resolving legitimate URLs to the IP address of malicious websites. This is typically done using one of the following techniques: Changing the hosts file of a user's computer Poisoning a DNS server Exploiting DHCP servers to deliver the IP address of malicious DNS servers in DHCP leases Search engine results poisoning is not typically associated with pharming attacks. A man-in-the-middle attack occurs when the attacker intercepts legitimate network traffic and then poses as one of the parties involved in the network communication. A dictionary attack is used to crack passwords by guessing the password from a list of likely words.

The 802.11ac wireless networking standard provides increased bandwidth and communication speeds by using which of the following technologies? (Select TWO). Channel bonding to combine more channels in the 5 GHz band to allow for up to 160-MHz-wide channels. OFDM modulation to allow several parallel data channels to stream data. Peer-to-peer mode to allow each host to communicate directly with other hosts. Dual band transmission to allow data to be transmitted at two frequencies at the same time. MU-MIMO to allow multiple users to use the same channel.

Channel bonding to combine more channels in the 5 GHz band to allow for up to 160-MHz-wide channels. MU-MIMO to allow multiple users to use the same channel. The 802.11ac wireless network standard increases bandwidth and communication speeds using the following technologies: MU-MIMO is an enhancement to MIMO that allows multiple users to use the same channel. In addition to adding MU-MIMO, 802.11ac doubled the number of MIMO radio streams from four to eight. Channel bonding is used to combine even more channels in the 5-GHz band, allowing up to 160-MHz wide channels. (Even though 160-MHz-wide channels are supported, most 802.11ac networks use 80-MHz-wide channels.)

Which of the following indicates that a system case cover has been removed? BIOS password Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Chassis intrusion detection DriveLock

Chassis intrusion detection Chassis intrusion detection helps you identify when a system case has been opened. When the case cover is removed, an alert is recorded in the BIOS. A BIOS password controls access to the system. If set, the administrator (or supervisor or setup) password is required to enter the CMOS program to make changes to BIOS settings. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a special chip on the motherboard that generates and stores cryptographic keys to verify that the hardware has not changed. This value can be used to prevent the system from booting if the hardware has changed. DriveLock is a disk encryption solution.

A technician receives notification from a SOHO router manufacturer of a specific vulnerability that allows attackers to exploit SNMP traps to take over the router. The technician verifies the settings outlined in the notification. Which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT? Enable MAC filtering. Enable content filtering. Check for and apply firmware updates. Disable DHCP.

Check for and apply firmware updates. EXPLANATION Manufactures often accompany a vulnerability notification with firmware updates to address the vulnerability. These updates should be applied immediately. Parental controls or content filters restrict or block specific web traffic based on keywords, URLs, or the time of day, but do not address network hacker vulnerabilities. Disabling DHCP will require static IP addresses, but does nothing to address network hacker vulnerabilities. MAC filtering can be used to limit connectivity to a list of MAC addresses, but does nothing to address network hacker vulnerabilities.

One of your customers is still using an old dot matrix printer. While printing, the customer noticed that the text was light or faint. A new print head was installed, but the documents are still faint. Which of the following should you do to troubleshoot the MOST likely cause? Check the gap between the printer head and the paper. Check the toner levels. Initialize the ribbon. Install a maintenance kit.

Check the gap between the printer head and the paper. EXPLANATION In this case, you should check the gap between the printer head and the paper. If the gap between the platen and the print head is too large, the print could be faint because the pins are not firmly striking the ribbon and paper. Dot matrix printers do not use toner; they us a ribbon instead. Ribbons should be replaced, not initialized, if the printer images become faint. Maintenance kits are replacement components, such as fuser wires, rollers, and toner drums, needed after about 20,000 pages of printing.

Joe has been issued a company-owned tablet. He finds that the performance decreases after a few hours of use. After he power-cycles the tablet, performance returns, but the tablet begins to slow again after an hour of use. Which of the following is the BEST action to troubleshoot the problem? Reset the tablet to factory defaults. Replace the tablet battery. Disable wireless networking. Check the number apps that are running.

Check the number apps that are running. EXPLANATION Each running app consumes tablet resources such as memory and CPU. Multiple apps contending for scarce resources may cause poor performance. All mobile devices provide the user the ability to either close all running apps or stop them selectively. Resetting the tablet to factory defaults will remove all installed apps and data. This action should be used as a last resort. Replacing the tablet battery will not likely improve performance, especially if the tablet was connected to an external power source. Disabling wireless networking is often used when troubleshooting performance, but is not the best action in this scenario.

A technician is tasked with configuring a user's personal tablet to connect to the corporate network. Which of the following should be performed before configuring access? Check that the battery is fully charged.. Check the tablet for unauthorized root access. Close all running apps. Reset the tablet to factory defaults.

Check the tablet for unauthorized root access. EXPLANATION Jailbreaking or rooting a mobile device weakens its built-in security and can expose sensitive data to cyber-fraud. A best practice is to deny access to a secure network to any device that has been given unauthorized root access. Resetting the tablet to factory defaults will uninstall all apps and remove data. This is not warranted in this scenario. Closing all running apps is not a requirement in this scenario. Checking that the battery is fully charged is not a requirement to access a network.

Which category can you use in Control Panel to control how times, dates, numbers, and currency are formatted and displayed for your computer? Appearance and Personalization Advanced System Settings Clock and Region Administrative Tools

Clock and Region EXPLANATION Use the Clock and Region option in Control Panel to control how times, dates, numbers, and currency are formatted and displayed and to manage language capabilities for your system. Use Administrative Tools to access MMC consoles such as Services and Computer Management. Use Advanced System Settings to access Device Manager and configure remote access settings. Use Appearance and Personalization to configure the desktop theme.

Match the mobile operating systems on the left with the descriptions on the right. Each mobile operating system may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Closed source and second most popular mobile device operating system. Device manufacturers are countless. Open source and most popular mobile device operating system. Device manufacturers include Microsoft, Samsung, and HTC. Devices solely designed and developed by Apple. Closed source and third most popular mobile device operating system.

Closed source and second most popular mobile device operating system. - iOS Device manufacturers are countless. - Android Open source and most popular mobile device operating system. - Android Device manufacturers include Microsoft, Samsung, and HTC. - Windows Devices solely designed and developed by Apple.- iOS Closed source and third most popular mobile device operating system. - Windows EXPLANATION The following mobile device operating systems are commonly available with the following feature highlights: AndroidAndroid is open source and the leader in mobile device operating systems.Google Play Store has the most mobile apps.Android manufacturers are countless and include Samsung, Sony, HTC, LG, and Motorola. iOS iOS is closed source and the second most popular mobile device operating system. iOS is a close competitor with Google in theAppStore mobile app count. iOS devices or iPhones are solely designed and developed by Apple. Windows Windows is closed source and far behind Android and iOS in mobile device operating system popularity. Windows Store has the fewest mobile apps. Microsoft Mobiles (formerly Nokia) are the leading Windows Phone providers, though Samsung and HTC have launched Windows phone devices in the past. Google is not a mobile device operating system; Google uses the Android operating system.

One of your customers wants to configure a small network in his home. The home has three floors, and there are computers on each floor. This customer needs to share files between computers, print to a centrally located printer, and have access to the internet. Which of the following print solutions would BEST meet this client's needs? Configure a Wi-Fi infrastructure network. Configure a Wi-Fi space network. Configure a Wi-Fi global area network. Configure a Wi-Fi ad hoc network.

Configure a Wi-Fi infrastructure network. In infrastructure mode, each wireless host connects to a central connecting device called a wireless access point (AP). In this configuration, hosts communicate with each other through the AP instead of communicating with each other directly. The AP behaves much in the same way as a wired switch in this mode. The wireless AP not only controls communication between devices, but is also able to bridge the wireless network with a wired network and the internet. In an ad hoc configuration, devices can't use the internet unless one of them is connected to the internet and sharing it with the others. If internet sharing is enabled, the client performing this function will experience massive performance issues, especially if there are lots of interconnected devices. Since a device connected to the internet is required for ad hoc, it would be best to use infrastructure to alleviate some of the limitations of ad hoc. A space network is used for communication between spacecraft, usually in the vicinity of the Earth, such as NASA's Space Network. A global network is a network used to support mobile across an arbitrary number of wireless LANs, satellite coverage areas, or other configurations.

Following your Windows installation, you enabled the built-in Administrator account. You remove the password for this account. You enable Remote Desktop on your computer using the default settings. From home, you try to access your computer using Remote Desktop using the Administrator account, but you are unable to log on. Which of the following MUST be completed before you can access your computer using Remote Desktop? Configure a password for the Administrator account. Make the Administrator account a member of the Remote Desktop Users group. Unlock the Administrator account. Disable fast user switching on the computer.

Configure a password for the Administrator account. EXPLANATION When you access shared folders or Remote Desktop on a network computer, the user account must be configured with a password. User accounts with blank passwords cannot be used to gain network access to a computer. By default, members of the Administrators group are allowed Remote Desktop access. To allow non-administrators access, add them to the list of authorized users for Remote Desktop. The user accounts you specify are made members of the Remote Desktop Users group. Accounts are locked automatically through the account lockout settings when too many incorrect passwords have been entered. Fast user switching is only configurable on Windows XP and does not affect users' ability to log on with Remote Desktop.

You want to configure your computer so that a password is required before the operating system will load. What should you do? Configure an administrator password in the BIOS/UEFI. Configure chassis instruction detection. Configure a user password in the BIOS/UEFI. Require complex passwords in the local security policy.

Configure a user password in the BIOS/UEFI. EXPLANATION Configuring a user password in the BIOS/UEFI requires that a valid password is entered before the operating system will load. When an administrative password is set, it must be entered in order to access the firmware setup program. Chassis intrusion detection helps you identify when a system case has been opened. Password settings in the local security policy control passwords associated with user accounts that are configured within the operating system. These passwords are used after the system loads the operating system, not before.

You have a Windows system shared by three shift workers. Files that are used by all users are stored on the D:\ drive in various folders. The users have created hundreds of files on this drive and sometimes experience difficulty finding the files they need. What should you do? Configure visual settings to optimize performance. Add an additional drive to the system and configure a new Storage Space using the files from the old D:\ drive. Configure Work Folders for the folders on the D:\ drive. Configure indexing to include the D:\ drive.

Configure indexing to include the D:\ drive. EXPLANATION The Windows file search tool runs relatively quickly because it does not search the entire storage device. Instead, it searches for a file within an index that is maintained by the operating system. You can use the indexing options in Control Panel to customize which file locations are included in the index. Storage Spaces are used to pool available storage space from multiple storage devices in the system. Use Work Folders to make files on the system available across all devices used by users, even when the system is offline. Visual effects controls how window contents and fonts appear on the screen.

A technician is replacing a SOHO router and has configured DHCP to assign private IP addresses to hosts on the local network. These hosts can communicate with each other, but users can't browse the internet. Which of the following changes to the SOHO router is MOST likely to restore internet connectivity? Disable DHCP and configure the hosts with static IP addresses. Update the firmware on the SOHO router. Configure the SOHO router for NAT. Remove any QoS settings that give low priority to HTTP traffic.

Configure the SOHO router for NAT. EXPLANATION Configuring NAT to translate the private IP addresses on the local network to public IP addresses on the internet will most likely restore internet connectivity. QoS settings may cause HTTP traffic to be slower, but would not completely interrupt it. Static IP addresses will not restore internet connectivity. Updating the firmware is not likely to restore internet connectivity.

A salesperson in your organization spends most of her time traveling between customer sites. After a customer visit, she must complete various managerial tasks, such as updating your organization's order database. Because she rarely comes back to your home office, she usually accesses the network from her notebook computer using Wi-Fi access provided by hotels, restaurants, and airports. Many of these locations provide unencrypted public Wi-Fi access, and you are concerned that sensitive data could be exposed. To remedy this situation, you decide to configure her notebook to use a VPN when accessing the home network over an open wireless connection. Which of the following key steps should you take when implementing this configuration? (Select TWO. Each option is part of the complete solution.) Configure the VPN connection to use IPsec. Configure the browser to send HTTPS requests directly to the Wi-Fi network without going through the VPN connection. Configure the VPN connection to use MS-CHAPv2. Configure the VPN connection to use PPTP. Configure the browser to send HTTPS requests through the VPN connection.

Configure the VPN connection to use IPsec. Configure the browser to send HTTPS requests through the VPN connection. It is generally considered acceptable to use a VPN connection to securely transfer data over an open Wi-Fi network. As long as strong tunneling ciphers and protocols are used, the VPN provides sufficient encryption to secure the connection even though the wireless network itself is not encrypted. It is recommended that you use IPsec or SSL to secure the VPN, as these protocols are relatively secure. You should also configure the browser's HTTPS requests to go through the VPN connection. To conserve VPN bandwidth and to improve latency, many VPN solutions automatically reroute web browsing traffic through the client's default network connection instead of through the VPN tunnel. This behavior would result in HTTP/HTTPS traffic being transmitted over the unsecure open wireless network instead of through the secure VPN tunnel. Avoid using PPTP with MS-CHAPv2 in a VPN over open wireless configuration, as these protocols are no longer considered secure.

You want to make sure that you always have the latest patches installed on your workstation for an order entry application created by DataComLink corporation. What should you do? (Select TWO.) Configure Windows Update to download updates for other Microsoft products when Windows is updated. Configure the application to automatically download and install updates as they are released. Configure Windows Update to download and install updates automatically. Check the DataComLink Website regularly for patches and updates to the software. Download any patches from the company as you are notified of them.

Configure the application to automatically download and install updates as they are released. Check the DataComLink Website regularly for patches and updates to the software. EXPLANATION The best ways to make sure that an application is up to date include the following: Manually check the manufacturer's website regularly for software updates.Configure the application to automatically download and install updates as they are released. Windows Update only works for Microsoft products and some critical driver files. It will not update third-party software. Most software companies do not contact you directly when updates are released.

Jose, a medical doctor, has a mobile device that contains sensitive patient information. He is concerned about unauthorized access to the data if the device is lost or stolen. Which of the following is the BEST option to prevent this from happening? Configure the device to remote wipe as soon as it reported lost. Install a locator application on the device so that it can be traced. Configure the device to wipe after a number of failed login attempts. Configure the device for multifactor authentication.

Configure the device to remote wipe as soon as it reported lost. EXPLANATION Mobile devices can be configured to be perform a factory reset or wipe when the device is reported lost or stolen. This is the BEST of the presented options. Configuring the device for multifactor authentication will make it harder to hack, but is not the best solution presented. Installing a locator application on the device makes it possible to trace, but is not the best solution presented. Configuring the device to wipe after a number of failed login attempts is a good solution, but not the best solution presented.

If a printer is connected directly to a Windows workstation, what can be done to allow other workstations on the same network to send print jobs to this printer? Configure the workstation as a print driver. Configure the printer to be a shared printer. Configure the printer to be a print server. The printer can only be shared by disconnecting it from the workstation and connecting it to the network.

Configure the printer to be a shared printer. EXPLANATION You can configure a printer attached to a Windows workstation as a network printer by configuring it to be a shared printer. This is done by accessing the Devices and Printers panel on the workstation and then opening the printer's Properties window and configuring the settings on the Sharing tab.

Joe, a bookkeeper, works in a cubicle environment and is often called away from his desk. Joe doesn't want to sign out of his computer each time he leaves. Which of the following are the BEST solutions for securing Joe's workstation? (Select TWO). Configure the screen lock to be applied after short period of nonuse. Apply multifactor authentication. Set a strong password. Change the default account names and passwords. Configure the screen saver to require a password.

Configure the screen lock to be applied after short period of nonuse. Configure the screen saver to require a password. EXPLANATION The BEST solution is to configure the screen saver or screen lock to be applied after a short period of nonuse and to require a password to return to the desktop. Setting a strong password is a best practice, but is not the best solution in this scenario. Applying multifactor authentication will make it harder to hack the workstation, but is not the best solution in this scenario. Change the default account names and passwords will make the workstation more secure, but is not the best solution in this scenario.

What is the surest way to prevent the loss of important information on your mobile device if it is lost, stolen, destroyed, or there is a natural disaster? Only use apps, such as email apps, that store data on the app provider's servers. Configure your device to remotely back up important data to the Cloud. Don't put important information on your mobile device. Configure your device to back up important data to your personal computer.

Configure your device to remotely back up important data to the Cloud. EXPLANATION The surest way to prevent the loss of important information on your mobile device is to configure your device to remotely back up important data to the Cloud. Backing up data to your personal computer is not a bad idea, but if there is a natural disaster your data is safer in the Cloud than it is on a single machine that could be damaged in the same disaster that affects your mobile device. Not putting important information on your mobile device is a practical impossibility, as is only using apps that store data (like messages in gmail) on the app provider's servers.

A user hibernates a laptop after giving a video presentation. Now, when it resumes, the display flickers for a moment, but remains blank. A technician suspects a bad graphics processing unit (GPU). Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be completed? (Select TWO). Connect an external display device. Replace the battery. Connect an external keyboard and mouse. Toggle the dual display function key. Connect an external USB hard drive.

Connect an external display device. Toggle the dual display function key. EXPLANATION Depending on the display settings, the laptop may be sending a video signal to the external display port instead of the internal laptop display. Connecting a monitor will confirm this. The dual displays settings may be causing the laptop to only use the external display. Toggling the dual display function key will change these settings to use the internal display as well. Replacing the battery will interrupt processing and may cause data loss. Connecting an external hard drive is not likely to affect the display. Connecting an external keyboard and mouse is not likely to affect the display.

Vera has brought her notebook computer to you for repair. After listening to her describe its symptoms, you hypothesize that the notebook may have a malfunctioning keyboard. Which of the following steps can you take to BEST determine whether the keyboard needs to be replaced? (Select TWO). Check for cracks in the power bundles that go from the keyboard to the motherboard. Use Device Manager to make sure the correct keyboard driver is installed and up to date. Connect an external keyboard. Check for special keyboard features that could be enabled that may cause some keys to perform alternate tasks. Recalibrate the keyboard's pressure sensors.

Connect an external keyboard. Check for special keyboard features that could be enabled that may cause some keys to perform alternate tasks. EXPLANATION Check to see if the user has inadvertently set a special notebook keyboard feature that alters the way certain keys work. For example, setting the NumLock feature may cause part of the keyboard to emulate 10-key functionality. If no special features have been set, you can connect an external keyboard to see if the malfunctioning keyboard symptoms go away. If they do, the laptop keyboard needs to be replaced. None of the other troubleshooting options could be used to determine what is wrong with a notebook keyboard.

Which of the following methods can be used to connect a printer to a network? (Select TWO.) Plug a USB-to-Ethernet adapter in your printer's USB port. Connect your printer to an external print server device that is connected to the network. Plug a network cable into your printer's serial port. Plug a network cable into your printer's USB port. Plug an Ethernet cable into the network port in the printer.

Connect your printer to an external print server device that is connected to the network. Plug an Ethernet cable into the network port in the printer. EXPLANATION There are two common ways to make a printer a network printer. Most printers come with an integrated network card or have a slot for adding a network card. Otherwise, it is possible to connect it to the network using an external printer server. The external print server functions as a gateway between the printer's parallel interface and the network topology. While a USB-to-Ethernet adapter can be used to connect a workstation to a wired network, it won't work with a printer, as software drivers must be loaded on the host for the adapter to work.

You work for a company that offers their services through the internet. Therefore, it is critical that your website performs well. As a member of the IT technician staff, you receive a call from a fellow employee who informs you that customers are complaining that they can't access your website. After doing a little research, you have determined that you are a victim of a denial of service attack. As a first responder, which of the following is the next BEST step to perform? Contain the issue. Identify the issue further. Eradicate the issue. Investigate how the attack occurred.

Contain the issue. EXPLANATION You have already identified the issue, so the next step is to take actions to stop the attack and contain the damage. Although it is important to preserve as much information as possible to assist in later investigations, it might be better to stop the attack, even if doing so alerts the attacker or results in the loss of evidence regarding the attack. After the attack is contained, the forensic team should be contacted to investigate, eradicate the issue, and perform other tasks to bring this incident to a close.

You are working on your computer when a person from the shipping department delivers a new external solid state drive (SSD) you ordered. When you plug the drive into your USB port, Windows cannot find a suitable device driver for the drive. To BEST resolve this issue, from which of the following Windows consoles would you access Device Manager? Control Panel Services Component Services System Configuration

Control Panel EXPLANATION The best way to add the device driver required for your SSD is to use the Device Manager. The Control Panel is the only listed Windows console that will give you access to the Device Manager console.

Which of the following functions are performed by the TPM? Encrypt data on the hard disk drive. Generate authentication credentials. Perform bulk encryption. Create a hash based on installed system components.

Create a hash based on installed system components. EXPLANATION A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware cryptoprocessor that resides on the motherboard that stores and generates cryptographic keys. Using these keys, the TPM can generate a hash value based on the components installed in the system. The hash value can be used to verify that system components have not been modified when the system boots. Because each system will have a unique hash value, the hash can also be used as a form of identification for the system. Keys generated by the TPM can be used for encryption and authentication, but the TPM does not perform the actual encryption.

You're about to begin an upgrade of a Windows 7 workstation to Windows 10. What should you do before beginning? (Select TWO). Remove all peripherals and expansion boards prior to running the upgrade. Create a system backup of the hard drive prior to running the upgrade. Verify that the computer meets the minimum requirements. Repartition and reformat the hard drive. Install all the applications that will be used on the new system prior to running the upgrade.

Create a system backup of the hard drive prior to running the upgrade. Verify that the computer meets the minimum requirements. EXPLANATION Before beginning the upgrade, you should first verify that the system meets the minimum requirements for Windows 10. Next, you should create a system image backup of the hard drive. The installation routine will back up data automatically; however, you should have your own backup on hand in case something goes wrong during the upgrade process. If it does, you can simply restore the system image and have the original system back up and running.

What is the technology that protects the intellectual property rights of publishers and restricts the use of copyrighted works to those who have paid the necessary licensing fees?

DRM EXPLANATION To protect the intellectual property rights of publishers, several Digital Rights Management, or DRM, technologies have been implemented over the years. The goal of these technologies is to restrict the use of copyrighted works to only those who have paid the necessary licensing fees.

Which of the following is not an example of wireless networking communications? 802.11n DSL Bluetooth Infrared

DSL DSL, or Digital Subscriber Line, is not a form of wireless networking communications. Rather, it is a form of high-speed WAN connection used to connect remote systems to the internet. Wireless communications are types of networking technologies that do not rely upon wires or cables to connect computers together in a networking relationship. 802.11n is the primary wireless standard used. 802.11-compliant networks employ communication signals of 2.4GHz or 5.7 GHz radio waves. Infrared and Bluetooth are other forms of wireless networking communications.

You manage a large number of workstations that belong to a Windows domain. You want to prevent anyone that might try to gain access to a computer from guessing login information by trying multiple passwords. Which default GPO contains a policy you can enable to guard all computers in the domain against this security breach? Default Domain Policy Group Security Policy Group Domain Policy Domain Security Policy

Default Domain Policy EXPLANATION The Default Domain Policy GPO contains a policy you can enable for all computers in a domain that prevents anyone from trying multiple passwords to see if they can guess login information. Group Domain Policy, Group Security Policy, and Domain Security Policy are not default GPOs in Active Directory.

The D:\ drive in your computer has been formatted with NTFS. The Rachel user account has been assigned the following permissions: Allow Full Control to the D:\Reports folder. Deny Full Control to the D:\Sales folder. Deny Full Control to the D:\Reports\2010reports.doc file. Allow Full Control to the D:\Sales\2010sales.doc file. Which of the following BEST describes the effective permissions Rachel will have for both files? Deny Full Control to both. Allow Full Control to D:\Reports\2010reports.doc; Deny Full Control to D:\Sales\2010sales.doc. Allow Full Control to both. Deny Full Control to D:\Reports\2010reports.doc; Allow Full Control to D:\Sales\2010sales.doc.

Deny Full Control to D:\Reports\2010reports.doc; Allow Full Control to D:\Sales\2010sales.doc. EXPLANATION Rachel has Deny Full Control to D:\Reports\2010reports.doc and Allow Full Control to D:\Sales\2010sales.doc because the permissions are explicitly assigned to the file. With NTFS permissions, explicitly assigned permissions take precedence over inherited permissions, even inherited Deny permissions.

Your computer has a single NTFS partition used for the C: drive with the following folders: C:\Confidential C:\PublicReports In the C:\Confidential folder, you edit the properties for the following two files and assign the Deny Read permission to the Users group: Reports.doc Costs.doc The C:\PublicReports folder allows the Full Control permission to the Users group. There are no other permissions assigned except for the default permissions. You then take the following actions: Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports. Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports. Which of the following BEST describes the permission the members of the Users group will have for the two files in the C:\PublicReports folder? Deny Read to Reports.doc; Allow Full Control to Costs.doc. Deny Read to both. Allow Full Control to both. Allow Full Control to Reports.doc; Deny Read to Costs.doc.

Deny Read to Reports.doc; Allow Full Control to Costs.doc. EXPLANATION Users have Deny Read to the Reports.doc file; moving the file to the new folder on the same drive preserves the NTFS permissions assigned to the file. Users have Allow Full Control to the Costs.doc file; copying the file to the new folder removes any existing NTFS permissions so that only inherited permissions apply.

Users have been experiencing periodic system lockups that generate the same error message. After checking Microsoft's website, you find that a hotfix is available to address the issue. What should you do next? Deploy the hotfix for users who have experienced problems. Deploy the hotfix on a test computer. Deploy the hotfix immediately on all company computers. Wait until the next service pack comes out.

Deploy the hotfix on a test computer. EXPLANATION Before deploying a hotfix, you should test it to make sure that you can successfully apply the fix, that the fix corrects the problem, and that it does not cause other problems. After it is tested, you should deploy the hotfix on all computers. Though the hotfix will be included in the next service pack, you should not wait until the service pack is released if you have problems that can be resolved by the hotfix.

On a Windows system, which Task Manager tab would you use to adjust the priority given to a specific program? App History Performance Processes Details Services

Details EXPLANATION Use the Details tab to adjust the priority of a specific process (either application or service). The App History tab lets you monitor apps from the Microsoft Store that are running on the system. The Performance tab shows you overall system utilization and statistics. The Services tab lets you view all running services; you can use this tab to start and stop services. The Processes tab displays a list of running applications; you can use this tab to stop an application that is not responding.

Nathan, a long-time Mac user, has been using his Mac computer for some time now with no issues. Recently, however, he reported that his cursor turns into a pinwheel and he can't do anything. Which of the following would be the BEST first step for troubleshooting this issue? Determine if the problem is caused by software or hardware. Disconnect all external devices except the keyboard and mouse. Install all available software updates. Verify that your disk has enough free space. Update your firmware.

Determine if the problem is caused by software or hardware. EXPLANATION When troubleshooting system lockups, a good place to start is to determine if the problem is being caused by software or hardware. Once you know that you can narrow your troubleshooting steps further. All of the other options are valid ways to troubleshoot and fix problems causing a system lockup, but isolating the issue as a software or hardware issue is the first path to explore.

A technician is troubleshooting a company cell phone that is overheating. Which of the following is the FIRST action the technician should perform? Close all applications. Determine whether the battery is warped or swollen. Update the operating system. Determine whether the user has been streaming data.

Determine whether the battery is warped or swollen. EXPLANATION Swollen, warped, cracked, or broken batteries can be dangerous. If the cell phone is overheating, check for a defective battery first. If the battery is normal, closing applications may reduce the heat generated by the elevated workload. If the battery is normal, updating the operating system may increase efficiency, thereby reducing the workload causing the overheating. If the battery is normal, allowing the phone to rest and cool down will reduce any heat caused by the increased workload of data streaming, such as watching an online movie.

Which component in a laser printer applies toner to the drum, causing the toner to stick to the charged areas on the drum? Primary corona Secondary corona Fuser Developing roller

Developing roller EXPLANATION The developing roller applies toner to the drum. The toner sticks to the charged areas on the drum. The transfer roller charges the paper to attract the toner. The primary corona prepares the photosensitive drum for writing by causing it to receive a negative electrostatic charge. Depending on the printer, the primary corona may be wires or rollers. Fusing rollers attach the toner to the paper by pressing and melting it.

Which of the following input devices uses a stylus? Touch screen Touchpad Digitizer Trackpoint

Digitizer EXPLANATION A digitizer pad is used in Tablet PCs to receive input. Input is written onto the pad with a stylus pen, and those motions are transferred into data that is processed by the system. A touchpad and a touch screen uses your fingers to receive input to move or click the mouse. A trackpoint or pointing stick is a knob that moves the cursor.

Which of the following are antenna types that are commonly used in wireless networks? (Select TWO). Low EMI antenna Directional antenna Full-duplex antenna Half-duplex antenna Omnidirectional antenna High EMI antenna

Directional antenna Omnidirectional antenna EXPLANATION Directional and omnidirectional are two types of antennae commonly used in wireless networks. A directional antenna: Creates a narrow, focused signal in a particular direction, which increases the signal strength and transmission distance. Provides a stronger point-to-point connection and is better equipped to handle obstacles. An omnidirectional antenna: Disperses the RF wave in an equal 360-degree pattern. Provides access to many clients in a radius.

Ted, an employee in the sales department, has asked a coworker, Ann, to update the product descriptions contained in a sales document. Ann can open the file, can't save her changes to it. Which of the following digital security methods is MOST likely preventing her from saving the file? Antivirus software Multifactor authentication Directory permissions Data loss prevention

Directory permissions EXPLANATION Directory permissions can be set to allow or deny users or groups of users from reading, writing, updating, deleting, or executing files. In this scenario, Ann has read permissions, but not write permissions. Multifactor authentication is the process of authenticating a user by validating two or more claims presented by the user, each from a different category, such as a password and the possession of a mobile phone, or a password and a fingerprint. Antivirus software can prevent a user from reading or executing a file. In this scenario, Ann could read the file.Data Loss Prevention (DLP) programs or devices monitor operations such as file transfers and email for user activities that could compromise data security.

Which of the following measures will make your wireless network less visible to the casual attacker? Use a form of authentication other than Open authentication Implement MAC address filtering Disable SSID broadcast Implement WPA2 Personal Change the default SSID

Disable SSID broadcast EXPLANATION Wireless access points are transceivers which transmit and receive radio signals on a wireless network. Each access point has a service set ID (SSID) which identifies the wireless network. By default, access points broadcast the SSID to announce their presence and make it easy for clients to find and connect to the wireless network. You can turn off the SSID broadcast to keep a wireless 802.11 network from being automatically discovered. When SSID broadcasting is turned off, users must know the SSID to connect to the wireless network. This helps to prevent casual attackers from connecting to the network, but any serious hacker with the right tools can still connect to the wireless network. Using authentication with WPA2 helps prevent attackers from connecting to your wireless network, but does not hide the network. Changing the default SSID to a different value does not disable the SSID broadcast. Implementing MAC address filtering prevents unauthorized hosts from connecting to your WAP, but it doesn't disable the SSID broadcast.

A small business named Widgets, Inc. has hired you to evaluate their wireless network security practices. As you analyze their facility, you note the following using a wireless network locator device: They use an 802.11n wireless network. The wireless network is broadcasting the SID Linksys. The wireless network uses WPA2 with AES security. Directional access points are positioned around the periphery of the building. Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend your client do to increase their wireless network security? (Select TWO). Disable SSID broadcast. Upgrade to an 802.11g wireless network. Change the SSID to something other than the default. Implement omnidirectional access points. Configure the wireless network to use WPA with TKIP security.

Disable SSID broadcast. Change the SSID to something other than the default. EXPLANATION You should recommend the following: Disable SSID broadcast. This makes the network harder (but not impossible) to locate. Change the SSID to something other than the default. This obscures what type of AP is in use. Using WPA instead of WPA2 would decrease the security of the wireless network, as would implementing omnidirectional APs. Switching to an 802.11g network would dramatically reduce the speed of the network without providing any security enhancements.

You want to configure User Account Control so that you see the permission prompt only when programs try to make changes to your computer (not when you make changes). You do not want the desktop to be dimmed when the prompt is shown. What should you do? Configure UAC to Always notify Disable UAC Disable Secure Desktop Configure UAC to Never notify

Disable Secure Desktop EXPLANATION When you select the Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer (do not dim my desktop) option, the following happens: Notification happens when programs make changes. Notification does not occur when you make changes. The desktop is not dimmed, which means Secure Desktop is disabled.

You just bought a new notebook. This system uses UEFI firmware and came with Windows 10 preinstalled. However, you want to use Linux on this system. You download your favorite distribution and install it on the system, removing all Windows partitions on the hard disk in the process. When the installation is complete, you find that the operating system won't load when the system is rebooted. Which of the following would allow your computer to boot to Linux? Enable SecureBoot in the UEFI configuration. Reinstall Windows 10 on the system. Disable SecureBoot in the UEFI configuration. Enable the TPM chip on the motherboard. Set the boot order to boot from the hard disk first in the UEFI configuration.

Disable SecureBoot in the UEFI configuration. EXPLANATION You should disable the SecureBoot option in the UEFI configuration. SecureBoot requires the operating system installed on the hard drive to be digitally signed. If it isn't digitally signed, then the UEFI firmware will not boot it by default. Reinstalling Windows 10 doesn't meet the requirements of the scenario. If SecureBoot is already enabled, then the TPM chip on the motherboard must already be enabled. The boot order configuration is not preventing the system from booting in this scenario.

You provide desktop support at the branch office of a bank. One of the Windows workstations you manage is used by a bank employee to set up new customer accounts and fill out customer loan applications. Each user account on the system has been assigned a strong password. A cable lock has been installed to prevent it from being stolen. Which of the following steps could be completed to BEST increase the security of this system? (Select TWO). Move the system to a locked room Disconnect the system from the network Disable all USB ports in the BIOS/UEFI firmware configuration Remove the optical drive Disable the network jack to which the system is connected

Disable all USB ports in the BIOS/UEFI firmware configuration Remove the optical drive Because this system is used in a public are in close proximity to customers, you should disable all USB ports in the BIOS/UEFI firmware configuration and also remove the optical drive if it is capable of burning optical discs. This will help prevent data from being stolen from the system if it is left unattended. Because this system is used by bank personnel to service customers, it really can't be locked in a separate room. Likewise, disconnecting from the network or disabling its network jack would also make it unable to perform its required function.

One of the Windows workstations you manage has three user accounts defined on it. Two of the users are limited users while the third (your account) is an administrative user. Each limited and administrative user has been assigned a strong password. File and folder permissions have been assigned to prevent users from accessing each other's files. Which of the following would MOST likely increase the security of this system? (Select TWO). Change the two limited user accounts to restricted users. Disable autorun on the system. Enable the Guest account. Set a screensaver password. Assign each user a simple password so they won't be tempted to write it down.

Disable autorun on the system. Set a screensaver password. EXPLANATION You could increase the overall security of this system by disabling autorun on the system and setting a screensaver password. Enabling the Guest user account would decrease the security of the system, as would assigning simple passwords to user accounts. There's no such thing as a restricted user on Windows operating systems.

Employees in a small business have a habit of transferring files between computers using a USB flash drive and often bring in files from outside the company. Recently, a computer was infected with malware from a USB flash drive even though the employee did not access any files. Which of the following options would prevent this issue in the future? Disable autorun. Enable BitLocker. Configure screen savers to require a password. Set strong passwords.

Disable autorun. EXPLANATION Disabling autorun would prevent the malware from installing when the flash drive was attached. Setting strong passwords is a best practice, but would not prevent the malware on a flash drive from installing. BitLocker is used to encrypt drives and will not prevent malware on a flash drive from installing. Configure screen savers to require a password is a best practice, but would not prevent the malware on a flash drive from installing.

One of the Windows workstations you manage has four user accounts defined on it. Two of the users are limited users while the third (your account) is an administrative user. The fourth account is the Guest user account, which has been enabled to allow management employees convenient workstation access. Each limited and administrative user has been assigned a strong password. File and folder permissions have been assigned to prevent users from accessing each other's files. Autorun has been disabled on the system. Which of the following actions is MOST likely to increase the security of this system? Enable autorun on the system. Disable the Guest account. Change the two limited user accounts to administrative users. Change your user account to a limited user.

Disable the Guest account. EXPLANATION The Guest user account has no password and provides too much access to the system. Unless you have an overriding reason to do so, the Guest user account should remain disabled. Changing your administrative user account to a limited user would prevent you from completing management tasks on the workstation. Changing the two limited user accounts to administrative users would decrease the security of the system as would enabling autorun functionality.

You use productivity apps on your iPad tablet device while traveling between client sites. You're concerned that you may lose your iPad while on the road and want to protect the data stored on it from being compromised. Currently, your iPad uses a 4-digit PIN number for a passcode. You want to use a more complex alpha-numeric passcode. You also want all data on the device to be erased if the wrong passcode is entered more than 10 consecutive times. What should you do? (Select TWO. Each option is part of the complete solution.) Disable the Simple Passcode option. Enable the Wipe Drive option. Enable the Erase Data option. Enable the Restrictions option. Enable the Complex Passcode option. Enable the Require Passcode option.

Disable the Simple Passcode option. Enable the Erase Data option. EXPLANATION To use a complex alpha-numeric passcode, you must disable the Simple Passcode option under Settings > General. To cause all data on the device to be erased if the wrong passcode is entered more than 10 consecutive times, you must enable the Erase Data option located in the same screen. The Require Passcode option is enabled automatically regardless of what type of passcode you have configured. The Restrictions option is used to restrict access to specific apps. There is no Complex Passcode or Wipe Drive option on an iPad.

Your client has hired you to evaluate their wired network security posture. As you tour their facility, you note the following: Server systems are kept in a locked server room. User accounts on desktop systems have strong passwords assigned. A locked door is used to control access to the work area. Users must use ID badges to enter the area. Users connect their personal mobile devices to their computers using USB cables. Users work in three 8-hour shifts per day. Each computer is shared by three users. Each user has a limited account on the computer they use. Based on this information, which of the following would you MOST likely recommend your client do to increase security? Assign users easy-to-remember simple passwords so they won't be tempted to write them down. Provision each employee with their own computer system. Move the server systems to an empty cubicle in the work area. Disable the USB ports on user's workstations.

Disable the USB ports on user's workstations. Users connecting their personal mobile devices to their computers using USB cables represents a significant security risk. Malware could be spread throughout the network. They could also copy sensitive information from the network to the device. Disabling all USB ports on all workstations will prevent this from happening. You should configure the BIOS/UEFI firmware with a password to prevent users from re-enabling the ports. Moving the server to an empty cubicle and assigning simple passwords will decrease the overall security of the network. It isn't necessary for each employee to have their own dedicated computer system.

You are a security consultant and have been hired to evaluate an organization's physical security practices. All employees must pass through a locked door to enter the main work area. Access is restricted using a smart card reader. Network jacks are provided in the reception area such that employees and vendors can access the company network for work-related purposes. Users within the secured work area have been trained to lock their workstations if they will be leaving them for any period of time. Which of the following recommendations would you MOST likely make to this organization to increase their security? Replace the smart card reader with a key code lock. Move the receptionist's desk into the secured area. Require users to use screensaver passwords. Disable the switch ports connected to the network jacks in the reception area.

Disable the switch ports connected to the network jacks in the reception area. You should recommend the company disable the switch ports connected to the network jacks in the reception area. Having active network jacks in an unsecured area allows anyone who comes into the building to connect to the company's network. Smart card readers are generally considered more secure than key code locks because access codes can be easily shared or observed. Training users to lock their workstations is more secure than screensaver passwords, although this may be a good idea as a safeguard in case a user forgets.

Drag each definition on the left to its corresponding performance counter on the right. Each definition may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Disk queue length Processor utilization Commit charge Disk time Page file usage Memory pages per second

Disk queue length - The number of read and write requests that are waiting to be processed. Processor utilization - The amount of time the processor spends performing non-idle tasks. Commit charge - The amount of memory that has been assigned to running processes. Disk time - The amount of time that the disk subsystem is busy reading from and writing to disk. Page file usage - Memory pages per second - The number of hard faults that occur each second. EXPLANATION Be familiar with the following system performance utilization statistics: Processor utilization is the amount (percentage) of time the processor spends doing non-idle tasks. The % Disk Time statistic identifies the percentage of time that the disk subsystem is busy reading from and writing to disk. The average disk queue length tells you the number of read and write requests that are typically waiting to be processed. The commit charge identifies how much memory has been assigned to running processes. The memory pages per second statistic identifies the number of hard faults that occur each second.

Which component lets you use a notebook system as a desktop system by making it possible to connect a normal-sized external mouse, keyboard monitor, and speakers? Built-in Bluetooth Docking station USB ports Firewire ports Infrared wireless

Docking station EXPLANATION A docking station lets you use the notebook systems as a desktop system. The docking station includes special ports that connect to the back of the notebook and let you use normal-sized external mouse, keyboard, monitor, and speakers.

A technician was able to stop a security attack on a user's computer. When conducting a forensic investigation, which of the following actions should be performed FIRST? Document what's on the screen Stop all running processes Turn off the system Remove the hard drive

Document what's on the screen EXPLANATION Preserving evidence while conducting a forensic investigation is a trade-off. Any attempt to collect evidence may actually destroy the very data needed to identify an attack or attacker. Of the choices given, documenting what's on the screen is the least intrusive and the least likely to destroy critical evidence. Halting, disassembling, or stopping running processes may erase evidence.

Match the Active Directory definition on the left with its corresponding term on the right. (Some definitions do not have an associated term on the right.) Domain Controller Site Subnet Forest Root Domain Tree Root Domain

Domain Controller - A server that holds a copy of the Active Directory database that can be written to. Site - Represents a group of networks that are connected with high-speed links. Subnet - Represents a physical network segment. Forest Root Domain - The first domain created in an Active Directory forest. Tree Root Domain - The highest-level domain in a tree. EXPLANATION The Active Directory structure contains the following components: A tree is a group of related domains that share the same contiguous DNS namespace. A forest is a collection of related domain trees. A domain is an administratively-defined collection of network resources that share a common directory database and security policies. An organizational unit is like a folder that subdivides and organizes network resources within a domain. An object is a network resource as identified within Active Directory.

Which of the following are printer languages? (Select THREE). Escape codes Pascal PrintDef PostScript Capture PCL

Escape codes PostScript PCL EXPLANATION Escape codes were used by early printers. Hewlett-Packard's Printer Control Language (PCL) and Adobe PostScript are two common printer languages on modern printers. Pascal is a procedural programming language that supports structured programming and data structures to encourage good programming practices.

A technician wants to destroy the data on a hard drive and repurpose it as a spare drive. Which of the following data destruction methods allow the reuse of the hard drive? Degaussing Shredding Drive wipe Incineration

Drive wipe EXPLANATION Drive wipe is a software-based method of overwriting the actual data that makes up files on the hard drive. The overwriting process is performed multiple times to remove the magnetic traces of previous data. The drive remains usable after a disk wipe. Incineration completely destroys both the data and the physical hard drive. Degaussing destroys the data on a hard drive, but also removes the low-level formatting. Degaussing can also destroy the electronic hardware in the drive. In either case, the drive will be unusable. Shredding completely destroys both the data and the physical hard drive.

Your company has issued you a new laptop computer that contains a lot of memory and two very large hard disks. Since your computer at home is old and slow, you want to use your work computer for personal use as well. To keep your applications and files totally separate from the company's, you have been told you can run more than one version of Windows on the same computer, one for work, and one for personal use. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet your needs? Dual boot PXE boot Recovery partition boot NetBoot

Dual boot EXPLANATION A dual-boot or multiboot system is where two separate operating systems are installed on the same computer. This is accomplished by installing the second operating system on a separate partition or drive. After the second operating system has been installed, the computer, when started, will present a menu, letting you select which operating system from which to boot. When you are at home, you select the drive with your personal operating system. When at work, you select the driver with your work operating system. PXE is the Preboot eXecution Environment. A PXE boot is the process of loading a temporary operating system from the network from which you would normally install another operating system. Netboot is Apple's version of PXE and is used for the same basic purposes as PXE. The recovery partition boot is the process of booting to a partition that contains a backup image of your system. This is used to recover a corrupted operating system. You cannot run the operating from this recovery partition system as you would for work or home.

Which of the following are examples of social engineering? (Select TWO). Dumpster diving War dialing Port scanning Shoulder surfing Brute force password cracking

Dumpster diving Shoulder surfing EXPLANATION Social Engineering leverages human nature. Internal employees are often the target of trickery, and false trust can quickly lead to a serious breach of information security. Shoulder surfing and dumpster diving are examples of social engineering. Shoulder surfing is the act of looking over an authorized user's shoulder in hopes of obtaining an access code or credentials. Dumpster diving involves searching through trash or other discarded items to obtain credentials or information that may facilitate further attacks. These low-tech attack methods are often the first course of action that a hacker pursues. Port scanning and war dialing are technical attacks that seek to take advantage of vulnerabilities in systems or networks. Brute force password-cracking software tries to identify a password by trying every possible letter, number, and symbol combination until the correct one is found.

Jan, a user in the documentation department, printed a very large document. When Jan's boss walked by the printer and saw the large stack of papers, he called you and asked if you could configure the printer to help reduce the amount of paper used by her department. Which of the following printer configuration would BEST facilitate the manager's request? Collating Faxing Orientation Duplexing

Duplexing EXPLANATION Duplexing is the process of printing on both sides of the paper, which could reduce the amount of paper used by about 50%. Page orientation is the direction in which a document is printed. The two basic types of page orientation are portrait (vertical) and landscape (horizontal). Faxing is the telephonic transmission of scanned printed material (both text and images), normally to a telephone number connected to a printer or other output device. Collating is gathering and arranging individual sheets or other printed components into a pre-determined sequence.

You want to install Windows on a mirrored disk array. You run the motherboard disk configuration utility and create the RAID 1 array, then configure the system to boot from the Windows installation disc. The Windows installation starts, but does not detect the RAID array. Which of the following will MOST likely allow the RAID array to be detected? During the installation, browse to and select the appropriate driver for your RAID controller when prompted. In the UEFI configuration, set the SATA mode to be AHCI. In the UEFI configuration, set the SATA mode to IDE. In the UEFI configuration, configure the boot order to boot from the hard drive instead of the optical drive.

During the installation, browse to and select the appropriate driver for your RAID controller when prompted. EXPLANATION During the installation, browse to and select the appropriate driver for your RAID controller when prompted where you want to install Windows. Windows requires the drivers for the RAID controller to be able to access the RAID array. When using a RAID array, the SATA mode in the UEFI configuration should be set to RAID. This mode must be selected for you to access the motherboard RAID configuration utility and create the array. Using IDE or AHCI for the SATA mode would disable the RAID controller on the motherboard, and each storage device would be seen as a separate disk. Booting to the hard drive would not work because the installation files are stored on the optical disc, not the hard drive.

A user has a file that contains sensitive data. Which of the following can be used to encrypt a single file? Single sign-on Administrative share BitLocker EFS

EFS EXPLANATION Encrypting File Server (EFS) is a Windows feature that can be used to encrypt a single file or multiple files and folders. BitLocker is a Windows feature that encrypts an entire disk. A single sign-on permits a user and their programs to use their credentials to automatically log in to other sites and services; it's not used for encryption. An administrative share is used by administrators to access system drives; it's not used for encryption.

You are troubleshooting a client connectivity problem on an Ethernet network. The client system has intermittent connectivity to the network. You discover that the unshielded twisted pair patch cable runs 75 feet from the wall outlet and then passes through the ceiling and over several florescent light fixtures before reaching the client system. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the connectivity problem? EMI interference. The UTP cable does not support transmission distances of 75 feet without signal regeneration. Failed patch cable. Crosstalk. Attenuation.

EMI interference. In this case, the most likely cause of the problem is electromagnetic interference (EMI) from the florescent lights. Cables run near air conditioners, lights, or other large electronic devices can create interference for data traveling through the cable. UTP cables in an Ethernet network have a maximum segment length of 100 meters. Distances beyond this length may require signal regeneration. Devices such as Ethernet switches provide signal regeneration. Attenuation describes the process of signal degradation as it passes through network media. As mentioned, UTP cables in an Ethernet network can run 100 meters before attenuation becomes a significant problem. Crosstalk refers to the interference caused by overlapping signals when cables are run in close proximity to each other.

You want to configure your Windows 10 workstation so that it can get Windows updates directly from other Windows 10 systems on the network that have already downloaded them from Microsoft. Click the Settings app option you would use to do this.

EXPLANATION If you select the Choose How Updates are Delivered option in the Settings app, you can configure your system to get Windows update directly from Microsoft or from other workstations on the local network that have already download the updates your system needs. You can also configure your system to deliver updates to other Windows 10 systems.

Recently, a Windows 10 update was automatically downloaded and installed on your Windows 10 system. After you install the update, your contact manager database application no longer works correctly. You want to uninstall the latest updates to see if the application starts working again. Click the option you would use in the Settings app to do this.

EXPLANATION If you select the View Your Update History option in the Settings app, you can view a list of Windows updates that have been installed on your system. You also are presented with the option to uninstall an update.

System Restore has been enabled for all volumes on a Windows system. Recently, a new network driver was installed on the system. However, the driver code contained bugs, and now your network board no longer functions. You are unable to access the internet to download an older version of the driver. You need to revert the system to a prior restore point that was taken before the driver was installed. Click the option you would use to do this.

EXPLANATION Select the System Restore option to revert the system to a prior restore point. This will restore the system to the state it was in when the restore point was taken, including the network board driver. You enable system protection on a volume by clicking Configure. The Create option is used to manually create a restore point. The Advanced tab is used to manage advanced system settings, such as visual effects and virtual memory.

You need to enable Remote Desktop on a user's Windows 10 system so that you can manage it over the network from your office. Click the Control Panel option you use to accomplish this task. (no image)

EXPLANATION To enable Remote Desktop on a Windows 10 system, you access Control Panel and select System and Security > Allow remote access. The Network and Internet option in Control Panel is used to manage network connections. The User Accounts option is used to manage user accounts.

System Restore is currently disabled for all volumes on a Windows 10 system. You need to enable System Protection for the C: volume. Click the option you would select to do this.

EXPLANATION To enable system protection in this scenario, you would select the C: volume from the Available Drives list and then click Configure. The System Restore option is used to revert the system to an existing restore point. The Create option is used to manually create a restore point. However, this can't be done until System Protection is first enabled on the volume. The Advanced tab is used to manage advanced system settings, such as visual effects and virtual memory.

You want to configure User Account Control so that when a UAC prompt is shown, the desktop is not dimmed, allowing you to continue working without responding to the prompt immediately. What should you do? In the Control Panel, select Programs, then Programs and Features. Edit settings in the Local Security Policy. In the Control Panel, go to System and Security, then System. In the Control Panel, select System and Security and then System. Click System protection.

Edit settings in the Local Security Policy. EXPLANATION To see the prompt without dimming the desktop, you need to disable the Secure Desktop. The Secure Desktop dims the desktop and forces you to respond to the UAC prompt before you can do anything else. You can configure the Local Security Policy to disable the Secure Desktop. The only UAC setting available under User Accounts is to enable or disable UAC (disabling UAC prevents all prompts). Choose Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer (do not dim my desktop) to notify you when programs make changes (but not when you make changes) and without dimming the desktop.

You have just set up a new laser printer for the company president on her Windows workstation. You have installed the printer and the drivers. What should you do next? Document the steps you took to complete the configuration. Report to your supervisor that the job was completed. Edit the printer properties to configure device-specific settings. Share the printer over the network with the rest of the organization.

Edit the printer properties to configure device-specific settings. EXPLANATION After installing a printer, you should configure device-specific settings before performing any further tasks. Documenting the steps you took to complete the configuration and reporting to your supervisor that the job was completed are good things to do, but not until after you have configured device-specific settings. Sharing the printer over the network is not required unless specified in the implementation plan or statement of work.

You've just set up a color laser printer on a customer's Windows workstation. You've connected it to the workstation using a USB cable and have loaded the appropriate drivers. Which of the following are the BEST steps to take next? (Select TWO) Edit the printer properties to configure paper tray and other device-specific settings. Verify that it is working correctly by printing a test page. Use Driver Rollback to make a backup copy of the new printer driver. Use the USBTEST utility in Windows to verify that the USB connection is working properly. Set the printer driver to print grayscale by default to reduce color toner consumption. Do nothing. Your work is done.

Edit the printer properties to configure paper tray and other device-specific settings. Verify that it is working correctly by printing a test page. EXPLANATION After you install a new printer for a customer, client, or user, configure device-specific settings and then print a test page to verify that the printer is working properly.

The D:\ drive in your computer has been formatted with NTFS. The Sales group on your computer has been given Allow Full Control to the D:\Sales folder. The Rachel user account is a member of the Sales group. Which of the following will BEST prevent Rachel from accessing the D:\Sales\2010sales.doc file (1 without affecting her ability to access any other files in that folder and (2 without affecting the abilities of any other users? Edit the properties for the file; assign the Sales group the Deny Full Control permission. Edit the properties for the folder; assign the Sales group the Deny Full Control permission. Remove Rachel from the Sales group. Edit the properties for the file; assign Rachel the Deny Full Control permission. Edit the properties for the folder; assign Rachel the Deny Full Control permission.

Edit the properties for the file; assign Rachel the Deny Full Control permission. EXPLANATION To prevent Rachel from accessing the one file, assign the user account the Deny Full Control permission to the file. Deny permissions override Allow permissions. Removing Rachel from the group or denying permissions to the folder would prevent her from accessing all files in the folder. Denying permissions for the group would affect all group members, not just the one user.

Employees complain to the company IT division that they are spending considerable time and effort discarding unwanted junk email. Which of the following should be implemented? Multifactor authentication Antivirus Email filtering Firewall

Email filtering EXPLANATION While email filtering can be implemented by each user, it can also be enabled in incoming mail services to reduce spam and other unwanted email by blocking email based on the sender address or by content. Antivirus software can protect computers from viruses found in emails, but is not used to filter email content. Firewalls are placed between the company network and the internet to filter network traffic at the IP level. Normally, they do not filter email based on content. Multifactor authentication combines a strong password with at least one other form of authentication before granting access. It does not filter email.

Which of the following statements about an SSL VPN are true? (Select TWO). Encrypts the entire communication session. Uses UDP port 500. Uses pre-shared keys for authentication. Uses port 443. Provides message integrity using HMAC. Encapsulates packets by adding a GRE header.

Encrypts the entire communication session. Uses port 443. EXPLANATION SSL VPN uses the SSL protocol to secure communications. SSL VPN: Authenticates the server to the client using public key cryptography and digital certificates. Encrypts the entire communication session. Uses port 443, which is already open on most firewalls. IPsec uses pre-shared keys to provide authentication with other protocols. IPsec also uses HMAC to provide message integrity checks. GRE headers are used exclusively by the GRE tunneling protocol. UDP port 500 is used by the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP).

You are configuring the local security policy of a Windows system. You want to prevent users from reusing old passwords. You also want to force them to use a new password for at least five days before changing it again. Which of the following policies are BEST to configure? (Select TWO). Password complexity Enforce password history Maximum password age Minimum password age Minimum password length

Enforce password history Minimum password age EXPLANATION Set the Enforce password history policy to prevent users from reusing old passwords. Set the Minimum password age policy to prevent users from changing passwords too soon. Passwords must remain the same for at least the time period specified. Use the Maximum password age policy to force periodic changes to the password. After the maximum password age has been reached, the user must change the password. Use the Password complexity to require that passwords include letters, numbers, and symbols. This makes it harder for hackers to guess or crack passwords. Minimum password length determines how how many characters must be in the password.

You want to use Hibernation on your Windows notebook. What does it need to have? A Pentium IV or better processor Enough free hard drive space UPS A minimum of 1 GB of RAM

Enough free hard drive space EXPLANATION Hibernation saves everything in RAM to the hard drive. Therefore, you need at least as much free disk space as you have RAM. Hibernation does not depend on the processor capabilities or the amount of RAM. A UPS is used to supply power to a device if the regular AC power is interrupted.

What is the recommended size of the paging file under normal circumstances on a Windows 10 system with 8 GB of RAM installed? No paging file is required. As large as possible. No more than three times the amount of physical RAM. Equal to the amount of physical RAM. Twice the amount of physical RAM.

Equal to the amount of physical RAM. Unless you are running applications that require large amounts of swap file space, the optimal setting for virtual memory swap file size is about the same size as the amount of physical RAM in the computer. Systems that have a very small amount of physical RAM installed may require a page file that is twice the size of the installed RAM. Systems with a moderate amount of physical RAM installed may require a page file that is about 1.5 times the size of the installed RAM. Systems with very large amounts of physical RAM installed typically don't require a large page file. If the paging file is too small, the system will spend excess time swapping memory data into and out of the swap file. This condition is known as thrashing, where system performance (particularly usability) becomes very poor, but hard drive activity is almost constant.

You provide desktop support for a small company. The company has two locations in the same city, but they are several miles away. You get a call from a user who is having problems installing a new device. You try to tell the user how to update the driver for the device over the phone, but he is having a hard time understanding your directions and is becoming frustrated. What should you do? Escalate the call to another technician or your supervisor. Tell the user to wait until you are scheduled to be in that location. Drive to the other location as soon as possible and update the driver. Establish a Remote Desktop connection and update the driver.

Establish a Remote Desktop connection and update the driver. EXPLANATION As long as it is set up correctly, you can use Remote Desktop to connect to the user's system remotely. You can then perform tasks as if you were at the computer.

Which of the following security measures is a form of biometrics? Chassis intrusion detection TPM BIOS password Fingerprint scanner

Fingerprint scanner A fingerprint scanner is a type of biometrics. The fingerprint scanner uses the ridges of your skin known as ridge minutiae. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a special chip on the motherboard that generates and stores cryptographic keys to verify that the hardware has not changed. This value can be used to prevent the system from booting if the hardware has changed. Chassis intrusion detection helps you identify when a system case has been opened. A BIOS password controls access to the BIOS setup program.

Which of the following is the BEST device to deploy to protect your private network from a public, untrusted network? Gateway Router Firewall Hub

Firewall A firewall is the best device to deploy to protect your private network from a public, untrusted network. Firewalls are used to control traffic entering and leaving your trusted network environment. Firewalls can manage traffic based on source or destination IP address, port number, service protocol, application or service type, user account, and even traffic content. Routers offer some packet-based access control, but not as extensively as a firewall. Hubs and gateways are not sufficient for managing the interface between a trusted network and an untrusted network.

For some time now, you have been using an application on your Windows 10 computer at home and while in the office. This application communicates with the internet. Today, your team lead decided to have a special team meeting at a local hotel. During this meeting, you obtained access to the internet using the hotel's network, but when you tried to run your application, it could not communicate with the internet. Which of the following Control Panel settings is MOST likely causing this behavior? Privacy settings Programs settings Firewall settings Security settings

Firewall settings EXPLANATION Microsoft's Windows Defender Firewall lets you configure which applications have access in and out of your computer by means of the internet. This helps you to protect your computer, your data, and even your identity, and the program runs in the background. Since the application had access at home (a private network) and at the office (a domain network), but not in the hotel (a guest or public network), the most likely scenario is that this application is being blocked by the firewall's Guest and Public Networks settings. The Privacy settings control the level of access cookies have to your machine. Security settings is where you maintain the settings for each of your four internet zones. The zones can have their security set from medium to high. Security Settings is where you can enable or disable Protected Mode. Since the only change in your program access was moving to the hotel, it is not likely that Protected Mode is blocking access. Programs settings let you define your default web browser and allow or block add-ons or plug-ins used to accelerate multimedia performance, including Active X features.

When you print from your laser printer, the paper contains faint images from previous printouts. Which of the following components is MOST likely the cause? (Select TWO). Transfer roller Secondary corona wire Fluorescent lamp Rubber scraper Primary corona wire

Fluorescent lamp Rubber scraper EXPLANATION After a page is printed, a rubber scraper removes any remaining toner from the OPC drum. A fluorescent lamp removes any remaining electrical charge. If images from previous print jobs show up on the page, check these two components. The primary corona charges the drum prior to writing the image. The secondary corona charges the paper to attract the toner. If these two components are faulty, the current image might have streaks or missing parts. If the toner is not sticking to the paper, check the transfer roller.

You have just purchased a used laptop, and you want to configure it to hibernate when you press the power button. You edit the Power Options settings and enable hibernation, then you configure the power button to trigger hibernation. Everything works fine for several weeks. However, one day when you press the power button, the laptop does not hibernate. Which of the following will BEST resolve this issue? Charge the battery before pressing the power button. Configure the laptop to use the Max Battery power scheme. Free up disk space. Enable ACPI support in the BIOS.

Free up disk space. EXPLANATION The computer must have sufficient disk space to enter hibernation. The contents of RAM are saved to the hard disk. ACPI support is already enabled; otherwise, you would not have been able to configure hibernation in the first place. Changing the power scheme or charging the battery has no effect on a device's ability to enter hibernation.

You have a computer that runs Windows 7, and you want to install Windows 10. You are not concerned about keeping any of the existing data currently on the drive, and you want to do a clean install. After placing the Windows 10 installation DVD in the optical drive, you restart the computer, but it does not boot to the DVD, and you are unable to install Windows. Which of the following are the BEST methods for installing Windows from the DVD? (Select TWO. Each choice is a complete solution.) While the computer is rebooting, press and hold the Windows + C. While the computer is rebooting, press and hold Ctrl + C. From the UEFI or BIOS firmware, change the boot order. While the computer is rebooting, press the Ctrl + Alt + Del keys. While the computer is rebooting, press the boot menu function key.

From the UEFI or BIOS firmware, change the boot order. While the computer is rebooting, press the boot menu function key. EXPLANATION Since the computer did not recognize the DVD on restart, you will need to either change the boot order from within the computes UEFI or BIOS firmware settings, or you can press the boot menu key, which will allow you to boot from the DVD. The exact function key that can be pressed is determined by the computer's manufacturer. Examples include, F8, F12, F11, and F10. The other key combinations listed in the question will not allow you to boot to the DVD.

If a folder exists on an NTFS partition, which permission does a user need to set security permissions on the folder? Execute Full Control Write Read

Full Control A user must have the Full Control permission to set NTFS security permissions. Write permissions allow a user to change folder or file data and attributes. Modify permissions include all Read & Execute and Write actions and the ability to add or delete files. Read permissions allow a user to view folder details and attributes.

A user has complained about not being able to remove a program that is no longer needed on a computer. The Programs option is not available in Control Panel. You suspect that a policy is enabled that hides this option from the user. But after opening the Local Group Policy Editor, you see that the policy to hide Programs is not configured. You know that other users in this domain can access the Programs option. To determine whether the policy is enabled, where should you look next? The Local Group Policy. GPOs linked to the domain that contains this user.s object. GPOs linked to organizational units that contain this user's object. The Default Domain Policy GPO.

GPOs linked to organizational units that contain this user's object. EXPLANATION You should look at GPOs linked to organizational units that contain this user's object to see where the Hide Programs and Features Page policy might be enabled. If the policy was enabled in a GPO linked to the domain, it would be applied to all users in the domain. The next level GPOs are applied from is GPOs linked to organizational units that contain the user's object.

After arriving in a new city today, a traveling sales team member calls you stating that his wireless connection no longer works. He has checked the wireless configuration, and he knows it to be correct because it was working yesterday. What should you do first? Have him purchase a USB wireless card to use until you can check the problem yourself. Have him verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. Have him manually configure the wireless card to use only 802.11b. Have him update the drivers for the wireless card.

Have him verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. EXPLANATION Have the user verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. Many built-in wireless cards can be turned off and on through a switch on the laptop case. Because this is a likely problem and easy to check, you should verify the switch's placement before trying other solutions.

A user calls to report a problem. She is trying to install an application on her new Windows 10 system, but cannot. Her user account is a member of the Users group on the system. What do you suspect is causing the installation issue? Her group membership does not allow her to install new software. The application is incompatible with Windows 10. Only apps from the Microsoft Store can be installed on a Windows 10 system. She is not a member of the Power Users group.

Her group membership does not allow her to install new software EXPLANATION Members of the Users group are not allowed to make system-wide changes to the system, such as installing new applications. Only users who are members of the Administrators group can install new applications. On modern versions of Windows, users who are members of Power Users are not allowed to install applications. In fact, the Power Users group is only included for backwards compatibility with older versions of Windows. Windows 10 can run traditional desktop applications as well as apps from the Microsoft Store.

Which of the following terms describes a Windows operating system patch that corrects a specific problem and is released on a short-term, periodic basis? Kernel fix kit Hotfix Service pack Targeted software patch

Hotfix EXPLANATION A hotfix is an operating system patch that corrects a specific known problem. Service packs include a collection of hotfixes and other system updates. Service packs are not released as often, but contain all hotfixes released to that time.

Ben, an employee in the legal department, has created several sensitive documents on his computer that must be made available to all members of the executive staff working in the same building. Due to the sensitive nature of these document, Ben not only wants to restrict access to the files, but also make it impossible for anyone else in the company to even know where they are stored unless specifically told. Which of the following would MOST likely fulfil Ben's needs? VPN connection Network share Remote desktop connection Administrative share Hidden share

Hidden share EXPLANATION An hidden share is a form of a network share that cannot be viewed by others when they are searching for the shared location. These shares are created by adding a dollar sign ($) to the end of the share when it is created. By using this type of share, Ben could send the path to those requiring access, and then those with rights could see and access the files. A network share would fulfill all of Ben's requirements except making it hidden from those that may want to search for their location. Using a network share would make a hacker's job one step easier. Administrative shares are created by the operating system. Specific share permissions and file security cannot be set. A VPN, or virtual private network, allows you to create a secure tunnel between your company network and a remote location over an existing connection, usually the internet. A VPN is not required to share folders with fellow employees in the same local network. A remote desktop connection gives someone the ability to log on to another computer from their computer. This would not be a suitable solution, as it would be difficult to limit rights.

The TCP/IP session state between two computers on a network is being manipulated by an attacker such that she is able to insert tampered packets into the communication stream. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack which as occurred in this scenario? Spear phishing Hijacking Phishing Whaling

Hijacking EXPLANATION A hijacking attack has occurred. Hijacking happens when the TCP/IP session state is manipulated such that a third party is able to insert alternate packets into the communication stream. A phishing scam employs an email pretending to be from a trusted organization, asking to verify personal information or send a credit card number. In spear phishing, attackers gather information about the victim, such as identifying which online banks they use. They then send phishing emails for the specific bank that the victim uses. Whaling is another form of phishing that is targeted to senior executives and high-profile victims.

A technician is assisting a user with rebooting a frozen laptop that does not respond to keystrokes or mouse clicks. Which of the following is the SIMPLEST way to power down the laptop? Press Ctl + Alt + Del and open the task manager. Hold down the power button for several seconds. Remove the battery. Disconnect the power adapter.

Hold down the power button for several seconds. EXPLANATION Many laptops power off when the power button is held down for several seconds. Pressing Ctl + Alt + Del on a Windows computer opens the task manager. The task manager can be used to close frozen applications. However, in this scenario, the laptop does not respond to keystrokes. Disconnecting the power adapter and removing the battery interrupts the power to the laptop, forcing it to shut down. Both must be done to interrupt the power. Holding down the power button for five seconds is an easier option.

Two employees are unable to access any websites on the internet, but can still access servers on the local network, including those residing on other subnets. Other employees are not experiencing the same problem. Which of the following actions would BEST resolve this issue? Use ipconfig to confirm that APIPA has not assigned an IP address. Identify the filter settings on the proxy server for specific internet sites. Identify the proxy server name and port number in Internet Options. Reconfigure the clients to send all traffic directly to the ISP, bypassing the proxy server.

Identify the proxy server name and port number in Internet Options. EXPLANATION In this case, you should identify the proxy server name and port number in Internet Options. Windows automatically detects and uses a proxy server if one is on the network. If the proxy server is not detected, you should manually configure the proxy settings. If you bypass the proxy server, the clients are no longer managed by the proxy server. This is not a recommended solution. Because other users are not experiencing the same problems, the filtering settings on the proxy server for specific internet sites are probably not the cause of the problem. IP addresses assigned by APIPA force the client to the 169.254.0.0 subnet. This would prevent the client form accessing internal servers that use static IP addresses, especially those on different subnets.

Why is it important to have your mobile device charger plugged in while it is receiving an operating system update? If the battery dies during the update, the operating system could become corrupted. The device must be connected to and charging from a computer so the update can be performed from the app store. Downloads run faster when the charger is plugged in. It is not important for the charger to be plugged in, since the update can be received wirelessly.

If the battery dies during the update, the operating system could become corrupted. EXPLANATION Being plugged in to the charger does not affect the speed of the update, but if the battery dies during the update, the operating system could become corrupted. Mobile devices can receive their operating system updates wirelessly so the device is no longer required to be logged into the app store (for example, iOS devices are no longer required to be updated through iTunes).

If a printer is not Wi-Fi capable, how can it be set up to provide the most reliable wireless printing? Share the printer from a computer that has a wireless network connection. If the printer is Bonjour-enabled, it can be discovered by workstations using the Bonjour service. If the printer has a USB port, plug in a USB wireless adapter. If the printer is Ethernet capable, it can be connected to the network through a wireless router.

If the printer is Ethernet capable, it can be connected to the network through a wireless router. EXPLANATION If the printer is not Wi-Fi capable but has an Ethernet port, it can be connected to the network through a wireless router. Just use an Ethernet cable to connect the printer to a port on the wireless router. Users on the same network as the wireless router will be able to send jobs to the printer as if the printer has a wired connection. (All users will have to install the driver for that printer on their workstations.) The wireless router option is more reliable than connecting the printer to a workstation that has a wireless connection to the network and then sharing the printer from that workstation. The workstation performs the same role as the wireless router, but the workstation will be shut down a lot more often than the wireless router would be. A USB wireless adapter will not provide a wireless connection for a printer because the adapter needs to be connected to a device with an operating system and the capacity to install drivers. Bonjour can only be used for wireless printing if the printer is already using a Wi-Fi connection to the network.

You are updating the operating system on your iPad. Your iPad is connected to your computer and you are using iTunes to install the update. Which of the following BEST describes what would happen to your iPad if you disconnect it before the operating system update is complete? If you disconnect during the update, the operating system could become corrupted. The update would continue wirelessly (if a wireless network is available). iTunes would pause the update process until you reconnect your iPad to your computer. Your iPad would revert to the previous version of the operating system, so you'd have to start the update again from the beginning to get the update.

If you disconnect during the update, the operating system could become corrupted. EXPLANATION It is very important that you not disconnect your iPad while the update is in progress. If you disconnect your iPad while the update is in progress, the operating system could become corrupted. The update will not pause if you disconnect; it will crash. It will not continue through a wireless connection. The iPad will not just revert to the previous version of the operating system.

You have created a custom Library using D:\Stats as the path to the Library. You want the files in the D:\Reports folder to be available in the Library you created. The files should also still be accessible using the D:\Reports folder. Which of the following steps would BEST meet your requirements? Include the D:\Reports folder in the library. Copy the D:\Reports folder to the library. Create a new library from the D:\Reports folder. Move the D:\Reports folder to the D:\Stats folder.

Include the D:\Reports folder in the library. EXPLANATION When you include a folder in a library, the files in the folder are available through the library. To add folders to a library: Edit a library's properties and click Include a folder. Right-click a folder and select Include in library. Copying the folder into the library would give you two different copies of the folder. Moving the folder into the D:\Stats folder would change the original path to the folder. Creating a new library would not include the folder in the first library you created.

A local dentist has contracted with you to implement a network in her new office. Because of security concerns related to patient privacy laws, she has asked that the new network meet the following criteria: No one from the internet should be able to access her internal network. Email messages should be scanned for spam, phishing attacks, and malware before they reach users' workstations. Employees access to non-work-related websites, especially sites that contain inappropriate content, should be blocked. A system should be put in place to detect and prevent external attacks on her network. Which of the following would BEST meet your client's criteria? Implement a firewall. Implement a content filter. Implement an email security appliance. Implement an all-in-one security appliance. Implement an intrusion prevention system (IPS).

Implement an all-in-one security appliance. You should implement an all-in-one security appliance. The network criteria specified by your client requires several different network devices to be implemented, including a firewall, an email scanner, a content filter, and an intrusion prevention system. While you could purchase each device separately, the cost of doing so would probably be quite high. Because you are working with a small business, an all-in-one security appliance that includes all of these functions in a single device would be more cost-effective and easier for you to manage.

Your organization is frequently visited by sales reps. While on-site, they frequently plug their notebook systems into any available wall jack, hoping to get internet connectivity. You are concerned that allowing them to do this could result in the spread of malware throughout your network. Which of the following would BEST protect you from guest malware infection? (Select TWO). Implement SNMP traps on your network switch. Enable port analysis on your network switch. Implement static IP addressing. Implement MAC address filtering. Implement private IP addressing with a Network Address Translation (NAT) router facing the internet.

Implement static IP addressing. Implement MAC address filtering. EXPLANATION You should consider enabling MAC address filtering. MAC filtering is configured on your network switches and is used to restrict network access to only systems with specific MAC addresses. You could also consider assigning static IP addresses to your network hosts. By not using DHCP, visitor laptops connected to a wired Ethernet jack won't receive a valid IP address and won't be able to communicate with other hosts on your network. Implementing SNMP traps, port analysis, or a NAT router will not prevent visitors from connecting to your network.

You have a laptop running Windows 10. User Account Control (UAC) has been disabled. How would you re-enable UAC on the laptop? (Select TWO. Each choice is complete solution.) In the Control Panel, select System and Security and then System. Click System protection. In the Control Panel, select User Accounts and then Credential Manager. In the Control Panel, select User Accounts and then User Accounts. In the Control Panel, select System and Security and then System. Click Advanced system settings. In the Control Panel, select System and Security and then Security and Maintenance.

In the Control Panel, select User Accounts and then User Accounts. In the Control Panel, select System and Security and then Security and Maintenance. EXPLANATION To configure UAC in Windows 10: In Control Panel, go to User Accounts. Select User Accounts, then Change User Account Control settings. In the Control Panel, go to System and Security. Select Security and Maintenance > Security and then select Change settings under User Account Control. You can also use the Change User Account Control settings link in System and Security. Edit the local security policy to configure UAC and control settings not available through the Control Panel.

You need to use Task Manager to analyze memory utilization on a Windows system. For example, you need to see how much system RAM is currently in use and how much is available. Click on the tab in Task Manager that you would use to do this.

In this scenario, you would access the Performance tab and then select the Memory graph. When you do, various memory utilization statistics are displayed. The Processes tab displays a list of running applications on the system. The App History tab displays performance statistics for apps from the Microsoft Store that are running on the system. The Startup tab displays a list of applications that are automatically launched at system boot. The Users tab displays utilization statistics for each user logged into the system. The Details tab displays extended information about each process running on the system. The Services tab is used to view information about the services configured on the system.

You're using the vi editor to manage a text file on a Linux system. You want to type new text into the file. When you type, you want the existing text that comes after the cursor to be pushed down. Which mode provides this function? Insert Mode Command Mode Text Mode Replace Mode Command Line Mode

Insert Mode EXPLANATION In the vi editor, you need to switch to Insert Mode to be able to type new text in the file and have existing text that comes after the cursor pushed down. In Replace Mode, the existing text that comes after the cursor would be replaced when you typed new text. In Command Line Mode, you can enter commands to save the file and exit, exit the file without saving, save the file with a new name, etc. In Command Mode, you can perform many useful editing tasks in this mode, such as cut and paste, copy and paste, deleting text, etc. There is no Text Mode in vi.

You have a notebook computer with a built-in wireless network card. One day, it stops working. Because the network card is integrated onto the motherboard, you do not want to replace the entire motherboard. What can you use to connect to the wireless network? (Select TWO.) Insert an ExpressCard wireless network card. Insert a wireless USB network card. Install a PCI wireless network card. Enable the infrared port on the notebook. Enable the Bluetooth adapter on the notebook.

Insert an ExpressCard wireless network card. Insert a wireless USB network card. EXPLANATION You can add devices to a notebook computer using USB or ExpressCard interfaces. You cannot add a PCI card to a notebook. The infrared port would not be able to connect to the wireless network as it uses a different signal type to communicate between devices. Bluetooth is used to connect to personal area networks (PANs), not LANs.

There are two main types of firewalls that you should be familiar with. Which of the following describes a feature of a network-based firewall? Inspects traffic as it flows between networks. Is executed directly on the servers that need to be protected. Inspects traffic received by a specific host. Works with a single network interface.

Inspects traffic as it flows between networks. A network-based firewall inspects traffic as it flows between networks. A host-based firewall inspects traffic received by a specific host. Host-based is installed directly on a host and only requires a single interface. A network-based firewall requires two (or more) interfaces.

You need to install Windows 10 on a new computer system that uses a SATA SSD device to store data. Which of the following is the BEST method for installing Windows 10 on this system? Load the drivers for the SSD device during the initial phase of the Windows installation. Add a standard hard disk to the system and install Windows on the disk instead of the SSD device. Set the SATA configuration in the UEFI firmware to RAID. Install Windows the same way you would a system that uses a standard hard disk drive.

Install Windows the same way you would a system that uses a standard hard disk drive. EXPLANATION Because the SSD drive uses a SATA interface, you can install Windows on it the same way that you would on a standard hard disk drive. It's unlikely that you would need to load special drivers to access the SSD device. Setting the SATA configuration to RAID in the UEFI firmware would require at least one more identical SSD device to be added to the system and a RAID array be configured before you could install Windows.

You have been asked to help a small office with a limited budget set up and configure a Windows network. There are only five computers in this office. In addition to the ability to share network resources, security is a top priority. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation? Install a HomeGroup to allow each computer to control which items are shared and who can access them. Install a HomeGroup to provide a single login and simplify security and sharing. Install a WorkGroup to provide a single login and simplify security and sharing. Install a WorkGroup to allow each device to control what is shared and with whom.

Install a WorkGroup to allow each device to control what is shared and with whom. EXPLANATION With only five PCs in this company, a Windows WorkGroup will let you organize your computers in a peer-to-peer network. This WorkGroup network lets you share files, internet access, and printers between the five employees. Unlike Windows HomeGroup, a WorkGroup has no centralized authority. Therefore, each workstation controls the database of users and privileges. Each device that is part of the WorkGroup can allow access on a user-by-user or group-by-group basis. The HomeGroup is the least secure approach to networking and sharing. A HomeGroup allows anyone with access to the Homegroup access to everything shared on any computer in the group. A single password is used for access to the group, providing equal access to all joined devices.

You're troubleshooting an older laser printer that is creating accordion jams where the paper is crumpled as it exits the printer moving into the output tray. Which of the following will MOST likely fix this problem? Replace the fuser wires. Replace the toner cartridge. Install a maintenance kit. Replace the drum. Use heavier paper.

Install a maintenance kit. EXPLANATION You should install a maintenance kit. Accordion jams are usually caused by worn rollers. Replacement rollers are included in most maintenance kits. Replacing the cartridge, drum, or fuser wires is necessary to correct print quality problems.

You would like to control internet access based on users, time of day, and websites visited. Which of the following actions would BEST meet your criteria? Configure the Local Security Policy of each system to add access restrictions based on time of day and content. Configure a packet-filtering firewall. Add rules to allow or deny access based on time of day and content. Install a proxy server. Allow internet access only through the proxy server. Configure internet zones using Internet Options. Enable Windows Firewall on each system. Add or remove exceptions to control access based on time of day and content.

Install a proxy server. Allow internet access only through the proxy server. EXPLANATION Use a proxy server to control internet access based on users, time of day, and websites visited. You configure these rules on the proxy server, and all internet access requests are routed through the proxy server. Use a packet filtering firewall, such as Windows Firewall, to allow or deny individual packets based on characteristics such as source or destination address and port number. Configure internet zones to identify trusted or restricted websites and to control the types of actions that can be performed when going to those sites.

A user has created a complex spreadsheet on her workstation containing many graphs and charts. She sent the document to an older network laser printer that is shared by everyone in her department. When she picked up the output, only the top half of each page was printed, and the bottom half was blank. Which of the following will MOST likely rectify this issue? Install additional memory in the printer. Install additional memory in her workstation. Ask the network administrator to increase the speed of the network link in her department. Instruct her to not create such complex print jobs. Update the printer driver on her workstation.

Install additional memory in the printer. EXPLANATION If only part of a page is printed on a laser printer (and the rest of the page is blank), you most likely need to add memory in the printer. This is especially true if it happens when complex graphical documents are printed, but printing works correctly with text-only documents. In rare circumstances, updating the printer driver could also fix the issue, but this is unlikely. The speed of the network link does not affect the quality of the printer output.

You have recently had an issue where a user's Windows computer was infected with a virus. After removing the virus from the computer, which of the following is the NEXT step you should take? Install all OS updates. Educate the user. Enable System Restore. Create a restore point.

Install all OS updates. EXPLANATION After an infected computer has been remediated successfully, the next step in the best practice procedures for malware removal states that you should ensure that all OS updates are installed and that regular virus scans are scheduled. Following that action, you should enable system restore, create a new restore point, and educate end users on better practices.

Your supervisor recently purchased 100 desktop computer systems and 100 new Windows 10 licenses for your organization's accounting department. She received a single Windows 10 installation disc with the licenses. Which of the following would be the BEST installation methods to use? (Select TWO). Copy the installation media to 10 flash drives and install 10 systems at a time. Install one system and image it to the other systems. Burn 50 copies of the installation disc and install 50 systems at a time. Use the installation disk to install Window on each system individually. Use a network installation.

Install one system and image it to the other systems. Use a network installation. EXPLANATION The best installation options in this scenario is to either perform a network installation or use imaging. In a network installation, you would copy the installation media to a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server, configure each new workstation to use PXE boot, boot them from the WDS server over the network, and then run the install. Alternatively, you could install Windows on one of the systems and then use imaging software to take an image of that system and copy it to the remaining 99 systems over a network connection. Installing one system at a time from the installation disc would take a considerable amount of time. Burning multiple copies of the installation disc or creating multiple flash drives and then installing 100 systems from them would be time-consuming.

Which of the following actions directly improves system security on a Windows workstation? Disable automatic reboot on error. Install the latest updates. Create a password reset disk. Create regular restore points.

Install the latest updates. XPLANATION Installing the latest updates directly improves system security. Configuring restore points or password reset disks protect the system from failures and help you recover, but does not increase security.

You are the network administrator for a small company. You purchase eight copies of Windows 10 at a local retail outlet. You successfully install Windows on eight computers in the office. A month later, you start receiving calls from those who have used those copies of Windows saying that they are no longer able to log on to their computers. Which of the following will BEST resolve this issue? Instruct the employees to boot into Safe Mode and revert to a prior restore point. Instruct the employees to perform a startup repair from the Advanced Startup Options menu. Instruct the employees to disable their anti-virus software. Instruct the employees to activate their Windows installation.

Instruct the employees to activate their Windows installation. EXPLANATION You have a 30-day grace period in which to activate your Windows product installation. If the grace period expires and you have not completed activation, all features of Windows except the product activation feature will stop working. All customers who purchase retail packaged products or a new computer from an original equipment manufacturer (OEM) have to activate the product.

Don is an accountant in the Finance department. For the last several months, he has been testing an online accounting program. After speaking with his manager, Don receives permission to download a streamlined version of the software, which requires a local installation. Don downloads the application and tries to install it, but the operating system will not allow him to. Out of frustration, he calls the help desk. The help desk sends a technician to Don's machine while Don is out to lunch. The technician installs the application without issue. Which of the following is the most likely reason Don could not install the application? Failed device driver Insufficient system RAM Insufficient disk space Insufficient permissions Incorrect service pack level

Insufficient permissions EXPLANATION Most likely, Don cannot install the application because his user account has insufficient permissions. The help desk technician's user account has permissions to install applications, but Don does not. Insufficient space would keep an application from installing if it required more space than is available. But in this case, the help desk personnel was able to install it without issue. Device drivers are only needed for devices connecting to the computer. Service packs generally contain security-related hotfixes and do not affect ability to install legitimate applications.

A user calls to report that she is experiencing intermittent problems while accessing the wireless network from her laptop computer. She can access the network from her usual office, but today, she is trying to access the wireless network from a conference room, which is across the hall and next to the elevator. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of her connectivity problem? MAC filtering is preventing the computer from connecting. Interference is affecting the wireless signal. The client computer is using the wrong channel number. SSID broadcast has been disabled. The user has not yet rebooted her laptop computer while at her new location.

Interference is affecting the wireless signal. EXPLANATION In this scenario, interference from the elevator motor is the most likely cause. Cordless phones or motors can generate interference that could affect wireless signals. Interference is a common cause of intermittent problems. Windows clients automatically detect the channel to use. If the SSID had changed or MAC filtering were preventing access, the computer would not be able to connect at all, even from her office.

You have installed anti-malware software that checks for viruses in e-mail attachments. You configure the software to quarantine any files with problems. You receive an email with an important attachment, but the attachment is not there. Instead, you see a message that the file has been quarantined by the anti-malware software. Which of the following BEST describes what happened to the file? The infection has been removed, and the file has been saved to a different location. It has been deleted from your system. The file extension has been changed to prevent it from running. It has been moved to a folder on your computer.

It has been moved to a folder on your computer. EXPLANATION Quarantine moves the infected file to a secure folder, where it cannot be opened or run normally. By configuring the software to quarantine any problem files, you can view, scan, and try to repair those files. Quarantine does not automatically repair files. Deleting a file is one possible action to take, but this action removes the file from your system.

Which of the following best describes spyware? It monitors the actions you take on your machine and sends the information back to its originating source. It is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate software. It is a program that attempts to damage a computer system and replicate itself to other computer systems. It monitors the actions of the user and then sends pop-up ads to the user that match their tastes.

It monitors the actions you take on your machine and sends the information back to its originating source. EXPLANATION Spyware monitors the actions you take on your machine and sends the information back to its originating source. Adware monitors the actions of the user that would denote their personal preferences and then sends pop-ups and ads to the user that match their tastes. A virus is a program that attempts to damage a computer system and replicate itself to other computer systems. A Trojan horse is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate software.

An employee working from home accesses the company network using a VPN connection. When connecting, the employee is prompted for a PIN that changes at predetermined intervals. Which of the following will the employee MOST likely use to obtain the PIN? Key fob Entry control roster Fingerprint reader RFID badge

Key fob A key fob can be issued to the employee that presents a security code or PIN that changes at predetermined intervals. This PIN is synchronized to the master security system and provides authentication to initialize the VPN connection. Security personnel can grant access to a physical area using entry control roster. Only people on the roster will be granted access. It does not provide a PIN. When presented to a reader, an RFID badge can transmit a security token. Normally, this token is static and does not change. A fingerprint reader can be used for authentication, but does not normally provide a PIN.

Which of the following protocols can your portable computer use to connect to your company's network via a virtual tunnel through the internet? (Select TWO). VNC L2TP PPTP Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) PPPoE

L2TP PPTP EXPLANATION PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) and L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol) are two VPN (Virtual Private Networking) protocols that let you access your company's network through a public network, such as the internet. PPPoE is used for connecting to the internet through an Ethernet connection to include authentication and accounting. VNC and RDP are remote desktop protocols used for remote administration or remote device access.

Which of the following protocols establish a secure connection and encrypt data for a VPN? (Select THREE). FTP L2TP PPTP IPSec RDP

L2TP PPTP IPSec EXPLANATION A virtual private network (VPN) uses an encryption protocol (such as IPSec, PPTP, or L2TP) to establish a secure communication channel between two hosts, or between one site and another site. Data that passes through the unsecured network is encrypted and protected. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used by Windows Terminal Services based applications, including Remote Desktop. FTP is used for transferring files and will not establish a secure connection.

Which type of printer uses lasers and electrical charges to transfer images to paper? Laser Piezoelectric crystal inkjet Thermal inkjet (bubble jet) Dot matrix

Laser EXPLANATION A laser printer uses lasers and electrical charges to transfer images to paper. A thermal inkjet printer applies heat to the ink in print head nozzles, causing the ink to boil and expel itself from the nozzle. A piezoelectric printer uses pressure, not heat, to apply the ink. A dot matrix printer uses pins striking the ink ribbon to transfer the ink.

Your company needs to print a lot of high-quality black-and-white text documents. These documents need to be printed as quickly and inexpensively as possible. The printer must also have the capacity to perform duplex printing. Which of the following printers BEST meets the printing requirements for your company? Laser Inkjet Thermal Dot matrix

Laser EXPLANATION Although laser printers may cost more to purchase, in the long run, the cost to print black-and-white text (with occasional graphics) will be less per page than an inkjet printer. Dot matrix printers are inexpensive, but they are slow, do not offer two-sided printing, and have a low quality output. Thermal printers typically cost more to purchase and require specialty materials, making them more expensive than a laser printer for the type of work this company requires.

Which type of printer uses a drum, plastic toner, and fuser to create a printed page? Ink jet Dot matrix Dye sublimation Laser

Laser EXPLANATION Laser printers use a laser to charge a metal drum. The drum picks up plastic toner, and the toner is then fused onto the paper (using rollers and heat). Dot matrix printers use an inked ribbon. The printing mechanism strikes the ribbon to put ink onto the paper. A dye sublimation printer is a non-impact printer that uses film-embedded dye. Inkjet printers are quiet non-impact printers that store ink in a reservoir.

A landscaping company's employees receive payment for their services using a credit card reader that physically attaches to an Apple mobile device. Which of the following connection types is being used? Lightning IR NFC Bluetooth

Lightning EXPLANATION A lightning connection is used to connect an Apple mobile device to another device using a physical cable or by plugging the second device directly into the lightning connection. A credit card reader can be plugged into a lightning connection to make retail payments. A credit card reader could be wirelessly connected using a Bluetooth connection, but doesn't require a physical connection. A credit card reader could be wirelessly connected using an infrared (IR) connection, but doesn't require a physical connection. Near-field communication (NFC) enables two electronic devices, one of which is typically a mobile device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 10 cm (3.9 in) of each other. It doesn't require a physical connection.

Which of the following is the MOST likely symptom of a dirty drum or roller in a laser printer? A vertical black or white stripe on the print job. Lines or splotches repeated at regular intervals on the print job. A faint image on the print job. Smudges on the print job.

Lines or splotches repeated at regular intervals on the print job. EXPLANATION A dirty drum or roller can create lines or splotches at regular intervals on the print job.

Which of the following battery types offers the greatest storage capacity in the smallest amount of space? Lithium ion (LIB) Carbon Nickel cadmium (NiCad) Nickel metal hydride (NiMH)

Lithium ion (LIB) EXPLANATION Lithium ion (LIB) batteries offer the greatest storage capacity in the smallest amount of space. Nickel cadmium (niCad) and nickel metal hydride (NiMH) batteries take up more physical space than lithium ion batteries. Carbon batteries are small, but have significantly less charge than lithium ion batteries. They are commonly used in remote controls, flashlights, toys, or transistor radios, where the power drain is not too heavy.

You are managing a workstation that is not part of a Windows domain. Users on this computer should not be permitted to download applications from the Windows Store. Which administration tool can you use to enable a policy that turns off the Store application for all users on this computer? Settings Control Panel Programs Windows Firewall Local Group Policy Editor

Local Group Policy Editor The Local Group Policy Editor is the administration tool used to enable local computer behavior policies and the tasks users are allowed to perform. Therefore, the policy that turns off the Store application for all users on this computer would is found under computer configuration settings. Under Programs, you can uninstall, change, or repair applications that are already installed. Control Panel can be used to access many administration tools, but none that are used to edit group policies. Windows Firewall can be used to deny or allow network traffic access to the computer, but not to enable group policies. The Settings app does not provide group policy administration tools.

Which aspects of virtual memory can you configure on a Windows workstation? (Select TWO). Recommended size of the paging file Minimum time between memory swap operations Location of the paging file Maximum time between memory swap operations Maximum size of the paging file

Location of the paging file Maximum size of the paging file EXPLANATION While the default behavior of Windows is to allow the operating system to manage virtual memory settings, the system administrator can control both the maximum size of the virtual memory paging file and the disk volume upon which the paging file is stored.

Which of the following will improve the security of sensitive information on your device if it is lost or stolen? (Select THREE.) Locator applications A screen lock Anti-malware software Keeping up to date with OS updates and patches Remote wipe Remote backup

Locator applications A screen lock Remote wipe EXPLANATION Being able to do a remote wipe of your device will keep sensitive information from falling into the wrong hands if your mobile device is lost or stolen. Having a screen lock will help keep casual users from getting access to your device, but determined hackers can find ways around a screen lock. Locator applications might help you find your device, before a determined hacker does, if you misplace it. Keeping the operating systems up to date with the latest updates and patches will not protect your device if it falls into a determined hacker's possession. A remote backup is an essential disaster recovery solution, but will not prevent hacker exploitation or virus infection. Being up to date and having anti-malware apps for Android devices will not protect your device if it is in a determined hacker's possession.

Which of the following are the BEST steps you can take to avoid having your mobile device exploited by a hacker or infected by a virus? (Select TWO). Keep your device in your possession. Avoid anti-virus apps. Lock the screen with some form of authentication. Keep an up-to-date remote backup. Keep the operating system up to date. Turn off location services.

Lock the screen with some form of authentication. Keep the operating system up to date. EXPLANATION Keeping the operating systems up to date with the latest updates and patches will help because they often contain fixes for known security issues. Configure the screen lock to require some sort of authentication to physically access your device. A remote backup is an essential disaster recovery solution, but will not prevent hacker exploitation or virus infection. Having your device always in your possession, it can still be hacked and infected by a virus if not protected. Anti-virus apps for Android devices will protect your device, but you should do some research to make sure you get the most effective one. Turning off locations services does not improve your device's security, and it would make it harder to find your device if you lose it.

Match each Active Directory term on the left with its corresponding definition on the right. Logical organization of resources Collection of network resources Collection of related domain trees Network resource in the directory Group of related domains

Logical organization of resources - Organizational unit Collection of network resources - Domain Collection of related domain trees - Forest Network resource in the directory - Object Group of related domains - Tree XPLANATION The Active Directory structure includes the following components: A tree is a group of related domains that share the same contiguous DNS namespace. A forest is a collection of related domain trees. A domain is an administratively-defined collection of network resources that share security policies and a common directory database. An organizational unit is like a folder; it subdivides and organizes network resources within a domain. An object is a network resource as identified within Active Directory.

You are an IT technician for your company. Your boss has asked you to set up and configure a wireless network to service all of the conference rooms. Which of the following features lets you allow or reject client connections by hardware address? SSID MAC address filtering DHCP WEP

MAC address filtering EXPLANATION MAC address filtering allows or rejects client connections by hardware address. Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) provides encryption and user authentication for wireless networks. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) also provides security, but WPA2 is considered more secure than WEP. The SSID is the network name or identifier.

You work in the IT department. To perform your daily tasks, you often use many of the Windows consoles, such as the Device Manager, Hyper-V Manager, and the Performance Monitor. Although each of these can be accessed from various locations in Windows, you want one location from which these common tools can be accessed. Which of the following system utilities would BEST provide this capability? MMC MSINFO32 SERVICES.MSC MSTSC

MMC EXPLANATION The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is an application that provides a graphical user interface (GUI) and a programming framework in which consoles (collections of administrative tools) can be created, saved, and opened. As such, you can use MMC to create one console that gives you quick access to the other consoles already created by Microsoft. MSINFO32 opens the Windows System Information console, allowing you to view such things as the Windows OS name and version. You cannot customize this console to link to other system utilities.SERVICES.MSC opens the Services console, from which you can disable or enable Windows services. You cannot customize this console to link to other system utilities.MSTSC, or the Microsoft Terminal Services Client, lets you connect to a remote PC and your work resources. For example, you can connect to your work PC and have access to all of your apps, files, and network resources as if you were sitting at your desk. You cannot customize this client to link to other system utilities.

Susan has left the company and been replaced by Manuel. You create a user account for Manuel on Susan's computer. Manuel calls you and says that he can't open a specific file on the computer. Which of the following will MOST likely correct the problem? Make Manuel the owner of the file. Delete Susan's user account from the system. Edit the local security policy and modify user rights. Make Manuel's user account a member of the Power Users group.

Make Manuel the owner of the file. EXPLANATION Make Manuel the owner of the file. The file owner has all permissions to the file. Deleting Susan's user account will change the file owner, but will not make Manuel the owner. Making Manuel a member of the Power Users group would not typically increase file permissions, although making Manuel a member of the Administrators group would typically work. User rights in the local security policy control the ability to perform actions on the system such as shutting the system down. File access is controlled through permissions.

You want to upgrade your Windows 7 system to Windows 10. You want to keep your personal settings intact and complete the upgrade as quickly as possible. You purchase an upgrade version of Windows and perform an in-place upgrade. Which of the following is the BEST next step? Reinstall all applications. Make sure that all installed applications run correctly. Restore user data files from a backup. Run the Windows Easy Transfer wizard.

Make sure that all installed applications run correctly. EXPLANATION When you perform an in-place upgrade, user data and installed applications are preserved following the upgrade. You should make sure that necessary applications still run, but you do not need to reinstall applications or copy user settings.

A user complains that his notebook display has started to go dim intermittently. You suspect the backlight might need to be replaced, but you want verify that the backlight is failing before you replace it. Which of the following would be BEST to check before replacing the backlight? Make sure the battery is still able to hold a charge. Make sure the power adapter cords are plugged in securely. Make sure that the dimming isn't being caused by a power saving method that has been configured to conserve notebook power. Check the display inverter connections. Check for cracks in the power bundles that go from the laptop to the display.

Make sure that the dimming isn't being caused by a power saving method that has been configured to conserve notebook power. EXPLANATION It is possible that the configuration of the power saving method has been changed and is dimming the screen earlier than the user is accustomed to. You should first check to see if the power saving method is working as configured.

What are the most common means of virus distribution? (Select TWO). Commercial software CDs Downloading music files from the internet Malicious websites Floppy disks Email

Malicious websites Email EXPLANATION Email is the most common means of virus distribution. Often, viruses will employ self-contained SMTP servers to facilitate self-replication and distribution over the internet. Viruses are able to spread quickly and broadly by exploiting the communication infrastructure of internet email. Malicious websites are also frequently used for virus distribution. For this reason, it is important to keep your anti-virus software updated so as to block any possible attempt of viruses to infect your systems or to spread to other systems from your system. Downloaded music files and commercial software CDs all have the potential to spread viruses, but they are not as commonly employed.

Which printer permission would you assign to a user so that she can pause the printer? Print Manage this printer Manage documents Pause printers

Manage this printer EXPLANATION Users with the Manage this printer permission can pause the printer and edit the printer properties, but cannot manage any documents waiting to be printed. Users with the Manage documents permission can manage all documents in the queue (pause, resume, delete, or rearrange the order). Users with the Print permission can print using the printer. The Pause printers permission does not exist.

While reviewing video files from your organization's security cameras, you notice a suspicious person using piggy-backing to gain access to your building. The individual in question did not have a security badge. Which of the following would you MOST likely implement to keep this from happening in the future? Lo-jack recovery service Mantraps Cable locks Door locks with card readers

Mantraps You could implement mantraps at each entrance to the facility. A mantrap is a specialized entrance with two doors that creates a security buffer zone between two areas. Once a person enters into the space between the doors, both doors are locked. To enter the facility, authentication must be provided. If authentication is not provided, the intruder is kept in the mantrap until authorities arrive. Cable locks are used to secure computer hardware. Lo-jack recovery services are used to locate stolen or misplaced computer hardware. Door locks with card readers were already circumvented in this scenario using the piggy-backing technique.

You have just purchased a new computer that runs Windows 10. You would like to transfer all of the applications and user data from your old computer, which is running Windows 7, to the new computer. Which of the following steps is the BEST course of action? Manually install applications, copy data, and configure settings on the new computer. Run Windows Easy Transfer on the Windows 7 computer and the new Windows 10 computer to transfer settings and data. Reinstall any applications. Move the hard disk from the old computer to the new computer. Reinstall Windows10 using the hard disk from the old computer. Remove the hard disk from the old computer and install it into the new computer. Add shortcuts to your old applications.

Manually install applications, copy data, and configure settings on the new computer. EXPLANATION There are no built-in Windows tools to transfer applications, user data, and settings from Windows 7 to Windows 10. This has to be done manually or using third-party tools. You will then need to reinstall any applications on the new computer. Windows Easy Transfer is not compatible with Windows 10. Moving the hard disk will not reinstall the applications for Windows 10. Moving the hard disk from the old computer and reinstalling Windows onto the old hard disk will not keep installed applications.

A malicious person calls an employee from a cell phone. She tells the employee that she is the vice president over the accounting department in the employee's company. She relates that she has forgotten her password and demands that the employee give her his password so that she can access the reports she needs for an upcoming presentation. She threatens to fire the employee if he does not comply. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that just occurred? Masquerading Phishing Piggybacking Eavesdropping

Masquerading EXPLANATION A masquerading attack has occurred. Masquerading involves an attacker convincing authorized personnel to grant them access to protected information by pretending to be someone who is authorized and/or requires that access. Usually, the attacker poses as a member of senior management. A sense of urgency is typically fabricated to motivate the user to act quickly.

You turn on your desktop computer. You can hear the fans start up, but the monitor remains blank. You wait a while, but it doesn't appear that anything else is happening. The hard drive activity light doesn't show activity, and you never hear the sound that plays when Windows loads. Which of the following are the most likely cause of the problem? (Select THREE). Keyboard Memory Network card Video card Mouse Processor Hard disk

Memory Video card Processor EXPLANATION When a computer first boots, it checks the processor, memory, and video card. If any of these three components are faulty, the boot process will stop. Depending on the problem, you might see nothing displayed on the screen. If the hard disk is bad, the system will boot past the BIOS, but be unable to locate the operating system files. You will see a message displayed on the screen indicating this and other problems (such as a bad keyboard). The startup sequence typically does not diagnose the mouse.

As an IT technician, you are often asked to work on laptop computers that included internal wireless network cards. Which of the following is the MOST commonly used type of card for these internal wireless adapters? Firewire ExpressCard/34 USB Mini-PCI

Mini-PCI EXPLANATION Most internal wireless network cards in laptops connect using a mini-PCI interface. USB, Firewire, and ExpressCard are external buses for external devices.

You are configuring the local security policy of a Windows system. You want to require users to create passwords that are at least 10 characters long. You also want to prevent logon after three unsuccessful logon attempts. Which of the following policies are BEST to configure? (Select TWO). Minimum password length Password complexity Account lockout threshold Account lockout duration Enforce password history Maximum password age

Minimum password length Account lockout threshold EXPLANATION Set the Minimum password length policy to require a password equal to or longer than the specified length. Set the Account lockout threshold policy to lock an account after the specified number of incorrect logon attempts. Incorrect policy choices for this scenario include Enforce password history requires users to input a unique (previously unused) password when changing the password. This prevents users from reusing previous passwords. Maximum password age forces users to change the password after the specified time interval. Password complexity prevents using passwords that are easy to guess or easy to crack. It forces passwords to include letters, symbols, and numbers, and also requires passwords of at least 7 characters. However, you cannot configure a longer password length requirement with this policy. Account lockout duration determines the length of time the account will be disabled (in minutes). When the time period expires, the account will be unlocked automatically.

You have an executive user who keeps sensitive information about the company on a company-owned mobile device. You want to be prepared to keep company information secure if he loses this device or if it gets stolen. Which of the following solutions should you use? (Select TWO.) Mobile device management software that automatically detects network firewalls. Mobile device management software that performs full device encryption. Mobile device management software that provides pop-up blocking. Mobile device management software that performs remote wipes. Mobile device management software that allows automatic detection of unfamiliar networks.

Mobile device management software that performs full device encryption. Mobile device management software that performs remote wipes. EXPLANATION If a mobile device with sensitive information gets lost, the best protection you can have is full encryption and the ability to remotely wipe the device's data storage.

You have a folder on your Windows computer that you would like to share with members of your development team. Users should be able to view and edit any file in the shared folder. You share the folder and give Everyone Full Control permission to the shared folder. Users connect to the shared folder and report that they can open the files, but they cannot modify any of the files. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next? Install Samba on your workstation and then configure permissions using Samba. Create a group and make all user accounts members of the group. Grant Full Control share permissions to the group. Modify the NTFS permissions on the folder. Create new user accounts for each user and assign the necessary folder permissions.

Modify the NTFS permissions on the folder. EXPLANATION Access to shared folders on a Windows system are controlled through the combination of share and NTFS permissions. Even though the necessary share permissions have been granted, you need to verify that the NTFS permissions also allow access. Modifying users and groups will not affect the ability to access the files unless the NTFS permissions are also modified. Use Samba to share folders on a Linux system.

Mary and Pablo share a customer support workstation. Mary works in the morning, and Pablo works in the evening. One day Mary is helping a customer with a support issue. Because her shift is over, she creates a Word document with details about the customer she is helping. She saves it to the C:\Customer folder on the computer. When Pablo comes in, he is unable to open the file. Which of the following will MOST likely allow Pablo to open the file? Call Mary back and have her print the document. Have Pablo log in using Mary's user account. Edit the local security policy and modify user rights. Modify the permissions on the document.

Modify the permissions on the document. EXPLANATION You should modify the permissions on the document. When Mary saved the document, she became the document owner and has all permissions to the document. Pablo does not have the correct permissions to the folder or the document. User rights in the local security policy control the ability to perform actions on the system such as shutting the system down. File access is controlled through permissions.

While using a new Windows system, you find that the mouse pointer tracks much more slowly on the screen than you would prefer. You want to increase the mouse pointer speed. Click the tab you would use in the Mouse Properties window to do this.

Mouse properties can be set in Control Panel by going to Hardware and Sound >Devices and Printers> Mouse. You use the Pointer Options tab to configure the pointer speed, snap-to, and visibility settings. The Buttons tab configures the button configuration, double-click speed, and ClickLock settings. The Pointers tab configures the pointer scheme. The Wheel tab configures vertical and horizontal scrolling settings. The Hardware tab is used to configure driver settings.

While using a new Windows system, you find that the double-click speed setting on the mouse pointer is set much slower than you would prefer. You want to increase the double-click speed setting. Click the tab you would use in the Mouse Properties window to do this.

Mouse properties can be set in Control Panel by going to Hardware and Sound >Devices and Printers> Mouse. You use the Pointer Options tab to configure the pointer speed, snap-to, and visibility settings. You use the Pointer Options tab to configure the pointer speed, snap-to, and visibility settings. The Pointers tab configures the pointer scheme. The Wheel tab configures vertical and horizontal scrolling settings. The Hardware tab is used to configure driver settings.

A portable computer connected to a printer with an infrared interface works fine inside your office. However, when you go outside, it works sporadically. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue? (Select TWO). Install Ferrite shielding on both the PC and printer power cords. Set the environment setting to outdoor mode in the BIOS. Move the printer closer to the computer. Block direct and reflected sunlight from the pathway between the PC and the printer. Install a Gamma Ray Spectrometer (GRS) to shield the interface.

Move the printer closer to the computer. Block direct and reflected sunlight from the pathway between the PC and the printer. EXPLANATION Infrared light is light that is near visible light in the electromagnetic spectrum. Therefore, very bright lights and, in particular, sunlight may cause interference with infrared interfaces. The best way to manage this interference is to minimize the distance between the connected devices and minimize interfering sunlight. There is no outdoor mode in BIOS settings. A GRS measures gamma radiation, not infrared. Adding ferrite shielding to power cords does nothing to reduce infrared interference.

Which utility allows you to choose Selective Startup in Windows? Performance Monitor Event Viewer Msconfig (System Configuration) Regedit Msinfo32

Msconfig (System Configuration) EXPLANATION Use Msconfig to configure how the system boots, including the Normal startup, Diagnostic startup, and Selective startup options. Event Viewer is used to access Windows system logs. Msinfo32 is used to view information about the hardware and software implemented in the system. Regedit is used to edit the Windows Registry. Performance monitor is used to track system performance.

Which tool can you use to view (but not modify) hardware and configuration information for your computer? The System applet in Control Panel Event Viewer Msconfig Msinfo32

Msinfo32 Use MSinfo32 (System Information) to gather information about your computer, to diagnose issues with your computer, or to access other tools that are included with Windows. You can only view, but not modify, configuration settings in Msinfo32. Use the System Configuration Utility (Msconfig.exe) to configure the system startup options. Use Event Viewer to view logs about programs, system events, and security. Each entry is listed as a warning, error, or information event. The System option in Control Panel can be used to manage system settings such as Remote Desktop and System Protection.

Which feature allows a tablet to recognize multiple finger touches at the same time? Resistive touchscreen Accelerometer Multi-touch Gyroscope

Multi-touch EXPLANATION Most tablet devices use a capacitive touchscreen interface, meaning that they require conductive material, such as your finger tip, for input. Capacitive touchscreens provide multi-touch capabilities, which allow the tablet to recognize multiple finger touches at the same time. Gyroscopes and accelerometers are used to detect acceleration of the device. Most modern tablets do not use resistive touchscreens, which don't provide multi-touch capabilities.

After entering a user id and password, an online banking user must enter a PIN that was sent as a text message to the user's mobile phone. Which of the following digital security methods is being used? Smart card Multifactor authentication Firewall DLP

Multifactor authentication EXPLANATION Multifactor authentication is the process of authenticating a user by validating two or more claims presented by the user, each from a different category, such as a password and the possession of a mobile phone, or a password and a fingerprint. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) programs or devices monitors operations such as file transfers and email for user activities that could compromise data security. A smart card could be one authentication used in multifactor authentication, but it is not a password and does not validate the possession of a mobile phone. Firewalls are placed between the company network and the internet to filter network traffic at the IP level. They don't authenticate users.

Recently, your laptop won't power on, and the battery is not charging. You suspect the block on the power cord (also known as a brick) no longer works. Which tool will help you troubleshoot this problem? Multimeter Loopback plug Cable tester Power supply tester

Multimeter EXPLANATION In this case, you should use a multimeter to test the DC current flowing from the brick. If the current is incorrect, then you may need a replacement AC adapter. A power supply tester is specifically designed to test DC current flowing from a PC power supply and its associated connectors. A cable tester verifies that a network can carry a signal from one end to the other, and that all wires within the connector are in their correct positions. A loopback plug lets you test a port for proper functionality. The loopback plug crosses the receive and transmit wires, letting the computer send a signal to itself.

What key advantage does a virtual router have over a physical router? Allows the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to be used. Faster routing performance. Multiple networks can be connected to a single interface. Routing protocols are not needed to route data between networks.

Multiple networks can be connected to a single interface. EXPLANATION The key advantage of a virtual router is it can support multiple networks on a single router interface. It does this by using a different routing table for each network. Physical routers are limited to a single network on each interface. Like physical routers, virtual routers use routing protocols to route data between networks. The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol is used by physical routers to specify backup routers in the case of a failure. Virtual routers do not offer significant performance increases.

Which of the following is an advantage of connecting a printer to a network? You can use a less costly printer. Printing speed is increased. Multiple users can print to the same printer. Troubleshooting costs are decreased.

Multiple users can print to the same printer. EXPLANATION Connecting a printer to a network lets multiple users print to the same printer. Network printers are often more expensive than non-networked printers. In many cases, you can purchase networked or non-networked versions of the same printer. While it is common to purchase a larger and faster printer to be used on the network, network printers by themselves are not faster than equivalent non-networked printers.

You have subscribed to a cloud-based service to synchronize data between your mobile device and your PC. Before allowing the data to be synchronized, this service uses a process where the cloud service and the client on the mobile device verify each other's security certificates. What is this process called? Hotspot connection Mutual authentication Tethering Virtual private network

Mutual authentication EXPLANATION Mutual authentication is a security feature in which a client process must prove its identity to a server, and the server must prove its identity to the client before any application traffic is sent over the client-to-server connection. A hotspot is a physical location where you can obtain wireless internet access using a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a router connected to an internet service provider. Tethering is connecting one device to another. In the context of mobile phones and tablet computers, tethering allows sharing the internet connection of the phone or tablet with other devices like laptops. A mobile virtual private network (mobile VPN) provides mobile devices with access to network resources and software applications on their home network when they connect using other wireless or wired networks.

Which of the following networking devices or services is LEAST likely to be compatible with VPN connections? Switch Router Firewall NAT

NAT EXPLANATION When using a VPN through a NAT device, check your NAT solution to make sure that the router can support VPN connections. Not all VPN solutions are compatible with NAT.

Which of the following wireless communication technologies can be described as follows? Has a very limited transmission range of less than two inches Used with credit cards and passports Slower than other wireless technologies Constantly emits a signal NFC Bluetooth Infrared in line-of-sight mode IEEE 1394 Infrared in diffuse mode

NFC EXPLANATION Near-field communication, or NFC, uses the 13.56 MHz frequency and has a very short range. In order for devices to communicate, they have to be within two inches of each other. NFC chips are being used for applications such as passports and credit cards to contain all the information about the passport holder or the credit card account. NFC chips use encryption algorithms to secure the connection, but constantly emit a signal and use a much slower transmission speed than other wireless technologies.

A user pays for a retail purchase by placing a smart phone next to the merchant's reader. Which of the following mobile device connections is being used? MicroUSB Lightning Bluetooth NFC

NFC EXPLANATION Near-field communication (NFC) enables two electronic devices, one of which is typically a mobile device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 10 cm (3.9 in) of each other. A popular NFC application is mobile proximity payments. A microUSB connection is used to connect two devices using a physical cable. A wireless Bluetooth connection has a range of approximately 10 m (32 ft), making it unsuitable for retail transactions. A lightning connection is used to connect an Apple mobile device to another device using a physical cable or by plugging the second device directly into the lightning connection. A credit card reader can be plugged into a lightning connection to make retail payments, but is not required in this scenario.

You have recently issued new mobile phones to the sales team in your company. Each phone has the ability to store and transmit encrypted information for such things as making payments at a checkout counter. Which of the following technologies is being used in these phones? NFC chips Bluetooth transmitters VPN Infrared transmitters

NFC chips EXPLANATION Near-field communications (NFC) chips are a wireless mobile technology that can be embedded in credit cards and smartphones for transmitting financial information when making payments. For example, many point of sale devices can read information from NFC chips. NFC chips can also be used in passports to contain identity information.

What is the least secure place to locate an omnidirectional access point when creating a wireless network? Near a window In the center of the building In common or community work areas Above the third floor

Near a window EXPLANATION The least secure location for an omnidirectional wireless access point is against a perimeter wall. So, placement near a window would be the worst option from this list of selections. For the best security, omnidirectional wireless access points should be located in the center of the building. This will reduce the likelihood that the wireless network's access radius will extend outside of the physical borders of your environment. It is important to place wireless access points where they are needed, such as in a common or community work area.

Which of the following locations will contribute the greatest amount of interference for a wireless access point? (Select TWO.) In the top floor of a two-story building Near exterior walls Near backup generators Near DCHP servers Near cordless phones

Near backup generators Near cordless phones EXPLANATION Other wireless transmitting devices (such as cordless phones or microwaves) and generators cause interference for wireless access points. In general, place access points high up to avoid the interference problems caused by going through building foundations. DHCP servers provide IP information for clients and do not cause interference.

The manufacturing department consists of 50 employees. Due to the number of employees in this department, the company cannot afford to have a printer for each user. Your company has purchased a new and very expensive laser jet printer for this department's use. This printer needs to be configured so all users in the department have the ability to print to this device from their own computers. Which of the following printer connections would BEST facilitate multiple user access? USB Parallel Serial Network

Network EXPLANATION Connecting the printer to a network cable allows users from multiple locations to connect to the printer. Although a printer can be connected to a PC using the other types of connections, they would not grant access to all users. A network cable will connect the printer to the same router that the other computers in the department are using.

Jane, an employee in the human resources department, has created several important PDF documents on her computer that all office managers in her building must read. She would like to make locating these files simple and maintain them as little as possible. It is important that no other users are permitted to view these documents. As the IT technician for your company, Jane has asked you to make this possible. Which of the following would MOST likely fulfill Jane's needs? Administrative share Network share Hidden share VPN connection Remote Desktop connection

Network share EXPLANATION By creating a network share to Jane's folder that contains her documents, you can grant the managers the ability to see and read these documents. All other employees will not have access if the rights are granted appropriately. If a manager forgets the path, they will still be able to easily find the folder by looking for shared folders on her computer. Administrative shares are created by the operating system. Specific share permissions and file security cannot be set. A hidden share is a form of a network share, but cannot be viewed by others when they are searching for the shared location. These shares are created by adding a dollar sign ($) to the end of the share when it is created. Although this could be used to share Jane's files, it would require that Jane give the path to each manager. Since Jane wanted to make this process as simple as possible, using a network share would be easier. A VPN, or Virtual Private Network, allows you to create a safe secure tunnel between your company network and a remote location over an existing connection, usually the internet. This is not required to share folders with fellow employees in the same local network. A remote desktop connection gives someone the ability to log on to another computer from their computer. This would not be a suitable solution, as it would be difficult to limit rights.

Which of the following battery types has the greatest need to be completely drained before being recharged? Lithium ion (LIB) Nickel metal hydride (NiMH) Nickel cadmium (NiCad) Carbon

Nickel cadmium (NiCad) EXPLANATION Nickel cadmium (NiCad) batteries experience a memory effect. If the battery is not completely drained before being recharged, the remaining charge in the battery eventually becomes unusable. Draining the battery completely on occasion ensures that the battery can access its full capacity. Nickel metal hydride (NiMH) and lithium ion (LIB) batteries do not have the memory effect and do not need to be completely drained. However, all batteries have a specific lifetime. After a period of time, the battery becomes less able to hold a charge and should be replaced.

A user within your organization received an email relating how an account containing a large sum of money has been frozen by the government of a small middle eastern nation. The user was offered a 25% share of this account if she would help the sender transfer it to a bank in the United States. The user responded and was instructed to wire $5,000 to the sender to facilitate the transfer. She complied, but has not heard from the sender since. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack which as occurred in this scenario? Nigerian 419 scam Vishing Eavesdropping Man-in-the-middle

Nigerian 419 scam EXPLANATION A phishing attack has occurred in this scenario. This particular attack is sometimes referred to as a Nigerian 419 scam, and is very common. Vishing is similar to phishing, but instead of an email, the attacker uses Voice over IP (VoIP) to gain sensitive information. Eavesdropping refers to an unauthorized person listening to conversations of employees or other authorized personnel discussing sensitive topics. A man-in-the-middle attack is a technological attack where a malicious person intercepts network communications between two hosts, posing as the sender to the receiver and as the receiver to the sender.

To protect a Windows 10 system, you've configured System Restore to automatically protect your system using restore points. Will this adequately protect the user data on the system? No, you need to enable File History. No, you need to implement a RAID 0 array to protect your data. No, you need to enable Storage Spaces. Yes, the user data is protected.

No, you need to enable File History. EXPLANATION You also need to create a backup of your user data. You can do this using File History Windows 10 and Backup and Restore on Windows 7. Storage Spaces is used to aggregate available storage space from multiple storage devices in the the system. A RAID 0 array does not provide data redundancy.

You need to back up user data on a Windows 10 system. The computer has a single SSD storage device installed that contains both the Windows operating system (in C:\Windows) and user profile data (in C:\Users). You plan to do the following: Use Backup and Restore to backup user data. Run the backup automatically every night at 11:00 p.m. Store the backups in the C:\Backups folder. Include a system image in each backup. Will this configuration work? No. Windows 10 does not include the Backup and Restore utility. File History must be used instead. No. System image backups can't be scheduled with Backup and Restore. They must be run manually. No. Backups created with Backup and Restore can't be stored on the drive that contains the information being backed up. Yes. All of the requirements for using Backup and Restore have been met.

No. Backups created with Backup and Restore can't be stored on the drive that contains the information being backed up. EXPLANATION The configuration in the scenario will not work because backups created with the Backup and Restore utility can't be stored on the same drive containing the information being backed up. To fix this issue, a second hard disk or an external storage device needs to be added to the system. Windows 10 includes both File History and Backup and Restore utilities. System image backups can be included within a scheduled file backup.

To protect user data on a Windows 10 system, you've configured System Restore to automatically create restore points for the C: volume. Given that your user profile data is stored in the default directory (C:\Users), will this strategy adequately protect your users' data? (Select TWO). Yes. Your workstation data is protected. No. You need to implement a RAID 0 array to protect your data. No. You need to create a backup of your user data as well. No. You need to enable File History.

No. You need to create a backup of your user data as well. No. You need to enable File History. EXPLANATION Using restore points alone is an incomplete strategy for protecting user data. You should also use Backup and Restore (Windows 7) in Control Panel to back up user data or enable File History. This is because System Restore on Windows 10 maintains restore points on the same hard disk as the data being protected. In the event of a disk failure, all data will be lost, including restore points. A RAID 0 array does not provide data redundancy.

You have booted your Windows workstation into Safe Mode and enabled Boot Logging. To which log file is the boot logging information now being written? Bootlog.txt Myboot.txt Boot.log Ntbtlog.txt

Ntbtlog.txt EXPLANATION When you choose Enable Boot Logging, entries are written to the Ntbtlog.txt file. This file is created in the %WinDir% folder.

You have been having trouble with your laptop crashing. You would like your computer to create a memory dump file when it crashes. Where should you place the paging file? On a USB flash device Split between two storage devices On the system volume On a drive other than where the operating system files are stored

On the system volume EXPLANATION You must place the paging file on the system volume if you want Windows to be able to create a memory dump file when it crashes.

One software license model allows software to be freely distributed, downloaded, and installed without paying a license fee, but often requires a fee for support, training, or added functionality. What is the name of this model? Proprietary Open source Enterprise Persistent Personal

Open source EXPLANATION Open source software used to be exclusive to Linux and Unix operating systems. However, many open source applications are now available for Windows and Mac operating systems. Open source licensing is very different from proprietary licensing: Open source software is usually freely distributed. You can typically download, install, and use the software without paying a license fee. Some open source projects release a base version of their software for free, but then charge a fee for highly desirable add-ons. Some open source projects release their software for free, but then charge a fee for technical support. As with support contracts, some open source projects also provide training for a fee.

You want to be able to access your home computer using Remote Desktop while traveling. You enable Remote Desktop, but you find that you cannot access your computer outside of your home network. Which of the following is the BEST solution to your problem? Open the firewall port for the Remote Desktop protocol. Open the Telnet and SSH ports in your firewall. Move your home computer outside of the firewall. Configure a VPN connection to your computer.

Open the firewall port for the Remote Desktop protocol. EXPLANATION You need to open the firewall port for the Remote Desktop program. Firewalls prevent all traffic except authorized traffic. To allow a specific program, open the port that corresponds to the port used by that application. Placing your computer outside of the firewall leaves it open to attack. A VPN encrypts communications between two computers through the internet. However, the VPN will not allow a Remote Desktop connection. The Telnet and SSH ports do not apply to this scenario.

You want to use a protocol that can encapsulate other LAN protocols and carry the data securely over an IP network. Which of the following protocols is suitable for this task? PPP PPTP SLIP NetBEUI

PPTP EXPLANATION PPTP is used with VPNs, which allow you to send data securely over a public network.

You are an IT administrator for your company. You have been tasked with the assignment of installing 300 copies of Windows 10. You need to finish this task as quickly and efficiently as possible. Which of the following boot methods would be the BEST method for installing Windows under these circumstances? Solid state/flash drives DVD USB PXE

PXE EXPLANATION Performing the install from the network by means of PXE (pre-boot execution) will allow you to quickly install the required 300 computers from one location. Depending on the PXE environment used, you can often remotely reboot specific computers, and they will automatically know that an install is required and will perform the desired steps with minimal intervention from an IT administrator. External solid state/flash drives, USB, and DVD boot methods all require the IT administrator to visit each computer and perform some of the setup steps manually. Therefore, these methods can be slower and more time consuming.

Which of the following best describes the Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud computing service model? PaaS stores and provides data from a centralized location without the need for local collection and storage. PaaS delivers software applications to the client either over the internet or on a local area network. PaaS delivers everything a developer needs to build an application onto the cloud infrastructure. PaaS delivers infrastructure to the client, such as processing, storage, networks, and virtualized environments.

PaaS delivers everything a developer needs to build an application onto the cloud infrastructure. EXPLANATION Platform as a Service (PaaS) delivers everything a developer needs to build an application onto the cloud infrastructure. The deployment comes without the cost and complexity of buying and managing the underlying hardware and software layers. Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers software applications to the client either over the internet or on a local area network. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) delivers infrastructure to the client, such as processing, storage, networks, and virtualized environments. The client deploys and runs software without purchasing servers, data center space, or network equipment. Data as a Service (DaaS) stores and provides data from a centralized location without the need for local collection and storage.

Which of the following is a firewall function? Protocol converting Packet filtering Encrypting Packet rearranging FTP hosting

Packet filtering EXPLANATION Firewalls often filter packets by checking each packet against a set of administrator-defined criteria. If the packet is not accepted, it is simply dropped.

You have a computer with a 64-bit dual-core processor that runs the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional edition. You would like to upgrade to the 64-bit version of Windows 10 Professional. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort possible. Which of the following steps are required to accomplish this? (Select TWO). Perform a clean installation. Get 64-bit versions of all applications. Upgrade to a CPU with at least four cores. Get 64-bit drivers for all hardware. Perform an in-place upgrade.

Perform a clean installation. Get 64-bit drivers for all hardware. EXPLANATION When moving from a 32-bit operating system to a 64-bit operating system, you must perform a clean installation. An in-place upgrade is not possible. The 64-bit version of Windows requires 64-bit versions of all hardware drivers. You can, however, run 32-bit applications on a 64-bit processor with a 64-bit operating system. While the system will run better with a quad-core processor, it isn't required to complete the installation.

You are an IT technician for your company. Jodie, a receptionist, thinks her Windows 10 machine is running slowly today and calls you to see if you can speed it up. None of the other employees have called regarding any related issues, so you suspect it is an issue with Jodie's computer, perhaps a malfunctioning application. To help troubleshoot Jodie's computer, you run Task Manager. Which of the following tabs would be the MOST helpful for getting an overall view of how Jodie's computer is running? (Select TWO). (no image) Performance Users Processes Details Services App history

Performance Processes EXPLANATION The Processes and Performance tabs both show the overall performance of the main areas of the computer, including CPU, memory, disk, network, and GPU. App history only displays performance and statistics for Microsoft applications. Details only shows individual CPU utilization for each program running. Users show the same statistic as Processes and Performance, but they are divided by each individual user instead of for the entire computer. Services only shows whether services are running or stopped. It does not display statistics.

Which tool can you use to gather and display statistics that help you monitor the operation of a Windows system? Performance Monitor Computer Management MSinfo Event Viewer

Performance Monitor Performance Monitor gathers and displays statistics that help you monitor the operation of a Windows system. Statistics gathered include items such as memory and CPU use, disk throughput, and network utilization. Use Event Viewer to view log messages generated by applications, system events, and security incidents. Use MSinfo to view system information, such as hardware status. Computer Management is an MMC console that is used to manage the Windows system, such scheduling tasks, sharing folders, and managing device drivers.

You manage two folders in your computer as follows: C:\Confidential D:\PublicReports The C:\ drive is formatted with NTFS, and the D:\ drive is formatted with FAT32. In the C:\Confidential folder, you edit the properties for the following two files and assign the Deny Read permission to the Users group: Reports.doc Costs.doc You then take the following actions: Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports. Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports. Which of the following BEST describes what happens to the permissions for both files as they are created in the D:\PublicReports folder? Permissions are kept on both files. Permissions are removed from Reports.doc but kept for Costs.doc. Permissions are kept for Reports.doc but removed from Costs.doc. Permissions are removed from both files.

Permissions are removed from both files. EXPLANATION Permissions are removed from both files. Moving or copying files to a non-NTFS partition removes any permissions (FAT32 does not support NTFS permissions). Moving files to the same NTFS partition preserves any permissions. Copying files to another partition (NTFS or otherwise) removes existing permissions. Copied files to an NTFS partition inherit the permissions assigned to the drive or folder; copied files to a non-NTFS partition do not inherit permissions because no permissions exist.

Several users have forwarded you an email stating that your company's health insurance provider has just launched a new website for all employees. To access the site, they are told to click a link in the email and provide their personal information. Upon investigation, you discover that your company's health insurance provider did not send this email. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that just occurred? Denial of service Piggybacking Smurf Phishing

Phishing A phishing attack has occurred. In a phishing attack, a spoofed email containing a link to a fake website is used to trick users into revealing sensitive information, such as a username, password, bank account number, or credit card number. Both the email and the website used in the attack appear to be legitimate on the surface. Piggybacking occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person to enter a secured building or area within a building. Piggybacking is also sometimes called tailgating. A denial of service (DoS) attack involves using network mechanisms to flood a particular host with so many bogus requests that it can no longer respond to legitimate network requests. A Smurf attack is a distributed type of DoS attack that inserts a target system's IP address for the source address of ICMP echo request packets, causing a flood of ICMP echo response packets to be sent to a victim system.

A user within your organization received an email relating how an account containing a large sum of money has been frozen by the government of a small African nation. The user was offered a 25 percent share of this account if she would help the sender transfer it to a bank in the United States. The user responded to the sender and was instructed to send her bank account number so that it could be used to facilitate the transfer. She complied, and then the sender used the information to drain her bank account. What type of attack occurred? Eavesdropping Phishing Man-in-the-middle Piggybacking

Phishing EXPLANATION A phishing attack has occurred in this scenario. This particular attack is sometimes referred to as a Nigerian 419 attack and is very common. Piggybacking occurs when an unauthorized person follows behind an authorized person to enter a secured building or area within a building. Piggybacking is also sometimes called tailgating. Eavesdropping refers to an unauthorized person listening to conversations of employees or other authorized personnel discussing sensitive topics. A man-in-the-middle attack is a technological attack where a malicious person intercepts network communications between two hosts, posing as the sender to the receiver and as the receiver to the sender.

Joe, a user, receives an email from a popular video streaming website. The email urges him to renew his membership. The message appears official, but Joe has never had a membership before. When Joe looks closer, he discovers that a hyperlink in the email points to a suspicious URL. Which of the following security threats does this describe? Zero-day attack Trojan Phishing Man-in-the-middle

Phishing EXPLANATION Phishing is an attempt to trick a user into compromising personal information or downloading malware. Most often, it involves an email containing a malicious attachment or hyperlink. A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack intercepts communications between two systems and alters the message before sending it on to the original recipient. A zero-day attack is an exploit of an operating system or software vulnerability that is unknown and unpatched by the author. A Trojan horse, or Trojan, is a type of malware that is often disguised as legitimate software.

Which of the following is a form of attack that tricks victims into providing confidential information, such as identity information or logon credentials, through emails or websites that impersonate an online entity that the victim trusts, such as a financial institution or well-known e-commerce site? Social engineering Session hijacking Fraggle attack Phishing

Phishing EXPLANATION Phishing tricks victims into providing confidential information, such as identity information or logon credentials, through emails or websites that impersonate an online entity that the victim trusts, such as a financial institution or well-known e-commerce site. Phishing is a specific form of social engineering. A fraggle attack uses spoofed UDP packets to flood a victim with echo requests using a bounce network, much like a Smurf attack. Session hijacking takes over a logon session from a legitimate client, impersonating the user and taking advantage of their established communication link.

You have purchased new computers and will be disposing of your old computers. These computers were previously used for storing highly-sensitive customer order information, including credit card numbers. To properly protect the accidental discovery of the company's sensitive information, which of the following steps MUST be completed prior to getting rid of the computers? Reinstall a fresh copy of Windows on the drives. Physically destroy the hard drives with a hammer. Repartition the hard drives. Reformat the hard drives. Delete user data and applications from the hard drives.

Physically destroy the hard drives with a hammer. PLANATION Because the hard drives contained very sensitive information (such as credit card numbers), the best solution in this scenario is to physically destroy the drives. For example, they could be rendered useless with a hammer or hard disk shredder. Reinstalling Windows, repartitioning the drives, or even reformatting them will not remove all data remnants. Deleting data and applications from the hard drives also will not permanently remove data from the system.

You have a folder that you would like members of your development team to access. You want to restrict network and local access to only specific users. All other users must not be able to view or modify the files in the folder. Which of the following would be the BEST actions to take next? (Select TWO). Place the files on a FAT32 partition. Configure NTFS permissions. Configure share permissions. Place the files on an NTFS partition. Configure both share and NTFS permissions.

Place the files on an NTFS partition. Configure both share and NTFS permissions. EXPLANATION To control both local and network access, you will need to use both NTFS and share permissions. The folder must be located on an NTFS partition to be able to configure NTFS permissions. Configuring only NTFS permissions will not allow network access. Configuring only shared permissions with the files on a FAT32 partition will not control local access.

You are troubleshooting a malfunctioning laptop computer. Nothing appears on the LED display when the system is powered on. Which of the following is the BEST step to try first? Calibrate the battery. Plug in an external monitor. Replace the video card. Replace the motherboard.

Plug in an external monitor. EXPLANATION If the built-in monitor isn't working, connect an external monitor to the laptop. If the display appears on an external monitor but not the built-in display, the problem could be a malfunctioning LED assembly, or it could be due to the display output being redirected to the external monitor port using the Fn key. If you don't get a display on the internal or external monitor, you can assume that there is a problem with the video card. Repairing the video card typically means replacing the motherboard. You should calibrate the battery if your battery seems to be losing the ability to hold a charge or if the power drops shortly after you begin use.

A user needs to use her laptop to give a presentation using a video projector. She called asking you how to switch the display to the external monitor port on her laptop. What should you tell her? This can't be done. A special adapter must be installed in a USB slot on the laptop. Press and hold the Fn key; then press the monitor function key (image of a monitor on it). The laptop should have automatically detected the external display and redirected video output to it. Increase the screen brightness until the display appears on the video projector.

Press and hold the Fn key; then press the monitor function key (image of a monitor on it). To redirect the video display to an external video projector, hold down the FN key; then press the monitor function key (the key at the top of the keyboard that has an image of a monitor on it). A special adapter is usually not required as long as you have the correct cable to connect the laptop to the video projector. Some laptops will automatically detect the external display device when its connected and switch the video output to it, but most require you to manually make the switch

You've just opened a text file in the vi editor, and you're in Command Mode by default. There is more than one way to get from Command Mode to Replace Mode. Which of the following key-press sequences will get you into Replace Mode? (Select THREE). Press Esc and then press the R key Press the 'i' key and then press Insert Press Insert and then press the R key Press Esc and then press : + R Press Insert and then press Insert again Press Insert and then press : + R Press the S key and then press Insert

Press the 'i' key and then press Insert Press Insert and then press Insert again Press the S key and then press Insert EXPLANATION In Command Mode, you need to press either the I key, the S key, or the Insert key to enter Insert Mode; then, just as with GUI word processors, if you press the Insert key again, the cursor will change to Replace Mode. Pressing Esc while in Command Mode will switch vi to Command Line Mode.

Which component in a laser printer prepares the photosensitive drum for writing by causing it to receive a negative electrostatic charge? Organic photoconductor (OPC) drum Fuser Transfer corona Primary corona

Primary corona EXPLANATION The primary corona (also called the main corona or the charge corona) prepares the photosensitive drum for writing by causing it to receive a negative electrostatic charge. Depending on the printer, the primary corona will be wires or rollers. The Ooganic photoconductor (OPC) drum is just another name for the photosensitive drum. The transfer corona (sometimes called the secondary corona) charges the paper to attract the toner. Fusing rollers attach the toner to the paper by pressing and melting it.

Which term refers to the portion of the hard drive where print jobs are stored before going to the print device? Print device Print driver Print queue Printer port

Print queue EXPLANATION The print queue is the portion of the hard drive where print jobs are stored before going to the print device. The print device is the physical device connected to the print server where print output occurs. The print driver is the software that allows the printer to communicate with the print device. The printer port is the hardware that allows a print device to connect to a print server.

You have created a large course that describes how to install and use the software created by your company. You created the document using FrameMaker, which uses its own proprietary file format. Because your customers don't use FrameMaker, you need to print the document in a format that all of your customers can use. Your customers use Windows, Linux, and Mac operating systems. Which of the following print methods would provide the BEST output for your customers to use? Print the file to XPS. Print the file to paper and ship it to your customers. Print the file to PDF. Print the file to the Fax printer.

Print the file to PDF. EXPLANATION Printing to the virtual PDF printer would produce a document that all three OS platforms can easily view. Printing to XPS would also work for Windows users, but would be difficult for those using Linux and Mac systems, since most don't support XPS by default (although third-party tools are available). Printing to FAX or to paper is impractical and cost-prohibited because of the cost of printing and shipping.

Which of the following virtual printing options allows you to convert a Word document into a .jpg file? Print to File Print to Image Print to PDF Print to XPS

Print to Image EXPLANATION Print to Image allows you to print any document into an image file that is independent of the application you use to view them. For example, you can convert a Word document into a .jpg file. The resulting images are print-ready and optimized for websites, smartphones, and tablets. You can also print them on a physical printer for excellent printouts. Print to the XPS allows you to create .xps files using any program that you can print from in Windows. Use the Print to XPS Document Writer when you want to view, save, share, digitally sign, and protect your document's content. The Print to PDF feature allows you to print your document to PDF format. Print to File saves the formatting and layout information of your file so a printer can create the document without the program or computer that created it.

You replaced the ink cartridges in a color inkjet printer. Users are now complaining that print quality has degraded, lines are fuzzy, and the colored areas in images are starting or stopping before they should. Which inkjet maintenance task do you need to perform? Print head cleaning Printer cartridge calibration Carriage and belt realignment Cartridge replacement using new cartridges instead of refills

Printer cartridge calibration EXPLANATION Printer cartridge calibration is a task that needs to be done every time ink cartridges are replaced. Most inkjet printers include a calibration utility that you can use to align the new print head in the new cartridge. Skipping this task will cause print quality to degrade, with lines becoming fuzzy and the colored areas in images starting or stopping before they should.

Which printer management components would you use to view the port a printer uses? (Select TWO.) Printer properties Print server properties Print spooling service Print queue properties Print queue

Printer properties Print server properties EXPLANATION Use the print server properties or the printer properties to view the port used by a printer. Print server properties displays printer ports used on the computer. The printer properties displays the port for the individual printer, as well as all printer ports for the computer. The Print Spooling service is a software process that captures print jobs from applications, places them in the print queue, and then sends each print job to the print device. The print queue is a location on the hard disk that holds print jobs waiting to be processed.

What are two major concerns regarding IoT devices? (Select TWO.) Privacy Accessibility Availability Short lifespan Hacking

Privacy Hacking EXPLANATION Hackers and privacy are two majors concerns for IoT users. Because IoT devices are closely connected, all a hacker has to do is exploit one vulnerability to manipulate all the data, rendering it unusable. Also, companies that make and distribute consumer IoT devices could use those devices to obtain and sell users' personal data.

During an airline flight, a laptop user makes last-minute changes to a presentation that contains sensitive company information. Which of the following would make it difficult for other passengers to view this information on the laptop display? Privacy filter Cable lock Mantrap Smart card

Privacy filter EXPLANATION A privacy filter narrows the viewing angle of the laptop display so that only the person directly in front can see the display. A cable lock can be used to secure valuable items that can be easily removed from the workplace, like laptops. It would do nothing to prevent others from viewing the laptop display. Smart cards can provide authentication, but do nothing to prevent others from viewing the laptop display. A mantrap is used to control access between two areas that have different security levels. It helps prevent tailgating by requiring that the entry into the mantrap from one area close before entry to the second area is possible.

You are an IT technician for your company. Rachel, who works at the receptionist desk, thinks her Windows 10 machine is running slowly today and calls you to see if you can speed it up. None of the other employees have called regarding any related issues, so you suspect it is an issue with Rachel's computer, perhaps a malfunctioning application. To help troubleshoot Rachel's computer, you run Task Manager. Which of the following tabs would be the MOST helpful for getting an overall view of how her computer is running? (Select TWO). (no image) Processes Performance Services Users App history Details

Processes Performance The Processes and Performance tabs both show the overall performance of the main areas of the computer, including CPU, memory, disk, network, and GPU. App history only displays performance and statistics for Microsoft applications. Details only shows individual CPU utilization for each program running. Users show the same statistic as Processes and Performance, but they are divided out by each individual user instead of for the entire computer. Services only shows whether services are running or stopped; it does not display statistics.

What is the purpose of the Microsoft Management Console (MMC)? (Select TWO). View historical data that describes the operating system's stability. Provide a shell for running snap-ins. Provide a common user interface for performing system administration tasks. Display statistics that tell you about the operation of your computer. Process requests from other applications or users.

Provide a shell for running snap-ins. Provide a common user interface for performing system administration tasks. EXPLANATION The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a framework that provides a common user interface for performing system administration tasks. You can manage a set of related features by adding snap-ins to the console. The MMC provides the shell for running these snap-ins, while the snap-ins provide the details for performing specific management tasks. A service is a program that processes requests from other applications or users. Services can start automatically, or they might be constantly running in the background, waiting for service requests. Use the Services snap-in to view and manage running services. Performance Monitor displays statistics that tell you about the operation of your computer. Reliability Monitor maintains historical data that describe the operating system's stability.

Match each security policy on the left with the appropriate description on the right. Each security policy may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Provides a high-level overview of the organization's security program. Defines an employee's rights to use company property. Identifies the requirements for credentials used to authenticate to company-owned systems. Identifies a set of rules or standards that define personal behaviors. Sets expectations for user privacy when using company resources. Specifies that user accounts should be locked after a certain number of failed login attempts.

Provides a high-level overview of the organization's security program. - Organizational Security Policy Defines an employee's rights to use company property. - Acceptable Use Policy Identifies the requirements for credentials used to authenticate to company-owned systems. - Password Policy Identifies a set of rules or standards that define personal behaviors. - Code of Ethics Sets expectations for user privacy when using company resources. - Acceptable Use Policy Specifies that user accounts should be locked after a certain number of failed login attempts. - Password Policy EXPLANATION An Organizational Security Policy is a high-level overview of the organization's security program. An Acceptable use Policy (AUP) defines an employee's rights to use company property. The AUP should also set expectations for user privacy when using company resources. Password Policy identifies the requirements for passwords used to authenticate to company-owned systems. For example, this policy may specify that user accounts should be disabled or locked out after a certain number of failed login attempts.

Match each cloud computing definition on the left with the appropriate characteristic on the right. Each characteristic may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Provides resources to a single organization. Combines public, private, and community cloud resources from different service providers. Designed to be shared by several organizations. Provides computing resources that are accessible by the general public. Keeps one organization data separate and secure from any other organization using the same service provider.

Provides resources to a single organization. - Private cloud Combines public, private, and community cloud resources from different service providers. - Hybrid cloud Designed to be shared by several organizations. - Community cloud Provides computing resources that are accessible by the general public. - Public cloud Keeps one organization data separate and secure from any other organization using the same service provider. - Private cloud EXPLANATION In a public cloud, computing resources such as platforms, applications, and storage are made available to the general public by a cloud service provider. A private cloud provides resources to a single organization. The cloud service provider ensures the organization's data is kept separate and secure from any other organization using the same service provider. A community cloud is designed to be shared by several organizations. A hybrid cloud combines public, private, and community cloud resources from different service providers.

You have a workstation running Windows Vista Business edition that you would like to upgrade to Windows 10 Enterprise edition. You want to perform the upgrade with the least amount of effort and cost. Which of the following would BEST meet your needs? Purchase a full version of Windows 10 and perform a custom installation. Purchase an upgrade version of Windows 10 and perform an in-place upgrade. Purchase a full version of Windows 10 and perform an in-place upgrade. Purchase an upgrade version of Windows 10 and perform a custom installation.

Purchase a full version of Windows 10 and perform a custom installation. EXPLANATION You must purchase a full version of Windows 10 when moving from Windows XP and perform a clean installation. An in-place upgrade is only possible when moving from Windows 7 or 8 to Windows 10. Because you are performing a clean installation, all of the user profile data on the Vista installation should be backed up first using WET or USMT. After the installation of Windows 10 is complete, you should restore the user profile data and then reinstall all applications.

You are an IT technician for your company. Vivian has been receiving error messages indicating that some of her Windows system files are corrupt or missing. To fix this issue, you ran the Windows System File Checker tool (SFC.exe). Shortly after the files were repaired, Vivian calls again because she is still having the same issue. You now suspect that the corruption or renaming of the system files is being caused by malware. Which of the following is the next BEST step that should be taken? Disable System Restore. Back up Vivian's critical files and perform a clean install of Windows. Quarantine Vivian's computer. Perform a scan using anti-malware software.

Quarantine Vivian's computer. When you suspect that a computer may be infected with malware, you should immediately quarantine the computer to prevent the propagation of the malware. After the computer is isolated, you can begin to remove the malware, starting by disabling System Restore, updating your anti-malware software, and then performing an anti-malware scan. Backing up an infected computer only saves the problem for future users.

You have a file which you would like other users to see, but not modify. Which file attribute should you use? H A S R

R EXPLANATION The Read-only (R) attribute marks a file as read-only, meaning that the file cannot be altered by subsequent users. A file attribute is metadata that gives certain qualities to a file after the attribute has been assigned. The Archive (A) attribute identifies whether a file has been modified since the last backup. The System (S) attribute identifies a file as a system file that cannot be deleted. The Hidden (H) attribute hides a file within the file system so it cannot be viewed or accessed by users that do not have access to its specific filename.

You have been tasked with designing a workstation that will run VMware Workstation virtualization software. A software engineer will use it to run virtual machines for application development and testing. Which of the following criteria should MOST likely be included in your design for this system? (Select TWO). Video card with HDMI output RAID 5 disk array RAM configured to run in quad-channel mode 64-bit processor with eight cores HTPC form factor

RAM configured to run in quad-channel mode 64-bit processor with eight cores EXPLANATION Virtual machines place a very heavy load on the host system's RAM and CPU. Therefore, the most important criteria to be included in the design for this workstation would be: RAM configured to run in quad-channel mode 64-bit processor with eight cores A video card with HDMI output and an HTPC form factor would be more appropriate for a home theater system. A RAID 5 disk array would be appropriate for a virtualization workstation, but is less important than the choice of processor and RAM.

You have configured your Windows systems to automatically back up user data every night at midnight. You also take a system image backup once per month. What else should you do to ensure that you are protected from data loss? (Select TWO.) Restrict restoration privileges to system administrators. Regularly test restoration procedures. Configure System Maintenance to automatically defragment system hard drives every night. Write-protect all backup media. Store a copy of all backups off-site.

Regularly test restoration procedures. Store a copy of all backups off-site. EXPLANATION The only way to ensure that you are protected from data loss is to regularly test your restoration procedures. This activity will reveal whether or not your backup process is functioning properly and whether or not your restoration procedures will actually work. You should also store a redundant copy of your backups at an offsite location. The chance that a disaster at your main sight will also affect backups stored offsite is very small. Restoration privileges should be restricted to trusted staff to prevent confidentiality violations. However, this is a security issue and is not related to the issue of data restoration in this scenario. Write-protecting backup media will provide little protection for the stored data because it can be easily removed.

A user reports that his machine will no longer boot properly. After asking several questions to determine the problem, you suspect the user unknowingly downloaded malware from the internet, and that the malware corrupted the boot block. Based on your suspicions, which of the following actions would you MOST likely take to correct the problem? (Select TWO.) Have the user attend an internal internet safety training course. Boot into Safe Mode and try removing the malware. Reimage the machine. Boot from the Windows installation DVD and use the Recovery Environment to run a startup repair. Run sfc.exe.

Reimage the machine. Boot from the Windows installation DVD and use the Recovery Environment to run a startup repair. EXPLANATION From the Recovery Environment, run a startup repair operation. If you have an existing image of the computer, you could also reimage the system. However, all data and applications added to the system since the image was created will be lost. Reimaging the system will typically get Windows back up and running on the computer more quickly than manually re-installing the operating system. User training is a preventative measure against malware infections; however, the training will not repair the current damage. Sfc.exe scans every system file in the operating system for altered files, but does not scan the master boot record or the volume boot record. Since the machine no longer boots properly, booting into Safe Mode is not an option in this scenario.

Which of the following is the process of fixing problems detected by anti-virus software so that the computer is restored to its original state? Isolation Scanning Quarantine Remediation

Remediation EXPLANATION Remediation is the process of correcting any problems that are found. Most antivirus software remediates problems automatically or semi-automatically (you are prompted to identify the action to take). Quarantine is the process of moving an infected file or computer to a safe location so that the problem cannot affect or spread to other files or computers. Isolation is one method of performing quarantine. Scanning is the process of checking a system for infected files.

Which of the following remote access mechanisms on a Windows system lets you watch what a user is doing and, if necessary, take control of the user's desktop to perform configuration tasks? Remote Desktop Telnet SSH Remote Assistance

Remote Assistance EXPLANATION Within a Remote Assistance session, you can see what a user is doing, or you can take control of the desktop and perform configuration actions while the user watches. Remote Desktop lets you connect to a remote system and perform configuration tasks. However, you cannot watch what others do at the desktop, and they will not be able to see what you are doing. Telnet and SSH only provide remote access to the console prompt, not the entire graphical desktop.

A user works primarily in your organization's production area. However, she frequently needs to access data stored on her Windows 10 desktop system in her office while on the production floor. She would like to be able to use a system in the production area to remotely access her desktop system using a network connection. Which groups on her desktop system could you make her user account a member of to enable this configuration? (Select TWO.) Users Power Users Remote Desktop Users Administrators Guests

Remote Desktop Users Administrators EXPLANATION Only users who are members of the Administrators or Remote Desktop Users groups are allowed to establish Remote Desktop sessions with a Windows system. Either group may be used; however, in this scenario, the best option would probably be to make her a member of the Remote Desktop Users group instead of Administrators to avoid granting her too many permissions and rights. Members of the Power Users, Users, and Guests groups are not allowed to establish Remote Desktop connections with a Windows system.

A home office user employs a technician to secure a Windows computer. To secure the local accounts, which of the following actions should the technician perform? (Select TWO). Rename the Administrator account. Remove the Power Users group. Disable the Guest Account. Move all accounts in the Administrators group to the Users group. Move all accounts in the Guests group to the Users group.

Rename the Administrator account. Disable the Guest Account. EXPLANATION When securing a Windows computer that is in a home office and not part of a domain, a best practice is to rename the Administrator account and disable the Guest account. Beginning with Windows Vista, the Power Users group is only present for backwards compatibility with previous versions. It has no bearing on the security of a Windows computer. Moving all accounts in the Administrators group to the Users group will eliminate the ability of the accounts to perform administrative functions. Moving all accounts in the Guests group to the Users group may not change the effective security of the accounts, but the profiles for these accounts will not be deleted when the users sign out.

A technician is servicing a laptop that works properly when the power adapter is plugged in. Even though the battery icon shows that the battery is fully charged, when the laptop is unplugged, the laptop immediately shuts down. Which of the following actions should the technician perform? Replace the power adapter. Change the power options mode to Balanced. Replace the laptop battery. Change the power options mode to Power Saver.

Replace the laptop battery. EXPLANATION Since the laptop is unable to run using the power supplied by the battery, the battery is defective and should be replaced. Changing the power options mode to Power Saver will reduce the drain on the battery, but will not revive a defective battery. The laptop works correctly when using only the power supplied by the power adapter. The power adapter is not defective. Changing the power options mode to Balanced will balance the laptop performance with energy consumption, but will not revive a defective battery.

Which tool can you use to display hardware utilization statistics that tell you about the operation of your computer? Event Viewer Resource Monitor Computer Management Advanced System Settings

Resource Monitor Resource Monitor displays statistics that tell you about the operation of your computer. Statistics include memory and CPU use, disk access, and network utilization. Use Event Viewer to view logs about programs, system events, and security. Use Advanced System Settings to configure settings such as remote access and the location of your paging file. Computer Management is a saved Microsoft Management Console (MMC) console that is used to manage your computer.

You are an IT technician for your company. Fred calls you complaining that every time he opens his internet browser, the default home page has been changed to a site he is not familiar with. You suspect this change is being caused by a malware infection on his system. However, after you run antimalware and antivirus software on Fred's system, it is still having the same issue. Which of the following would be the next BEST way to remove the malware? Format Fred's disks and perform a clean installation of the operating system. Purchase a new disk and deploy a backup image of Windows. Restore Fred's computer back to a previous restore point. Perform an image deployment from a backup image to restore Fred's computer to a known good point.

Restore Fred's computer back to a previous restore point. EXPLANATION Although all of the options could remove the malware and virus, the best first step is to try to restore the computer back to a restore point prior to the infection. If the infection has been included in all of the restore points, the next best thing would be to restore the drive using a good image that contains the operating system and the programs and files required by your company.

Micka, a tech-savvy employee, tried to upgrade her computer from Windows 7 to Windows 10 from the internet. Something went wrong during the upgrade, and Micka's computer will no longer boot to Windows. She has brought her computer to the IT department for you to repair. You have tried to repair the computer, but you are unable to get it to boot to Windows. Which of the following methods would be the QUICKEST way to get Micka's computer back to its original Windows 7 operating system? Download and reinstall Windows 7 using the Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK) for Windows 7. Using the Windows 7 DVD, perform an upgrade. Restore her system using the recovery partition. Connect her computer to your external flash drive and install Windows 7 from the data it contains.

Restore her system using the recovery partition. EXPLANATION The recovery partition contains a Windows 7 factory image as it came fresh from the factory, including all of the correct drivers for its devices. Her system can be recovered using this partition, but all of her data will be lost. Since the original installation of Windows 7 was corrupted during the upgrade process, trying to do an upgrade from the source DVD will not detect the old operating system, and it will fail. The Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK) for Windows 7 helps you to install and customize the Microsoft Windows 7 operating systems, but would take more time to download and manually install than restoring the image from the recovery partition. Reinstalling Windows using the DVD or an external flash drive would be time-consuming and may require additional steps to download and install the drivers required.

Bryce's computer is acting unusually sluggish today. He calls you, an IT technician, to see if you can find out what is going on and to improve his computer's performance. You run Task Manager on Bryce's computer and find that a suspicious application has nearly 90% CPU utilization. Which of the following can be used from Task Manager to stop the application from running? Right-click > Disconnect Right-click > Stop Right-click > End task Right-click > Switch to Right-click > Disable

Right-click > End task EXPLANATION From the Processes page, you can right-click on the offending application and select End task. This will stop the program from running, and the computer's CPU should return to a more normal utilization. Right-click > Switch to is used from the App history tab open a Microsoft application. Right-click > Disable is used from the Startup tab to stop a program from running on the next boot. Right-click > Disconnect is used from the Users tab to disconnect a user from a computer. Right-click > Stop is used from the Services page to stop a service from running.

Jodie's computer is acting unusually sluggish today. She calls you, an IT technician, to see if you can find out what is going on and to improve her computer's performance. You run Task Manager on Jodie's computer and find that a suspicious application has nearly 90% CPU utilization. Which of the following actions can you take from Task Manager to stop the application from running? Right-click > Stop Right-click > Disconnect Right-click > Disable Right-click > End task Right-click > Switch to

Right-click > End task EXPLANATION From the Processes page, you can right-click on the offending application and select End task. This will stop the program from running, and the computer's CPU should return to a more normal utilization. Right-click > Switch to is used from the App history tab open a Microsoft application. Right-click > Disable is used from the Startup tab to stop a program from running on the next boot. Right-click > Disconnect is used from the Users tab to disconnect a user from a computer. Right-click > Stop is used from the Services page to stop a service from running.

Some software on Rachel's computer is telling her that her computer is at risk and that she needs to purchase an upgrade for the software before the risk can be removed. Confused, Rachel calls you (the IT specialist) for advice. After meeting with Rachel, you discover that the pop-up warnings only began after she installed a plug-in for her internet browser. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these warning messages? SPAM Rogue antivirus Hijacked email App scanner

Rogue antivirus EXPLANATION Rogue antiviruses are programs maliciously added to a computer, which will then often display pop-up or warning messages that try to scare a user into purchasing fake products to clean their computers. SPAM is the type of unwanted and unsolicited email a user gets. Hijacked email is when someone deceptively takes over your legitimate email account, typically by guessing your password. App scanner is software that allows a mobile phone to scan documents.

A technician suspects that an app on a tablet device may be surreptitiously using the camera without permission. Which of the following would be the BEST way to troubleshoot this issue? Run an anti-malware scan. Remove all Bluetooth pairings. Perform a soft reset on the device. Check the results of a cell tower analyzer.

Run an anti-malware scan. EXPLANATION An app that uses the phone camera without permission could be categorized as malware. A malware scan should detect this issue. Removing all Bluetooth pairings will not protect the camera from being used without permission. Checking the results of a cell tower analyzer will not prevent the camera being used without permission. Performing a soft reset on the device will stop all apps, but will not protect the camera from being used without permission.

You manage Windows desktops for your organization. You recently updated all of your workstations to Windows 10. Your organization relies on a particular application, which worked correctly on Windows 7, but now does not run in Windows 10. You have checked the application vendor's website, but they do not provide a Windows 10 update. What are your options for running the application? (Select TWO) Purchase a new application that runs on Windows 10. Make all users who need to run the application members of the local Administrators group. Run the application in Compatibility Mode. Create a virtual computer that runs Windows 7. Run the virtual computer each time the application runs. Run the application in its own memory space.

Run the application in Compatibility Mode. Create a virtual computer that runs Windows 7. Run the virtual computer each time the application runs. Use Compatibility Mode in Windows to run older applications as if they were running under a different operating system version. Older applications are often written to require full system access, which is not allowed on newer versions of Windows because of UAC. Compatibility Mode creates a shim, or a layer, that makes the application think it has access to the system that is typically denied in Windows 10. On Windows 10, you can also run a virtual machine of Windows 7 for applications that cannot run using Compatibility Mode or other solutions. Granting users administrative privileges gives them rights to the entire system, not just to the single application. On Windows 7 and later, most applications already run in a separate memory space. Purchasing a new application could be costly. You should explore other options before investing in new software.

You need to boot a Windows 10 system into Safe Mode. Which steps will accomplish this task? (Select TWO. Each choice is a complete solution.) Press F2 at startup. Run the msconfig.exe utility and specify the boot mode. Press F8 at startup. Press ALT at startup. Select Start > Settings > Update & Security > Recovery > Advanced startup > Restart Now.

Run the msconfig.exe utility and specify the boot mode. Select Start > Settings > Update & Security > Recovery > Advanced startup > Restart Now. You can also boot the system into Safe Mode by selecting Start > Settings > Update & Security > Recovery > Advanced startup > Restart now. The computer restarts into the Advanced Startup Options and then select Troubleshoot > Advanced Options > Startup Settings > Restart. The system will restart and then select the desired Safe Mode option. Alternately you can run the msconfig.exe utility to specify which boot mode you would like to use, then reboot the system. When working with Windows 7 and earlier, pressing the F8 button during the system boot brings up the Advanced Boot Options menu. This option is not available by default on systems running Windows 8 and later. Pressing F2 during the boot process brings up the UEFI/Bios on many systems. Pressing ALT does not do anything on most systems.

Which of the following can be used to create a secure connection to a remote server? Telnet SMTP FTP SSH ICMP

SSH EXPLANATION You can use Telnet or SSH to remotely log on to a server and complete configuration tasks. However, SSH provides a secure connection; Telnet does not. You use FTP to transfer files; FTP by itself is not secure. The ICMP protocol is used to transmit error messages on an IP network. SMTP is the protocol email servers use to send email between mail servers.

Which of the following is used on a wireless network to identify the network name? WPA2 passphrase SSID WEP key MAC address

SSID EXPLANATION Wireless devices use the SSID (Service Set Identification) to identify the network name. All devices on a wireless network use the same SSID. The MAC address is a unique physical device address. The WPA2 Personal passphrase and the WEP key are both mechanisms used to secure wireless communications.

An administrator configures the Time Machine application on Mac OS computers and develops scripts that use the tar command on Linux computers. Which of the following best practices is the administrator following? Patch management Scheduled backups Driver/firmware updates Scheduled disk maintenance

Scheduled backups The Time Machine application on Mac OS computers and the tar command in Linux are used for backups. While Time Machine and tar can be used to restore disk files, scheduled disk maintenance is usually performed to maintain disk and filesystem integrity. Patch management involves updating operating systems and applications, not performing backups. Driver/firmware updates involves updating the middleware that interfaces with internal and external devices, not performing backups.

A technician finds that after restoring the operating system on a mobile device, the touch screen operates unpredictably. This happens in both the default orientation or when the screen is rotated. Which of the following would BEST correct the problem? Screen calibration App Store Wi-Fi calling Virtual assistant

Screen calibration EXPLANATION The touchscreen may be misaligned after restoring the operating system. You can rectify this by following the manufacturer's instructions for the device to recalibrate the screen. Virtual assistant is an application that understands voice commands and completes tasks for the users. A virtual assistance might suggest a screen calibration or open the screen calibration utility when given the device symptoms, but is not the best answer is this scenario. The App Store may have an application that could help calibrate a touch screen, but is not the best answer is this scenario. Wi-Fi calling is the ability to make phone calls and send text messages over a Wi-Fi connection.

Which function is commonly associate with the following icon? Screen brightness (increase/decrease) Volume settings (up/down/mute) Touchpad (on/off). Screen orientation

Screen orientation EXPLANATION This icon is commonly associated with the Screen orientation function key.

You're troubleshooting a computer that runs Windows 10. The operating system has halted and a blue screen is displayed on the monitor with an error message. What is the first step you should take to troubleshoot the issue? Update the BIOS. Remove all memory modules and replace them one at a time until the error reappears. Check the voltage levels on the DC side of the power supply. Search for the error in Microsoft's knowledge base or using an internet search engine. Uninstall the last application or system update that was installed.

Search for the error in Microsoft's knowledge base or using an internet search engine. EXPLANATION The first thing you should do when a Blue Screen of Death is displayed is identify the source of the error by searching for the error text message in Microsoft's knowledgebase or across the internet in general using a search engine such as Google. This will help you identify what is causing the problem so you can troubleshoot it.

You provide desktop support at the branch office of a bank. One of the Windows workstations you manage is used to set up new customer accounts and fill out customer loan applications. Each user account on the system has been assigned a strong password. File and folder permissions have been assigned to prevent users from accessing each other's files. Which of the following would MOST likely increase the security of this system? (Select TWO. Each option is a complete solution.) Secure the computer system to the desk with a cable lock. Install a privacy filter on the monitor. Assign each user a simple password so they won't be tempted to write it down. Enable the Guest account. Make user accounts members of the Administrators group.

Secure the computer system to the desk with a cable lock. Install a privacy filter on the monitor. EXPLANATION Because this system is used in close proximity to customers, you should install a privacy filter on the monitor. The privacy filter prevents customers from viewing sensitive information displayed on the monitor (such as usernames, passwords, and account numbers). You should also secure this system to the desk with a cable lock. Securing the computer to the desk prevents a malicious person from stealing the computer and all of the sensitive information it contains. Enabling the Guest user account would decrease the security of the system as would assigning simple passwords to user accounts and making all users members of the Administrators group.

You have a computer that runs Windows 10. Where would you go to verify that the system has recognized the anti-malware software installed on the system? Network and Sharing Center Security and Maintenance Windows Firewall System

Security and Maintenance EXPLANATION Use Security and Maintenance in Control Panel to check the current security status of your computer. Security and Maintenance displays whether you have anti-malware, firewall, and automatic updates configured. Use the firewall to open and close firewall ports. Use System to perform tasks such as viewing system information and enabling Remote Desktop. Use the Network and Sharing Center to view the status of your network connections.

Marcus was attempting to tweak the way his Windows 10 workstation boots when he inadvertently corrupted his system boot files. It will now no longer boot to a logon prompt. He boots the system from the Windows installation disc and accesses the Recovery Environment. What should he do next? Select Troubleshoot > Advanced Options > Startup Repair Select Troubleshoot > Advanced Options > System Restore Select Troubleshoot > Reset this PC Select Troubleshoot > Advanced Options > Go Back to the Previous Build

Select Troubleshoot > Advanced Options > Startup Repair EXPLANATION He should select Troubleshoot > Advanced Options > Startup Repair. This option should be able to fix his startup files. Resetting the PC would also work, but it is a much more drastic option. You should try simpler recovery options first before moving to more aggressive ones. Reverting to a restore point probably won't fix the problem as System Protection only protects Windows system files, not boot files.

Which of the following are common forms of social engineering attacks? Sending hoax virus information emails. Using a sniffer to capture network traffic. Stealing the key card of an employee and using that to enter a secured building. Distributing false information about your organization's financial status.

Sending hoax virus information emails. EXPLANATION Hoax virus information emails are a form of social engineering attack. This type of attack preys on email recipients who are fearful and will believe most information if it is presented in a professional manner. The victims of these attacks usually fail to double-check the information or instructions with a reputable third party anti-virus software vendor before implementing the recommendations. Usually, these hoax messages instruct the reader to delete key system files or download Trojan horses. Social engineering relies on the trusting nature of individuals to take an action or allow unauthorized action.

Anna, a home office user, employs a technician to check the security on a computer that was hacked. The technician discovers that the user's password is the name of Anna's dog and hasn't been changed in over a year. Which of the following security best practices should the technician recommend? (Select TWO). Set a password expiration period. Configure the screen saver to require a password. Restrict user permissions. Set the number of failed password attempts to two. Require a strong password.

Set a password expiration period. Require a strong password. EXPLANATION Strong passwords are harder to hack, and they should be changed frequently. Screen saver passwords may not be needed in a home office environment. Restricting user permissions for Ann will not increase security. Setting a lower number of password attempts may not be warranted in a home office environment.

A small business hires an after-hours cleaning service that is known to have a high turnover of employees. They want to prevent unauthorized access to their computers, but do not want to spend money on new hardware. Which of the following is the BEST solution? Restrict user permissions. Set login time restrictions. Change the default account names and passwords. Require strong passwords.

Set login time restrictions. EXPLANATION Setting login time restrictions will allow logins during normal business hours. Restricting user permissions will do nothing to protect from unauthorized users. Requiring strong passwords with make it harder for unauthorized users to gain access, but is not the best solution in this scenario. Changing the default account names and passwords will make the computers more secure, but is not the best solution in this scenario.

A user is trying to log into her notebook computer. She enters the correct password for her user account, but the system won't let her authenticate, claiming the wrong password has been entered. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem? She has entered the wrong password too many times, causing Intruder Detection in Windows to lock the system. The keyboard must be replaced. She has enabled Num Lock, causing numbers to be sent from the keyboard instead of letters. The Scroll Lock key has been pressed, locking all input from the keyboard. The CPU is in power-save mode, causing all login attempts to be denied.

She has enabled Num Lock, causing numbers to be sent from the keyboard instead of letters. EXPLANATION The most likely cause of this user's problem is that the Num Lock key sequence for the notebook system has been pressed causing the keyboard to send numbers in the place of letters. Turning Num Lock off should fix the problem.

A user is trying to log into Windows on her notebook computer. She enters the correct password for her user account, but the system won't let her authenticate, claiming the wrong password has been entered. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this problem? She has turned Num Lock on, causing the keyboard to register numbers instead of letters. The CPU is in power-save mode, causing all login attempts to be denied. The Scroll Lock key has been pressed, locking all input from the keyboard. She has entered the wrong password too many times, causing Intruder Detection in Windows to lock the system. The keyboard must be replaced.

She has turned Num Lock on, causing the keyboard to register numbers instead of letters. EXPLANATION The most likely cause of this user's problem is that the Num Lock key sequence for the notebook system has been pressed, causing the keyboard register numbers rather than letters. Turning Num Lock off should fix the problem. When Intruder Detection is enabled, no logon attempts are allowed, even if the correct password is used.

While organizing a storage cabinet, a technician discovers a box of hard drives that are incompatible with current hardware and may contain sensitive data. Which of the following is the BEST method for disposing of these drives? Partitioning Shredding Overwriting Formatting

Shredding EXPLANATION A physical method of destroying the hard drives is best. This includes shredding, drilling, pulverizing, degaussing, and incinerating. If not done repeatedly, overwriting may leave recoverable data on the disk. Formatting will leave recoverable data on the disk. Partitioning will leave recoverable data on the disk.

You have a set of DVD-RW discs that have been used to archive files for your latest development project. You need to dispose of the discs. Which of the following methods should you use to BEST prevent extracting data from the discs? Degaussing Shredding Delete the data on the discs Write junk data over the discs 7 times

Shredding EXPLANATION To completely prevent reading data from discs, destroy them using a DVD shredder or crushing. Degaussing only works for magnetic media such as floppy and hard disk drives. Simply deleting data offers little protection. Overwriting the data multiple times is not efficient in this scenario as the discs can simply be destroyed.

A security technician is conducting a forensic analysis. Which of the following actions is MOST likely to destroy critical evidence? Copying the contents of memory to removable media Restricting physical access to the system Disconnecting the system from the network Shutting down the system

Shutting down the system EXPLANATION Shutting down or rebooting a compromised system will erase the memory contents. An attacker may load and run a memory-resident program and immediately erase it from the disk. Shutting down or rebooting the system will destroy all evidence of the malicious program.

Travis, a long-haul truck driver, reports that when driving on remote highways, his smartphone battery drains faster than normal, and his phone calls often cut out. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the fast battery drain? Multiple Bluetooth connections Limited data plan A defective SIM card Signal drop or weak signal

Signal drop or weak signal EXPLANATION A smartphone can use excessive battery power performing cell signal searches when cell service is nonexistent, weak, or sporadic. Bluetooth connections do not require as much power as cellular and Wi-Fi. In this scenario, multiple Bluetooth connections is not the most likely reason for battery drain. A defective SIM card would most likely cause phone problems whether or not there is cellular service. Battery drain only occurs when the cellular signal is weak or nonexistent. A limited data plan does not affect battery drain or cellular connectivity.

Which ACPI power state allows a system to start where it left off, but all other components are turned off? Working Mechanical Off Sleeping Soft Off

Sleeping EXPLANATION The Sleeping power state has a sleep state (S4) that allows the operating system context to be saved to a hibernation file. All other components are turned off. When the computer is restarted, the loader reads the hibernate file and jumps to the system's previous, pre-hibernation location. The Working state means the computer is running and is usable. Soft Off has similar traits to some of the sleeping states, but the computer’s contents are not saved and a full reboot is required. Mechanical Off means the system is completely turned off and is not consuming any power. No information from RAM is saved.

Which of the following security technologies stores identification information in a magnetic strip, radio frequency transmitter, or hardware contact to authorize access to a computer? ID badge SSID Biometric Smart card Key fob

Smart card EXPLANATION A smart card contains identification information stored on a magnetic strip, radio frequency transmitter, or hardware contact that allow it to interact with a smart card reader to authorize access. The reader uses information on the card to allow or deny access. A biometric is a physical characteristic of a human that can be scanned to control access. A key fob can be used for accessing an automobile, but is not used for computer access. An ID badge can be just a picture with a name on it and may or may not also be a smart card. In Windows, the Local Security Policy is a collection of settings that control how the system behaves. The SSID is the name of a wireless network.

Which of the following is not a form of biometrics? Face recognition Retina scan Smart card Fingerprint

Smart card EXPLANATION A smart card is used in token-based authentication, so it is not a form of biometrics. Biometrics rely on personal characteristics (such as fingerprints, facial recognition, or a retina scan) to prove identity. A smart card is an example of the something you have authentication factor.

Joe, an executive, receives an email that appears to be from the financial institution that provides his company credit card. The text of the email includes Joe's name and the company name and states that there is a problem with Joe's credit card. The email provides a link to verify the credit card, but when Joe hovers over the link, he thinks the web address seems strange. Which of the following BEST describes this type of attack? Man-in-the-middle attack Zero-day attack Social engineering Brute forcing

Social engineering EXPLANATION Social engineering is the use of deception to manipulate individuals into sharing confidential or personal information that can be used for unlawful purposes. A zero-day attack is an exploit of an operating system or software vulnerability that is unknown and unpatched by the author. Brute force can be used to crack a username, password, or other authentication using trial and error, usually by trying all possibly permutations. A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack intercepts communications between two systems and alters the message before sending it on to the original recipient.

Which type of malicious activity can be described as numerous unwanted and unsolicited email messages sent to a wide range of victims? Email hijacking Trojan Crimeware Spamming

Spamming EXPLANATION Spamming is a type of malicious activity in which numerous unwanted and unsolicited email messages are sent to a wide range of victims. Spam itself may or may not be malicious in nature. Unfortunately, spam accounts for 40 to 60 percent of the email traffic on the internet. Most of this activity is unsolicited.

Which of the following best describes the use of Libraries in Windows? Special folders that hold files of the same type (such as pictures, music, or video). Special folders that group files and folders, possibly stored in both local or network locations, into a single logical folder. A simple way of sharing files and resources on a small home network. An indexing service that catalogues the contents of your hard drive for easy search and file categorization.

Special folders that group files and folders, possibly stored in both local or network locations, into a single logical folder. The Libraries feature is used to group files and folders stored both locally and on network locations into a single logical folder. When you open a library, you see the files and folders associated with that library as if they were in a single folder, even though the library contents might exist in several different locations in the file system. While Libraries can be used to group files of the same type, that is not their only purpose. System folders (such as My Pictures or My Videos) are typically used to group files by type. All files in these folders are within the same folder, unlike Libraries that logically group files from multiple locations. HomeGroups are a simple way of sharing resources and managing authentication to resources on a home network.

A router on the border of your network receives a packet with a source address that shows it originating from a client on the internal network. However, the packet was received on the router's external interface, which means it originated somewhere on the Internet. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack which as occurred in this scenario? Snooping Spoofing Session hijacking Sniffing Man-in-the-middle

Spoofing This is an example of spoofing. Spoofing involves changing or falsifying information in order to mislead or re-direct traffic. In this scenario, the router's external interface cannot receive a valid packet with a source address from the internal network. One must assume that the source address of the packet was faked. Snooping is the act of spying into private information or communications. One type of snooping is sniffing. Sniffing is the act of capturing network packets in order to examine the contents of communications. A man-in-the-middle attack is a technological attack where a malicious person intercepts network communications between two hosts, posing as the sender to the receiver and as the receiver to the sender. Session hijacking is an extension of a man-in-the-middle attack where the attacker hijacks an active communication session.

After receiving several complaints from the employees in your company, you start to troubleshoot a laser printer. After a short while, you have concluded that the most probable cause is a dirty drum. Which of the following is the MOST logical reasons for this conclusion? A blank page Spots at regular intervals on the page Ghost images on the page Garbage characters on the page

Spots at regular intervals on the page EXPLANATION Spots at regular intervals on the page typically indicate a dirty drum. Blank pages are caused by no toner or a faulty primary corona. Ghost images are caused by a faulty scraper blade or discharge lamp. Garbage characters are caused by using the wrong print driver.

A technician is tasked with repairing a laptop keyboard with sticking keys. Which of the following actions should the technician perform before replacing the keyboard? Enable the Bounce Keys setting to ignore repeated keystrokes. Disable the Sticky Keys keyboard setting. Repeatedly drop a small rubber ball on each sticky key. Spray compressed air between the keys.

Spray compressed air between the keys. EXPLANATION Spraying compressed air between keyboard keys will remove dust and debris that cause sticking keys. Sticky Key settings allow users to press keyboard shortcuts (such as Ctrl+ Alt + Del) one key at a time. This setting does not help physically sticking keys. Bounce key settings control how repeated keystrokes are handled. When set, repeated keystrokes are ignored for a specific amount of time. Dropping a small rubber ball on sticking keys is not likely to unstick them.

A security incident is currently occurring on the company network. You discover that the attack involves a computer system that is attached to the network. You're unsure what kind of damage is being done to the network systems or data. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST? Stop the attack and contain the damage by disconnecting the system from the network. Examine the active computer system to analyze the live network connection, memory contents, and running programs. Determine whether you have the expertise to conduct an investigation, or whether you need to call in additional help. Document and photograph the entire scene of the crime including the current state of the attached computer system.

Stop the attack and contain the damage by disconnecting the system from the network. EXPLANATION The first step in responding to an incident should be to take actions to stop the attack and contain the damage. If the attack involves a computer system attached to the network, the first step might be to disconnect it from the network. Although you want to preserve as much information as possible to assist in later investigations, it is better to stop the attack, even if doing so alerts the attacker or results in the loss of evidence regarding the attack. After containing the damage, subsequent steps you can take include, but are not limited to, the following: Examine the active computer system to analyze the live network connection, memory contents, and running programs. Document and photograph the entire scene of the crime, including the current state of the attached computer system. Determine whether you have the expertise to conduct an investigation, or whether you need to call in additional help.

A VPN is used primary for what purpose? Allow remote systems to save on long distance charges Support secured communications over an untrusted network Allow the use of network-attached printers Support the distribution of public Web documents

Support secured communications over an untrusted network EXPLANATION A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is used primarily to support secured communications over an untrusted network. A VPN can be used over a local area network, across a WAN connection, over the Internet, and even between a client and a server over a dial-up connection through the Internet. All of the other items listed in this question are benefits or capabilities that are secondary to this primary purpose.

A VPN is used primarily for which purpose? Allow remote systems to save on long distance charges. Support the distribution of public web documents. Support secured communications over an untrusted network. Allow the use of network-attached printers.

Support secured communications over an untrusted network EXPLANATION A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is used primarily to support secured communications over an untrusted network. A VPN can be used over a local area network, across a WAN connection, over the internet, and even between a client and a server over a dial-up connection through the internet. All of the other items listed in this question are benefits or capabilities that are secondary to this primary purpose.

A user is choosing a method to secure a mobile device. Which of the following types of screen locks is LEAST secure? Fingerprint lock Face lock Passcode lock Swipe lock

Swipe lock EXPLANATION Swipe lock is the least secure of the choices presented. It is relatively easy to duplicate the swipe pattern, even as far as six feet away. Face lock uses facial recognition that will become even more sophisticated in the future. Passcode lock is the most common lock method and is more effective when letters are mixed with digits. Fingerprint lock is the most secure of the choices presented.

A company is considering providing smartphones to their employees and is investigating the interaction of the phones with iTunes, iCloud, Google Drive, Dropbox, and OneDrive. Which of the following data synchronization methods is being considered? Synchronization to the desktop Synchronization to the cloud Mutual authentication for multiple services Synchronization connection types

Synchronization to the cloud EXPLANATION While iTunes can also be used to synchronize data to the desktop, iTunes , iCloud, Google Drive, Dropbox, and OneDrive can be used to synchronized mobile device data to the cloud. While iTunes can also be used to synchronize data to the desktop, iCloud, Google Drive, Dropbox, and OneDrive only synchronize data to the cloud. Mutual authentication for multiple services is way to permit a user to use one set of credentials to authentication to multiple applications and services. There are several connection types refers to the different connections that support synchronization, including hardwired Ethernet, Wi-Fi, USB and Cellular. The best connections for synchronization will be high speed and reliable.

Your job functions have recently changed. As a result, you find that you are needing to work with more running programs on your Windows 10 computer at a time. Although you haven't seen these in the past, you are now starting to receive error messages warning you of low virtual memory. However, no additional RAM can be added to your computer. Which of the following Control Panel utilities would BEST allow you to eliminate or reduce the number of error messages? Troubleshooting System Device Manager Programs

System EXPLANATION Starting at the Control Panel's System Settings, you can select Advanced System Settings and then navigate to Virtual Memory Performance Options. From there, you can change the way your computer handles virtual memory (page files). If needed, an initial and maximum size can be set. Since no additional RAM can be added to the computer, increasing these sizes should reduce or eliminate the low virtual memory error messages. Program lets you view the programs installed and, if needed, uninstall, change, or repair an application. These options will not increase the amount of virtual memory used. Although the Troubleshooting option can be used to locate and fix many issues, such as fixing problems with Windows Update, running maintenance tasks, and more, it will not let you increase the virtual memory settings. Device Manager allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. It does not let you increase the virtual memory settings.

A new computer has been added to the Sales department and needs to be joined to the CorpNet domain. Which of the following System Properties settings MUST be used to make the change? System Properties > Advanced System Properties > Computer Name System Properties > System Protection System Properties > Remote

System Properties > Computer Name EXPLANATION The Computer Name tab lets you view, change, or join a computer to a domain. The System Protection tab lets you configure and create system restore points. The Advanced tab lets you configure settings such as Performance, User Profiles, and Startup and Recovery. The Remove tab lets you configure Remote Assistance and Remote Desktop settings.

You want to perform a Windows update on your Windows 10 computer. Before doing so, you want to make sure you can easily go back to the state it was in prior to the update. Which of the following Control Panel utilities is BEST to enable and use prior to the update? System protection Performance View hidden files Program and Features

System protection EXPLANATION System protection provides full control over your System Restore operations. In Windows 10, System Protection is disabled by default. Before you perform the Windows update, you should enable this feature. Once enabled, Windows will automatically create restore points when system changes are made. However, it may be best to create the first restore point manually. If, for some reason, your Windows system is not functioning properly after the update, you can use this feature to restore your system back to the restore point created prior to the upgrade. Program and Features lets you view the programs installed on your computer and, if needed, uninstall, change, or repair an application. It cannot be used to create or use restore points. Performance lets you adjust settings to use for the appearance and performance of Windows. It also lets you configure some advanced settings, such as configuring virtual memory. It cannot be used to create or use restore points. View hidden files will let you see and work with files that are normally hidden. It cannot be used to create or use restore points.

An intruder waits near an organization's secured entrance until an employee approaches the entrance and unlocks it with a security badge. The intruder falls in line behind the employee, who assumes the intruder is another employee and holds the door open for her. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that just occurred? Smurf Denial of service Phishing Tailgating

Tailgating EXPLANATION A tailgating attack has occurred. Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized person follows behind an authorized person to enter a secured building or area within a building. Tailgating is also sometimes called piggybacking. In a phishing attack, a spoofed email containing a link to a fake website is used to trick users into revealing sensitive information, such as a username, password, bank account number, or credit card number. Both the email and the website used in the attack appear on the surface to be legitimate. A denial of service (DoS) attack involves using network mechanisms to flood a particular host with so many bogus requests that it can no longer respond to legitimate network requests. A Smurf attack is a distributed type of DoS attack that inserts a target system's IP address for the source address of ICMP echo request packets, causing a flood of ICMP echo response packets to be sent to a victim system.

An unauthorized person gains access to a secured area by following an authorized person through a door controlled by a badge reader. Which of the following security threats does this sentence describe? Tailgating Shoulder surfing Brute forcing Phishing

Tailgating EXPLANATION Tailgating describes the actions of an unauthorized person closely following an authorized person to gain access to a secure area. Shoulder surfing occurs when a one person obtains usernames, passwords, and other data by looking over the shoulder of another person. Brute forcing describes the process of cracking a username, password, decryption key, or network protocols using the trial-and-error method, often by testing all possible character combinations. Phishing is an attempt to trick a user into compromising personal information or downloading malware. Most often, it involves an email containing a malicious attachment or hyperlink.

You manage a Windows system. You want to view information about all of the programs running on your system and sort each program by the amount of memory and CPU that the program uses. Which tool should you use? msconfig Device Manager Task Manager Services

Task Manager EXPLANATION You can use Task Manager to view a list of processes running on your system. You can sort processes by CPU and memory use. Use the Services console to start and stop services. Use Device Manager to manage hardware devices. Use msconfig to customize the way the system boots.

You manage a Windows system. You want to view information about your computer, including the CPU utilization and information about disk I/O operations. Which tools could you use to do this? (Select TWO.) Device Manager Task Manager Services Performance Monitor Disk Management

Task Manager Performance Monitor EXPLANATION Use Performance Monitor to view statistics about the operation of your computer. Performance Monitor lets you choose the statistics you want to track in real time or create a log. You can also do this using Task Manager; however, you must manually add disk I/O parameters to be monitored. Use the Services console to manage system services. Use Device Manager to manage hardware devices. Use Disk Management to manage volumes and partitions.

Your computer has a quad-core processor that supports multithreading installed. Given that the system is running Windows, how can you verify whether multithreading has been enabled? Task Manager will show a single process running on multiple processors simultaneously. Task Manager can report CPU utilization values up to 800%. Task Manager will show each application running with two processes. Task Manager can display CPU utilization graphs for eight processors.

Task Manager can display CPU utilization graphs for eight processors. EXPLANATION For a processor that supports multithreading, Task Manager can be configured to display two CPU utilization graphs per core. Multithreading creates an additional virtual CPU for each core and allows the CPU to execute two threads at the same time. Because the system in this scenario has four cores, Task Manager can be configured to display eight utilization charts on the Performance tab. Many applications launch multiple processes that are associated with the same application. The number of processes for an application depends on how the application is designed, as well as the number of running instances of that application.

You would like to run an application on your Windows workstation every Monday at 3:00 p.m. Which tool would you use to configure the application to run automatically? Msconfig Startup folder Services Task Scheduler

Task Scheduler EXPLANATION The Task Scheduler is a tool that you can use to automatically start an application or run a script based on events. Triggers identify conditions that start the task. Triggers include day and time, logon, and system events. Common tasks that are scheduled to run at regular intervals include backups, system virus scans, and system updates. Use the Services console to view and manage services on your computer. Use the Msconfig utility to customize the way the Windows system boots.

You have an application that you would like to run on your Windows workstation every Monday at 3:00 p.m. Which tool would you use to configure the application to run automatically? Services msconfig Task Manager Task Scheduler msinfo32

Task Scheduler EXPLANATION The Task Scheduler is a tool that you can use to automatically start an application or run a script when certain events occur. Triggers identify conditions that start the task. Triggers include day and time, logon, and responses to other system events. Use the Services MMC to view and manage services on your computer. Use the msconfig utility to configure how the Windows operating system will boot. Use msinfo32 to view system information. You can use Task Manager to configure startup applications, but you can't use it to automatically run an application at a specific time.

Which Windows tool lets you perform automatic backups at regular times (such as on specific days at specific times)? Task Scheduler Task Manager Disk Management Event Manager

Task Scheduler EXPLANATION Use the Task Scheduler to schedule actions (such as a backup) to occur on a regular basis. You can use the Schedule option in Backup and Restore (Windows 7) in Control Panel to schedule when backups occur. (This approach actually creates a scheduled task.) Use Task Manager to view current operating statistics, such as the running processes and CPU and memory usage. Use Disk Management to manage hard disks, partitions, and volumes on your storage devices.

You are a security consultant. An organization has hired you to review their security measures. The organization is chiefly concerned that it could become the victim of a social engineering attack. Which of the following actions would you MOST likely recommend to mitigate the risk? Implement a border firewall to filter inbound network traffic. Teach users how to recognize and respond to social engineering attacks. Establish a written security policy. Train managers to monitor user activity.

Teach users how to recognize and respond to social engineering attacks. The best way to combat social engineering is to train users how to recognize and respond to social engineering attacks. For example, most organizations train employees to forward any calls or emails requesting a password or other network information to their help desk. Filtering network traffic with a firewall fails to address the human element involved in social engineering. While a written security policy is a necessary measure, it will do little to defend your network if your users don't know how to recognize social engineering attempts. Management oversight is expensive and unlikely to detect a social engineering attempt until it is too late. Raising user awareness of the issue tends to be much more effective.

The Hide Programs option setting is configured for a specific user as follows: Local Group Policy - enabled Default Domain Policy GPO - not configured GPO linked to the user's organizational unit - disabled After logging in, the user is able to see the Programs option. Why does this happen? The GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied first, so this setting takes precedence over settings that are applied later. The Default Domain GPO is applied last. It is set to Not configured, so it doesn't change the configuration. The Local Group Policy is applied last. It is set to Enabled, which makes the Programs option visible. The GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied last, so this setting takes precedence.

The GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied last, so this setting takes precedence. EXPLANATION The GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied last, so the setting that disables the policy to the hide the Programs and Features page takes precedence. In this question's scenario, Local Group Policy enables the policy to hide the Programs and Features page. When the Default Domain Policy GPO is applied, this policy is set to Not configured, so it doesn't change anything. When the GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied, the setting for this policy is disabled, which reverses the setting in the Local Group Policy and makes the Programs and Features page visible to the user. The Local Group Policy is applied first. GPOs linked to the user's domain are applied second and take precedence over settings in the Local Group Policy. GPOs linked to the user's organizational unit are applied last and take precedence over any preceding policy settings.

Using the Windows OS, Joe transfers a file in his Documents folder to a folder that has been configured to give Ann full control of all files. Instead of copying the files, Joe uses a move operation. Ann can read the file, but can't save any changes to the file. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason that Ann can't update the file? Joe is not a member of the Administrators group. Ann is not a member of the Administrators group. The Modify and Write permissions for Joe were set to Deny on the destination folder. The Modify and Write permissions for Ann were set to Deny when the file was in Joe's Documents folder.

The Modify and Write permissions for Ann were set to Deny when the file was in Joe's Documents folder. EXPLANATION When a file is copied in Windows, it's given the permissions granted in the destination folder, regardless of the permissions on the original file. When a file is moved, Windows attempts to keep the same permissions that the file had in the original folder. Most likely, the Modify and Write permissions for Ann were set to deny when the file was in Joe's Documents folder. If Ann was a member of the Administrators group, most likely, she would have been able to update the file. The permissions on the file are independent of whether or not Joe is a member of the Administrators group. If the Modify and Write permissions for Joe on the destination folder were set to Deny, Joe would not have been able to transfer the file.

Sound isn't coming from the internal speaker on a tablet device, even after a user checks its volume settings and makes sure it is not muted. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason? Multiple apps are sending audio to the speakers. The tablet is set to airplane mode. The audio output is being directed to a Bluetooth speaker. The battery needs to be charged.

The audio output is being directed to a Bluetooth speaker. EXPLANATION The most likely cause of this problem is that the audio output is being directed to a Bluetooth speaker. Tablet speakers will still function in airplane mode. A low battery is unlikely to interrupt audio. On a tablet, typically, the focused app controls audio functions. If a background app has audio, it will be interrupted by the focused app. This conflict will not cause the internal speakers to cease functioning.

A user on your network has been moved to another office down the hall. After the move, she calls you to complain that she has only occasional network access through her wireless connection. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem? The client system has moved too far away from the access point. The encryption level has been erroneously set back to the default setting. An SSID mismatch between the client and the WAP. An SSID mismatch between the client and the server. The client has incorrect WPA2 settings.

The client system has moved too far away from the access point. EXPLANATION In this case, the wireless client system has had no problems accessing the wireless access point until the move to the new office. In some cases, moving a system will cause signal loss either from the increased distance away from the WAP or from unexpected interference by such things as concrete walls or steel doors. There are several ways to correct the problem, including reducing the physical distance to the client, using a wireless amplifier, upgrading the antennas on the wireless devices, or adding another WAP to the infrastructure. Because the client could previously access the WAP and still has occasional access, it is likely that the move was the cause of the problem, rather than any configuration setting on the client system.

You're troubleshooting a malfunctioning notebook computer system. The user has indicated that the LCD screen suddenly became dark and difficult to read while he was downloading a large file through his wireless network card while the system was plugged in at his desk. You've checked the system and determined that the backlight has stopped working. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? (Select TWO). Malware was installed as part of the download that targeted the backlight circuitry. The cold cathode fluorescent lamp has burned out and needs to be replaced. The extended download placed high demands on the system DC power, causing the BIOS to shut off the backlight. The wireless network card is emitting radio signals that interfere with the backlight, causing it to stop functioning. The inverter in the LCD assembly has malfunctioned.

The cold cathode fluorescent lamp has burned out and needs to be replaced. The inverter in the LCD assembly has malfunctioned. EXPLANATION The two main problems encountered with LCD backlights are a burnt out CCFL or a malfunctioning inverter. It's also possible to have a power management setting that turns off the backlight to save power; however, it would only be applied if the system were running on battery. Wireless radio signals do not interfere with the workings of the backlight. Extended downloads does not demand higher DC power. There is no malware that can target backlight circuitry.

A technician is tasked with replacing an internal laptop hard drive. Which of the following hard drive standards would be of MOST concern when selecting a replacement? The hard drive's read and write speeds The hard drive's storage capacity The hard drive's minimum voltage requirements The hard drive's form factor

The hard drive's form factor EXPLANATION For laptops, the hard drive's form factor is very important. Most laptop's use either the 1.8 inch or 2.5 inch form factor standard. Most hard drives have the same voltage requirements. The storage capacity may drive the cost of a hard drive, but the capacity doesn't usually change whether the hard drive is compatible with a laptop. The read and write speeds may drive the cost of a hard drive, but they don't usually change whether the hard drive is compatible with a laptop.

Your iPad is configured to do remote backups everyday to iCloud. Which conditions are required for the iCloud backup to take place? (Select THREE.) The iPad has to be plugged into a power source. The iPad has to be connected to your computer and logged into iTunes. The iPad screen has to be unlocked with a password. The iPad screen has to be locked. The iPad has to have an internet connection. The iCloud Backup app has to be running.

The iPad has to be plugged into a power source. The iPad screen has to be locked. The iPad has to have an internet connection. EXPLANATION The iCloud backup will happen everyday, as long as your iPad is plugged in and connected to the internet and its screen is locked.

A technician is unable to install virtualization software on a host computer. The host has more free disk space than required. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the cause? The CPU doesn't have multiple core processors. The motherboard UEFI/BIOS doesn't support hardware assisted virtualization. There is no auxiliary hard drive to store the VM files. There is insufficient physical memory on the host to support both the host and the VM.

The motherboard UEFI/BIOS doesn't support hardware assisted virtualization. EXPLANATION Most virtualization software requires that the motherboard UEFI/BIOS supports hardware assisted virtualization. While a CPU with multiple core processors will increase performance, it is not usually a requirement for virtualization software. Virtualization software may require a minimum amount of physical memory. However, it is not likely that it would not install if there were not enough memory to support both the host and any VM. While placing VM files on an auxiliary hard drive may increase performance, it is unlikely to be a requirement to install the virtualization software.

Oliver, a user in your company, is using an inkjet printer. After using this printer for several months, Oliver has noticed that streaks are beginning to appear on his printed pages. Oliver has asked you to fix this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely causing Oliver's printer to malfunction? The fusing unit is too hot, causing some of the ink from the previous job to remain on the unit. The mirror in the printer is dusty and needs to be cleaned. The imaging drum is probably at end of life. The printer's heads are out of position and need to be aligned.

The printer's heads are out of position and need to be aligned. EXPLANATION Streaks on an inkjet printer's pages are commonly caused by printer heads that are out of alignment. You can generally fix this problem using your printer's alignment function to straighten them. An image drum, fusing unit, and mirror are all components of a laser printer and, therefore, could not be an issue with Oliver's inkjet printer.

You just bought a new computer. This system uses UEFI firmware and comes with Windows 10 preinstalled. You recently accessed the manufacturer's support website and saw that a UEFI firmware update has been released. You download the update. However, when you try to install the update, an error message is displayed that indicates the digital signature on the update file is invalid. Which of the following is MOST likely caused this to happen? The system has a rootkit malware infection. SecureBoot has been enabled in the UEFI firmware configuration. Interim UEFI updates released since the system was manufactured need to be installed before you can install the latest update. The update file has been tampered with.

The update file has been tampered with. EXPLANATION UEFI requires firmware updates to be digitally signed by the hardware vendor. Using digital signatures, unauthorized changes to firmware updates (such as the insertion of malware) can be detected. The SecureBoot feature requires that operating systems be digitally signed before they can be booted on the system. The latest UEFI update most likely includes all of the changes implemented in early updates. There is no indication that the system has been infected with rootkit malware in this scenario.

A user calls to report that she is experiencing intermittent problems while accessing the wireless network from her laptop computer. While talking to her, you discover that she is trying to work from the break room two floors above the floor where she normally works. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of her connectivity problem? The wireless network access point on the user's normal floor has failed. The user has not yet rebooted her laptop computer while at her new location. The user has not yet logged off and back on to the network while at her new location. The user is out of the effective range of the wireless access point on her floor. The user needs a new IP address because she is working on a different floor.

The user is out of the effective range of the wireless access point on her floor. Because the user is only experiencing intermittent problems, the most likely cause is that she is out of the effective range of the wireless network access point. All of the other answers listed may be appropriate if the user was unable to connect to the network at all. However, as the user is experiencing only intermittent problems, none of the other answers is likely to be the cause of the problem.

You are the IT administrator for your company. You have several users who want to work from home by connecting to a server running at the corporate headquarters. Your manager has asked you to keep costs to a minimum as you provide computers for this environment. Which of the following types of PCs would work BEST for these remote users? Tablet Thick client CAD/CAM workstation Thin client

Thin client EXPLANATION A thin client only needs to be able to connect to a remote desktop session. As such, it only needs to meet the minimum requirements for running Windows locally. A thick client, CAD/CAM workstation, and tablets have additional requirements to run their operating system and applications.

Match the virtualization implementations on the left with the appropriate characteristic on the right. Each type of implementation may be used once, more than once, or not at all. The virtual machine completely simulates a physical computer system. Operating systems do not need modification to run within virtual machines. Only some of the components of a virtual machine are virtualized. Guest operating systems directly access hardware resources in the hypervisor host system.

The virtual machine completely simulates a physical computer system. - Full virtualization Operating systems do not need modification to run within virtual machines. - Full virtualization Only some of the components of a virtual machine are virtualized. - Partial virtualization Guest operating systems directly access hardware resources in the hypervisor host system. - Paravirtualization In full virtualization, the virtual machine completely simulates a real physical host. This allows most operating systems and applications to run within the virtual machine without being modified in any way. In partial virtualization, only some of the components of the virtual machine are virtualized. The operating system uses some virtual components and some real physical hardware components in the actual device where the hypervisor is running. In paravirtualization, the hardware is not virtualized. All of the guest operating systems running on the hypervisor directly access various hardware resources in the physical device; components are not virtual.

Hannah has been working for your company for several years. Recently, she moved to a new department, which is located on a different floor. After the move, Hannah informs you that when she tries to print a Microsoft Word document (the same program she has always used), the printer on her new floor prints page after page of seemingly random characters. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of Hannah's print problems? The program used to create the document has a bug. The wrong print driver has been selected. The cable connecting the printer to the network is failing. The hard drive on the print server is corrupt.

The wrong print driver has been selected. EXPLANATION In most cases, the issue described in this question is the result of a bad or incorrect print driver. When Hannah moved and created a connection to her new printer, the wrong print driver was selected. If the cable was bad or failing, the print job would not make it to the printer, and others in the company would experience the same problem. Since Hannah used the same word process in her old department, it is unlikely that it would suddenly stop working. A failing hard drive has been known to corrupt a print driver, but since others are not having the same issue, the most likely cause of the problem is the driver on Hannah's computer.

Match each smart device with its description. Thermostat Switch Bulb Plug Security camera Door lock Speaker/digital assistant

Thermostat- Learns from your habits and schedule, allows you to control the climate in your home remotely, shows you energy consumption in real-time, and adjusts itself depending on ambient conditions. Switch- Allows you to control hardwired lights, ceiling fans, fireplaces, small appliances, and garbage disposals. Bulb- Can change colors, track motion, stream audio over Bluetooth, and double as a connected camera, but it's only smart when turned on. It doesn't work when turned off. Plug- Easy solution for making small appliances, such as lamps, coffee makers, and toasters, smart. Security camera- Uses an RF transmitter. May include such features as motion detection, scheduled recording, remote viewing, and automatic cloud storage. Door lock- Uses a wireless protocol and a cryptographic key to execute the authorization process. It can also monitor access and send alerts related to the status of the device. Speaker/digital assistant- Uses voice recognition software and activates through a Wake Word or Hot Word.

Which of the following is true of the way many large digital media vendors are using Digital Rights Management technology? (Select TWO.) They are moving to strengthen the encryption used to protect their digital files. They are offering free backup copies of protected digital files. They are moving away from DRM because of several key shortcomings in the technology. They are adopting alternatives to DRM such as encouraging customers to not illegally share digital files. They are cooperating with other vendors to make their digital files more portable to other vendors' hardware and software.

They are moving away from DRM because of several key shortcomings in the technology. They are adopting alternatives to DRM such as encouraging customers to not illegally share digital files. EXPLANATION Many large digital media vendors are moving away from DRM because it has several key shortcomings, including: A lack of portability. For example, DRM-protected digital files from a given vendor would only play using software or hardware from that same vendor. A lack of backup support. DRM protection frequently made it such that protected digital files could not be backed up. Weak encryption. Many applications are available on the internet that can strip DRM protection from digital files. Risk of obsolescence, which could cause older digital files to no longer be playable on newer hardware. To address these shortcomings, many vendors have adopted DRM alternatives such as: Encouraging customers to not illegally share digital files. Making digital files so inexpensive and easy to access that it doesn't make sense to make illegal copies.

You own a custom PC retail store. A small business client asks you to build three workstations for her organization: Virtualization workstation Video editing workstation Thin client PC Drag and drop each PC hardware configuration on the left to the most appropriate workstation type on the right. Thin client PC Video editing workstation Virtualization Workstation

Thin client PC - Intel Celeron dual-core 2.7GHz CPU 320 GB SATA HD 2 GB DDR3 RAM Few or no applications installed Video editing workstation - Intel Core i7 six-core 3.4 GHz CPU 1 TB SSD SATA HD 16 GB DDR4 RAM Video capture card Virtualization Workstation - AMD 12-core 4 GHZ CPU 4 TB SATA HD 32 GB DDR4 RAM Hardware-assisted virtualization (HAV) EXPLANATION Virtual machines place a very heavy load on the host hypervisor's RAM and CPU. Therefore, the most important criteria to be included in the design for this workstation are the following components: AMD 12-core 4 GHZ CPU 4 TB SATA HD 32 GB DDR4 RAM Hardware-assisted virtualization (HAV) A thin client only needs to be able to connect to a remote desktop session. As such, it only needs to meet the minimum requirements for running Windows locally. The following hardware is sufficient: Intel Celeron dual-core 2.7GHz CPU 320 GB SATA HD 2 GB DDR3 RAM Few or no applications installed An audio/video editing workstation has specialized requirements to allow it to process media files. The following hardware is appropriate: Intel Core i7 six-core 3.4 GHz CPU 1 TB SSD SATA HD 16 GB DDR4 RAM Video capture card

Which tool in Windows 10 would you use to browse all networks and shared folders to which a user has access? (Select THREE.) Computer Management This PC Windows Explorer File Explorer Network Network Neighborhood

This PC File Explorer Network EXPLANATION In Windows 10, Network acts as a built-in network browser showing all networks and shared folders to which the user has access. This same information can be viewed in This PC and File Explorer. Network Neighborhood was used in previous Windows versions, but was replaced by My Network Places in Windows 2000, Me, and XP and by Network in Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows 8. Computer Management and Device Manager are used to manage hardware and software in the Windows system and can't be used to browse the network. Windows Explorer was replaced by File Explorer in Windows 10.

You are an IT technician for your company. One of your employees calls and tells you that every time they turn their computer on, they hear three beeps. Which of the following BEST describes an accurate reply to this employee? Three repeated beeps indicate there is something wrong with the computer's memory. Three repeated beeps is a general error. There is no specific information available about what this code means. Three repeated beeps may mean different things. First, we need to check the motherboard documentation. Three repeated beeps indicate that the keyboard has failed and needs to be replaced.

Three repeated beeps may mean different things. First, we need to check the motherboard documentation. Every time the PC boots, it runs a power-on self-test, or a POST. POST checks to make sure that all of the basic hardware in your system is present and functioning at boot time, such as the system memory, keyboard, CPU, chipset, and so on. If the PC finds a problem during POST, an error is registered. How this error is reported depends on the motherboard manufacturer. Since each motherboard may have a different meaning for three beeps, you should first check the motherboard's documentation before proceeding further. Each of the other options may be the issue, but without checking the documentation, you cannot be sure.

You use your computer to type documents in Portuguese that will be sent to Brazil. You purchase a second keyboard designed specifically for Portuguese. Which Windows setting would you use to configure your computer for the new keyboard so you can switch between the Portuguese and English keyboards? Personalization Apps Time & Language Devices

Time & Language EXPLANATION Use the Time & Language option in Windows Settings to manage language support for your system. An input language identifies the language, font, and keyboard layouts that can be used on the system. Use Devices to configure hardware, such as adding a new printer. Use Apps to install and uninstall Apps on your system. Use Appearance and Personalization to manage backgrounds and the desktop theme.

You recently installed a Windows 10 system. During the installation process, you elected to sign into the system using a local user account. After using the system for a time, you decide to begin using an online Microsoft account to authenticate to the system instead. Click the Settings app option you would use to do this. (no image)

To associate a local user account with an online Microsoft user account on a Windows 10 system, go to the Settings app and select Accounts > Your email > Sign in with a Microsoft account. The Network and Internet option in the Settings app is used to configure network connections. The System option is used to configure system settings such as display resolution, notifications, and power options. The Update and Security option is used to configure automatic updates, backups, and Windows activation.

You need to configure File History to automatically delete any stored snapshots that are older than one month. Click the Control Panel option you would use to do this.

To clean up old versions, select the Advanced Settings option. Then select the appropriate cleanup interval from the Keep Saved Versions drop-down list. The Exclude Folders option is used to prevent certain folders from being protected by File History. The Select Drive option is used to specify which hard disk is used to store File History data. The Restore Personal Files option is used to retrieve previous versions of files protected by File History

You need to configure a Windows workstation with the IP address of the proxy server for your network. Click the tab in the Internet Properties window that you would use to do this.

To configure the IP address of the proxy server, go to Control Panel > Network and Internet > Internet Options. Click the Connections tab and then select LAN settings. In the dialog displayed, you can enable a proxy server for the LAN and then enter the proxy server's IP address and port number.

You want to restrict the hours that the QA printer is available from Windows. Which tab on the Printer Properties page would you click so you can restrict the hours the printer is available? (no image)

To configure when a printer is available, edit the settings on the Advanced tab on the Printer Properties page.

Why should backup media be stored offsite? It improves the efficiency of the restoration process. To prevent the same disaster from affecting both the system and its associated backup media. To reduce the possibility of theft. It is required by government regulations in the USA.

To prevent the same disaster from affecting both the system and its associated backup media. EXPLANATION Backup media should be stored offsite to prevent the same disaster from affecting both the system itself as well as its associated backup media. For example, if your primary facility is destroyed by flood or fire, then your data remains protected at an offsite location. Offsite storage does not significantly reduce the possibility of media theft because it can be stolen while in transit and while at the remote storage location. Offsite storage is not mandated by government regulation. Offsite storage does not improve the efficiency of the restoration process because additional time will be spent maintaining the backup media at the remote location.

When a presenter at a conference connects a laptop to a projector, the projector mirrors the laptop's display. The presenter would like it to extend the laptop's desktop instead. Which of the following options is the QUICKEST way to make the change? Change the dual display settings in the operating system's control panel. Toggle the dual display function key on the laptop. Disconnect and reconnect the laptop to the projector. Select the proper video source from the projector's settings menu.

Toggle the dual display function key on the laptop. EXPLANATION The quickest way to change the dual display settings is to press the laptop's dual display function key on the laptop. This may require the Function key to be pressed at the same time. Often, the action will change the display from mirroring the desktop to extending the desktop to disabling the display in a round-robin order. The laptop will most likely react the same way each time the projector is disconnected and reconnected, giving the mirrored desktop. Changing the projector's video source will not affect the video display generated by the laptop. Changing the dual display settings in the operating system's control panel will make the proper change to the display, but is not as fast as toggling the dual display function key.

A user calls the help desk stating that the touchpad on a laptop does not work. Which of the following actions would BEST help the technician diagnose the problem? Attach an external mouse. Disable the touchscreen. Attach an external keyboard. Toggle the touchpad function key.

Toggle the touchpad function key. EXPLANATION Many laptops have a function key that enables and disables the touchpad. Toggling the key would test whether the touchpad is enabled. While an external mouse moves the cursor, it has no effect on the touchpad. Attaching an external keyboard has no effect on the touchpad. Disabling the touchscreen has no effect on the touchpad.

You're responsible for ordering consumables for your organization's printers. Users print from these printers frequently and demand the utmost in reliability. Which of the following would be the BEST option when ordering new toner for these printers? Toner cartridges recommended by the printer manufacturer. Remanufactured cartridges from a recycler. Discount toner cartridges from a third-party manufacturer. Toner refill kits.

Toner cartridges recommended by the printer manufacturer. EXPLANATION You should order the toner cartridges recommended by the printer manufacturer. Because reliability is paramount in this scenario, you should avoid using discount or remanufactured cartridges or toner refill kits.

Which of the following components are found in dot matrix printers? (Select TWO.) Drum Tractor feed Platen Thermal ink ribbon Nozzles

Tractor feed Platen EXPLANATION Dot matrix printers use a tractor feed to pull paper through the printer. The print head pins strike an ink ribbon, pressing the ink into the paper. A platen is a metal plate behind the printer ribbon that is necessary because of the force of the pins striking the paper. Thermal ink ribbons are used in thermal printers. Dot matrix printers are impact printers that use force (not heat) to transfer ink. Nozzles are used in inkjet printers to transfer ink to the paper. A drum is used in a laser printer for transferring toner to the paper.

You are a security consultant and have been hired to evaluate an organization's physical security practices. All employees must pass through a locked door to enter the main work area. Access is restricted using a biometric fingerprint lock. A receptionist is located next to the locked door in the reception area. She uses an iPad application to log any security events that may occur. She also uses her iPad to complete work tasks as assigned by the organization's CEO. Network jacks are provided in the reception area such that employees and vendors can access the company network for work-related purposes. Users within the secured work area have been trained to lock their workstations if they will be leaving them for any period of time. Which of the following recommendations are you MOST likely to make to this organization to increase their security? (Select TWO). Move the receptionist's desk into the secured area. Train the receptionist to keep her iPad in a locked drawer when not in use. Require users to use screensaver passwords Disable the network jacks in the reception area. Replace the biometric locks with smart cards.

Train the receptionist to keep her iPad in a locked drawer when not in use. Disable the network jacks in the reception area. EXPLANATION You should recommend the following: Disable the network jacks in the reception area. Having these jacks in an unsecured area allows anyone who comes into the building to connect to the company's network. Train the receptionist to keep her iPad in a locked drawer when not in use. Tablet devices are small and easily stolen if left unattended. The receptionist's desk should remain where it is currently located because it allows her to visually verify each employee as they access the secured area. Biometric locks are generally considered more secure than smart cards because cards can be easily stolen. Training users to lock their workstations is more secure than screensaver passwords, although this may be a good idea as a safeguard in case a user forgets.

Which component in a laser printer charges the paper to attract toner? Fuser Primary corona Transfer roller Drum

Transfer roller EXPLANATION The transfer roller charges the paper to attract the toner. The primary corona prepares the photosensitive drum for writing by causing it to receive a negative electrostatic charge. Depending on the printer, the primary corona may be wires or rollers. A laser beam changes the charge on the surface of the drum in a pattern of the page's image. The toner sticks to the charged areas on the drum. Fusing rollers attach the toner to the paper by pressing and melting it.

What is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or screensaver, but performs malicious activities surreptitiously? Ransomware Worm Trojan Scareware

Trojan EXPLANATION A Trojan horse is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or screensaver, but performs malicious activities surreptitiously. Trojan horses are commonly internet downloads. To keep your systems secure and free from such malicious code, you need to take extreme caution when downloading any type of file from just about any site on the internet. If you don't fully trust the site or service that is offering a file, don't download it. A worm is a type of malicious code similar to a virus. A worm's primary purpose is to duplicate itself and spread, while not necessarily intentionally damaging or destroying resources. Ransomware is a form of malware that denies access to an infected computer system until the user pays a ransom. Scareware is a scam that fools users into thinking they have some form of malware on their system. The intent of the scam is to sell the user fake antivirus software to remove malware they don't have.

Which security measure can be used to generate and store cryptographic keys? Chassis intrusion detection Trusted Platform Module (TPM) DriveLock BIOS/UEFI password

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) EXPLANATION A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a special chip on the motherboard that generates and stores cryptographic keys. The TPM can be used by applications (such as Bitlocker on Windows systems) to generate and save keys that are used for encryption. DriveLock is a disk encryption solution. Chassis intrusion detection helps you identify when a system case has been opened. A BIOS/UEFI password controls access to the BIOS/UEFI setup program.

Which of the following components is a special hardware chip included on the computer motherboard that contains software in firmware that generates and stores cryptographic keys? Trusted Platform Module (TPM) BitLocker partition BIOS/UEFI USB device

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) EXPLANATION A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a special hardware chip included on the computer motherboard that contains software in firmware that generates and stores cryptographic keys. The TPM chip must be enabled in the BIOS/UEFI. A USB device is used to save the BitLocker key on a system that does not have a TPM chip. Implementing BitLocker requires two NTFS partitions.

Which are examples of a strong password? (Select TWO). Morganstern TuxP3nguinsRn0v3l il0ve2EatIceCr3am NewYork skippy

TuxP3nguinsRn0v3l il0ve2EatIceCr3am EXPLANATION A strong password is one that: Is at least 6 characters long (longer is better) Is not based on a word found in a dictionary Contains both upper-case and lower-case characters Contains numbers Does not contain words that can be associated with you personally Is changed frequently The passwords il0ve2EatIceCr3am and TuxP3nguinsRn0v3l both meet the above criteria. The password NewYork is long enough and includes upper- and lower-case letters, but it doesn't contain numbers and could be easily dissected into a dictionary word. The password skippy is probably a pet name. The password Morganstern is probably someone's last name (perhaps a spouse's name or a maiden name).

You manage two computers with the following user accounts: Wrk1 has user accounts Mary and Admin. The Mary account does not have a password set; the Admin account does. Wrk2 has user accounts Mary and Julia. The Mary account has a password set; the Julia account does not. You are working from Wrk2 and would like to access a shared folder on Wrk1. Which of the following credentials would BEST allow you to access the shared folder? Type 'Julia' for the username and leave the password blank. Type 'Mary' for the username and leave the password blank. Type 'Mary' for the username and specify the password. Type 'Admin' for the username and specify the password.

Type 'Admin' for the username and specify the password. EXPLANATION Type Admin for the username and specify the password. To access a shared folder or use Remote Desktop for a workgroup computer, you must supply a username and password that matches a user account configured on the computer you are trying to access. For Wrk1, you would use either Mary or Admin for the user account name. You cannot use the Mary account to access Wrk1 over the network. When accessing shared folders or Remote Desktop on a network computer, the user account must have been configured with a password. User accounts with blank passwords cannot be used to gain network access to a computer.

Which connector is most commonly used to connect printers to desktop PC systems? Firewire Ethernet network card 802.11 wireless card IEEE 1284 USB

USB EXPLANATION Most printers use a USB connector to connect directly to a desktop PC system. In the past, IEEE 1284 connectors were the most commonly used connectors, but that is no longer the case. A limited number of Firewire printers are available, but they are not as commonly used to connect printers and computer networks as USB. 802.11 wireless and Ethernet cards.

You just purchased an iPad tablet device. You want to synchronize your photos, music, email, and contacts from your Windows 10 PC to the device. How can you connect the device to the PC? (Select TWO. Each option is a complete solution.) Firewire cable Serial cable USB cable Wi-Fi wireless connection Ethernet wired connection

USB cable Wi-Fi wireless connection EXPLANATION An iPad can be connected to a Windows 10 PC in three different ways: USB cable Wi-Fi wireless connection Bluetooth wireless connection The iPad does not support wired Ethernet connections, serial connections, or Firewire connections.

A user wants to use a laptop to display a presentation on a large TV monitor that has an HDMI connection. Which of the following laptop ports or connections can be used to add this display device? (Select TWO). USB port using a USB-to-HDMI adapter USB port using a USB-to-Wireless dongle USB port using a USB-to-RJ45 dongle DisplayPort using a DisplayPort-to-HDMI cable Expresscard connection using a Expresscard Ethernet adapter

USB port using a USB-to-HDMI adapter DisplayPort using a DisplayPort-to-HDMI cable EXPLANATION You can connect a laptop to an HDMI monitor by connecting a DisplayPort-to-HDMI cable to the DisplayPort connection on the laptop and the HDMI connection on the monitor. You can also use a USB-to-HDMI adapter to convert the USB display signals from the laptop to HDMI signals, which are received by the monitor. A USB-to-Wireless dongle is used for networking, not for display monitors. An Expresscard Ethernet adapter is used for networking, not for display monitors. A USB-to-RJ45 dongle is used for networking, not for display monitors.

You have been asked to install Windows 10 on 30 different computers for a new branch office your company is setting up. The computers have been purchased from different companies and have different hardware. Which method should you use to reduce the installation time and the effort you need to spend? Network Unattended Optical disc Imaging

Unattended EXPLANATION To simplify and speed up installation, perform an unattended installation. The unattended answer file contains responses to common setup questions. You simply start the installation and direct it to reference the answer file, and the installation completes without your intervention. You cannot use an image-based solution because this requires that all hardware be similar. A network or optical disc-based install will not simplify the installation. You must still move from system to system to answer all of the installation prompts during the installation process.

Joe, a user, is walking through a shopping mall. His phone frequently displays a message that additional information is needed to log in. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these messages? Unauthorized location tracking Weak or dropped cellular signal Unintended Wi-Fi connections Leaked personal files

Unintended Wi-Fi connections EXPLANATION Many devices are configured to access any wireless connection based on signal strength by default. Secured Wi-Fi connections request additional information to log in. For better security, disable automation Wi-Fi connectivity on mobile devices. Cellular service does not require login information. A weak or dropped cell signal is not the cause of the messages. Leaked personal files can be the results of poor security. This is not a cause of these message. Unauthorized location tracking may present messages, but they are not likely to ask for additional log in information.

While trying to log on, a user accidentally typed the wrong password three times, and now the system is locked because he entered too many incorrect passwords. He still remembers his password, but he just typed it wrong. He needs access as quickly as possible. Which of the following would allow the user to log on? Unlock the account Have the user wait for the account to be unlocked automatically Enable the account Change the password for the account

Unlock the account With the account lockout policy configured, an account will be locked (and cannot be used for logon) when a specified number of incorrect passwords are entered. You can unlock a locked account by editing the account properties in Local Users and Groups. Depending on the policy settings, locked accounts might be unlocked automatically after a period of time. However, to allow immediate access, manually unlock the account. A disabled account cannot be used for logon. Accounts are not disabled automatically, and enabling an account does not unlock it. Changing the password is not required because the user still remembers the correct password.

After replacing a laptop touchpad, a technician finds that the touchpad does not move the cursor. However, the attached USB mouse does. Before opening the laptop case to re-check the connection, which of the following actions should the technician perform? Increase the operating system's mouse speed setting. Unplug the USB mouse and re-check touchpad movements. Toggle the scroll lock key on the keyboard. Perform a minimal boot of the operating system so that device drivers are not loaded.

Unplug the USB mouse and re-check touchpad movements. EXPLANATION If the "Leave touchpad on when a mouse is connected" setting can be cleared, the touchpad may be turned off because the USB mouse is connected. In this case, removing the mouse will activate the touchpad. A minimal boot will not resolve the touchpad issue. Mouse settings don't affect the touchpad's operations. The scroll lock keyboard key doesn't affect the touchpad's operations.

Drag the wireless networking technology on the left to its associated transmission distance limitation on the right. Each technology may be used more than once. Up to 100 meters for Class 1 devices. Up to 30 meters in areas without interference. Up to 10 meters for Class 2 devices.

Up to 100 meters for Class 1 devices. Bluetooth Up to 30 meters in areas without interference. Infrared Up to 10 meters for Class 2 devices. Bluetooth EXPLANATION Radio frequency wireless transmissions can reach up to 356 meters, depending upon the 802.11 standard used and interference present in the environment. Infrared wireless transmissions work best for devices within 1 meter, but can operate up to 30 meters in areas without ambient light interference. The maximum Bluetooth transmission distance depends on the device class: Class 3 devices transmit up to 1 meter. Class 2 devices transmit up to 10 meters. Class 1 devices transmit up to 100 meters.

In preparation to use your notebook on the airplane as you travel to a conference, you disconnected the external USB mouse. The cursor drifts consistently to the left side of the screen while using the built-in trackpad and mouse buttons on the notebook. Which of the following actions would MOST likely stop the mouse from drifting? Disable the trackpad in the control panel. Update the trackpad drivers. Enable airplane mode. Buy a new external mouse.

Update the trackpad drivers. EXPLANATION The problem of a drifting mouse cursor can be caused by an out-of-date mouse driver. Updating the trackpad and mouse drivers will in most cases resolve the issue. As with all troubleshooting, these additional steps may resolve the issue of the driver update does not fix the issue. Calibrate the trackpad in Control Panel. Access the BIOS/UEFI configuration and disable the USB pointer option. Replace the trackpad. It is unlikely that buying a new mouse would resolve the issue because the mouse was removed from the system. Enabling airplane mode is a wi-fi feature and unrelated to the trackpad drift. Disabling the trackpad would defeat the purpose of using the notepad on an airplane where space for an external mouse is not typically available.

While browsing the internet, a pop-up browser window is displayed warning you that your system is infected with a virus. You are directed to click a link to remove the virus. Which of the following are the next BEST actions to take? (Select TWO). Close the pop-up window and ignore the warning. Click on the link provided to scan for and remove the virus. Update the virus definitions for your locally-installed anti-malware software. Run a full system scan using the anti-malware software installed on your system. Use a search engine on the Internet to learn how to manually remove the virus.

Update the virus definitions for your locally-installed anti-malware software. Run a full system scan using the anti-malware software installed on your system. This is an example of a rogue anti-virus attack. As such, you should assume that your system may have been infected by some time of malware, possibly by one of the sites you visited recently. You should first close your browser window and then update the virus definitions for your locally-installed anti-virus software. Once done, you should Run a full system scan using the anti-virus software installed on your system. Clicking the link provided would be the worst choice as it will most likely install a host of malware on your system. Ignoring the message is unwise as your system has probably been infected with malware that should be removed. You shouldn't try to manually remove the virus as the message displayed by the rogue anti-virus attack is probably fictitious.

You are preparing to install a 64-bit version of Windows 10 on a computer that is currently running a 32-bit version of Windows 7. You perform a hardware inventory on the computer and note the following: Processor = 2.0 GHz Free hard drive space = 200 GB RAM = 1 GB DVD drive = 18x 100 Mbps NIC You need to prepare this computer to ensure that it meets the minimum hardware requirements of Windows 10. What should you do? Add another hard drive with a minimum of 500 GB of free space. Upgrade to at least 2 GB of RAM. Upgrade to a Blu-ray optical drive. Upgrade to a 2.5 GHz or faster processor.

Upgrade to at least 2 GB of RAM. EXPLANATION The minimum memory requirement for a 64-bit Windows 10 installation is 2 GB (more is recommended). The minimum requirements for running 64-bit Windows 10 are listed below: 1 GHz or faster processor 2 GB RAM 20 GB of free disk space DirectX 9 graphics device with WDDM 1.0 or higher driver 800 x 600 display A 32-bit Windows 7 operating system only requires 1 GB RAM.

Your computer seems to be running slowly. In particular, you notice that the hard drive activity light stays lit constantly when running multiple applications and switching between open windows, even though you aren't saving large files. What could you do to troubleshoot the problem? (Select two.) Use Resource Monitor to monitor memory utilization. Use Reliability Monitor to monitor memory utilization. Use Task Manager to monitor memory utilization. Use Resource Monitor to monitor disk activity. Use Reliability Monitor to monitor system reliability. Use Task Manager to monitor disk activity.

Use Resource Monitor to monitor memory utilization. Use Task Manager to monitor memory utilization. EXPLANATION In this scenario, you should use either Task Manager or Resource Monitor to monitor memory utilization. Most likely, you will see that the physical RAM is being over-utilized. When physical memory is low, the computer must swap data from memory to hard disk (to the paging file) to make physical memory available for other applications. If you hear the hard drive constantly operating as you work, or if the hard drive light on the front of the system case stays illuminated for long periods of time, the computer is constantly working moving data into and out of memory. The only long-term solution is to add more physical RAM. Monitoring disk activity with Resource Monitor or Task Manager will not reveal the true source of the problem in this scenario (which is a shortage of physical RAM). Reliability Monitor monitors system errors and is not the appropriate tool to use in this scenario.

A user normally connects a laptop to a company's network using the laptop's internal wireless NIC. The laptop does not have an Ethernet port. The wireless network has failed, and the replacement part will take two days to arrive. Which of the following solutions will connect the laptop to the company's wired network? Use a USB-to-Wi-Fi dongle to replace the laptop's internal wireless NIC. Transfer files using an external USB flash drive and then move the flash drive to a computer that is connected to the network. Use a USB-to-RJ45 dongle and connect to a wall jack with an Ethernet cable. Enable a Bluetooth connection between the laptop and a computer that is connected to the network.

Use a USB-to-RJ45 dongle and connect to a wall jack with an Ethernet cable. EXPLANATION A simple solution is to use a USB-to-RJ45 dongle and connect to a wall jack with an Ethernet cable. The USB-to-Wi-Fi dongle would not work because the wireless network is not operating. Although important files could be transferred using a USB flash drive, transferring files does not connect the laptop to the network. A Bluetooth connection may be possible between the laptop and a computer that is connected to the network. However, special software or configurations must be used to pass network traffic from the laptop through the computer and to the network.

While changing the toner cartridge in your laser printer, you accidently spill toner in and around the printer. Which of the following is the BEST method for cleaning up the spilled toner? Wipe up most of the toner using a warm, wet cloth, and then vacuum. Use an anti-static micro-filtering vacuum. Use a household vacuum. Scoop up large portions and then use a static cloth to wipe up the remaining toner.

Use an anti-static micro-filtering vacuum. Excess toner should be removed from a laser printer with an anti-static and micro-filtering vacuum. A regular vacuum will build up an electrostatic charge from the toner, which could shock you, damage the printer, or damage your vacuum. Using any kind of liquid to clean up a toner spill could cause damage to the printer and may permanently adhere the toner to the printer. Although you should try to collect as much of the toner as possible using some type of scoop, doing this and wiping the spilled toner will not clean the printer thoroughly. If you do use a cloth, it should be a static-free cloth.

You're conducting scheduled maintenance on a laser printer. You notice that there is a build-up of excess toner inside the interior of the printer. Which of the following is the BEST way to remove the excess toner? Use an anti-static vacuum. Blow it out with compressed air. Wipe it out with a wet, soapy rag using a mild detergent. Sweep it out with a small broom.

Use an anti-static vacuum. EXPLANATION You should use an anti-static vacuum to remove excess toner from the interior of a laser printer. You should avoid using removal methods that will disperse the toner into the air, such as compressed air or a broom.

You have 5 salespersons who work out of your office and who frequently leave their laptops laying on their desk in their cubicles. You are concerned that someone might walk by and take one of these laptops. Which of the following is the BEST protection to implement to address your concerns? Implement screen saver passwords. Encrypt all company data on the hard drives. Use cable locks to chain the laptops to the desks. Require strong passwords in the local security policy.

Use cable locks to chain the laptops to the desks. EXPLANATION The main concern in this case is with laptops being stolen. The best protection against physical theft is to secure the laptops in place using a cable lock. Requiring strong passwords or using encryption might prevent unauthorized users from accessing data on the laptops, but does not prevent physical theft.

You have purchased new computers and will be disposing of your old computers. Instead of recycling the computers, you decide to resell them by placing an ad on the Internet. These computers were previously used for storing sensitive information. To properly protect the accidental discovery of the company's sensitive information, which of the following steps MUST be completed prior to getting rid of the computers? Delete user data and applications from the hard drives Include the original operating system discs and product keys with the computers Reformat the hard drives Use data wiping software to clear the hard drives

Use data wiping software to clear the hard drives EXPLANATION Data wiping software will sanitize or clean a device by removing all data remnants. Sanitization is necessary because deleting, overwriting, and reformatting (even multiple times) does not remove all data remnants. Sanitization securely removes sensitive data from storage media and is designed to solve the data remanence problem for devices that will be reused. It is the best way to remove Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a hard disk before reuse. Deleting data and applications from the hard drives or reformatting the drive will not permanently remove data from the system. Many tools can recover deleted files.

You are responsible for disposing of several old workstations formerly used by accountants in your organization's Finance department. Before being shipped to a computer recycler, you decide to make sure any old data on the hard drives is erased. To do this, you use the Windows XP Installation CDs that came with these systems to delete all partitions from the hard drives. Which of the following BEST describes what needs to be done before the systems are ready to be recycled? Nothing, the systems are ready to be recycled. Use disk wiping software to fully erase the drives on the systems. Repartition and reformat the drives on the systems before disposal. Use a Linux fdisk utility to completely remove the partitions on the systems.

Use disk wiping software to fully erase the drives on the systems. EXPLANATION You should use disk wiping software to fully erase the drives. The problem here is that partitioning and even reformatting doesn't completely remove old data from the drive. Data could potentially be recovered from the drive. To keep this from happening, you should use disk wiping software to erase the drive and write random characters multiple times to the drive to completely destroy any old data.

A help desk technician determines that a user's issue is caused by a corrupt file on their computer. Which of the following is the FASTEST way to transfer a good file to the computer? Establish remote assistance and transfer the file within the session. Have the user share the folder as a local share and copy the file to the share. Use the C$ administrative share to copy the file. Attach the file to an email and have the user copy the file to the correct folder.

Use the C$ administrative share to copy the file. EXPLANATION The C$ administrative share (\\computername\C$) is available to technicians with administrator privileges. This share is the FASTEST way to transfer a file. It takes extras steps to have the user create local shares, and the user may not have permissions to the folder where the file should be copied.There are several steps to creating an email and attaching a file. In addition, depending on the file type, the file may be blocked by email filtering.The C$ administrative share is available to the technician. Setting up a remote assist session would add extra steps.

How can you keep a Windows 10 system from automatically restarting after a critical system error occurs? Use the Disable automatic restart after failure option on the Advanced Startup Options menu. Use the Enable Safe Mode with Command Prompt option on the Advanced Startup Options menu. Use the Enable Safe Mode with Networking option on the Advanced Startup Options menu. Use the Last Known Good configuration option on the Advanced Startup Options menu.

Use the Disable automatic restart after failure option on the Advanced Startup Options menu. EXPLANATION By default, Windows is configured to reboot whenever a critical system error occurs (Blue Screen of Death). Use the Disable automatic restart after failure option on the Advanced Startup Options menu to stop the automatic reboots. Safe Mode with Networking is a variation of Safe Mode that also loads networking components if the problem is related to a network component. Safe Mode with Command Prompt is a variation of Safe Mode that allows you to boot to a command prompt. Neither of these options will stop the automatic reboots. The Last Known Good configuration option is not available in Windows 8 and later.

You manage the desktop computers at your company. You are in charge of 100 computers, all of which run Windows 7. You want to upgrade all computers to Windows 10. Prior to the upgrade, you need to verify the compatibility of each computer with Windows 10. You want to gather the necessary information as quickly as possible. Which of the following will BEST collect the required information? Run the Windows 8 Upgrade Assistant. Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor. Use the Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit (MAP). Use the User State Migration Tool (USMT).

Use the Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit (MAP). For upgrades on larger networks, you can use the Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit (MAP) to automatically scan multiple computers and identify each computer's compatibility for an upgrade to Windows 10. MAP checks hardware compatibility, identifies the availability of updated device drivers, and recommends a migration path to Windows 10. The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor tests each computer's compatibility with Windows 7 instead of Windows 10. The same is true of the Windows 8 Upgrade Assistant. Use the User State Migration Tool (USMT) to transfer user settings and data from the old installation to the new installation.

You have just installed a wireless access point (WAP) for your organization's network. You know that the radio signals used by the WAP extend beyond your organization's building and are concerned that unauthorized users outside may be able to access your internal network. Which of the following steps will BEST protect the wireless network? (Select TWO. Each option is a complete solution.) Implement a WAP with a shorter range. Disable the spread-spectrum radio signal feature on the WAP. Use the WAP's configuration utility to reduce the radio signal strength. Disable SSID broadcast on the WAP. Install a radio signal jammer at the perimeter of your organization's property. Configure the WAP to filter out unauthorized MAC addresses.

Use the WAP's configuration utility to reduce the radio signal strength. Configure the WAP to filter out unauthorized MAC addresses. EXPLANATION To increase the security of the wireless network, you can use the WAP's configuration utility to reduce the radio signal strength. This will reduce or even eliminate signal emanation outside of your building. You can also configure the WAP to filter out unauthorized MAC addresses. Enabling MAC address filtering denies access to unauthorized systems.

A technician was tasked with implementing a solution that would allow the IT department to push OS updates to mobile devices in order to keep them updated and secure. Which of the following would provide that capability? Installing an authenticator application. Modifying the security profile on all devices. Updating the firewall settings on the mobile device. Using Mobile Device Management (MDM).

Using Mobile Device Management (MDM). EXPLANATION Mobile devices can be secured by using special Mobile Device Management (MDM) tools, which allow for remote management of multiple mobile devices. By using an MDM tool, an IT administrator can: Push OS updates to devices. Test configuration settings before deploying them. Create and enforce mobile device security policies. Remotely wipe mobile devices. The firewall, authenticator application, and security profile do not provide a way to push OS updates to a device.

You recently purchased a copy of Windows 10 from a retail store. The system you want to install Windows on doesn't have an optical drive. What is the BEST option for installing Windows in this scenario? Perform a Reset installation. Install the system over the network from a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server. Use the Windows USB/DVD Download Tool to copy the installation files to a USB flash drive. Install Windows on a system that has an optical drive and then create a disk image and copy it to the system you originally wanted to install Windows on.

Use the Windows USB/DVD Download Tool to copy the installation files to a USB flash drive. EXPLANATION The best option in this scenario is to run the Windows USB/DVD Download Tool on a different computer to copy the Windows 10 installation media to a USB flash drive. Then you can boot the system where you want to install Windows from the flash drive and complete the install. While a network install using a WDS server is possible in this scenario, it would require considerably more time, expertise, and hardware. The same is true of using an imaging solution. You can only perform a Reset installation on an existing Windows 10 system.

For the past several days, the print jobs from the inkjet printer are missing colors and leaving gaps. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the problem? Add additional memory to the printer. Use the automatic print head cleaning feature. Check the gap between the printer head and the paper. Recalibrate the printer's color profile.

Use the automatic print head cleaning feature. EXPLANATION Use an inkjet's automatic cleaning feature if letters have missing lines and there are gaps. With inkjet printers, the nozzles sometimes become clogged, preventing ink from leaving the nozzles and reaching the paper. On dot matrix printers, you should check the gap between the printer head and the paper to prevent printer images from becoming faint. Color profiles are typically created by the manufacturer, and they correct problems when the printed colors don't match what you see on the screen. Add memory to a printer if the end of a printed page is missing.

A user opens a help desk ticket to replace a laptop keyboard. The user reports that the cursor randomly moves when typing using the laptop keyboard, causing the user to make frequent typing corrections. The problem does not occur when the laptop is attached to a docking station and an external keyboard is used. You want to find a more affordable solution than replacing the keyboard. Which of the following actions would mitigate the problem? Use the special function key to disable the touchpad when the laptop keyboard is used. Lower the screen resolution so that mouse movements are less granular. Increase the screen resolution so that mouse movements are more granular. Decrease the operating system's mouse speed setting.

Use the special function key to disable the touchpad when the laptop keyboard is used. EXPLANATION The random cursor movements are caused by the user interacting with the touchpad. Using the special function keys to disable the touchpad will remedy the unwanted interactions. The screen resolution doesn't affect cursor movements, typing interactions, or touchpad interactions. The mouse speed settings don't affect cursor movements, typing interactions, or touchpad interactions.

Which Windows component prompts the user for credentials or permission to protect against unauthorized activities, such as an unintended software installation? User Account Control (UAC) Windows Firewall with Advanced Security Windows SmartScreen Windows Defender

User Account Control (UAC) User Account Control (UAC) prompts the user for credentials or permission in an effort to minimize the dangers of unauthorized actions or unintended software installations. Windows SmartScreen is used to warn the user before running unrecognized apps and files downloaded from the internet. Windows Firewall protects the system from network attacks. Windows Defender scans software for malicious software, such as viruses or spyware.

What is the best countermeasure against social engineering? Strong passwords User awareness training Acceptable use policy Access auditing

User awareness training The best countermeasure to social engineering is user awareness training. If users understand the importance of security and the restrictions on types of information, they are less likely to reveal confidential information or perform unauthorized activities at the prompting of a stranger or a claimed identity over the phone.

Which of the following is the most common form of authentication? Digital certificate on a smart card Photo ID Username and password Fingerprint

Username and password EXPLANATION Passwords are the most common form of authentication. Most secure systems require only a username and password to provide users with access to the computing environment. Many forms of online intrusion attacks focus on stealing passwords. This makes using strong passwords very important. Without a strong password policy and properly trained users, the reliability of your security system is greatly diminished. Photo ID, fingerprint, and digital certificate on a smart card are not the most common forms of authentication.

You need to create a user account on a Windows system that can create files, run applications, and install printers when the driver for the printer already exists on the computer. You want the user to have only the minimum rights necessary on the computer. Which group should this user be a member of? Users Remote Desktop Users Administrators Guests

Users EXPLANATION Members of the Users group can use the computer, but they cannot perform system administration tasks. They also may not be able to run legacy applications. Members of the Users group can save files to their own directories and run installed applications. They cannot share directories or install printers if the driver is not yet installed. They also cannot view or modify system files. Making the user a member of the Administrators groups would give the user too many rights. Members of the Remote Desktop Users group are only allowed to access the system remotely using the Remote Desktop Client.

The servers for the company are all virtual machines and hosted on the same hypervisor. You need to keep users in all other departments from accessing the virtual servers used by the finance department. Which of the following technologies should you use to logically isolate the network? Subnetting NIC teaming MAC filtering VLANs

VLANs EXPLANATION A virtual LAN (VLAN) uses switch ports to define a broadcast domain. When you define a VLAN, you assign devices on different switch ports to a separate logical (or virtual) LAN. NIC teaming is used to combine two or more physical connections into one logical connection and does not isolate networks. While MAC filtering could be used to control access, it is easily bypassed by MAC spoofing. Subnetting is used to divide large networks into smaller networks. Subnetting can be used to isolate sensitive systems, but it is not as secure as using VLANs.

A technician is tasked with configuring a mobile device to connect securely to the company network when the device is used at off-site locations where only internet connectivity is available. Which of the following should the technician configure? IMAP VPN Hotspot Bluetooth

VPN EXPLANATION A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates an encrypted connection over a less secure network, such as the internet. Sometimes called a tunnel, a VPN allows users to access corporate applications and resources. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is an email protocol that can be used to synchronize email between multiple email clients on multiple devices. Bluetooth is a technology that wirelessly connects two devices in close proximity to each other. It is most often used to connect peripheral devices such as headphones, speakers, mice, and keyboards to a computing device. A hotspot is created on a mobile phone to supply internet connectivity to multiple devices through the phone's cellular connection.

While on a business trip, an employee accesses the company's internal network and transfer files using an encrypted connection. Which of the following digital security methods is being used? Access control list DLP Firewall VPN

VPN EXPLANATION A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is an encrypted tunnel between remote users and a private network. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) programs or devices monitors operations such as file transfers and email for user activities that could compromise data security. An access control list contains users and groups of users that are granted access to files, folders, and other resources. Firewalls are placed between the company network and the internet to filter network traffic at the IP level. VPNs are usually allowed to tunnel through these firewalls. In some cases, both functions may be available on one device.

Your organization employs a group of traveling salespeople who need to access the corporate home network through the internet while they are on the road. You want to funnel remote access to the internal network through a single server. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to implement? Host-to-host VPN VPN concentrator Site-to-site VPN DMZ

VPN concentrator EXPLANATION With a remote access VPN, a server on the edge of a network (called a VPN concentrator) is configured to accept VPN connections from individual hosts. Hosts that are allowed to connect using the VPN connection are granted access to resources on the VPN server or the private network. A demilitarized zone (DMZ), also called a screened subnet, is a buffer network (or subnet) that sits between the private network and an untrusted network (such as the internet). With a host-to-host VPN, two hosts establish a secure channel and communicate directly with each other. With a site-to-site VPN, the routers on the edge of each site establish a VPN connection with the router at the other location.

Which of the following paper types should not be used in inkjet printers? Paper that is not specifically marked "For inkjet printers." Multi-purpose paper Very glossy paper Any colored paper

Very glossy paper EXPLANATION Early inkjet printers required paper specially manufactured for inkjet printers. Now, inkjet printer paper is not necessary. However, you still need to consider the paper's qualities and factors such as how the paper absorbs the ink. Very glossy paper that does not absorb ink well can be problematic.

You have just purchased a new home and want to purchase a home theater computer system. Which of the following hardware selection criteria are the MOST important for this system? (Select TWO). 64-bit processor with 12 cores RAM configured to run in quad-channel mode Video card with HDMI output HTPC form factor RAID 5 disk array

Video card with HDMI output HTPC form factor EXPLANATION A video card with HDMI output and an HTPC form factor is more appropriate for a home theater system. A RAID 5 disk array, 12-core CPU, and quad-channel RAM are more appropriate for a virtualization workstation.

What is the purpose of the Services snap-in? View and manage software programs running in the background. View logs about programs, system events, and security. View historical data that describe the operating system's stability. Manage end-user applications running on your computer. Display statistics that tell you about the operation of your computer.

View and manage software programs running in the background. EXPLANATION Use the Services snap-in to view and manage running services. A service is a program that runs in the background (usually without a user interface) to provide the services necessary for the operating system to function. Performance Monitor displays statistics about the operation of your computer. Use Event Viewer to view program, system event, and security logs. Reliability Monitor maintains historical data that describe the operating system's stability. Computer Management is a saved Microsoft Management Console (MMC) console that is used to manage your computer.

What is the purpose of the dxdiag tool? Configure your system to enable optimal troubleshooting and diagnosis of technical issues. Gather information about your computer and diagnose issues with your computer. View logs about programs, system events, and security. View information related to DirectX operation.

View information related to DirectX operation. EXPLANATION The DirectX Diagnostic Tool (dxdiag) shows information related to DirectX operation. DirectX is a set of programming interfaces for multimedia (video and audio). Use MSinfo32 (System Information) to gather information about your computer, to diagnose issues with your computer, or to access other tools that are included with Windows. Use the System Configuration Utility (msconfig) to configure your system to enable optimal troubleshooting and diagnosis of technical issues. Use Event Viewer to view logs about programs, system events, and security. Each entry is listed as a warning, error, or information event.

Which of the following statements about virtual NICs are true? (Select TWO.) Virtual NICs can communicate only with other virtual NICs. Virtual NICs need the appropriate driver installed to function. Virtual NICs don't have a MAC address. The type of NIC installed in the physical machine determines the type of virtual NIC that is emulated. Multiple virtual NICs can be added to a virtual machine.

Virtual NICs need the appropriate driver installed to function. Multiple virtual NICs can be added to a virtual machine. EXPLANATION Within each virtual machine, you can configure one or more virtual network interfaces, which function in much the same manner as physical network interfaces. Virtual interfaces use Ethernet standards to transmit and receive frames on the network. The operating system within the virtual machine must have the appropriate driver installed to support the virtual network interface, just as with a physical network interface. When you configure a virtual network interface within a virtual machine's configuration, you can specify: The type of physical network interface to emulate. This allows for the best possible driver support by the operating system within the virtual machine. A MAC address. Most hypervisors automatically assign a MAC address to each virtual network interface. However, some hypervisors allow you to use a custom MAC address, if needed. The network to connect to. Most hypervisors allow you to define many different virtual networks. When you configure a virtual network interface, you will select which virtual network you want it to be connected to.

Which term refers to a software implementation of a computer system that executes programs like a physical machine? Virtual machine Workload management Physical host Hypervisor

Virtual machine EXPLANATION A virtual machine is a software implementation of a computer system that executes programs like a physical machine. A virtual machine functions as a self-contained and autonomous system. A hypervisor is a thin layer of software that resides between the virtual operating system(s) and the hardware. The physical host is the actual hardware that the hypervisor software runs on. Workload management relates to the portability of virtual machines.

Which of the following is another name for the paging file? Virtual memory Upper memory Random access memory Extended memory

Virtual memory EXPLANATION A paging (swap) file on a storage device is sometimes called virtual memory because it mimics real memory (though at a much slower speed). The process of moving data from RAM to disk (and back) is known as swapping or paging. Random access memory (RAM) is used as a temporary data storage location and is called physical memory. The terms extended and upper memory refer to memory above the first megabyte of address space in PC systems with older processors.

What is the common name for a program that has no useful purpose, but attempts to spread itself to other systems and often damages resources on the systems where it is found? Buffer overflow Password attack Trojan Virus

Virus EXPLANATION A virus is the common name for a program that has no useful purpose, but attempts to spread itself to other systems and often damages resources on the systems where it is found. Viruses are a serious threat to computer systems, especially if they are connected to the internet. You should install anti-malware software on every computer in your network to protect against viruses. Trojan horses are programs that claim to serve a useful purpose, but hide a malicious purpose or activity. A buffer overflow is partially correct in that a buffer overflow may be used as an insertion vector for a virus. A password attack attempts to identify the password used by a user account.

Which of the following wireless security methods uses a common shared key configured on the wireless access point and all wireless clients? WPA Personal and WPA2 Personal WEP, WPA Personal, WPA Enterprise, WPA2 Personal, and WPA2 Enterprise WEP, WPA Personal, and WPA2 Personal WEP WPA Enterprise and WPA2 Enterprise

WEP, WPA Personal, and WPA2 Personal EXPLANATION Shared key authentication can be used with WEP, WPA, and WPA2. Shared key authentication used with WPA and WPA2 is often called WPA Personal or WPA2 Personal. WPA Enterprise and WPA2 Enterprise use 802.1x for authentication. 802.1x authentication uses usernames and passwords, certificates, or devices such as smart cards to authenticate wireless clients.

Which of the following is the most secure security protocol for wireless networks? BitLocker 802.11n WPA WPA2 WEP

WPA2 EXPLANATION WEP, WPA, and WPA2 are all security protocols for wireless networks. However, WPA2 provides much stronger security than WEP or WPA. 802.11n is a wireless standard with specific parameters for wireless data transmission. BitLocker is a Microsoft solution that provides hard drive disk encryption.

Which of the following provides the BEST security for wireless networks? WPA2 802.11a WAP WEP CSMA/CD

WPA2 EXPLANATION Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) provides encryption and user authentication for wireless networks. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) also provides security, but WPA is considered more secure than WEP. A wireless access point (WAP) is a hardware device, like a switch, that provides access to the wireless network. 802.11a is a wireless networking standard that defines the signal characteristics for communicating on the wireless network. CSMA/CD is a media access control method that controls when a device can communicate on the network.

While configuring a wireless access point device, a technician is presented with several security mode options. Which of the following options will provide the most secure access? WEP 128 WPA2 and AES WPA and AES WPA2 and TKIP WPA and TKIP

WPA2 and AES Of the three wireless security protocols (WEP, WPA and WPA2), WPA2 is the most secure. Of the two encryption algorithms (TKIP and AES), AES is the most secure.

The human resources department wants to give gifts away at the company's summer party. They would like to have an assortment of fitness tracker wristbands, smartwatches, smart glasses, and virtual reality headsets. They have been trying to locate these on the internet, but have been unsuccessful. Which of the following types of mobile devices should you tell them to search for? Tablets Phablets Smart phones Wearable devices e-Readers

Wearable devices EXPLANATION Wearable devices are a type of mobile device meant to be worn somewhere on the body. These devices range from being as simple as a fitness tracker wrist band to as complex as smart glasses or virtual reality headsets. Most wearable devices are designed to interface with another device. For example, a smartwatch by itself has a limited set of functionality; smartwatches are designed to connect to smartphones using Bluetooth. This connection unlocks additional functionality, such as reading texts or answering phones calls through the smartwatch.

You are configuring a firewall to allow access to a server hosted in the demilitarized zone of your network. You open IP ports 80, 25, 110, and 143. Assuming that no other ports on the firewall need to be configured to provide access, which applications are most likely to be hosted on the server? Web server, DNS server, or DHCP server Web server and email server Email server, Newsgroup server, or DNS server Web server, DNS server, or email server

Web server and email server TCP/IP port 80 is associated with accessing webpages from a web server using the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Email can be accessed using a number of protocols, including the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3), and the Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4). SMTP uses TCP/IP port 25, while POP3 uses TCP/IP port 110, and IMAP4 uses TCP/IP port 143. Domain Name Service (DNS) traffic uses TCP/IP port 53. Newsgroup servers are accessed using the Network News Transfer (NNTP) protocol on TCP/IP port 119. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) traffic uses the BOOTP protocol on TCP/IP ports 67 and 68.

From your laptop, you have been working on a large project that has required you to open a lot of items (programs, files, etc.). It is time to leave the office and make the two-hour journey home. You will be working on this project a bit more when you arrive at home. Your computer's battery is failing and only has a very short life span (about one hour) before your computer loses power. When you arrive home and open the lid of your laptop, nothing happens. After plugging in your computer and powering it on, you find that all of your programs and files have been closed. To troubleshoot this, you open Control Panel and navigate to the settings that control what your computer will do when the laptop lid is closed. Which of the following power settings MUST you choose to prevent the same problem in the future? When I close the lid: Hibernate When I close the lid: Sleep/Suspend When I close the lid: Standby When I close the lid: Shut down

When I close the lid: Hibernate EXPLANATION Hibernate saves the state of your computer to the hard disk and completely powers off your computer. When the devices resumes, the saved state is restored to RAM, and you can pick up where you left off. Sleep, suspend, and standby are all different terms that have been used for various versions of Windows. Regardless of which option is available for your version of Windows, when selected, these do not turn off your computer. Instead, they put the computer and all peripherals on a low power consumption mode. Since your battery is not very good and can only power your computer for a short time, these options run the risk of the computer losing power, resulting in the closure of your programs and files. Shut down will close all files and programs, and all power is terminated.

You have a fairly new computer that was installed with an old version of Windows Vista. This was required to fix some software your company is still supporting. To maintain the data collected while running Vista, you decide that it would be best to upgrade this computer to Windows 10 instead of doing a clean install. Knowing that you can't upgrade directly to Windows 10 from Vista, you plan to first upgrade to Windows 7 and then upgrade from Windows 7 to Windows 10. Which of the following would BEST help you determine whether the computer will support Windows 7? User State Migration Tool Windows Update Windows Easy Transfer Windows Upgrade Advisor

Windows Upgrade Advisor EXPLANATION You should run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor to see if your PC is ready for Windows 7. It scans your hardware, devices, and installed programs for known compatibility issues and will give you guidance on how to resolve any potential issues found. It also recommends steps you should take before you upgrade. USMT (User State Migration Tool) is a Microsoft command line utility program intended to let advanced users transfer files and settings between PCs. Windows Easy Transfer is a Microsoft transfer program that allows users of the Windows operating system to transfer personal files and settings from a computer running an earlier version of Windows to a computer running a newer version. Windows Update is used to provide updates like service packs and patches for the Windows operating system currently installed on the computer. It does not update or migrate data to a newer operating system.

You work for a large company as the IT administrator. With the many external attacks being perpetrated in the form of security breaches being found in applications, you are concerned that your Windows 10 computers may be vulnerable. You also want to ensure that Windows is using the latest features. Which of the following would BEST protect your computers? Scheduled disk maintenance Antivirus updates Windows updates Scheduled backups

Windows updates EXPLANATION By default, Windows 10 PCs automatically check for updates and install any updates it finds. Although this function can be disabled, Microsoft strongly encourages the use of automatic updates to find and install Windows update as well as to keep the computers up to date with the latest features. These updates often include patches to fix security issues found in applications. Automatic maintenance can be used to perform these checks. Scheduled backups are important to have and would be useful when a computer has a virus or the computer has been ransomed. They do not, however, keep the computer safe from application security leaks or update Windows with the latest features. Scheduled disk maintenance allows the system to diagnose and repair disk errors. It does not back up files. Antivirus software and updates are important when trying to protect your computer from viruses. However, addition steps should be taken to ensure that security leaks in applications are fixed. In addition, antivirus software does not update Windows with the latest features.

Which of the following forms of networking is highly susceptible to eavesdropping (data interception) and must be secured accordingly? Dial-up ISDN Wireless DSL Satellite

Wireless EXPLANATION All forms of networking are potentially vulnerable to eavesdropping. Wireless networks by definition broadcast network transmissions openly and therefore can be detected by outsiders. Subsequently wireless networks should maintain data encryption to minimize the risk of transmitting information to unintended recipients.

Which of the following is true when the DHCP setting is disabled in a wireless network? Wireless clients must use a static IP address within the correct IP address range to connect to the network. Wireless clients with specific MAC addresses are denied access to the network. Wireless clients must use the correct encryption key with its packets. Wireless clients must use the correct wireless access point identifier (SSID) to connect to the network.

Wireless clients must use a static IP address within the correct IP address range to connect to the network. EXPLANATION Disabling DHCP prevents addresses from being automatically assigned to wireless systems. If DHCP is disabled, clients must use a static IP address and only those who know the IP address range and other parameters will be able to connect. Enabling MAC address filtering denies access to clients with unauthorized MAC addresses. Encryption keys are only needed when wireless networks implement some type of encryption (WEP, WPA, or WPA2). The SSID is the identifier for the wireless access point and is used to associate wireless clients with the access point.

Which of the following is true of online software activation? (Select THREE.) The software vendor does not track how many times each license code is activated, but uses persistent activation to annually audit the number of licenses being used. With personal software licenses, the limit is usually one to three online activations. With enterprise licenses, the software vendor tracks how many times each license code is activated and automatically charges the enterprise for activations above the license limit. Before running a newly installed application, the user must activate their license online on the software vendor's website. Persistent activation may require the license to be continuously re-activated online at a preconfigured interval. Since the license account information is stored online, it is usually not affected by operating system upgrades or migrations.

With personal software licenses, the limit is usually one to three online activations. Before running a newly installed application, the user must activate their license online on the software vendor's website. Persistent activation may require the license to be continuously re-activated online at a preconfigured interval. EXPLANATION Online software activation: Requires users to activate their software online with the vendor before they can run a newly installed application. For personal software licenses, the limit is usually one to three activations. Allows the software vendor to track how many times each license code is activated and to block further activations after the license limit has been met. Can be done as a one-time activation. With one-time activation, the license is activated once, usually right after the product is installed. Once activated, the product remains activated. Can require persistent activation. With persistent activation, the license is continuously re-activated online at a preconfigured interval. This allows the software vendor to deactivate installations if the conditions of the license agreement have been violated. Can be affected by operating system upgrades or migrations, which can deactivate the software.

You are testing a printer you just installed, so you use the operator panel on the printer to print a test page. Later, you use the printer properties on your computer to print a test page. Instead of a normal test page, you receive several pages with garbled characters on them. What is the most likely cause of the problem? Bad printer memory Wrong toner cartridge Wrong print driver A problem with the printer power supply or the power cable

Wrong print driver EXPLANATION When you print a test page from your computer and it does not work properly, you most likely have an incorrect print driver or a printer cable that is not fastened properly. Memory or power supply problems are rare in printers. You would probably not be able to install an incorrect toner cartridge into the printer.

You currently use the Exchange email client on your desktop PC. You use it to connect to an email server provided by a service provider using the IMAP and SMTP protocols. You recently purchased an iPad, and you want to configure its Mail app to connect to your email server. Which of the following BEST describes whether this task can be accomplished? The Mail app doesn't support the IMAP protocol. You must use POP3 instead. You can configure the Mail app on an iPad to connect to an email server using the IMAP and SMTP protocols. The Mail app requires IMAP and SMTP traffic be secured using SSL. The Mail app can only connect to email services such as Gmail or Yahoo! Mail.

You can configure the Mail app on an iPad to connect to an email server using the IMAP and SMTP protocols. EXPLANATION You can configure the Mail app on an iPad to connect to any email server reachable over the network using the IMAP or POP3 and SMTP protocols. It also supports server connections that are secured using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) security. It can also connect to mail accounts hosted by large service providers, such as Gmail.

Your system administrator shared a USB laser printer connected to your Windows 10 system so other users on the network can send jobs to it. A network user has sent a large job to the printer, but the print job has stalled. You try to delete the print job, but can't. Which of the following BEST describes the reason you cannot delete the print job? You do not have the Print permission. You do not have the Manage this printer permission. You do not have the Manage network printers permission. You do not have the Manage documents permission.

You do not have the Manage documents permission. In this case, you can't delete the print job because you don't have the Manage documents permission. Users who have the Manage documents permission can manage all documents in the queue (pause, resume, delete, or rearrange the order). Users with the Print permission can print using the printer and manage their own documents. Users with the Manage this printer permission can edit the printer properties and pause the printer, but cannot manage any documents waiting to be printed. The Manage network printers permission does not exist.

Your organization has 20 employees who need an accounting software update installed. Due to a miscommunication, the purchaser only paid to update 10 licenses. The software company issued a paper license and a single key for updating 10 users. Since this is an enterprise paper license, there is no mechanism that enforces a limit to the number of times the key can be used, so you decide to go ahead and update all 20 users. What are the possible consequences of this decision? (Select TWO.) You expose your company to litigation by violating the software license agreement. You risk losing your job. The software will eventually stop working properly for the 10 extra updates you installed. The software company will never detect the violation, so negative consequences are unlikely. Because you should be allowed one to three activations per user, this decision does not put you at risk for negative consequences.

You expose your company to litigation by violating the software license agreement. You risk losing your job. EXPLANATION Circumventing license agreements exposes your company to litigation and puts your job at risk. Even without a mechanism for tracking the number of users that are using the software, the enterprise agreement limits the number of licenses you are legally entitled to use. Using more licenses than you are entitled to is an act of theft. Your best course of action is to ask purchasing to pay for 10 more licenses. The software company is likely to learn of the violation. One way they can learn of violations like this is when your users have to register their their copy of the software so they can get software support, patches, and bug fixes. Since there is no mechanism that enforces a limit to the number of times the key can be used, the software will probably continue to function. The one to three activations per user usually pertains to the personal software licensing model or is meant to be used when users have more than one computer on which they need to use the software. These activations are not meant to be shared with other users.

In which of the following situations should you install a firewall? You want to improve internet performance by saving popular websites locally. You want to implement a password system for internet users who access your private website. You want to restrict internet users from accessing private data on your network. You want internet users to see a single IP address when accessing your company network.

You want to restrict internet users from accessing private data on your network. EXPLANATION Firewalls limit traffic by blocking connections that are initiated from an untrusted network, such as the internet, unless the traffic matches rules you configure in the firewall's access control list (ACL).

While using a Windows 10 system, you accidentally downloaded and installed a malware package from a phishing email exploit. You were able to reboot the system into Safe Mode and use System Restore to revert the system to a point in time before the malware infection occurred. Given this information, which of the following are true? (Select TWO). All files created or modified since the restore point was created must be restored from backup. You must restore your user data from backup. The applications installed on the system were not affected when it was reverted to the restore point. Your user files were not affected when the system was reverted to the restore point. You must reinstall any applications that were installed after the restore point was taken.

Your user files were not affected when the system was reverted to the restore point. You must reinstall any applications that were installed after the restore point was taken. EXPLANATION After reverting the system to a prior restore point in this scenario, the following facts are true: Your user files were not affected when the system was reverted to the restore point. You must reinstall any applications that were installed after the restore point was taken. On Windows 10, restore points contain snapshots of system files, registry settings, program files, and any other batch, script, or executable files. When you restore a system to a restore point, previous settings are restored, while subsequent changes are removed. For example, any applications installed after the restore point was created are no longer installed. However, user data is not affected when your revert to a restore point. Any changes made to user data after a restore point is created are retained if the restore point is restored.

A large number of compromised computers are infected with malware that allows an attacker (herder) to control them to spread email spam and launch denial-of-service attacks. Which of the following does this security threat describe? Man-in-the-middle Zombie/botnet Spoofing Phishing

Zombie/botnet EXPLANATION Devices that are infected with malware that can be remote controlled by an attacker are known as zombies. A collection of these zombies that are controlled by the same attacker are known as a botnet (robot network). Phishing is an attempt to trick a user into compromising personal information or downloading malware. Most often, it involves an email containing a malicious attachment or hyperlink. A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack intercepts communications between two systems and alters the message before sending it on to the original recipient. Spoofing is when an entity misrepresents itself by using a fake IP address or, more commonly, a fake email address that resembles a real address. The person being spoofed may not immediately discover that the address is fake.

You want to use the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) format to access a shared folder called Pictures on a computer named Home1. Which of the following is an example of the UNC format? \\Home1\Pictures Home1:Pictures .Home1:Pictures Home1:\\Pictures

\\Home1\Pictures EXPLANATION Use \\Home1\Pictures to access the shared folder. The UNC format is \\Servername\sharename.

You're using a Linux distribution that uses Debian Package Manager (dpkg) for package management. Which command would you use to install httpd, the Apache HTTP Server package, and all its dependencies? apt-get install httpd yum install httpd -dep apt-get install httpd -dep ps -e ps -ef dpkg install httpd yum install httpd

apt-get install httpd EXPLANATION On a Linux distribution that uses Debian Package Manager (dpkg) for package management, entering apt-get install httpd at the command line will install the Apache HTTP Server package and all its dependencies. The apt-get command can automatically locate and download Debian packages for you by searching one or more repositories on the internet. It installs the package and all of its dependencies at the same time.

Which type of authentication would require a user fingerprint or facial recognition for a user to get past the screen lock on a mobile device and gain access to the device?

biometric authentication EXPLANATION A biometric authentication system attempts to identify a person based on metrics, or a mathematical representation, of the subject's biological attributes, such as a fingerprint or a face recognition.

You have just received a call from one of your customers. He informs you that after turning his computer on, he received the following error: Error loading operating system BOOTMGR is missing Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart Every time he restarts his computer, the same error is shown. Which of the following tools is BEST for fixing this issue? chkdsk bootrec format diskpart

bootrec EXPLANATION To fix a master boot record (MBR) error, run Bootrec /fixmbr. Other switches can also be used to fixe the boot sector or rebuild the entire boot configuration data. DiskPart is a disk partition utility. FORMAT is a command/program to format a drive. Formatting a drive erases all data on that drive. CHKDSK can identify and automatically correct file system errors and make sure that you can continue to load and write data from the hard disk. CHKDSK will not fix a problem with the MBR.

You are troubleshooting a Windows 10 system that won't boot. The system appears to initialize just fine and post completes correctly. However, Windows doesn't load, and an error message is displayed on the screen, indicating the operating system couldn't be found. You determine that the Master Boot Record (MBR) is corrupt. To fix the issue, you do the following: Boot the system from the Windows 10 installation DVD. Access the Recovery Environment. Open a Command window. Enter the command you can run at the command prompt to address this issue.

bootrec /fixmbr EXPLANATION The bootrec /fixmbr command writes a Windows-compatible MBR to the system partition. It does not overwrite the existing partition table. Use this command when you must resolve MBR corruption issues or when you have to remove non-standard code from the MBR.

You need to see what kind of CPU is being used on a Linux system. The /proc directory contains a text file called cpuinfo that will give you the information you are looking for. Which of the following commands will display the entire contents of the cpuinfo text file on the screen? grep /proc/cpuinfo show /proc/cpuinfo vi /proc/cpuinfo cat /proc/cpuinfo

cat /proc/cpuinfo EXPLANATION Using the cat command will display the entire contents of a text file on the screen. The vi command opens text files in the vi editor. The grep utility is used to inspect the contents of a file to find lines that match a specified search term.

A technician attempts to run an executable file on a Linux computer and receives a Permission Denied message. Which of the following command should the technician use? ls chmod grep ps

chmod EXPLANATION The chmod command modifies the permissions on a files and defines who can access a file and the mode that can be used to access a file. The grep command is used to search text. The technician could save the output of the ps command in a text file and then search the files, or the technician could pipe the output from the ps command into the grep command.The ls command list the contents of a directory.The ps command lists information on the running processes on a Linux computer.

What type of resources offer the following advantages? Flexibility of access Ease of use Self-service provisioning of resources API availability Metering of services Ability to try out software applications

cloud EXPLANATION Cloud resources offer the following advantages: Flexibility of access Ease of use Self-service provisioning of resources API availability Metering of services Ability to try out software applications

You are an IT administrator troubleshooting a Windows-based computer. After a while, you determine that you need to refresh the group policy on that computer. Rather than rebooting the computer, you open a command prompt from which the refresh can manually be completed. Which of the following is the BEST command line tool to run to accomplish this task? fsutil assoc popd gpupdate gpresult

gpupdate EXPLANATION gpupdate refreshes the local and Active Directory-based Group Policy settings, including security settings. gpresult only displays the Group Policy settings and Resultant Set of Policy (RSOP) for a user or a computer. fsutil displays or configures the file system properties. assoc displays or modifies file extension associations. popd restores the previous value of the current directory saved by pushd.

You need to view the contents of /var/log/auth.log to get information about the users that have been logging on to the system. The auth.log file is a plain text, file so you decide to use the cat command to review the file. However, the display fills with text for several pages, and you can't see the entire file. What commands can you use to view the content of the auth.log file page by page? (Select TWO). more /var/log/auth.log page /var/log/auth.log vi /var/log/auth.log grep /var/log/auth.log ls /var/log/auth.log less /var/log/auth.log

more /var/log/auth.log less /var/log/auth.log EXPLANATION Using the more command, the contents of the file is output to the screen one page at a time to give you a chance to read the contents of the file; press the space bar to go through the file one page at a time. Using the less command does the same thing as the more command, except that is allows you to use the Pg Up and Pg Dn keys to scroll up and down through the file.

A user has a problem accessing several shared folders on the network. After determining the issue is not from his computer's IP configuration, you suspect the shared folders are not currently connected. Which of the following commands will MOST likely confirm your suspicions? net use tracert nslookup ipconfig

net use EXPLANATION Use the net use command to list the current connected shared folders and drive letters. Ipconfig displays the TCP/IP configuration of network interfaces. Netstat displays protocol connections that have been established by the system, as well as what incoming TCP/IP ports are in use by the system. Tracert displays information on the route that a packet takes as it traverses the network to a remote host.

What command lets you see a list of valid command parameters for the net use command? net use help help net use net use /? net use -h

net use /? EXPLANATION Type net use /? (or net use ?) to see a list of the valid parameters for the net use command.

Which command lets you delete subdirectories in addition to files in the current directory? rd /q rd /s rd /f rd /a

rd /s EXPLANATION Use rd /s to remove subdirectories in addition to files in the current directory. Use rd /q to remove directories without prompting.

Which command is used to copy entire folder structures between volumes or across a network while maintaining all NTFS file permissions and attributes? robocopy xcopy copy copy /robust

robocopy EXPLANATION The robocopy command (short for Robust File Copy) is used to copy entire folder structures between volumes or across a network. The benefit of using robocopy is that all NTFS file permissions and attributes are maintained and interrupted transfers can be resumed. The copy command copies files from one location to another. The xcopy command copies files and directory trees, but does not maintain all NTFS file permissions and attributes.

As you are working on your Windows 10 computer during a fierce thunder storm, lightning strikes the nearby transformer, and your office loses all power. Since your laptop's battery is dead, your computer instantly turns off. Once power to the building has been restored, you turn your computer on and notice that you are now getting a missing DLL error message. Which of the following tools is MOST likely to rectify this issue? defrag chkdsk bootrec sfc

sfc EXPLANATION System File Checker (SFC) is integrated with Windows Resource Protection, which protects registry keys and folders as well as critical system files. If any changes are detected to a protected system file, the modified file is restored from a cached copy located in the Windows folder itself. The chkdsk (check disk) command checks the hard drive for errors, such as read errors and other storage related errors. If errors are found, chkdsk has the ability to try to fix these errors and repairs corrupted or missing DLL files. The defrag command lets you defragment your hard disk, but it does not fix missing DLL files. The bootrec command, or the bootrec.exe utility, is a tool provided by Microsoft in Windows Recovery Environment, or the Windows RE. It is typically used to troubleshoot boot issues and is capable of fixing such things as the mater boot record, the boot sector, and the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store.

You are the administrator for a Linux server. Following best practices for system security and effective administration, you always log in to the system with a standard non-root user account. You only elevate your privileges to root user level when you need to do an administrative task. What do you enter at the command prompt that will, by default, switch you to the root user and require you to enter the root password?

su - EXPLANATION At the command prompt, enter su -, and the system will switch you to the root user and require you to enter the root password. You will then be able to perform tasks that require root user administrative privileges. After completing these tasks, you should log out as root and return to the standard user account.

Applications for mobile devices fall into two categories. Some have been reviewed, approved, and signed with a certificate by the app service, and some have not. Which category do apps fall into if they have been signed with a certificate? What category do apps fall into if they have not been reviewed, approved, and signed with a certificate?

trusted untrusted EXPLANATION Apps that have been reviewed, approved, and signed with a certificate by the app service are referred to as trusted apps. Apps that have not been reviewed, approved, or signed with a certificate by the app service are referred to as untrusted apps. Untrusted apps might be safe, but it is risky to install them, and most devices won't allow them to be installed by default.

Your Windows client systems are joined to the WestSim.com domain. To ensure correct time stamps are used, you need to verify that these clients are configured for the appropriate time zone. Which command can you use to do this? w32tm /query /status w32tm /register w32tm /tz w32tm /monitor

w32tm /tz To view the time zone settings used by a domain-joined Windows workstation, you can use the w32tm /tz command. The w32tm /monitor command notifies the time service that its configuration has been modified and that changes need to be applied. The w32tm /register command is used to run w32tm as a registered service, which adds its default configuration to the Windows registry. The w32tm /query /status command is used to view the status of the time service.

Which command would you use to copy all files and subdirectories in a directory, including empty subdirectories? copy /n xcopy /e xcopy /s copy /v

xcopy /e EXPLANATION Use xcopy /e to copy directories and subdirectories, including empty ones. xcopy /s copies directories and subdirectories, but not empty ones. Use copy /n to copy a single directory with the short filenames. Use copy /v to verify the files after the copy.

You're using a Linux distribution that uses RPM for package management. Which command would you use to display a list of all packages available for installation within the internet repositories configured on this system? yum list all apt-get list yum list available ps -ef yum show available ps -e apt-get list available yum show all

yum list available EXPLANATION On a Linux distribution that uses RPM for package management, entering yum list available at the command line will display a list of all packages available for installation within the internet repositories yum is configured to use on this system.

You're using a Linux distribution that uses RPM for package management. Which command would you use to check to see if the httpd package, the Apache HTTP Server package, is installed? yum list installed httpd yum list installed yum search httpd yum info httpd

yum list installed httpd On a Linux distribution that uses RPM for package management, entering yum list installed httpd at the command line will check to see if the Apache HTTP Server package is installed.