Trauma

A patient is unresponsive with snoring respirations. His arm is amputated just above the elbow and is bleeding heavily. The EMT should: A) open the patient's airway. B) apply a proximal tourniquet. C) administer high-flow oxygen. D) ventilate with a bag-mask device.

B) apply a proximal tourniquet. Major hemorrhage kills patients faster than a compromised airway, so in this case, bleeding control has the highest priority. The EMT should apply a proximal tourniquet and stop the bleeding immediately. Attention can then turn to the patient's airway and breathing status. As with any patient, treatment priorities must focus on injuries or conditions that will be the MOST immediately fatal.

Assessment of an injured man reveals that he opens his eyes when the EMT speaks to him and pulls his arm away when the EMT palpates it. He knows his name, but cannot remember what happened and does not know what day it is. He should be assigned a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12

C) 11 The patient's GCS is calculated at 11. He opens his eyes in response to verbal stimuli, which equates to a score of 3 for eye opening. Although he knows his name, he is confused in that he cannot remember what happened or what day it is; this equates to a score of 4 for verbal response. Because the patient withdraws from pain, he receives a score of 4 for motor response.

A patient with a closed head injury opens his eyes in response to pain, is mumbling words that you cannot understand, and pushes your hand away when you apply a painful stimulus. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9

D) 9 The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a valuable tool used when assessing patients with a neurologic injury. It assesses three parameters: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The minimum score on the GCS is 3 and the maximum score is 15. A patient who opens his or her eyes in response to pain would receive a score of 2. Mumbling speech, moaning, or incomprehensible words equate to a score of 2 for verbal response. Localization of a painful stimulus, such as pushing your hand away from the source of pain, equates to a score of 5. Therefore, the patient has a GCS score of 9. It is important to note that a patient's GCS score should be reassessed frequently. Review the entire GCS in your EMT text and commit it to memory!

Following penetrating trauma to the abdomen, a 50-year-old woman has a large laceration with a loop of protruding bowel. How should you manage this injury? A) Carefully replace the bowel and apply an occlusive dressing. B) Apply a tight pressure dressing to control any external bleeding. C) Apply a dry, sterile dressing covered by an occlusive dressing. D) Apply a moist, sterile dressing covered by a dry, sterile dressing.

D) Apply a moist, sterile dressing covered by a dry, sterile dressing. Management of an open abdominal wound with an eviscerated bowel includes controlling any external bleeding, covering the exposed bowel with a moist, sterile dressing, and covering that with a dry, sterile dressing. Applying a dry dressing directly to the exposed bowel will cause the bowel to dry. You must never replace the exposed bowel into the abdominal cavity or apply pressure to the wound; doing so significantly increases the patient's risk for infection as well as further trauma.

A construction worker spilled a bag of powdered chemical, covering both of his arms. He complains of intense pain. What should you do? A) Cover his arms with saline-soaked dressings B) Neutralize the chemical with a vinegar solution C) Irrigate his arms with copious amounts of water D) Brush the chemical away from the skin surface

D) Brush the chemical away from the skin surface When caring for a patient who was exposed to a powdered chemical, it is important to brush the chemical from the skin first, then irrigate the site with copious amounts of water. Irrigating the chemical without brushing it off first may cause further injury; also bear in mind that some dry chemicals may react violently with water. Do not try to neutralize the chemical with vinegar, baking powder, or other similar agents; doing so may only cause further injury.

Which of the following injury mechanisms is associated with hangings? A) Distraction B) Subluxation C) Axial loading D) Hyperextension

A) Distraction Injury to the cervical spine following a hanging occurs via distraction, or stretching, of the vertebrae and spinal cord. A subluxation is a partial or incomplete dislocation; it is an injury, not an injury mechanism. Injuries related to hyperextension mechanisms are common in patients who strike their head on the windshield during a motor vehicle crash. Axial loading is a mechanism of injury in which the spinal column is compressed vertically. Injuries caused by axial loading include cervical spine injuries after diving head first into shallow water and lumbar spine injuries after a fall from a significant height in which the patient lands feet first.

A man's arm was amputated during a car crash. The patient is unresponsive; has rapid, shallow breathing; and has a rapid, weak pulse. As you and your partner are treating him, other responders are attempting to locate his severed arm. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? A) If the patient's arm has not been recovered by the time you are ready to transport, you should transport without delay. B) Quickly move the patient to the ambulance, continue treatment, and wait for the other responders to recover his arm. C) You should transport the patient immediately, even if the other responders recover his arm before you depart the scene. D) Your priority should be to recover the man's arm because a vascular surgeon may be able to successfully reattach it.

A) If the patient's arm has not been recovered by the time you are ready to transport, you should transport without delay. Life over limb! The patient is in shock and requires transport without delay. If the severed arm is recovered before you depart, take it with you. Otherwise, your priorities are to provide aggressive shock treatment and transport the patient to a trauma center. If the limb is recovered after you depart the scene, another provider can transport it to the trauma center, ensuring that it is wrapped in sterile dressings and kept cool.

A patient experienced blunt chest trauma and has asymmetrical chest wall movement. This finding indicates: A) decreased air movement into one lung. B) several ribs broken in numerous places. C) shallow breathing secondary to severe pain. D) accumulation of blood in both of the lungs.

A) decreased air movement into one lung. Asymmetrical chest wall movement, when one side of the chest moves less than the other, indicates decreased air movement into one lung (eg, pneumothorax, hemothorax). Bleeding into both lungs and shallow breathing due to severe pain would likely cause decreased movement to both sides of the chest. If more than two ribs are fractured in several places, a free-floating (flail) segment of fractured ribs is created. This flail segment (not necessarily an entire half of the chest) collapses during inhalation and bulges during exhalation; this is called paradoxical chest movement.

Following blunt force trauma to the anterior chest, a man presents with difficulty breathing, distended jugular veins, absent breath sounds over the left side of the chest, and hypotension. Which of the following BEST describes the pathophysiology of this patient's injury? A) Increased pressure in the pleural space is compressing the great vessels B) Blood is filling the pleural space and is collapsing the lung on the left side C) Blood is filling the pericardial sac and is restricting cardiac relaxation D) The aorta has been injured and blood is rapidly filling the thoracic cavity

A) Increased pressure in the pleural space is compressing the great vessels The patient is experiencing a tension pneumothorax. This type of injury occurs when air fills the pleural space and progressively collapses the lung. In the process, the vena cavae are compressed and blood return to the heart is reduced; clinically, this manifests as jugular vein distention because blood is backing up into the systemic venous system. If blood return to the heart is reduced, the amount of blood that leaves the heart will also be reduced; as a result, cardiac output falls and the patient becomes hypotensive. Breath sounds are markedly decreased or absent on the affected side of the chest because the lung is being collapsed. In a hemothorax, blood fills the pleural space instead of air. Breath sounds are decreased or absent on the affected side; however, because the patient is losing blood volume into the chest, the jugular veins would be collapsed, not distended as they are with a tension pneumothorax. Pericardial tamponade also causes jugular vein distention; however, the patient's breath sounds are equal bilaterally (unless a pneumothorax is also present). Aortic injury would be expected to cause collapsed jugular veins; like the hemothorax, the patient is losing blood volume into the chest cavity. By itself, aortic injury does not cause unequal breath sounds.

Injury to which of the following organs would MOST likely cause hemorrhagic shock? A) Liver B) Kidney C) Stomach D) Bladder

A) Liver The liver is a large vascular organ that holds a significant amount of blood at any given time. Following abdominal trauma, liver injuries can be a source of significant blood loss and hemorrhagic shock. Although the kidneys are also solid organs, they are not as vascular as the liver; kidney injuries can contribute to hemorrhagic shock but are less commonly the sole cause. The stomach and bladder are hollow organs. Hollow organs, when injured, spill their contents into the abdominal cavity, resulting in intense peritoneal irritation and inflammation (peritonitis). The most significant complication associated with peritonitis is infection.

A man was stabbed in the lower right ribcage. He is diaphoretic; his pulse is rapid and weak; and his respirations are regular and unlabored at 24 breaths/min. Which of the following injuries should the EMT suspect? A) Liver laceration B) Ruptured diaphragm C) Massive hemothorax D) Tension pneumothorax

A) Liver laceration Anatomically speaking, the liver is protected by the lower right ribcage. The lungs are not as low in the thoracic cavity as some illustrations would suggest. The patient's unlabored breathing tends to point away from a pneumothorax or hemothorax. Although a diaphragmatic injury cannot be ruled out, one would expect a certain degree of respiratory distress. Based on the anatomic location of the injury, in addition to the patient's clinical presentation, a liver laceration is the most likely injury.

A hiker fell 25 feet from a ledge. There is obvious deformity to his thoracic spine and he has a large laceration on his forehead. His BP is 60/40 mm Hg, pulse is 50 beats/min, and respirations are 26 breaths/min. His face and chest are pale and cool, but his abdomen and lower extremities are pink and warm. Which of the following BEST describes the pathophysiology of these findings? A) Loss of nervous system control over the systemic vasculature B) Severe bleeding into the thoracic cavity from a ruptured aorta C) Systemic vasoconstriction due to nervous system hyperactivity D) Increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding within the brain

A) Loss of nervous system control over the systemic vasculature On the basis of the mechanism of injury and assessment findings, the EMT should suspect that the patient is experiencing neurogenic shock. Neurogenic shock occurs when an injury or condition (in this case, a spinal injury) interrupts the nervous system's control over the diameter of the blood vessels. As a result, the blood vessels dilate and the patient's blood pressure falls. The nervous system releases epinephrine and norepinephrine when a patient is in shock, which results in tachycardia and vasoconstriction. However, if the nervous system is impaired, as with neurogenic shock, these catecholamines do not get released. Therefore, the patient with neurogenic shock is bradycardic, not tachycardic as you would expect with other types of shock that do not involve nervous system impairment (ie, hypovolemic, septic, anaphylactic). The blood vessels above the level of the injury are still able to constrict, so the skin is pale and cool; however, the blood vessels below the level of the injury are dilated, so the skin is pink and warm. If this patient had a head injury with increased intracranial pressure, you would expect him to be hypertensive, not hypotensive.

Which of the following injury mechanisms and clinical findings would MOST likely warrant transport to a facility that provides the highest level of trauma care? A) Motorcycle crash; pelvic instability; systolic BP of 80 mm Hg B) Fall from a standing position; no loss of consciousness; GCS of 14 C) Small-caliber gunshot wound to the calf; heart rate of 110 beats/min D) Rollerblade accident; humeral fracture; heart rate of 100 beats/min

A) Motorcycle crash; pelvic instability; systolic BP of 80 mm Hg Transport destinations for trauma patients are based on the 2011 Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for the field triage of injured patients. Regional protocols may be developed; however, they generally follow the CDC guidelines. Injuries or clinical findings that warrant transport to a facility that provides the highest level of trauma care include a GCS that is equal to or less than 13 following trauma; a systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg; a respiratory rate less than 10 or greater than 29 breaths/min, or the need for ventilatory support; all penetrating injuries to the head, neck, torso, or extremities proximal to the to the knee or elbow; chest wall instability or deformity (eg, flail chest); two or more proximal long bone fractures; a crushed, degloved, mangled, or pulseless extremity; amputation proximal to the ankle or wrist; pelvic fractures; open or depressed skull fracture; and paralysis. The motorcycle rider meets two of these criteria; he has pelvic instability and a systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg. The EMT should be familiar with the trauma triage criteria in his or her jurisdiction.

Which of the following injuries has the potential to produce the greatest amount of internal blood loss? A) Pelvic fracture B) Femur fracture C) Tibial fracture D) Humeral fracture

A) Pelvic fracture The pelvis is an incredibly vascular bone. In addition to the fact that numerous major blood vessels lie nearby, a patient can lose multiple liters of blood into the pelvic cavity. A single femur fracture is capable of producing approximately 1 to 1.5 liters of blood loss. An isolated humeral fracture could cause a loss of blood of up to 750 mL. Tibial fractures typically do not produce significant internal blood loss.

A 33-year-old factory worker was crushed between two pieces of machinery. You find him lying supine on the ground reporting severe pain to his pelvis. He is restless, diaphoretic, and tachycardic. What should you do? A) Prepare for immediate transport. B) Perform a detailed secondary exam. C) Carefully log roll him to check his back. D) Palpate his pelvis to assess for crepitus.

A) Prepare for immediate transport. Based on the mechanism of injury and the presence of signs of shock (eg, restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis), you should suspect that the patient has a fractured pelvis and is bleeding internally. Therefore, after completing your primary assessment and initiating shock treatment (eg, high-flow oxygen, applying blankets), you should perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment to assess for other injuries and then prepare for immediate transport. Spinal precautions should be considered. Do not log roll the patient; doing so compresses the pelvis and may cause further injury. You should also avoid palpating his pelvis; this will only cause further pain and may cause additional injury. Palpation of the pelvis is performed to assess its stability, not to elicit crepitus. Consider applying a pelvic binder device or tying a sheet around his hips in order to reduce the space within the pelvis; doing so may help slow internal bleeding. A detailed secondary exam of a critically injured patient at the scene is not appropriate; it takes too long to perform and should be done en route to the hospital if time permits.

A young man fell and landed on his outstretched hand, resulting in pain and deformity to the left midshaft forearm. Distal circulation should be assessed at which of the following pulse locations? A) Radial B) Brachial C) Pedal D) Popliteal

A) Radial The radius and ulna are the bones of the forearm. The radial pulse can be palpated on the lateral aspect (thumb side) of the wrist and is the most distal pulse site relative to the injury. The brachial pulse is located on the medial aspect of the arm. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee. The pedal (dorsalis pedis) pulse is located on top of the foot.

After covering a large open chest wound with an occlusive dressing, it becomes necessary to ventilate the patient with a bag-mask device. What should you do? A) Remove the occlusive dressing. B) Ventilate with greater volume. C) Ventilate at 24 breaths/min. D) Request a paramedic intercept.

A) Remove the occlusive dressing. If it becomes necessary to ventilate a patient after covering an open chest wound, you should remove the occlusive dressing. With the wound closed, positive pressure ventilation will quickly increase intrathoracic pressure, resulting in a tension pneumothorax. Ventilating the patient with greater volume and/or a faster rate would only cause a more rapid increase in pleural tension and should be avoided. Excessive ventilation can also reduce venous return to the heart, causing a decrease in perfusion. Consider requesting a paramedic intercept, as long as it does not cause a delay in transporting the patient to a trauma center.

A patient has an open chest wound, which has been covered with an occlusive dressing. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min by nonrebreathing mask. During transport, the patient's heart rate increases, he becomes pale and diaphoretic, and his oxygen saturation falls. What should you do? A) Remove the occlusive dressing. B) Ventilate with a bag-mask device. C) Increase the oxygen to 15 L/min. D) Encourage him to take deep breaths.

A) Remove the occlusive dressing. When placing an occlusive dressing over a sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax), it is important to remember that you have converted the injury to a closed pneumothorax. With no way for the air in the pleural space to escape, and depending on the size of the pneumothorax, the patient could develop excessive pleural tension that interferes with circulation (tension pneumothorax). You should suspect that this is what is happening to the patient in this scenario. Your most immediate action should be to remove the occlusive dressing and allow air to escape from the pleural space. Positive pressure ventilation (ie, bag-mask ventilation) in a patient whose open chest injury has been covered with an occlusive dressing may rapidly lead to a tension pneumothorax; therefore, if the patient must be ventilated, the occlusive dressing should be removed.

A patient experienced blunt trauma to the left upper abdominal quadrant. When he is positioned supine, he experiences severe pain in his left shoulder. Which of the following should the EMT suspect? A) Ruptured spleen B) Lacerated bowel C) Injury to the kidney D) Perforated stomach.

A) Ruptured spleen The site of intra-abdominal bleeding can be difficult to determine, even by experienced surgeons. However, if you know your human anatomy, you will know that the spleen is located in the left upper abdominal quadrant. Furthermore, splenic injuries can present with referred pain to the left shoulder (Kehr sign). Injury to the kidney would be expected to produce flank pain and possibly hematuria. Injury to the gastrointestinal organs (ie, stomach, bowel) typically do not present with referred pain. When managing a patient with abdominal trauma, especially one who is in shock, your main focus should be initiating appropriate treatment and providing prompt transport to the hospital.

While assessing a patient who was ejected from his truck, the EMT notices that his chest collapses and his abdomen rises during inhalation. What should the EMT suspect? A) Spinal cord injury B) Fractured sternum C) Ruptured diaphragm D) Intraabdominal bleeding

A) Spinal cord injury The patient is exhibiting diaphragmatic breathing, which explains why his abdomen moves but his chest does not. This indicates a spinal cord injury below the C5 level. The phrenic nerves, which innervate the diaphragm, arise from C3-C5. However, the intercostal nerves, which arise from below the C5 level, have been interrupted; this would explain the absence of chest wall movement. A fractured sternum, depending on the severity of the fracture, would be expected to cause the chest to collapse during inhalation and bulge during exhalation, similar to a flail chest. A ruptured diaphragm would be expected to present with a scaphoid (concave) abdomen and decreased abdominal movement; in some cases of diaphragmatic rupture, bowel sounds may be auscultated over the lung fields (usually the left side). Intraabdominal bleeding would present with a rigid, distended abdomen; it would not explain this patient's abnormal chest and abdominal movement.

What type of injury occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion, resulting in swelling but no deformity? A) Sprain B) Strain C) Fracture D) Dislocation

A) Sprain A sprain occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion. As a result, the supporting capsule and ligaments are stretched or torn, resulting in injury to the ligaments, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and tendons crossing the joint. Signs of a sprain include pain, swelling, ecchymosis, and increased motion of the joint. While a sprain is considered to be a partial dislocation, it is not associated with deformity. A dislocation is a disruption of a joint in which the bond ends are no longer in contact. The supporting ligaments are often torn, usually completely, allowing the bone ends to separate from each other; this results in deformity of the joint. A strain (pulled muscle) is a stretching or tearing of the muscle and/or tendon, causing pain, swelling, and bruising of the soft tissues in the area; deformity does not occur with a strain. A fracture is a break in the continuity of the bone. Non-displaced fractures may not be associated with deformity, whereas displaced fractures typically are. It takes radiographic evaluation to definitely determine the type of musculoskeletal injury a patient has; therefore, the EMT should treat any musculoskeletal injury as though an underlying fracture is present.

Which of the following assessment findings should alert the EMT that a patient with a closed lower extremity fracture is developing compartment syndrome? A) The pain is greater than one would expect for the injury. B) The extremity becomes increasingly warmer and pinker. C) The pain subsides during passive stretch of the extremity. D) Distal pulses are bounding and reflexes are hyperactive.

A) The pain is greater than one would expect for the injury. Compartment syndrome develops when edema and swelling result in increased pressure in the compartment between the fascia and muscle, the osteofascial compartment. Because the fascia is limited in the amount it can stretch or expand, pressure increases within the compartment, which in turn interferes with circulation. Compartment syndrome commonly develops in the extremities and may occur in conjunction with open or closed injuries or when swelling occurs under restrictive immobilization devices such as a cast. The hallmark sign of developing compartment syndrome is disproportionate pain; in other words, the pain experienced by the patient is greater than one would expect. In addition, the pain worsens during passive stretching of the extremity. Other signs of compartment syndrome include pallor of the affected extremity, numbness and tingling (parasthesia), and weakening or an absence of distal pulses. Compartment syndrome is a time-sensitive emergency that requires prompt surgical intervention.

A young man has an open abdominal wound through which a small loop of bowel is protruding. There is minimal bleeding. The BEST way to treat his injury is to: A) apply a sterile trauma dressing moistened with sterile saline directly to the wound and secure the moist dressing in place with a dry sterile dressing. B) apply dry sterile gauze pads to the wound and then keep them continuously moist by pouring sterile saline or water on them throughout transport. C) gently clean the exposed loop of bowel with warm sterile saline, carefully replace it back into the wound, and cover it with a dry sterile dressing. D) cover the wound with a dry sterile trauma dressing and tightly secure it in place by circumferentially wrapping roller gauze around the abdomen.

A) apply a sterile trauma dressing moistened with sterile saline directly to the wound and secure the moist dressing in place with a dry sterile dressing. An abdominal evisceration occurs when a loop of bowel, an organ, or fat protrudes through an open abdominal injury. Never try to replace an organ that is protruding from an open abdominal wound, whether it is a small fold of peritoneum or nearly all of the intestines; this significantly increases the risk of infection. Instead, cover it with sterile gauze pads or a sterile trauma dressing moistened with sterile saline and secure the moist dressing in place with a dry sterile dressing. Some EMS protocols call for an occlusive dressing over the organs, secured by trauma dressings. Do not apply excessive pressure when dressing and bandaging the wound; this may force the protruding organ or loop of bowel back into the abdominal cavity.

Assessment of a patient with multisystem trauma reveals decerebrate posturing, rapid irregular breathing, and bradycardia. These clinical signs indicate injury to the: A) brainstem. B) myocardium. C) temporal lobe. D) thoracic spine.

A) brainstem. Posturing, either decorticate (flexor) or decerebrate (extensor), is an ominous sign in a patient with a head injury because it indicates significant intracranial pressure. Posturing in conjunction with an abnormal breathing pattern (ie, central neurogenic hyperventilation, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, ataxic breathing) indicates injury to the brainstem. Cushing triad (hypertension, bradycardia, abnormal breathing) is also representative of significant intracranial pressure. Temporal lobe injuries often manifest with loss of fine motor control. In order to posture, the spinal cord must be able to receive signals from the brain; therefore, a thoracic spine injury is unlikely. Myocardial injury would be more likely to present with signs of shock and possibly cardiac dysrhythmias.

A 42-year-old man has a large knife impaled in the center of his chest. He is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: A) carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and begin CPR. B) carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and apply the AED. C) secure the knife in place with a bulky dressing and transport immediately. D) stabilize the knife with bulky dressings, begin CPR, and transport at once.

A) carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and begin CPR. Generally, impaled objects should be stabilized in place and not removed; however, if they interfere with the patient's airway or your ability to perform CPR, they must be carefully removed. The knife in this patient is impaled in the center of his chest (the precordium), which is where chest compressions are performed. Carefully remove the knife, control any external bleeding, begin CPR, and transport immediately. The AED is generally not indicated for victims of traumatic cardiac arrest. Massive blood loss is the most common cause of traumatic cardiac arrest, not a cardiac dysrhythmia.

You are called to a local nightclub for an injured patient. Law enforcement personnel have secured the scene. Upon arrival, you see a young man who is lying on the ground screaming in pain; bright red blood is spurting from an apparent stab wound to his groin area. You should: A) control the bleeding. B) apply 100% oxygen. C) ensure an open airway. D) prevent hypothermia.

A) control the bleeding. This patient's airway is obviously patent; he is screaming in pain. Blood spurting from the groin area indicates arterial bleeding from the femoral artery. If this bleeding is not controlled immediately, the patient will die. Oxygen and other shock treatment (ie, keeping him warm) should be initiated after this life-threatening bleeding is controlled. If you take the time to set up and administer oxygen prior to managing the bleeding, the patient will die. Base your treatment priorities on what will kill the patient first.

Appropriate treatment for a patient with widespread full-thickness burns includes: A) dry, sterile dressings; and keeping the patient warm. B) dry, sterile dressings; burn ointment, and cooling the patient. C) moist, sterile dressings; and keeping the patient warm. D) moist, sterile dressings; burn ointment; and cooling the patient.

A) dry, sterile dressings; and keeping the patient warm. Treatment of a patient with full-thickness burns includes high-flow oxygen (or assisted ventilations if needed); dry, sterile dressings; thermal management (keep the patient warm); and providing rapid transport. Moist, sterile dressings should not be applied to full-thickness burns, as they increase the risks of hypothermia and infection. Do not apply ointments, creams, or any other substance to the burn; this will just have to be removed at the hospital and may increase the risk for infection.

Following blunt trauma to the chest, a 33-year-old man has shallow, painful breathing. On assessment, you note that an area to the left side of his chest collapses during inhalation and bulges during exhalation. These are signs of a/an: A) flail chest. B) pneumothorax. C) isolated rib fracture. D) pulmonary contusion.

A) flail chest. If two or more ribs are fractured in two or more places or if the sternum is fractured along with several ribs, a segment of the chest wall may be detached from the rest of the thoracic cage. This injury is called a flail chest. In a flail chest, the detached portion of the chest wall moves opposite of normal; that is, it moves in during inhalation and out during exhalation (paradoxical motion). Isolated (single) rib fractures are not associated with paradoxical motion because they are usually fractured in only one place. In a pneumothorax, the patient's respirations are often labored; in severe cases, an entire side of the chest may not move at all (asymmetrical chest movement). A pulmonary contusion (bruising of the lung tissue) does not cause paradoxical chest motion unless associated with a flail chest.

A man was stabbed in the right side of the chest, lateral to the nipple. He is tachypneic, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. His jugular veins are collapsed and breath sounds are difficult to hear on the right side. You should suspect a: A) hemothorax. B) ruptured spleen. C) liver laceration. D) pneumothorax.

A) hemothorax. Based on the injury location and the patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect a hemothorax. In addition to the lung, there is a TON of vasculature in the thoracic cavity that can easily be injured by a penetrating injury. Because the patient is losing blood, one would expect flattened or collapsed jugular veins and profound shock. In addition, because blood is filling the right hemithorax, breath sounds may be weak or absent on the affected side. Although a liver injury cannot be completely ruled out, the injury is above where the liver is located anatomically. If a pneumothorax is present, it is likely in conjunction with the hemothorax (hemopneumothorax). The spleen is located in the upper left quadrant; this patient's injury is on the right side.

In contrast to an incision, a laceration: A) is a jagged cut. B) is a superficial injury. C) bleeds more severely. D) usually involves an artery.

A) is a jagged cut. A laceration is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or a blunt force that tears the tissue, whereas an incision is a sharp, smooth cut. The depth of the injury can vary; it can extend through the skin and subcutaneous tissue or into the underlying muscles and adjacent nerves and blood vessels. Lacerations and incisions can involve arteries, veins, or both, potentially resulting in severe bleeding.

Appropriate care for an amputated body part includes : A) laying the wrapped body part on a bed of ice. B) placing it directly on ice to prevent tissue damage. C) keeping the part warm to prevent cellular damage. D) keeping the part at room temperature in a plastic bag.

A) laying the wrapped body part on a bed of ice. Appropriate care for an amputated body part includes wrapping the part in a sterile dressing and placing it in a plastic bag. Follow your local protocols regarding how to preserve amputated parts. In some areas, dry sterile dressings are recommended for wrapping amputated parts; in other areas, dressings moistened with sterile saline are recommended. Put the bag in a container filled with ice. Lay the wrapped part on a bed of ice; do not pack it in ice or place it in direct contact with ice. The goal is to keep the part cool without letting it freeze or develop frostbite. Freezing may cause cellular and tissue damage, which decreases the chance of successful reattachment.

When assessing distal circulation in a patient with a swollen deformed femur, you should: A) palpate for a dorsalis pedis pulse. B) assess the pulse behind the knee. C) touch his foot with a blunt object. D) ask the patient to wiggle his toes.

A) palpate for a dorsalis pedis pulse. Care for a musculoskeletal injury includes assessing distal circulatory, sensory, and motor functions before and after applying a splint. In the case of a femur injury, the dorsalis pedis (pedal) pulse, located on top of the foot, is the most distal pulse relative to the injury. If a pedal pulse can be palpated, circulation distal to the injury is present. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee; it is proximal to the pedal pulse. Touching the patient's foot and asking him if he can feel it and asking him to wiggle his toes are assessing sensory and motor functions, respectively, not circulatory function.

Which of the following patients would be MOST in need of a rapid head-to-toe assessment? A) responsive 22-year-old man with a small-caliber gunshot wound to the abdomen B) A responsive 25-year-old woman who fell 9 feet from a roof and landed on her side C) A 43-year-old woman with a unilaterally swollen, painful deformity of the midshaft femur D) A 60-year-old man who fell from a standing position and has small abrasions on his cheek

A) responsive 22-year-old man with a small-caliber gunshot wound to the abdomen A rapid head-to-toe assessment is indicated for any patient with abnormal findings in the primary assessment or when the mechanism of injury warrants it. Significant mechanisms of injury include falls in the adult of greater than 15 feet (or three times the patient's height); penetrating injuries to the head, neck, chest, or abdomen; and multiple long bone fractures, among others.

Prior to your arrival at the scene, a young woman was removed from a body of water after being submerged for an unknown period of time. You should manage her airway appropriately while considering the possibility of: A) spinal injury. B) hyperthermia. C) internal bleeding. D) airway obstruction.

A) spinal injury. When caring for a patient with a submersion injury (ie, near-drowning), you should consider the possibility of a spinal injury. Many water-related incidents occur when a patient dives into shallow water and strikes his or her head. Water can be aspirated into the lungs, but will not cause an obstruction of the upper airway. Another common finding in patients with a submersion injury is hypothermia. Although it is possible for the patient to have internal bleeding at the same time, especially if he or she experienced a traumatic injury before the submersion, spinal injuries are more common.

Assessment of a trauma patient reveals paradoxical movement to the left side of his chest. The patient is conscious, but restless, and is experiencing severe pain. His breathing is rapid and shallow and his pulse is rapid and weak. The EMT should: A) ventilate the patient with a bag-mask device. B) position the patient on the injured side and transport. C) administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D) stabilize the unstable chest wall with bulky dressings.

A) ventilate the patient with a bag-mask device. The patient in this scenario has a flail chest and inadequate ventilation (ie, rapid, shallow [reduced tidal volume] breathing). A flail chest occurs when several ribs are fractured in more than one place; the result is a free-floating section of ribs (flail segment) that collapses during inhalation and bulges out during exhalation (paradoxical chest movement). As the flail segment collapses, the lung is compressed and ventilation is impaired. Treatment should include positive pressure ventilation and prompt transport. In the past, treatment included splinting of the flail segment with bulky dressings; however, restricting chest wall movement is no longer recommended and positive pressure ventilation is now preferred.

Internal or external bleeding would be especially severe in a patient: A) with hemophilia. B) who takes aspirin. C) with heart disease. D) who is hypotensive.

A) with hemophilia. Hemophilia is a condition in which the patient lacks one or more of the blood's clotting factors. There are several forms of hemophilia, most of which are hereditary and some of which are severe. Sometimes bleeding occurs spontaneously in patients with hemophilia. Because the patient's blood does not clot, all injuries, no matter how minor they appear, are potentially serious. Aspirin does not destroy the blood's clotting factors; it decreases the ability of platelets to stick together. Although this may cause prolonged bleeding time, the patient with hemophilia, who lacks key clotting factors, will bleed for a much longer period of time. Many patients with heart disease take aspirin daily to prevent clot formation in a coronary artery. When blood pressure is low (hypotension), the driving force of the blood through the blood vessels is reduced; as a result, bleeding tends to be less severe relative to patients with high blood pressure. Unfortunately, hypotension indicates decompensated shock.

Which of the following injury mechanisms involves axial loading? A) skater slips and falls, landing on her outstretched arm. B) A construction worker falls off a roof and lands feet first. C) A woman's knees impact the dash during a frontal collision. D) A man's neck is forced laterally during a side impact collision.

B) A construction worker falls off a roof and lands feet first. Axial loading injuries occur when a sudden, excessive compression force drives the long axis of the body toward the head, or the head toward the feet. Common injuries that involve axial loading are heavy objects falling on a patient's head, diving head first into shallow water, and falls in which the patient lands feet first. All of these mechanisms cause compression of the spine, potentially resulting in serious injury. None of the other injury mechanisms described are consistent with axial loading.

A 30-year-old man sustained partial-thickness burns to the anterior chest and both anterior arms. Based on the Rule of Nines, what percentage of his body surface area has been burned? A) 9% B) 18% C) 27% D) 36%

B) 18% According to the adult Rule of Nines, the anterior trunk (chest and abdomen) accounts for 18% of the total body surface area (TBSA) and each entire arm accounts for 9%. Therefore, the anterior chest, which is one half of the trunk, would account for 9% of the TBSA, and both anterior arms (4.5% each) would account for 9% TBSA, for a total of 18% TBSA burned.

A 40-year-old man has burns to the entire head, anterior chest, and both anterior upper extremities. Using the adult Rule of Nines, what percentage of his total body surface area has been burned? A) 18% B) 27% C) 36% D) 45%

B) 27% Using the adult Rule of Nines, the head accounts for 9% of the total body surface area (TBSA), the anterior chest for 9% (the entire anterior trunk [chest and abdomen] accounts for 18%), and the anterior upper extremities for 4.5% each (each entire upper extremity is 9% of the TBSA). On the basis of this, the patient has sustained 27% TBSA burns.

A trauma patient opens his eyes slightly and moans when the EMT applies a painful stimulus. When the EMT palpates the patient's arm, he pulls it away. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10

B) 8 If a patient opens his or her eyes in response to pain, a score of 2 is assigned for eye opening. If the patient moans or makes unintelligible sounds, a score of 2 is assigned for verbal response. If the patient withdraws from pain, a score of 4 is assigned for motor response. In total, this patient's GCS is 8, which indicates severe neurologic impairment.

A woman struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car collided with a tree. She is conscious and alert; however, she is tachypneic and diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and irregular. What should you do? A) Apply the AED and administer oxygen. B) Administer oxygen and protect her spine. C) Administer oxygen and position her on her side. D) Ventilate with a bag-mask device and apply a cervical collar.

B) Administer oxygen and protect her spine. Based on the mechanism of injury and the patient's clinical presentation (especially her rapid, irregular pulse), a myocardial contusion should be suspected. Large myocardial contusions can reduce the pumping function of the heart, resulting in shock. One cannot diagnose a myocardial contusion in the prehospital setting, and there is no specific treatment for this type of injury; therefore, prompt transport is essential. Treatment for the patient in this scenario includes supplemental oxygen (nasal cannula or nonrebreathing mask, depending on her oxygen saturation), spinal motion restriction (ie, cervical collar, backboard, etc.), and keeping her warm. A lateral recumbent position would likely not be comfortable for her. She does not require ventilation assistance at this point. The AED is not indicated because she is not in cardiac arrest.

A scuba diver complains of shortness of breath and severe muscle and joint pain immediately after ascending from a dive. He is cyanotic and is coughing up bloody froth. What should you suspect? A) The bends B) Air embolism C) Decompression sickness D) Nitrogen bubbles in the blood

B) Air embolism The most dangerous, and most common, emergency in scuba diving is an air embolism, a condition involving bubbles of air in the blood vessels. An air embolism may occur on a dive as shallow as 6 feet. The problem starts when the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. The air pressure in the lungs remains at a high level while the external pressure on the chest decreases. As a result, the air inside the lungs expands rapidly, causing alveolar rupture. The air released from the ruptured alveoli can cause air bubbles in the bloodstream (air emboli), pneumothorax, or pneumomediastinum. Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include skin mottling; pink or bloody froth at the nose and mouth; severe pain in the muscles, joints, or abdomen; dyspnea and/or chest pain; cough; cyanosis; and dizziness, nausea, and vomiting. Decompression sickness, also called the bends, is also an ascent problem. It occurs when bubbles of gas, especially nitrogen, obstruct the blood vessels. The most striking symptom of decompression sickness is abdominal and/or joint pain so severe that the patient literally doubles over or "bends." It can be difficult to distinguish between air embolism and decompression sickness. As a general rule, air embolism occurs immediately on return to the surface, whereas the symptoms of decompression sickness may not occur for several hours. Treatment at the hospital is the same for air embolism and decompression sickness and involves placing the patient in a hyperbaric chamber.

A woman fell through a glass window and has a large laceration to her inner arm that is bleeding profusely. The EMT applies a trauma dressing and direct pressure to the wound, but the dressing immediately becomes soaked with blood. What should the EMT do next? A) Pack the wound cavity with a hemostatic-impregnated gauze B) Apply a proximal tourniquet and engage it until the bleeding stops C) Apply a second trauma dressing and elevate her arm above her heart D) Pack the wound with sterile gauze and then apply a pressure dressing

B) Apply a proximal tourniquet and engage it until the bleeding stops If direct pressure does not immediately stop massive hemorrhage, the EMT should apply a proximal tourniquet and engage it until the bleeding stops and the pulse distal to the injury is not palpable. Placing additional dressing over a massively hemorrhaging wound will NOT stop the bleeding, it will only hide it! The original paradigm of direct pressure, elevation, pressure point, pressure bandage is gone; these are often ineffective strategies in wounds that are massively hemorrhaging. The use of hemostatic-impregnated gauze is indicated for wounds that are too proximal for a tourniquet (ie, junctional injuries). For wounds that are amenable to a tourniquet, it is preferable to apply a tourniquet versus packing the wound.

Which of the following sets of vital signs is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure in a patient with a head injury? A) BP, 84/42 mm Hg; pulse, 60 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min B) BP, 176/98 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min C) BP, 92/60 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min D) BP, 160/72 mm Hg; pulse, 100 beats/min; respirations, 12 breaths/min

B) BP, 176/98 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min The body responds to a significant traumatic brain injury by shunting more oxygenated blood to the injured brain; it does this by increasing systemic blood pressure. In response to an increase in blood pressure, the pulse rate decreases. Pressure on the brainstem often causes an irregular breathing pattern that is either slow or fast. Therefore, patients with increased intracranial pressure present with hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations that are fast or slow (Cushing triad). Vital signs representative of shock (eg, hypotension, tachycardia) are not common in patients with an isolated head injury and increased intracranial pressure. If the patient with a seemingly isolated head injury is hypotensive and tachycardic, look for other injuries; internal or external bleeding is likely occurring elsewhere.

Which of the following clinical findings is MOST indicative of a skull fracture? A) Non-reactive pupils B) Blood in the ear canal C) Decorticate posturing D) Increased blood pressure

B) Blood in the ear canal All of the clinical signs listed in this question indicate a head injury. However, not all head injuries are accompanied by skull fractures. Blood coming from the ear canal following a head injury, however, is the most suggestive of a skull fracture. Specifically, it suggests a basilar skull fracture. In many cases, this blood contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Bloody CSF draining from the nose indicates a fractured cribriform plate; when this bone is fractured, CSF leaks into the sinuses and manifests with rhinorrhea (nasal discharge).

After completing a rapid assessment of a patient with a penetrating chest injury, the EMT tells her partner that she suspects a pericardial tamponade. Which of the following did the EMT MOST likely encounter during her assessment? A) Slow, bounding pulse B) Distended jugular veins C) Unequal breath sounds D) Widening pulse pressure

B) Distended jugular veins Pericardial tamponade occurs when an injury to the heart causes blood to collect in the pericardial sac; the accumulation of blood puts pressure on the heart and impairs its ability to fill. If the right side of the heart cannot fill, there is nothing for it to send to the left side of the heart; as a result, the patient's blood pressure falls. Beck triad is a classic presentation of pericardial tamponade; it includes jugular vein distention (blood backs up into the venous system because of impaired cardiac filling), muffled or distant heart sounds, and a narrowing pulse pressure (the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure). Other signs include tachycardia, weak pulses, and hypotension. The presence of unequal breath sounds should raise suspicion of a pneumothorax. A widening pulse pressure may be seen with increased intracranial pressure following a head injury.

Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with decompensated shock? A) Diaphoresis and pallor B) Falling blood pressure C) Restlessness and anxiety D) Tachycardia and tachypnea

B) Falling blood pressure During shock, the compensatory mechanisms of the body attempt to maintain the blood pressure. This is accomplished by increasing the heart rate, shunting blood from the skin to more vital organs, and increasing the respiratory rate to increase the oxygen content of the blood. Once these compensatory mechanisms fail, the blood pressure will fall (hypotension). Hypotension signifies a state of decompensated shock. You must not rely on the patient's blood pressure as an indicator of overall perfusion. Restlessness, anxiety, tachycardia, tachypnea, and cool, clammy skin (diaphoresis) are earlier signs of shock and do not necessarily indicate a decompensated state.

Which of the following factors would reduce the blood's natural ability to clot, thus worsening internal or external bleeding? A) Tachycardia B) Hypothermia C) Hypotension D) Vasoconstriction

B) Hypothermia Hypothermia can cause an abnormality in blood clotting (coagulopathy), which can impair clotting factors and cause prolonged bleeding. This is why patients with hemorrhagic shock should be kept warm. Tachycardia, hypotension, and vasoconstriction do not impair the blood's ability to clot.

A trauma patient has a BP of 172/94 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 45 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely produce this vital sign pattern? A) Severe internal hemorrhage B) Increased intracranial pressure C) Increased intrathoracic pressure D) Bleeding into the pericardial sac

B) Increased intracranial pressure The classic vital sign pattern of Cushing's Triad (hypertension, bradycardia, abnormal breathing) is present. This vital sign pattern is seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) secondary to a head injury; it can also be observed in patients who have experienced a severe hemorrhagic stroke. With a head injury, the blood pressure increases in an effort to push more blood to the brain; bradycardia occurs as a reflex response to the increased in blood pressure. Excessive ICP can produce a variety of abnormal breathing patterns, from slow and irregular to rapid with no identifiable pattern. Severe internal hemorrhage would be expected to present with signs of shock (ie, hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea), not hypertension, bradycardia, and bradypnea. Likewise, an increase in intrathoracic pressure can also produce symptoms similar to shock; as intrathoracic pressure increases, venous return to the right side of the heart decreases. This can cause decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Bleeding into the pericardial sac (ie, pericardial tamponade) causes hypotension with a narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia.

A man was struck in the head with a baseball bat. He is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and irregular, and his pulse is slow and bounding. What should you do? A) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate with a bag-mask device. C) Administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and elevate his legs 6 to 12 inches. D) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula and elevate his torso to a 45-degree angle.

B) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate with a bag-mask device. Based on the mechanism of injury and the patient's signs and symptoms, you should suspect that he has a significant closed head injury with increasing intracranial pressure. Since he is unresponsive, you should insert an airway adjunct to obtain a patent airway; the oropharyngeal airway would be the best choice since nasopharyngeal airways should generally be avoided in patients with a head injury. Slow, irregular breathing is not adequate and should be treated with bag-mask ventilation; ventilate the patient at a rate of 10 breaths/min. Hypoxia can have disastrous effects on a patient with a severe head injury, so be sure to attach supplemental oxygen to the bag-mask device. Elevating the patient's lower extremities should be avoided; doing so may further increase intracranial pressure. Instead, consider elevating the patient's head and torso to 30 degrees.

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of a fractured spinal vertebra? A) Lack of pain at the site of the injury B) Palpable pain at the site of the injury C) Decreased movement on one side of the body D) Decreased grip strength in the upper extremities

B) Palpable pain at the site of the injury Of the options listed, the presence of palpable pain (specifically, point tenderness directly over the injury site) is the most reliable indicator of an underlying vertebral fracture. In fact, point tenderness, second only to gross deformity, is the most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture to any bone.

Which of the following signs would you expect to see in the early stages of shock? A) Hypotension B) Restlessness C) Thready pulses D) Unconsciousness

B) Restlessness In the early stages of shock, decreased perfusion to the brain causes the patient to become restless and anxious. As shock progresses, the pulse becomes thready (weak), signifying a falling blood pressure (hypotension), and the patient eventually loses consciousness. It is critical to recognize the early signs of shock and initiate immediate care and rapid transport. You should not rely on the blood pressure as an indicator of perfusion in any patient; by the time hypotension manifests, the patient's compensatory mechanisms have failed and he or she is in decompensated shock.

A woman has a closed fracture to her midshaft tibia. You splinted the injury and are monitoring her during transport. During reassessment, she complains of rapidly increasing pain and you note that her leg is pale and cool. What should you suspect? A) The splint was applied too loosely B) She is developing compartment syndrome C) The fracture is accompanied by a dislocation D) She has another injury proximal to the tibia

B) She is developing compartment syndrome Compartment syndrome occurs when expanding, bleeding muscle increases pressure within the osteofascial compartment, the space in between the muscle and fascia. Because the fascia expands very little, increased compartment pressure can impair distal circulation (essentially, compartment syndrome is like an internal tourniquet). Compartment syndrome commonly develops in patients with injuries distal to the elbow and knee. This is because there are two bones in these areas and numerous muscle compartments. A hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is disproportionate pain; the patient's pain is worse that you would expect for the injury. As the condition develops, the extremity may become pale and cool to the touch, and the patient may complain of numbness and tingling (parasthesia) The skin over the injury may also become very tight. Eventually, the patient may lose all distal circulation, and potentially, their extremity. Prehospital treatment involves recognizing the developing signs and promptly transporting the patient to an appropriate facility. Treatment at the hospital involves a procedure called a fasciotomy, which is usually performed by a surgeon. A splint that is applied too tightly could also cause signs and symptoms similar to compartment syndrome, namely pallor; cool skin distal to the splint; and weak or absent distal pulses. Simply loosening the splint until distal circulation improves is often all that is needed. Fracture/dislocations occur at the joints, not the midshaft of a bone. There is no evidence to suggest that she has another injury proximal to the tibia; furthermore, the presence of one would not explain her symptoms.

Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism of injury? A) The energy of an object in motion B) The way in which traumatic injuries occur C) Your concern for potentially serious injuries D) The product of mass, force of gravity, and height

B) The way in which traumatic injuries occur The mechanism of injury (MOI) is the way in which traumatic injuries occur; it describes the forces (or energy transmission) acting on the body that cause injury. Index of suspicion is your concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen (occult) injuries, which is based on your assessment of the MOI. A significant MOI (eg, fall from a significant height, ejection from a motor vehicle) should increase your index of suspicion for serious injuries. The energy of an object in motion is called kinetic injury. Potential injury is the product of mass (weight), force of gravity, and height; it is mostly associated with the energy of falling objects.

An unresponsive patient with multi-system trauma has slow, shallow breathing; weak radial pulses; and severe bleeding from a lower extremity wound. You should direct your partner to: A) radio for a paramedic ambulance to respond to the scene. B) assist the patient's ventilations while you control the bleeding. C) apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask while you control the bleeding. D) prepare the long spine board and straps for rapid spinal immobilization.

B) assist the patient's ventilations while you control the bleeding. The goal of the primary assessment is to rapidly identify and correct all life-threatening injuries or conditions. In the case of this patient, as your partner maintains in-line cervical spine control, he or she should assist the patient's ventilations. An unresponsive patient with slow, shallow breathing is not breathing adequately and should be treated with ventilatory assistance, not a nonrebreathing mask. As your partner is managing the patient's airway and providing ventilatory assistance, you should apply direct pressure (or a tourniquet, if needed) to the extremity wound to control the bleeding. It is important for you and your partner to work together so that all life threats can be corrected as soon as possible. Most EMS systems work with two-person crews and do not have the luxury of a third EMT. If the police or fire department is on the scene, you can ask them to gather equipment for you. The request for an ALS ambulance is based on factors such as the patient's condition and transport time to the closest appropriate hospital.

A soft-tissue injury that results in a flap of torn skin is called a/an: A) incision. B) avulsion. C) abrasion. D) laceration.

B) avulsion. An avulsion is a soft-tissue injury in which a portion of the skin is torn away, leaving a flap of skin. A laceration is a jagged soft-tissue injury that can be caused by glass or other sharp objects. An abrasion is the scraping away of the epidermis, causing oozing of serous fluid from the capillary bed. Road rash is a classic example of an abrasion. An incision is similar to a laceration, but has smooth edges. Scalpels or knives are examples of instruments that would make an incision.

A high school student was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical during a lab experiment. He is in severe pain and is unable to open his eyes. You should: A) flush both eyes with sterile water for no more than 5 minutes. B) continuously flush his eyes with saline for at least 20 minutes. C) force his eyes open and assess for the presence of severe burns. D) cover both of his eyes with sterile gauze and transport at once.

B) continuously flush his eyes with saline for at least 20 minutes. Chemical burns to the eyes, usually caused by acid or alkaline solutions, require immediate emergency care. This consists of flushing the eyes with water or a sterile saline irrigation solution. Forcing the eyes open for the expressed purpose of assessing for burns is impractical and wastes time. You may have to force the eyes open, however, to effectively irrigate them. If sterile water is not available, use any clean water. Irrigate the eyes for at least 5 minutes. If the burn was caused by an alkali or strong acid, you should irrigate the eyes continuously for 20 minutes. If irrigation can be carried out effectively in the ambulance, it should be done during transport to save time. Strong acids and alkaline solutions can penetrate deeply, requiring prolonged irrigation. After you have completed irrigation, cover the eyes with clean, dry dressings.

A 30-year-old woman has an open deformity to her left leg and is in severe pain. She is conscious and alert, has a patent airway, and is breathing adequately. Your primary concern should be: A) administering high-flow oxygen. B) controlling any external bleeding. C) assessing pulses distal to the injury. D) covering the wound to prevent infection.

B) controlling any external bleeding. Initial care for any open injury involves controlling external bleeding. Further care involves manually stabilizing the injury site; applying a sterile dressing to keep gross contaminants from entering the wound; assessing distal perfusion (eg, a pulse), motor, and sensory functions; and stabilizing the injury with an appropriate splint. The patient in this scenario is conscious and alert, has a patent airway, and is breathing adequately. Depending on other assessment findings, oxygen may be indicated. Your primary concern, however, should be to ensure that all external bleeding has been controlled.

Following a head injury, a young woman is semiconscious and is bleeding from the nose and left ear. You should: A) place a pressure dressing over her ear to prevent blood loss. B) cover her ear and nose with a loose gauze pad to collect the blood. C) control the bleeding from her nose by pinching her nostrils closed. D) insert a nasal airway to keep her tongue from blocking the airway.

B) cover her ear and nose with a loose gauze pad to collect the blood. Blood draining from the ears or nose following a head injury may contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and indicates a skull fracture. In these cases, do NOT attempt to stop the flow of blood. Applying excessive pressure may force the blood leaking from the ears or nose to collect within the cranium, which could increase intracranial pressure and cause permanent damage. Loosely cover the ears or nose with a sterile gauze pad to collect the blood and help keep contaminants out (patients with a skull fracture and CSF leakage are at risk for meningitis). The nasopharyngeal (nasal) airway is contraindicated in patients with a possible skull fracture, especially if blood is draining from the nose. Although rare, the airway adjunct may inadvertently enter the cranial vault through the fracture.

A 44-year-old man has a traumatic leg amputation just below the knee. He is lying in a large pool of blood and the wound is bleeding profusely. The EMT should: A) locate the femoral artery and apply pressure to it until the bleeding stops. B) cover the wound with a trauma dressing and apply a proximal tourniquet. C) apply an icepack to the wound to constrict the vessels and stop the bleeding. D) apply a pressure dressing and elevate the injured extremity at least 12 inches.

B) cover the wound with a trauma dressing and apply a proximal tourniquet. In most cases, external bleeding can be controlled with direct pressure and a securely placed pressure dressing. However, if this is unsuccessful, you should apply a proximal tourniquet immediately or the patient will bleed to death. Of the options listed, covering the wound with a trauma dressing (while applying direct pressure) and then applying a proximal tourniquet will be the most effective means of controlling this severe hemorrhage. Evidence has shown that locating and applying adequate pressure to an arterial pressure point is often difficult and time-consuming; the patient in this scenario does not have that kind of time!

The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following blunt trauma to the anterior neck should make you MOST suspicious for a: A) pneumothorax. B) fractured larynx. C) ruptured esophagus. D) carotid artery injury.

B) fractured larynx. Crushing or blunt trauma to the anterior neck can injure the trachea or larynx. Once the cartilages of the upper airway and larynx are fractured, they do not spring back to their normal position. Such a fracture can lead to loss of voice, airway obstruction, and leakage of air into the soft tissues of the neck. Air leakage into the soft tissues is called subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema may also be observed in patients with a tension pneumothorax, although it is typically located in the chest. Esophageal rupture would likely present with difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and vomiting blood (hematemesis). You should suspect injury to a carotid artery or jugular vein if you observe a rapidly expanding hematoma to the neck following blunt trauma.

Shock following major trauma is MOST often the result of: A) head injury. B) hemorrhage. C) spinal injury. D) long bone fractures.

B) hemorrhage. Shock following major trauma is usually caused by hemorrhage (bleeding), which can be external and obvious (gross), internal and hidden (occult), or both. Trauma to the chest and/or abdomen and multiple long bone fractures are common causes of hemorrhage that result in shock. An isolated head injury usually does not cause shock; rather, it causes increased intracranial pressure. If the patient with a seemingly isolated head injury has signs of shock, look for other injuries. Major trauma may also be associated with spinal injury. If the spinal cord is injured, the patient may develop shock because the nerves that control the diameter of the blood vessels are damaged, resulting in widespread vasodilation (neurogenic shock).

A man was kicked in the head and chest and stabbed in the abdomen. He is conscious, but restless, and is coughing up blood. His breathing is rapid and shallow, his skin is cool and pale, and his pulse is rapid and weak. The EMT should recognize that this patient's signs and symptoms are MOST likely the result of: A) a non-patent airway. B) internal hemorrhage. C) a spinal cord injury. D) severe brain trauma.

B) internal hemorrhage. The classic symptoms of hemorrhagic shock are present in this patient. He is restless, tachypneic, tachycardic, pale, and diaphoretic. The EMT should suspect that he is bleeding into his abdomen, chest, or both. Although the patient's rapid, shallow breathing may be inadequate, there is no evidence that his airway is non-patent. Although a head injury cannot be ruled out, the patient's symptoms are not indicative of what you would expect to encounter with severe brain trauma (ie, decreased LOC, hypertension, bradycardia, irregular breathing, posturing). Spinal cord injury is also unlikely as the signs of neurogenic shock (ie, warm, dry skin; normal [or slow] heart rate) are not present.

A 42-year-old man was ejected from his car after it struck a bridge pillar at a high rate of speed. You find him in a prone position approximately 50 feet from his car. He is not moving and does not appear to be breathing. You should: A) assess his breathing effort. B) manually stabilize his head. C) administer high-flow oxygen. D) use the jaw-thrust maneuver.

B) manually stabilize his head. When a trauma patient is found in a prone (face-down) position, especially if he or she is unresponsive, your first action should be to manually stabilize his or her head; this action is based on the assumption that the patient has a spinal injury. Next, log roll the patient to a supine position (while continuing to manually stabilize the head), open the airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, clear the airway with suction if needed, and assess for breathing. It would be extremely difficult to adequately open the patient's airway while he or she is in a prone position. Depending on the patient's breathing effort, administer high-flow oxygen or ventilate using a bag-mask device.

A 44-year-old man experienced burns to his anterior trunk and both arms. He is conscious and alert, but is in extreme pain. Assessment of the burns reveals reddening and blisters. This patient has ________________ burns that cover _____ of his total body surface area. A) first-degree, 27% B) partial-thickness, 36% C) second-degree, 45% D) full-thickness, 18%

B) partial-thickness, 36% Partial-thickness (second-degree) burns damage the epidermis and part of the dermis, and are characterized by blistering and severe pain. Areas of superficial (first-degree) burns, which cause reddening of the skin, commonly surround a partial-thickness burn. The anterior trunk (chest and abdomen) accounts for 18% of the total body surface area (TBSA) and each entire arm accounts for 9%. Therefore, this patient has partial-thickness burns that cover 36% of his TBSA. Full-thickness (third-degree) burns are characterized by charred or white, leathery skin. Because the entire dermis, including the nerves, is destroyed, full-thickness burns are usually painless. The surrounding areas of partial-thickness burns, however, are very painful.

A 78-year-old woman reports pain to her right groin area after she fell. Her right leg is straight but is externally rotated and shorter than the left. The EMT should suspect a: A) pelvic girdle fracture. B) eemur fracture. C) posterior hip dislocation. D) symphysis pubis fracture.

B) proximal femur fracture. Fractures of the proximal (upper) end of the femur are common fractures, especially in older patients and patients with osteoporosis. Although these fractures are often called hip fractures, they rarely involve the hip joint. Instead, the fracture occurs at the neck of the femur. Patient with displaced fractures of the proximal femur present with a very characteristic deformity. The leg is straight but is externally rotated and shorter than the uninjured leg. Pain is typically located in the hip region or in the groin or inner aspect of the thigh. Posterior dislocation of the hip most commonly occurs as a result of a motor vehicle crash in which the knee meets with a direct force, such as the dashboard, and the entire femur is driven posteriorly, dislocating the hip joint. Patients with a posterior hip dislocation typically lie with the hip joint flexed (the knee joint drawn up toward the chest) and the thigh rotated internally. Pelvic fractures, including those of the symphysis pubis, typically do not cause shortening or lengthening of an extremity, nor are they typically associated with internal or external rotation of the legs. Fracture of the symphysis pubis is characterized by palpable pain over the pubic bone.

A patient presents with a swollen, painful deformity to the lateral bone of the left forearm. You should recognize that he has injured his: A) ulna. B) radius. C) clavicle. D) humerus.

B) radius. Recalling the body in the anatomic position, the radius is the lateral (thumb side) bone of the forearm and the ulna is the medial (pinky side) bone. The humerus is the long bone of the arm and the clavicle is the collarbone, which extends from the sternum laterally to the shoulder.

A 22-year-old man had a strong acid chemical splashed into both of his eyes. He is conscious and alert, is experiencing intense pain, and states that he is wearing contact lenses. Treatment should include: A) leaving the contact lenses in and beginning irrigation of both eyes. B) removing the contact lenses and beginning irrigation of both eyes. C) leaving the contact lenses in and covering both eyes with sterile gauze. D) removing the contact lenses and covering both eyes with sterile gauze.

B) removing the contact lenses and beginning irrigation of both eyes. As a general rule, contact lenses should be left in place. Chemical eye burns are an exception to this rule. If left in place, the chemical could get behind the contact lens and continue to cause injury. Therefore, you should remove the contact lenses and immediately irrigate the eyes with sterile saline or water. If needed, continue to irrigate the eyes throughout transport.

You are dispatched to the scene of a motorcycle crash. Upon arrival, you find the patient lying face down approximately 25 feet from his bike. He is not wearing a helmet and is moaning. You should: A) apply a cervical collar. B) stabilize his head manually. C) log roll him into a supine position. D) evaluate the status of his airway.

B) stabilize his head manually. The mechanism of injury for this patient was significant. In his present position (prone), you cannot effectively assess his airway. Therefore, your first action should be to manually stabilize his head. Then, you must log roll him into a supine position, keeping his head in an in-line position. If possible, log roll him directly onto a long backboard. After the patient is supine, assess the status of his airway, assess his breathing adequacy, administer high-flow oxygen or begin assisted ventilations if needed, and continue with your primary assessment. Apply a cervical collar as soon as possible, but assess his posterior neck first.

A 70-year-old woman fell and struck her head two days ago, but did not seek medical attention. Today, she is confused, is vomiting, and has slurred speech. The EMT should suspect a/an: A) epidural hematoma. B) subdural hematoma. C) intracerebral hematoma. D) acute ischemic stroke.

B) subdural hematoma. This case is classic for a subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma occurs when bleeding occurs between the dura mater (the outer meningeal layer) and the surface of the brain; it is typically caused by venous bleeding. As such, subdural hematomas often do not present with symptoms until several hours, or even days, have past since a head injury. By contrast, epidural hematoma, bleeding between the skull and dura mater, is usually caused by arterial bleeding; patients with this type of injury usually present with symptoms immediately following the injury. Intracerebral hemorrhage, bleeding within the brain itself, would also be expected to produce immediate symptoms. While acute ischemic stroke could also explain this patient's symptoms, the fact that she recently experienced a head injury makes the diagnosis of a subdural hematoma more likely.

A man was stabbed in the cheek with a dinner fork, and the fork is still impaled in his cheek. He is conscious and alert, breathing adequately, and has blood in his oropharynx. You should: A) apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, carefully remove the fork, and control any external bleeding. B) suction his oropharynx, control any external bleeding, stabilize the fork in place, and protect it with bulky dressings. C) carefully remove the fork, suction his oropharynx as needed, and pack the inside of his cheek with sterile gauze pads. D) suction his oropharynx, carefully cut the fork to make it shorter, control any external bleeding, and secure the fork in place.

B) suction his oropharynx, control any external bleeding, stabilize the fork in place, and protect it with bulky dressings. An impaled object in the cheek should be removed if it interferes with your ability to manage the patient's airway. In this case, however, the patient is breathing adequately and does not require aggressive airway care (eg, ventilatory assistance). The most practical approach is to suction the blood from his oropharynx, which will prevent him from swallowing it, vomiting it, or aspirating it. Stabilize the fork in place and protect it with bulky dressings; removing an impaled object from the cheek in the opposite direction it entered would clearly cause further soft-tissue injury and bleeding. Transport the patient in a sitting position and suction his oropharynx en route as needed. There is no reason to cut the fork to make it shorter; this will only unnecessarily manipulate it, potentially causing further soft tissue damage and increased bleeding.

An unrestrained driver was crushed in between the steering wheel and his seat when his truck collided with a tree. Assessment reveals cyanosis to his neck and face, jugular venous distention, and bleeding into the sclera of his eyes. The EMT should suspect: A) aortic dissection. B) traumatic asphyxia. C) massive hemothorax. D) pericardial tamponade.

B) traumatic asphyxia. Rather classic signs of traumatic asphyxia are present in this patient. Traumatic asphyxia occurs when a sudden compressive force is applied to the chest, which results in a sudden massive amount of blood being shunted to the neck, face, and head. Signs include jugular venous distention (JVD); cyanosis to the neck, face, and head; bulging eyes; and scleral hemorrhage (blood in the whites of the eyes). Traumatic asphyxia has a high mortality rate, mainly because of the massive injuries that occur within the thoracic cavity. Aortic dissection and massive hemothorax do not present with JVD because both of these injuries are associated with massive blood loss; one would expect collapsed jugular veins. Pericardial tamponade can cause JVD; however, cyanosis to the upper body and scleral hemorrhage are not observed.

During a soccer game, a 20-year-old man collided shoulder-to-shoulder with another player. He has pain and a noticeable anterior bulge to the left shoulder. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of immobilizing this injury? A) An air-inflatable splint with the left arm immobilized in the flexed position B) A long board splint with the left arm immobilized in the extended position C) A sling to support the left arm and swathes to secure the arm to the body D) A sling to support the left arm and swathes to maintain downward traction

C) A sling to support the left arm and swathes to secure the arm to the body Injuries to the shoulder are most effectively immobilized with the use of a sling and swathe. The sling will provide support and relieve pain to the shoulder, and the swathe will secure the arm to the body. The purpose of the swathe is not to facilitate traction. Patients with dislocated or fractured shoulders will not allow you to extend their arm, so any attempt to immobilize the injury in such a fashion will not be possible and could worsen the injury.

Which of the following sets of vital signs is the MOST consistent with hemorrhagic shock? A) BP, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 70 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min B) BP, 190/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min C) BP, 88/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min D) BP, 160/70 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 12 breaths/min

C) BP, 88/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min Of the vital sign values listed, hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea are the most consistent with hemorrhagic shock. In fact, the presence of hypotension indicates decompensated shock. Hypotension and a normal (or slow) heart rate is consistent with neurogenic shock. Hypertension, bradycardia, and abnormal breathing (Cushing's triad) are consistent with increased intracranial pressure from a head injury. Hypertension, tachycardia, and normal breathing may be observed in a patient with a hypertensive emergency; they are not consistent with hemorrhagic shock.

A man was stabbed to the left side of the chest. His skin is cool and clammy, his blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, his respirations are 22 breaths/min, and his pulse is 120 beats/min and weak. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are distended. What should you do? A) Cover the wound and position him on his left side. B) Ventilate the patient, apply an AED, and transport. C) Cover the wound, administer oxygen, and transport. D) Suspect a pneumothorax and contact medical control.

C) Cover the wound, administer oxygen, and transport. The mechanism of injury and clinical presentation indicate a pericardial tamponade. Pericardial tamponade occurs when blood fills the pericardial sac and restricts the heart from relaxing. If the heart cannot relax, it cannot fill with blood. If the right side of the heart cannot fill with blood, there is nothing for it to send to the left side of the heart; as a result, the patient's cardiac output drops and shock develops. Signs of pericardial tamponade include muffled or distant heart tones (difficult to assess in the field); a rapid, weak pulse; hypotension; jugular venous distention; and a narrowing pulse pressure (difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures). A pneumothorax is unlikely in this patient; his breath sounds are equal bilaterally. Pericardial tamponade is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt treatment. For this patient, you should cover the wound on his chest, administer oxygen, and transport without delay. Shock patients should be transported supine, not on their side. The AED is not indicated for this patient because he is not in cardiac arrest.

Which of the following assessment findings is the MOST concerning in a patient with significant burns? A) Severe blisters to both hands B) Closed deformity of the wrist C) Dry cough and a hoarse voice D) Clothes adhered to burned skin

C) Dry cough and a hoarse voice Any condition or injury that involves airway, breathing, or circulation warrants the EMT's most immediate attention. A dry cough and hoarse voice are signs of inhalation injury and airway swelling. The EMT must carefully monitor the patient and be prepared to ventilate him if his breathing becomes inadequate. Transport the patient without delay; if tactically feasible, a paramedic intercept should be requested. If the patient's airway completely closes, more invasive airway management will be needed (ie, cricothyrotomy). Tend to the other injuries listed during transport to the hospital.

A 40-year-old man was hit in the nose during a fight. He has bruising under his left eye and a nosebleed. What should you do? A) Place a chemical ice pack over his nose. B) Determine if he has any visual disturbances. C) Ensure that he is sitting up and leaning forward. D) Apply direct pressure by pinching his nostrils together.

C) Ensure that he is sitting up and leaning forward. During a nosebleed (epistaxis), much of the blood may pass down the throat into the stomach as the patient swallows; this is especially true if the patient is lying supine. Blood is a gastric irritant; a person who swallows a large amount of blood may become nauseated and vomit, which increases the risk of aspiration. Therefore, your first action should be to ensure that the patient is sitting up and leaning forward. This will prevent blood from draining down the back of the throat. Next, apply direct pressure by pinching the fleshy part of the nostrils together; you or the patient may do this. Placing a chemical ice pack over the nose may further help control the bleeding by constricting the nasal vasculature. After controlling the nosebleed, continue your assessment, which includes assessing for facial deformities and visual disturbances.

During a soccer game, an 18-year-old woman injured her knee. Her knee is in a flexed position and is obviously deformed. What should you do? A) Assess for the presence of a femoral pulse B) Straighten the knee to facilitate immobilization C) Manually stabilize the leg above and below the knee D) Ask her to flex her knee even more to help with pain

C) Manually stabilize the leg above and below the knee Treatment for any musculoskeletal injury begins by providing manual stabilization above and below the injury (in this case, the distal femur and proximal tibia); this will prevent further injury. Distal circulatory (pulse), sensory, and motor functions should then be assessed; in this case, the dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulse (the femoral pulse is proximal to the knee). After manually stabilizing the injury and assessing distal circulatory, sensory, and motor functions, you should appropriately splint the injury. Reassess distal circulatory, sensory, and motor functions after the splint has been applied. Because of the vascularity of the knee, as well as the presence of major nerves in that area, you should not straighten or flex an injured knee. Joint injuries should be immobilized in the position found. If there is no distal pulse and transport will be delayed, medical control may authorize you to make one attempt to gently manipulate the joint to restore a pulse.

Which of the following will provide you with the MOST information regarding a head-injured patient's condition? A) Pupil size B) Heart rate C) Mental status D) Blood pressure

C) Mental status The patient's mental status provides you with the most information regarding overall perfusion status, especially when assessing a patient with a head injury. Frequent neurologic assessments, which includes assessing the patient's pupils, are critical in determining if the patient's condition is improving or deteriorating. Vital signs should be monitored according to the patient's condition, at least every 5 minutes if he or she is unstable and at least every 15 minutes if he or she is stable.

A patient with a chest injury has a BP of 100/70 mm Hg and a heart rate of 100 beats/min. Reassessment reveals a BP of 90/74 mm Hg, a pulse of 120 beats/min, and the ƒ of jugular venous distention. What should you suspect? A) Massive hemothorax B) Simple pneumothorax C) Pericardial tamponade D) Traumatic aortic rupture

C) Pericardial tamponade The EMT should suspect pericardial tamponade. Signs of pericardial tamponade include a narrowing pulse pressure and jugular venous distention (JVD). The first pulse pressure recorded was 30 mm Hg; however, it narrowed to 16 mm Hg during reassessment. The pulse pressure narrows in pericardial tamponade because pressure against the heart prevents full relaxation and filling; as a result, the diastolic BP increases. Because of inadequate ventricular filling, cardiac output decreases; this causes a decrease in the systolic BP. JVD occurs because blood backs up into the systemic venous system. Massive hemothorax and traumatic aortic rupture would not be expected to cause JVD because there is simply not enough blood in the venous system to distend the jugular veins. Simple pneumothorax typically does not present with signs of shock; the patient usually complains of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. However, in some cases, a simple pneumothorax can progress to a tension pneumothorax and cause hemodynamic compromise.

During which part of your assessment would you MOST likely discover a small-caliber gunshot wound to the back with minimal bleeding? A) General impression B) Primary assessment C) Rapid head-to-toe assessment D) Detailed secondary assessment

C) Rapid head-to-toe assessment During both the general impression and the primary assessment, you should assess for major bleeding. If there is no obvious bleeding, you should continue your assessment as usual. It is during the rapid head-to-toe assessment, when log rolling the patient to assess the posterior (back), that you would most likely find a small-caliber gunshot wound, especially if there is little or no bleeding. A secondary assessment should be performed, and focuses primarily on the patient's chief complaint; however, this may not be practical with a critically ill or injured patient. If a secondary assessment is performed on a critically ill or injured patient, it should occur en route to the hospital. All bleeding should have been controlled long before performing a secondary assessment.

Which of the following is MOST indicative of compensated shock in an adult? A) Unresponsive, pallor, absent radial pulses, tachypnea B) Confusion, mottling, tachycardia, BP of 88/60 mm Hg C) Restless, diaphoresis, tachypnea, BP of 104/64 mm Hg D) Weak carotid pulse, cool skin, increased respiratory rate

C) Restless, diaphoresis, tachypnea, BP of 104/64 mm Hg In compensated shock, the nervous system is mounting a physiologic response to an underlying illness or injury in an attempt to maintain perfusion to vital organs such as the brain, heart, and kidneys. The patient with compensated shock is restless or anxious, has poor peripheral perfusion (eg, pallor), tachycardia, diaphoresis, and increased respirations (tachypnea). However, his or her blood pressure is maintained, usually above 90 to 100 mm Hg. In decompensated shock, the body's compensatory mechanisms fail, blood pressure begins to fall, and perfusion to vital organs decreases. Other signs of decompensated shock include a decreased level of consciousness, absent peripheral pulses (radial), and weak central pulses (carotid, femoral).

A 23-year-old man was struck across the face with a baseball bat. His eyes are swollen shut, he has massive facial bruising and deformities, and he has blood in his mouth. Your MOST immediate concern should be: A) spinal trauma. B) intracranial bleeding. C) airway compromise. D) permanent vision loss.

C) airway compromise. Few things will kill a patient more quickly than uncontrolled external hemorrhage and/or a compromised airway. Blood in a patient's mouth must be removed immediately. It may be aspirated into the lungs or, if clotted, obstruct the airway. Spinal trauma, intracranial bleeding, and vision loss are all possible in a patient with blunt trauma to the face; however, airway compromise is the most immediate life threat with this patient. Remember, treat what will kill your patient FIRST.

When assessing and treating a patient with a gunshot wound, you should routinely: A) apply ice directly to the wound. B) determine why the patient was shot. C) look for the presence of an exit wound. D) evaluate the pulses proximal to the wound.

C) look for the presence of an exit wound. When assessing a patient who sustained a gunshot wound, you should routinely look for an exit wound, which may be difficult to find. Exit wounds can be a source of continued bleeding, both externally and internally. They may or may not follow the same path as the entrance wound. This is why it is important to conduct a thorough examination of the patient. Ice can be applied to the wound, but only after the wound has been covered by a sterile dressing and any bleeding has been controlled. Determining why the patient was shot is the responsibility of law enforcement, not the EMT. If the wound is close to an extremity, pulse, motor, and sensory function should be assessed distal to the wound.

A patient with severe hypothermia should be actively rewarmed: A) before he or she is moved. B) in the back of the ambulance. C) at the emergency department. D) as soon as paramedics arrive.

C) at the emergency department. Prehospital treatment for hypothermia depends on the patient's body temperature. For patients who are alert, actively shivering, and responding appropriately (mild hypothermia [90 to 95 degrees Fahrenheit]), you should begin passive rewarming. This includes moving the patient to a warm environment, removing any wet clothing, turning up the heat in the ambulance, and applying warm blankets. Some protocols may call for heat packs or hot water bottles applied to the groin, axillae, and cervical regions; this is a form of active external rewarming. However, if the patient has moderate or severe hypothermia (less than 90 degrees Fahrenheit), active rewarming is best accomplished in the emergency department utilizing aggressive strategies to introduce heat into the body's core. Such therapies might include warm intravenous fluids, lavage with warm fluids, and rewarming blood outside the body before reintroducing it (extracorporeal rewarming). Rewarming too quickly may cause a fatal cardiac dysrhythmia or other significant complications. For this reason, local protocols may dictate the appropriate type of rewarming strategies based on the patient's body temperature.

Following blunt injury to the anterior torso, a patient is coughing up bright red blood. You should suspect: A) intra-abdominal bleeding. B) gastrointestinal bleeding. C) bleeding within the lungs. D) severe myocardial damage.

C) bleeding within the lungs. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) is a finding that suggests injury to or bleeding within the lungs. Vomiting of bright or dark red blood (hematemesis) suggests gastrointestinal bleeding. Intra-abdominal bleeding following trauma presents with signs of shock as well as abdominal pain, guarding, rigidity, bruising, or distention. Injury to the myocardium may cause cardiac dysrhythmias, but typically does not cause hemoptysis unless it is associated with pulmonary (lung) injury.

An elderly woman, who was removed from her burning house by firefighters, has full-thickness burns to approximately 50% of her body. Appropriate treatment for this patient would include: A) applying moist, sterile dressings to the burned areas and preventing hypothermia. B) cooling the burns with sterile saline and covering them with dry, sterile burn pads. C) covering the burns with dry, sterile dressings and preventing further loss of body heat. D) peeling burned clothing from the skin and removing all rings, necklaces, and bracelets.

C) covering the burns with dry, sterile dressings and preventing further loss of body heat. After moving the patient to safety, stopping the burning process, and supporting the ABCs, full-thickness burns should be cared for by applying dry, sterile dressings or sterile burn pads and preventing hypothermia. Cooling full-thickness burns (ie, applying moist dressings, pouring saline or water on the burn) should be avoided, as this increases the risks of hypothermia and infection. Rings, necklaces, and other potentially constrictive devices should be removed in the event that severe swelling occurs. If portions of clothing are adhered to the skin, they should be cut around, not peeled from the skin, to prevent further soft-tissue damage.

During your assessment of a patient with a gunshot wound to the chest, you note that his skin is pale. This finding is the result of: A) a critically low blood pressure. B) a significantly elevated heart rate. C) decreased blood flow to the skin. D) peripheral dilation of the vasculature.

C) decreased blood flow to the skin. When the body attempts to compensate for shock, peripheral vasoconstriction shunts blood away from the skin to the more vital organs in the body such as the brain, heart, lungs, and kidneys. When there is minimal or no peripheral blood flow, the skin assumes a pale appearance. By contrast, when peripheral circulation increases (ie, vasodilation), the skin assumes a red (flushed) appearance. Pallor does not necessarily indicate hypotension. Tachycardia is a compensatory response of the nervous system in an attempt to increase cardiac output and maintain adequate perfusion.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt facial trauma, you note the presence of a hyphema. This indicates: A) a fracture of the nasal bone. B) an orbital blowout fracture. C) direct trauma to the eyeball. D) that the pupils are unequal.

C) direct trauma to the eyeball. Some patients with blunt trauma to the eyeball (globe) may present with a hyphema, or bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye, that obscures a portion of or the entire iris. This condition may seriously impair vision and should be considered a sight-threatening emergency. A fracture of the orbital floor (blowout fracture) is characterized by double vision and an inability of the patient to move his or her eyes above the midline (paralysis of upward gaze) following blunt facial trauma. In an orbital blowout fracture, fragments of fractured bone can entrap some of the muscles that control eye movement. Anisocoria is the term used to describe unequal pupils. Unequal pupils following head trauma indicates increased intracranial pressure.

Factors that affect a person's ability to compensate for internal or external blood loss include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) advanced age. B) the rate of blood loss. C) high cholesterol in the blood. D) blood-thinning medications.

C) high cholesterol in the blood. Numerous factors affect a person's ability to compensate for blood loss. The compensatory responses of tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction decrease as a person ages; thus, older patients are not able to compensate as effectively as younger patients. Furthermore, older patients commonly take medications to treat high blood pressure, such as beta-blockers; these drugs may blunt the body's release of the catecholamines necessary to increase the heart rate. The ability to compensate for blood loss is also related to how rapidly blood loss occurs. A normal, healthy adult can comfortably donate 1 unit (500 mL) of blood during a period of 10 to 20 minutes and adapts well to this decrease in blood volume. However, if a similar blood loss occurs in a much shorter period, the person's compensatory mechanisms may be overwhelmed, resulting in hypovolemic shock. Patients who take blood-thinning medications (eg, warfarin [Coumadin]) bleed longer than those not taking such medications; in these patients, bleeding from an otherwise minor injury can be significant. There is no known correlation between high cholesterol and a person's ability to compensate for blood loss.

Patients with significant closed head injuries often have pupillary abnormalities and: A) paralysis. B) paresthesia. C) hypertension. D) tachycardia.

C) hypertension. Closed head injuries can cause a variety of signs and symptoms. In addition to pupillary abnormalities (ie, unequal pupils, sluggishly reactive pupils), a classic finding that indicates a significant increase in intracranial pressure is Cushing's triad. This trio of findings includes hypertension; bradycardia; and abnormal breathing, which can vary from slow and irregular to rapid and deep.

If a passenger strikes his or her head on the windshield during a motor vehicle crash: A) the posterior portion of the brain will receive the initial impact, resulting in severe intracerebral hemorrhage. B) he or she will likely experience a hyperflexion injury, resulting in fractures of the vertebrae in the cervical spine. C) the anterior part of the brain sustains a compression injury, while the posterior part sustains a stretching injury. D) you will always see a starburst fracture of the windshield at the location where the patient struck his or her head.

C) the anterior part of the brain sustains a compression injury, while the posterior part sustains a stretching injury. Although the presence of a starburst fracture on the windshield is a good indicator that the patient impacted the windshield with his or her head, it is not always present or grossly obvious, especially if the windshield is broken in multiple places. As the passenger's head strikes the windshield, the brain continues its forward movement until it collides with the inside of the skull. Direct injury to the anterior part of the brain results in compression injuries. Indirect injury occurs to the posterior part of the brain due to stretching or tearing. This is an example of a coup-contracoup injury. Although hyperflexion injuries of the neck can occur when the head impacts the windshield, hyperextension injuries are more common.

If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 mph, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe injuries during the: A) first collision. B) second collision. C) third collision. D) fourth collision.

C) third collision. Motor vehicle crashes typically consist of three separate collisions. Understanding the events that occur during each collision will help you remain alert for certain types of injury patterns. During the first collision, the vehicle strikes another object. Damage to the car is perhaps the most dramatic part of the collision, but it does not directly affect patient care. It does, however, provide information about the severity of the collision; thus, it has an indirect effect on patient care. During the second collision, the passenger collides with the interior of the vehicle. Just like the obvious damage to the exterior of the car, the injuries that result are often dramatic and usually apparent during your primary assessment. During the third collision, the occupant's internal organs collide with the solid structures of the body. Although the injuries that occur during the third collision may not be as obvious as those that occur during the second collision, they are often the most life-threatening.

A baseball player was struck in the center of the chest by a line drive and immediately collapsed. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. The EMT should recognize that the MOST likely cause of this patient's collapse was: A) rupture of the aorta. B) myocardial contusion. C) ventricular fibrillation. D) shearing of the vena cava.

C) ventricular fibrillation. Commotio cordis is a blunt chest injury caused by a sudden, direct blow to the chest (over the heart) during a critical phase of the person's heartbeat. This can cause immediate cardiac arrest from ventricular fibrillation, which can often be corrected with early defibrillation. Commotio cordis occurs most commonly during sports-related injuries, and has been reported after patients were struck with baseballs, softballs, bats, snowballs, fists, or kicks during kickboxing. The EMT should suspect commotio cordis if a patient presents with cardiac arrest following a sudden, direct blow to the chest. Myocardial contusion can also occur following blunt chest trauma; however, cardiac arrest with this type of injury is uncommon. Great vessel injury (ie, aortic rupture, shearing of the vena cavae) occurs more commonly following rapid deceleration, such as when the chest strikes the steering wheel during a high speed collision or when the patient falls from a significant height.

In which of the following circumstances would external bleeding be the LEAST difficult to control? A) Lacerated brachial artery; BP of 140/90 mm Hg B) Lacerated jugular vein; BP of 100/60 mm Hg C) Lacerated carotid artery; BP of 90/50 mm Hg D) Lacerated femoral vein; BP of 70/40 mm Hg

D) Lacerated femoral vein; BP of 70/40 mm Hg It is generally less difficult to control external bleeding from a lacerated vein rather than an artery. Unlike arteries, veins are under low pressure. Furthermore, the presence of a low blood pressure (hypotension), which causes less pressure against the vascular wall, would make external bleeding that much easier to control. Remember, if direct pressure does not immediately control severe external bleeding from an extremity, apply a proximal tourniquet.

In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control? A) Scalp laceration, BP of 130/70 mm Hg B) Jugular vein laceration, BP of 104/60 mm Hg C) Carotid artery laceration, BP of 70/50 mm Hg D) Femoral artery laceration, BP of 140/90 mm Hg

D) Femoral artery laceration, BP of 140/90 mm Hg In general, the larger the size and type (eg, artery versus vein) of blood vessel injured, and the higher the patient's blood pressure, the more difficult the external bleeding will be to control. Of the choices listed, bleeding from a lacerated femoral artery (large, high-pressure vessel) in a patient with a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (the highest BP listed) would be the most difficult to control. As a patient's blood pressure begins to fall, the driving force of blood in the arteries decreases and the bleeding becomes easier to control. Unfortunately, the patient is usually in decompensated shock at this point. The scalp contains many small blood vessels and tends to bleed heavily; however, direct pressure usually controls the bleeding with relative ease, regardless of the patient's blood pressure.

An elderly woman complains of pain to her right groin area after she fell. Her right leg is shortened and externally rotated. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way of stabilizing her injury? A) Bind her legs together and position her on her left side B) Apply a long board splint and secure her to the stretcher C) Apply a traction splint and secure her to a long backboard D) Place her on a scoop stretcher and pad her hip with pillows

D) Place her on a scoop stretcher and pad her hip with pillows The patient likely has a proximal femur fracture, as evidenced by the pain in her groin area and the shortened and externally rotated leg. Of the options listed, the most practical and comfortable for the patient would be to place her onto a scoop stretcher and pad her hip area with pillows. Binding her legs together would more of an effective splint that a long board splint. Keep her supine; placing her onto her side would likely increase her pain. Traction splints are used on patients with mid-shaft femur fractures; they should generally be avoided in patients with proximal or distal femur fractures. The long backboard is perhaps the most uncomfortable device to place a human being on, especially an older patient!

Which of the following is an example of a primary blast injury? A) Depressed skull fracture B) Spinal injury with paralysis C) Stick impaled in the abdomen D) Ruptured tympanic membrane

D) Ruptured tympanic membrane Primary blast injuries are a direct result of the pressure wave that occurs during an explosion. Hollow organs are the most susceptible to the primary blast wave, and ruptured tympanic membranes (eardrums) are a common injury. Secondary blast injuries occur when shrapnel and other debris are propelled away from the explosion; impalement injuries occur during this phase. Blunt traumatic injuries (ie, skull fracture, spinal injury) occur during the tertiary blast phase, when the person is propelled away from the explosion and strikes a solid object.

A 33-year-old man struck a parked car with his motorcycle and was thrown from the motorcycle. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive and has a depressed area to his forehead, bilaterally deformed femurs, and widespread abrasions with capillary bleeding. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is false? A) You should suspect that the patient has a skull fracture and increased intracranial pressure. B) Femur fractures are a common injury when a rider is thrown from his or her motorcycle. C) Internal hemorrhage cannot be controlled in the field and requires prompt surgical intervention. D) You must stop the bleeding from his abrasions immediately or the patient will die from hypovolemic shock.

D) You must stop the bleeding from his abrasions immediately or the patient will die from hypovolemic shock. The patient's abrasions (road rash) and capillary bleeding are the least of his problems. Capillary bleeding, blood that oozes from the capillary beds, is the least severe type of external bleeding and will not kill your patient. Wasting time at the scene to cover his abrasions, however, will delay definitive care at a trauma center; this may kill him! The patient likely has a depressed skull fracture, and the fact that he is unresponsive indicates a traumatic brain injury with increased intracranial pressure. When a rider is thrown from his or her motorcycle, the femurs typically strike the handlebars, resulting in unilateral or bilateral fractures. You cannot control internal hemorrhage in the field, regardless of your level of training. Internal bleeding requires surgical intervention; therefore, you must transport the patient without delay.

Firefighters have rescued a man from his burning house. He is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant respiratory distress. He has a brassy cough and singed nasal hairs. The MOST immediate threat to this patient's life is: A) hypothermia. B) severe burns. C) severe infection. D) airway swelling.

D) airway swelling. Because of the patient's signs and symptoms, your most immediate concern should be the potential for swelling and closure of the upper airway; be prepared to assist the patient's ventilations. Signs of upper airway burns include respiratory distress, singed facial and/or nasal hairs, a brassy cough, difficulty breathing, and coughing up sooty sputum. Infection, the burns themselves, and hypothermia should concern you; however, airway problems pose the most immediate life threat.

Despite direct pressure, a large laceration continues to spurt large amounts of bright red blood. You should: A) elevate the extremity and apply a tight pressure dressing. B) apply pressure to the pulse point that is proximal to the injury. C) place additional dressings on the wound until the bleeding stops. D) apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury until the bleeding stops.

D) apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury until the bleeding stops. You must control any and all external bleeding as soon as possible. In the case of arterial bleeding (ie, bright red blood is spurting from the wound), the patient will bleed to death if immediate action is not taken. In most cases, direct pressure will effectively control external bleeding. However, if the wound continues to bleed profusely despite direct pressure, you should apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury and tighten it until the bleeding stops. Packing additional dressings on a severe external hemorrhage will simply cause the patient to continue to bleed externally into the dressings. Locating and applying adequate pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point is often difficult and time-consuming.

A woman has a painful, deformed humerus after she fell. The injured arm is cool and pale, and a radial pulse cannot be palpated. The EMT should: A) allow her to stabilize the arm on her own and transport. B) splint the arm in the position found and transport at once. C) realign the arm to its normal anatomic position and splint it. D) apply gentle traction in order to reestablish distal circulation.

D) apply gentle traction in order to reestablish distal circulation. When treating an orthopaedic injury in which distal circulation is compromised, you should apply gentle traction in an effort to restore distal circulation. Bear in mind, however, that this practice does NOT apply to injuries involving joints. Once distal circulation is restored, splint the injury appropriately and transport. If you are unable to restore distal circulation, contact medical control; depending on your transport time, he or she may request you to make another effort to restore distal circulation. Fractures, with or without distal circulation, should be splinted in the most comfortable position for the patient; attempting to realign a fractured extremity to its normal anatomic position would cause the patient unnecessary pain.

A man has a large laceration to his right calf after the chainsaw he was using slipped. The wound extends down to the muscle and dark red blood is flowing heavily from the wound. The EMT should: A) apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. B) position the patient supine and elevate his leg 12 inches. C) check distal circulation and then splint the entire extremity. D) apply manual pressure to the wound with a sterile dressing.

D) apply manual pressure to the wound with a sterile dressing. Immediate treatment for external hemorrhage involves applying direct pressure to the wound. In many cases, this will be all that is required. However, if the wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure, a proximal tourniquet should be applied. The patient with hemorrhage and shock should be positioned supine; do not elevate his or her legs. If direct pressure alone controls the bleeding, it would not be unreasonable to splint the affected extremity; doing so minimizes movement of the extremity and may further assist in bleeding control by facilitating hemostasis.

A patient with a spinal injury may still be able to use his or her diaphragm to breathe, but would lose control of the intercostal muscles, if the spinal cord is injured: A) above the C3 level. B) between C1 and C2. C) above the C5 level. D) below the C5 level.

D) below the C5 level. The nerves that supply the diaphragm (the phrenic nerves) exit the spinal cord at C3, C4, and C5. A patient whose spinal cord is injured below the C5 level will lose the ability to move his or her intercostal muscles (the muscles in between the ribs), but the diaphragm will still function. The patient may still be able to breathe because the phrenic nerves remain intact. Patients with spinal cord injuries at C3 or above often lose their ability to breathe entirely. Remember this: C3, 4, and 5 keep the diaphragm alive.

A man was cut on the left side of the neck and is bleeding heavily from the wound. His airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. You should immediately: A) apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. B) apply a tight pressure dressing and secure it in place with tape. C) perform a head-to-toe assessment to find and treat other injuries. D) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and apply direct pressure.

D) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and apply direct pressure. Neck lacerations are extremely dangerous and can result in severe bleeding and shock, air embolism, or both. If a jugular vein is lacerated, air can be sucked into the wound, enter the circulatory system, and cause a pulmonary embolism. You should immediately apply an occlusive dressing to the wound (prevents entrainment of air), place a bulky dressing over the occlusive dressing, and apply direct pressure. Your patient has a patent airway and is breathing adequately; although high-flow oxygen is important and should be given as soon as possible, it does not take priority over control of life-threatening external hemorrhage. After treating all airway, breathing, and circulation problems, perform a head-to-toe assessment (if indicated) and prepare for rapid transport.

Damaged small blood vessels beneath the skin following blunt trauma cause: A) mottling. B) cyanosis. C) hematoma. D) ecchymosis.

D) ecchymosis. When small blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged, blood seeps into the soft tissues. This manifests as a bruise, also referred to as ecchymosis. A hematoma develops when larger blood vessels are ruptured and the internal bleeding forms a noticeable lump. Cyanosis is a blue or purple discoloration of the skin and signifies a low content of oxygen in the blood. Mottling occurs when the skin takes on a blotched, purple appearance and is a sign of shock (hypoperfusion).

Emergency care for a 68-year-old man with partial- and full-thickness burns to his chest and upper extremities includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) preparing to assist the patient's ventilations. B) covering the burns with dry, sterile dressings. C) avoiding the use of burn ointments or antiseptics. D) flushing the burns with cool water for 10 minutes.

D) flushing the burns with cool water for 10 minutes. Unless the patient is on fire, do not apply water to a full-thickness (third-degree) burn, especially if the patient is already prone to hypothermia and infection (ie, older adults, small children). Cover the burns with dry, sterile dressings or a sterile burn sheet. The use of burn creams, ointments, or antiseptics should be avoided; these increase the risk of infection and will only need to be removed at the hospital. Apply high-flow oxygen, treat any associated injuries, and rapidly transport the patient. If the patient is breathing inadequately (eg, fast or slow rate, shallow breathing [reduced tidal volume]), assist ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A man was struck in the side of the head with a steel pipe. Blood-tinged fluid is draining from the ear and bruising appears behind the ear. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A) elevating the lower extremities and providing immediate transport. B) applying high-flow oxygen and packing the ear with sterile gauze pads. C) controlling the drainage from the ear and immobilizing the entire spine. D) immobilizing the spine, administering oxygen, and monitoring for vomiting.

D) immobilizing the spine, administering oxygen, and monitoring for vomiting. Patients with significant head injury should be treated by applying high-flow oxygen, assisting ventilations as needed, immobilizing the entire spine, and transporting promptly. Closely monitor the patient for vomiting and be prepared to suction the airway. Elevation of the foot of the spine board may cause more blood to engorge the brain and may increase intracranial pressure (ICP). If possible, you should elevate the patient's torso to 30 degrees in an attempt to lower ICP. You should never attempt to control bleeding or fluid drainage from the ears of a patient with a head injury because this, too, may result in increased ICP. If a patient with an isolated head injury begins showing signs of shock (ie, tachycardia, diaphoresis, tachypnea, hypotension), you should assume that he or she has internal bleeding from another injury and treat accordingly (ie, keep the patient warm and supine).

A patient with multiple injuries presents with pallor, diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/min, and a BP of 112/64 mm Hg. The EMT should recognize that these signs are the result of: A) the shunting of blood to the periphery of the body. B) increased parasympathetic nervous system activity. C) nervous system failure and decompensated shock. D) increased epinephrine and norepinephrine release.

D) increased epinephrine and norepinephrine release. The patient's signs and symptoms are consistent with compensated shock. Decompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms have failed and the patient becomes hypotensive. The body responds to inadequate perfusion in a number of ways, including increasing the respiratory rate and releasing catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine). Catecholamine release causes profuse sweating (diaphoresis), increased heart rate, and central and peripheral vasoconstriction. Because the peripheral blood vessels are constricted as blood is shunted away from the periphery, the skin becomes pale. The net effect of vasoconstriction is to increase blood pressure and maintain perfusion. Increased parasympathetic nervous system activity would cause bradycardia, not tachycardia.

A man's legs were pinned by a steel girder for 5 hours before he was found. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs but cannot feel his legs. The EMT should anticipate that: A) a surgeon will respond to the scene and amputate the man's legs. B) he will be heavily sedated by paramedics to prevent further pain. C) he will be immediately freed and rapidly transported to the hospital. D) aavenous fluids and certain drugs may be given before he is freed.

D) intravenous fluids and certain drugs may be given before he is freed. Crush syndrome occurs when a part of the body is pinned by a heavy object for more than 4 to 6 hours, although it can occur earlier. Since circulation distal to the crushed part of the body is minimal or absent, chemicals such as potassium and lactic acid can accumulate to dangerous levels. If the body part(s) is/are suddenly freed, these chemicals can be released into the bloodstream, potentially causing a fatal cardiac dysrhythmia. For this reason, the patient may need intravenous fluids and certain medications before being freed in order to prepare the body for the onslaught of these chemicals. In some cases, especially if the patient is hemodynamically unstable, a surgeon may respond to the scene to perform an emergency amputation. However, in this case, the patient is stable. It would not be advisable to heavily sedate the patient while he is still entrapped as this may cause airway compromise. Sedation may be indicated, however, after the patient has been freed.

A young man has a large laceration to his lateral neck, directly over his jugular vein. His airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. Your MOST immediate priority should be to: A) apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B) perform a rapid assessment to detect other injuries. C) obtain vital signs to determine if he is hypotensive. D) keep air out of the wound and control the bleeding.

D) keep air out of the wound and control the bleeding. Jugular vein lacerations pose two immediate life threats: entrainment of air into the wound (which may cause a fatal air embolism) and severe external bleeding. The patient's airway is patent and his breathing is adequate; therefore, your most immediate priority is to apply an occlusive dressing directly over the wound, which will keep air from entering the venous circulation, and then cover the occlusive dressing with bulky dressings to control the external bleeding. Apply oxygen if it is clinically indicated (ie, low SpO2). The need to perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment is based on the presence of a significant mechanism of injury (MOI). If a significant MOI is present, the rapid assessment is performed only after problems with the airway, breathing, and circulation have been addressed. Vital signs are typically obtained after the rapid assessment, although they can be obtained by another EMT as you perform the rapid assessment.

A 22-year-old woman fell on her knee and is in severe pain. Her knee is flexed and severely deformed. Her leg is cold to the touch and you are unable to palpate a distal pulse. You should: A) apply gentle longitudinal traction as you straighten her leg and then apply a traction splint. B) place a pillow behind her knee and stabilize the injury by applying padded board splints. C) carefully straighten her leg until you restore a distal pulse and then apply padded board splints. D) manually stabilize her injury and contact medical control for further stabilization instructions.

D) manually stabilize her injury and contact medical control for further stabilization instructions. A dislocated knee occurs when the proximal end of the tibia completely displaces from its juncture with the distal femur. In some cases, the popliteal artery behind the knee may be compressed, resulting in compromised distal blood flow. Signs of this include absent distal pulses and a pale extremity that is cool or cold. Manually stabilize the knee and assess for distal pulses. If distal pulses are absent, contact medical control immediately for further stabilization instructions. Medical control may instruct you to make ONE attempt to realign the knee to reduce compression of the popliteal artery and restore distal circulation. If you are unable to restore distal circulation or medical control advises you not to manipulate the injury, splint the knee in the position it was found and transport promptly. Traction splints are contraindicated in any injury to or near the knee.

A young man has multiple injuries after he fell approximately 35 feet. He is semiconscious and has an unstable chest wall, numerous long bone fractures, and a large hematoma to his head. He will have the BEST chance for survival if you: A) request an ALS ambulance. B) give him high-flow oxygen early. C) keep him warm and elevate his legs. D) rapidly transport him to a trauma center.

D) rapidly transport him to a trauma center. When caring for a patient with major trauma, rapid transport to a trauma center is essential and will afford the patient the best chance for survival. This is especially true if the patient has trauma to multiple body systems. Definitive care cannot be provided in the field; this requires resources and personnel at the hospital. Oxygen administration and shock treatment (eg, applying warm blankets, keeping the patient supine) may help delay patient deterioration, thus buying some time; although these measures are important, they are not definitive interventions. In certain situations, it would be prudent to request ALS personnel at the scene (eg, lengthy extrication, unavoidable scene delay); however, in the absence of such extenuating circumstances, it is clearly more important to transport without delay. En route to the trauma center, consider an ALS intercept if it is possible and does not delay transport.

Displaced fractures of the proximal femur are characterized by: A) lengthening and internal rotation of the leg. B) a flexed hip joint and inward thigh rotation. C) hip joint extension and external leg rotation. D) shortening and external rotation of the leg.

D) shortening and external rotation of the leg. Fractures of the proximal (upper) part of the femur are especially common in older people, particularly those with osteoporosis, but may also occur as a result of high-energy trauma in younger patients. Although they are usually called hip fractures, they rarely involve the hip joint. Instead, the break goes through the neck of the femur, the middle region, or across the proximal shaft. Patients with displaced fractures of the proximal femur display a very characteristic deformity. They lie with the leg externally rotated, and the injured leg is usually shorter than the uninjured leg. If the fracture is not displaced, this deformity is not present. A flexed hip joint and internal rotation of the thigh are characteristic of a posterior hip dislocation. With the less common anterior hip dislocation, the limb is in the opposite position, extended straight out, externally rotated, and pointing away from the midline of the body.