Try again cards

hich of the following is not an anticipated finding when evaluating a urine sample after performing a cystocentesis? Erythrocytes 5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field Struvite crystals Calcium oxalate crystals

5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field

Which organ is responsible for producing cortisol? Pancreas Kidney Adrenal gland Liver Posterior pituitary

Adrenal gland

Which of the following statements regarding canine aggression is false? A: Dogs may have more than one type of aggression B: Aggression cannot be curbed by performing surgeries C: Obedience training and puppy classes may help owners recognize early signs D: Avoiding the opportunity for the dog to express its aggression, regardless of cause, should be the first step

Aggression cannot be curbed by performing surgeries

The veterinarian diagnoses a tension pneumothorax in a dog that was hit by a car. What does this mean? A broken rib is protruding from a chest wound Air is building up in the pleural space and can't escape The airway is obstructed Air is building up inside the lungs and causing pressure in the chest

Air is building up in the pleural space and can't escape

Which of the following disinfectants has sporicidal activity? A: Aldehydes B: Alcohols C: Phenols D: Seventh-generation quats

Aldehydes

What is the term given to the end of the spinal cord? Cordus altus Spinous terminata Cauda equina Corte finale

Cauda equina

Which is a feature of the capillary technique in a fine needle biopsy? A: Requires 22- to 25-gauge needle attached to a 3- to 12-mL syringe with plunger B: Cells are forced into the hub of the needle from the pressure of the puncture C: Negative syringe pressure pulls cells into the hub of the needle D: All of the above

Cells are forced into the hub of the needle from the pressure of the puncture

Endoscopy can be a beneficial diagnostic tool for which of the following conditions? Chronic vomiting Pancreatitis Nephrolithiasis Coughing Portosystemic shunt

Chronic vomiting

Skipped A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following? Pericardial effusion Chylothorax Hemoabdomen Pyothorax

Chylothorax

Which of the following is an appropriate anticoagulant for collection of blood from a donor horse for the purposes of blood transfusion to a recipient horse? Heparin Citrate phosphate dexamethasone Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA) EDTA Sodium fluoride

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA)

What is the single most important thing to do when removing a stomach tube from a patient? Twist the tube as you are pulling it out Advance the tube 3cm infuse 10ml of air and then remove Flush the tube with 5-10 ml of water Clamp or pinch off stomach tube prior to removing

Clamp or pinch off stomach tube prior to removing

Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type I hypersensitivity where chemical mediators are released from mast cells after encountering an antigen? Atopy Glomerulonephritis Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Poison ivy allergy

Atopy

A feline patient presents with an emergency urethral obstruction with arrhythmias and hyperkalemia; what is the treatment of choice? A: Lidocaine B: Insulin/dextrose C: Calcium gluconate D: Sodium bicarbonate

Calcium gluconate

What is the name of the portion of the stomach that attaches to the esophagus? Pylorus Cardia Duodenal papilla Hypopharynx

Cardia

Which trace mineral is an essential part of vitamin B12?

Cobalt

What is the antidote for organophosphate toxicity? A: Ethanol B: Vitamin K1 C: Methylpyrazole D: 2-PAM (pralidoxime)

D: 2-PAM (pralidoxime)

The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT? Semimembranosus Epaxial muscles Pectorals Muscles of the neck Semitendinosus

Epaxial muscles

Which is a core equine vaccination? A: Equine encephalomyelitis B: Neorickettsia risticii C: Rhinopneumonitis D: Botulism

Equine encephalomyelitis

Incorrect Ovulation occurs during which part of the estrous cycle? Estrus Diestrus Anestrus Proestrus

Estrus

What does the abbreviation q.i.d. on a medication label mean? A: Give the medication every 4 hours B: Give the medication 4 times a day C: Give the medication 2 times a day D: Give medication as desired

Give the medication 4 times a day

The surgeon asks you to please get him some gelatin foam. What will he use this for? He will use it as an analgesic He will use it to test for the presence of bacteria He will use it to preserve the biopsy specimen He will use it to stop bleeding

He will use it to stop bleeding

A 2-year old Dalmatian presents after being hit by a car. Anisocoria is noted during the initial physical examination. What type of trauma would be suspected? Head trauma Splenic torsion Orthopedic injury Pneumothorax Ruptured bladder

Head trauma

What heart valve is responsible for separating blood between the left atrium and left ventricle? Tricuspid valve Aortic valve Pulmonary valve Mitral valve

Mitral valve

What is the usual vector of western equine encephalitis? Soft ticks Biting flies Lice Mosquito

Mosquito

The small intestine is made up of four layers. Which of the following describes these layers from inside to outside? Serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa Serosa, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis Muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, serosa

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

Incorrect You are helping the neurologist with a Tensilon test in a dog. Tensilon is the trade name for edrophonium chloride. By administering this drug, you are testing for which disease? Hydrocephalus Myasthenia gravis Diskospondylitis Old dog vestibular disease Meningitis

Myasthenia gravis

You are asked to place a nasal oxygen tube in a dog. What is the measurement for placement of nasal oxygen? Measure to the medial canthus of the eye Measure to the top of the head The catheter should be placed 0.5 inches into the nostril Your Answer Advance the tube until the dog coughs and then pull back slightly

Measure to the medial canthus of the eye

Which best describes the antimicrobial actions of peracetic acid? A: Denatures protein, disrupting cell membranes and dissolving lipids of microbes B: Impairs protein synthesis and alters cell membranes of microbes C: Releases oxygen in response to cellular debris to kill anaerobes D: Inhibits cell membranes

Releases oxygen in response to cellular debris to kill anaerobes

Of the following options, oral ulceration is most common in patients with which condition? Renal failure Liver failure Diabetes Pancreatitis

Renal failure

Phenylbutazone (bute) is often used for pain relief in horses. What side effect has been associated with this drug? Esophageal stricture Colonic impaction Right dorsal colitis Laminitis

Right dorsal colitis

Which of the following cells would most likely have the largest number of mitochondria? A: Osteocytes B: Adipocytes C: Smooth muscle cells D: Skeletal muscle cells

Skeletal muscle cells

Potomac horse fever is transmitted by which of the following? A: Mosquitoes B: Horse flies C: Deer flies D: Snails

Snails

Ketones in the urine may be caused by unregulated diabetes (diabetic ketoacidosis). What is another potential cause of ketonuria? Increased exercise Renal failure Muscle tremoring Starvation

Starvation

What is a ranula? Anal gland infection Sludge accumulation in the gallbladder Sublingual mucocele Cyst on the eyelid

Sublingual mucocele

Which stain is used to look for lipids or fats and is helpful in looking for intestinal malabsorption? Sudan stain Sulphur dye Sedi-stain Silver stain Hematoxylin and eosin stain

Sudan stain

Incorrect In the horse, the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure? Suprascapular nerve Radial nerve Brachial plexus Your Answer First cervical vertebrae

Suprascapular nerve

A veterinarian is assessing total liver function in a dehydrated cow. What blood content is measured using total dye binding in an automated serum analyzer? A: TS/TP B: Bilirubin C: Urobilinogen D: Globulin fractions

TS/TP

How many thoracic vertebrae do horses have? 12 9 18 13

18

What is normal rumen motility in a camelid? A: 2 to 4 contractions per minute B: 3 to 5 contractions per minute C: 5 to 7 contractions per minute D: 7 to 9 contractions per minute

2 to 4 contractions per minute

How long should an accelerated hydrogen peroxide be applied to a surface before it has sanitized the surface? A: 30 seconds B: 60 seconds C: 2 minutes D: 5 minutes

30 seconds

How long does estrus in the dog typically last? 14-28 days 1-3 days 4-13 days 6 months

4-13 days

Incorrect A dog has recently obtained a fresh superficial linear wound after lacerating its flank on a fence. Within what time period can this wound be optimally repaired by primary closure? 8 hours 12-24 hours 2 hours 3-5 days

8 hours

What percentage of dogs and cats over the age of 2 years are estimated to have had some form of periodontal disease? A: 50% B: 65% C: 75% D: 85%

85%

A bacterium that grows only on the TSA/blood agar plate is which of the following? A: A gram-positive organism B: A gram-negative organism C: A fastidious organism D: Micrococci

A fastidious organism

Which best describes antigenic drift? A: A virus mutates so that preexisting antibodies can no longer bind and become useless B: Vaccines may not be effective when administered to certain populations of animals, such as animals that are incubating disease C: A young animal that is immunologically compromised may succumb to illness from a live vaccine or may not develop immunity to killed or other vaccines D: There is no way of knowing what the animal's immune status is unless an antibody titer test is done

A virus mutates so that preexisting antibodies can no longer bind and become useless

A Dalmation presents with difficulty urinating. Bladder stones are confirmed with the ultrasound and a cystotomy is performed. Which crystal is commonly observed in the Dalmatian and not expected to be seen in other dog breeds? Struvite Calcium oxalate Ammonium biurate Silicate

Ammonium biurate

Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type I hypersensitivity where chemical mediators are released from mast cells after encountering an antigen? Atopy Poison ivy allergy Your Answer Glomerulonephritis Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Explanation There are 4 types of hypersensitivity:

Atopy Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).

Which type of shampoo is best for deep pyodermas?

Benzoyl peroxide 2.5%

Blood lactate is a marker of what? Amount of tissue carbon dioxide production Blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues Activity of the liver Activity of muscle

Blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues

A 12-year-old female cat presents with increased levels of PLI. What percentage of sensitivity for pancreatitis does this indicate? A: 50% B: 60% C: 80% D: 100%

C: 80%

Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches? CN I CN V CN XI CN XII

CN V

An injury to what region of the brain is most likely to result in respiratory arrest? Cerebellum Cerebrum Diencephalon Brain stem

Brain stem

Incorrect What part of the brain controls heartbeat, respiration, and blood pressure? Cerebral cortex Hypothalamus Cerebellum Brain stem

Brain stem

An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type? Greenstick Comminuted Compound Spiral

Compound

When viewing a slide on a microscope, the objects themselves are in focus but there appear to be haloes or fuzzy rings around the objects you are viewing that you cannot eliminate using the focus knobs. Which of the following is probably not adjusted correctly? Iris diaphragm Rheostat Course focus Fine focus Condenser

Condenser

The retina is innervated by which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve IV Cranial Nerve I Cranial Nerve II Cranial Nerve VI Cranial Nerve III

Cranial Nerve II

You are examining a blind dog and want to know if the dog has a sense of smell. You wave a treat in front of the dog's nose, and he smells it right away. Which nerve were you testing? Cranial nerve I (one) Cranial nerve X (ten) Cranial nerve V (five) Cranial nerve II (two)

Cranial nerve I (one)

Incorrect Where is the hypothalamus is located? Mediastinum Brain stem Diencephalon Mid-brain .

Diencephalon Explanation The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland. The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain adjoining the brain and spinal cord. Most of the cranial nerves originate in the brain stem. The brain stem includes the medulla oblongata, pons, and the midbrain. The thymus is located in the mediastinum. The mesencephalon is the mid-brain (part of the brain stem)

Which fatty acid is recommended as an additional nutritional supplement to help in brain, vision, and central nervous system development in the womb? A: Linoleic acid B: Linolenic acid C: Arachidonic acid D: Docosahexaenoic acid

Docosahexaenoic acid

When drawing blood for a fructosamine level in a canine, how many hours do you have to wait after insulin is given to draw the blood? 12 hours Doesn't matter 8 hours 1 hour 6 hours Your Answer

Doesn't matter

Incorrect A tibial fracture needs to be repaired. The surgeon is intending to place a bone plate on the medial aspect of the tibia. How should the patient be positioned and prepped? Lateral recumbency with affected side up Dorsal recumbency with leg tied to the table Lateral recumbency with affected side down Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped

Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped

Skipped In a fetus, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure? Ductus venosus Ductus arteriosus Foramen ovale Foramen magnum

Ductus arteriosus

The most common method of identification of pigs is what? Lip tattoo Freeze branding Ear tags Ear notching

Ear notching

Which of the following should be done with a dog after a myelogram to decrease the risk of procedure-related complications? Place a chest tube Elevate the head Stabilize the neck Administer a bolus of crystalloid IV fluids

Elevate the head

A horse being monitored during surgery exhibits very pale pink mucous membranes. Which does this most likely suggest? A: Jaundice and liver problems B: Fever, blood loss, or anemia C: Healthy, normal circulation D: Toxicity or mild shock

Fever, blood loss, or anemia

Incorrect During which of the following periods is a human embryo or fetus most sensitive to adverse effects from radiation? Third trimester The is no difference in the risk based on the stage of pregnancy Second trimester First trimester

First trimester

You are working in the ICU; a dog on a high rate of fluids has a very sudden drop in urine production in his urine collection bag. What do you do first? Run a BUN and creatinine to check kidney function Flush the urinary catheter with sterile saline Immediately notify the veterinarian on call immediately Your Answer Perform a urine sediment examination

Flush the urinary catheter with sterile saline

What clinical signs are associated with infection with Clostridium tetani in the horse? Increased gastrointestinal motility characterized by increased passage of loose stool Increased anxiousness and sweating as a result of tachycardia and increased circulating epinephrine Hypersensitivity to sound and touch characterized by signs such as muscle spasms (stiff gait) and protrusion of the third eyelid Generalized muscle paresis characterized by signs of generalized weakness and difficulty breathing

Hypersensitivity to sound and touch characterized by signs such as muscle spasms (stiff gait) and protrusion of the third eyelid

What is meant by a "left shift" when describing a complete blood count? Increased total number of white blood cells Increased numbers of lymphoblasts in the blood Increased numbers of immature neutrophils in the blood Decreased numbers of reticulocytes in the blood Decreased numbers of neutrophils in the blood

Increased numbers of immature neutrophils in the blood

Which route is least likely to transmit hookworm disease to humans? A: Inhalation B: Fecal-oral route C: Poor sanitation and hygiene D: Walking barefoot where animals have defecated

Inhalation

An owner has fed her diabetic cat and has given the insulin injection. She calls the clinic because there is a wet spot on the fur where she gave the injection and she doesn't think it went in. What will you advise her to do? Not re-dose the insulin, just give the next scheduled dose as directed Repeat the insulin injection since the cat ate Give Karo syrup orally and monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia Your Answer Give another 1/2 dose of insulin

Not re-dose the insulin, just give the next scheduled dose as directed

Which description best fits the nature of a virus? A: Smallest form of life B: Classified as cellular C: Obligate intracellular parasites D: Always very difficult to disinfect

Obligate intracellular parasites

Which of the following structures in the body is most sensitive to radiation? Thyroid gland Cerebral neurons Bones of the hand Ocular lens

Ocular lens

Correct Contagious ecthyma is a disease that causes painful oral ulcerations, pustules, and scabs. It is most often seen in sheep and goats, and is more commonly known as: Orf Foot-and-Mouth disease Oral Thrush Blue Tongue

Orf

pairing identifies (a) the structure containing receptors for hearing and (b) where that structure is found? A: Stapes/cochlea B: Cochlea/middle ear C: Organ of Corti/inner ear D: Organ of Corti/middle ear

Organ of Corti/inner ear

Which best describes the cause of the genetically based condition known as type 1 atopy? A: Patient does not possess IgE antibody B: Patient produces an excess of IgE antibody C: Patient has an overreactive immune system D: Patient is deficient in cell-mediated immunity.

Patient produces an excess of IgE antibody

Which prefix means around, near, or about? A: Peri- B: Para- C: Per- D: Pan-

Peri-

Incorrect The pinpoint red marks on this patient's gums can be described as: Papillomas Ecchymosis Erythema Petechia

Petechia

Which adult animal is most difficult to intubate? A: Cow B: Bull C: Goat D: Pig

Pig

Correct Yersinia pestis is the causative agent for which zoonotic disease? Plague Cat scratch fever Q fever Parrot fever

Plague Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of plague. Plague is usually transmitted by the bites of infected fleas. Yersinia pestis is a gram-negative bacterium and has a bipolar safety-pin appearance. Definitive diagnosis is based on culture. However, before collecting any samples, the state vet or CDC should be contacted.

A surgeon is asking for any non-absorbable suture to close a skin defect. Which of the following sutures would NOT be appropriate for you to give the surgeon? Silk Polydioxanone Polypropylene Nylon

Polydioxanone

How does a systemic antacid such as cimetidine act on the stomach? A: Prevents the production of hydrochloric acid B: Treats defects in the stomach lining C: Protects the stomach lining D: Neutralizes stomach acid

Prevents the production of hydrochloric acid

Incorrect What is the proper term for when the globe (eye) comes out of the orbit due to trauma? Mydriasis Proptosis Miosis Buphthalmos

Proptosis

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease? White muscle disease Psittacosis Pacheco's disease Coccidioides

Psittacosis

Incorrect Oxygenated blood returning from the lungs travels in which blood vessel? Aorta Vena cava Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein

Pulmonary vein

Coxiella burnetti is the cause of what zoonotic disease in humans? Cat scratch fever Plague Undulant fever Q fever

Q fever

What is the name for the muscle group that includes the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius? Triceps Hamstrings Gluteals Quadricep

Quadricep

A dog presents with scabies. You are instructed to give the dog a lime-sulfur medicated dip. Which of the following must you do? Quarantine the dog for 48 hours before the first dip Lubricate the dog's eyes with protective ointment Place a towel or E-collar around the dog's neck to help prevent any solution from contacting the dog's face Deep condition the dog 15 minutes after the dip has been applied Explanation Dips can cause serious irritation and even damage eye tissue; protective ointment is mandatory.

Quarantine the dog for 48 hours before the first dip Lubricate the dog's eyes with protective ointment

In which disorder does the affected animal demonstrate hyperesthesia? A: Rabies B: Anthrax C: Tularemia D: Capnocytophaga canimorsus

Rabies

You are taking thoracic radiographs to evaluate for lung metastasis in a dog with splenic hemangiosarcoma. What radiographic views should be taken? Right lateral, left lateral, and either a dorsoventral or ventrodorsal projection A right lateral and a ventrodorsal projection r Dorsoventral, ventrodorsal, and either a right lateral or left lateral projection Either a dorsoventral or a ventrodorsal projection AND either a right lateral or left lateral A left lateral and a dorsoventral projection

Right lateral, left lateral, and either a dorsoventral or ventrodorsal projection

Incorrect You are reading a cardiologist report discussing tricuspid valve insufficiency and grade 3 murmur. The mitral valve is said to be normal. If you listened to this patient, where would you expect to hear the murmur the loudest? Sternal Left side cranial portion of the chest Right side Left side caudal portion of the chest

Right side

Which of the following conditions in rats results from living in an area with the humidity too low? Red tears Chronic Respiratory Disease Ringtail Mycoplasma

Ringtail

The correct order of the ruminant digestive system in regards to the chambers of their stomach is: Rumen, reticulum, abomasum, omasum Abomasum, omasum, rumen, reticulum Reticulum, rumen, omasum, abomasum Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum.

Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum.

Which test checks for keratoconjunctivitis sicca? Tonometry Fluoroscein stain Nasolacrimal flush Schirmer Tear Test

Schirmer Tear Test

Skipped A fracture has just been repaired with a 3.5 mm screws. What is the 3.5 mm in reference to? Thread type Pitch Screw diameter Screw length

Screw diameter

A 4-month-old Angus calf in a beef herd in Northern California has died. Symptoms before death included lethargy and coughing. You assist with a necropsy and find pale areas in the cardiac muscles (see image). The veterinarian diagnoses white muscle disease. He asks you to assist with collecting blood samples from the herd to test for what deficiency? Potassium Selenium Vitamin A Copper

Selenium

What is the metallic element present on radiograph film that turns black when exposed and run through the radiograph development process? Lead Magnesium Silver Gold Zinc Tungsten

Silver

What maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells? Neurons Chloride anions Calcium channel pump The sodium-potassium pump

The sodium-potassium pump

Which is true regarding umbilical hernias? They usually progress until a loop of bowel is strangulated through the defect and should be repaired as an emergency procedure They usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life-threatening They should not be repaired at the same time as a spay or neuter procedure The best treatment for all umbilical hernias is benign neglect

They usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life-threatening

Why are oblique radiographic views of certain joints typically obtained? To change the position of air or fluid in or around the joint To prevent foreshortening or elongation artifacts To decrease the amount of scatter that is causing distortion on the film To decrease superimposition of structures

To decrease superimposition of structures

Which represents the breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in repair in an abnormal arrangement? A: Deletion B: Anomalies C: Duplication D: Translocation

Translocation

Which disorder manifests with circular, crusty lesions? A: Afipia felis B: Trichophyton spp C: Bartonella henselae D: Herpesvirus simiae

Trichophyton spp

For taking a diagnostic radiograph, which of the following techniques will reduce the amount of scatter radiation that reaches a film? Use of high-speed film Use of a grid with a Potter-Bucky diaphragm Decreasing exposure time Use of an intensifying screen Moving the cassette closer to the surface of the patien

Use of a grid with a Potter-Bucky diaphragm

Which of the following is NOT considered good surgical instrument care? Using an ultrasonic cleaner Using a brush to scrub the instruments Using tap water Using cleaning agents at a pH of approximately 10

Using tap water

dog presenting with a head tilt and loss of balance most likely has disease associated with which nerve? Vagus Vestibulocochlear Optic Trigeminal

Vestibulocochlear

A veterinary technician approaches a stack of cages and is about to remove a nervous-looking dog from the highest cage. Which action is most likely to be helpful? A: Reach around its trunk and slide it toward you, lining its body parallel to your body B: Open the door wide, using the door as a barrier to prevent the dog from escaping C: Open the cage door and slip your arm under and around the dog's neck D: Wear gauntlets but take your fingers out of the finger holes

Wear gauntlets but take your fingers out of the finger holes

After taking a radiograph exposure of a patient abdomen at a 40 cm focal-film distance with settings of kVp=60, mAs=2, you have to repeat the exposure using a horizontal beam technique at 80 cm focal-film distance. Assuming there is no change in the tissue penetrated and no other differences aside from the distance in radiographic technique or equipment, what settings should you use to obtain the same radiographic density? kVp=120, mAs=2 kVp=60, mAs=4 kVp=240, mAs=2 kVp=60, mAs=8

kVp=60, mAs=8