UNIT 4

A nosocomial infection is A. Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization B. Acquired during the course of hospitalization C. Always caused by pathogenic bacteria. D. Always caused by medical personnel. E. Only a result of surgery.

B. Acquired during the course of hospitalization

Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A. Transduction B. All of these C. Transformation D. Mutation E. Conjugation

B. All of these

Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A. Normal microbiota on the operating room staff B. All of these C. Antibiotic resistance D. Using syringes more than once E. Errors in aseptic technique

B. All of these

Which of the following contributes to the difficulty in establishing the etiology of cancer? A. Cancer may not develop until long after infection. B. All of these. C. Cancers do not seem to be contagious. D. Most viral particles can infect cells without inducing cancer E. Viruses are difficult to observe

B. All of these

Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to A. None of these B. All of these. C. Waste products excreted by the parasite D. Products released from damaged tissues. E. Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues.

B. All of these.

Assume the two E.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate.What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant? A. Proline, histidine, methionine B. Ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine C. Ampicillin, prolein, histidine, lysine D. Ampicillin, lysine, arginine E. Lysine arginine

B. Ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine

Plasma cells are activated bya(n) A. B cell B. Antigen C. Memory cell D. T cell E. APC

B. Antigen

Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota A. Are acquired by direct contact .B. Are present for a relatively short time C. Never cause disease D. Cause diseases. E. Are found in a certain location on the host

B. Are present for a relatively short time

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity? A. Cells are processed in the thymus gland. B. B cells make antibodies. C. The cells originate in bone marrow. D. It can inhibit the immune response E. T cells react with antigens

B. B cells make antibodies.

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A. All of these B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. VirusesE. Fungi

B. Bacteria

Which of the following will NOT destroy prions? A. All of these B. Boiling C. Proteases D. Incineration E. NaOH + autoclaving at 134

B. Boiling

The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids? A. heat B. Buffers C. pH D. Sugars E. Carbon

B. Buffers

The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of A. C1 B. C3 C. C2 D. C5 E. C6

B. C3

In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 come from A. chlorophyll B. CO2 C. H2O D. sunlight E. C6H12O6

B. CO2

Yeast infections are caused by A. Penicillium. B. Candida albicans C. Saccharomycescerevisiae D. Histoplasma E. Aspergillus

B. Candida albicans

Which of the following microscopes uses visible light?A. scanning electron microscope B. DIC C. fluorescence microscope D. scanning acoustic microscope E. confocal microscope

B. DIC

The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans is A. Vehicle transmission B. Droplet transmission. C. VectorD. Direct contact. E. Fomite

B. Droplet transmission.

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A. Communicable disease B. Epidemiology C. Morbidity and mortality D. Public health. E. Ecology

B. Epidemiology

Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat A. Viral infections. B. Gram-negative bacterial infections C. Helminth infestations D. Protozoan infections E. Gram-positive bacterial infections.

B. Gram-negative bacterial infections

Antigen-antibody binding may result in all of the following except A. Neutralization of the antigen B. IL-2 Production C. Opsonization of the antigen D. Agglutination of the antigens E. Complement activation

B. IL-2 Production

In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD E. IgE

B. IgM

Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are A. IgA B. IgM C. IgE D. IgG E. IgD

B. IgM

Which of the following is an effect of opsonization? A. Increased margination of phagocytes B. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms C. Inflammation D. Cytolysis E. Increased diapedesis of phagocytes

B. Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A. Normal microbiota returning immediately B. Increased susceptibility to disease C. Fewer diseases D. Body odor E. No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source

B. Increased susceptibility to disease

What type of immunity is NOT due to antibodies? A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Innate immunity C. Artificially acquired active immunity D. Naturally acquired passive immunity E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

B. Innate immunity

Which of the following statements is false? A. Amantadine inhibits release of viral nucleic acid B. Interferon inhibits glycolysis C. Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis D. Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis E. Azoles inhibit plasma membrane

B. Interferon inhibits glycolysis

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is false? A. It is an exotoxin B. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines C. It causes diarrhea D. It causes vomiting. E. It is a superantigen.

B. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines

Which of the following statements about M protein is false? A. It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes B. It is readily digested by phagocytes. C. It is found on fimbriae D. It is a protein E. It is heat- and acid-resistant

B. It is readily digested by phagocytes.

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because A. It lacks a cell wall B. It undergoes osmotic lysis C. It lacks a cell membrane D. It plasmolyzes E. Its contents leak out

B. It undergoes osmotic lysis

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Pasteur- proof of biogensis B. Koch- aspetic surgery C. Ehrlich- chemotherapy D. Jenner- vacciation

B. Koch- aspetic surgery

All of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis except A. Semisynthetic penicillins B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Natural penicillins E. Vancomycin

B. Macrolides

Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following EXCEPT A. Travel B. Microbes trying to cause disease C. Antibiotic resistance D. Digging up soil E. Climatic changes

B. Microbes trying to cause disease

Below are several paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched? A. Dog - sexual reproduction B. Mosquito - definitive host C. Mosquito - vector D. All of these are correctly matched. E. Dog - definitive host

B. Mosquito - definitive host

Cercariae, metacercaria, miracidia, and rediae are stages in the life cycle of A. Sarcodina B. Nematodes C. Trematodes D. Sporozoans E. Cestodes

B. Nematodes

All algae are A. Toxic B. None of these C. Photoautotrophs D. Unicellular E. Plants

B. None of these

Semisynthesis if these microbial agents has the fewest side effects? A. Streptomycin B. Penicillin C. Chloramphenicol D. Erythomycin E. Tetracycline

B. Penicillin

To which group does a small, nonenveloped single-stranded RNA virus most likely belong?A. Retrovirus B. Picornavirus C. Togavirus D. Herpesvirus E. Papovavirus

B. Picornavirus

An enzyme that cuts double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences A. RNA polymerase B. Restriction enzyme C. DNA ligase D. TransposaseE. DNA polymerase

B. Restriction enzyme

Assume you inoculated 100 cells into 100 ml of nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 24 hours, you should have A. More cells in the 100 ml B. Same number of cells in both C. can't tell D. More cells in the 200 ml

B. Same number of cells in both

A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific gene is A. None of these B. Southern blot C. Cloning D. shotgun sequencing E. Transformation

B. Southern blot

Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases? A. Malaria B. Tetanus C. AIDS D. Tuberculosis E. Typhoid fever

B. Tetanus

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because A. The few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny B. The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal C. Bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics D. The antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics E. The antibiotics persist in soil and water

B. The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal

Innate immunity is A. Increased susceptibility to disease B. The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen C. The body's defense against a particular pathogen D. The body's ability to ward off diseases E. The lack of resistance

B. The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen

A persistent infection is an infection in which A. Host cells are gradually lysed B. The disease process occurs gradually over a long period. C. Host cells are transformed. D. The virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease. E. Viral replication is unusually slow.

B. The disease process occurs gradually over a long period.

The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes A. Base substitutions B. The formation of highly reactive ions C. Bonding between adjacent thymines D. DNA to break E. The cells get hot

B. The formation of highly reactive ions

The specificity of an antibody is due to A. The constant portions of the H and L chains B. The variable portions of the H and L chains. C. The H chains. D. The L chains E. Its valence.

B. The variable portions of the H and L chains.

Which of the following statements about the Oomycote algae is false? A. They reproduce sexually B. They have chlorophyll. C. They cause plant diseases D. They produce zoospores in a sporangium. E. They form hyphae

B. They have chlorophyll.

Which of the following is NOT part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons? A. They work in cells not producing INF. B. They inactivate viruses. C. They initiate transcription. D. They bind to the surface of uninfected cells E. They initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins

B. They inactivate viruses.

Generalized transduction differs from specialized transduction in that generalized transduction A. Kills the host B. Transfers specific DNA C. Lyses the host cell D. Transfers DNA from one cell to another E. Involves lysogeny

B. Transfers specific DNA

Agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and contains RNA as its genetic material is a(n) A. bacterium B. Virus C. Alga D. Fungus E. Helminth

B. Virus

Transformation is transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell A. by cell-to-cell contact B. as naked DNA in solution C. by sexual reproduction D. by crossing over E. by a bacteriophage

B. as naked DNA in solution

What type of molecules is composed of (CH2O) units? A. nucleic acids B. carbohydrates C. lipids D. proteins E. none of these

B. carbohydrates

Simple staining if often necessary to improve contrast in this microscope A. electron microscope B. compound light microscope C. phase-contrast microscope D. darkfield microscope E. flourescence microscope

B. compound light microscope

Which of the following processes in making blue jeans is incorrectly matched? A. Debleaching - bacterial enzyme B. cotton - fungal hyphae C. stone-washed - fungal enzyme

B. cotton - fungal hyphae

Thisi microscpe produces an image of a light cell against a dark background internal strcutures are not visble. A. phase-contrast microscope B. darkfield microscope C. compound light microscope D. electron microscope E. fluoresence microscope

B. darkfield microscope

This microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution A. compound light microscope B. electron microscope C. darkfield microscope D. phase-contrast microscope E. fluorescence microscope

B. electron microscope

Which of the following statements is true? A. endospores are easily stained in a gram stain B. endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes C. a cell produce many endospores D. endospores are for reproduction E. a cell produces one endospore and keeps growing

B. endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes

All of the following lack a cell wall except A. protoplasts B. fungi C. l forms D. none of these E.mycoplasms

B. fungi

A multicellular organism that has chitin cell walls and absorbs organic material is a(n) __ A. virus B. fungus C. helminth D. bacterium E. alga

B. fungus

What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration? A. it is reduced in the Krebs cycle B. it is oxidized in the Krebs cycle C. it is catabolized in glycolysis D. it is reduced to lactic acid E. it is oxidized in the electron tranpsort chain

B. it is oxidized in the Krebs cycle

These are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells. A. carbohyrates B. lipids C. nucleic acids D. proteins E. none of them

B. lipids

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. penicillin- antibiotic B. normal microbiota - harmful C. vaccine- a preparation of microorganisms D. pathogen - disease causing E. chemotherapy- treatment of disease

B. normal microbiota - harmful

Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon. A. none of these B. photoheterotroph C. chemoheterotroph D. chemoautotroph E. photoautotroph

B. photoheterotroph

Oil-degrading bacteria are naturally present in the environment but cannot degrade an oil spill fast enough to avid ecological damage. How can the actions of these bacteria be sped up? A. add NaCl B. provide nitrogen and phosporus C. add water D. provide sugar as a carbon source E. provide oil for them

B. provide nitrogen and phosporus

The apperance of gram-positive bacteria after addition of the first dye in the gram stain. A. brown B. purple C. none of these D. redE.colorless

B. purple

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion A. doesn't require ATP B. reuires transporter proteins C. requires ATP D. can move materials from a lower to a higher concentration E. can move materials from a higher to a lower concentration

B. reuires transporter proteins

The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by A. Photolyases B. snRNPs C. A chemical mutagen D. DNA polymerase. E. UV radiation

B. snRNPs

In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the A. domain B. specific epithet C. none of these D. genus E. kingdom

B. specific epithet

Found in mycoplasmas A. peptidoglycan B. sterol-rich cell membranes C. pseudomurein D. nucleus

B. sterol-rich cell membranes

Which of the following is true about viruses? A. they have DNA or RNA B. they are composed of cells C. they cannot metabolize nutrients D. they cannot reproduce themselves E. all of these

B. they are composed of cells

Which of the following is not true about protozoa? A. all have complex cells B. they have rigid cell walls C. all are eukaryotic D. all are unicellular E. they are classfied by theii method of locomotion

B. they have rigid cell walls

All members of the following groups contain DNA except A. fungi B. viruses C. protozoa D. helminths E. bacteria

B. viruses

Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample? A. 9 B. 72 C. 36 D. 18 E. 4

C. 36

How many molecules of ATP can be generated from the complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 to H2O? A. 2 B. 76 C. 38 D. 4 E. 34

C. 38

The best definition of antigen is A. Something foreign in the body. B. A pathogen C. A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies D. A protein that combines with antibodies. E. A chemical that combines with antibodies

C. A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

Large numbers of bacterial cells are NOT found in crown galls because A. The plant kills the bacteria. B. The assumption is not true; many bacteria are in the galls C. A gene in plant cells is controlling growth D. Bacteria kill plants E. Cell walls protect the plant from bacterial invasion

C. A gene in plant cells is controlling growth

A viroid is A. A complete, infectious virus particle B. A provirus C. A naked, infectious piece of RNA D. None of these E. A capsid without a nucleic acid

C. A naked, infectious piece of RNA

A gene is best defined as A. A sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product B. Three nucleotides that code for an amino acid C. A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product D. A segment of DNA E. A transcribed unit of DNA

C. A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product

Which organism produces catalase and superoxide dismutase? A. Anaerobe B. none of these C. Aerobe D. Obligate anaerobe

C. Aerobe

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the virulence of a pathogen? A. Toxins B. Cell wall C. All of these contribute to a pathogen's virulence D. Enzymes E. Numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host

C. All of these contribute to a pathogen's virulence

Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisil's method of action is similar to that of A. Polymyxin B B. Echinocandins C. Azole antibiotics D. Griseofulvin E. Bacitracin

C. Azole antibiotics

Thirty-two people in San Francisco who ate jackfish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3 to 6 hours after eating. The most likely cause of this food intoxication is A. Cholera toxin. B. Aflatoxin C. Ciguatera D. A mycotoxin. E. Staphylococcal enterotoxin.

C. Ciguatera

A commensal bacterium A. Is beneficial to its host and Does not infect its host only B. Does not receive any benefit from its host. C. Does not infect its host D. Is beneficial to its host. E. May be an opportunistic pathogen.

E. May be an opportunistic pathogen.

What type of molecule contains -NH2 groups? A. none of these B. carbohydrates C. proteins D. nucleic acids E. lipids

C. proteins

The apperance of gram-negative bacteria after completing the gram stain A. purple B. colorless C. red D. none of these E. brown

C. red

Which of the following is a scientific name? A. Group A streptococcus B. flesh-eating bacteria C. streptococcus pyogenes D. IGAS E. streptococci

C. streptococcus pyogenes

Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in which of the following aspects? A. aerobic respiration requires the electron transport chain B. aerobic respiration gets electrons from the Kerbs cycle C. the final electron acceptors are different D. anaerobic respiration is glycolysis E. aerobic respiration produces more ATP

C. the final electron acceptors are different

The best definition of biotechnology is A. all of these B. curing diseases C. the use of living organisms to make desired products D. the use of microorgnaisms in sewage treatment E. the development of recombinant DNA technology

C. the use of living organisms to make desired products

The resolution of a microscope of a microscope can be improved by changing the A. coarse adjustment B. diaphragm C. wavelength of light D. condenser E. fine adjustment

C. wavelength of light

Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host? A. Houseflies B. Lice C. Fleas D. Kissing bugs E. Mosquitoes

A. Houseflies

Which one of the following does not belong with the others? A. Hydrogen peroxide B. Ethylene oxide C. Glutaraldehyde D. Beta-propiolactone E Propylene oxide

A. Hydrogen peroxide

The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is A. IgG B. IgD C. IgA D. IgM E. IgE

A. IgG

Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT A. Immunity to reinfection by any phage B. Transduction of specific genes C. Immunity to reinfection by the same phage D. None of these E. Acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell

A. Immunity to reinfection by any phage

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A. Inhibition of RNA synthesis B. None of these C. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis D. Injury to the plasma membrane E. Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis

A. Inhibition of RNA synthesis

The microspora and archaezoa are unusual eukaryotes because they A. Lack mitochondria B. Are motile C. Lack nuclei. D. Don't produce cysts E. Do produce cysts

A. Lack mitochondria

Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms; these are called A. Latent viruses B. Unconventional viruses C. Lytic viruses D. Phages E. Slow viruses

A. Latent viruses

Which of the following is NOT a physical factor protecting the skin and mucous membranes from infection? A. Lysozyme B. Tears C. Saliva D. Ciliary escalator E.Layers of cells

A. Lysozyme

Which of the following will NOT preserve foods? A. Microwave B. Osmotic pressure C. Desiccation D. High pressure E. Ionizing radiation

A. Microwave

Which of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?A. Mycobacteria B. Protozoan cysts C. Gram-negative bacteria D. Viruses with lipid envelopes E. Gram-positive bacteria

A. Mycobacteria

Which of the following would you predict is an allosteric inhibitor of the Kerbs cycle enzyme, ketoglutarate dehydrogenase? A. NADH B. o-ketpglutaric acid C. NAD+ D. citric acid E. all of these

A. NADH

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A. Natural killer cell B. Dendritic cell C. Neutrophil D. Basophil E. Eosinophil

A. Natural killer cell

Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of A. Naturally acquired passive immunity B. Innate immunity C. Naturally acquired active immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity E. Artificially acquired active immunity

A. Naturally acquired passive immunity

The most common route of accidental AIDS transmission to health care workers is A. Needlestick B. Fecal-oral. C. Environmental surface contact D. Mouth to mouth. E. Aerosol

A. Needlestick

Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n) A. Oomycote alga. B. Zygomycete fungus C. Green alga D. Ascomycete fungus E. Tapeworm

A. Oomycote alga.

You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and Taq. This process is A. PCR B. Translation C. Transformation D. Site-directed mutagenesis. E. Restriction mapping

A. PCR

The first antibiotic discovered was A. Penicillin B. Quinine C. Streptomycin D. Sulfa drugs E. Salvarsan

A. Penicillin

The definition of lysogeny is A. Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA B. The period during replication when virions are not present C. When the burst time takes an unusually long time D. None of these E. Lysis of the host cell due to a phage

A. Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA

Multinucleated amoebalike cells that produce funguslike spores A. Plasmodial slime mold B. Cellular slime mold C. Ascomycete D. Euglenozoa E. Tapeworm

A. Plasmodial slime mold

Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed, A. Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells B. Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin C. Vibrio would bind to target cells D. Polypeptide A would enter the cells E. Polypeptide A would bind to target cells

A. Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells

The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by A. Polysaccharides and C3b. B. C5-C9 C. Factors released from damaged tissues D. Factors released from phagocytes E. Antigen-antibody reactions

A. Polysaccharides and C3b.

If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and didnt have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar? A. Pressure cooker at 121 C for 15 minutes B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Oven at 121 C for 1 hour D. Boiling for 1 hour E. Bleach

A. Pressure cooker at 121 C for 15 minutes

Latent viruses are present in cells as A. Proviruses B. None of these C. Capsids D. Prophages E. Enzymes

A. Proviruses

All of the following act by competitive inhibition except A. Streptomycin B. Sulfonamide C. Ethambutol D. None of these E. Isoniazid

A. Streptomycin

Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by A. Superantigens B. A-B toxins. C. Erythrogenic toxin D. Lipid A. E. Membrane-disrupting toxins

A. Superantigens

Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a -strand of RNA A. Synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template B. None of these C. Synthesis of DNA from an RNA template D. Synthesis of a double-stranded RNA from a DNA template E. Transcription of mRNA from DNA

A. Synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template

Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A. Helicase B. Primase C. DNA polymerase D. DNA ligase E. Methylase

E. Methylase

Subunit vaccines can be made by genetic modification of yeast cells. A side effect of these vaccines might be A. The disease B. A yeast infection. C. Failure of the vaccine to provide immunity D. Due to extraneous material E. None of these

E. None of these

Which of the following is not used for the disinfection of water? A. Gamma radiation B. Ozone C. Copper sulfate D. Chlorine E. None of these

E. None of these

Which of the following proteins are not coded for by genes carried on plasmids? A. Enzymes that catabolize hydrocarbons B. Enzymes necessary for conjugation C. Enzymes that inactivate anitbiotics D. Bacteriocins E. None of these

E. None of these

A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry? A. Skin B. Mucous membranes C. All of these D. None of these E. Parenteral route

E. Parenteral route

Which of the following does not achieve sterilization? A. Dry heat B. Autoclave C. Formaldehyde D. Ethylene oxide E. Pasteurization

E. Pasteurization

Which of the the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A. Bacitracin B. Penicillin C. Cephalosporin D. Polyenes E. Polymyxin

E. Polymyxin

Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase B. Lysozyme C. ATP synthase D. Reverse transcriptase E. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Glutaraldehyde is considered one of the most effective disinfectants for hospital use. Which of the following would not be true about glutaraldehyde? A. Acts rapidly B. Safe to tranport C. Not hampered by organic material D. Attacks all microorganisms E. Stains and corrodes

E. Stains and corrodes

Which of the following does not belong with the others? A. Bacitracin B. Monobactam C. Cephalosporin D. Penicillin E. Streptomycin

E. Streptomycin

Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by A. glutaraldehyde B. ethylene oxide C. peroxygens D. plasma sterilization E. Supercritical fluids

E. Supercritical fluids

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2- + O2- + 2H+ -> H2O2 + O2? A. Catalase B. None of these C. Peroxidase D. Oxidase E. Superoxide dismutase

E. Superoxide dismutase

Which of the following statements is true? A. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other B. A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. C. Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. D. At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship. E. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.

E. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.

Haemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an example of A. Competitive exclusion B. Commensalism C. Antagonism D. Parasitism E. Synergism

E. Synergism

Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia? A. Bacteremia B. Viremia C. Focal infection D. Local infection E. Systemic infection

E. Systemic infection

Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II? A. Natural killer cell B. TC cell C. B cell D. Basophil E. TH cell

E. TH cell

Which of the following statements is true? A. All of the complement proteins are always active in serum. B. Complement activity is antigen specific C. Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis. D. Complement increases after immunization E. There are at least 30 complement proteins

E. There are at least 30 complement proteins

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Psychrotroph- growth at 0 C B. Mesophile- growth at 25 C C. None of these D. Psychrophile- growth at 15 C E. Thermophile- growth at 37 C

E. Thermophile- growth at 37 C

A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is A. Bacillus thuringiensis. B. Pseudomonas. C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae. D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens E. Thermus aquaticus

E. Thermus aquaticus

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? A. It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs B. It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis C. All of these are advantages D. It can prevent drug resistance E. Two are always twice as effective as one

E. Two are always twice as effective as one

DNA is constructed of A. Two strands of identical nucleotides with hydrogen bonds between them B. None of these. C. A single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding. D. Nucleotides bonded A-C and G-T. E. Two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel.

E. Two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel.

A nucleated green cell that moves by means of flagella is a (n) __ A. helminth B. virus C. bacterium D. fungus E. alga

E. alga

Which of the following statements is false? A. all protozoa are unicellular B. all viruses are parasites C. all fungi have nuclear membranes D. all bacteria lack nuclear membranes E. all fungi are multicellular

E. all fungi are multicellular

All of the following can be found in mitochondria and prokryotes execpt A. circular chromosomes B. binary fission C. ATP-generating mechanisms D. 70s ribosomes E. cell wall

E. cell wall

Which of the following uses of CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy. A. photoheterotrophB. chemoheterotroph C. photoautotroph D. none of these E. chemoautotroph

E. chemoautotroph

Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by A. The Limulus amoebocyte lysate test. B. Culturing bacteria. C. Counting the viable bacteria D. Filtering out the cells.E. Looking for turbidity.

A. The Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.

What type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol?A. lipids B. proteins C. carbohydrates D. nucleic acid E. none of these

A. lipids

Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?A. mitochondrion B. golgi complex C. cell wall D. nucleus E. vacuole

A. mitochondrion

Desulfovibrio bacteria can perform the following reaction; S6- S2-. These bacteria are A. oxidizing sulfur B. none of these C. hydrolyzing sulfur D. reducing sulfur E. synthesizing sulfur

A. oxidizing sulfur

The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is A. peptone and beef extract B. all of these C. nutrient D. agar E. peptone and NaCl

A. peptone and beef extract

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a proksryotic cell? A. plasma membranes B. flagella C. around organelles and plasma membrane D. ribosomes E. around organelles

A. plasma membranes

The bacteria on the outside of termite protozoa A. propel the protozoan B. steer the protozoan to food C. are transient microbiota D. none of these E. digest cellulose

A. propel the protozoan

Found in archaea A. pseudomurein B. pseudomurein and peptidoglycan C. peptidoglycan D. nucleus E. sterol-rich cell membranes

A. pseudomurein

You suspect a 100 nm structure is present in a cell. Which of the following provides the lowest magnification that you can use to see this structure? A. scanning electron microscope B. brightfield microscope C. darkfield microscope D. phase-contrast microscope E. transmission electron microscope

A. scanning electron microscope

What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl with penicllin? A. the cell will plasmolyze B. the cell will undergo osmotic lysis C. penicillin will diffuse into the cell D. no change will result; the solution is istonic E. water will enter the cell

A. the cell will plasmolyze

Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation? A. the energy released as carrier molecules are oxidized is used to generate ATP B. the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group to ADP C. electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2 D. the energy released in the reduction of carrier molecules is used to generate ATP

A. the energy released as carrier molecules are oxidized is used to generate ATP

All of the following are true about bacteriocins except A. they cause food poisoning symptoms B. bacteria that produce bacteriocins are resistant to their own bacteriocins C.nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative D. the genes coding for them are on plasmids E.None of these

A. they cause food poisoning symptoms

A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely A. using the peptides B. none of these C. not growing D. fermenting the glucose E. oxidizing the glucose

A. using the peptides

Which of the following pairs are mismatched? A. van leeuwenhoek- germ theory B. none of these C. pasteur- fermentation D. lister - aspetic surgery E. hooke- cell theory

A. van leeuwenhoek- germ theory

PCR can be used to amplify DNA in a clinical sample. The following steps are used in PCR. What is the fourth step? A.Incubate at 60°C B. Incubate at 72°C C. Collect DNA D. Incubate at 94°C E. Add DNA polymerase

A.Incubate at 60°C

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A.KH2PO4 K+ + H2PO-4 - acid B. H2SO4 2H+ + SO2 4- acid C. HF H+ + F- - acid D. NaOH Na+ + OH- - base E. MgSO4 Mg2+ + SO24- - salt

A.KH2PO4 K+ + H2PO-4 - acid

Which statments are true?1- electron carriers are located at ribosomes.2- ATP is a coomon intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways3- ATP is used for the long-term storage of energu and so is often found in storage granules.4- Anaerobic organisms are capable of respiration5- ATP is generated by the flow of protons across the cell membrane A. all B. 1,2,3 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,4,5 E. 2,3,5

D. 2,4,5

Which of the following is NOT used by bacteria for attachment to a host? A. Fimbriae B. M protein C. Ligands D. A-B toxin E. Capsules

D. A-B toxin

The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of A. Commensal bacteria B. Parasitic bacteria. C. Other fungi. D. Antagonistic bacteria E. Symbiotic bacteria.

D. Antagonistic bacteria

Patients with an inherited type of colon cancer called familial adenomatous polyposis have a mutation in the gene thatcodes for A. IgE antibodies. B. ADCC C. Phagocytosis D. Apoptosis E. T helper cells.

D. Apoptosis

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A. None of these B. Are changes observed by the physician C. Always occur as part of a syndrome D. Are changes felt by the patient E. Are specific for a particular disease.

D. Are changes felt by the patient

Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota A. Never cause disease B. Cause diseases. C. Are acquired by direct contact. D. Are present for a relatively short time E. Are found in a certain location on the host

D. Are present for a relatively short time

What type of immunity results from vaccination? A. Naturally acquired passive immunity B. Innate immunity C. Naturally acquired active immunity D. Artificially acquired active immunity E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

D. Artificially acquired active immunity

Ringworm is caused by a(n) A. Cestode B. Trematode C. Nematode D. Ascomycete E. Protozoan

D. Ascomycete

Foods are preserved with all of the following except A. Sodium propionate B. Sodium nitrite C. Potassium sorbate D. Biguanides E. Nisin

D. Biguanides

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike? A. Both are resistant to penicillinase B. Both are broad spectrum C. Both are bactericidal D. Both are based on -lactam E. Both are resistant to stomach acids

D. Both are based on -lactam

Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? A. Tuberculosis B. Common cold C. Diphtheria D. Botulism E. Measles

D. Botulism

Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is false? A. C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway B. The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes C. C3b causes opsonization D. C3 is not involved in the classical pathway. E. Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.

D. C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.

A cell that cannot make tRNA A. can make proteins if amino acids are provided in the growth medium B. can't make proteins unless aminoacyl synthetase is provided in the growth medium C. None of these D. Can't make proteins E. can make proteins if mRNA is provided in the growth medium

D. Can't make proteins

In transcription, A. DNA is replicated. B. Proteins are made. C. RNA is copied to DNA D. DNA is copied to RNA. E. DNA is changed to RNA

D. DNA is copied to RNA.

Antimicrobial peptides work by A. Complementary base-pairing with DNA B. Inhibiting cell-wall synthesis C. Hydrolyzing peptidogylcan D. Disrupting the plasma membrane E. Inhibiting protein synthesis

D. Disrupting the plasma membrane

Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A. Bacteremia B. Local infection C. Focal infection D. Septicemia E. Systemic infection

D. Septicemia

Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicates that A. Bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth. B. Bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth C. Streptococci get bacterial infections. D. Streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease E. Streptococci cause periodontal disease

D. Streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease

A multicellular organism; the digestive tract has one opening A. Plasmodial slime mold B. Ascomycete C. Cellular slime mold D. Tapeworm E. Euglenozoa

D. Tapeworm

PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because A. All cells have DNA B. All cells have DNA C. DNA polymerase will replicate DNA D. The RNA primer is specific E. DNA can be electrophoresed

D. The RNA primer is specific

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells? A. They are responsible for antibody formation. B. They originate in bone marrow C. They are responsible for the memory response. D. They recognize antigens associated with MHC I E. They have antibodies on their surfaces

D. They recognize antigens associated with MHC I

The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. What is the third step? A. Penetration B. Biosynthesis C. Attachment D. Uncoating E. Release

D. Uncoating

Legionellosis transmitted by a grocery store mist machine is an example of A. Droplet transmission B. Vector. C. Direct contact D. Vehicle transmission E. Fomite

D. Vehicle transmission

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance froma lower concentration to a higher concentration? A. facilitated diffusion B. all of these C. none of these D. active transport E. simple diffusion

D. active transport

Regarding Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is true? A. there was a food source involved B. any possibility of contamination was removed C. there was air involved D. all of these E. all microorganisms were killed in the beginning

D. all of these

Which of the following requirement was necessary for Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation? A. keeping microorganisms out B. providing a food source that would support growth C. removing microorganisms that were initially present D. all of these E. supplying air

D. all of these

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell? A. around organelles B. flagella C. plasma memebrane D. around organelles and plasma membrane E. ribosomes

D. around organelles and plasma membrane

Which of the following lack a necleus? A. fungi B. none of these C. protozoa D. bacteria E. animalia

D. bacteria

In bacteria, photosynthesis pigments are found in A. mesosomes B. none of these C. cytoplasm D. chromatophores E. chloroplasts

D. chromatophores

Which of the following compounds is not an enzyme?A. none of these B. cellulase C. dehydrogenase D. coenzyme A E.B-galactaosidase

D. coenzyme A

The antimicrobial drug imidazole sterol synthesis inhibits sterol synthesis. This would likely interfere with A. fugal cell walls B. genes C. prokaryotic plasma membranes D. eukaryotic plasma membranes E. bacterial cell walls

D. eukaryotic plasma membranes

Which of the following structures has a role in the initiation of disease? A. gram-positive cell wall B. cell membrane C. all of these D. fimbriae E. lipid A

D. fimbriae

This microscope is used to observe specimen that emits light when illuminated with an ultraviolet light. A. electron microscope B. darkfield microscope C. compound light microscope D. fluorescence microscope E. phase-contrast microscope

D. fluorescence microscope

Which of the following is NOT a possible function of magnetsomes? A. none of these B. store iron C. locate suitable environment D. get cells to the north pole E. protect cells from hydrogen peroxide accumulation

D. get cells to the north pole

Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of A. fatty acids B. nucleic acids C. none of these D. glucose E. amino acids

D. glucose

Fungi differ from bacteria in that fungi A. are cellular B. have DNA C. have cell walls D. have a nucleus E. spoil food

D. have a nucleus

This microscope is used to see detail of 300 nm virus A. phase-contrast microscope B. fluorescence microscope C. darkfield microscope D. none of these E. DIC microscope

D. none of these

Which of the following is not necessary for respiration? A. a source of electrons B. flavoproteins C. cytochromes D. oxygen E. quinones

D. oxygen

The microscope takes advantage of differences in the refactive indexes of cell structures. A. fluorescence microscope B. electron microscope C. compound light microscope D. phase-contrast microscope E. darkfield microscope

D. phase-contrast microscope

Which molecule is composed of a cahin of amino acids? A. Nucleic Acids B. none of these C. lipids D. proteins E. carbohydrates

D. proteins

The apperance of gram-positive bacteria after adding the counterstain in the gram stain A. brown B. none of these C. colorless D. purple E. re

D. purple

Fatty acids are catabolized in A. the electron transport chain B. glycolysis C. the enter doudoroff pathway D. the Kerbs cycle E. the pentose phosphate pathway

D. the Kerbs cycle

Which of the following should not be included in a medium used to select for a nitrogen-fixing chemoautotroph? A. Na2HPO4 B. Glucose C. MgSO4 D. KH2PO4 E. (NH4)2SO4

E. (NH4)2SO4

Place the following in the correct sequence: 1- staining; 2- making a smear; 3- fixing A. 1-3-2 B. 1-2-3 C. 3-2-1 D. the order doesn't matter E. 2-3-1

E. 2-3-1

Approximately how many virus particles could fit along a 1-millimeter line? A. 2 B. 200 C. 2,000,000 D. 20 E. 20,000

E. 20,000

What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens? A. 100x B. 10x C. none of these D. 45x E. 450x

E. 450x

The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human protein X: 1-Translation; 2-Restriction enzyme; 3-Prokaryotic transcription; 4-DNA ligase; 5-Transformation; 6-Eukaryotic transcription; 7-Reverse transcription. Put the steps in the correct sequence. A. 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 1 B. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 7, 6 C. 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 D. 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7 E. 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

E. 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

Most bacteria grow best at pH A. 5 B. 1 C. 14 D. 9 E. 7

E. 7

Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective bactericide? A. 100% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% E. 70%

E. 70%

You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have? A. Thousands B. 16 C. 2 D. 4 E. 8

E. 8

he Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed. What is the second step? A. Lyse human cells B. It doesnt matter. C. Add enzyme substrate D. Add enzyme-linked antibodies against DNA-RNA E. Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA

E. Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA

A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? A. All of these B. Miracidium C. Cyst D. Larva E. Adult

E. Adult

Which of the folowing is true about fungi? A. All are plants B. All are prokaryotic C. All are multicellular D. All grow using sunlight and carbon dioxde E. All require organic material for growth

E. All require organic material for growth

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A. Bacitracin B. Polymyxin C. Cephalosporin D. Penicillin E. Amphotericin B

E. Amphotericin B

What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection? A. Innate immunity B. Naturally acquired passive immunity C. Artificially acquired active immunity D. Naturally acquired active immunity E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

E. Artificially acquired passive immunity

Restriction enzymes are A. Animal enzymes that splice RNA B. Bacterial enzymes that splice DNA C. Viral enzymes that destroy host DNA. D. None of these E. Bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.

E. Bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.

Two glucose molecules are combined to make a maltose molecule. What is the chemical formula for maltose? A. C6H12O6 B. C3H6O3 C. C12H24O12 D. C12H23O10 E. C12H22O11

E. C12H22O11

The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure? A. Wearing gloves while handling fish B. Not swimming in fish-infested waters C. Refrigerating stored fish D. Salting fish before eating E. Cooking fish before eating

E. Cooking fish before eating

The reaction catalyzed by DNA polymerase A. mRNA⇒ cDNA B. None C. DNA ⇒ RNA D. mRNA ⇒ protein E. DNA ⇒ RNA

E. DNA ⇒ RNA

In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35°C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 µm) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a A. Yeast B. Gram-negative bacterium C. Protozoan D. Parasitic alga E. Dimorphic fungus

E. Dimorphic fungus

Which of the following statements is true? A. Beta interferon attacks invading viruses B. Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis. C. Alpha interferon is an antiviral protein D. Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses E. Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages

E. Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages

Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? A. Direct microscopic count B. MPN C. Turbidity D. Standard plate count E. Glucose consumption

E. Glucose consumption

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Diatoms - petroleum B. Red algae - agar C. Dinoflagellates - paralytic shellfish poisoning D. Brown algae - algin E. Green algae - prokaryotic

E. Green algae - prokaryotic

The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier? A. Producing toxins B. All of these C. Inducing endocytosis D. Producing fimbriae E. Inducing TNF

E. Inducing TNF

If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the A. Reservoir B. None of these. C. Infected host. D. Definitive host E. Intermediate host

E. Intermediate host

Which of the following is not true of a bacterium that is R+? A. R+ can be transferred to a recipient cell B. R+ refers to the possession of a plasmid C. None of these D. It is resistant to a recipient cell E. It is F+

E. It is F+

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A. Macrolides B. Chloramphenicol C. Aminoglycosides D. Tetracyclines E. Lincomycin

E. Lincomycin

In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up: tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer? a. 6 b. 32 c. 1:6 d. 1:32 e. 64

e. 64

Immune deficiencies are caused by all of the following. Which one does not cause an acquired immune deficiency? a. HIV infection b. Rapamycin to inhibit IL-2 action c. Cyclosporine to inhibit IL-2 secretion d. Chromosomal-linked B-cell deficiency e. None of these

d. Chromosomal-linked B-cell deficiency

Which of the following is NOT a gram-negative rod that causes gastroenteritis? a. Yersinia b. Escherichia c. Salmonella d. Clostridium e. Shigella

d. Clostridium

The most effective control of a vector-borne disease is a. Treatment of infected humans b. Treatment of uninfected humans c. Treatment of infected wild animals d. Elimination of the vector e. Avoidance of endemic areas

d. Elimination of the vector

EB virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT a. Hodgkin's disease b. Burkitt's lymphoma c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma d. Endocarditis e. Infectious mononucleosis

d. Endocarditis

Which of the following is the usual cause of the septic shock? a. Lymphangitis b. None of these c. Septicemia d. Endotoxin e. Exotoxin

d. Endotoxin

A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is a. Hyperbaric treatment b. Burns c. An infected finger d. Gangrene e. Debridement

d. Gangrene

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? a. Chancroid b. LGV c. Gonorrhea d. Genital herpes e. Syphilis

d. Genital herpes

The patient is suffocating because of an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology? a. Bordetella b. Corynebacterium c. Mycobacterium d. Haemophilus e. Can't tell

d. Haemophilus

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is a. Homosexual intercourse b. Blood transfusions c. Intravenous drug use d. Heterosexual intercourse e. Nosocomial

d. Heterosexual intercourse

Which of the following is the following is the body's response to tumor-specific antigen? a. Immunotherapy b. Immunosuppression c. None of these d. Immunologic surveillance e. Immunologic enhancement

d. Immunologic surveillance

A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient is the a. Direct fluorescent-antibody test b. None of these c. All of these d. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test

d. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test

Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is false? a. It is an inflammation of the heart b. It is an inflammation of the joints c. It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection d. It is cured with penicillin e. The incidence has declined in the last 10 years

d. It is cured with penicillin

A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having a. Diphtheria b. Streptococcal pharyngitis c. Common cold d. There is insufficient information e. Scarlet fever

d. There is insufficient information

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n) a. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine b. Conjugated vaccine c. Nucleic acid vaccine d. Toxoid vaccine e. Subunit vaccine

d. Toxoid vaccine

The following events occur if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement and trypan blue. What step indicates the cells are HLA-I? a. The MAC makes a pore in the plasma membrane b. None of these, the T cells are missing c. Antibody binds to the cells d. Trypan blue enters the cells e. Complement is fixed

d. Trypan blue enters the cells

Cancer cells may escape the immune system because a. None of these b. Killer T cells react with tumor-specific antigens c. Antibodies are not formed against cancer cells d. Tumor cells shed their specific antigens e. They are recognized as "self"

d. Tumor cells shed their specific antigens

Transplant rejection is an example of a. Type III hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type I hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity e. All of these

d. Type IV hypersensitivity

Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis? a. Relapsing fever b. A local infection c. Jaundice d. Undulant fever e. Pneumonia

d. Undulant fever

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Giardia c. Clostridiumperfringens d. Vibrio e. Trichinella

d. Vibrio

Which of the following CANNOT yield antibodies for serological testing? a. Monoclonal antibodies b. Vaccinated animals c. Vaccinated humans d. Viral cultures e. All of these may yield antibodies for serological testing

d. Viral cultures

Drugs, such as AZT and ddC, currently used to treats AIDS act by a. Promoting antibody formation b. Neutralizing the virus c. Stimulatory TH cells d.Stopping DNA synthesis e. All of these

d.Stopping DNA synthesis

Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. The antiviral drug is a. A vaccine b. A nucleoside analog c. A toxoid d. An immunosuppressive e. A monoclonal antibody.

e. A monoclonal antibody.

A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? a. Miconazole b. No treatment is available c. Cephalosporins d. Metronidazole e. Acyclovir

e. Acyclovir

Legionella is transmitted by a. Fomites b. Vectors c. Person-to-person contact d. Foodborne transmission e. Airborne transmission

e. Airborne transmission

Glomerulonephritis is a. Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and Treated with penicillin b. Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes c. Treated with penicillin d. Transmitted by contaminated water e. An immune complex disease

e. An immune complex disease

A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints. The recommended treatment is a. Hyperbaric chamber b. Streptomycin c. Praziquantel d. Chloroquine e. Anti-inflammatory drugs

e. Anti-inflammatory drugs

Which of the following is NOT likely to spread MRSA among athletes? a. Whirlpool baths b. Taping gels c. Shared equipment d. Physical contact e. Antibiotic resistance

e. Antibiotic resistance

MMR vaccine contains hydrolyzed gelatin. A person receiving this vaccine could develop an anaphylactic reaction if the person has a. Antibodies against eggs b. An immunodeficiency c. None of these d. Received the influenza vaccine e. Antibodies against gelatin

e. Antibodies against gelatin

On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. These people were given a. Rabies vaccination b. Treatment if they tested positive c. Antibiotics d. Serological tests for rabies e. Antirabies immunoglobulin

e. Antirabies immunoglobulin

Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population? a. All are equal b. Forearms c. Scalp d. Legs e. Axilla

e. Axilla

A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms? a. Klebsiella b. Mycobacterium c. Corynebacterium d. Mycoplasma e. Bordetella

e. Bordetella

An 8-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the 8-year-old have? a. Rubella b. Shingles c. Scabies d. Fever blisters e. Chickenpox

e. Chickenpox

Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta? a. Borrelia b. Spirillum c. Yersinia d. Toxoplasma e. Cytomegalovirus

e. Cytomegalovirus

Which of the following is a test to determine patient's blood type by mixing patient's red blood cells with antisera? a. Immunofluorescence b. Precipitation reaction c. Neutralization reaction d. Passive agglutination reaction e. Direct agglutination reaction

e. Direct agglutination reaction

Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis? a. Penicillin b. Trifluridine c. None of these d. Sulfonamide e. Fungicide

e. Fungicide

The most common reportable disease in the United States is a. Cystitis b. Lymphogranuloma venereum c. Candidiasis d. Syphilis e. Gonorrhea

e. Gonorrhea

Which of the following tests is most useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies? a. Agglutination b. Direct fluorescent-antibody c. Complement fixation d. Neutralization e. Indirect ELISA

e. Indirect ELISA

Which of the following respiratory infections can be contracted by ingestion? a. Mycoplasmal pneumonia b. Diphtheria c. Streptococcal pharyngitis d. Haemophilus pneumonia e. Tuberculosis

e. Tuberculosis

Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age? a. Diphtheria b. Psittacosis c. Scarlet fever d. Coccidioidomycosis e. Legionellosis

a. Diphtheria

The reservoir for leptospirosis is a. Domestic dogs b. Domestic cats c. Water d. Humans e. Hospitals

a. Domestic dogs

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Eggs - Trichinella b. Delicatessen meats - Listeria c. Oysters - Vibrio d. Milk - Campylobacter e. Beef - E. coli O157:H7

a. Eggs - Trichinella

Which of these pairs is mismatched? A) Immunologist studies ecology of Legionella pneumophila B) Virologist studies human immunodeficiency virus C) Microbial ecologist studies bacteria that degrade oil D) Microbial physiologist studies fermentation of sourdough bread E) Molecular biologist studies recombinant DNA

A) Immunologist studies ecology of Legionella pneumophila

Which of the following is not equal to 1m? A. 100 mm B. 10dmC. 10^6 um D. none of these E. 10^9 nm

A. 100 mm

Place the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order:1-Alcohol acetone, 2-Crystal violet, 3-Safranin, 4-Iodine A. 2-4-1-3 B. 1-2-3-4 C. 4-3-2-1 D. 2-1-4-3

A. 2-4-1-3

An experiment began with 4 cells and ended up with 128 cells. How many generations did the cell go through? A. 5 B. 4 C. 64 D. 6 E. 32

A. 5

What percent of total ATP is produced from the complete catabolism of glucose by anaerobic respiration? A. 89% B. 5% C. 50% D. 95% E. 11%

A. 89%

A restriction fragment is A. A segment of DNA B. A segment of mRNA C. cDNA D. A segment of tRNA E. A gene

A. A segment of DNA

Which of the following statements about algae is false? A. All are unicellular B. They use light as their energy source C. They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water D. They use CO2 as their carbon source E. Some are capable of sexual reproduction.

A. All are unicellular

Bacterial death will result from damage to which of the following structures? A. All of these B. Nucleic acids C. Plasma membrane D. Cell wall E. Proteins

A. All of these

Which of the following antibiotics causes misreading of mRNA? A. Aminoglycoside - changes shape of 30S units B. Oxazolidinone - prevents formation of 70S ribosome C. Chloramphenicol - inhibits peptide bonds at 50S subunit D. Streptogamin - prevents release of peptide from 70S ribosome E. Tetracyclines - bind with 30S subunit

A. Aminoglycoside - changes shape of 30S units

The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by A. Antigen-antibody reactions B. C5-C9. C. Polysaccharides and C3b. D. Factors released from phagocytes E. Factors released from damaged tissues.

A. Antigen-antibody reactions

What type of immunity results from injection of tetanus toxoid? A. Artificially acquired active immunity B. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Artificially acquired passive immunity D. Innate immunityE. Naturally acquired passive immunity

A. Artificially acquired active immunity

A Treg cell deficiency could result in A. Autoimmunity B. Transplant rejection C. Increased number of viral infections. D. Increased number of bacterial infections E. Increased severity of bacterial infections

A. Autoimmunity

Which one of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? A. Bacteria causing disease B. Bacteria occupying host receptors C. Bacteriocin production D. Acid production by bacteria E. Bacteria producing vitamin K

A. Bacteria causing disease

Which of the following is not an example of biotechnology? A. Bacterial degradation of a dead animal B. None of these C. Bacterial production of vinegar D. Bacterial production of french bread E. Bacterial production of yogurt

A. Bacterial degradation of a dead animal

Botulism is caused by a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore it can easily be prevented by A. Boiling food prior to consumption B. Administering antibiotics to patients C. Filtering food D. Not eating canned food E. Preventing fecal contamination of food

A. Boiling food prior to consumption

The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A. Catabolite repression B. DNA polymerase C. Repression D. Induction E. Translation

A. Catabolite repression

The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A. Catabolite repression B. Induction C. DNA polymerase D. Translation E. Repression

A. Catabolite repression

Which of the following does NOT provide protection from phagocytic digestion? A. Causing formation of phagolysosomes B. Ability to grow at a low pH C. Killing white blood cells D. Biofilms E.Preventing formation of phagolysosomes

A. Causing formation of phagolysosomes

An example of a latent viral infection is A. Cold sores B. Smallpox C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Mumps E. Influenza

A. Cold sores

You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the most likely cause? A. Cryptosporidium B. Taenia C. Giardia D. Diatoms E. Entamoeba

A. Cryptosporidium

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? A. Ethambutol - inhibits mycolic acid synthesis B. Streptogramin - inhibits protein synthesis C. Streptomycin - inhibits protein synthesis D. Bacitracin - inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis E. Vancomycin - inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

A. Ethambutol - inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis? A. Flucytosine B. Thymine C. None of these D. Uracil E. Guanine

A. Flucytosine

Which of the following is NOT considered entry via the parenteral route? A. Hair follicle B. Surgery C. Injection D. Skin cut E. Bite

A. Hair follicle

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against A. Helminths B. Gram-positive bacteria C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Gram-negative bacteria E. Viruses

A. Helminths

Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in the A. Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae B. Retroviridae and Picornaviridae C. Influenzavirus D. Bacteriophage families E. Herpesviridae and Retroviridae

A. Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae

Who observed cells in plant material? A. Hooke B. Koch C. Pasteur D. None of these E. Van Leeuwenhoek

A. Hooke

Which of the following statements about spikes is false? A. They are used for penetration B. They are found only on nonenveloped viruses. C. They are found only on enveloped viruses. D. They may cause hemagglutination E. They are used for absorption

A. They are used for penetration

Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all 17 patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because A. They can tolerate low-moisture conditions. B. They prefer a neutral environment (pH 7). C. They cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure D. They have a fermentative metabolism E. They are aerobic-

A. They can tolerate low-moisture conditions.

The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because A. They distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming B. They form spores C. None of these D. They have organelles E. The large surface can absorb nutrients

A. They distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming

Which of the following is NOT a function of inflammation? A. To produce antibodies B. To destroy an injurious agent C. To remove an injurious agent D. To wall off an injurious agent E. To repair damaged tissue

A. To produce antibodies

Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding which of the following? A. Toll-like receptors B. Cytokines C. Lysozyme D. Complement E. Lectins

A. Toll-like receptors

Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA? A. Translation B. RNA processing to remove introns C. Transcription D. Reverse transcription E. None of these

A. Translation

Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes A. Use codons to arrange amino acids B. Require snRNPS C. Use methionine as the "start" amino acid D. Have exons. E. Have introns

A. Use codons to arrange amino acids

Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? A. Use with heat-labile materials B. Ability to inactivate viruses C. Length of time D. Ability to kill endospores E. Use with glassware

A. Use with heat-labile materials

Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of A. Vector B. Vehicle transmission C. Fomite D. Direct contact. E. Droplet transmission

A. Vector

In which of the following ways do viruses differ from bacteria? A. Viruses are not composed of cells B. Viruses are filterabe C. All of these D. Viruses don't have any nucleic acids E. Viruses are obligate intracelular parasites

A. Viruses are not composed of cells

Cells are differentiated after which step in the Gram stain?A. alcohol-acetone B. crystal violet C. iodine D. none of these E. safranin

A. alcohol-acetone

Which of the following requirement was necessary for Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation? A. all of these B. supplying air C. providing a food source that would support growth D. keeping microorganisms out E. removing microorganisms that were initially present

A. all of these

The signal molecule produced in quorum sensing is A. an inducer B. a simple stain C. an endospore D. light E. a counterstain

A. an inducer

Which of the following is not a domain in the three-domain system? A. animalia B. eukarya C.archaea D. bacteria

A. animalia

All of the following are energy reserves except A. carboxysomes B. lipid inclusions C. metachromatic granules D. sulfur granules E. polysaccharide granules

A. carboxysomes

Which of the following is not a structure found in prokaryotic cells? A. cilia B. pili C. peritirichous flagella D. axial filament E. flagella

A. cilia

The microscope does not use light A. electron microscope B. fluorescence microscope C. compound light microscope D. darkfield microscope E. phase-contrast microscope

A. electron microscope

Which of the following statements is not true? A. enzymes are used up in a chemical reaction B. enzymes increase the probability of reaction C. enzymes are made up of proteins D. none of these E. enzymes lower the activation energy required for a reaction

A. enzymes are used up in a chemical reaction

Identify the following reaction: HCI + NaHCO3 --> NaCl + H2CO3 A. exchange reaction B. hydrolysis reaction C. dehydration sunthesis reaction D. ionic reaction E. reversible reaction

A. exchange reaction

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. fluorescence microscpe- uses a fluorescent light B. scanning tunneling microscope- allowing visualizationof atoms C. scanning electron microscope - producees a three-dimensional image D. confocal microscope- produces a three-demensional image E. darkfield microscope- uses visible light

A. fluorescence microscpe- uses a fluorescent light

Who observed cells in plant material? A. hooke B. koch C. weizmann D. lister E. van leeuwenhoek

A. hooke

What is the type of bond between the Na+ and the Cl- in salt? A. ionic bond B. van Der Waals interaction C. none of these D. hydrogen bondE. covalent bond

A. ionic bond

Which of the following statements about gram-positive cell wall is false? A. it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment B. it maintains the shape of the cell C. it contains the teichoic acids D. it is sensitive to lysozyme E. it is sensitive to penicillin

A. it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment

Archaea differ from bacteria because archaea A. lack peptidoglycan B. lack muclei C. none of these D. use organic compunds for food E. reproduce by binary fission

A. lack peptidoglycan

Sourdough bread differs from conventional bread during leavening because A. lactobacillus produce acids B. yeasts produce acid C. yeasts produce carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol D. acids are added to it during risins E. of the temperature and humidity

A. lactobacillus produce acids

Which of the following statements is false? A. Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromsome B. The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer C. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome D. The leading strand of DNa is made continuously E. DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only

C. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the standard plate count? A. None of these B. Cells may form aggregates C. Determine viable cells D. Chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation E. Requires incubation time

C. Determine viable cells

The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes A. The recombinant cell unable to survive B. Replica plating possible. C. Direct selection possible D. All of these E. The recombinant cell dangerous

C. Direct selection possible

Most pathogens that gain access through the skin' A. Just infect the skin itself. B. Must be injected C. Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts D. Can penetrate intact skin. E. Must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate

C. Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts

Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper? A. Sunlight B. Microwaves C. Gamma radiation D. None of these E. UV radiation

C. Gamma radiation

Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by A. Genitourinary route B. Respiratory route. C. Gastrointestinal route D. Vectors E. Aerosols

C. Gastrointestinal route

Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a A. Lower pH B. Lower osmotic pressure C. Hypertonic environment D. Depletion of nutrients E. Hypotonic environment

C. Hypertonic environment

The antibodies found on B cells are A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgG E. IgE

C. IgD

Which of the following diseases is NOT usually contracted by the respiratory route? A. All of these are usually contracted by the respiratory route B. Tuberculosis C. Infectious hepatitis D. Whooping cough' E. Pneumonia

C. Infectious hepatitis

A C-reactive protein (CRP) test was ordered for a patient who recently underwent surgery. The results revealed CRP levels 10 times greater than normal. This indicates A. A normal response to the trauma of surgery B. Internal bleeding. C. Inflammation D. Abnormally high blood protein E. None of these

C. Inflammation

CD4+ T cells are activated by A. Cytokines released by B cells B. Interaction between TCRs and MHC II C. Interaction between CD4+ and MHC II D. Cytokines released by dendtritic cells E. Complement

C. Interaction between CD4+ and MHC II

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Pasteur- proof of biogenesis B. Jenner- vacciation C. Koch- aspetic surgery D. ehrlich- chemotherapy

C. Koch- aspetic surgery

The major significance of Koch's work was that A. Microorganisms are the result of disease. B. Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another C. Microorganisms cause disease D. Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. E. Microorganisms can be cultured

C. Microorganisms cause disease

Poliovirus is ingested and gains access to tissues by which portal of entry? A. None of these B. Skin C. Mucous membranes D. Parenteral E. All of these

C. Mucous membranes

Which of these is not an oxidizing agent? A. Chlorine B. Iodine C. None of these D. Hydrogen peroxide E. Ozone

C. None of these

Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion? A. DNA polymerase B. DNA C. PSc D. RNA E. Lysozyme

C. PSc

Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from A. Complement B. Histamine C. Phagocytic digestion D. Phagocytosis E. Gamma interferon

C. Phagocytic digestion

A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a A. Cell lysis B. Phage C. Plaque D. Pock E. None of these

C. Plaque

Which of the following antibiotics is not bactericidal? A. Cephalosporin B. Bacitracin C. Polyenes D. Rifampins E. Penicillin

C. Polyenes

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is A. Transposase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase. D. DNA ligase E. Restriction enzyme

C. RNA polymerase.

Which of the following systems in a parasitic helminth is not greatly reduced compared to free-living helminths? A. Locomotion B. Nervous system C. Reproductive system D. All are reduced E. Digestive system

C. Reproductive system

Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A. Systemic infection B. Local infection C. Septicemia D. Bacteremia E. Focal infection

C. Septicemia

IL-2, produced by TH cells, A. Activates macrophages B. Activates antigen-presenting cells C. Stimulates TH cell maturation D. Activates TC cells to CTLs. E. Causes phagocytosis

C. Stimulates TH cell maturation

The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third step? A. Synthesis of + strand RNA B. Penetration and uncoating C. Synthesis of - strand RNA D. Attachment E. Synthesis of viral proteins

C. Synthesis of - strand RNA

The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. What is the fourth step? A. Attachment B. Synthesis of + RNA C. Synthesis of double-stranded DNA D. Penetration E. Uncoating

C. Synthesis of double-stranded DNA

The following events occur in cellular immunity. What is the third step? A. TH cell produces cytokines B. Antigen enters M cell C. TH cells proliferate D. Dendritic cell takes up antigen E. Antibodies are produced.

C. TH cells proliferate

Which statement is false? A. The variable region of a heavy chain binds with antigen B. The Fc region attaches to a host cell C. The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies D. All of these statements are true. E.The variable region of a light chain binds with antigen

C. The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies

If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A. The secondary structure of the protein B. Can't tell C. The primary structure of the protein D. The quaternary structure of the protein E. The tertiary structure of the protein

C. The primary structure of the protein

Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is false? A. They destroy virus-infected cells B. They destroy cells lacking MHC I C. They are stimulated by an antigen D. They destroy tumor cells E. All of these statements are true

C. They are stimulated by an antigen

Nontoxic strains of Vibrio cholerae can become toxic when they are in the human intestine with toxic strains of bacteria. This suggests that the toxin genes are acquired by A. Prions B. Host enzymes C. Transduction D. None of these E. Reverse transcriptase

C. Transduction

Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a A. Library B. PCR C. Vector D. Clone E. Southern blot

C. Vector

Which of the following statements about viruses is false? A. Viruses have genes B. Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell C. Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes D. Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both E. Viruses contain a protein coat

C. Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes

Drug resistance occurs A. Because bacteria are normal microbiota B. Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents C. When antibiotics are used indiscriminately D. When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear E. All of these

C. When antibiotics are used indiscriminately

Which of the following findings was essential for Jenner's vaccination process? A. vaccination provies immunity B. Disease is caused by viruses C. a weakened microorganism may produce immunity D. someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again E. a weakened microorganism will not cause disease

C. a weakened microorganism may produce immunity

A strictly fermentation bacterium produces energy A. only in the absence of oxygen B. by fermentation or aerobic respiration C. by glycolysis D. by anaerobic respiration only E. only in the presence of oxygen

C. by glycolysis

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. endoplasmic reticulum- internal transport B. lysosome - digestive enzymes C. centrosome- food storage D. golgi complex- secretionE. mitochondria- ATP production

C. centrosome- food storage

Which of the following statments about biofilms is false? A. biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes B. biofilms on rocka provide food for animals C. compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics D. biofilma on medical implants cause infections E. biofilms in pipes block the flow of water

C. compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics

What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? A. bothe gram-positive and gram-negative B. none of these C. gram-positive D. can't tell E. gram-negative

C. gram-positive

You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You can conclude that it most likely A. moves by pseudopods B. has a cellulose cell wall C. has a peptidoglycan cell wall D. is part of a multicllular animal

C. has a peptidoglycan cell wall

A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a (n) __ A. virus B. alga C. helminth D. fungus E. bacterium

C. helminth

Identify the following reaction; lactose + H2O --> glucose + galactose A. dehydration synthesis reaction B. ionic reaction C. hydrolysis reaction D. exchange reaction E. reversible reaction

C. hydrolysis reaction

Which of the following is not true about beta oxidation? A. it is a method if catabolizing fatty acids B. none of these C. it is a step in glycolysis D. itinvolves the formation of 2 carbon units E. it involves the for mation of acetyl-CoA

C. it is a step in glycolysis

Which of the following is not true about photophosphorylation? A. the oxidation of carrier molecules releases energy B. energy fromoxidation reactions is used to generate ATP from ADP C. it requires CO2 D. light liberates an electron from chlorophyll E. it occurs in photosynthesizing cells

C. it requires CO2

Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to A. make their walls permeable B. all of these C. kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide D. kill the bacteria E. affix the cells to the slide

C. kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. weizmann- virology B. jacob and monod- microbial genetics C. lancefield- immunology D. jenner- immunology E. winogradsky- microbial energy

C. lancefield- immunology

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase' A. mRNA ⇒ protein B. None C. mRNA ⇒ cDNA D. DNA ⇒ RNA E. DNA ⇒ mRNA

C. mRNA ⇒ cDNA

Regarding the experiment that "proved" spontaneous generation, which of the following statements is probably true? A. Too much heat was applied B. the food source could not support life C. microorganisms was already present D. excess carbon dioxide was present E. air was lacking

C. microorganisms was already present

Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisoyope 32p . After a 48- hour incubation, the 32p would most likely be found in the S. cerevisiae's A. water B. carbohydrates C. plasma membrane D. proteins E. cell wall

C. plasma membrane

Regular use of antibacterial cleaning products A. prevents occurrence of infections B. prevents bacteria from growing C. promotes survival of bacteria that are resistant D. prevents occurence of infections, is necessary for good health, and prevents bacteria from growing E. is necessary for good health

C. promotes survival of bacteria that are resistant

Which of the following requirement was necessary for Pasteur to disaprove spontaneous generation? A) Air was lacking. B) Too much heat was applied. C) The food source could not support life. D) Microorganisms were already present. E) Excess carbon dioxide was present.

D) Microorganisms were already present.

Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A. Endemic - a disease that is constantly present in a population B. Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time C. Incidence - number of new cases of a disease D. Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time E. Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally

D. Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time

Nosocomial infections are most often caused by A. Enterococcus B. Klebsiella C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Escherichia coli E. Pseudomonas

D. Escherichia coli

Which of the following does not belong with the others? A. Plantae B. Animalia C. Helminth D. Fungi E. Protista

D. Fungi

Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans? A. Diatoms B. Dinoflagellates C. All of these produce compounds toxic to humans. D. Green algae E. Red algae

D. Green algae

Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt? A. Anaerobes B. Psychrophiles C. Thermophiles D. Halophiles E. None of these

D. Halophiles

A viral species is a group of viruses that A. Have the same morphology and nucleic acid. B. Infect the same cells and cause the same disease C. Can't be defined D. Have the same genetic information and ecological niche

D. Have the same genetic information and ecological niche

Symptoms of tetanus are due to A. Encapsulated Clostridium tetani B. The growth of Clostridium tetani in a wound C. An exotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani D. Hemolysins produced by Clostridium tetani E. All of these

D. Hemolysins produced by Clostridium tetani

DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of A. Herpesviridae B. Retroviridae C. Influenzavirus D. Hepadnaviridae E. Bacteriophage families

D. Hepadnaviridae

The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgE E. IgD

D. IgE

Which is a method of avoiding phagocytosis? A. Producing fimbriae B. Producing iron-binding proteins C. Producing toxins D. Inducing endocytosis E. Inducing TNF

D. Inducing endocytosis

Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a two-part exotoxin. The most likely pathologic effect of this toxin is A. Tetani or lockjaw B. A red rash C. Flaccid paralysis D. Inhibition of protein synthesis. E. The bacteria will be able to grow in phagocytes

D. Inhibition of protein synthesis.

Chemical signals sent between leukocytes are A. Colony-stimulating factor B. TCRs C. Tumor necrosis factor D. Interleukins E. Interferons

D. Interleukins

A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A A. Destroys host tissues B. All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence. C. Helps the bacterium attach D. Is toxic. E. Resists phagocytosis.

D. Is toxic.

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is false? A. It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics B. It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation C. It may be due to increased uptake of a drug D. It is found only in gram-negative bacteria E. It may be carried on a plasmid

D. It is found only in gram-negative bacteria

In a food chain consisting of the following, which acts as a producer? A. Slime molds B. Protozoa C. Fungi D. Lichens

D. Lichens

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Tick - Lyme disease B. Mosquito - encephalitis C. Mosquito - malaria D. Mosquito - Pneumocystis E. Tick - Rocky Mountain spotted fever

D. Mosquito - Pneumocystis

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the A. None of these B. Parenteral route C. Skin D. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract E. Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract

D. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

Which of the folowing is a base? A. H2O H+ + OH- B. C2H5OH C. C2H5OCOOH H+ + C2H5OCOO- D. NaOH Na+ + OH- E. H2CO

D. NaOH Na+ + OH-

Which of the following choices shows the order in which white blood cells migrate to infected tissues? A. Lymphocytes - macrophages B. Macrophages - monocytes C. Neutrophils - macrophages D. Neutrophils - monocytes E. Macrophages - neutrophils

D. Neutrophils - monocytes

Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A. Latent infection. B. Sporadic disease C. Communicable disease D. Nosocomial infection E. None of these

D. Nosocomial infection

Endotoxins are A. Associated with gram-positive bacteria B. Excreted from the cell. C. A-B toxins D. Part of the gram-negative cell wall E. Specific in their method of action.

D. Part of the gram-negative cell wall

Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A. Erythomycin B. Tetracycline C. Streptomycin D. Penicillin E. Chloramphenicol

D. Penicillin

An infectious protein is a A. Bacteriophage B. Retrovirus C. Viroid D. Prion E. None of these

D. Prion

Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to A. None of these B. Live C. Migrate D. Produce toxic oxygen products E. Move by chemotaxis

D. Produce toxic oxygen products

An oncogenic RNA virus must have which of the following enzymes? A. All of these B. Lysozyme C. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase D. Reverse transcriptase E. RNA polymerase

D. Reverse transcriptase

What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses? A. Different subtypes B. Attachment spikes C. Ease of transmission D. Segmented genome E. Worldwide distribution

D. Segmented genome

Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause A. Nerve damage B. Infection C. Giant cell formation D. Septic shock symptoms E. No damage, because they are sterile

D. Septic shock symptoms

the definition of osmostic pressure is A. the movement of a substance across a semi-permeable membrane from a higher to lower concentration B. the movement of solute molecules from a higher to lower concentration C. the movement of a solute molecules froma lower to high concentration across a semi-permeable membrane D. the force with which a solvent moves across a semi-membrane from a higher to lower concentration E. the active transport of a substance out of a cell to maintain equilibrium

D. the force with which a solvent moves across a semi-membrane from a higher to lower concentration

The best denfinition of biotechnology is A. the development of recombinant DNA technology B. the use of microorganisms in sewage treatment C. curing diseases D. the use of living organisms to make desired products E. all of these

D. the use of living organisms to make desired products

Which of the following is generally not true of a prokaryotic cell? A. they produce by binary fission B. they are mortile by means of flagella C. none of these D. they posses 80s ribosomes E. they have a semirigid cell wall

D. they posses 80s ribosomes

The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following EXCEPT A. precursors for synthesis of glucose B. NADPH C. percursors for the synthesis of amino acids D. three ATPs E. precursors for nucleic acids

D. three ATPs

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation A. replicates DNA B. None of these C. transfers DNA to RNA D. transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation E. transfers DNA vertically, to new cells

D. transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation

Which of the following pairs are mismatched? A. Hooke-cell theory B. None of these C.Pasteur-Fermentation D. van leeuwenhoek- germ theory E. lister- aspetic surgery

D. van leeuwenhoek- germ theory

Which of the following best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?A. sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration B. the cell will undergo osmotic lysis C. water will move into the cell D. water will move out of the cell E. no change will result the solution is isotonic

D. water will move out of the cell

Sructurally, ATP is most like this type of molecule A. carbohysrates B. proteins C.lipids D.nucleic acids E. none of these

D.nucleic acids

The apperance of the gram-negative bacteria after addiction of the decolorizing agent in the gram stain A. red B. purple C. brown D. none of these E. colorless

E. colorless

An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP; thi s is an example of all of the following except A. allosteric inhibition B. feedback inhibition C. noncompetitive inhibition D. none of these E. competitive inhibition

E. competitive inhibition

The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A. never repaired B. repaired during transcription C. repaired by DNA replication D. repaired during translation E. cut out and replaced

E. cut out and replaced

Identify the following reaction; glucose + fructose --> sucrose + water A. exchange reaction B. hydrolysis reaction C. ionic reaction D. reversible reaction E. dehydration synthesis reaction

E. dehydration synthesis reaction

You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus.You can safely assume that the cell A. lives in an extreme environment B. has a mitochondrion C. has a nucleus D. has 9 pairs + 2 flagella E. has a cell wall

E. has a cell wall

Fungi differ from bacteria in that fungi A. have cell walls B. are cellular C. have DNA D. spoil food E. have a nucleus

E. have a nucleus

What type of bond between the hydrogen of one molecule and the nitrogen of another molecule? A. disulfide bond B. ionic bond C. none of these D. covalent bond E. hydrogen bond

E. hydrogen bond

Identify the following reaction; sucrose + H2O --> glucose + fructose A. reversible reaction B. dehydration sythesis reaction C. covalent reaction D. exchange reaction E. hydrolysis reaction

E. hydrolysis reaction

Which of the following is not a method of culturing viruses? A. in embryonated eggs B. in laboratory animals C. in cell culture D. None of these E. in culture media

E. in culture media

Which of the following is not true about anaerobic respiration? A. it involves the Krebs cycle B. it is oxidized in the electron transport chain C. it is catabolized in glycolysis D. it requires cytochromes E. it involves glycolysis only

E. it involves glycolysis only

You are looking at a white cottony growth on a culture medium. Microscopic examination reveals it is multicellular. Which of the following conclusions about the organism is false? A. it has DNA enclosed in a nucleus B. it absorbs organic nutrients C. it is eukaryotic D. it has cell walls E. it is a bacterium

E. it is a bacterium

Who proved that microorganisms cause disease? A. none of these B. van leeuwenhoek C. hooke D.pasteur E. koch

E. koch

During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?A. All phase B. death phase C. Lag phase D. Stationary phase E. log phase

E. log phase

When glucose is high, cAMP is ________ : CAP ________ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase ________ bind the lac promoter. A. low, does, doesnt B. low, does, doesC. high, doesnt, does D. high, does, does E. low, doesnt, doesnt

E. low, doesnt, doesnt

Which molecule has chemicals in genes? A. none of these B. proteins C. lipids D. carbohydrates E. nucleic acid

E. nucleic acid

Cyanobacteria are an example of this type A. photoheterotroph B. none of these C. chemoautotroph D. chemoheterotroph E. photoautotroph

E. photoautotroph

Which organism is not correctly matched to its energy source? A. chemoheterotroph - glucose B. chemoautotroph - Fe2+ C. photoheterotroph - light D. chemoautotroph - NH3 E. photoautotroph - CO2

E. photoautotroph - CO2

Which of the following is not an edn product of fermentation? A. lactic acid B. ethyl alcohol C. acetone D. glycerol E. pyruvic acid

E. pyruvic acid

According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the A. Repressor must not be synthesized B. substrate must bind to the enzyme C. Repressor must bind to the operator D. end-product must not be in excess E. substrate must bind to the repressor

E. substrate must bind to the repressor

What will heppen if a bacterial cell is placed in distilled water with lysozyme? A. lysozyme will diffuse into the cell B. no change will result; the solution is isotonic C. water will leave the cell D. the cell will plasmolyze E. the cell will undergo osmotic lysis

E. the cell will undergo osmotic lysis

Which of the following statments about insect control by microorganism is true? A. The microorganisms may cause disease in other animals B. the technique is just as dangerous as the use o chemical pesticides C. the insects develop resistance to microorganisms D. the microorganisms are permanent in the enviornment E. the microorganisms are specific for the insect pests

E. the microorganisms are specific for the insect pests

All the following are true about substrate-level phosphorylation except A. all of these are true B. no final electron acceptor is required C. it occurs in glycolysis D. it involves the direct transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from an intermediate metabolic compound to ADP E. the oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP

E. the oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP

Which of the following statements is true? A. protozoa have rigid cell walls B. bacteria cannot move C. fungi are plants D. algae are parasites E. viruses cannot reproduce outside of a host cell

E. viruses cannot reproduce outside of a host cell

Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? A. Erythrocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Basophils D. Eosinophils E.Neutrophils

E.Neutrophils

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by A. the substrate binding to the repressor B. the corepressor binding to the operator C. the end-product binding to the promoter D. the allosteric transition E.the corepressor-repressor binding to the operator

E.the corepressor-repressor binding to the operator

Which one of the following statements about measles is true? a. Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide b. It is not a serious disease c. All children should get the disease d. It is not preventable e. It is endemic in the United States

a. Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide

Antibodies against HIV are ineffective for all of the following reasons except a. Antibodies aren't made against HIV b. Antigenic change c. Latency d. Virus particles staying in vesicles e. Transmission by cell-to-cell fusion

a. Antibodies aren't made against HIV

Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus elicit a(n) a. Antibody response against these bacterial toxins b. Immune complex c. Antibody response against gram-positive bacteria d. TC cell response e. Dendritic cell proliferation

a. Antibody response against these bacterial toxins

Desensitization involves injection of a. Antigens b. Histamine c. IgG antibodies d. Antihistamine e. IgE antibodies

a. Antigens

Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages? a. Bordetella pertussis b. Respiratory syncytial virus c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

a. Bordetella pertussis

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n) a. Conjugated vaccine b. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine c. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine d. Toxoid vaccine e. Subunit vaccine

a. Conjugated vaccine

Haemophilus influenzae b capsular polysaccharide with a protein is a(n) a. Conjugated vaccine b. Subunit vaccine c. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine d. Nucleic acid vaccine e. Toxoid vaccine

a. Conjugated vaccine

You are trying to identify the cause of a patient's middle ear infection. After 24 hours, there is no growth on blood agar incubated aerobically at 37°C. Your next step is to try again, a. Incubating anaerobically b. Incubating at 45°C c. Incubating at 25°C d. Using nutrient agar e. Then give up.

a. Incubating anaerobically

A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient is the a. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test b. Hemagglutination-inhibition test c. Direct agglutination test d. Direct ELISA test e. Direct fluorescent-antibody test

a. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test

Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it a. Makes NH3 b. Hides in macrophages c. Makes HCl d. Invades epithelial cells e. Makes a capsule

a. Makes NH3

HIV is transmitted by all of the following except a. Mosquitoes b. Homosexual activity c. Heterosexual activity d. Hypodermic needles e. Human milk

a. Mosquitoes

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be any of the following EXCEPT a. Mumps virus b. Rickettsia c. Borrelia d. Streptococcus e. Treponema

a. Mumps virus

A hypersensitivity reaction occurs a. On a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen b. In immunology tolerant individuals c. During the first exposure to an antigen d. During autoimmune diseases e. In individuals with diseases of the immune system

a. On a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen

A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by a. Propionibacterium acnes b. Herpes simplex virus c. Pimples d. Acanthamoeba e. Boils

a. Propionibacterium acnes

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Propionibacterium acnes - pimples b. Str. pyogenes - toxic shock syndrome c. Streptococcus pyogenes - erysipelas d. Staphylococcus aureus - impetigo e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - otitis externa

a. Propionibacterium acnes - pimples

Patient's serum, Rickettsia, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has epidemic typhus? a. Rickettsia grow b. Hemolysis occurs c. Hemagglutination occurs d. Bacteria fluoresce e. Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs

a. Rickettsia grow

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to a. Sensitized T cells b. IgM antibodies c. IgG antibodies d. IgE antibodies e. Activated macrophages

a. Sensitized T cells

Treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is a. Tetanus immune globulin b. DTaP c. Tetanus toxoid d. Penicillin e. Debridement

a. Tetanus immune globulin

Clinical AIDs is diagnosed when a. The CD4 T-cell count is < 200/mm3 b. The patient has persistent diarrhea c. The patient has antibodies against HIV d. A patient has lymphadenopathy e. HIV is found in a patient by Western blotting

a. The CD4 T-cell count is < 200/mm3

Patients with leprosy usually die from a. Brain damage b. Tuberculosis c. Leprosy d. Influenza e. Loss of nerve function

b. Tuberculosis

Epidemics of bacterial infections of the digestive system are transmitted by a. Water b. Food c. The respiratory route d. Milk e. All of these

a. Water

Which one of the following is NOT transmitted by water? a. Salmonella b. Trichinella c. Cyclospora d. Cryptosporidium e. Hepatitis A virus

b. Trichinella

Situation 22.1 On July 5, an 11-year-old girl complained of pain in the knuckles of her left hand. During July 6-7, she had increasing pain that extended up to the left shoulder. A throat culture was obtained, and amoxicillin was prescribed. On July 9, she had difficulty walking and hallucinations. The throat culture was positive forStreptococcus pyogenes. She was treated with ceftriaxone. On July 11, she was hospitalized with a temperature of 40.7°C, and she could not drink. She developed respiratory distress and tachycardia; she died from cardiac arrest. Fluorescent-antibody testing of brain tissue revealed inclusions in the brain stem.In Situation 22.1, the antibiotics did not cure her disease because the pathogen was a. Part of her normal microbiota b. A virus c. Already growing in her brain d. Protected by the blood-brain barrier e. Resistant to antibiotics

b. A virus

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n) a. Precipitation reaction b. Agglutination reaction. c. Immunofluorescence d. Complement fixation. e. Neutralization reaction

b. Agglutination reaction.

Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? a. Rhizopus b. All of these c. Mucor d. Pneumocystis e. Aspergillus

b. All of these

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females? a. The length of the urethra b. All of these are predisposing factors c. Sexual intercourse d. The proximity of the anus to the urethra e. Poor personal hygiene

b. All of these are predisposing factors

Hypersensitivity is due to a. Immunity b. An altered immune response c. The presence of an antigen d. The presence of antibodies e. A and D

b. An altered immune response

Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh-? a. Anti-B b. Anti-A c. Anti-A, anti-Rh d. Anti-B, anti-Rh e. Anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh

b. Anti-A

A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by a. Varicella-zoster virus b. Candida albicans c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Herpes simplex virus e. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Candida albicans

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following organisms could NOT be responsible for her symptoms? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Clostridium botulinum c. Any of these could be the causative agent d. Naegleria fowleri e. Streptococcus pneumoniae

b. Clostridium botulinum

Which of the following is NOT an intracellular parasite? a. RSV b. Coccidioides c. Coxiella d. Influenzavirus e. Chlamydophila

b. Coccidioides

The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to a. Antibodies against self b. Complement fixation c. Cytokines d. Destruction of the antigen e. Phagocytosis

b. Complement fixation

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by a. Enterococcus b. E. coli c. Proteus d. Pseudomonas e. Klebsiella

b. E. coli

Which of the following feeds on red blood cells? a. Taenia spp b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus e. Giardia lamblia

b. Entamoeba histolytica

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably a. Giardia lamblia b. Escherichia coli c. Shigella spp. d. Campylobacter jejuni e. Salmonella enterica

b. Escherichia coli

A vaccine to provide active immunity to serum hepatitis is prepared from a. Pooled gamma globulin b. Genetically modified yeast c. Viral particles in patients d. Viruses grown in embryonated eggs e. Viruses grown in tissue culture

b. Genetically modified yeast

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for periodontal disease? a. Gram-negative cocci b. Gram-positive rods c. Gram-positive cocci d. Gram-negative rods e. Gingivirus

b. Gram-positive rods

Which one of the following statements about HIV is not true? a. Bone marrow can be a reservoir for future infection b. HIV infection directly causes death c. The T-cell response triggers viral multiplication d. Viral infection of TH cells results in signs elsewhere in the patient e. HIV can be transmitted by cell-to-cell contact

b. HIV infection directly causes death

A 1-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Capsulated gram-negative rods were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Rabies d. A prion e. Clostridium tetani

b. Haemophilus influenzae

Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications a. Are accompanied by fever b. Have shorter incubation times c. Are transmitted via water d. Are more severe e. Are treated with antibiotics

b. Have shorter incubation times

Which of the following does NOT cause pneumonia? a. Mycoplasma b. Histoplasma c. Haemophilus d. RSV e. Legionella

b. Histoplasma

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of a. Immunosuppression b. Immune complex autoimmunity c. Acquired immunodeficiency d. Cytotoxic autoimmunity e. Cell-mediated autoimmunity

b. Immune complex autoimmunity

An indirect version of which test using antihuman globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against Treponema pallidum? a. Neutralization reaction b. Immunofluorescence c. Precipitation reaction d. Complement fixation e. Agglutination reaction

b. Immunofluorescence

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n) a. Conjugated vaccine b. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine c. Toxoid vaccine. d. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine e. Subunit vaccine

b. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine

Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is false? a. It can be caused by C. trachomatis b. It affects men and women equally c. It can cause sterility and chronic pain d. It can be transmitted sexually e. It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae

b. It affects men and women equally

Which of the following statements about Haemophilus influenzae is false? a. A healthy carrier state can exist b. It is used in a whole bacterial vaccine c. It is encapsulated d. It requires a blood supplement in media e. It usually infects children

b. It is used in a whole bacterial vaccine

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism? a. Streptococcus b. Listeria c. Naegleria Neisseria d. Haemophilus

b. Listeria

Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium? a. Tickborne typhus b. Malaria c. Plague d. Epidemic typhus e. Relapsing fever

b. Malaria

Which one of the following organisms does NOT belong with the others? a. Pneumocystis b. Mycobacterium c. Blastomyces d. Histoplasma e. Coccidioides

b. Mycobacterium

Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract? a. Streptococcus b. Mycoplasma c. Mycobacterium d. Legionella e. Chlamydophila

b. Mycoplasma

The etiologic agent of warts is a. Parvovirus b. Papovavirus c. Poxvirus d. Herpesvirus e. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Papovavirus

Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres? a. Immunofluorescence b. Passive agglutination reaction c. Direct agglutination reaction d. Neutralization reaction e. Precipitation reaction

b. Passive agglutination reaction

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis? a. Forms endospores b. Produces endotoxins c. Aerobic d. Found in soil e. Gram-positive

b. Produces endotoxins c. Aerobic

Which of the following is NOT transmitted by the respiratory route? a. Chickenpox b. Trichophyton c. Smallpox d. Measles e. Rubella

b. Trichophyton

Which of the following is treated with antibiotics? a. Polio b. Streptococcal pneumonia c. All of these d. Tetanus e. Botulism

b. Streptococcal pneumonia

Which of the following is most susceptible to destruction by phagocytes? a. Chlamydophila psittaci b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Histoplasma capsulatum d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Influenza virus

b. Streptococcus pyogenes

A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n) a. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine b. Subunit vaccine c. Conjugated vaccine d. Nucleic acid vaccine e. Toxoid vaccine

b. Subunit vaccine

Which of the following statements about rabies is false? a. It is not fatal in bats b. The reservoir is mainly rodents c. It is caused by Rhabdovirus d. Hydrophobia is an early symptom e. Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques

b. The reservoir is mainly rodents

Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection?' a. Not contagious b. Treatable with penicillin c. Transmitted by ticks d. Affected mostly children e. Accompanied by a rash

b. Treatable with penicillin

A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to a. Candida albicans b. Varicella-zoster virus c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Herpes simplex virus

b. Varicella-zoster virus

Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with a. Thorough cooking b. Water and electrolytes c. Penicillin d. Antitoxin e. Quinacrine

b. Water and electrolytes

Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a. An Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus b. A blood transfusion c. A bone marrow transplant d. A skin graft e. The proteins of the complement system

c. A bone marrow transplant

Most bacteria associated with teeth and gums are a. None of these b. Aerobes c. Anaerobes d. Facultative anaerobes

c. Anaerobes

Which of the following is NOT normally used in a vaccine? a. Live, attenuated bacteria b. Toxoid c. Antibodies d. Parts of bacterial cells e. Inactivated viruses

c. Antibodies

Live polio virus can be used in a(n) a. Conjugated vaccine b. Toxoid vaccine c. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine d. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine e. Subunit vaccine

c. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine

Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? a. Chancroid b. Genital herpes c. Candidiasis d. Trichomoniasis e. Gonorrhea

c. Candidiasis

Which of the following uses red blood cells as the indicator? a. Neutralization b. Agglutination c. Complement fixation d. Precipitation e. Flow cytometry

c. Complement fixation

A reaction using red blood cells as the indicator and hemolysis indicates an antigen-antibody reaction is called a(n) a. Agglutination reaction b. Precipitation reaction c. Complement fixation. d. Neutralization reaction. e. Immunofluorescence

c. Complement fixation.

A diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by a. Patient's death b. Gram stain. c. Direct fluorescent-antibody test d. Passive agglutination e. Patient's symptoms

c. Direct fluorescent-antibody test

A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient is the a. Hemagglutination-inhibition b. Indirect ELISA c. Direct fluorescent-antibody test d. Hemagglutination e. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test

c. Direct fluorescent-antibody test

All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura.Which occurs first? a. Antibodies are made against the drug b. Complement is fixed c. Drug binds to platelets d. Platelets are destroyed

c. Drug binds to platelets

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are a. Antibodies b. The proteins of the complement system c. Found in basophils and mast cells. d. Antigens e. Antigen-antibody complexes

c. Found in basophils and mast cells.

Which of the following is diagnosed by the presence of flagellated protozoa in the patient's feces? a. Cyclospora infection b. Cryptosporidiosis c. Giardiasis d. Trichinellosis e. Cholera

c. Giardiasis

Bioweapons a. Are impossible to detect b. Are not susceptible to antibiotics c. Have been used for centuries d. Are all respiratory pathogens e. Are all viruses

c. Have been used for centuries

The etiologic agent of fever blisters is a. HHV-6. b. Parvovirus c. Herpes simplex. d. Herpes zoster e. Poxvirus

c. Herpes simplex.

Which of the following involves a monoclonal anti-tumor antibody and a toxin? a. Immunologic surveillance b. Immunosuppression c. Immunotherapy d. None of these e. Immunologic enhancement

c. Immunotherapy

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of a. Candida b. Mycobacterium c. Lactobacillus d. Streptococcus e. Neisseria

c. Lactobacillus

Which one of the following statements about HIV is false? a. Bone marrow can be a reservoir for future infection b. HIV can be transmitted by cell-to-cell contact c. Long-term nonprogessors lack CD4 molecules d. Viral infection of TH cells results in signs elsewhere in the patient e. CD8+ T cells decrease the viral load

c. Long-term nonprogessors lack CD4 molecules

Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones? a. Treponema pallidum b. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Haemophilus ducreyi e. Mycoplasma hominis

c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? a. Immunodeficiency b. Asthma c. Shock d. Hay fever e. Hives

c. Shock

Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n) a. Toxoid vaccine b. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine c. Subunit vaccine d. Conjugated vaccine e. Inactivated whole-agent vaccine

c. Subunit vaccine

Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by a. Dog flea b. Wounds c. The respiratory route d. Rat flea e. Unsanitary conditions

c. The respiratory route

All of the following statements about type IV hypersensitivities are true except a. They contribute to the symptoms of certain diseases b. The symptoms are due to lymphokines c. They can be passively transferred with serum d. They are cell mediated e. The symptoms occur within a few days after exposure to an antigen

c. They can be passively transferred with serum

Which of the following blood transfusions are incompatible? a. 1,2, and 3 b. 2 and 5 c. 1 and 2 d. 2,3, and 5 e. 3 and 4

d. 2,3, and 5

Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and used the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for a. Conidiospores b. Pseudohyphae c. Pseudopods d. A coagulase reaction e. An acid-fast reaction

d. A coagulase reaction

Which of the following CANNOT lead to an outbreak of botulism? a. An anaerobic environment b. Eating food from dented cans c. An incubation period d. A nutrient medium with a pH below 4.5 e. Killing bacteria that compete with Clostridium

d. A nutrient medium with a pH below 4.5

All of the following are disadvantages of a live virus vaccine except a. None of these b. The live vaccine may revert to a more virulent form c. Exogenous protein contaminants may be present d. Antibody response is not as good as with inactivated viruses e. Live viruses generally require refrigeration

d. Antibody response is not as good as with inactivated viruses

Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test? a. Substrate for the enzyme b. Antibodies against the antigen c. Antihuman immune serum d. Antigen

d. Antigen

The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to a. Lack of naturally acquired active immunity b. The Guillain-Barré syndrome c. Lack of antiviral drugs d. Antigenic shift e. HA spikes

d. Antigenic shift

Which of the following CANNOT lead to a positive tuberculin skin test? a. Previous tuberculosis infection b. Immunity to tuberculosis c. Vaccination d. Being near someone with tuberculosis e. Current tuberculosis infection

d. Being near someone with tuberculosis

For which of the following is a vaccine NOT available? a. Haemophilus meningitis b. Rabies c. Tetanus d. Botulism e. Neisseria meningitis

d. Botulism

Which of the following organisms does NOT cause meningitis? a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Mycobacterium leprae e. Cryptococcus neoformans

d. Mycobacterium leprae

Mycoplasmal pneumonia differs from viral pneumonia in that a. The symptoms are distinctly different b. Mycoplasmal pneumonia doesn't have any known etiologic agent c. Viral pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines d. Mycoplasmal pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines e. Mycoplasma can't be cultured

d. Mycoplasmal pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines

Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis? a. Chlamydia b. Ureaplasma c. All of these cause NGU d. Neisseria e. Mycoplasma

d. Neisseria

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n) a. Neutralization reaction. b. Immunofluorescence c. Complement fixation d. Precipitation reaction. e. Agglutination reaction

d. Precipitation reaction.

You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because a. She could give the cat tularemia b. She could get listeriosis c. She could contract plague d. She could get toxoplasmosis e. You don't like cats and want to see your friend without one

d. She could get toxoplasmosis

Which of these is NOT caused by herpesvirus? a. Roseola b. Chickenpox c. Keratitis d. Smallpox e. Shingles

d. Smallpox

Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT a. Trichinellosis b. Salmonellosis c. Shigellosis d. Staphylococcal food poisoning e. Beef tapeworm

d. Staphylococcal food poisoning

In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by a. Ingesting the eggs of Taenia saginata b. Ingesting contaminated water c. Ingesting segments of adult tapeworms d. Ingesting contaminated definitive hosts e. Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host

e. Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host

Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is false? a. It is caused by health care personnel b. It is a complication of abortion or childbirth c. It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques d. It begins as a focal infection e. It is transmitted from mother to fetus

e. It is transmitted from mother to fetus

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Small intestine and Large intestine d. Mouth e. Large intestine

e. Large intestine

A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely has a. Anthrax b. Malaria c. Schistosomiasis d. Brucellosis e. Leishmaniasis

e. Leishmaniasis

Which of the following does NOT produce an exotoxin? a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae b. All of these produce an exotoxin c. Bordetella pertussis d. Streptococcus pygogenes e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

The outcome of an HIV infection could be all of the following except a. TC-killing of infected cells b. Latency c. Viral-killing of infected cells d. Slow production of new viruses e. None of these

e. None of these

The etiologic agent of fifth disease is a. HHV-6 b. Herpes zoster c. Herpes simplex d. Poxvirus e. Parvovirus

e. Parvovirus

Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in patient's saliva? a. Passive agglutination reaction b. Immunofluorescence c. Direct agglutination reaction d. Neutralization reaction e. Precipitation reaction

e. Precipitation reaction

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Melioidosis - Burkholderia b. Psittacosis- Chlamydia c. Epiglottitis- Haemophilus d. Whooping cough- Bordetella e. Q fever- Rickettsia

e. Q fever- Rickettsia

Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes a. Agglutination b. None of these c. Lysis of the cells d. Complement fixation e. Release of chemical mediators

e. Release of chemical mediators

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by a. Vibrio cholerae b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Clostridium perfringens d. Shigella spp e. Salmonellaenterica

e. Salmonellaenterica

Which of the following is NOT normal microbiota of the skin? a. Pityrosporum b. Corynebacterium c. Staphylococcus d. Propionibacterium e. Streptococcus

e. Streptococcus

Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is a(n) a. Nucleic acid vaccine b. Toxoid vaccine c. Conjugated vaccine d. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine e. Subunit vaccine

e. Subunit vaccine

What type of vaccine is Streptococcus pyogenes capsule? a. Nucleic acid vaccine b. Attenuated whole-agent vaccine c. Conjugated vaccine d. Toxoid vaccine e. Subunit vaccine

e. Subunit vaccine

Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent? a. Candidiasis b. Gonorrhea c. Nongonococcal urethritis d. Lymphogranuloma venereum e. Syphilis

e. Syphilis

Delayed hypersensitivities are due to a. Antibodies against self b. Platelets c. IgG antibodies d. IgE antibodies e. T cells

e. T cells

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse? a. Shigella b. Salmonella c. Staphylococcus d. Entamoeba e. Trichinella

e. Trichinella

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Chancroid - gram-negative rod b. Gonorrhea - gram-negative cocci c. Syphilis - gram-negative spirochete d. Gardnerella - clue cells e. Trichomoniasis - fungus

e. Trichomoniasis - fungus

Which of the following is treated with tetracycline? a. Infectious hepatitis b. Staphylococcal food poisoning c. Trichinellosis d. Escherichia coli gastroenteritis e. Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis

e. Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis