Unit 6 Cirrhosis, Lupus, Kidney Failure, Menopause

A licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) is caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which observation by the RN requires an intervention? a. The LPN/LVN administers the erythropoietin subcutaneously. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate out in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN administers the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch. d. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patient's room.

ANS: C Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency.

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about normal AVG function. b. Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. c. Report the patient's symptoms to the health care provider. d. Elevate the patient's arm on pillows to above the heart level.

ANS: C The patient's complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will further decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts.

A 45-year-old client is scheduled to undergo a hysterectomy and expresses concern because she has heard from friends that she will experience severe symptoms of menopause after surgery. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? 1 "You're right, but there are medicines you can take that will ease the symptoms." 2 "Sometimes that happens in women of your age, but you don't need to worry about it right now." 3 "You should probably talk to your surgeon, because I am not allowed to discuss this with you." 4 "Women may experience symptoms of menopause if their ovaries are removed with their uterus."

4 A hysterectomy involves only removal of the uterus. The ovaries, which secrete estrogen and progesterone, are not removed. Therefore menopause will not be precipitated but will occur naturally. Surgical menopause is precipitated by the removal of the ovaries, not the uterus. When the ovaries are removed, an older woman might have less severe symptoms than a younger woman; however, in this instance the ovaries are not removed. Telling the client that she needs to talk to her surgeon does not answer the question. The nurse should serve as a resource.

A nurse is providing counseling to a client with the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which recommendations are essential for the nurse to include? Select all that apply. 1 "Wear a large-brimmed hat." 2 "Take your temperature daily." 3 "Balance periods of rest and activity." 4 "Use a strong soap when washing the skin." 5 "Expose the skin to the sun as often as possible."

1,2,3 A fever is the major sign of an exacerbation. A balance of rest and activity conserves energy and limits fatigue. Malaise, fatigue, and joint pain are associated with SLE. SLE can cause alopecia, and hair care recommendations include the use of mild protein shampoos and avoidance of harsh treatments, like permanents or highlights, and use of large-brimmed hat for skin protection. Mild, not strong, soap and other skin products should be used on the skin. The skin should be washed, rinsed, and dried well and lotion should be applied. Exposing the skin to the sun as often as possible is not recommended. Exposure to ultraviolet light may damage the skin and aggravate the photosensitivity associated with SLE.

When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site. b. Assess the quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

ANS: A The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

A school-age child is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse should plan to implement which interventions for this child (Select all that apply)? a. Instructions to avoid exposure to sunlight b. Teaching about body changes associated with SLE c. Preparation for home schooling d. Restricted activity

ANS: A, B Key issues for a child with SLE include therapy compliance; body-image problems associated with rash, hair loss, and steroid therapy; school attendance; vocational activities; social relationships; sexual activity; and pregnancy. Specific instructions for avoiding exposure to the sun and ultraviolet B light, such as using sunscreens, wearing sun-resistant clothing, and altering outdoor activities, must be provided with great sensitivity to ensure compliance while minimizing the associated feeling of being different from peers. The child should continue school attendance in order to gain interaction with peers and activity should not be restricted, but promoted.

Which nonhormonal therapies will the nurse suggest for a healthy perimenopausal patient who prefers not to use hormone replacement therapy (HRT) (select all that apply)? a. Reduce caffeine intake. b. Exercise several times a week. c. Take black cohosh supplements. d. Drink a glass of wine in the evening. e. Increase intake of dietary soy products.

ANS: A, B, C, E Reduction in caffeine intake, use of black cohosh, increasing dietary soy intake, and exercising three to four times weekly are recommended to reduce symptoms associated with menopause. Alcohol intake in the evening may increase the sleep problems associated with menopause.

Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis (select all that apply)? a. Avoid commercial salt substitutes. b. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL daily. c. Take phosphate binders with each meal. d. Choose high-protein foods for most meals. e. Have several servings of dairy products daily.

ANS: A, C, D Patients who are receiving peritoneal dialysis should have a high-protein diet. Phosphate binders are taken with meals to help control serum phosphate and calcium levels. Commercial salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Fluid intake is not limited unless weight and blood pressure are not controlled. Dairy products are high in phosphate and usually are limited.

Which result for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) d. Positive lupus erythematosus cell prep

ANS: B Elevated BUN and serum creatinine indicate possible lupus nephritis and a need for a change in therapy to avoid further renal damage. The positive lupus erythematosus cell prep and ANA would be expected in a patient with SLE. A drop in CRP shows decreased inflammation.

Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy? a. Request that the patient stand on one foot. b. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward. c. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed. d. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.

ANS: B Extending the arms allows the nurse to check for asterixis, a classic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. The other tests might also be done as part of the neurologic assessment but would not be diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy.

The nurse is titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider? a. Heart rate c. Creatinine clearance b. Urine output d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

ANS: B Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. The other data will be monitored but are not the most important determinants of fluid infusion rate.

A patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient to cough every hour. b. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath. c. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours. d. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea.

ANS: B The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. In addition, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Coughing increases the pressure on the varices and increases the risk for bleeding. Balloon position is verified after insertion and does not require further verification. Balloons may be deflated briefly every 8 to 12 hours to avoid tissue necrosis, but if only the gastric balloon is deflated, the esophageal balloon may occlude the airway. Balloons are not deflated for nausea

A 74-yr-old patient who is progressing to stage 5 chronic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Do you think I should go on dialysis? Which initial response by the nurse is best? a. "It depends on which type of dialysis you are considering." b. "Tell me more about what you are thinking regarding dialysis." c. "You are the only one who can make the decision about dialysis." d. "Many people your age use dialysis and have a good quality of life."

ANS: B The nurse should initially clarify the patient's concerns and questions about dialysis. The patient is the one responsible for the decision, and many people using dialysis do have good quality of life, but these responses block further assessment of the patient's concerns. Referring to which type of dialysis the patient might use only indirectly responds to the patient's question.

Which intervention will be included in the plan of care for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a temporary vascular access catheter in the left femoral vein? a. Start continuous pulse oximetry. b. Restrict physical activity to bed rest. c. Restrict the patient's oral protein intake. d. Discontinue the urethral retention catheter.

ANS: B The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

During routine hemodialysis, a patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Check the blood pressure (BP). c. Review the hematocrit (Hct) level. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

ANS: B The patient's complaints of nausea and dizziness suggest hypotension, so the initial action should be to check the BP. The other actions may also be appropriate based on the blood pressure obtained.

To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor a. bilirubin levels. c. potassium levels. b. ammonia levels. d. prothrombin time.

ANS: B The protein in the blood in the gastrointestinal tract will be absorbed and may result in an increase in the ammonia level because the liver cannot metabolize protein very well. The prothrombin time, bilirubin, and potassium levels should also be monitored, but they will not be affected by the bleeding episode.

A patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis. c. Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis. d. Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis.

ANS: B When the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes

Autoimmune disorders often occur during pregnancy because a large percentage of women with an autoimmune disorder are of childbearing age. Identify all disorders that fall into the category of collagen vascular disease. a. Multiple sclerosis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Antiphospholipid syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Myasthenia gravis

ANS: B, C, D, E Multiple sclerosis is not an autoimmune disorder. This patchy demyelinization of the spinal cord may be a viral disorder. Autoimmune disorders (collagen vascular disease) make up a large group of conditions that disrupt the function of the immune system of the body. They include those listed, as well as systemic sclerosis.

A 38-yr-old patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone . Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Skin is thin and fragile. c. A nontender axillary lump. b. Blood pressure is 150/92. d. Blood glucose is 144 mg/dL.

ANS: C A nontender lump suggests a malignancy such as a lymphoma, which could occur as a result of chronic immunosuppressive therapy. The elevated glucose, skin change, and hypertension are possible side effects of the prednisone and should be addressed, but they are not as great a concern as the possibility of a malignancy.

A patient is considering the use of combined estrogen-progesterone hormone replacement therapy (HRT) during menopause. Which information will the nurse include during their discussion? a. Use of estrogen-containing vaginal creams provides the same benefits as oral HRT. b. Increased risk of colon cancer in women taking HRT requires frequent colonoscopy. c. HRT decreases osteoporosis risk and increases the risk for cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. d. Use of HRT for up to 10 years to prevent symptoms such as hot flashes is generally considered safe.

ANS: C Data from the Women's Health Initiative indicate an increased risk for cardiovascular disease and breast cancer in women taking combination HRT but a decrease in hip fractures. Vaginal creams decrease symptoms related to vaginal atrophy and dryness, but they do not offer the other benefits of HRT, such as decreased hot flashes. Most women who use HRT are placed on short-term treatment and are not treated for up to 10 years. The incidence of colon cancer decreases in women taking HRT.

Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices? a. The medication will reduce the risk for aspiration. b. The medication will inhibit development of gastric ulcers. c. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins. d. The medication will decrease nausea and improve the appetite.

ANS: C Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acid gastric contents. Although ranitidine does decrease the risk for peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, these are not the primary purposes for H2-receptor blockade in this patient

A 37-yr-old female patient is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function? a. Urine volume c. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) b. Creatinine level d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

ANS: C GFR is the preferred method for evaluating kidney function. BUN levels can fluctuate based on factors such as fluid volume status and protein intake. Urine output can be normal or high in patients with AKI and does not accurately reflect kidney function. Creatinine alone is not an accurate reflection of renal function.

A 55-yr-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information should the nurse report to the health care provider before giving the medication? a. Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

ANS: C High hemoglobin levels are associated with a higher rate of thromboembolic events and increased risk of death from serious cardiovascular events (heart attack, heart failure, stroke) when erythropoietin (EPO) is administered to a target hemoglobin of greater than 12 g/dL. Hemoglobin levels higher than 12 g/dL indicate a need for a decrease in epoetin alfa dose. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider but will not affect whether the medication is administered.

Which menu choice by the patient who is receiving hemodialysis indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful? a. Split-pea soup, English muffin, and nonfat milk b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Poached eggs, whole-wheat toast, and apple juice d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

ANS: C Poached eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup is high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and cream is high in phosphate

A new clinic patient with joint swelling and pain is being tested for systemic lupus erythematosus. Which test will provide the most specific findings for the nurse to review? a. Rheumatoid factor (RF) b. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) c. Anti-Smith antibody (Anti-Sm) d. Lupus erythematosus (LE) cell prep

ANS: C The anti-Sm is antibody found almost exclusively in SLE. The other blood tests are also used in screening but are not as specific to SLE.

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine volume c. Cardiac rhythm b. Calcium level d. Neurologic status

ANS: C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.

Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago? a. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa c. Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) b. Crackles at bilateral lung bases d. No bowel movement for 4 days

ANS: C The risk of infection is high in the first few months after liver transplant, and fever is frequently the only sign of infection. The other patient data indicate the need for further assessment or nursing actions and might be communicated to the health care provider, but they do not indicate a need for urgent action.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first? a. A 40-yr-old patient with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain b. A 58-yr-old patient who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia c. A 55-yr-old patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102° F (38.8° C) d. A 36-yr-old patient recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

ANS: C This patient's history and fever suggest possible spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which would require rapid assessment and interventions such as antibiotic therapy. The clinical manifestations for the other patients are consistent with their diagnoses and do not indicate complications are occurring.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Document the QRS interval measurement. c. Review the chart for the patient's current creatinine level. d. Check the medical record for the most recent potassium level.

ANS: D The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patient's health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with AKI, but they would not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG). Documentation of the QRS interval is also appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening dysrhythmias.

Which focused data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Hemoglobin c. Activity level b. Temperature d. Albumin level

ANS: D The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. The other parameters are not directly associated with the patient's edema.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange b. Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level c. Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L d. Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis and has a heart rate of 124/min

ANS: D The patient who has tachycardia after hemodialysis may be bleeding or excessively hypovolemic and should be assessed immediately for these complications. The other patients also need assessments or interventions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications

A patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Restrict daily dietary protein intake. b. Reposition the patient every 4 hours. c. Perform passive range of motion twice daily. d. Place the patient on a pressure-relief mattress.

ANS: D The pressure-relieving mattress will decrease the risk for skin breakdown for this patient. Adequate dietary protein intake is necessary in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours will not be adequate to maintain skin integrity. Passive range of motion will not take the pressure off areas such as the sacrum that are vulnerable to breakdown.

A client with biliary cirrhosis receives serum albumin therapy. What is the most effective method for the nurse to evaluate the client's response to therapy? 1 Weight daily 2 Vital signs frequently 3 Urine output every half hour 4 Urine albumin level every shift

1 The increased osmotic effect of therapy increases the intravascular volume and urinary output; weight loss reflects fluid loss. The vital signs will not change drastically; "frequently" is a nonspecific timeframe. The urinary output is measured hourly; half-hour outputs are insignificant in this instance. A serum, not urine, albumin level is significant; albumin in the urine indicates kidney dysfunction, not liver dysfunction.

The nurse is teaching a client with decreased ovarian production of estrogen due to menopause about self-management and prevention of complications. Which actions performed by the client would help to reduce the complications? Select all that apply. 1 Walking for 30 minutes per day 2 Performing weight-bearing activities 3 Dressing warmly in cool or cold weather 4 Urinating immediately after sexual intercourse 5 Keeping within 10 pounds of ideal body weight

1,2,4 Because decreased ovarian production of estrogen leads to low bone density, regular exercises are advised, such as walking for 30 minutes per day and performing weight-bearing activities. Decreased ovarian production of estrogen increases the risk of cystitis; therefore, female clients are advised to reduce the risk by urinating immediately after sexual intercourse. Dressing warmly in cool weather would be beneficial to a client with decreased general metabolism as they may have less tolerance to cold. Maintaining body weight within 10 lbs of ideal would be beneficial to a client with decreased glucose tolerance.

A nurse is interviewing a client who was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which common responses to this disease can the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply. 1 Butterfly facial rash 2 Firm skin fixed to tissue 3 Inflammation of the joints 4 Muscle mass degeneration 5 Inflammation of small arteries

1,3 The connective tissue degeneration of SLE leads to involvement of the basal cell layer, producing a butterfly rash over the bridge of the nose and in the cheek region. Polyarthritis occurs in most clients, with joint changes similar to those seen in rheumatoid arthritis. Firm skin fixed to tissue occurs in scleroderma; in an advanced stage the client has the appearance of a living mummy. Muscle mass degeneration occurs in muscular dystrophy; it is characterized by muscle wasting and weakness. Inflammation of small arteries occurs in polyarteritis nodosa, a collagen disease affecting the arteries and nervous system.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. For which assessment signs of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse assess this client? Select all that apply. 1 Mental confusion 2 Increased cholesterol 3 Brown-colored stools 4 Flapping hand tremors 5 Musty, sweet breath odor

1,4,5 An accumulation of nitrogenous wastes affects the central nervous system, causing mental confusion. An accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in hepatic encephalopathy affects the nervous system. Flapping tremors and generalized twitching occur in the second and third stages, respectively. Fetor hepaticus is the musty, sweet odor of the client's breath. Increased cholesterol levels are not necessarily present. Stool is often clay-colored because of lack of bile caused by biliary obstruction.

Which manifestations may indicate a client has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? Select all that apply. 1 Pericarditis 2 Esophagitis 3 Fibrotic skin 4 Discoid lesions 5 Pleural effusions

1,4,5 SLE is a chronic, progressive inflammatory connective tissue disorder that can cause major organs and systems to fail. Pericarditis is a cardiovascular manifestation of SLE. Discoid lesion is a skin manifestation that is a key indicator of the presence of SLE. Pleural effusion, a pulmonary manifestation, is a key indicator of the presence of SLE. Esophagitis is one of the gastrointestinal manifestations of systemic sclerosis. Fibrotic skin is one of the skin manifestations of systemic sclerosis.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication? 1 Peritonitis 2 Hepatitis B 3 Renal calculi 4 Bladder infection

2 Hepatitis type B [1] [2] is transmitted by blood or blood products. The hemodialysis and routine transfusions needed for a client in end-stage renal failure constitute a high risk for exposure. Peritonitis is a danger for individuals receiving peritoneal dialysis. Renal calculi are not a complication of hemodialysis; they often occur in clients who are confined to prolonged bed rest. Dialysis does not involve the bladder and will not contribute to the development of a bladder infection.

A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving medication to manage anemia. Which primary goal should the nurse include in the care plan from this information? 1 Prevention of uremic frost 2 Prevention of chronic fatigue 3 Prevention of tubular necrosis 4 Prevention of dependent edema

2 Kidney failure [1] [2] results in impaired erythropoietin production, which causes anemia and chronic fatigue; treating the anemia will help in managing the fatigue. Uremic frost results because urea compounds and other waste products of metabolism that are not excreted by the kidneys are brought to the skin by small superficial capillaries and are excreted and deposited on the skin. Tubular necrosis is a pathologic condition of the kidneys that can lead to kidney failure. The anemia and dependent edema associated with kidney failure are not interrelated.

A patient in the oliguric phase after an acute kidney injury has had a 250-mL urine output and an emesis of 100 mL in the past 24 hours. What is the patient's fluid restriction for the next 24 hours?

ANS: 950 mL The general rule for calculating fluid restrictions is to add all fluid losses for the previous 24 hours, plus 600 mL for insensible losses: (250 + 100 + 600 = 950 mL).

A 56-yr-old patient is concerned about having a moderate amount of vaginal bleeding after 5 years of menopause. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. endometrial biopsy. c. uterine balloon therapy. b. endometrial ablation. d. dilation and curettage (D&C).

ANS: A A postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding should be evaluated for endometrial cancer, and endometrial biopsy is the primary test for endometrial cancer. D&C will be needed only if the biopsy does not provide sufficient information to make a diagnosis. Endometrial ablation and balloon therapy are used to treat menorrhagia, which is unlikely in this patient.

A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft? a. A fistula is much less likely to clot. b. A fistula increases patient mobility. c. A fistula can accommodate larger needles. d. A fistula can be used sooner after surgery.

ANS: A Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact on needle size or patient mobility.

A patient who has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels is scheduled for a renal arteriogram. Which bowel preparation order would the nurse question for this patient? a. Fleet enema c. Senna/docusate (Senokot-S) b. Tap-water enema d. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablets

ANS: A High-phosphate enemas, such as Fleet enemas, should be avoided in patients with elevated BUN and creatinine because phosphate cannot be excreted by patients with renal failure. The other medications for bowel evacuation are more appropriate.

The earliest clinical manifestation of biliary atresia is: a. Jaundice. c. Hepatomegaly. b. Vomiting. d. Absence of stooling.

ANS: A Jaundice is the earliest and most striking manifestation of biliary atresia. It is first observed in the sclera and may be present at birth, but is usually not apparent until ages 2 to 3 weeks. Vomiting is not associated with biliary atresia. Hepatomegaly and abdominal distention are common but occur later. Stools are large and lighter in color than expected because of the lack of bile.

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized patient with a decreased glomerular filtration rate who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which action will be included in the plan of care? a. Monitor the urine output after the procedure. b. Assist with monitored anesthesia care (MAC). c. Give oral contrast solution before the procedure. d. Insert a large size urinary catheter before the IVP.

ANS: A Patients with impaired renal function are at risk for decreased renal function after IVP because the contrast medium used is nephrotoxic, so the nurse should monitor the patient's urine output. MAC sedation and retention catheterization are not required for the procedure. The contrast medium is given IV, not orally

What glomerular filtration rate (GFR) would the nurse estimate for a 30-yr-old patient with a creatinine clearance result of 60 mL/min? a. 60 mL/min c. 120 mL/min b. 90 mL/min d. 180 mL/min

ANS: A The creatinine clearance approximates the GFR. The other responses are not accurate

Which medication taken at home by a patient with decreased renal function will be of most concern to the nurse? a. ibuprofen (Motrin) c. folic acid (vitamin B9) b. warfarin (Coumadin) d. penicillin (Bicillin C-R)

ANS: A The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications (NSAIDs) are nephrotoxic and should be avoided in patients with impaired renal function. The nurse should also ask about reasons the patient is taking the other medications, but the medication of most concern is the ibuprofen.

The best chance of survival for a child with cirrhosis is: a. Liver transplantation. c. Treatment with immune globulin. b. Treatment with corticosteroids. d. Provision of nutritional support.

ANS: A The only successful treatment for end-stage liver disease and liver failure may be liver transplantation, which has improved the prognosis for many children with cirrhosis. Liver transplantation has revolutionized the approach to cirrhosis. Liver failure and cirrhosis are indications for transplantation. Liver transplantation reflects the failure of other medical and surgical measures, such as treatment with corticosteroids or immune globulin and nutritional support, to prevent or treat cirrhosis.

A 25-yr-old female patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) who has a facial rash and alopecia tells the nurse, "I never leave my house because I hate the way I look." The nurse will plan interventions with the patient to address the nursing diagnosis of a. social isolation. c. impaired skin integrity. b. activity intolerance. d. impaired social interaction.

ANS: A The patient's statement about not going anywhere because of hating the way he or she looks expresses social isolation because of embarrassment about the effects of the SLE. Activity intolerance is a possible problem for patients with SLE, but the information about this patient does not support this. The rash with SLE is nonpruritic. There is no evidence of lack of social skills for this patient.

Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose is effective for an older adult who has advanced cirrhosis? a. The patient is alert and oriented. b. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. c. The patient's bilirubin level decreases. d. The patient has at least one stool daily.

ANS: A The purpose of lactulose in the patient with cirrhosis is to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. Although lactulose may be used to treat constipation, that is not the purpose for this patient. Lactulose will not decrease nausea and vomiting or lower bilirubin levels.

Which nursing action is essential for a patient immediately after a renal biopsy? a. Insert a urinary catheter and test urine for microscopic hematuria. b. Apply a pressure dressing and keep the patient on the affected side. c. Check blood glucose to assess for hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. d. Monitor blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine to assess renal function.

ANS: B A pressure dressing is applied, and the patient is kept on the affected side for 30 to 60 minutes to put pressure on the biopsy side and decrease the risk for bleeding. The blood glucose and BUN/creatinine will not be affected by the biopsy. Although monitoring for hematuria is needed, there is no need for catheterization

Before administration of captopril to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse will check the patient's a. glucose. c. creatinine. b. potassium. d. phosphate.

ANS: B Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are frequently used in patients with CKD because they delay the progression of the CKD, but they cause potassium retention. Therefore careful monitoring of potassium levels is needed in patients who are at risk for hyperkalemia. The other laboratory values would also be monitored in patients with CKD but would not affect whether the captopril was given or not.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern? a. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain with palpation. b. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended. c. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day. d. The patient's abdominal skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels.

ANS: B Asterixis indicates that the patient has hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatic coma may occur. The spider angiomas and right upper quadrant abdominal pain are not unusual for the patient with cirrhosis and do not require a change in treatment. The ascites and weight gain indicate the need for treatment but not as urgently as the changes in neurologic status.

Which information will the nurse monitor in order to determine the effectiveness of prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure c. Neurologic status b. Phosphate level d. Creatinine clearance

ANS: B Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphorus and prevent mineral and bone disease in patients with CKD. The other data will not be helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of calcium carbonate.

A female patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2-L inflows. Which information should the nurse report promptly to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient's abdomen appears bloated after the inflow. d. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase.

ANS: B Cloudy-appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Teach the patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

ANS: B Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

Which information in a patient's history indicates to the nurse that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for kidney transplantation? a. The patient has type 1 diabetes. b. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. c. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. d. The patient is infected with human immunodeficiency virus.

ANS: B Disseminated malignancies are a contraindication to transplantation. The conditions of the other patients are not contraindications for kidney transplant

A patient gives the admitting nurse health information before a scheduled intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which item requires the nurse to intervene before the procedure? a. The patient has not had food or drink for 8 hours. b. The patient lists allergies to shellfish and penicillin. c. The patient complains of costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. d. The patient used a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablet the previous night.

ANS: B Iodine-based contrast dye is used during IVP and for many CT scans. The nurse will need to notify the health care provider before the procedures so that the patient can receive medications such as antihistamines or corticosteroids before the procedures are started. The other information is also important to note and document but does not have immediate implications for the patient's care during the procedures.

The health care provider has prescribed the following interventions for a patient who is taking azathioprine (Imuran) for systemic lupus erythematosus. Which order will the nurse question? a. Draw anti-DNA blood titer. c. Naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg BID. b. Administer varicella vaccine. d. Famotidine (Pepcid) 20 mg daily.

ANS: B Live virus vaccines, such as varicella, are contraindicated in a patient taking immunosuppressive drugs. The other orders are appropriate for the patient.

When a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30, the nurse will expect an assessment finding of a. persistent skin tenting c. hot, flushed face and neck. b. rapid, deep respirations. d. bounding peripheral pulses.

ANS: B Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.

For a patient with cirrhosis, which nursing action can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assessing the patient for jaundice b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal c. Palpating the abdomen for distention d. Teaching the patient the prescribed diet

ANS: B Providing oral hygiene is within the scope of UAP. Assessments and assisting patients to choose therapeutic diets are nursing actions that require higher level nursing education and scope of practice and would be delegated to licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs) or RNs.

Which statement by a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) indicates the patient has understood the nurse's teaching about the condition? a. "I will exercise even if I am tired." b. "I will use sunscreen when I am outside." c. "I should avoid nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs." d. "I should take birth control pills to avoid getting pregnant."

ANS: B Severe skin reactions can occur in patients with SLE who are exposed to the sun. Patients should avoid fatigue by balancing exercise with rest periods as needed. Oral contraceptives can exacerbate lupus. Aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are used to treat the musculoskeletal manifestations of SLE.

The nurse is assessing a patient 4 hours after a kidney transplant. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr. b. The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. c. The patient has a level 7 (0- to 10-point scale) incisional pain. d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated.

ANS: B The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant

A 62-yr-old female patient has been hospitalized for 4 days with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. b. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. c. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2.

ANS: B The high urine output indicates a need to increase fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia. The other information is typical of AKI and will not require a change in therapy.

The nurse completing a physical assessment for a newly admitted patient is unable to feel either kidney on palpation. Which action should the nurse take? a. Obtain a urine specimen to check for hematuria. b. Document the information on the assessment form. c. Ask the patient about any history of recent sore throat. d. Ask the health care provider about scheduling a renal ultrasound.

ANS: B The kidneys are protected by the abdominal organs, ribs, and muscles of the back and may not be palpable under normal circumstances, so no action except to document the assessment information is needed. Asking about a recent sore throat, checking for hematuria, or obtaining a renal ultrasound may be appropriate when assessing for renal problems for some patients, but there is nothing in the question stem to indicate that they are appropriate for this patient.

The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The primary treatment goal in the plan will be a. augmenting fluid volume. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. b. maintaining cardiac output. d. preventing systemic hypertension.

ANS: B The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

Which nursing assessment finding in a patient who recently started taking hormone replacement therapy (HRT) requires discussion with the health care provider about a change in therapy? a. Breast tenderness c. Weight gain of 3 lb b. Left calf swelling d. Intermittent spotting

ANS: B Unilateral calf swelling may indicate deep vein thrombosis caused by the changes in coagulation associated with HRT and would indicate that the HRT should be discontinued. Breast tenderness, weight gain, and intermittent spotting are common side effects of HRT and do not indicate a need for a change in therapy

Which assessment finding may indicate that a patient is experiencing adverse effects to a corticosteroid prescribed after kidney transplantation? a. Postural hypotension c. Knee and hip joint pain b. Recurrent tachycardia d. Increased serum creatinine

ANS: C Aseptic necrosis of the weight-bearing joints can occur when patients take corticosteroids over a prolonged period. Increased creatinine level, orthostatic dizziness, and tachycardia are not caused by corticosteroid use.

A patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator to the nurse that the medication has been effective? a. The patient reports no chest pain. b. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. c. Stools test negative for occult blood. d. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

ANS: C Because the purpose of b-blocker therapy for patients with esophageal varices is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices, the best indicator of the effectiveness for propranolol is the lack of blood in the stools. Although propranolol is used to treat hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, the purpose for use in this patient is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices.

Before administration of calcium carbonate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should check laboratory results for a. potassium level. c. serum phosphate. b. total cholesterol. d. serum creatinine.

ANS: C If serum phosphate is elevated, the calcium and phosphate can cause soft tissue calcification. Calcium carbonate should not be given until the phosphate level is lowered. Total cholesterol, creatinine, and potassium values do not affect whether calcium carbonate should be administered.

The nurse in the dialysis clinic is reviewing the home medications of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which medication reported by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Acetaminophen c. Magnesium hydroxide b. Calcium phosphate d. Multivitamin with iron

ANS: C Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD

Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. b. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. c. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath each day. d. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain.

ANS: C Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis.

What instructions about plasmapheresis should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. Plasmapheresis eliminates eosinophils and basophils from blood. b. Plasmapheresis decreases the damage to organs from T lymphocytes. c. Plasmapheresis removes antibody-antigen complexes from circulation. d. Plasmapheresis prevents foreign antibodies from damaging various body tissues.

ANS: C Plasmapheresis is used in SLE to remove antibodies, antibody-antigen complexes, and complement from blood. T lymphocytes, foreign antibodies, eosinophils, and basophils do not directly contribute to the tissue damage in SLE.

Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-yr-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis? a. Taking lactulose c. Avoiding alcohol ingestion b. Maintaining good nutrition d. Using vitamin B supplements

ANS: C The disease progression can be stopped or reversed by alcohol abstinence. The other interventions may be used when cirrhosis becomes more severe to decrease symptoms or complications, but the priority for this patient is to stop the progression of the disease.

A 47-yr-old patient asks whether she is going into menopause if she has not had a menstrual period for 3 months. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Have you thought about using hormone replacement therapy?" b. "Most women feel a little depressed about entering menopause." c. "What was your menstrual pattern before your periods stopped?" d. "Because you are in your mid-40s, it is likely that you are menopausal."

ANS: C The initial response by the nurse should be to assess the patient's baseline menstrual pattern. Although many women do enter menopause in the mid-40s, more information about this patient is needed before telling her that it is likely she is menopausal. Although hormone therapy may be prescribed, further assessment of the patient is needed before discussing therapies for menopause. Because the response to menopause is very individual, the nurse should not assume that the patient is experiencing any adverse emotional reactions

Which action should the nurse in the emergency department take first for a new patient who is vomiting blood? a. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter. b. Draw blood for coagulation studies. c. Check blood pressure and heart rate. d. Place the patient in the supine position.

ANS: C The nurse's first action should be to determine the patient's hemodynamic status by assessing vital signs. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are also appropriate. However, the vital signs may indicate the need for more urgent actions. Because aspiration is a concern for this patient, the nurse will need to assess the patient's vital signs and neurologic status before placing the patient in a supine position.

To prepare a patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse a. places the patient on NPO status. b. assists the patient to lie flat in bed. c. asks the patient to empty the bladder. d. positions the patient on the right side.

ANS: C The patient should empty the bladder to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient would be positioned in Fowler's position and would not be able to lie flat without compromising breathing. Because no sedation is required for paracentesis, the patient does not need to be NPO

Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. "I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products." b. "I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day." c. "I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink." d. "I need to take erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection."

ANS: C The patient with end-stage renal disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD.

A hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency after coronary artery bypass surgery is scheduled for a creatinine clearance test. Which item will the nurse need to obtain? a. Urinary catheter c. Cleansing towelettes b. Sterile specimen cup d. Large urine container

ANS: D Because creatinine clearance testing involves a 24-hour urine specimen, the nurse should obtain a large container for the urine collection. Catheterization, cleaning of the perineum with antiseptic towelettes, and a sterile specimen cup are not needed for this test.

A 49-yr-old patient tells the nurse that she is postmenopausal but has recently had occasional spotting. Which initial response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "A frequent cause of spotting is endometrial cancer." b. "How long has it been since your last menstrual period?" c. "Breakthrough bleeding is not unusual in women your age." d. "Are you using prescription hormone replacement therapy?"

ANS: D In postmenopausal women, a common cause of spotting is hormone replacement therapy. Because breakthrough bleeding may be a sign of problems such as cancer or infection, the nurse would not imply that this is normal. The length of time since the last menstrual period is not relevant to the patient's symptoms. Although endometrial cancer may cause spotting, this information is not appropriate as an initial response.

When working in the urology/nephrology clinic, which patient could the nurse delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Patient who is scheduled for a renal biopsy after a recent kidney transplant b. Patient who will need monitoring for several hours after a renal arteriogram c. Patient who requires teaching about possible post-cystoscopy complications d. Patient who will have catheterization to check for residual urine after voiding

ANS: D LPN/LVN education includes common procedures such as catheterization of stable patients. The other patients require more complex assessments or patient teaching that are included in registered nurse (RN) education and scope of practice.

A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should a. massage the patient's legs. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). b. reposition the patient supine. d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

ANS: D Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps

The nurse should assess the patient undergoing plasmapheresis for which clinical manifestation? a. Shortness of breath c. Transfusion reaction b. High blood pressure d. Extremity numbness

ANS: D Numbness and tingling may occur as the result of the hypocalcemia caused by the citrate used to prevent coagulation. The other clinical manifestations are not associated with plasmapheresis.

A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take? a. Withhold both drugs. c. Administer the furosemide. b. Administer both drugs d. Administer the spironolactone.

ANS: D Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and will help increase the patient's potassium level. The nurse does not need to talk with the doctor before giving the spironolactone, although the health care provider should be notified about the low potassium value. The furosemide will further decrease the patient's potassium level and should be held until the nurse talks with the health care provider.

Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective? a. Increased serum albumin level b. Decreased indirect bilirubin level c. Improved alertness and orientation d. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices

ANS: D TIPS is used to lower pressure in the portal venous system and decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. Indirect bilirubin level and serum albumin levels are not affected by shunting procedures. TIPS will increase the risk for hepatic encephalopathy.

A client with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled to have a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the client for the procedure? 1 Instruct the client to void. 2 Tell the client not to eat for four hours. 3 Give the client the prescribed analgesic. 4 Have the client turn to the lateral position.

1 The bladder must be emptied to avoid trauma during insertion of the trocar. Giving the client the prescribed analgesic is not necessary. Systemic analgesics are not necessary and may mask the symptoms of shock, a potential complication. The semi-Fowler position is used to allow fluid to accumulate in the lower abdominal cavity so that it can be accessed by the trocar.

A nurse is obtaining the health history of a 5-year-old child who has been admitted to the child health unit with acute glomerulonephritis. What does the nurse expect the child's mother to report? 1 The child had a sore throat a few weeks ago. 2 The child has just recovered from the measles. 3 The child's father has a family history of urinary tract infections. 4 The child's immunizations were administered at the start of school.

1 Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) is associated with a history of streptococcal infection of the throat. The measles virus is not associated with the development of APSGN. APSGN is not an inherited disease. No immunizations can cause glomerulonephritis.

A 6-year-old child treated for acute glomerulonephritis has improved and is soon to be discharged. What should the nurse plan to offer the parents in preparation for the discharge? 1 Samples of no-salt-added diets for the child to continue at home 2 Suggestions about activities to keep the child mobile for longer periods 3 Instructions about when the child should return for a workup for a kidney transplant 4 Phone numbers to reach the nurse on the unit so the parents may call if there are any questions

1 Foods high in sodium and salty treats are usually limited to control or prevent edema and hypertension until the child is asymptomatic. The child should not be kept active for long periods because rest is needed; the child usually does not need a long convalescence. Glomerulonephritis usually does not cause such severe kidney damage that a kidney transplant is necessary. The mother should contact the healthcare provider, not the nurse on the unit, for follow-up care.

A client past menopause undergoes an anteroposterior colporrhaphy. What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching? 1 Eating a high-fiber diet 2 Limiting daily activities 3 Reporting signs of urine retention 4 Being alert to signs of a rectovaginal fistula

1 Immediately after this type of surgery, pain is associated with bearing down; the client should be instructed to increase fluid, fiber, and activity to prevent constipation. Exercise is encouraged. The anteroposterior colporrhaphy is expected to reduce incontinence; urine retention is not expected. The colporrhaphy involves only the vaginal wall; the rectum should not be involved.

A client with systemic lupus erythematosus is taking prednisone. The nurse anticipates that the steroid may cause hypokalemia. What food will the nurse encourage the client to eat? 1 Broccoli 2 Oatmeal 3 Fried rice 4 Cooked carrots

1 Potassium is plentiful in green leafy vegetables; broccoli provides 207 mg of potassium per half cup. Oatmeal provides 73 mg of potassium per half cup. Rice provides 29 mg of potassium per half cup. Cooked fresh carrots provide 172 mg of potassium per half cup; canned carrots provide only 93 mg of potassium per half cup.

The nurse is taking care of a client with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites. Which lunch is the best choice for a client with this disorder? 1 Ham sandwich with cheese, whole milk, and potato chips 2 Penne pasta, spinach, banana, and decaffeinated iced tea 3 Baked lasagna with sausage, salad, and milkshake 4 Hamburger, french fries, and cola

2 A client with cirrhosis and ascites will require moderate to low fat and low sodium (penne pasta, spinach, banana, and decaffeinated iced tea). Caffeine can stimulate and cause distention. Ham, cheese, whole milk, potato chips, baked lasagna with sausage, milkshake, hamburger, french fries, and cola all have more fat and sodium than a client with cirrhosis should consume.

An adolescent has been admitted with symptoms of fatigue, intermittent fever, weight loss, and arthralgia, and the diagnosis is systemic lupus erythematosus. What is the best intervention at this time? 1 Implementation of corticosteroids 2 Education about diet, rest, and exercise 3 Sun avoidance and calcium supplements 4 Avoidance of destructive coping mechanisms

2 Client education about the integrative interventions of diet, rest, and exercise will be of the most help to the adolescent client with newly diagnosed lupus. These are interventions that the client has some control over, and this is important to the adolescent. Corticosteroids may not be used until other therapies are unsuccessful. Although sun avoidance and calcium supplements may be helpful, they are not most important. Avoidance of negative coping strategies may be helpful if they are noted, but control over diet, rest, and exercise is a positive coping strategy.

A client with acute kidney injury is to receive peritoneal dialysis and asks why the procedure is necessary. Which is the nurse's best response? 1 "It prevents the development of serious heart problems." 2 "It helps perform some of the work usually done by the kidneys." 3 "It removes toxic chemicals from the body so you will not get worse." 4 "It speeds recovery because the kidneys are not responding to regulating hormones."

2 Dialysis removes chemicals, wastes, and fluids usually removed from the body by the kidneys. The mention of heart problems is a threatening response and may cause increased fear or anxiety. Stating that peritoneal dialysis "removes toxic chemicals from the body so you will not get worse" is threatening and can cause an increase in anxiety. Dialysis helps maintain fluid and electrolytes; the nephrons are damaged in acute kidney injury, so it may or may not speed recovery.

A client is at high risk for developing ascites because of cirrhosis of the liver. How should the nurse assess for the presence of ascites? 1 Observe the client for signs of respiratory distress. 2 Percuss the client's abdomen and listen for dull sounds. 3 Palpate the lower extremities over the tibia and observe for edema. 4 Listen for decreased or absent bowel sounds while auscultating the abdomen.

2 Percussing over the client's abdomen will produce a dull, not tympanic, sound if fluid is present. Respiratory distress occurs with ascites, but it is not an early sign; the client does not have ascites but is at risk for ascites at this time. Palpating the lower extremities assesses for dependent edema, not ascites. Ascites is fluid within the peritoneal cavity. Bowel sounds may be heard with developing ascites; when ascites is extensive, bowel sounds may diminish.

A client with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites has been taking chlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic. Why did the provider add spironolactone to the client's medication regimen? 1 To stimulate sodium excretion 2 To help prevent potassium loss 3 To increase urine specific gravity 4 To reduce arterial blood pressure

2 Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic often used in conjunction with thiazide diuretics. The provider was prompted to add spironolactone to the chlorothiazide to prevent potassium loss. Both medications stimulate sodium excretion. Both medications increase urine specific gravity and reduce arterial blood pressure.

A client with a history of alcoholism and cirrhosis is admitted with severe dyspnea as a result of ascites. Which process that most likely caused the ascites should the nurse consider when planning care? 1 Increased secretion of bile salts 2 Increased pressure in the portal vein 3 Increased interstitial osmotic pressure 4 Increased production of serum albumin

2 The enlarged cirrhotic liver impinges on the portal system, causing increased hydrostatic pressure from increased pressure in the portal vein, resulting in ascites. Bile salts are not responsible for fluid shifts; increased serum bile results from biliary obstruction, not increased secretion of bile. Interstitial osmotic pressure is unchanged; decreased intravascular osmotic pressure accounts for fluid movement into interstitial spaces. The liver's production of serum albumin is decreased with cirrhosis of the liver.

A nurse is assessing the condition of a school-aged child with acute glomerulonephritis. What clinical finding does the nurse anticipate? 1 Ketonuria 2 Periorbital edema 3 Increased appetite 4 Decreased blood pressure

2 The glomerular filtration rate is reduced; this results in sodium retention, protein loss, and fluid accumulation, producing edema that is most noticeable around the eyes. Ketonuria is not a manifestation of glomerulonephritis. Usually the appetite decreases because of general malaise, and the blood pressure is increased because of kidney involvement.

A client with acute kidney injury moves into the diuretic phase after 1 week of therapy. For which clinical indicators during this phase should the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply. 1 Skin rash 2 Dehydration 3 Hypovolemia 4 Hyperkalemia 5 Metabolic acidosis

2,3 In the diuretic phase, fluid retained during the oliguric phase is excreted and may reach 3 to 5 L daily; dehydration and hypovolemia may occur unless fluids are replaced. Skin rash is not associated with the diuretic phase. Hyperkalemia develops in the oliguric phase when glomerular filtration is inadequate. Metabolic acidosis occurs in the oliguric, not diuretic, phase.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe chronic kidney disease. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply. 1 Polyuria 2 Paresthesias 3 Hypertension 4 Metabolic alkalosis 5 Widening pulse pressure

2,3 Paresthesias [1] [2] occur as a result of excess nitrogenous wastes, altered fluid and electrolytes, and altered regulatory functions. Nonfunctioning kidneys cause fluid retention that may result in hypervolemia and hypertension. Polyuria occurs because of extensive nephron damage and may occur in the early stage of kidney disease but not in the severe stage. Metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis, results from the inability to excrete hydrogen ions and retain bicarbonate. Widening pulse pressure occurs with increased intracranial pressure, not with kidney dysfunction.

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client diagnosed with cirrhosis and varices. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply. 1 Adhering to a low-carbohydrate diet 2 Avoiding aspirin and aspirin-containing products 3 Limiting alcohol consumption to two drinks weekly 4 Avoiding acetaminophen and products containing acetaminophen

2,4 Aspirin can damage the gastric mucosa and precipitate hemorrhage when esophageal or gastric varices are present. Acetaminophen is hepatotoxic and should not be used by the client with cirrhosis. The client with cirrhosis should avoid coughing, sneezing, and straining to have a bowel movement. These activities increase pressure in the portal venous system and increase the client's risk of variceal hemorrhage. A high-carbohydrate diet is encouraged as the diseased liver's ability to synthesize and store glucose is diminished. To decrease the risk of complications, the client must abstain from alcohol.

A nurse anticipates that dialysis will be necessary for a 12-year-old child with chronic kidney disease when the child begins to exhibit which symptom? 1 Hypotension 2 Hypokalemia 3 Hypervolemia 4 Hypercalcemia

3 Hypervolemia results when the kidneys have failed and are no longer able to maintain homeostasis, the blood pressure is high, and cardiac overload is imminent. Hypertension, not hypotension, is present when kidney failure occurs. Hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, occurs with kidney failure. Hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia, is present when kidney failure occurs.

A client is admitted to the hospital in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. The nurse estimates that the urine output for the last 12 hours is about 200 mL. The nurse reviews the plan of care and notes a prescription for 900 mL of water to be given orally over the next 24 hours. What does the nurse conclude about the amount of fluid prescribed? 1 It equals the expected urinary output for the next 24 hours. 2 It will prevent the development of pneumonia and a high fever. 3 It will compensate for both insensible and expected output over the next 24 hours. 4 It will reduce hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

3 Insensible losses are 500 to 1000 mL in 24 hours, with an average of about 600 mL; the measured output is about 400 mL in 24 hours based on the available history (about 200 mL in 12 hours). Based on the history, the expected urinary output should be about 400 mL in the next 24 hours, far less than 900 mL. More than 900 mL daily is necessary to help prevent pneumonia and its associated fever. Hyperkalemia in acute kidney injury is caused by inadequate glomerular filtration and is not related to fluid intake.

The nurse is administering lactulose to a client with a history of cirrhosis of the liver. The client asks the nurse why this medication is needed because the client is not constipated. How will the nurse respond? 1 "This medication helps you to stop drinking so much alcohol." 2 "This medication helps you relax and not feel anxious." 3 "This medication helps you lower the high ammonia level caused by your liver disease." 4 "This medication helps you keep your abdomen from being so distended."

3 Lactulose is a hyperosmotic laxative and ammonia detoxicant. It decreases serum ammonia concentration by preventing reabsorption of ammonia. Lactulose has been used to lower blood ammonia content in clients with portal hypertension and hepatic encephalopathy secondary to chronic liver disease. Lactulose has no effect on the craving for alcohol or anxiety and is not prescribed to reduce abdominal distension.

A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury who is receiving a protein-restricted diet. The client asks why this diet is necessary. Which information should the nurse include in a response to the client's questions? 1 A high-protein intake ensures an adequate daily supply of amino acids to compensate for losses. 2 Essential and nonessential amino acids are necessary in the diet to supply materials for tissue protein synthesis. 3 This supplies only essential amino acids, reducing the amount of metabolic waste products, thus decreasing stress on the kidneys. 4 Urea nitrogen cannot be used to synthesize amino acids in the body, so the nitrogen for amino acid synthesis must come from the dietary protein.

3 The amount of protein permitted in the diet depends on the extent of kidney function; excess protein causes an increase in urea concentration, excess metabolic waste, and added stress on the kidneys, which should be prevented. Adequate calories are provided to prevent tissue catabolism that also results in an increase in metabolic waste products. In kidney failure the kidneys are unable to eliminate the waste products of a high-protein diet, which is to be avoided. The body is able to synthesize the nonessential amino acids. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism; the body is able to synthesize the nonessential amino acids.

A nurse is notified that the latest potassium level for a client in acute kidney injury is 6.2 mEq (6.2 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse take first? 1 Alert the cardiac arrest team. 2 Call the laboratory to repeat the test. 3 Take vital signs and notify the primary healthcare provider. 4 Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip and obtain an antiarrhythmic medication.

3 Vital signs monitor the cardiopulmonary status; the primary healthcare provider must treat this hyperkalemia [1] [2] to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias. The cardiac arrest team responds to a cardiac arrest; there is no sign of arrest in this client. A repeat laboratory test will take time and probably reaffirm the original results; the client needs medical attention. Although obtaining an ECG strip is appropriate, obtaining an antiarrhythmic is premature; vital signs and medical attention is needed first.

A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN). What medications does the nurse expect the practitioner to prescribe? Select all that apply. 1 Penicillin 2 Morphine 3 Furosemide 4 Labetalol 5 Phenobarbital

3,4 The child with APSGN is oliguric; diuretics are used to increase urine output. The child with APSGN is hypertensive; antihypertensives are used to reduce the blood pressure. Penicillin is administered if there is evidence of streptococcal infection; however, the strep infection is usually not active when APSGN develops. Children with APSGN do not experience pain; therefore morphine is not needed. If the hypertension is controlled, seizures are not expected, and phenobarbital is not necessary.

After a hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy, a client wants to know whether it would be wise for her to take hormones right away to prevent symptoms of menopause. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? 1 "It's best to wait until after the surgery because you may not have any symptoms." 2 "It's comforting to know that hormones are available if you should ever need them." 3 "You have to wait until symptoms are severe; otherwise the hormones will have no effect." 4 "Discuss this with your primary healthcare provider because it is important to verbalize your concerns."

4 The nurse cannot prescribe medication. In addition, the use of hormones is controversial and depends on the primary healthcare provider's beliefs and the client's needs. Telling the client that hormones are available if she should ever need them is an evasive response; it does not answer the client's question. Advising the client to wait until after surgery or wait until symptoms are severe conveys information that the nurse is not legally licensed to provide.

A 42-yr-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed action should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

b Because hyperkalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias, the initial action should be to monitor the cardiac rhythm. Kayexalate and Epogen will take time to correct the hyperkalemia and anemia. The catheter allows monitoring of the urine output but does not correct the cause of the renal failure.