Upper, Lower GI and Sexuality practice questions

Which drug is considered a stimulant laxative? A Bisacodyl B Magnesium hydroxide C Mineral oil D Psyllium

A Bisacodyl Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative. Magnesium hydroxide is a saline agent. Mineral oil is a lubricant. Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid is a bulk-forming agent.

A patient has sought care because of recent dark-colored stools. As a result, a fecal occult blood test has been ordered. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following prior to collecting a stool sample? A) NSAIDs B) Acetaminophen C) OTC vitamin D supplements D) Fiber supplements

A) NSAIDs NSAIDs can cause a false-positive fecal occult blood test. Acetaminophen, vitamin D supplements, and fiber supplements do not have this effect.

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests which condition? A Ulcerative colitis B Disorders of the colon C Intestinal malabsorption D Small-bowel disease

A Ulcerative colitis The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests ulcerative colitis. Watery stools are characteristic of small-bowel disease. Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the colon. Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.

A patient has been experiencing significant psychosocial stress in recent weeks. The nurse is aware of the hormonal effects of stress, including norepinephrine release. Release of this substance would have what effect on the patients gastrointestinal function? Select all that apply. A) Decreased motility B) Increased sphincter tone C) Increased enzyme release D) Inhibition of secretions E) Increased peristalsis

A) Decreased motility Norepinephrine generally decreases GI motility and secretions, but increases muscle tone of sphincters.

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the epigastric region. What assessment question during the health interview would most help the nurse determine if the patient has a peptic ulcer? A) Does your pain resolve when you have something to eat? B) Do over-the-counter pain medications help your pain? C) Does your pain get worse if you get up and do some exercise? D) Do you find that your pain is worse when you need to have a bowel movement?

A) Does your pain resolve when you have something to eat? Pain relief after eating is associated with duodenal ulcers. The pain of peptic ulcers is generally unrelated to activity or bowel function and may or may not respond to analgesics.

A patient has a recent diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis and is undergoing diagnostic testing to determine pancreatic islet cell function. The nurse should anticipate what diagnostic test? A) Glucose tolerance test B) ERCP C) Pancreatic biopsy D) Abdominal ultrasonography

A) Glucose tolerance test A glucose tolerance test evaluates pancreatic islet cell function and provides necessary information for making decisions about surgical resection of the pancreas. This specific clinical information is not provided by ERCP, biopsy, or ultrasound.

A patient with ongoing back pain, nausea, and abdominal bloating has been diagnosed with cholecystitis secondary to gallstones. The nurse should anticipate that the patient will undergo what intervention? A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy B) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (MTBE) infusion C) Intracorporeal lithotripsy D) Extracorporeal shock wave therapy (ESWL)

A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy Most of the nonsurgical approaches, including lithotripsy and dissolution of gallstones, provide only temporary solutions to gallstone problems and are infrequently used in the United States. Cholecystectomy is the preferred treatment.

Diet modifications for patient diagnosed with chronic inflammatory bowel disease include which of the following? A Low residue B Low protein C Calorie restriction D Iron restriction

A. Low residue Oral fluids and a low-residue, high-protein, high-calorie diet with supplemental vitamin therapy and iron replacement are prescribed to meet the nutritional needs, reduce inflammation, and control pain and diarrhea

A patient diagnosed with IBS is advised to eat a diet that is: A Low in residue. B High in fiber. C Restricted to 1,200 calories/day. D Sodium-restricted.

B High in fiber. A high-fiber diet is prescribed to control diarrhea and constipation and is recommended for patients with IBS.

A client with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis is awaiting surgical intervention. The nurse listens to bowel sounds and hears none and observes that the abdomen is rigid and board-like. What complication does the nurse determine may be occurring at this time? A Accumulation of gas B Peritonitis C Constipation D Paralytic ileus

B Peritonitis Lack of bowel motility typically accompanies peritonitis. The abdomen feels rigid and board-like as it distends with gas and intestinal contents. Bowel sounds typically are absent. The diagnosis of acute appendicitis correlates with the symptoms of rupture of the appendix and peritonitis. A paralytic ileus and gas alone do not produce these symptoms.

The nurse is monitoring a client's postoperative course after an appendectomy. The nurse's assessment reveals that the client has vomited, has abdominal tenderness and rigidity, and has tachycardia. The nurse reports to the physician that the client has signs/symptoms of which complication? A Ileus B Peritonitis C Hemorrhage D Pelvic abscess

B) Peritonitis The nurse should report to the physician that the client has signs/symptoms of peritonitis. Signs/symptoms of a pelvic abscess include anorexia, chills, fever, diaphoresis, and diarrhea. Signs/symptoms of an ileus include absent bowel sounds, nausea, and abdominal distention. Signs/symptoms of hemorrhage include tachycardia, hypotension, anxiety, and bleeding.

A patient with recurrent urinary tract infections has just undergone a cystoscopy and complains of slight hematuria during the first void after the procedure. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Administer a STAT dose of vitamin K, as ordered. B) Reassure the patient that this is not unexpected and then monitor the patient for further bleeding. C) Promptly inform the physician of this assessment finding. D) Position the patient supine and insert a Foley catheter, as ordered.

B) Reassure the patient that this is not unexpected and then monitor the patient for further bleeding. Some burning on voiding, blood-tinged urine, and urinary frequency from trauma to the mucous membranes can be expected after cystoscopy. The nurse should explain this to the patient and ensure that the bleeding resolves. No clear need exists to report this finding and it does not warrant insertion of a Foley catheter or vitamin K administration.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a duodenal ulcer and is relating the patients symptoms to the physiologic functions of the small intestine. What do these functions include? Select all that apply. A) Secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl) B) Reabsorption of water C) Secretion of mucus D) Absorption of nutrients E) Movement of nutrients into the bloodstream

C) Secretion of mucus D) Absorption of nutrients E) Movement of nutrients into the bloodstream The small intestine folds back and forth on itself, providing approximately 7000 cm2 (70 m2) of surface area for secretion and absorption, the process by which nutrients enter the bloodstream through the intestinal walls. Water reabsorption primarily takes place in the large bowel. HCl is secreted by the stomach.

A patients screening colonoscopy revealed the presence of numerous polyps in the large bowel. What principle should guide the subsequent treatment of this patients health problem? A) Adherence to a high-fiber diet will help the polyps resolve. B) The patient should be assured that these are a normal, age-related physiologic change. C) The patients polyps constitute a risk factor for cancer. D) The presence of polyps is associated with an increased risk of bowel obstruction.

C) The patients polyps constitute a risk factor for cancer. Although most polyps do not develop into invasive neoplasms, they must be identified and followed closely. They are very common, but are not classified as a normal, age-related physiologic change. Diet will not help them resolve and they do not typically lead to obstructions.

When the nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis, what intervention can be provided in order to prevent atelectasis and prevent pooling of respiratory secretions? A Placing the patient in the prone position B Suction the patient every 4 hours C Perform chest physiotherapy D Frequent changes of positions

D Frequent changes of positions Frequent changes of position are necessary to prevent atelectasis and pooling of respiratory secretions.

1. A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with cholecystitis, and is experiencing localized abdominal pain. When assessing the characteristics of the patients pain, the nurse should anticipate that it may radiate to what region? A) Left upper chest B) Inguinal region C) Neck or jaw D) Right shoulder

D) Right shoulder The patient may have biliary colic with excruciating upper right abdominal pain that radiates to the back or right shoulder. Pain from cholecystitis does not typically radiate to the left upper chest, inguinal area, neck, or jaw.

A gerontologic nurse is assessing a patient who has numerous comorbid health problems. What assessment findings should prompt the nurse to suspect a UTI? Select all that apply. A) Food cravings B) Upper abdominal pain C) Insatiable thirst D) Uncharacteristic fatigue E) New onset of confusion

D) Uncharacteristic fatigue The most common subjective presenting symptom of UTI in older adults is generalized fatigue. The most common objective finding is a change in cognitive functioning. Food cravings, increased thirst, and upper abdominal pain necessitate further assessment and intervention, but none is directly suggestive of a UTI.

A male patient, age 71, has benign prostatic hypertrophy. He is recovering from atrans-urethral prostatic resection. The physician orders removal of the indwelling catheter 2 days after the TURP procedure. What might the patient experience after the catheter is removed? a. Burning on urination b. Passing of blood clots in the urine c. Dribbling of urine d. Coffee-colored urine

c. Dribbling of urine The patient is informed that initially he may experience frequency and voiding small amounts with some dribbling. There should be no hematuria or clots after 2 days.

A client has undergone a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse should place the client in which position? A. High fowler B. On the left side C. On the right side D. Trendelenburg

C. On the right side Immediately after the biopsy, assist the client to turn on to the right side; place a pillow under the costal margin, and caution the client to remain in this position. In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

A patient informs the nurse that he has been having abdominal pain that is relieved when having a bowel movement. The patient states that the physician told him he has irritable bowel syndrome. What does the nurse recognize as characteristic of this disorder? A Weight loss due to malabsorption B Blood and mucus in the stool C Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea D Client is awakened from sleep due to abdominal pain.

Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea Explanation:Most clients with IBS describe having chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea. Some report the opposite pattern, although less commonly. Most clients experience various degrees of abdominal pain that defecation may relieve. Weight usually remains stable, indicating that when diarrhea occurs, malabsorption of nutrients does not accompany it. Stools may have mucus, but blood is not usually found because the bowel is not locally inflamed. The sleep is not disturbed from abdominal pain.

A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an older adult patient. When collecting and analyzing data, the nurse should be cognizant of what age-related change in gastrointestinal structure and function? A) Increased gastric motility B) Decreased gastric pH C) Increased gag reflex D) Decreased mucus secretion

D Decreased mucus secretion Older adults tend to secrete less mucus than younger adults. Gastric motility slows with age and gastric pH rises due to decreased secretion of gastric acids. Older adults tend to have a blunted gag reflex compared to younger adults.

A nurse is applying an ostomy appliance to the ileostomy of a client with ulcerative colitis. Which action is appropriate? A Maintaining wrinkles in the faceplate so it doesn't irritate the skin B Scrubbing fecal material from the skin surrounding the stoma C Cutting the faceplate opening no more than 2 inches larger than the stoma D Gently washing the area surrounding the stoma using a facecloth and mild soap

D Gently washing the area surrounding the stoma using a facecloth and mild soap For a client with an ostomy, maintaining skin integrity is a priority. The nurse should gently wash the area surrounding the stoma using a facecloth and mild soap. Scrubbing the area around the stoma can damage the skin and cause bleeding. The faceplate opening should be no more than 1/8-inch to 1/6-inch larger than the stoma. This size protects the skin from exposure to irritating fecal material. The nurse can create an adequate seal and prevent leakage of fecal material from under the faceplate by applying a thin layer of skin barrier and smoothing out wrinkles in the faceplate. Eliminating wrinkles in the faceplate also protects the skin surrounding the stoma from pressure.

A student nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with chronic pancreatitis. What nursing diagnosis related to the care of a client with chronic pancreatitis is the priority? A Disturbed body image B Anxiety C Nausea D Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements

D Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements While each diagnosis may be applicable to this client, the priority nursing diagnosis is impaired nutrition: less than body requirements. The physician, nurse, and dietitian emphasize to the client and family the importance of avoiding alcohol and foods that have produced abdominal pain and discomfort in the past. Oral food or fluid intake is not permitted during the acute phase.

The nurse is educating a female patient with a UTI on the pharmacologic regimen for treatment. What is important for the nurse to instruct the patient to do? A Take the antibiotic as well as an antifungal for the yeast infection she will probably have. B Understand that if the infection reoccurs, the dose will be higher next time. C Be sure to take the medication with grapefruit juice. D Take the antibiotic for 3 days as prescribed.

D Take the antibiotic for 3 days as prescribed. The trend is toward a shortened course of antibiotic therapy for uncomplicated UTIs, because most cases are cured after 3 days of treatment. Regardless of the regimen prescribed, the patient is instructed to take all doses prescribed, even if relief of symptoms occurs promptly. Although brief pharmacologic treatment of UTIs for 3 days is usually adequate in women, infection recurs in about 20% of women treated for uncomplicated UTIs.

Which of the following hormones would the nurse identify as being secreted by the thyroid gland? A Parathormone B Thymosin C Somatotropin D Thyroxine

D Thyroxine The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine (T4 or tetraiodothyronine), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin. Parathormone is secreted by the parathyroid glands. Thymosin is secreted by the thymus gland. Somatotropin is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland

Total parental nutrition (TPN) should be used cautiously in clients with pancreatitis because such clients: A can digest high-fat foods. B are at risk for gallbladder contraction. C are at risk for hepatic encephalopathy. D cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration.

D cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration. Total parental nutrition (TPN) is used carefully in clients with pancreatitis because some clients cannot tolerate a high-glucose concentration even with insulin coverage. Intake of coffee increases the risk for gallbladder contraction, whereas intake of high protein increases risk for hepatic encephalopathy in clients with cirrhosis. Patients with pancreatitis should not be given high-fat foods because they are difficult to digest.

A patient has returned to the floor after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The patient has a continuous bladder irrigation system in place. The patient tells you he is experiencing bladder spasms and asks what you can do to relieve his discomfort. What is the most appropriate nursing action to relieve the discomfort of the patient? A) Apply a cold compress to the pubic area. B) Notify the urologist promptly. C) Irrigate the catheter with 30 to 50 mL of normal saline as ordered. D) Administer a smooth-muscle relaxant as ordered.

D) Administer a smooth-muscle relaxant as ordered. Administering a medication that relaxes smooth muscles can help relieve bladder spasms. Neither a cold compress nor catheter irrigation will alleviate bladder spasms. In most cases, this problem can be relieved without the involvement of the urologist, who will normally order medications on a PRN basis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperparathyroidism. What level of activity would the nurse expect to promote? A) Complete bed rest B) Bed rest with bathroom privileges C) Out of bed (OOB) to the chair twice a day D) Ambulation and activity as tolerated

D) Ambulation and activity as tolerated Mobility, with walking or use of a rocking chair for those with limited mobility, is encouraged as much as possible because bones subjected to normal stress give up less calcium. Best rest should be discouraged because it increases calcium excretion and the risk of renal calculi. Limiting the patient to getting out of bed only a few times a day also increases calcium excretion and the associated risks.

A patient with a peptic ulcer disease has had metronidazole (Flagyl) added to his current medication regimen. What health education related to this medication should the nurse provide? A) Take the medication on an empty stomach. B) Take up to one extra dose per day if stomach pain persists. C) Take at bedtime to mitigate the effects of drowsiness. D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug. Alcohol must be avoided when taking Flagyl and the medication should be taken with food. This drug does not cause drowsiness and the dose should not be adjusted by the patient.

Probably the most widely used in-office or at-home occult blood test is the Hemoccult II. The patient has come to the clinic because he thinks there is blood in his stool. When you reviewed his medications, you noted he is on antihypertensive drugs and NSAIDs for early arthritic pain. You are sending the patient home with the supplies necessary to perform 2 hemoccult tests on his stool and mail the samples back to the clinic. What instruction would you give this patient? A) Take all your medications as usual. B) Take all your medications except the antihypertensive medications. C) Dont eat highly acidic foods 72 hours before you start the test. D) Avoid vitamin C for 72 hours before you start the test.

D) Avoid vitamin C for 72 hours before you start the test. Red meats, aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, turnips, and horseradish should be avoided for 72 hours prior to the study, because they may cause a false-positive result. Also, ingestion of vitamin C from supplements or foods can cause a false-negative result. Acidic foods do not need to be avoided.

The nurse is caring for a 77-year-old patient diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What would be especially important to monitor this patient for? A)Pain B)Fluid overload C)Fatigue D)Dehydration

D) Dehydration Elderly patients can become dehydrated quickly and develop low potassium levels(ie, hypokalemia) as a result of diarrhea. The nurse observes for clinical manifestations of muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, or decreased peristaltic motility that may lead to paralytic ileus. All options would be important to monitor, but especially important is monitoring for dehydration

A patient with cystic fibrosis takes pancreatic enzyme replacements on a regular basis. The patients intake of trypsin facilitates what aspect of GI function? A) Vitamin D synthesis B) Digestion of fats C) Maintenance of peristalsis D) Digestion of proteins

D) Digestion of proteins Trypsin facilitates the digestion of proteins. It does not influence vitamin D synthesis, the digestion of fats, or peristalsis.

A patient has been treated in the hospital for an episode of acute pancreatitis. The patient has acknowledged the role that his alcohol use played in the development of his health problem, but has not expressed specific plans for lifestyle changes after discharge. What is the nurses most appropriate response? A) Educate the patient about the link between alcohol use and pancreatitis. B) Ensure that the patient knows the importance of attending follow-up appointments. C) Refer the patient to social work or spiritual care. D) Encourage the patient to connect with a community-based support group.

D) Encourage the patient to connect with a community-based support group. After the acute attack has subsided, some patients may be inclined to return to their previous drinking habits. The nurse provides specific information about resources and support groups that may be of assistance in avoiding alcohol in the future. Referral to Alcoholics Anonymous as appropriate or other support groups is essential. The patient already has an understanding of the effects of alcohol, and follow-up appointments will not necessarily result in lifestyle changes. Social work and spiritual care may or may not be beneficial.

26. An adult patient has been hospitalized with pyelonephritis. The nurses review of the patients intake and output records reveals that the patient has been consuming between 3 L and 3.5 L of oral fluid each day since admission. How should the nurse best respond to this finding? A) Supplement the patients fluid intake with a high-calorie diet. B) Emphasize the need to limit intake to 2 L of fluid daily. C) Obtain an order for a high-sodium diet to prevent dilutional hyponatremia. D) Encourage the patient to continue this pattern of fluid intake.

D) Encourage the patient to continue this pattern of fluid intake. Unless contraindicated, 3 to 4 L of fluids per day is encouraged to dilute the urine, decrease burning on urination, and prevent dehydration. No need to supplement this fluid intake with additional calories or sodium.

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of severe right upper quadrant pain. The patient states that his family doctor told him he had gallstones. The ED nurse should recognize what possible complication of gallstones? A) Acute pancreatitis B) Atrophy of the gallbladder C) Gallbladder cancer D) Gangrene of the gallbladder

D) Gangrene of the gallbladder In calculous cholecystitis, a gallbladder stone obstructs bile outflow. Bile remaining in the gallbladder initiates a chemical reaction; autolysis and edema occur; and the blood vessels in the gallbladder are compressed, compromising its vascular supply. Gangrene of the gallbladder with perforation may result. Pancreatitis, atrophy, and cancer of the gallbladder are not plausible complications.

A patient who has been diagnosed with cholecystitis is being discharged home from the ED to be scheduled for surgery later. The patient received morphine during the present ED admission and is visibly drowsy. When providing health education to the patient, what would be the most appropriate nursing action? A) Give written instructions to patient. B) Give verbal instructions to one of the patients family members. C) Telephone the patient the next day with verbal instructions. D) Give verbal and written instructions to patient and a family member.

D) Give verbal and written instructions to patient and a family member. Before discharge, verbal and written instructions for continuing care are given to the patient and the family or significant others. Discharge teaching is completed prior to the patient leaving the ED, so phoning the patient the next day in not acceptable.

A patient has presented at the clinic with symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia. What diagnostic findings would suggest that this patient has chronic urinary retention? A) Hypertension B) Peripheral edema C) Tachycardia and other dysrhythmias D) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

D) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Hypertension, edema, and tachycardia would not normally be associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Azotemia is an accumulation of nitrogenous waste products, and renal failure can occur with chronic urinary retention and large residual volumes.

A patient is being treated on the acute medical unit for acute pancreatitis. The nurse has identified a diagnosis of Ineffective Breathing Pattern Related to Pain. What intervention should the nurse perform in order to best address this diagnosis? A) Position the patient supine to facilitate diaphragm movement. B) Administer corticosteroids by nebulizer as ordered. C) Perform oral suctioning as needed to remove secretions. D) Maintain the patient in a semi-Fowlers position whenever possible.

D) Maintain the patient in a semi-Fowlers position whenever possible. The nurse maintains the patient in a semi-Fowlers position to decrease pressure on the diaphragm by a distended abdomen and to increase respiratory expansion. A supine position will result in increased pressure on the diaphragm and potentially decreased respiratory expansion. Steroids and oral suctioning are not indicated.

A patient confides to the nurse that he cannot engage in sexual activity. The patient is 27 years old and has no apparent history of chronic illness that would contribute to erectile dysfunction. What does the nurse know will be ordered for this patient to assess his sexual functioning? A) Sperm count B) Ejaculation capacity tests C) Engorgement tests D) Nocturnal penile tumescence tests

D) Nocturnal penile tumescence tests Nocturnal penile tumescence tests may be conducted in a sleep laboratory to monitor changes in penile circumference during sleep using various methods to determine number, duration, rigidity, and circumference of penile erections; the results help identify whether the erectile dysfunction is caused by physiologic and/or psychological factors. A sperm count would be done if the patient was complaining of infertility. Ejaculation capacity tests and engorgement tests are not applicable for assessment in this circumstance.

A patient with a recent diagnosis of hypothyroidism is being treated for an unrelated injury. When administering medications to the patient, the nurse should know that the patients diminished thyroid function may have what effect? A) Anaphylaxis B) Nausea and vomiting C) Increased risk of drug interactions D) Prolonged duration of effect

D) Prolonged duration of effect In all patients with hypothyroidism, the effects of analgesic agents, sedatives, and anesthetic agents are prolonged. There is no direct increase in the risk of anaphylaxis, nausea, or drug interactions, although these may potentially result from the prolonged half-life of drugs.

A patient has been experiencing occasional episodes of constipation and has been unable to achieve consistent relief by increasing physical activity and improving his diet. What pharmacologic intervention should the nurse recommend to the patient for ongoing use? A) Mineral oil enemas B) Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) C) Senna (Senokot) D) Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil)

D) Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) is a bulk-forming laxative that is safe for ongoing use. None of the other listed laxatives should be used on an ongoing basis because of the risk of dependence.

An inpatient has returned to the medical unit after a barium enema. When assessing the patients subsequent bowel patterns and stools, what finding should the nurse report to the physician? A) Large, wide stools B) Milky white stools C) Three stools during an 8-hour period of time D) Streaks of blood present in the stool

D) Streaks of blood present in the stool Barium has a high osmolarity and may draw fluid into the bowel, thus increasing the intraluminal contents and resulting in greater output (large stools). The barium will give the stools a milky white appearance, and it is not uncommon for the patient to experience an increase in the number of bowel movements. Blood in fecal matter is not an expected finding and the nurse should notify the physician.

A patient with a recent history of intermittent bleeding is undergoing capsule endoscopy to determine the source of the bleeding. When explaining this diagnostic test to the patient, what advantage should the nurse describe? A) The test allows visualization of the entire peritoneal cavity. B) The test allows for painless biopsy collection. C) The test does not require fasting. D) The test is noninvasive.

D) The test is noninvasive. Capsule endoscopy allows the noninvasive visualization of the mucosa throughout the entire small intestine. Bowel preparation is necessary and biopsies cannot be collected. This procedure allows visualization of the entire GI tract, but not the peritoneal cavity.

A patient with esophageal varices is being cared for in the ICU. The varices have begun to bleed and the patient is at risk for hypovolemia. The patient has Ringers lactate at 150 cc/hr infusing. What else might the nurse expect to have ordered to maintain volume for this patient? A) Arterial line B) Diuretics C) Foley catheter D) Volume expanders

D) Volume expanders Because patients with bleeding esophageal varices have intravascular volume depletion and are subject to electrolyte imbalance, IV fluids with electrolytes and volume expanders are provided to restore fluid volume and replace electrolytes. Diuretics would reduce vascular volume. An arterial line and Foley catheter are likely to be ordered, but neither actively maintains the patients volume.

A client who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, "How did I get this disease?" What is the nurse's best response? A. "You must have received an infected blood transfusion." B. "You could have gotten it by I.V. drug use." C. "You probably got it by engaging in unprotected sex." D. "You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food."

D. "You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food. "Hepatitis A virus typically is transmitted by the oral-fecal route — commonly by consuming food contaminated by infected food handlers.

When assessing a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which of the following stool characteristics is the client likely to report? A. Yellow-green B. Blood tinged C. Black and tarry D. Clay-colored or whitish

D. Clay-colored or whitish Many clients report passing clay-colored or whitish stools as a result of no bile in the gastrointestinal tract.

Examination of a client's bladder stones reveal that they are primarily composed of uric acid. The nurse would expect to provide the client with which type of diet? A Low oxalate B Low purine C High protein D High sodium

Low purine A low-purine diet is used for uric acid stones; the benefits, however, are unknown. Clients with a history of calcium oxalate stone formation need a diet that is adequate in calcium and low in oxalate. Only clients who have type II absorptive hypercalciuria—approximately half of the clients—need to limit calcium intake. Usually, clients are told to increase their fluid intake significantly, consume a moderate protein intake, and limit sodium. Avoiding excessive protein intake is associated with lower urinary oxalate and lower uric acid levels. Reducing sodium intake can lower urinary calcium levels.

A client is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of his chronic gastritis. When assessing his nutritional status, the nurse should expect a deficiency in: a) vitamin B12. b) vitamin A. c) vitamin C. d) vitamin B6.

a. vitamin B12. Explanation: The nurse should expect vitamin B12 deficiency. Injury to the gastric mucosa causes gastric atrophy and impaired function of the parietal cells. These changes result in reduced production of intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. Eventually, pernicious anemia will occur. Deficiencies in vitamins A, B6, and C aren't expected in a client with chronic gastritis.

The nurse will plan to monitor a patient with an obstructed common bile duct for: a. melena. b. steatorrhea. c. decreased serum cholesterol level. d. increased serum indirect bilirubin level.

b. steatorrhea. A common bile duct obstruction will reduce the absorption of fat in the small intestine, leading to fatty stools. Gastrointestinal bleeding is not caused by common bile duct obstruction. Serum cholesterol levels are increased with biliary obstruction. Direct bilirubin level is increased with biliary obstruction

A client reports to the clinic, stating that she rapidly developed headache, abdominal pain, nausea, hiccuping, and fatigue about 2 hours ago. For dinner, she ate buffalo chicken wings and beer. Which of the following medical conditions is most consistent with the client's presenting problems? a) Gastric cancer b) Duodenal ulcer c) Acute gastritis d) Gastric ulcer

c) Acute gastritis Explanation: The client with acute gastritis may have a rapid onset of symptoms, including abdominal discomfort, headache, lassitude, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and hiccuping, which can last from a few hours to a few days. Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion--a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms

Select all answer choices that apply. Which of the following are characteristics associated with the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES)? Select all that apply. a) Hypocalcemia b) Constipation c) Extreme gastric hyperacidity d) Severe peptic ulcers e) Gastrin-secreting tumors of the pancreas

c) Extreme gastric hyperacidity d) Severe peptic ulcers e) Gastrin-secreting tumors of the pancreas Explanation: ZES consists of severe peptic ulcers, extreme gastric hyperacidity, and gastrin-secreting benign or malignant tumors of the pancreas. Diarrhea and steatorrhea may be evident. The client may have co-existing parathyroid adenomas or hyperplasia and may therefore exhibit signs of hypercalcemia.

When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about any arm pain. b. Retake the patient's blood pressure. c. Check the calcium level in the chart. d. Notify the health care provider immediately.

c. Check the calcium level in the chart. The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for hypocalcemia, and the assessment data indicate a positive Trousseau's sign. The health care provider should be notified after the nurse checks the patient's calcium level. There is no indication that the patient needs to have the BP rechecked or that there is any arm pain.

Which of the following is the first portion of the small intestine? a) Pylorus b) Omentum c) Peritoneum d) Duodenum

d) Duodenum Explanation: The duodenum is the first portion of the small intestine, between the stomach and the jejunum. The pylorus is the opening between the stomach and duodenum. The peritoneum is the thin membrane that lines the inside of the wall of the abdomen and covers all the abdominal organs. The omentum is the fold of the peritoneum that surrounds the stomach and other organs of the abdomen.

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is a) blood pressure. b) edema. c) pulse rate. d) weight.

d) weight. Explanation:The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded. Blood pressure, pulse rate, and edema are not the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain.

Which data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Hemoglobin b. Temperature c. Activity level d. Albumin level

d. Albumin level The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. The other parameters should also be monitored, but they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms.

A 42-yr-old patient is admitted to the outpatient testing area for an ultrasound of the gallbladder. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the ultrasound may need to be rescheduled? a. The patient took a laxative the previous evening. b. The patient had a high-fat meal the previous evening. c. The patient has a permanent gastrostomy tube in place. d. The patient ate a low-fat bagel 4 hours ago for breakfast.

d. The patient ate a low-fat bagel 4 hours ago for breakfast. Food intake can cause the gallbladder to contract and result in a suboptimal study. The patient should be NPO for 8 to 12 hours before the test. A high-fat meal the previous evening, laxative use, or a gastrostomy tube will not affect the results of the study

The nurse receives the following information about a 51-yr-old female patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which information should be communicated to the health care provider before sending the patient for the procedure? a. The patient has a permanent pacemaker to prevent bradycardia. b. The patient is worried about discomfort during the examination. c. The patient has had an allergic reaction to both shellfish and iodine in the past. d. The patient declined to drink the prescribed polyethylene glycol (GoLYTELY)

d. The patient declined to drink the prescribed polyethylene glycol (GoLYTELY) If the patient has had inadequate bowel preparation, the colon cannot be visualized and the procedure should be rescheduled. Because contrast solution is not used during colonoscopy, the iodine allergy is not pertinent. A pacemaker is a contraindication to magnetic resonance imaging but not to colonoscopy. The nurse should instruct the patient about the sedation used during the examination to decrease the patient's anxiety about discomfort.

A nurse is performing discharge teaching with a client who had a total gastrectomy. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching? A "I will have to take vitamin B12 shots up to 1 year after surgery." B "I'm going to visit my pastor weekly for a while." C "I will call my physician if I begin to have abdominal pain." D "I will weight myself each day and record the weight."

A "I will have to take vitamin B12 shots up to 1 year after surgery." After a total gastrectomy, a client will need to take vitamin B12 shots for life. Dietary B12 is absorbed in the stomach, and the inability to absorb it could lead to pernicious anemia. Visiting clergy for emotional support is normal after receiving a cancer diagnosis. This action should be encouraged by the nurse. It's appropriate for the client to call the physician if he experiences signs and symptoms of intestinal blockage or obstruction, such as abdominal pain. Because a client with a total gastrectomy will receive enteral feedings or parenteral feedings, he should weigh himself each day and keep a record of the weights.

A client is having a diagnostic workup for reports of frequent diarrhea, right lower abdominal pain, and weight loss. The nurse is reviewing the results of the barium study and notes the presence of "string sign." What does the nurse understand that this is significant of? A Crohn's disease B Ulcerative colitis C Irritable bowel syndrome D Diverticulitis

A Crohn's disease The most conclusive diagnostic aid for Crohn's disease has classically been a barium study of the upper GI tract that shows a "string sign" on an x-ray film of the terminal ileum, indicating the constriction of a segment of intestine.

Which is one of the primary symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)? A Diarrhea B Abdominal distention C Bloating D Pain

A Diarrhea The primary symptoms of IBS include constipation, diarrhea, or a combination of both. Pain, bloating, and abdominal distention often accompany changes in bowel pattern.

A client underwent a continent ileostomy. Within which time frame should the client expect to empty the reservoir? A. Every 4 to 6 hours B. At least once every 2 days C. At least once a day D. Three or four times daily

A Every 4 to 6 hours These symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of pancreatic insufficiency. Loss of ileal absorbing surface results in ileal dysfunction. A toxic response to gluten is characteristic of celiac disease, and a deficiency of intestinal lactase results in lactose intolerance.

The nurse is conducting a community education program on UTIs. The nurse determines that the participants understand the teaching when they identify which factor is contributing to UTIs in older adults? A Immunocompromise B Sporadic use of antimicrobial agents C Low incidence of chronic illness D Active lifestyle

A Immunocompromise Factors that contribute to UTIs in older adults include immunocompromise, cognitive impairment, high incidence of chronic illness, immobility, incomplete emptying of the bladder, obstructed flow of urine, and frequent use of antimicrobial agents.

A client with Crohn's disease is losing weight. For which reason will the nurse anticipate the client being prescribed parenteral nutrition? A Impaired ability to absorb food B Unwilling to ingest nutrients orally C Insufficient oral intake D Prolonged preoperative nutritional needs

A Impaired ability to absorb food A client with Crohn's disease will have an impaired ability to ingest or absorb food orally or enterally. Clients with severe burns, malnutrition, short-bowel syndrome, AIDS, sepsis, and cancer would need parenteral nutrition because of insufficient oral intake. Unwillingness to ingest nutrients orally would cause a client with a major psychiatric illness to need parenteral nutrition. Prolonged surgical nutritional needs such as what occurs after extensive bowel surgery or acute pancreatitis would necessitate the need for parenteral nutrition.

A nursing student is caring for a client with gastritis. Which of the following would the student recognize as a common cause of gastritis? Choose all that apply. A Irritating foods B Participation in highly competitive sports C Overuse of aspirin D DASH diet E Ingestion of strong acids

A Irritating foods C Overuse of aspirin E Ingestion of strong acids Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate. A DASH diet is an acronym for Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, which would not cause gastritis. Participation in competitive sports also would not cause gastritis.

A patient has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. The nurse explains the diagnosis to the patient and his family by telling them that a hernia is a (an): A Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. B Extension of the esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm. C Involution of the esophagus, which causes a severe stricture. D Twisting of the duodenum through an opening in the diaphragm.

A Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. It is important for the patient and his family to understand the altered association between the esophagus and the stomach. The diaphragm opening, through which the esophagus passes, becomes enlarged and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax. The abnormality is not an involuntary, protruding, or twisted segment.

The nurse is providing an education program for the nursing assistants in a long-term care facility in order to decrease the number of UTIs in the female population. What interventions should the nurse introduce in the program? Select all that apply. A Provide careful perineal care. B Encourage patients to wear briefs. C For those patients who are incontinent, insert indwelling catheters. D Perform hand hygiene prior to patient care. E Assist the patients with frequent toileting.

A Provide careful perineal care. D Perform hand hygiene prior to patient care. E Assist the patients with frequent toileting. In institutionalized older patients, such as those in long-term care facilities, infecting pathogens are often resistant to many antibiotics. Diligent hand hygiene, careful perineal care, and frequent toileting may decrease the incidence of UTIs.

A client realizes that regular use of laxatives has greatly improved bowel patterns. However, the nurse cautions this client against the prolonged use of laxatives for which reason? A The client's natural bowel function may become sluggish. B The client may develop inflammatory bowel disease. C The client may develop arthritis or arthralgia. D The client may lose his or her appetite.

A The client's natural bowel function may become sluggish. It is essential for the nurse to caution the client against the prolonged use of laxatives because it decreases muscle tone in the large intestine. Prolonged use of laxatives may cause the client's natural bowel function to become sluggish. Laxatives do not increase the risk of developing inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, or arthralgia, nor do they cause a loss in appetite.

A client is being seen in the clinic for reports of painful hemorrhoids. The nurse assesses the client and observes the hemorrhoids are prolapsed but able to be placed back in the rectum manually. The nurse documents the hemorrhoids as what degree? A Third degree B Second degree C First degree D Fourth degree

A Third degree First degree hemorrhoids do not prolapse and protrude into the anal canal. Second degree hemorrhoids prolapse outside the anal canal during defecation but reduce spontaneously. Third degree hemorrhoids prolapse to the extent that they require manual reduction. Fourth degree hemorrhoids prolapse to the extent that they may not be reduced.

A patient with end-stage liver disease has developed hypervolemia. What nursing interventions would be most appropriate when addressing the patients fluid volume excess? Select all that apply. A) Administering diuretics B) Administering calcium channel blockers C) Implementing fluid restrictions D) Implementing a 1500 kcal/day restriction E) Enhancing patient positioning

A) Administering diuretics C) Implementing fluid restrictions E) Enhancing patient positioning Administering diuretics, implementing fluid restrictions, and enhancing patient positioning can optimize the management of fluid volume excess. Calcium channel blockers and calorie restriction do not address this problem.

A patient has been discharged home on parenteral nutrition (PN). Much of the nurses discharge education focused on coping. What must a patient on PN likely learn to cope with? Select all that apply. A) Changes in lifestyle B) Loss of eating as a social behavior C) Chronic bowel incontinence from GI changes D) Sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during nighttime infusions E) Stress of choosing the correct PN formulation

A) Changes in lifestyle B) Loss of eating as a social behavior D) Sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during nighttime infusions Patients must cope with the loss of eating as a social behavior and with changes in lifestyle brought on by sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during night time infusions. PN is not associated with bowel incontinence and the patient does not select or adjust the formulation of PN.

A patient has come to the outpatient radiology department for diagnostic testing. Which of the following diagnostic procedures will allow the care team to evaluate and remove polyps? A) Colonoscopy B) Barium enema C) ERCP D) Upper gastrointestinal fibroscopy

A) Colonoscopy During colonoscopy, tissue biopsies can be obtained as needed, and polyps can be removed and evaluated. This is not possible during a barium enema, ERCP, or gastroscopy.

The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply. A) Diabetes B) Testosterone deficiency C) Anxiety D) Depression E) Parkinsonism

A) Diabetes B) Testosterone deficiency E) Parkinsonism Organic causes of ED include cardiovascular disease, endocrine disease (diabetes, pituitary tumors, testosterone deficiency, hyperthyroidism, and hypothyroidism), cirrhosis, chronic renal failure, genitourinary conditions (radical pelvic surgery), hematologic conditions (Hodgkin disease, leukemia), neurologic disorders (neuropathies, parkinsonism, spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis), trauma to the pelvic or genital area, alcohol, smoking, medications, and drug abuse. Anxiety and depression are considered to be psychogenic causes.

The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with renal stones. During the admission assessment, what parameters would be priorities for the nurse to address? Select all that apply. A) Dietary history B) Family history of renal stones C) Medication history D) Surgical history

A) Dietary history B) Family history of renal stones C) Medication history Dietary and medication histories and family history of renal stones are obtained to identify factors predisposing the patient to stone formation. When caring for a patient with renal stones it would not normally be a priority to assess the vaccination history or surgical history, since these factors are not usually related to the etiology of kidney stones.

A patient with gastritis required hospital treatment for an exacerbation of symptoms and receives a subsequent diagnosis of pernicious anemia due to malabsorption. When planning the patients continuing care in the home setting, what assessment question is most relevant? A) Does anyone in your family have experience at giving injections? B) Are you going to be anywhere with strong sunlight in the next few months? C) Are you aware of your blood type? D) Do any of your family members have training in first aid?

A) Does anyone in your family have experience at giving injections? Patients with malabsorption of vitamin B12 need information about lifelong vitamin B12 injections; the nurse may instruct a family member or caregiver how to administer the injections or make arrangements for the patient to receive the injections from a health care provider. Questions addressing sun exposure, blood type and first aid are not directly relevant.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with hypothyroidism secondary to Hashimotos thyroiditis. When assessing this patient, what sign or symptom would the nurse expect? A) Fatigue B) Bulging eyes C) Palpitations D) Flushed skin

A) Fatigue Symptoms of hypothyroidism include extreme fatigue, hair loss, brittle nails, dry skin, voice huskiness or hoarseness, menstrual disturbance, and numbness and tingling of the fingers. Bulging

A patient has been scheduled for an ultrasound of the gallbladder the following morning. What should the nurse do in preparation for this diagnostic study? A) Have the patient refrain from food and fluids after midnight. B) Administer the contrast agent orally 10 to 12 hours before the study. C) Administer the radioactive agent intravenously the evening before the study. D) Encourage the intake of 64 ounces of water 8 hours before the study.

A) Have the patient refrain from food and fluids after midnight. An ultrasound of the gallbladder is most accurate if the patient fasts overnight, so that the gallbladder is distended. Contrast and radioactive agents are not used when performing ultrasonography of the gallbladder, as an ultrasound is based on reflected sound waves.

The nurse is assessing a patient suspected of having developed acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should expect to address what clinical manifestation that is characteristic of this health problem? A) Hematuria B) Precipitous decrease in serum creatinine levels C) Hypotension unresolved by fluid administration D) Glucosuria

A) Hematuria The primary presenting feature of acute glomerulonephritis is hematuria (blood in the urine), which may be microscopic (identifiable through microscopic examination) or macroscopic or gross (visible to the eye). Proteinuria, primarily albumin, which is present, is due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels may rise as urine output drops. Some degree of edema and hypertension is noted in most patients.

A football player is thought to have sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind. The ER nurse caring for the patient reviews the initial orders written by the physician and notes that an order to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. The nurse understands that this nursing intervention is important for what reason? A) Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. B) Intake and output calculations are essential and the laboratory will calculate the precise urine output produced by this patient. C) A creatinine clearance study may be ordered at a later time and the laboratory will hold all urine until it is determined if the test will be necessary. D) There is great concern about electrolyte imbalances and the laboratory will monitor the urine for changes in potassium and sodium concentrations.

A) Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma; its presence after trauma suggests renal injury. Hematuria may not occur, or it may be detectable only on microscopic examination. All urine should be saved and sent to the laboratory for analysis to detect RBCs and to evaluate the course of bleeding. Measuring intake and output is not a function of the laboratory. The laboratory does not save urine to test creatinine clearance at a later time. The laboratory does not monitor the urine for sodium or potassium concentrations.

A patient is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. When planning this patients care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse prioritize? A) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion Related to Bowel Ischemia B) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Impaired Absorption C) Anxiety Related to Bowel Obstruction and Subsequent Hospitalization D) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Bowel Obstruction

A) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion Related to Bowel Ischemia When the bowel is completely obstructed, the possibility of strangulation and tissue necrosis (i.e., tissue death) warrants surgical intervention. As such, this immediate physiologic need is a nursing priority. Nutritional support and management of anxiety are necessary, but bowel ischemia is a more immediate threat. Skin integrity is not threatened.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and whose bowel preparation will include polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage prior to the procedure. The presence of what health problem would contraindicate the use of this form of bowel preparation? A) Inflammatory bowel disease B) Intestinal polyps C) Diverticulitis D) Colon cancer

A) Inflammatory bowel disease The use of a lavage solution is contraindicated in patients with intestinal obstruction or inflammatory bowel disease. It can safely be used with patients who have polyps, colon cancer, or diverticulitis.

A 35-year-old male patient presents at the emergency department with symptoms of a small bowel obstruction. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what intervention should the nurse prioritize? A) Insertion of a nasogastric tube B) Insertion of a central venous catheter C) Administration of a mineral oil enema D) Administration of a glycerin suppository and an oral laxative

A) Insertion of a nasogastric tube Decompression of the bowel through a nasogastric tube is necessary for all patients with small bowel obstruction. Peripheral IV access is normally sufficient. Enemas, suppositories, and laxatives are not indicated if an obstruction is present.

The nurse is preparing to perform a patients abdominal assessment. What examination sequence should the nurse follow? A) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation B) Inspection, palpation, auscultation, and percussion C) Inspection, percussion, palpation, and auscultation D) Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation

A) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation When performing a focused assessment of the patients abdomen, auscultation should always precede percussion and palpation because they may alter bowel sounds. The traditional sequence for all other focused assessments is inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation.

A patient with a cholelithiasis has been scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Why is laparoscopic cholecystectomy preferred by surgeons over an open procedure? A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy poses fewer surgical risks than an open procedure. B) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy can be performed in a clinic setting, while an open procedure requires an OR. C) A laparoscopic approach allows for the removal of the entire gallbladder. D) A laparoscopic approach can be performed under conscious sedation.

A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy poses fewer surgical risks than an open procedure. Open surgery has largely been replaced by laparoscopic cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder through a small incision through the umbilicus). As a result, surgical risks have decreased, along with the length of hospital stay and the long recovery period required after standard surgical cholecystectomy. Both approaches allow for removal of the entire gallbladder and must be performed under general anesthetic in an operating theater.

An adult patient has been admitted to the medical unit for the treatment of acute pancreatitis. What nursing action should be included in this patients plan of care? A) Measure the patients abdominal girth daily. B) Limit the use of opioid analgesics. C) Monitor the patient for signs of dysphagia. D) Encourage activity as tolerated.

A) Measure the patients abdominal girth daily. Due to the risk of ascites, the nurse should monitor the patients abdominal girth. There is no specific need to avoid the use of opioids or to monitor for dysphagia, and activity is usually limited.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). When planning this patients care, the nurse should collaborate with the patient and prioritize what goal? A) Patient will accurately identify foods that trigger symptoms. B) Patient will demonstrate appropriate care of his ileostomy. C) Patient will demonstrate appropriate use of standard infection control precautions. D) Patient will adhere to recommended guidelines for mobility and activity.

A) Patient will accurately identify foods that trigger symptoms. A major focus of nursing care for the patient with IBS is to identify factors that exacerbate symptoms. Surgery is not used to treat this health problem and infection control is not a concern that is specific to this diagnosis. Establishing causation likely is more important to the patient than managing physical activity.

A nurse is promoting increased protein intake to enhance a patients wound healing. The nurse knows that enzymes are essential in the digestion of nutrients such as protein. What is the enzyme that initiates the digestion of protein? A) Pepsin B) Intrinsic factor C) Lipase D) Amylase

A) Pepsin The enzyme that initiates the digestion of protein is pepsin. Intrinsic factor combines with vitamin B12 for absorption by the ileum. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats and amylase aids in the digestion of starch.

An advanced practice nurse is assessing the size and density of a patients abdominal organs. If the results of palpation are unclear to the nurse, what assessment technique should be implemented? A) Percussion B) Auscultation C) Inspection D) Rectal examination

A) Percussion Percussion is used to assess the size and density of the abdominal organs and to detect the presence of air-filled, fluid-filled, or solid masses. Percussion is used either independently or concurrently with palpation because it can validate palpation findings.

Diagnostic imaging and physical assessment have revealed that a patient with peptic ulcer disease has suffered a perforated ulcer. The nurse recognizes that emergency interventions must be performed as soon as possible in order to prevent the development of what complication? A) Peritonitis B) Gastritis C) Gastroesophageal reflux D) Acute pancreatitis

A) Peritonitis Perforation is the erosion of the ulcer through the gastric serosa into the peritoneal cavity without warning. Chemical peritonitis develops within a few hours of perforation and is followed by bacterial peritonitis. Gastritis, reflux, and pancreatitis are not acute complications of a perforated ulcer.

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient home on parenteral nutrition. What should an effective home care teaching program address? Select all that apply. A) Preparing the patient to troubleshoot for problems B) Teaching the patient and family strict aseptic technique C) Teaching the patient and family how to set up the infusion D) Teaching the patient to flush the line with sterile water E) Teaching the patient when it is safe to leave the access site open to air

A) Preparing the patient to troubleshoot for problems B) Teaching the patient and family strict aseptic technique C) Teaching the patient and family how to set up the infusion An effective home care teaching program prepares the patient to store solutions, set up the infusion, flush the line with heparin, change the dressings, and troubleshoot for problems. The most common complication is sepsis. Strict aseptic technique is taught for hand hygiene, handling equipment, changing the dressing, and preparing the solution. Sterile water is never used for flushes and the access site must never be left open to air.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the post-surgical unit following renal surgery. When assessing the patients output from surgical drains, the nurse should assess what parameters? Select all that apply. A) Quantity of output B) Color of the output C) Visible characteristics of the output D) Odor of the output E) pH of the output

A) Quantity of output B) Color of the output C) Visible characteristics of the output Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Odor and pH are not normally assessed.

To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what? A) Report the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician. B) Decrease the intake of fluids to prevent urinary retention. C) Abstain from sexual activity for 2 weeks following the initiation of treatment. D) Anticipate a temporary worsening of urinary retention before symptoms subside.

A) Report the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician. Some herbal supplements are contraindicated with Proscar, thus their planned use should be discussed with the physician or pharmacist. The patient should maintain normal fluid intake. There is no need to abstain from sexual activity and a worsening of urinary retention is not anticipated.

The nurse on a urology unit is working with a patient who has been diagnosed with oxalate renal calculi. When planning this patients health education, what nutritional guidelines should the nurse provide? A) Restrict protein intake as ordered. B) Increase intake of potassium-rich foods. C) Follow a low-calcium diet. D) Encourage intake of food containing oxalates.

A) Restrict protein intake as ordered. Protein is restricted to 60 g/d, while sodium is restricted to 3 to 4 g/d. Low-calcium diets are generally not recommended except for true absorptive hypercalciuria. The patient should avoid intake of oxalate-containing foods and therre is no need to increase potassium intake

A patient asks the nurse why kidney problems can cause gastrointestinal disturbances. What relationship should the nurse describe? A) The right kidneys proximity to the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder B) The indirect impact of digestive enzymes on renal function C) That the peritoneum encapsulates the GI system and the kidneys D) The left kidneys connection to the common bile duct

A) The right kidneys proximity to the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder The proximity of the right kidney to the colon, duodenum, head of the pancreas, common bile duct, liver, and gallbladder may cause GI disturbances. The proximity of the left kidney to the colon (splenic flexure), stomach, pancreas, and spleen may also result in intestinal symptoms. Digestive enzymes do not affect renal function and the left kidney is not connected to the common bile duct.

A female patient has been prescribed a course of antibiotics for the treatment of a UTI. When providing health education for the patient, the nurse should address what topic? A) The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a consequent of antibiotic therapy B) The need to expect a heavy menstrual period following the course of antibiotics C) The risk of developing antibiotic resistance after the course of antibiotics D) The need to undergo a series of three urine cultures after the antibiotics have been completed

A) The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a consequent of antibiotic therapy Yeast vaginitis occurs in as many as 25% of patients treated with antimicrobial agents that affect vaginal flora. Yeast vaginitis can cause more symptoms and be more difficult and costly to treat than the original UTI. Antibiotics do not affect menstrual periods and serial urine cultures are not normally necessary. Resistance is normally a result of failing to complete a prescribed course of antibiotics.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a gastrointestinal tube in place. Which of the following are indications for gastrointestinal intubation? Select all that apply. A) To remove gas from the stomach B) To administer clotting factors to treat a GI bleed C) To remove toxins from the stomach D) To open sphincters that are closed E) To diagnose GI motility disorders

A) To remove gas from the stomach C) To remove toxins from the stomach E) To diagnose GI motility disorders GI intubation may be performed to decompress the stomach and remove gas and fluid, lavage (flush with water or other fluids) the stomach and remove ingested toxins or other harmful materials, diagnose disorders of GI motility and other disorders, administer medications and feedings, compress a bleeding site, and aspirate gastric contents for analysis. GI intubation is not used for opening sphincters that are not functional or for administering clotting factors.

A client is admitted for suspected GI disease. Assessment data reveal muscle, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendency. The nurse suspects the client has: A. Cirrhosis B. Appendicitis C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Cholelithiasis

A. Cirrhosis Muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendencies are all symptoms of cirrhosis. The client may also have mild fever, edema, abdominal pain, and an enlarged liver.

What test should the nurse prepare the client for that will locate stones that have collected in the common bile duct? A. ERCP B. Cholecystectomy C. Abdominal x-ray D. Colonoscopy

A. ERCP ERCP locates stones that have collected in the common bile duct.

A client who has undergone colostomy surgery is experiencing constipation. Which intervention should a nurse consider for such a client? A. Suggest fluid intake of at least 2 L/day B. Instruct the client to avoid prune or apple juice C. Assist the client regarding the correct diet or to minimize food intake D. Instruct the client to keep a record of food intake

A. Suggest fluid intake of at least 2 L/day Nurse should suggest a fluid intake of at least 2L/day to help client avoid constipation. The nurse should also offer prune or apple juice because they promote elimination. The nurse should encourage the client to eat regular meals. Dieting or fasting can decrease stool volume and slow elimination. The nurse should instruct the client to keep a record of food intake in case of diarrhea, because this helps identify specific foods that irritate the GI tract

A patient presents to the emergency room with a possible diagnosis of appendicitis. The health care provider asks the nurse to assess for tenderness at McBurney's point. The nurse knows to palpate the area: A Between the umbilicus and the left iliac crest. B Between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine. C In the left periumbilical area. D In the upper right quadrant slightly below the diaphragm

B Between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine. Local tenderness in the right lower quadrant is elicited at McBurney's point when pressure is applied between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine.

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with diverticulosis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching? A Use laxatives weekly. B Drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid daily. C Avoid unprocessed bran. D Avoid daily exercise.

B Drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid daily. The nurse should instruct a client with diverticulosis to drink at least 8 to 10 large glasses of fluid every day. The client should include unprocessed bran in the diet because it adds bulk, and should avoid the use of laxatives or enemas except when recommended by the physician. In addition, regular exercise should be encouraged if the client's current lifestyle is somewhat inactive.

The nurse is caring for an older adult patient experiencing fecal incontinence. When planning the care of this patient, what should the nurse designate as a priority goal? A. Determining the need for surgical intervention to correct the problem B. Maintaining skin integrity C. Instituting a diet high in fiber and increase fluid intake D. Beginning a bowel program to establish continence

B Maintaining Skin integrity R: Fecal incontinence can disrupt perineal skin integrity. Maintaining skin integrity is a priority, especially in the debilitated or older adult patient.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is admitted to the intensive care unit to monitor for pulmonary complications. What is the nurse's understanding of the pathophysiology of pulmonary complications related to pancreatitis? A Pancreatitis causes alterations to hemoglobin, impairing oxygenation. B Pancreatitis can elevate the diaphragm and alter the breathing pattern. C Pancreatitis can atrophy the diaphragm and alter the breathing pattern. D Pancreatitis causes thickening of pulmonary secretions, impairing oxygenation.

B Pancreatitis can elevate the diaphragm and alter the breathing pattern. Aggressive pulmonary care is required for clients with acute pancreatitis. Pancreatitis can elevate the diaphragm and alter the breathing pattern of clients. Pancreatitis can cause retention of pulmonary secretions but does not thicken the secretions. Acute pancreatitis does not alter the hemoglobin.

Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? Select all that apply. A Famotidine (Pepcid) B Rabeprazole (AcipHex) C Nizatidine (Axid) D Esomeprazole (Nexium) E Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

B Rabeprazole (AcipHex) D Esomeprazole (Nexium) E Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

A client comes to the ED with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The physician plans to rule out acute pancreatitis. The nurse would expect the diagnosis to be confirmed by an elevated result on which laboratory test? A Serum bilirubin B Serum amylase C Serum potassium D Serum calcium

B Serum amylase Serum amylase and lipase concentrations are used to make the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Serum amylase and lipase concentrations are elevated within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms. Serum amylase usually returns to normal within 48 to 72 hours, but the serum lipase concentration may remain elevated for a longer period, often days longer than amylase. Urinary amylase concentrations also become elevated and remain elevated longer than serum amylase concentrations.

What is a true statement regarding regional enteritis (Crohns) A. lesions are in continous contact with one another B The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance C It is characterized by pain in the lower left abdominal quadrant D It has a progressive disease pattern

B The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance. It is characterized by remissions and exacerbations. The pain is located in the lower right quadrant. The lesions are not in continuous contact with one another and are separated by normal tissue.

A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of toxic hepatitis. When planning the patients care, the nurse should be aware of what potential clinical course of this health problem? Place the following events in the correct sequence. 1. Fever rises. 2. Hematemesis. 3. Clotting abnormalities. 4. Vascular collapse. 5. Coma. A) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Recovery from acute toxic hepatitis is rapid if the hepatotoxin is identified early and removed or if exposure to the agent has been limited. Recovery is unlikely if there is a prolonged period between exposure and onset of symptoms. There are no effective antidotes. The fever rises; the patient becomes toxic and prostrated. Vomiting may be persistent, with the emesis containing blood. Clotting abnormalities may be severe, and hemorrhages may appear under the skin. The severe GI symptoms may lead to vascular collapse. Delirium, coma, and seizures develop, and within a few days the patient may die of fulminant hepatic failure unless he or she receives a liver transplant.

The nurse is caring for a patient recently diagnosed with renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the patient to increase fluid intake to a level where the patient produces at least how much urine each day? A) 1,250 mL B) 2,000 mL C) 2,750 mL D) 3,500 mL

B) 2,000 mL Unless contraindicated by renal failure or hydronephrosis, patients with renal stones should drink at least eight 8-ounce glasses of water daily or have IV fluids prescribed to keep the urine dilute. A urine output exceeding 2 L a day is advisable.

A nursing instructor is discussing hemorrhoids with the nursing class. Which patients would the nursing instructor identify as most likely to develop hemorrhoids? A) A 45-year-old teacher who stands for 6 hours per day B) A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation C) A 37-year-old construction worker who does heavy lifting D) A 60-year-old professional who is under stress

B) A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation Hemorrhoids commonly affect 50% of patients after the age of 50. Pregnancy may initiate hemorrhoids or aggravate existing ones. This is due to increased constipation during pregnancy. The significance of pregnancy is greater than that of standing, lifting, or stress in the development of hemorrhoids.

A patient has come to the clinic complaining of blood in his stool. A FOBT test is performed but is negative. Based on the patients history, the physician suggests a colonoscopy, but the patient refuses, citing a strong aversion to the invasive nature of the test. What other test might the physician order to check for blood in the stool? A) A laparoscopic intestinal mucosa biopsy B) A quantitative fecal immunochemical test C) Computed tomography (CT) D) Magnetic resonance imagery (MRI)

B) A quantitative fecal immunochemical test Quantitative fecal immunochemical tests may be more accurate than guaiac testing and useful for patients who refuse invasive testing. CT or MRI cannot detect blood in stool. Laparoscopic intestinal mucosa biopsy is not performed.

A female patient has presented to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain; the physician has ordered abdominal ultrasound to rule out cholecystitis (gallbladder infection). The patient expresses concern to the nurse about the safety of this diagnostic procedure. How should the nurse best respond? A) Abdominal ultrasound is very safe, but it cant be performed if youre pregnant. B) Abdominal ultrasound poses no known safety risks of any kind. C) Current guidelines state that a person can have up to 3 ultrasounds per year. D) Current guidelines state that a person can have up to 6 ultrasounds per year.

B) Abdominal ultrasound poses no known safety risks of any kind. An ultrasound produces no ill effects and there are not specific limits on its use, even during pregnancy.

A patient has had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The patient is now complaining of right shoulder pain. What should the nurse suggest to relieve the pain? A) Aspirin every 4 to 6 hours as ordered B) Application of heat 15 to 20 minutes each hour C) Application of an ice pack for no more than 15 minutes D) Application of liniment rub to affected area

B) Application of heat 15 to 20 minutes each hour If pain occurs in the right shoulder or scapular area (from migration of the CO2 used to insufflate the abdominal cavity during the procedure), the nurse may recommend use of a heating pad for 15 to 20 minutes hourly, walking, and sitting up when in bed. Aspirin would constitute a risk for bleeding.

A patient has had an ileostomy created for the treatment of irritable bowel disease and the patient is now preparing for discharge. What should the patient be taught about changing this device in the home A) Apply antibiotic ointment as ordered after cleaning the stoma. B) Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. C) Dispose of the clamp with each bag change. D) Cleanse the area surrounding the stoma with alcohol or chlorhexidine.

B) Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. Guidelines for changing an ileostomy appliance are as follows. Skin should be washed with soap and water, and dried. A skin barrier should be applied to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. Clamps are supplied one per box and should be reused with each bag change. Topical antibiotics are not utilized, but an antifungal spray or powder may be used.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute glomerular inflammation. When assessing for the characteristic signs and symptoms of this health problem, the nurse should include which assessments? Select all that apply. A) Percuss for pain in the right lower abdominal quadrant. B) Assess for the presence of peripheral edema. C) Auscultate the patients apical heart rate for dysrhythmias. D) Assess the patients BP. E) Assess the patients orientation and judgment.

B) Assess for the presence of peripheral edema D) Assess the patients BP. Most patients with acute glomerular inflammation have some degree of edema and hypertension. Dysrhythmias, RLQ pain, and changes in mental status are not among the most common manifestations of acute glomerular inflammation.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is postoperative day 2 following gastric surgery. The nurses assessment should be planned in light of the possibility of what potential complications? Select all that apply. A) Malignant hyperthermia B) Atelectasis C) Pneumonia D) Metabolic imbalances E) Chronic gastritis

B) Atelectasis C) Pneumonia D) Metabolic imbalances After surgery, the nurse assesses the patient for complications secondary to the surgical intervention, such as pneumonia, atelectasis, or metabolic imbalances resulting from the GI disruption. Malignant hyperthermia is an intraoperative complication. Chronic gastritis is not a surgical complication.

A nurse is caring for a patient with constipation whose primary care provider has recommended senna (Senokot) for the management of this condition. The nurse should provide which of the following education points? A) Limit your fluid intake temporarily so you dont get diarrhea. B) Avoid taking the drug on a long-term basis. C) Make sure to take a multivitamin with each dose. D) Take this on an empty stomach to ensure maximum effect.

B) Avoid taking the drug on a long-term basis. Laxatives should not be taken on an ongoing basis in order to reduce the risk of dependence. Fluid should be increased, not limited, and there is no need to take each dose with a multivitamin. Senna does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

A patient admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and complains of a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurses rapid assessment reveals that the patients abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurses best response? A) Administer a Fleet enema as ordered and remain with the patient. B) Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation. C) Position the patient supine and insert an NG tube. D) Page the primary care provider and report that the patient may be obstructed.

B) Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation. The patients change in status is suggestive of perforation, which is a surgical emergency. Obstruction does not have this presentation involving fever and abdominal rigidity. An enema would be strongly contraindicated. An order is needed for NG insertion and repositioning is not a priority.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing diagnostic testing for suspected malabsorption. When taking this patients health history and performing the physical assessment, the nurse should recognize what finding as most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Recurrent constipation coupled with weight loss B) Foul-smelling diarrhea that contains fat C) Fever accompanied by a rigid, tender abdomen D) Bloody bowel movements accompanied by fecal incontinence

B) Foul-smelling diarrhea that contains fat The hallmarks of malabsorption syndrome from any cause are diarrhea or frequent, loose, bulky, foul- smelling stools that have increased fat content and are often grayish (steatorrhea). Constipation and bloody bowel movements are not suggestive of malabsorption syndromes. Fever and a tender, rigid abdomen are associated with peritonitis.

A nursing student has auscultated a patients abdomen and noted one or two bowel sounds in a 2-minute period of time. How would you tell the student to document the patients bowel sounds? A) Normal B) Hypoactive C) Hyperactive D) Paralytic ileus

B) Hypoactive Documenting bowel sounds is based on assessment findings. The terms normal (sounds heard about every 5 to 20 seconds), hypoactive (one or two sounds in 2 minutes), hyperactive (5 to 6 sounds heard in less than 30 seconds), or absent (no sounds in 3 to 5 minutes) are frequently used in documentation. Paralytic ileus is a medical diagnosis that may cause absent or hypoactive bowel sounds, but the nurse would not independently document this diagnosis.

A patient with gallstones has been prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). The nurse understands that additional teaching is needed regarding this medication when the patient states: A) It is important that I see my physician for scheduled follow-up appointments while taking this medication. B) I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then gradually stop taking it. C) If I lose weight, the dose of the medication may need to be changed. D) This medication will help dissolve small gallstones made of cholesterol.

B) I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then gradually stop taking it. Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) has been used to dissolve small, radiolucent gallstones composed primarily of cholesterol. This drug can reduce the size of existing stones, dissolve small stones, and prevent new stones from forming. Six to 12 months of therapy is required in many patients to dissolve stones, and monitoring of the patient is required during this time. The effective dose of medication depends on body weight.

The nurses assessment of a patient with thyroidectomy suggests tetany and a review of the most recent blood work corroborate this finding. The nurse should prepare to administer what intervention? A) Oral calcium chloride and vitamin D B) IV calcium gluconate C) STAT levothyroxine D) Administration of parathyroid hormone (PTH)

B) IV calcium gluconate When hypocalcemia and tetany occur after a thyroidectomy, the immediate treatment is administration of IV calcium gluconate. This has a much faster therapeutic effect than PO calcium or vitamin D supplements. PTH and levothyroxine are not used to treat this complication.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse is addressing the diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Pancreatitis. What pharmacologic intervention is most likely to be ordered for this patient? A) Oral oxycodone B) IV hydromorphone (Dilaudid) C) IM meperidine (Demerol) D) Oral naproxen (Aleve)

B) IV hydromorphone (Dilaudid) The pain of acute pancreatitis is often very severe and pain relief may require parenteral opioids such as morphine, fentanyl (Sublimaze), or hydromorphone (Dilaudid). There is no clinical evidence to support the use of meperidine for pain relief in pancreatitis. Opioids are preferred over NSAIDs.

A patient has been successfully treated for kidney stones and is preparing for discharge. The nurse recognizes the risk of recurrence and has planned the patients discharge education accordingly. What preventative measure should the nurse encourage the patient to adopt? A) Increasing intake of protein from plant sources B) Increasing fluid intake C) Adopting a high-calcium diet D) Eating several small meals each day

B) Increasing fluid intake Increased fluid intake is encouraged to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones. Protein intake from all sources should be limited. Most patients do not require a low-calcium diet, but increased calcium intake would be contraindicated for all patients. Eating small, frequent meals does not influence the risk for recurrence.

A nurse is caring for a patient with gallstones who has been prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). The patient askshow this medicine is going to help his symptoms. The nurse should be aware of what aspect of this drugs pharmacodynamics? A) It inhibits the synthesis of bile. B) It inhibits the synthesis and secretion of cholesterol. C) It inhibits the secretion of bile. D) It inhibits the synthesis and secretion of amylase.

B) It inhibits the synthesis and secretion of cholesterol. UDCA acts by inhibiting the synthesis and secretion of cholesterol, thereby desaturating bile. UDCA does not directly inhibit either the synthesis or secretion of bile or amylase.

A nurse who provides care in a long-term care facility is aware of the high incidence and prevalence of urinary tract infections among older adults. What action has the greatest potential to prevent UTIs in this population? A) Administer prophylactic antibiotics as ordered. B) Limit the use of indwelling urinary catheters. C) Encourage frequent mobility and repositioning. D) Toilet residents who are immobile on a scheduled basis.

B) Limit the use of indwelling urinary catheters. When indwelling catheters are used, the risk of UTI increases dramatically. Limiting their use significantly reduces an older adults risk of developing a UTI. Regular toileting promotes continence, but has only an indirect effect on the risk of UTIs. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally administered. Mobility does not have a direct effect on UTI risk.

A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Lower esophageal sphincter C) Hypopharyngeal sphincter D) Upper esophageal sphincter

B) Lower esophageal sphincter The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum.

10. A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)? A) Cataracts B) Retinopathy C) Hypotension D) Diabetic nephropathy

B) Retinopathy Patients with cataracts, hypotension, or nephropathy will be allowed to take tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) if needed. However, tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) are usually contraindicated with diabetic retinopathy.

A patient has been scheduled for a urea breath test in one months time. What nursing diagnosis most likely prompted this diagnostic test? A) Impaired Dentition Related to Gingivitis B) Risk For Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Peptic Ulcers C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Enzyme Deficiency D) Diarrhea Related to Clostridium Dif icile Infection

B) Risk For Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Peptic Ulcers Urea breath tests detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori, the bacteria that can live in the mucosal lining of the stomach and cause peptic ulcer disease. This test does not address fluid volume, nutritional status, or dentition.

A nurse at an outpatient surgery center is caring for a patient who had a hemorrhoidectomy. What discharge education topics should the nurse address with this patient? A) The appropriate use of antibiotics to prevent postoperative infection B) The correct procedure for taking a sitz bath C) The need to eat a low-residue, low-fat diet for the next 2 weeks D) The correct technique for keeping the perianal region clean without the use of water

B) The correct procedure for taking a sitz bath Sitz baths are usually indicated after perianal surgery. A low-residue, low-fat diet is not necessary and water is used to keep the region clean. Postoperative antibiotics are not normally prescribed.

A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication? A) Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection. B) The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse. C) Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately. D) The drug has the potential to cause permanent visual changes.

B) The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse. The patient must have sexual stimulation to create the erection, and the drug should be taken 1 hour before intercourse. Facial flushing, mild headache, indigestion, and running nose are common side effects of Viagra and do not normally warrant reporting to the physician. Some visual disturbances may occur, but these are transient.

A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction? A) The patient has been treated for a UTI twice in the past year. B) The patient has a history of hypertension. C) The patient is 66 years old. D) The patient leads a sedentary lifestyle.

B) The patient has a history of hypertension. Past history of infection and lack of exercise do not contribute to impotence. With advancing age, sexual function and libido and potency decrease somewhat, but this is not the primary reason for impotence. Vascular problems cause about half the cases of impotence in men older than 50 years; hypertension is a major cause of such problems.

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department (ED) in distress. What assessment finding would lead the ED nurse to suspect that the patient has a perforated ulcer? A) The patient has abdominal bloating that developed rapidly. B) The patient has a rigid, boardlike abdomen that is tender. C) The patient is experiencing intense lower right quadrant pain. D) The patient is experiencing dizziness and confusion with no apparent hemodynamic changes.

B) The patient has a rigid, boardlike abdomen that is tender. An extremely tender and rigid (boardlike) abdomen is suggestive of a perforated ulcer. None of the other listed signs and symptoms is suggestive of a perforated ulcer.

The nurse is teaching a health class about UTIs to a group of older adults. What characteristic of UTIs should the nurse cite? A) Men over age 65 are equally prone to UTIs as women, but are more often asymptomatic. B) The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. C) Men of all ages are less prone to UTIs, but typically experience more severe symptoms. D) The prevalence of UTIs in men cannot be reliably measured, as men generally do not report UTIs.

B) The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. The antibacterial activity of the prostatic secretions that protect men from bacterial colonization of the urethra and bladder decreases with aging. The prevalence of infection in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. Men are not more likely to be asymptomatic and are not known to be reluctant to report UTIs.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) the following day. When providing anticipatory guidance for this patient, the nurse should describe what aspect of this diagnostic procedure? A) The need to protect the incision postprocedure B) The use of moderate sedation C) The need to infuse 50% dextrose during the procedure D) The use of general anesthesia

B) The use of moderate sedation Moderate sedation, not general anesthesia, is used during ERCP. D50 is not administered and the procedure does not involve the creation of an incision.

A patient admitted with inflammatory bowel disease asks the nurse for help with menu selections. What menu selection is most likely the best choice for this patient? A) Spinach B) Tofu C) Multigrain bagel D) Blueberries

B) Tofu Nutritional management of inflammatory bowel disease requires ingestion of a diet that is bland, low- residue, high-protein, and high-vitamin. Tofu meets each of the criteria. Spinach, multigrain bagels, and blueberries are not low-residue.

The nurse is assessing a client with hepatic cirrhosis for mental deterioration. For what clinical manifestations will the nurse monitor? Select all that apply. A. Decreased DTR's B. Alterations in mood C. Report of headache D. Insomnia E. Agitation

B. Alterations in mood D. Insomnia E. Agitation The earliest symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy include both mental status changes and motor disturbances. The client appears confused and unkempt and has alterations in mood and sleep patterns. The client tends to sleep during the day and has restlessness and insomnia at night. To assess for mental deterioration, the nurse will assess general behavior, orientation, and speech as well as cognitive abilities and speech patterns.

A patient with IBD would be encouraged to increase fluids, use vitamins and iron supplements, and follow a diet designed to reduce inflammation. Select the meal choice that would be recommended for a low-residue diet. A. A fruit salad with yogurt B. Broiled chicken with low-fiber pasta C. Salami on whole grain bread and V-8 juice D. A peanut butter sandwich and fruit cup

B. Broiled chicken with low-fiber pasta A low-residue, high-protein, and high-calorie diet is recommended to reduce the size and number of stools. Foods to avoid include yogurt, fruit, salami, and peanut butter.

The nurse is administering medications to a client that has elevated ammonia due to cirrhosis of the liver. What medication will the nurse give to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent? A. Spironolactone B. Lactulose C. Kanamycin D. Cholestyramine

B. Lactulose Lactulose is administered to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent, drawing water into the bowel, which causes diarrhea in some clients.

Peptic ulcer disease occurs more frequently in people with which blood type?' A. B B. O C. AB D. A

B. O People with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than those with blood type A, B, or AB.

Upon receiving the dinner tray for a client admitted with acute gallbladder inflammation, the nurse will question which of the following foods on the tray? A Mashed potatoes B White rice C Hot roast beef sandwich with gravy D Vanilla pudding

C Hot roast beef sandwich with gravy The diet immediately after an episode of acute cholecystitis is initially limited to low-fat liquids. Cooked fruits, rice or tapioca, lean meats, mashed potatoes, bread, and coffee or tea may be added as tolerated. The client should avoid fried foods such as roast beef because fatty foods may bring on an episode of cholecystitis.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy and is at risk for hypocalcemia. What should the nurse do? A Observe for swelling of the neck, tracheal deviation, and severe pain. B Evaluate the quality of the client's voice postoperatively, noting any drastic changes. C Observe for muscle twitching and numbness or tingling of the lips, fingers, and toes. D Monitor laboratory values daily for elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone.

C Observe for muscle twitching and numbness or tingling of the lips, fingers, and toes. Muscle twitching and numbness or tingling of the lips, fingers, and toes are signs of hyperirritability of the nervous system due to hypocalcemia. The other options describe complications for which the nurse should also be observing; however, tetany and neurologic alterations are primary indications of hypocalcemia.

Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor? A Sucralfate B Famotidine C Omeprazole D Metronidazole

C Omeprazole

During assessment of a client for a malabsorption disorder, the nurse notes a history of abdominal pain and weight loss, marked steatorrhea, azotorrhea, and frequent glucose intolerance. Based on these clinical features, what diagnosis will the nurse suspect? A Lactose intolerance. B Celiac disease. C Pancreatic insufficiency. D Ileal dysfunction.

C Pancreatic insufficiency These symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of pancreatic insufficiency. Loss of ileal absorbing surface results in ileal dysfunction. A toxic response to gluten is characteristic of celiac disease, and a deficiency of intestinal lactase results in lactose intolerance. Refer to Table 24-2 in the text.

When caring for a client with acute pancreatitis, the nurse should use which comfort measure? A Administering frequent oral feedings B Administering an analgesic once per shift, as ordered, to prevent drug addiction C Positioning the client on the side with the knees flexed D Encouraging frequent visits from family and friends

C Positioning the client on the side with the knees flexed

The nurse observes the physician palpating the abdomen of a client that is suspected of having acute appendicitis. When the abdomen is pressed in the left lower quadrant the client complains of pain on the right side. What does the nurse understand this assessment technique is referred to? A Referred pain B Rebound pain C Rovsing's sign D Cremasteric reflex

C Rovsing's sign Explanation:When an examiner deeply palpates the left lower abdominal quadrant and the client feels pain in the RLQ, this is referred to as a positive Rovsing's sign and suggests acute appendicitis. Referred pain indicates pain in another area but is not necessarily manipulated by the examiner. Rebound pain is indicated when the pain of palpation is worse when the pressure is off of the site. The cremasteric reflex is a superficial reflex that is present in male patients.

A nurse who provides care in a walk-in clinic assesses a wide range of individuals. The nurse should identify which of the following patients as having the highest risk for chronic pancreatitis? A) A 45-year-old obese woman with a high-fat diet B) An 18-year-old man who is a weekend binge drinker C) A 39-year-old man with chronic alcoholism D) A 51-year-old woman who smokes one-and-a-half packs of cigarettes per day

C) A 39-year-old man with chronic alcoholism Excessive and prolonged consumption of alcohol accounts for approximately 70% to 80% of all cases of chronic pancreatitis.

A student nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and who is receiving parenteral nutrition. The student should prioritize which of the following assessments? A) Fluid output B) Oral intake C) Blood glucose levels D) BUN and creatinine levels

C) Blood glucose levels In addition to administering enteral or parenteral nutrition, the nurse monitors serum glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours. Output should be monitored but in most cases it is not more important than serum glucose levels. A patient on parenteral nutrition would have no oral intake to monitor. Blood sugar levels are more likely to be unstable than indicators of renal function.

A patient has just been diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. The patient is underweight and in severe pain and diagnostic testing indicates that over 80% of the patients pancreas has been destroyed. The patient asks the nurse why the diagnosis was not made earlier in the disease process. What would be the nurses best response? A) The symptoms of pancreatitis mimic those of much less serious illnesses. B) Your body doesnt require pancreatic function until it is under great stress, so it is easy to go unnoticed. C) Chronic pancreatitis often goes undetected until a large majority of pancreatic function is lost. D) Its likely that your other organs were compensating for your decreased pancreatic function.

C) Chronic pancreatitis often goes undetected until a large majority of pancreatic function is lost. By the time symptoms occur in chronic pancreatitis, approximately 90% of normal acinar cell function (exocrine function) has been lost. Late detection is not usually attributable to the vagueness of symptoms. The pancreas contributes continually to homeostasis and other organs are unable to perform its physiologic functions.

A female patient has been experiencing recurrent urinary tract infections. What health education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) Bathe daily and keep the perineal region clean. B) Avoid voiding immediately after sexual intercourse. C) Drink liberal amounts of fluids. D) Void at least every 6 to 8 hours.

C) Drink liberal amounts of fluids. The patient is encouraged to drink liberal amounts of fluids (water is the best choice) to increase urine production and flow, which flushes the bacteria from the urinary tract. Frequent voiding (every 2 to 3 hours) is encouraged to empty the bladder completely because this can significantly lower urine bacterial counts, reduce urinary stasis, and prevent reinfection. The patient should be encouraged to shower rather than bathe.

A patient has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of chronic pancreatitis. The patient has been stabilized and the nurse is now planning health promotion and educational interventions. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize? A) Educating the patient about expectations and care following surgery B) Educating the patient about the management of blood glucose after discharge C) Educating the patient about postdischarge lifestyle modifications D) Educating the patient about the potential benefits of pancreatic transplantation

C) Educating the patient about postdischarge lifestyle modifications The patients lifestyle (especially regarding alcohol use) is a major determinant of the course of chronic pancreatitis. The disease is not often managed by surgery and blood sugar monitoring is not necessarily indicated for every patient after hospital treatment. Transplantation is not an option.

A patient is receiving care in the intensive care unit for acute pancreatitis. The nurse is aware that pancreatic necrosis is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis. Consequently, the nurse should assess for what signs or symptoms of this complication? A) Sudden increase in random blood glucose readings B) Increased abdominal girth accompanied by decreased level of consciousness C) Fever, increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure D) Abdominal pain unresponsive to analgesics

C) Fever, increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure Pancreatic necrosis is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis because of resulting hemorrhage, septic shock, and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Signs of shock would include hypotension, tachycardia and fever. Each of the other listed changes in status warrants intervention, but none is clearly suggestive of an onset of pancreatic necrosis.

A nurse is assessing the abdomen of a patient just admitted to the unit with a suspected GI disease. Inspection reveals several diverse lesions on the patients abdomen. How should the nurse best interpret this assessment finding? A) Abdominal lesions are usually due to age-related skin changes. B) Integumentary diseases often cause GI disorders. C) GI diseases often produce skin changes. D) The patient needs to be assessed for self-harm.

C) GI diseases often produce skin changes. Abdominal lesions are of particular importance, because GI diseases often produce skin changes. Skin problems do not normally cause GI disorders. Age-related skin changes do not have a pronounced effect on the skin of the abdomen when compared to other skin surfaces. Self-harm is a less likely explanation for skin lesions on the abdomen.

The nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having renal dysfunction. When reviewing laboratory results for this patient, the nurse interprets the presence of which substances in the urine as most suggestive of pathology? A) Potassium and sodium B) Bicarbonate and urea C) Glucose and protein D) Creatinine and chloride

C) Glucose and protein The various substances normally filtered by the glomerulus, reabsorbed by the tubules, and excreted in the urine include sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, potassium, glucose, urea, creatinine, and uric acid. Within the tubule, some of these substances are selectively reabsorbed into the blood. Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the tubule and normally does not appear in the urine. However, glucose is found in the urine if the amount of glucose in the blood and glomerular filtrate exceeds the amount that the tubules are able to reabsorb. Protein molecules are also generally not found in the urine because amino acids are also filtered at the level of the glomerulus and reabsorbed so that it is not excreted in the urine.

A patient has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of ureteral colic secondary to urolithiasis. When planning the patients admission assessment, the nurse should be aware of the signs and symptoms that are characteristic of this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Diarrhea B) High fever C) Hematuria D) Urinary frequency E) Acute pain

C) Hematuria D) Urinary frequency E) Acute pain Stones lodged in the ureter (ureteral obstruction) cause acute, excruciating, colicky, wavelike pain, radiating down the thigh and to the genitalia. Often, the patient has a desire to void, but little urine is passed, and it usually contains blood because of the abrasive action of the stone. This group of symptoms is called ureteral colic. Diarrhea is not associated with this presentation and a fever is usually absent due to the noninfectious nature of the health problem.

A patient with a fractured femur presenting to the ED exhibits cool, moist skin, increased heart rate, and falling BP. The care team should consider the possibility of what complication of the patients injuries? A) Myocardial infarction B) Hypoglycemia C) Hemorrhage D) Peritonitis

C) Hemorrhage The signs and symptoms the patient is experiencing suggest a volume deficit from an internal bleed. That the symptoms follow an acute injury suggests hemorrhage rather than myocardial infarction or hypoglycemia. Peritonitis would be an unlikely result of a femoral fracture.

A clinic patient has described recent dark-colored stools;the nurse recognizes the need for fecal occult blood testing (FOBT). What aspect of the patients current health status would contraindicate FOBT? A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) B) Peptic ulcers C) Hemorrhoids D) Recurrent nausea and vomiting

C) Hemorrhoids FOBT should not be performed when there is hemorrhoidal bleeding. GERD, peptic ulcers and nausea and vomiting do not contraindicate the use of FOBT as a diagnostic tool.

The nurse is caring for a patient in acute kidney injury. Which of the following complications would most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)? A) Hypernatremia B) Hypomagnesemia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypercalcemia

C) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia, a common complication of acute kidney injury, is life-threatening if immediate action is not taken to reverse it. The administration of polystyrene sulfonate reduces serum potassium levels.

The management of the patients gastrostomy is an assessment priority for the home care nurse. What statement would indicate that the patient is managing the tube correctly? A) I clean my stoma twice a day with alcohol. B) The only time I flush my tube is when Im putting in medications. C) I flush my tube with water before and after each of my medications. D) I try to stay still most of the time to avoid dislodging my tube.

C) I flush my tube with water before and after each of my medications. Frequent flushing is needed to prevent occlusion, and should not just be limited to times of medication administration. Alcohol will irritate skin surrounding the insertion site and activity should be maintained as much as possible.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. The nurse is aware that bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery and that if it goes undetected and untreated can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock in the patient. When assessing for bleeding, what assessment parameter should the nurse evaluate? A) Oral intake B) Pain intensity C) Level of consciousness D) Radiation of pain

C) Level of consciousness Bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery. If undetected and untreated, this can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock. The nurses role is to observe for these complications, to report their signs and symptoms, and to administer prescribed parenteral fluids and blood and blood components. Monitoring of vital signs, skin condition, the urinary drainage system, the surgical incision, and the level of consciousness is necessary to detect evidence of bleeding, decreased circulating blood, and fluid volume and cardiac output. Bleeding is not normally evidenced by changes in pain or oral intake.

A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient who has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During the immediate recovery period, the nurse should recommend what foods? A) High-fiber foods B) Low-purine, nutrient-dense foods C) Low-fat foods high in proteins and carbohydrates D) Foods that are low-residue and low in fat

C) Low-fat foods high in proteins and carbohydrates The nurse encourages the patient to eat a diet that is low in fats and high in carbohydrates and proteins immediately after surgery. There is no specific need to increase fiber or avoid purines. A low-residue diet is not indicated.

A patient with a recent history of nephrolithiasis has presented to the ED. After determining that the patients cardiopulmonary status is stable, what aspect of care should the nurse prioritize? A) IV fluid administration B) Insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter C) Pain management D) Assisting with aspiration of the stone

C) Pain management The patient with kidney stones is often in excruciating pain, and this is a high priority for nursing interventions. In the short term, this would supersede the patients need for IV fluids or for catheterization. Kidney stones cannot be aspirated.

A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what? A) Urinary tract infection B) Chronic pain C) Permanent vascular damage D) Future erectile dysfunction

C) Permanent vascular damage The ischemic form of priapism, which is described as nonsexual, persistent erection with little or no cavernous blood flow, must be treated promptly to prevent permanent damage to the penis. Priapism has not been indicated in the development of UTIs, chronic pain, or erectile dysfunction.

A nurse is participating in a patients care conference and the team is deciding between parenteral nutrition (PN) and a total nutritional admixture (TNA). What advantages are associated with providing TNA rather than PN? A) TNA can be mixed by a certified registered nurse. B) TNA can be administered over 8 hours, while PN requires 24-hour administration. C) TNA is less costly than PN. D) TNA does not require the use of a micron filter.

C) TNA is less costly than PN. TNA is mixed in one container and administered to the patient over a 24-hour period. A 1.5-micron filter is used with the TNA solution. Advantages of the TNA over PN include cost savings. Pharmacy staff must prepare both solutions.

The nurse is teaching a patient that the body needs iodine for the thyroid to function. What food would be the best source of iodine for the body? A) Eggs B) Shellfish C) Table salt D) Red meat

C) Table salt The major use of iodine in the body is by the thyroid. Iodized table salt is the best source of iodine.

The physiology instructor is discussing the GI system with the pre-nursing class. What should the instructor describe as a major function of the GI tract? A) The breakdown of food particles into cell form for digestion B) The maintenance of fluid and acid-base balance C) The absorption into the bloodstream of nutrient molecules produced by digestion D) The control of absorption and elimination of electrolytes

C) The absorption into the bloodstream of nutrient molecules produced by digestion Primary functions of the GI tract include the breakdown of food particles into molecular form for digestion; the absorption into the bloodstream of small nutrient molecules produced by digestion; and the elimination of undigested unabsorbed food stuffs and other waste products. Nutrients must be broken down into molecular form, not cell form. Fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance are primarily under the control of the kidneys.

The family of a patient in the ICU diagnosed with acute pancreatitis asks the nurse why the patient has been moved to an air bed. What would be the nurses best response? A) Air beds allow the care team to reposition her more easily while shes on bed rest. B) Air beds are far more comfortable than regular beds and shell likely have to be on bed rest a long time. C) The bed automatically moves, so shes less likely to develop pressure sores while shes in bed. D) The bed automatically moves, so she is likely to have less pain.

C) The bed automatically moves, so shes less likely to develop pressure sores while shes in bed. It is important to turn the patient every 2 hours; use of specialty beds may be indicated to prevent skin breakdown. The rationale for a specialty bed is not related to repositioning, comfort, or ease of movement.

A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a 21-year-old patient with a new diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. When planning family assessment, the nurse should recognize that which of the following factors will likely have the greatest impact on the patients coping after discharge? A) The familys ability to take care of the patients special diet needs B) The familys ability to monitor the patients changing health status C) The familys ability to provide emotional support D) The familys ability to manage the patients medication regimen

C) The familys ability to provide emotional support Emotional support from the family is key to the patients coping after discharge. A 21-year-old would be expected to self-manage the prescribed medication regimen and the family would not be primarily responsible for monitoring the patients health status. It is highly beneficial if the family is willing and able to accommodate the patients dietary needs, but emotional support is paramount and cannot be solely provided by the patient alone.

A patient is admitted to the ICU with acute pancreatitis. The patients family asks what causes acute pancreatitis. The critical care nurse knows that a majority of patients with acute pancreatitis have what? A) Type 1 diabetes B) An impaired immune system C) Undiagnosed chronic pancreatitis D) An amylase deficiency

C) Undiagnosed chronic pancreatitis Eighty percent of patients with acute pancreatitis have biliary tract disease or a history of long-term alcohol abuse. These patients usually have had undiagnosed chronic pancreatitis before their first episode of acute pancreatitis. Diabetes, an impaired immune function, and amylase deficiency are not specific precursors to acute pancreatitis.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse knows that the indications for starting parenteral nutrition (PN) for this patient are what? A) 5% deficit in body weight compared to preillness weight and increased caloric need B) Calorie deficit and muscle wasting combined with low electrolyte levels C) Inability to take in adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days D) Significant risk of aspiration coupled with decreased level of consciousness

C Inability to take in adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days The indications for PN include an inability to ingest adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days. Weight loss, muscle wasting combined with electrolyte imbalances, and aspiration indicate a need for nutritional support, but this does not necessary have to be parenteral.

A 75-year-old male patient presents at the emergency department with symptoms of a small bowel obstruction. An emergency room nurse is obtaining assessment data from this patient. What assessment finding is characteristic of a small bowel obstruction? A Mucus in the stool B Decrease in urine production C Nausea and vomiting D Mucosal edema

C Nausea and vomiting Nausea and vomiting are symptoms of a small bowel obstruction. Decrease in urine production and mucosal edema are not symptoms of a bowel obstruction. The patient may defecate mucus, but this is not accompanied by stool.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with Crohn's disease. Which of the following would the nurse most likely find? A Decreased white blood cell count B Increased albumin levels C Negative stool cultures D Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

C Negative stool cultures Stool cultures fail to reveal an etiologic microorganism or parasite, but occult blood and white blood cells (WBCs) often are found in the stool. Results of blood studies indicate anemia from chronic blood loss and nutritional deficiencies. The WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate may be elevated, confirming an inflammatory disorder. Serum protein and albumin levels may be low because of malnutrition.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. When assessing the abdomen, the nurse would expect to find rebound tenderness at which location? A Left upper quadrant B Right upper quadrant C Right lower quadrant D Left lower quadrant

C Right lower quadrant The pain of acute appendicitis localizes in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) at McBurney's point, an area midway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest. Often, the pain is worse when manual pressure near the region is suddenly released, a condition called rebound tenderness.

A nursing assessment of a client with peritonitis reveals hypotension, tachycardia, and signs and symptoms of dehydration. What else would the nurse expect to find? A jaundice and vomiting B rectal bleeding and a change in bowel habits C severe abdominal pain with direct palpation or rebound tenderness D tenderness and pain in the right upper abdominal quadrant

C severe abdominal pain with direct palpation or rebound tenderness Peritonitis decreases intestinal motility and causes intestinal distention. A classic sign of peritonitis is a sudden, diffuse, severe abdominal pain that intensifies in the area of the underlying causative disorder (i.e., appendicitis, diverticulitis, ulcerative colitis, a strangulated obstruction). The client may also have rebound tenderness. Tenderness and pain in the right upper abdominal quadrant suggest cholecystitis. Jaundice and vomiting are signs of cirrhosis of the liver. Rectal bleeding or a change in bowel habits may indicate colorectal cancer.

A patients health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohns disease, rather that ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the patients signs and symptoms? A) A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions B) Severe diarrhea C) An absence of blood in stool D) Involvement of the rectal mucosa

C) An absence of blood in stool Bloody stool is far more common in cases of UC than in Crohns. Rectal involvement is nearly 100% in cases of UC (versus 20% in Crohns) and patients with UC typically experience severe diarrhea. UC is also characterized by a pattern of remissions and exacerbations, while Crohns often has a more prolonged and variable course.

A nurse is creating a care plan for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The care plan includes reduced activity. What rationale for this intervention should be cited in the care plan? A) Bed rest reduces the patients metabolism and reduces the risk of metabolic acidosis. B) Reduced activity protects the physical integrity of pancreatic cells. C) Bed rest lowers the metabolic rate and reduces enzyme production. D) Inactivity reduces caloric need and gastrointestinal motility.

C) Bed rest lowers the metabolic rate and reduces enzyme production. The acutely ill patient is maintained on bed rest to decrease the metabolic rate and reduce the secretion of pancreatic and gastric enzymes. Staying in bed does not release energy from the body to fight the disease.

The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with Graves disease. What physical characteristics of Graves disease would the nurse expect to find? A) Hair loss B) Moon face C) Bulging eyes D) Fatigue

C) Bulging eyes Clinical manifestations of the endocrine disorder Graves disease include exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and fine tremor in the hands. Graves disease is not associated with hair loss, a moon face, or fatigue.

A patient with portal hypertension has been admitted to the medical floor. The nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments related to the manifestations of this health problem? A) Assessment of blood pressure and assessment for headaches and visual changes B) Assessments for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism C) Daily weights and abdominal girth measurement D) Blood glucose monitoring q4h

C) Daily weights and abdominal girth measurement Obstruction to blood flow through the damaged liver results in increased blood pressure (portal hypertension) throughout the portal venous system. This can result in varices and ascites in the abdominal cavity. Assessments related to ascites are daily weights and abdominal girths. Portal hypertension is not synonymous with cardiovascular hypertension and does not create a risk for unstable blood glucose or VTE.

An adult patient is scheduled for an upper GI series that will use a barium swallow. What teaching should the nurse include when the patient has completed the test? A) Stool will be yellow for the first 24 hours postprocedure. B) The barium may cause diarrhea for the next 24 hours. C) Fluids must be increased to facilitate the evacuation of the stool. D) Slight anal bleeding may be noted as the barium is passed.

C) Fluids must be increased to facilitate the evacuation of the stool. Postprocedural patient education includes information about increasing fluid intake; evaluating bowel movements for evacuation of barium; and noting increased number of bowel movements, because barium, due to its high osmolarity, may draw fluid into the bowel, thus increasing the intraluminal contents and resulting in greater output. Yellow stool, diarrhea, and anal bleeding are not expected.

A patient asks the nursing assistant for a bedpan. When the patient is finished, the nursing assistant notifies the nurse that the patient has bright red streaking of blood in the stool. What is this most likely a result of? A) Diet high in red meat B) Upper GI bleed C) Hemorrhoids D) Use of iron supplements

C) Hemorrhoids Lower rectal or anal bleeding is suspected if there is streaking of blood on the surface of the stool. Hemorrhoids are often a cause of anal bleeding since they occur in the rectum. Blood from an upper GI bleed would be dark rather than frank. Iron supplements make the stool dark, but not bloody and red meat consumption would not cause frank blood.

A patient who has been experiencing changes in his bowel function is scheduled for a barium enema. What instruction should the nurse provide for postprocedure recovery? A) Remain NPO for 6 hours postprocedure. B) Administer a Fleet enema to cleanse the bowel of the barium. C) Increase fluid intake to evacuate the barium. D) Avoid dairy products for 24 hours postprocedure.

C) Increase fluid intake to evacuate the barium. Adequate fluid intake is necessary to rid the GI tract of barium. The patient must not remain NPO after the test and enemas are not used to cleanse the bowel of barium. There is no need to avoid dairy products.

A nurse is providing patient education for a patient with peptic ulcer disease secondary to chronic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. The patient has recently been prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). What would the nurse be most accurate in informing the patient about the drug? A) It reduces the stomachs volume of hydrochloric acid B) It increases the speed of gastric emptying C) It protects the stomachs lining D) It increases lower esophageal sphincter pressure

C) It protects the stomachs lining Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that, like prostaglandin, protects the gastric mucosa. NSAIDs decrease prostaglandin production and predispose the patient to peptic ulceration. Misoprostol does not reduce gastric acidity, improve emptying of the stomach, or increase lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

The nurse is providing health education to a patient scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should explain that she will be placed in what position during this diagnostic test? A) In a knee-chest position (lithotomy position) B) Lying prone with legs drawn toward the chest C) Lying on the left side with legs drawn toward the chest D) In a prone position with two pillows elevating the buttocks

C) Lying on the left side with legs drawn toward the chest For best visualization, colonoscopy is performed while the patient is lying on the left side with the legs drawn up toward the chest. A knee-chest position, lying on the stomach with legs drawn to the chest, and a prone position with two pillows elevating the legs do not allow for the best visualization.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment of a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. What technique should the nurse use to palpate the patients liver? A) Place hand under the right lower abdominal quadrant and press down lightly with the other hand. B) Place the left hand over the abdomen and behind the left side at the 11th rib. C) Place hand under right lower rib cage and press down lightly with the other hand. D) Hold hand 90 degrees to right side of the abdomen and push down firmly.

C) Place hand under right lower rib cage and press down lightly with the other hand. To palpate the liver, the examiner places one hand under the right lower rib cage and presses downward with light pressure with the other hand. The liver is not on the left side or in the right lower abdominal quadrant.

A patient who had surgery for gallbladder disease has just returned to the postsurgical unit from postanesthetic recovery. The nurse caring for this patient knows to immediately report what assessment finding to the physician? A) Decreased breath sounds B) Drainage of bile-colored fluid onto the abdominal dressing C) Rigidity of the abdomen D) Acute pain with movement

C) Rigidity of the abdomen The location of the subcostal incision will likely cause the patient to take shallow breaths to prevent pain, which may result in decreased breath sounds. The nurse should remind patients to take deep breaths and cough to expand the lungs fully and prevent atelectasis. Acute pain is an expected assessment finding following surgery; analgesics should be administered for pain relief. Abdominal splinting or application of an abdominal binder may assist in reducing the pain. Bile may continue to drain from the drainage tract after surgery, which will require frequent changes of the abdominal dressing. Increased abdominal tenderness and rigidity should be reported immediately to the physician, as it may indicate bleeding from an inadvertent puncture or nicking of a major blood vessel during the surgical procedure.

A patient has been admitted to the post-surgical unit following a thyroidectomy. To promote comfort and safety, how should the nurse best position the patient? A) Side-lying (lateral) with one pillow under the head B) Head of the bed elevated 30 degrees and no pillows placed under the head C) Semi-Fowlers with the head supported on two pillows D) Supine, with a small roll supporting the neck

C) Semi-Fowlers with the head supported on two pillows When moving and turning the patient, the nurse carefully supports the patients head and avoids tension on the sutures. The most comfortable position is the semi-Fowlers position, with the head elevated and supported by pillows.

A patient has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and is being prepared for discharge home. When providing health education, the nurse should prioritize which of the following topics? A) Management of fluid balance in the home setting B) The need for blood glucose monitoring for the next week C) Signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal complications D) Appropriate use of prescribed pancreatic enzymes

C) Signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal complications Because of the early discharge following laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient needs thorough education in the signs and symptoms of complications. Fluid balance is not typically a problem in the recovery period after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. There is no need for blood glucose monitoring or pancreatic enzymes.

A nurse is completing a health history on a patient whose diagnosis is chronic gastritis. Which of the data should the nurse consider most significantly related to the etiology of the patients health problem? A) Consumes one or more protein drinks daily. B) Takes over-the-counter antacids frequently throughout the day. C) Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. D) Reports a history of social drinking on a weekly basis.

C) Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. Nicotine reduces secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate, which inhibits neutralization of gastric acid and can underlie gastritis. Protein drinks do not result in gastric inflammation. Antacid use is a response to experiencing symptoms of gastritis, not the etiology of gastritis. Alcohol ingestion can lead to gastritis; however, this generally occurs in patients with a history of consumption of alcohol on a daily basis.

Crohn's disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by which pathophysiological process? A Gastric resection B Infectious disease C Disaccharidase deficiency D Inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa

D Inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa Crohn's disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon. Infectious disease causes problems such as small-bowel bacterial overgrowth, leading to malabsorption. Disaccharidase deficiency leads to lactose intolerance. Postoperative malabsorption occurs after gastric or intestinal resection.

A patient visited a nurse practitioner because he had diarrhea for 2 weeks. He described his stool as large and greasy. The nurse knows that this description is consistent with a diagnosis of: A A small bowel disorder. B A disorder of the large bowel. C Inflammatory colitis. D Intestinal malabsorption.

D Intestinal malabsorption. Watery stools are characteristic of disorders of the small bowel, whereas loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the large bowel. Large, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption, and the presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests inflammatory enteritis or colitis.

A nurse is providing care for a client recovering from gastric bypass surgery. During assessment, the client exhibits pallor, perspiration, palpitations, headache, and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and drowsiness. The client reports eating 90 minutes ago. What will the nurse suspect? A Peritonitis B Dehiscence of the surgical wound C A normal reaction to surgery D Vasomotor symptoms associated with dumping syndrome

D Vasomotor symptoms associated with dumping syndrome Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating. Signs and symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, diarrhea, nausea, and the desire to lie down. Dehiscence of the surgical wound is characterized by pain and a pulling or popping feeling at the surgical site. Peritonitis presents with a rigid, board-like abdomen, tenderness, and fever. The client's signs and symptoms aren't a normal reaction to surgery.

The nurse is providing care for an older adult patient whose current medication regimen includes levothyroxine (Synthroid). As a result, the nurse should be aware of the heightened risk of adverse effects when administering an IV dose of what medication? A) A fluoroquinalone antibiotic B) A loop diuretic C) A proton pump inhibitor (PPI) D) A benzodiazepine

D) A benzodiazepine Oral thyroid hormones interact with many other medications.Even in small IV doses, hypnotic and sedative agents may induce profound somnolence, lasting far longer than anticipated and leading to narcosis (stupor like condition). Furthermore, they are likely to cause respiratory depression, which can easily be fatal because of decreased respiratory reserve and alveolar hypoventilation. Antibiotics, PPIs and diuretics do not cause the same risk.

A nurse is amending a patients plan of care in light of the fact that the patient has recently developed ascites. What should the nurse include in this patients care plan? A) Mobilization with assistance at least 4 times daily B) Administration of beta-adrenergic blockers as ordered C) Vitamin B12 injections as ordered D) Administration of diuretics as ordered

D) Administration of diuretics as ordered Use of diuretics along with sodium restriction is successful in 90% of patients with ascites. Beta-blockers are not used to treat ascites and bed rest is often more beneficial than increased mobility. Vitamin B12 injections are not necessary

A patient has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and the nurse is reviewing his prescribed medication regimen with him. What is currently the most commonly used drug regimen for peptic ulcers? A) Bismuth salts, antivirals, and histamine-2 (H2) antagonists B) H2 antagonists, antibiotics, and bicarbonate salts C) Bicarbonate salts, antibiotics, and ZES D) Antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts

D) Antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. H2 receptor antagonists are used to treat NSAID-induced ulcers and other ulcers not associated with H. pylori infection, but they are not the drug of choice. Bicarbonate salts are not used. ZES is the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and not a drug.

A nurse is caring for a patient with recurrent hematemesis who is scheduled for upper gastrointestinal fibroscopy (UGF). How should the nurse in the radiology department prepare this patient? A) Insert a nasogastric tube. B) Administer a micro Fleet enema at least 3 hours before the procedure. C) Have the patient lie in a supine position for the procedure. D) Apply local anesthetic to the back of the patients throat.

D) Apply local anesthetic to the back of the patients throat. Preparation for UGF includes spraying or gargling with a local anesthetic. A nasogastric tube or a micro Fleet enema is not required for this procedure. The patient should be positioned in a side-lying position in case of emesis.

A patient returns to the floor after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The nurse should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of what serious potential complication of this surgery? A) Diabetic coma B) Decubitus ulcer C) Wound evisceration D) Bile duct injury

D) Bile duct injury The most serious complication after laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a bile duct injury. Patients do not face a risk of diabetic coma. A decubitus ulcer is unlikely because immobility

A patient seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education? A) Drinking beverages after your meal, rather than with your meal, may bring some relief. B) Its best to avoid dry foods, such as rice and chicken, because theyre harder to swallow. C) Many patients obtain relief by taking over-the-counter antacids 30 minutes before eating. D) Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often.

D) Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often. Management for a hiatal hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. Avoiding beverages and particular foods or taking OTC antacids are not noted to be beneficial.

A patient has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction and has been admitted to the medical unit. The nurses care should prioritize which of the following outcomes? A) Preventing infection B) Maintaining skin and tissue integrity C) Preventing nausea and vomiting D) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

D) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance All of the listed focuses of care are important for the patient with a small bowel obstruction. However, the patients risk of fluid and electrolyte imbalances is an immediate threat to safety, and is a priority in nursing assessment and interventions.

A patient is being assessed for a suspected deficit in intrinsic factor synthesis. What diagnostic or assessment finding is the most likely rationale for this examination of intrinsic factor production? A) Muscle wasting B) Chronic jaundice in the absence of liver disease C) The presence of fat in the patients stool D) Persistently low hemoglobin and hematocrit

D) Persistently low hemoglobin and hematocrit In the absence of intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, and pernicious anemia results. This would result in a marked reduction in hemoglobin and hematocrit.

A patients large bowel obstruction has failed to resolve spontaneously and the patients worsening condition has warranted admission to the medical unit. Which of the following aspects of nursing care is most appropriate for this patient? A) Administering bowel stimulants as ordered B) Administering bulk-forming laxatives as ordered C) Performing deep palpation as ordered to promote peristalsis D) Preparing the patient for surgical bowel resection

D) Preparing the patient for surgical bowel resection The usual treatment for a large bowel obstruction is surgical resection to remove the obstructing lesion. Administration of laxatives or bowel stimulants are contraindicated if the bowel is obstructed. Palpation would be painful and has no therapeutic benefit.

A nurse is assessing an elderly patient with gallstones. The nurse is aware that the patient may not exhibit typical symptoms, and that particular symptoms that may be exhibited in the elderly patient may include what? A) Fever and pain B) Chills and jaundice C) Nausea and vomiting D) Signs and symptoms of septic shock

D) Signs and symptoms of septic shock The elderly patient may not exhibit the typical symptoms of fever, pain, chills jaundice, and nausea and vomiting. Symptoms of biliary tract disease in the elderly may be accompanied or preceded by those of septic shock, which include oliguria, hypotension, change in mental status, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

A 55-year-old man has been newly diagnosed with acute pancreatitis and admitted to the acute medical unit. How should the nurse most likely explain the pathophysiology of this patients health problem? A) Toxins have accumulated and inflamed your pancreas. B) Bacteria likely migrated from your intestines and became lodged in your pancreas. C) A virus that was likely already present in your body has begun to attack your pancreatic cells. D) The enzymes that your pancreas produces have damaged the pancreas itself.

D) The enzymes that your pancreas produces have damaged the pancreas itself. Although the mechanisms causing pancreatitis are unknown, pancreatitis is commonly described as the autodigestion of the pancreas. Less commonly, toxic substances and microorganisms are implicated as the cause of pancreatitis.

A client admitted for treatment of a gastric ulcer is being prepared for discharge. The client will follow a regimen of antacid therapy. Discharge teaching should include which instructions? Choose all that apply. A "You may be prescribed H2-receptor antagonists for up to 1 year." B "Continue to take antacids even if your symptoms subside." C "Be sure to take antacids with meals." D "You may take antacids with other medications." E "The antacids will make you sleepy, so do not operate machinery while taking them."

A "You may be prescribed H2-receptor antagonists for up to 1 year." B "Continue to take antacids even if your symptoms subside.", C "Be sure to take antacids with meals." D "You may take antacids with other medications." The client is advised to adhere to and complete the medication regimen to ensure complete healing of the ulcer. Because most clients become symptom-free within 1 week, the nurse stresses the importance of following the prescribed regimen so that the healing process can continue uninterrupted and the return of chronic ulcer symptoms can be prevented. Maintenance dosages of H2-receptor antagonists are usually recommended for 1 year. Taking antacids concomitantly with other drugs should be avoided. For best results antacids should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Antacids will not make the client sleepy.

A patient is suspected to have diverticulosis without symptoms of diverticulitis. What diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate educating the patient about prior to scheduling? A Colonoscopy B Barium enema C CT scan D Flexible sigmoidoscopy

A Colonoscopy Diverticulosis is typically diagnosed by colonoscopy, which permits visualization of the extent of diverticular disease and biopsy of tissue to rule out other diseases. In the past, barium enema was the preferred diagnostic test, but it is now used less frequently than colonoscopy. CT with contrast agent is the diagnostic test of choice if the suspected diagnosis is diverticulitis; it can also reveal abscesses.

Post appendectomy, a nurse should assess the patient for abdominal rigidity and tenderness, fever, loss of bowel sounds, and tachycardia, all clinical signs of A Peritonitis B An abscess under the diaphragm. C An ileus. D A pelvic abscess.

A Peritonitis Peritonitis is inflammation of the peritoneum, the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the viscera. Peritonitis is typically a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt surgical intervention, and typically involves postoperative critical care monitoring due to the risk of sepsis, organ failure, and subsequent infections.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital with diverticulitis. Which of the following would be appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient? Select all that apply. A) Acute Pain Related to Increased Peristalsis and GI Inflammation B) Activity Intolerance Related to Generalized Weakness C) Bowel Incontinence Related to Increased Intestinal Peristalsis D) Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Anorexia, Nausea, and Diarrhea E) Impaired Urinary Elimination Related to GI Pressure on the Bladder

A) Acute Pain Related to Increased Peristalsis and GI Inflammation B) Activity Intolerance Related to Generalized Weakness D) Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Anorexia, Nausea, and Diarrhea Patients with diverticulitis are likely to experience pain and decreased activity levels, and are at risk of fluid volume deficit. The patient is unlikely to experience fecal incontinence and urinary function is not directly influenced.

The nurse is providing care for a patient whose inflammatory bowel disease has necessitated hospital treatment. Which of the following would most likely be included in the patients medication regimen? A) Anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal B) Antiemetics on a PRN basis C) Vitamin B12 injections to prevent pernicious anemia D) Beta adrenergic blockers to reduce bowel motility

A) Anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal The nurse administers anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal as prescribed to decrease intestinal motility and administers analgesics as prescribed for pain. Antiemetics, vitamin B12 injections and beta blockers do not address the signs, symptoms, or etiology of inflammatory bowel disease.

A patient was treated in the emergency department and critical care unit after ingesting bleach. What possible complication of the resulting gastritis should the nurse recognize? A) Esophageal or pyloric obstruction related to scarring B) Uncontrolled proliferation of H. pylori C) Gastric hyperacidity related to excessive gastrin secretion D) Chronic referred pain in the lower abdomen

A) Esophageal or pyloric obstruction related to scarring A severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate. Scarring can occur, resulting in pyloric stenosis (narrowing or tightening) or obstruction. Chronic referred pain to the lower abdomen is a symptom of peptic ulcer disease, but would not be an expected finding for a patient who has ingested a corrosive substance. Bacterial proliferation and hyperacidity would not occur.

A patients assessment and diagnostic testing are suggestive of acute pancreatitis. When the nurse is performing the health interview, what assessment questions address likely etiologic factors? Select all that apply. A) How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week? B) Have you ever been tested for diabetes? C) Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones? D) Would you say that you eat a particularly high-fat diet? E) Does anyone in your family have cystic fibrosis?

A) How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week? C) Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones? Eighty percent of patients with acute pancreatitis have biliary tract disease such as gallstones or a history of long-term alcohol abuse. Diabetes, high-fat consumption, and cystic fibrosis are not noted etiologic factors.

A patient presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of recurrent sharp stomach pain that is relieved by eating. The nurse suspects that the patient may have an ulcer. How would the nurse explain the formation and role of acid in the stomach to the patient? A) Hydrochloric acid is secreted by glands in the stomach in response to the actual or anticipated presence of food. B) As digestion occurs in the stomach, the stomach combines free hydrogen ions from the food to form acid. C) The body requires an acidic environment in order to synthesize pancreatic digestive enzymes; the stomach provides this environment. D) The acidic environment in the stomach exists to buffer the highly alkaline environment in the esophagus.

A) Hydrochloric acid is secreted by glands in the stomach in response to the actual or anticipated presence of food. The stomach, which stores and mixes food with secretions, secretes a highly acidic fluid in response to the presence or anticipated ingestion of food. The stomach does not turn food directly into acid and the esophagus is not highly alkaline. Pancreatic enzymes are not synthesized in a highly acidic environment.

A nurse educator is teaching a group of recent nursing graduates about their occupational risks for contracting hepatitis B. What preventative measures should the educator promote? Select all that apply. A) Immunization B) Use of standard precautions C) Consumption of a vitamin-rich diet D) Annual vitamin K injections E) Annual vitamin B12 injections

A) Immunization B) Use of standard precautions People who are at high risk, including nurses and other health care personnel exposed to blood or blood products, should receive active immunization. The consistent use of standard precautions is also highly beneficial. Vitamin supplementation is unrelated to an individuals risk of HBV.

A nurse knows that specific areas in the ureters have a propensity for obstruction. Prompt management of renal calculi is most important when the stone is located where? A) In the ureteropelvic junction B) In the ureteral segment near the sacroiliac junction C) In the ureterovesical junction D) In the urethra

A) In the ureteropelvic junction The three narrowed areas of each ureter are the ureteropelvic junction, the ureteral segment near the sacroiliac junction, and the ureterovescial junction. These three areas of the ureters have a propensity for obstruction by renal calculi or stricture. Obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction is most serious because of its close proximity to the kidney and the risk of associated kidney dysfunction. The urethra is not part of the ureter.

A patients abdominal ultrasound indicates cholelithiasis. When the nurse is reviewing the patients laboratory studies, what finding is most closely associated with this diagnosis? A) Increased bilirubin B) Decreased serum cholesterol C) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase level

A) Increased bilirubin If the flow of blood is impeded, bilirubin, a pigment derived from the breakdown of red blood cells, does not enter the intestines. As a result, bilirubin levels in the blood increase. Cholesterol, BUN, and alkaline phosphatase levels are not typically affected.

A patient presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of vomiting and burning in her mid-epigastria. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the physician is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what? A) Infection with Helicobacter pylori B) Excessive stomach acid secretion C) An incompetent pyloric sphincter D) A metabolic acidbase imbalance

A) Infection with Helicobacter pylori H. pylori infection may be determined by endoscopy and histologic examination of a tissue specimen obtained by biopsy, or a rapid urease test of the biopsy specimen. Excessive stomach acid secretion leads to gastritis; however, peptic ulcers are caused by colonization of the stomach by H. pylori. Sphincter dysfunction and acidbase imbalances do not cause peptic ulcer disease.

A patient with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the patient may be prescribed what drug? A) Metoclopramide (Reglan) B) Omeprazole (Prilosec) C) Lansoprazole (Prevacid) D) Famotidine (Pepcid)

A) Metoclopramide (Reglan) Metoclopramide (Reglan) is useful in promoting gastric motility. Omeprazole and lansoprozole are proton pump inhibitors that reduce gastric acid secretion. Famotidine (Pepcid) is an H2 receptor antagonist, which has a similar effect.

A 37-year-old male patient presents at the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea and vomiting and severe abdominal pain. The patients abdomen is rigid, and there is bruising to the patients flank. The patients wife states that he was on a drinking binge for the past 2 days. The ED nurse should assist in assessing the patient for what health problem? A) Severe pancreatitis with possible peritonitis B) Acute cholecystitis C) Chronic pancreatitis D) Acute appendicitis with possible perforation

A) Severe pancreatitis with possible peritonitis Severe abdominal pain is the major symptom of pancreatitis that causes the patient to seek medical care. Pain in pancreatitis is accompanied by nausea and vomiting that does not relieve the pain or nausea. Abdominal guarding is present and a rigid or board-like abdomen may be a sign of peritonitis. Ecchymosis (bruising) to the flank or around the umbilicus may indicate severe peritonitis. Pain generally occurs 24 to 48 hours after a heavy meal or alcohol ingestion. The link with alcohol intake makes pancreatitis a more likely possibility than appendicitis or cholecystitis.

A nurse is caring for an 83-year-old patient who is being assessed for recurrent and intractable nausea. What age-related change to the GI system may be a contributor to the patients health complaint? A) Stomach emptying takes place more slowly. B) The villi and epithelium of the small intestine become thinner. C) The esophageal sphincter becomes incompetent. D) Saliva production decreases.

A) Stomach emptying takes place more slowly. Delayed gastric emptying occurs in older adults and may contribute to nausea. Changes to the small intestine and decreased saliva production would be less likely to contribute to nausea. Loss of esophageal sphincter function is pathologic and is not considered an age-related change.

A patient who experienced an upper GI bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and the patients condition is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this patient should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence? A) Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea B) Tarry, foul-smelling stools C) Diaphoresis and sudden onset of abdominal pain D) Sudden thirst, unrelieved by oral fluid administration

A) Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are signs of recurrent bleeding. Patients who have had one GI bleed are at risk for recurrence. Tarry stools are expected short-term findings after a hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is not normally associated with sudden thirst or diaphoresis

A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease has just been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). How should the nurse best describe this medications therapeutic action? A) This medication will reduce the amount of acid secreted in your stomach. B) This medication will make the lining of your stomach more resistant to damage. C) This medication will specifically address the pain that accompanies peptic ulcer disease. D) This medication will help your stomach lining to repair itself.

A) This medication will reduce the amount of acid secreted in your stomach. Proton pump inhibitors like Prilosec inhibit the synthesis of stomach acid. PPIs do not increase the durability of the stomach lining, relieve pain, or stimulate tissue repair.

A patient has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The patients current medication regimen includes lactulose (Cephulac) four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention? A) Two to 3 soft bowel movements daily B) Significant increase in appetite and food intake C) Absence of nausea and vomiting D) Absence of blood or mucus in stool

A) Two to 3 soft bowel movements daily Lactulose (Cephulac) is administered to reduce serum ammonia levels. Two or three soft stools per day are desirable; this indicates that lactulose is performing as intended. Lactulose does not address the patients appetite, symptoms of nausea and vomiting, or the development of blood and mucus in the stool.

A nurse is preparing a patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) for a lower urinary tract cystoscopic examination. The nurse informs the patient that the most common temporary complication experienced after this procedure is what? A) Urinary retention B) Bladder perforation C) Hemorrhage D) Nausea

A) Urinary retention After a cystoscopic examination, the patient with obstructive pathology may experience urine retention if the instruments used during the examination caused edema. The nurse will carefully monitor the patient with prostatic hyperplasia for urine retention. Post-procedure, the patient will experience some hematuria, but is not at great risk for hemorrhage. Unless the condition is associated with another disorder, nausea is not commonly associated with this diagnostic study. Bladder perforation is rare.

A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old patient with a urethral obstruction related to prostatic enlargement. When planning this patients care, the nurse should be aware of the consequent risk of what complication? A) Urinary tract infection B) Enuresis C) Polyuria D) Proteinuria

A) Urinary tract infection An obstruction of the bladder outlet, such as in advanced benign prostatic hyperplasia, results in abnormally high voiding pressure with a slow, prolonged flow of urine. The urine may remain in the bladder, which increases the potential of a urinary tract infection. Older male patients are at risk for prostatic enlargement, which causes urethral obstruction and can result in hydronephrosis, renal failure, and urinary tract infections

A nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient whose exacerbation of ulcerative colitis has required hospital admission. During an exacerbation of this health problem, the nurse would anticipate that the patients stools will have what characteristics? A) Watery with blood and mucus B) Hard and black or tarry C) Dry and streaked with blood D) Loose with visible fatty streaks

A) Watery with blood and mucus The predominant symptoms of ulcerative colitis are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Stools may be bloody and contain mucus. Stools are not hard, dry, tarry, black or fatty in patients who have ulcerative colitis.

A patient has been brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy but questions the nurse about how his health will be affected by the absence of an appendix. How should the nurse best respond? A) Your appendix doesn't play a major role, so you wont notice any difference after you recovery from surgery. B) The surgeon will encourage you to limit your fat intake for a few weeks after the surgery, but your body will then begin to compensate. C) Your body will absorb slightly fewer nutrients from the food you eat, but you wont be aware of this. D) Your large intestine will adapt over time to the absence of your appendix.

A) Your appendix doesn't play a major role, so you wont notice any difference after you recovery from surgery. The appendix is an appendage of the cecum (not the large intestine) that has little or no physiologic function. Its absence does not affect digestion or absorption.

A client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease. During discharge teaching, what would the nurse stress the importance of? A Wearing an appliance pouch only at bedtime B Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration C Taking only enteric-coated medications D Consuming a low-protein, high-fiber diet

B Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration Because stool forms in the large intestine, an ileostomy typically drains liquid waste. To avoid fluid loss through ileostomy drainage, the nurse should instruct the client to increase fluid intake. The nurse should teach the client to wear a collection appliance at all times because ileostomy drainage is incontinent, to avoid high-fiber foods because they may irritate the intestines, and to avoid enteric-coated medications because the body can't absorb them after an ileostomy.

A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Lower esophageal sphincter C) Hypopharyngeal sphincter D) Upper esophageal sphincter

B Lower esophageal sphincter The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum.

Which of the following is the most common symptom of a polyp? A Diarrhea B Rectal bleeding C Abdominal pain D Anorexia

B Rectal bleeding The most common symptom is rectal bleeding. Lower abdominal pain may also occur. Diarrhea and anorexia are clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis.

A patient has been scheduled for a urea breath test in one months time. What nursing diagnosis most likely prompted this diagnostic test? A) Impaired Dentition Related to Gingivitis B) Risk For Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Peptic Ulcers C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Enzyme Deficiency D) Diarrhea Related to Clostridium Dif icile Infection

B Risk For Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Peptic Ulcers Urea breath tests detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori, the bacteria that can live in the mucosal lining of the stomach and cause peptic ulcer disease. This test does not address fluid volume, nutritional status, or dentition.

A client is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse knows to assess the client for which characteristic clinical feature of this syndrome? A Folate deficiency B Steatorrhea C Decreased intestinal lactose D Lymphadenopathy

B Steatorrhea Hyperacidity in the duodenum inactivates pancreatic enzymes causing steatorrhea and ulcer diathesis.

A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which statement best indicates that the disease process is under control? A The client maintains skin integrity. B The client exhibits signs of adequate GI perfusion. C The client expresses positive feelings about himself. D The client verbalizes a manageable level of discomfort.

B The client exhibits signs of adequate GI perfusion. Adequate GI perfusion can be maintained only if Crohn's disease is controlled. If the client experiences acute, uncontrolled episodes of Crohn's disease, impaired GI perfusion may lead to a bowel infarction. Positive self-image, a manageable level of discomfort, and intact skin integrity are expected client outcomes, but aren't related to control of the disease.

A patient with a history of injection drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis C. When collaborating with the care team to plan this patients treatment, the nurse should anticipate what intervention? A) Administration of immune globulins B) A regimen of antiviral medications C) Rest and watchful waiting D) Administration of fresh-frozen plasma (FFP)

B) A regimen of antiviral medications There is no benefit from rest, diet, or vitamin supplements in HCV treatment. Studies have demonstrated that a combination of two antiviral agents, Peg-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol), is effective in producing improvement in patients with hepatitis C and in treating relapses. Immune globulins and FFP are not indicated.

A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of thyroid storm. What interventions should the nurse include in this patients immediate care? Select all that apply. A) Administering diuretics to prevent fluid overload B) Administering beta blockers to reduce heart rate C) Administering insulin to reduce blood glucose levels D) Applying interventions to reduce the patients temperature E) Administering corticosteroids

B) Administering beta blockers to reduce heart rate D) Applying interventions to reduce the patients temperature Thyroid storm necessitates interventions to reduce heart rate and temperature. Diuretics, insulin, and steroids are not indicated to address the manifestations of this health problem.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of advanced cirrhosis. What assessment should the nurse prioritize in this patients plan of care? A) Measurement of abdominal girth and body weight B) Assessment for variceal bleeding C) Assessment for signs and symptoms of jaundice D) Monitoring of results of liver function testing

B) Assessment for variceal bleeding Esophageal varices are a major cause of mortality in patients with uncompensated cirrhosis. Consequently, this should be a focus of the nurses assessments and should be prioritized over the other listed assessments, even though each should be performed.

The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a patient with a history of incontinence. The nurse reads that the physician assessed the patients deep tendon reflexes. What condition of the urinary/renal system does this assessment address? A) Renal calculi B) Bladder dysfunction C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) D) Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)

B) Bladder dysfunction The deep tendon reflexes of the knee are examined for quality and symmetry. This is an important part of testing for neurologic causes of bladder dysfunction, because the sacral area, which innervates the lower extremities, is in the same peripheral nerve area responsible for urinary continence. Neurologic function does not directly influence the course of renal calculi, BPH or UTIs.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from the ERCP removal of gallstones. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of what complications? A) Pain and peritonitis B) Bleeding and perforation C) Acidosis and hypoglycemia D) Gangrene of the gallbladder and hyperglycemia

B) Bleeding and perforation Following ERCP removal of gallstones, the patient is observed closely for bleeding, perforation, and the development of pancreatitis or sepsis. Blood sugar alterations, gangrene, peritonitis, and acidosis are less likely complications.

A nurse is caring for a patient who just has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. When teaching the patient about his new diagnosis, how should the nurse best describe a peptic ulcer? A) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach B) Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine C) Bleeding from the mucosa in the stomach D) Viral invasion of the stomach wall

B) Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine A peptic ulcer is erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine. Peptic ulcers are often accompanied by bleeding and inflammation, but these are not the definitive characteristics.

An adult patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease after ongoing challenges with constipation. The patient will be treated on an outpatient basis. What components of treatment should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A) Anticholinergic medications B) Increased fiber intake C) Enemas on alternating days D) Reduced fat intake E) Fluid reduction

B) Increased fiber intake D) Reduced fat intake Patients whose diverticular disease does not warrant hospital treatment often benefit from a high-fiber, low-fat diet. Neither enemas nor anticholinergics are indicated, and fluid intake is encouraged.

A nurse is assessing a patient who has peptic ulcer disease. The patient requests more information about the typical causes of Helicobacter pylori infection. What would it be appropriate for the nurse to instruct the patient? A) Most affected patients acquired the infection during international travel. B) Infection typically occurs due to ingestion of contaminated food and water. C) Many people possess genetic factors causing a predisposition to H. pylori infection. D) The H. pylori microorganism is endemic in warm, moist climates.

B) Infection typically occurs due to ingestion of contaminated food and water. Most peptic ulcers result from infection with the gram-negative bacteria H. pylori, which may be acquired through ingestion of food and water.

A patient with a diagnosis of esophageal varices has undergone endoscopy to gauge the progression of this complication of liver disease. Following the completion of this diagnostic test, what nursing intervention should the nurse perform? A) Keep patient NPO until the results of test are known. B) Keep patient NPO until the patients gag reflex returns. C) Administer analgesia until post-procedure tenderness is relieved. D) Give the patient a cold beverage to promote swallowing ability.

B) Keep patient NPO until the patients gag reflex returns. After the examination, fluids are not given until the patients gag reflex returns. Lozenges and gargles may be used to relieve throat discomfort if the patients physical condition and mental status permit. The result of the test is known immediately. Food and fluids are contraindicated until the gag reflex returns.

Results of a patient barium swallow suggest that the patient has GERD. The nurse is planning health education to address the patients knowledge of this new diagnosis. Which of the following should the nurse encourage? A) Eating several small meals daily rather than 3 larger meals B) Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated C) Drinking carbonated mineral water rather than soft drinks D) Avoiding food or fluid intake after 6:00 p.m.

B) Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated The patient with GERD is encouraged to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch (15- to 20-cm) blocks. Frequent meals are not specifically encouraged and the patient should avoid food and fluid within 2 hours of bedtime. All carbonated beverages should be avoided.

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a suspected malabsorption disorder. The nurse knows that one of the accessory organs of the digestive system is the pancreas. What digestive enzymes does the pancreas secrete? Select all that apply. A) Pepsin B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Trypsin E) Ptyalin

B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Trypsin Digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas include trypsin, which aids in digesting protein; amylase, which aids in digesting starch; and lipase, which aids in digesting fats. Pepsin is secreted by the stomach and ptyalin is secreted in the saliva.

A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis secondary to heavy alcohol use. The nurses most recent assessment reveals subtle changes in the patients cognition and behavior. What is the nurses most appropriate response? A) Ensure that the patients sodium intake does not exceed recommended levels. B) Report this finding to the primary care provider due to the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy. C) Inform the primary care provider that the patient should be assessed for alcoholic hepatitis. D) Implement interventions aimed at ensuring a calm and therapeutic care environment.

B) Report this finding to the primary care provider due to the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring is an essential nursing function to identify early deterioration in mental status. The nurse monitors the patients mental status closely and reports changes so that treatment of encephalopathy can be initiated promptly. This change in status is likely unrelated to sodium intake and would not signal the onset of hepatitis. A supportive care environment is beneficial, but does not address the patients physiologic deterioration.

The nurse is planning the care of a patient with hyperthyroidism. What should the nurse specify in the patients meal plan? A) A clear liquid diet, high in nutrients B) Small, frequent meals, high in protein and calories C) Three large, bland meals a day D) A diet high in fiber and plant-sourced fat

B) Small, frequent meals, high in protein and calories A patient with hyperthyroidism has an increased appetite. The patient should be counseled to consume several small, well-balanced meals. High-calorie, high-protein foods are encouraged. A clear liquid diet would not satisfy the patients caloric or hunger needs. A diet rich in fiber and

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with a suspected GI bleed. The nurse assesses the patients stool after a bowel movement and notes it to be a tarry-black color. This finding is suggestive of bleeding from what location? A) Sigmoid colon B) Upper GI tract C) Large intestine D) Anus or rectum

B) Upper GI tract Blood shed in sufficient quantities in the upper GI tract will produce a tarry-black color (melena). Blood entering the lower portion of the GI tract or passing rapidly through it will appear bright or dark red. Lower rectal or anal bleeding is suspected if there is streaking of blood on the surface of the stool or if blood is noted on toilet tissue.

Which of the following is a cause of a calcium renal stone? A Excessive intake of vitamin D B Gout C Neurogenic bladder D Foreign bodies

Excessive intake of vitamin D Potential causes of calcium renal stones include excessive intake of vitamin D, hypercalcemia, hyperparathyroidism, excessive intake of milk and alkali, and renal tubular acidosis. Gout is associated with uric acid. Struvite stones are associated with neurogenic bladder and foreign bodies.

Which is the most common cause of esophageal varices? A. Jaundice B. Portal hypertension C. Ascites D. Asterixis

B. Portal hypertension Esophageal varices are almost always caused by portal hypertension, which results from obstruction of the portal circulation within the damaged liver.

Which of the following is considered a bulk-forming laxative? A Metamucil B Milk of Magnesia C Mineral oil D Dulcolax

A Metamucil Metamucil is a bulk-forming laxative. Milk of Magnesia is classified as a saline agent. Mineral oil is a lubricant. Dulcolax is a stimulant.

Which term refers to inflammation of the renal pelvis? A Pyelonephritis B Cystitis C Urethritis D Interstitial nephritis

-Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. Cystitis is inflammation of the urinary bladder. Urethritis is inflammation of the urethra. Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

Hemolytic jaundice is caused by _______, and the type of bilirubin elevated in the blood is __________.

1. increase breakdown of RBCs 2. unconjugated (indirect)

The type of jaundice associated with gallstones is ______ jaundice, and the type serum bilirubin that is elevated is most likely _______.

1. obstructive 2. conjugated/unconjugated

A client with Crohn's disease is to receive prednisone as part of the treatment plan. Which of the following instructions would be appropriate? A "Avoid contact with other people who might have an infection." B "Once your symptoms improve, you can stop taking the drug." C "Make sure to increase your salt intake to compensate for the loss of fluid." D "Take the drug on an empty stomach to avoid upsetting your stomach."

A "Avoid contact with other people who might have an infection." Clients taking corticosteroids may not experience a normal immune response to infection. The client needs to monitor himself or herself for signs and symptoms of infection and to avoid situations where they may be exposed to infection, such as others who might be ill. The drug should be taken with meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation and should be withdrawn or tapered slowly to prevent Addisonian crisis. Clients also need to limit their sodium intake or follow a low-sodium diet to minimize water retention associated with this drug.

As part of the process of checking the placement of a nasogastric tube, the nurse checks the pH of the aspirate. Which pH finding would indicate to the nurse that the tube is in the stomach? A 4 B 6 C 8 D 10

A 4 Gastric secretions are acidic and have a pH ranging from 1 to 5. Intestinal aspirate is typically 6 or higher; respiratory aspirate is more alkaline, usually 7 or greater.

A nursing student is caring for a client with gastritis. Which of the following would the student recognize as a common cause of gastritis? Choose all that apply. A Overuse of aspirin B Participation in highly competitive sports C Irritating foods D Ingestion of strong acids E DASH diet

A Overuse of aspirin, Irritating foods, Ingestion of strong acids Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate. A DASH diet is an acronym for Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, which would not cause gastritis. Participation in competitive sports also would not cause gastritis.

A client describes being constipated, but also experiencing abdominal cramping, pain, and urgent diarrhea. These symptoms occur more often when the client is nearing a deadline or is under emotional stress. What would be recommended to treat these symptoms? Select all that apply. A high-fiber diet B psyllium C low-residue diet D cholinergic

A high-fiber diet B psyllium Dietary changes reduce flatulence and abdominal discomfort. A high-fiber diet (30 to 40 g/day) or a bulk-forming agent, such as products containing psyllium, is prescribed to regulate bowel elimination. The fiber draws water into constipated stool and adds bulk to watery stool. An anticholinergic, such as dicyclomine (Bentyl), has an antispasmodic effect if taken before meals.

Which risk factors predispose a client to the development of kidney stones? Select all that apply. A immobilization. B gout. C hyperparathyroidism. D hypoparathyroidism.

A immobilization. B gout. C hyperparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism is not a risk factor for the development of kidney stones. Immobilization, gout, and hyperparathyroidism are risk factors.

A nurse works in a walk-in clinic. The nurse recognizes that certain patients are at higher risk for different disorders than other patients. What patient is at a greater risk for the development of hypothyroidism? A) A 75-year-old female patient with osteoporosis B) A 50-year-old male patient who is obese C) A 45-year-old female patient who used oral contraceptives D) A 25-year-old male patient who uses recreational drugs

A) A 75-year-old female patient with osteoporosis Even though osteoporosis is not a risk factor for hypothyroidism, the condition occurs most frequently in older women.

What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? A. Adhesions B. Small bowel obstruction C. Crohns D. hernias

A. adhesions Adhesions are scar tissues that forms as a result of inflammation and infection. Adhesions are most common cause of SBO, followed by tumors, Crohns disease and hernias. Other causes include intussusception, volvulus and paralytic ileus

The nurse notes the amount and color of the urine the patient with urolithiasis has voided. While using Standard Precautions, what should be the nurse's next action? a. Discard the urine b. Add the urine to a 24-hour collector c. Send the urine to the laboratory d. Strain the urine

ANS: D All urine should be strained. Because stones may be any size, even the smallest speck must be saved for assessment by the laboratory.

After assessing a client with peritonitis, how would the nurse most likely document the client's bowel sounds? A Hyperactive B Absent C High-pitched D Mild

B Absent Since lack of bowel motility typically accompanies peritonitis, bowel sounds are absent. Therefore, the nurse will not observe mild, high-pitched, or hyperactive bowel sounds.

A patient comes to the clinic suspecting a possible UTI. What symptoms of a UTI would the nurse recognize from the assessment data gathered? A Urine with a specific gravity of 1.005-1.022 B Cloudy urine C Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point D An output of 200mL with each voiding

B Cloudy urine The nurse should observe for signs and symptoms of UTI: cloudy malodorous urine, hematuria, fever, chills, anorexia, and malaise.

A nurse in a stroke rehabilitation facility recognizes that the brain regulates swallowing. Damage to what area of the brain will most affect the patients ability to swallow? A) Temporal lobe B) Medulla oblongata C) Cerebellum D) Pons

B) Medulla oblongata Swallowing is a voluntary act that is regulated by a swallowing center in the medulla oblongata of the central nervous system. Swallowing is not regulated by the temporal lobe, cerebellum, or pons.

A client informs the nurse of having abdominal pain that is relieved when having a bowel movement. The health care provider diagnosed the client with irritable bowel syndrome. What does the nurse recognize as characteristic of this disorder? A Client is awakened from sleep due to abdominal pain. B Blood and mucus in the stool C Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea D Weight loss due to malabsorption

C Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea Most clients with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) describe having chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea. Some report the opposite pattern, although less commonly. Most clients experience various degrees of abdominal pain that defecation may relieve. Weight usually remains stable, indicating that when diarrhea occurs, malabsorption of nutrients does not accompany it. Stools may have mucus, but blood is not usually found because the bowel is not locally inflamed. The sleep is not disturbed from abdominal pain.

A patient admitted to the medical unit with impaired renal function is complaining of severe, stabbing pain in the flank and lower abdomen. The patient is being assessed for renal calculi. The nurse recognizes that the stone is most likely in what anatomic location? A) Meatus B) Bladder C) Ureter D) Urethra

C) Ureter Ureteral pain is characterized as a dull continuous pain that may be intense with voiding. The pain may be described as sharp or stabbing if the bladder is full. This type of pain is inconsistent with a stone being present in the bladder. Stones are not normally situated in the urethra or meatus.

A nurse is providing preprocedure education for a patient who will undergo a lower GI tract study the following week. What should the nurse teach the patient about bowel preparation? A) Youll need to fast for at least 18 hours prior to your test. B) Starting today, take over-the-counter stool softeners twice daily. C) Youll need to have enemas the day before the test. D) For 24 hours before the test, insert a glycerin suppository every 4 hours.

C) Youll need to have enemas the day before the test. Preparation of the patient includes emptying and cleansing the lower bowel. This often necessitates a low-residue diet 1 to 2 days before the test; a clear liquid diet and a laxative the evening before; NPO after midnight; and cleansing enemas until returns are clear the following morning.

Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess in a client with peritonitis? A Deep slow respirations B Hyperactive bowel sounds C Decreased pulse rate D Board-like abdomen

D Board-like abdomen The client with peritonitis would typically exhibit a rigid, board-like abdomen, with absent bowel sounds, elevated pulse rate, and rapid, shallow respirations.

A nurse is preparing to administer a patients scheduled parenteral nutrition (PN). Upon inspecting the bag, the nurse notices that the presence of small amounts of white precipitate are present in the bag. What is the nurses best action? A) Recognize this as an expected finding. B) Place the bag in a warm environment for 30 minutes. C) Shake the bag vigorously for 10 to 20 seconds. D) Contact the pharmacy to obtain a new bag of PN.

D) Contact the pharmacy to obtain a new bag of PN.

A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with cholecystitis, and is experiencing localized abdominal pain. When assessing the characteristics of the patients pain, the nurse should anticipate that it may radiate to what region? A) Left upper chest B) Inguinal region C) Neck or jaw D) Right shoulder

D) Right shoulder

A nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with an exacerbation of chronic gastritis. What health promotion topic should the nurse emphasize? A) Strategies for maintaining an alkaline gastric environment B) Safe technique for self-suctioning C) Techniques for positioning correctly to promote gastric healing D) Strategies for avoiding irritating foods and beverages

D) Strategies for avoiding irritating foods and beverages Measures to help relieve pain include instructing the patient to avoid foods and beverages that may be irritating to the gastric mucosa and instructing the patient about the correct use of medications to relieve chronic gastritis. An alkaline gastric environment is neither possible nor desirable. There is no plausible need for self-suctioning. Positioning does not have a significant effect on the presence or absence of gastric healing.

Which of the following glands is considered the master gland? Parathyroid Thyroid Adrenal Pituitary

Pituitary Commonly referred to as the master gland, the pituitary gland secretes hormones that control the secretion of additional hormones by other endocrine glands. The thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal glands are not considered the master gland.

A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) comes to the physician's office reporting a burning sensation in the esophagus. The nurse documents that the client is experiencing a. pyrosis. b. dyspepsia. c. dysphagia. d. odynophagia.

a. pyrosis. Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. Pain upon swallowing is termed odynophagia.

A nurse is caring for a client who had an ileal conduit 3 days earlier. The nurse examines the stoma site and determines that she should consult with the ostomy nurse. Which assessment finding indicates the need for further consultation? a. beefy red stoma site b. stoma site not sensitive to touch c. red, sensitive skin around the stoma site d. clear mucus mixed with yellow urine drained from the appliance bag

c. red, sensitive skin around the stoma site Red, sensitive skin around the stoma site may indicate an ill-fitting appliance beefy redness at a stoma site that isn't sensitive to touch is a normal assessment finding. Urine mixed with mucus is also a normal finding.