UPrep Domain 2

For a Type 1 diabetic, which of the following blood glucose levels is an indication to ingest a carbohydrate snack? a) 155 mg · dL−1 b) 215 mg · dL−1 c) 88 mg · dL−1 d) 110 mg · dL−1

88 mg · dL−1 Ideally, blood glucose needs to be between 100 and 250 mg · dL−1. If it is below these levels, the client should eat a carbohydrate-rich snack to elevate blood glucose accordingly before training begins.

A female client who is 150 lbs and 5 feet, 8 inches tall would have a BMI of:

22.8. An individual who weighs 150 lbs and is 5 feet, 8 inches tall has a BMI of: 5 ft 8 in = 173 cm = 1.73 m = 2.99 m2 and 150 lbs = 68.18 kg. Therefore, BMI = 68.18/2.99 = 22.8 kg · m−2

Greater amounts of physical activity are likely to be needed to achieve weight loss and prevent weight regain in adults, thus requiring ________ minutes of moderate physical activity per week.

200 to 300

When demonstrating a bicep curl for your client using dumbbells, which of the following cues should you give? a) "It is important that the elbows remain at least 5 inches from your sides in order to get the most contraction." b) "Make sure you curl your wrists as you reach the end range to maximize the bicep's contraction." c) "When lowering the weight, make sure you take your elbow to full extension before curling the weight again." d) "Be sure not to swing your arms and throw your back into the exercise."

"Be sure not to swing your arms and throw your back into the exercise."

Which statement would be BEST when describing why an older adult client needs a balance exercise? a) "If you do not have good balance, you will not be able to take care of yourself as you get older." b) "Dynamic balance is essential to decrease your risk for falling. It is really simple; just walk on the floor as if you are on a tightrope." c) "Balance is important to build strength in the lower legs and increase your leg stamina." d) "Balance exercises improve diabetes and can help increase the power in your legs."

"Dynamic balance is essential to decrease your risk for falling. It is really simple; just walk on the floor as if you are on a tightrope." A dynamic balance exercise involves transferring body weight from one foot to the other; for example, pretending to walk along a tightrope, or a line on the floor without falling off.

What would be a good way to describe how to improve posture for a 39-year-old female who works in an office all day? a) "When you are at work, take a 10-minute break every 3 hours, and walk briskly outside." b) "Every 2 hours at work, sit on the edge of the chair, and maintain a perfectly neutral spine for 60 seconds." c) "It is important to have your computer monitor at least 10 inches from your eyes to improve posture." d) "When you have a lunch break, stretch your rhomboids two times."

"Every 2 hours at work, sit on the edge of the chair, and maintain a perfectly neutral spine for 60 seconds."

Weight loss after exercise indicates less than optimal hydration. Athletes should consume ________ of fluid per pound of weight lost during activity.

1 pint (approximately 600 mL)

Your client, who is a novice exerciser, wants to begin resistance training in preparation for a 1-month backpacking trip he will be taking thorough the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following training sets and reps would be appropriate for the first few weeks of training? a) 3 to 5 sets of 4 to 6 reps b) 1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 reps c) 3 to 5 sets of 15 to 20 reps d) 2 to 4 sets of 4 to 6 reps

1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 reps

Protein consumed beyond ________ is either stored as fat or metabolized as an energy source.

1.5 grams per kg of body weight

Target exercise intensity for clients with cardiovascular disease should fall ________ below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms.

10 to 15 bpm Target exercise intensity should fall 10 and 15 bpm below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms (e.g., chest pain or other angina symptoms).

What would be the best time under tension for a beginning exerciser to do the plank?

15 seconds Many clients find it challenging to maintain the position for even 30 to 60 seconds while keeping the scapulae depressed.

Most health benefits occur with at least ________ minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity.

150

How many minutes of moderate-intensity exercise per week are recommended by ACSM for weight loss or to help maintain weight loss? a) 120 minutes b) 180 minutes c) 90 minutes d) 150 minutes

150 minutes According to the ACSM, a baseline of 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity exercise assists with weight loss or maintains weight loss.

You are working with a client who weighs 180 lbs with a body fat percentage of 20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant? a) 149 lbs b) 144 lbs c) 169 lbs d) 175 lbs

169 lbs Ideal body weight calculation: 180 lbs &multi; 0.20 = 36 lbs fat 180 lbs − 36 = 144 lbs lean body mass Ideal Body Weight = 144/(1 − 0.15) = 144/0.85 = 169 lbs

What is the maximum number of consecutive rest days between exercise sessions for diabetic clients? a) 1 b) 4 c) 2 d) 3

2 For diabetic clients, ACSM recommends 3 to 7 days per week of exercise with no more than 2 consecutive days between sessions of aerobic activity because of the relatively brief exercise-induced improvements in insulin action.

Which sets, repetitions, and load would result in the GREATEST total training volume? a) 2 sets &multi; 12 reps with 90 lbs b) 1 set &multi; 12 reps with 150 lbs c) 3 sets &multi; 4 reps with 160 lbs d) 2 sets &multi; 8 reps with 110 lbs

2 sets &multi; 12 reps with 90 lbs The number of sets performed for each exercise is one variable in what is referred to as the "volume of exercise equation." 2 &multi; 12 &multi; 90 results in the highest volume of 2160

To develop and maintain flexibility, ACSM recommends inclusion of general stretching exercises for all major muscle groups at least: a) 4 times per week. b) 2 to 3 days per week. c) Every other exercise session. d) Once a week.

2 to 3 days per week. ACSM's current position stand on exercises for flexibility recommends the inclusion of general stretching for major skeletal muscle groups at least 2 to 3 days per week.

The ACSM weight loss and weight loss maintenance strategy for clients calls for weekly exercise activity of:

250 to 300 minutes. For weight loss or maintaining weight loss, the recommended duration of exercise is 50 to 60 minutes per day most days of the week, or 250 to 300 minutes per wee

Muscle and bone strengthening activities for children and adolescents should be performed how many times per week? a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7

3

Athletes exercising at high altitude need an estimated ________ of fluid daily to maintain normal hydration.

3 to 4 liters

An advanced client is training with the goal of increasing strength. He has been performing 3 sets, using an 8- to 12-repetition maximum for the past 8 weeks. Which modification will result in the GREATEST strength gains? a) 3 sets, 15 to 20 reps maximum, utilizing negative and assisted work b) 1 to 2 sets, 8 to 12 reps maximum, weekly c) 2 to 4 sets, 1 to 3 reps maximum, for 2 weeks d) 3 to 5 sets, 5 to 6 reps maximum, for 6 to 12 weeks

3 to 5 sets, 5 to 6 reps maximum, for 6 to 12 weeks Because the current program has been focusing primarily on muscular endurance, an increase that would be considered progressive and enhance strength would be 5 to 6 reps maximum.

Your client would like to start playing tennis on weekends. She has a BMI of 32, she is age 36, and she has led a very sedentary lifestyle. Which cardiovascular training program should she begin with? a) 30 minutes of walking per day, 5 days per week, at 40% to 59% of HRR b) 30 to 45 minutes of walking and jogging intervals, 2 to 3 times per week, at 60% to 70% of HRR c) 15 to 20 minutes of walking, 3 times per week, and 10 to 15 minutes of sprint intervals, 1 day per week. d) Light tennis workouts on Saturday, and walking for 30 to 45 minutes on Sunday

30 minutes of walking per day, 5 days per week, at 40% to 59% of HRR Obese individuals should start with 30 minutes of exercise, 5 times per week, at an HRR of 40% to 59%.

A client with hardly any regular past exercise history plans to work with you for 8 weeks as she is ready to get fit and lose weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her become regularly active and work toward her goal? a) 20 minutes per day, shorter multiple bouts b) 30 minutes per day, longer multiple bouts c) 30 minutes per day, shorter multiple bouts d) 20 minutes per day, longer multiple bouts

30 minutes per day, shorter multiple bouts

Flexibility activities for older adults that target joint mobility should be held for approximately:

30 to 60 seconds. For older adults, stretches may produce greater benefits when they are held for 30 to 60 seconds.

Fat intake should be no more than ________ of total daily calories.

30%

Dietary cholesterol should be limited to less than ________ per day, based on USDA dietary guidelines.

300 mg

A competitive recreational basketball player is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills? a) Pro-agility test b) 300-yard shuttle run c) Margaria-Kalamen stair climb d) 4-yard dash

300-yard shuttle run

Which of the following assesses anaerobic capacity? a) 800-meter run b) Pro-agility test c) 300-yard shuttle run d) Vertical jump test

300-yard shuttle run

The serving of cheese you are consuming has 9 grams of protein. How many calories from protein is this?

36 kcal

Your client eats 1,200 kcal per day, with 30% of calories from fat. How many grams of fat per day does the client eat?

40 grams Fat provides 9 kcal per gram; 30% of 1,200 is 360 kcal; 40g fat &multi; 9 = 360 kcal.

For the body to adapt to exercise efficiently, how much rest time should someone allow between resistance training programs with any given muscle groups?

48 hours

Carbohydrate intake is recommended for most individuals at ________ grams per kilogram of body weight per day.

6 to 10

What is the ideal repetition range for an apparently healthy adult who wants to gain muscle hypertrophy?

6 to 12 A recent review of the literature recommends a range of approximately 6 to 12 repetitions to optimize metabolic stress leading to hypertrophic adaptations.

A 33-year-old male who comes to you with previous weight training experience would benefit from how many repetitions per exercise?

8 to 12

How many repetitions per exercise should be performed for enhanced muscular strength? a) 8 to 12 b) 1 to 2 c) 15 to 20 d) 3 to 6

8 to 12

A 33-year-old female has a bench press weight ratio of 0.63. What rep range would you start her with?

8 to 12 A score of 0.63 is good; therefore, the rep range should be 8 to 12.

Which of the following clients with a known cardiovascular disease would be classified as low risk for exercise? a) A client with diabetes and hypertension b) A client with dyslipidemia and obesity c) A client with a resting heart rate of 90 and diabetes d) A client with a resting blood pressure of 145/91

A client with a resting blood pressure of 145/91

According to the 2013 ACSM Guidelines for Exercise Testing and Prescription, significant health benefits can be achieved with: a) Performance of moderate to vigorous cardiorespiratory exercise using large muscle groups, 10 to 20 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week. b) Strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise using small and large muscle groups, 20 to 30 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week. c) An accumulation of at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity on most days of the week. d) A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.

A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week. Through research, ACSM has determined that 3 to 5 days per week of moderate to vigorous exercise for 30 to 60 minutes per session will improve health.

Muscular strength is defined as:

A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group.

An ideal exercise to improve the activities of daily living for a client who has back pain would be:

A squat against the wall with a stability ball behind the back.

For Certified Exercise Physiologists who operate a business, creating an emergency plan is: a) Dependent on where services are provided. b) A top priority. c) Irrelevant. d) Based on each client's identified risk.

A top priority.

The amount of aerobic activity recommended for older adults is: a) About the same that is recommended for all adults. b) About the same that is recommended for all adults but with an emphasis on vigorous activity. c) Slightly less than is recommended for all adults. d) Slightly more than is recommended for all adults.

About the same that is recommended for all adults. Older adults should strive for the same amount of aerobic activity that is recommended for all adults: at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity for 5 or more days per week, or at least 20 minutes of vigorous activity for 3 days per week, or a combination of vigorous and moderate for 3 to 5 days per week)

A general training principle for cardiorespiratory endurance is that it requires: a) Activities that involve major muscle groups and are continuous and rhythmic in nature. b) Activities that would require 2000 to 2500 MET minutes per week. c) Light-intensity exercises that are appropriate for conditioning in most adults. d) Activities that have a work-to-rest ratio of approximately 4:1.

Activities that involve major muscle groups and are continuous and rhythmic in nature

A general training principle for cardiorespiratory endurance is that it requires:

Activities that involve major muscle groups and are continuous and rhythmic in nature.

Basketball would be a good sport choice for which of the following populations? a) Adults with a regular exercise program and at least average physical fitness b) Any client with a BMI of 30 or higher c) All adults d) An adult with blood pressure of at least 130/80 mm Hg

Adults with a regular exercise program and at least average physical fitness

Which routine would be BEST for a client with hypertension? a) Resistance training 3 times per week, for 30 to 60 minutes, at a low intensity b) Aerobic exercise on most or all days of the week, for 30 to 60 minutes, at a low intensity c) Aerobic exercise 2 to 3 times per week, for 15 to 20 minutes, at a high intensity d) Resistance training most or all days of the week, as a circuit for 30 to 45 minutes, at a moderate intensity

Aerobic exercise on most or all days of the week, for 30 to 60 minutes, at a low intensity Aerobic exercise is the cornerstone activity in the total program for clients with hypertension. Clients should exercise 30 to 60 minutes, at a low intensity, on most or all days of the week

Prior to spotting a client for a strength exercise, you must first: a) Position your body to take over the exercise. b) Ask for permission. c) Place your hands under the client's elbow joint. d) Place your hands proximal to the wrists.

Ask for permission.

A key benefit from regular physical activity or exercise is a decrease in:

Anxiety and depression

When a client quits exercising for long periods of time, the principle of reversibility dictates that:

Any improvements gained will reverse and decrease. The principle of reversibility posits that improvements made in exercise training will reverse and decrease if exercise is not maintained.

During the 1 RM bench press, it is important to:

Avoid a Valsalva maneuver.

Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a client's exercise program? a) Balance b) Aerobic capacity c) Flexibility d) Body composition

Balance

Which skill-related exercises would be MOST beneficial for older adults? a) Power and balance b) Speed and agility c) Strength and coordination d) Balance and coordination

Balance and coordination

Which of the following motor skills are ideal to promote neuromotor training? a) Power, speed, and agility b) Power, coordination, and flexibility c) Agility, flexibility, and balance d) Balance, agility, and coordination

Balance, agility, and coordination Balance, agility, and coordination promote neuromotor training and should be incorporated into a client's workout session.

Consider the following program: Perform a total of six exercises, one from each of the following areas: hips and legs, chest, back, shoulders, low back, and abdominals, 1 to 2 sets, 8 to 12 reps, 2 to 3 times per week. For which client is such a program BEST suited? a) Beginner b) Athlete c) Intermediate d) Advanced

Beginner

Consider the following program: Perform a total of six exercises, one from each of the following areas: hips and legs, chest, back, shoulders, low back, and abdominals, 1 to 2 sets, 8 to 12 reps, 2 to 3 times per week. For which client is such a program BEST suited? a) Athlete b) Beginner c) Intermediate d) Advanced

Beginner Such a program is ideal for a beginning exerciser given the high number of repetitions and few sets

Preparticipation health screenings during initial client consultation help the EP-C to maximize ________ and minimize ________.

Benefit; risk

An improper cool-down may cause which of the following? a) Increased hypertension b) Blood pooling in the heart c) Blood pooling in the legs d) Increased oxygen consumption

Blood pooling in the legs A proper cool-down that allows for a gradual return toward baseline will help the client avoid postexercise hypotension (low blood pressure) and potential dizziness due to blood pooling in the legs rather than flowing back to the heart and brain.

Which of the following terms is defined as the relative proportion of fat and fat-free tissue in the body? a) Body composition b) Bioelectrical impedance c) Body mass average d) Lean body mass

Body composition Body composition is defined as the proportion of fat and fat-free body tissue (percentage body fat).

When the EP-C determines that a desired small gain would require too much time to achieve, it may be necessary to proceed with:

Capping a training session A concept called "capping" may need to be applied to various training situations when small gains will require very large amounts of time to achieve, yet are not necessary for overall success.

Increased mitochondrial density is a result of:

Chronic cardiorespiratory activity.

Which exercise would be BEST suited for an advanced athlete? a) Supine leg press b) Clean and jerk c) Static lunge d) BOSU ball squat

Clean and jerk Olympic lifts such as clean and jerk are very advanced exercises and should be used only by well-trained individuals and athletes.

The main shortcoming of using BMI for body composition assessment is:

Clients have difficulty relating and interpreting needed weight loss or weight gain based on the measure. BMI assesses weight relative to height, with the major shortcoming being the difficulty for a client to relate to and interpret needed weight loss or weight gain based on the number

When exercising, which statement is MOST true about breathing? a) Clients should hold their breath during the entire movement and exhale at the very end. b) Clients should inhale during the contraction phase of the exercise. c) Clients should never hold their breath during any contraction. d) Clients should breath out during the eccentric phase of the exercise.

Clients should never hold their breath during any contraction.

Which of the following is a key recommendation of the 2010 USDA dietary guidelines? a) Moderate consumption of foods with the words "creamy" or "battered". b) Solid fats may be consumed if high in protein. c) Limit fat intake to 15%. d) Color your plate.

Color your plate.

The best strategy for maintaining a nutrient balance is to: a) Eat organic fruits and vegetables each day. b) Focus on daily ingestion of foods rich in vitamins and minerals. c) Consume a wide variety of foods. d) Minimize consumption of red meat.

Consume a wide variety of foods.

Which energy system is primarily used in plyometric standing box jumps in which the client fatigues in 10 seconds? a) Fatty-acid oxidation b) Creatine phosphate c) Oxidative system d) Anaerobic glycolysis

Creatine phosphate The most immediate source of ATP is in the creatine phosphate system, which provides energy for short bouts of exercise lasting no more than 10 seconds.

Your client has been performing cardiovascular exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, 3 times per week. During your 3-month assessment, you would expect her submaximal heart rate to: a) Stay the same. b) Decrease by 50%. c) Increase by 10%. d) Decrease by 10%.

Decrease by 10%. The chronic effect of cardiovascular exercise will lower a client's submaximal heart rate approximately 10% over time.

When performing a dumbbell press on a stability ball that is load rated to safely support the dumbbell weight and the client's body weight, the resistance should be ________ relative to performing the exercise on a flat bench.

Decreased

Which of the following is NOT a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise? a) Increased maximal oxygen uptake resulting from both central and peripheral adaptations b) Increased capillary density in skeletal muscle c) Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms d) Decreased heart rate and blood pressure at a given submaximal intensity

Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms is a chronic exercise response.

Eating small but frequent meals has all of the following benefits EXCEPT: a) Maintenance of metabolic rate. b) Improved glucose tolerance. c) Decreased muscle mass. d) Reduced production of stress hormones.

Decreased muscle mass. Eating small but frequent meals helps sustain energy output, maintains metabolic rate, and lowers stress hormone production

During gait, you notice that your client tends to put weight on the lateral edge of the feet. This is mostly because the client cannot __________ the foot properly.

Dorsiflex

A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration?

Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds

A standing pendulum leg swing is considered what type of stretch?

Dynamic

________ resistance training features both a lifting phase and lowering phase during each repetition.

Dynamic constant external

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding EP-Cs recommending supplements to clients? a) EP-Cs should only recommend those supplements covered under their professional liability insurance. b) EP-Cs do not possess the qualifications to recommend supplements unless they have the appropriate licenses. c) EP-Cs should recommend only natural supplements due to potential complications with other medications. d) EP-Cs should become educated about specific supplements before making any recommendations.

EP-Cs do not possess the qualifications to recommend supplements unless they have the appropriate licenses. It is outside the scope of practice for EP-Cs to recommend any supplement to anyone.

When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action?

Eccentric When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action (e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl)

When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as what type of action?

Eccentric When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action (e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl).

One protein food that contains all the essential amino acids in the right ratio to make a complete protein is: a) corn b) beans c) eggs d)

Eggs

Abruptly stopping exercise can cause:

Excessive drop in blood pressure Abruptly stopping exercise may cause an excessive drop in blood pressure that can cause dizziness

A single exercise session is referred to as resistance ________, while the combination of many consecutive sessions over time is resistance ________.

Exercise; training Resistance exercise refers to a single exercise session or workout; resistance training refers to the combination of many consecutive resistance exercise sessions over time.

Your 38-year-old female client wants to lose weight, but is concerned that resistance training will make her "bulk up." You should: a) Show empathy and assure her that you will design a program that will help her to get toned without bulking up. b) Explain how resistance training can gain lean body mass and raise resting metabolism. c) Assure her that women do not produce enough testosterone to bulk up. d) Design a program based on aerobic exercise with a light (40% 1 RM) circuit with high reps (15–25) per set.

Explain how resistance training can gain lean body mass and raise resting metabolism. Educate the client about the meaning of "toning up" and the importance of increasing lean body mass, while also promoting cardiorespiratory exercise as a way to burn large numbers of calories and reduce excessive body fat.

To ensure agreement between the EP-C and the client with respect to motivation and goals, the EP-C should:

Explore the client's expectations and prior experience. Ask the client about expectations and initial goals. If the EP-C clearly understands the client's goals, the likelihood of success for the client increases.

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.

Extension; 40° to 60°

Overcoming a shoulder impingement can be done by strengthening and improving the function of the ________, and stretching the ________.

External shoulder rotators; internal shoulder rotators

Which muscle fiber type tends to increase with resistance training? a) Fast twitch b) Eccentric c) Slow twitch d) Concentric

Fast twitch Fast twitch muscle fiber, fiber size, and rate of force production tend to increase with resistance training.

When a client extends the hips and knees from a parallel squat position to a standing position, which muscles perform the concentric action at these joints? a) Gluteus maximus and quadriceps b) Hamstrings and gracilis c) Gluteus minimus and sartorius d) Hamstrings and gluteus maximus

Gluteus maximus and quadriceps When a client extends the hips and knees from a parallel squat position to a standing position, there is concentric action of the hip joint (via the gluteus maximus) and knee joint (via the quadriceps)

Based on the USDA 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, MyPlate recommends how much of your plate should be fruits and vegetables at each meal? a) Three-quarters b) One-third c) Half d) One-quarter

Half

Per the USDA, the makeup of a healthful plate of food should consist of:

Half fruits and vegetables.

During a straight-legged deadlift, which muscle(s) does MOST of the work as you extend the hip joint? a) Gluteus medius b) Hamstrings c) Iliopsoas d) Quadriceps

Hamstrings

During a straight-legged deadlift, which muscle(s) does MOST of the work as you extend the hip joint? a) Quadriceps b) Hamstrings c) Iliopsoas d) Gluteus medius

Hamstrings

Ron is training for leg muscle hypertrophy on the squat. He believes that by utilizing an explosive, rapid repetition speed he will increase the amount of work he is doing and thus "overload his quads better." He wants to know if his rationale is correct. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response? a) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work. b) He is correct in his rationale and should try to increase his repetition speed. c) He should continue to train using a rapid lifting technique to attain his goal, but his rationale is incorrect as he is increasing torque, not work. d) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he is using too much momentum in his training and should maximize acceleration in order to maximize work.

He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work. This individual is utilizing plyometric principles and is not using the proper method for increasing muscle hypertrophy.

Bilateral ankle edema is a characteristic sign of: a) Improper footwear during exercise. b) Heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency. c) Venous thrombosis or lymphatic blockage in the limb. d) A slight ankle sprain in both ankles.

Heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency. Bilateral ankle edema, which is most evident at night, is a characteristic sign of heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency.

One way to motivate clients to adhere to their exercise program is to:

Help clients set realistic goals and modify them as needed.

Which of the following generally results in the greatest amount of caloric expenditure? a) High-intensity exercise of short duration b) Low-intensity exercise of short duration c) Low-intensity exercise of long duration d) High-intensity exercise of long duration

High-intensity exercise of long duration

The negative effects of a lower metabolic rate include which of the following? a) Higher body weight b) Elevated blood pressure c) Increased lean muscle mass d) Higher resting heart rate

Higher body weight The result of a lower metabolic rate is usually higher body weight (from more body fat) because of a diminished ability to burn the energy that is consumed

Which of the following exercises is LEAST likely to cause injury during pregnancy? a) Low intensity plyometrics b) Holding a light stretch for approximately 15 seconds c) Resistance training on a flat bench d) PNF stretching

Holding a light stretch for approximately 15 seconds Joint range of motion will be enhanced during pregnancy because of increased circulating levels of relaxin, and therefore the potential exists for ligament and joint capsule damage with an overly aggressive flexibility program

Proper hydration during exercise ensures:

Improved cardiac output. Key to athletic success is avoidance of underhydration. Staying optimally hydrated during exercise has multiple benefits, including improvement in cardiac stroke volume and cardiac output.

A client with strong social support is associated with: a) Goal attainment. b) Appropriate goal setting. c) Relapse prevention. d) Improved program adherence.

Improved program adherence. Research has shown that high levels of social support for exercise lead to higher levels of self-efficacy, which, in turn, leads to increased participation in exercise.

The EP-C should protect against a heat injury in the older adult by conducting exercise:

In a thermoneutral environment. The EP-C should protect against a heat injury in the older adult by conducting exercise in a thermoneutral environment.

Which of the following are the alcohol consumption recommendations per the USDA dietary guidelines? a) In moderation, up to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men b) Avoid alcohol c) No more than three drinks per day d) No more than three drinks per week

In moderation, up to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men

To properly perform dynamic stretching, the muscles should: a) Be held in a stationary position for several seconds at peak tension. b) Use the momentum of the moving body segment to produce peak muscle tension. c) Be placed in peak tension for several seconds followed by an active contraction of the same muscles. d) Incorporate movements that are specific to sport movement.

Incorporate movements that are specific to sport movement.

Your 40-year-old female client is ready to get started losing 15 lbs for the new year after being sedentary for about a year. She wants to focus on strength training as she has heard that this will help sculpt her body. You recommend that she: a) Receive medical clearance from her primary health care provider. b) Increase her metabolism with aerobic activity and progressive strength training. c) Obtain a diet plan from a registered dietitian first. d) Undergo a body composition assessment using hydrostatic weighing for a baseline measure.

Increase her metabolism with aerobic activity and progressive strength training. Resistance training programs are commonly treated as an adjunct to a regular aerobic exercise program and generally should not be used in lieu of an aerobic program for weight loss in obese clients.

Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise? a) Increase in resting heart rate b) Decrease in blood pressure c) Increase in stroke volume d) Decrease in cardiac output

Increase in stroke volume

A measure of cardiorespiratory fitness improvement includes:

Increased maximal oxygen consumption.

The most common mineral deficiency the EP-C is likely to encounter is: a) Potassium. b) Calcium. c) Iron. d) Magnesium.

Iron. Iron and zinc are critically important for energy metabolism but are among the nutrients of which people may not be consuming enough. The most common nutrient deficiency in most industrialized countries is iron

Which of the following muscle actions controls the movement and maintains a constant speed throughout the range of motion? a) Isometric b) Eccentric c) Isokinetic d) Concentric

Isokinetic

Resistance training in cardiac patients improves:

Muscular strength and endurance while decreasing the cardiovascular demands of a given task.

Which of the following types of resistance training allows an individual to exert maximal resistance throughout an entire range of motion by controlling the movement speed? a) Isotonic b) Isokinetic c) Concentric d) Eccentric

Isokinetic Isokinetic devices allow one to maintain a maximum resistance throughout the whole range of motion by controlling the speed of the movement.

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for a novice athlete starting plyometric training? a) Single linear jumps b) Multiple linear hops c) Hops and bounds d) Jumps in place

Jumps in place Plyometric training should begin with jumps in place with gradual progression in intensity.

During a back-loaded squat, what position should the head be in? a) Pull the head back and slightly tuck the chin. b) Tuck the chin with the eyes looking down. c) Keep the head forward with the chin level. d) Look up about 2 feet.

Keep the head forward with the chin level.

Which exercise provides dynamic constant external resistance? a) Knee flexion b) Leg extension c) Kettlebell swing d) Cable upright row

Kettlebell swing Dumbbells, barbells, kettlebells, weight machines, and medicine balls provide dynamic constant external resistance.

Which stretch is BEST for stretching the iliopsoas? a) Kneeling hip flexor stretch b) Prone quadriceps stretch c) Seated hamstring stretch d) Supine knee to chest

Kneeling hip flexor stretch

An example of an open chain exercise is the: a) Push-up. b) Leg extension. c) Squat. d) Pull-up.

Leg extension. Open chain movements occur when the distal segment of a joint moves in space. An example of this is knee extension (leg extension on a machine).

Which of the following would be a good warm-up for a healthy adult who is about to take a 3-mile run? a) Jogging at an intensity of 60% to70% of HRR for 3 to 5 minutes b) Rhythmic skipping for 5 to 10 minutes c) Running at an intensity of 65% to 75% HRR for 5 minutes d) Light walking, then jogging for 5 to 10 minutes

Light walking, then jogging for 5 to 10 minutes At a minimum, a warm-up is 5 to 10 minutes of low to moderate activity intended to literally warm up the muscles in preparation for the conditioning phase.

Which of the following models are known as classic periodization? a) Stepwise b) Linear c) Undulating d) Overreaching

Linear The classic periodization model is referred to as a linear model because the volume and intensity of training gradually change over time

The USDA recommends that dairy group choices should be:

Low fat.

Fluid intake recommendations include:

Matching fluid intake to sweat loss. Drinking as much as needed to match sweat loss is recommended because the thirst mechanism is not sufficient to maintain hydration, consuming large fluid volumes increases risk of gastrointestinal distress, and athletes tend to develop dehydration even when sufficient fluids are nearby

Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training? a) Acceleration torque production b) Mechanical disadvantage c) Biomechanical angle velocity d) Torsional maximization

Mechanical disadvantage

The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip?

Medial

Which piece of equipment would be BEST for increasing power? a) Medicine ball b) BOSU ball c) Resistance bands d) Stability ball

Medicine ball A medicine ball can be thrown with great force, and requires the body to produce great power.

Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should: a) Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase. b) Push up, utilizing the muscles around the hip joint. c) Maintain a cervical extension posture throughout the movement. d) Utilize the proper size weightlifting belt.

Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase. This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. Leaning forward recruits more of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings. By minimizing forward flexion, the quadriceps will be recruited more.

Which of the following activities may individuals with rheumatoid arthritis perform? a) Moderate-intensity activities with daily stretching b) Vigorous-intensity activities and stretching unstable joints as tolerated c) Vigorous-intensity activities and strengthening with low resistance and high repetition d) Moderate-intensity activities and strengthening using free weights

Moderate-intensity activities with daily stretching Individuals with rheumatoid arthritis can perform moderate-intensity exercises with little or no joint damage and should be encouraged to pursue activities of daily living that require movement, as the benefits of an exercise program are lost when the program is no longer continued

What exercise frequency is best for an apparently healthy senior adult? a) Moderate-intensity exercise, performed 2 or more days per week b) Very-low-intensity exercise, performed 6 or more days per week c) Moderate-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week d) Vigorous-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week

Moderate-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week For an apparently healthy senior adult, moderate-intensity exercise should be performed 5 or more days per week. Vigorous-intensity activity on 3 or more days per week, or a combination of moderate and vigorous exercise 3 to 5 days per week, would also be appropriate.

The quadruped (bird dog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Latissimus dorsi and teres major b) Rectus abdominis and obliques c) Transverse abdominis and quadratus lumborum d) Multifidus and erector spinae

Multifidus and erector spinae The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.

What is the suggested duration of exercise for severely deconditioned obese clients?

Multiple bouts lasting 10 minutes or more

Which outcome is MOST likely when performing a safe and effective resistance training program 2 to 3 times per week for 3 months? a) Muscle atrophy b) Muscle hypertrophy c) Muscle hypermobility d) Muscle hyperplasia

Muscle hypertrophy

The most prominent adaptation seen with resistance training is:

Muscle hypertrophy.

The adage "use it or lose it" basically states that physiological gains from training:

Must be maintained through regular training. The adage "use it or lose it" implies that training-induced adaptations cannot be stored and that continued training is essential to maintain or improve fitness.

A partial impairment of coronary artery blood flow will MOST likely result in: a) Myocardial necrosis. b) Myocardial ischemia. c) Myocardial shortening. d) Myocardial infarction.

Myocardial ischemia. A partial impairment of coronary artery blood flow and thus oxygen to the cardiac tissue is referred to as myocardial ischemia, whereas the complete obstruction of blood flow to the cardiac myocardial tissue is referred to as a myocardial infarction and results in tissue death or necrosis

Which type of exercises help improve balance, agility, proprioception, gait, and coordination for the older adult? a) Strength b) Endurance c) Plyometric d) Neuromotor

Neuromotor Neuromotor exercises help improve balance, agility, proprioception, gait, and coordination for the older adult.

Which of the following is recommended to assess perceived exertion in children? a) OMNI scale b) Lever c) Dyspnea scale d) RPE scale of 6–20

OMNI scale

The side-lying quadriceps stretch would be most appropriate for which type of client? a) Male b) Obese c) Female d) Athlete

Obese

Asking the client questions such as, "Did you feel you worked out hard enough?" and "What was especially challenging today?" is the best way to:

Obtain client feedback. Asking the client for feedback with questions such as, "What did you find went well or easier?" encourages further feedback so you meet client expectations and helps you design an effective program

Which of the following is NOT a food group and yet provides essential nutrients? a) White flour b) Refined grains c) Eggs d) Oils

Oils Oils are not a food group, but they do provide essential nutrients and are therefore included in USDA recommendations for what to eat.

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prescribing a target heart rate range for a sedentary older adult? a) Thermoregulatory abilities increase. b) Older adults have a lower overall exercise capacity. c) They should use the OMNI scale for perceived exertion. d) Resting blood pressure tends to decrease.

Older adults have a lower overall exercise capacity.

Water-based exercises are MOST appropriate for populations with which of the following conditions? a) Osteoporosis b) Osteoarthritis c) Hypertension d) Claudication

Osteoarthritis

________ of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is required to produce beneficial adaptations in cardiorespiratory endurance.

Overload

In general, elbow injuries are a result of:

Overuse or repetitive motion. The elbow is an important joint involved in lifting, carrying, throwing, swinging, and most upper extremity exercise movements. The elbow is commonly injured and is the second most injured joint from overuse or repetitive motion. (less)

Good advice to your clients about diet while traveling is to: a) Cut portion sizes in half for all meals. b) Pack your own nutrient-dense foods for the trip. c) Not worry about diet because clients can get back to normal when they return. d) Avoid eating in restaurants.

Pack your own nutrient-dense foods for the trip. While decreasing portion size and trying to avoid restaurants would help, bringing their own foods that travel well, such as sports bars or granola, helps keep clients on track with foods with which they are familiar.

Which principle can help reduce the risk of overtraining? a) Periodization b) Progressive overload c) SAID d) Specificity

Periodization Periodization is the phasic manipulation of the training variables (volume, intensity, frequency, and rest intervals) as a means of optimizing desired physiological outcomes while concurrently reducing the incidence of overtraining. (less)

Which yoga pose would require the most balance? a) Plank from the knees b) Plank from the toes c) Plank from the elbows d) Plank with one foot lifted

Plank with one foot lifted

If a client is overtraining, which of the following could happen during a vertical jump that will most likely lead to injury? a) Poor landing b) Poor arm extension c) Poor core flexion d) Poor lift-off

Poor landing

Which of the following exercises is MOST effective in increasing muscular power? a) Deadlift b) Power clean c) Squat d) Bench press

Power clean

For older adults, the MOST important outcome that is derived from neuromotor training is:

Preventing falls. Regular exercise in older adults reduces the risk of falls, injuries from falls, and functional limitations, and improves the management of many conditions, including dementia, anxiety, and back pain

For older adults, the MOST important outcome that is derived from neuromotor training is: a) Increasing muscular endurance. b) Achieving a health weight. c) Improving sleep patterns. d) Preventing falls.

Preventing falls. Regular exercise in older adults reduces the risk of falls, injuries from falls, and functional limitations, and improves the management of many conditions, including dementia, anxiety, and back pain.

Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase? a) Prevents blood glucose levels from dropping below preexercise levels b) Minimizes muscle adhesions and postexercise soreness c) Prevents blood pooling in the extremities d) Elevates plasma levels of β-endorphins

Prevents blood pooling in the extremities

Which stretching technique combines passive stretching with isometric and concentric muscle actions using the autogenic and reciprocal inhibition responses of the Golgi tendon organs? a) Static b) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation c) Ballistic d) Dynamic

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation combines passive stretching with isometric and concentric muscle actions using the autogenic and reciprocal inhibition responses of the Golgi tendon organs

Before you provide a spot to a novice client for a given strength exercise, you should first:

Provide a detailed verbal and visual representation of the exercise Instruct via "tell, show, and do." The client should be comfortable with the movement before attempts are made that require spotting.

Before you provide a spot to a novice client for a given strength exercise, you should first: a) Provide instruction on what muscles will be strengthened. b) Be strong enough to hand off the resistance to the client. c) Ask how many sets the client plans on completing. d) Provide a detailed verbal and visual representation of the exercise.

Provide a detailed verbal and visual representation of the exercise. Instruct via "tell, show, and do." The client should be comfortable with the movement before attempts are made that require spotting.

Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate? a) Push-up plus off a wall → shoulder IR/ER → seated DB press b) Shoulder IR/ER → push-up plus → seated DB press c) Shoulder IR/ER → seated DB press → push-up plus d) High-rep bench press → shoulder IR/ER → abdominal crunch

Push-up plus off a wall → shoulder IR/ER → seated DB press A push-up plus off a wall is an example of a closed chain exercise as the arm is fixated to a stationary surface

Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance? a) Rockport One-Mile Fitness Walking Test b) Push-up test c) Sit-and-reach test d) One-repetition maximum

Push-up test

The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by the ________.

RPE; resistance; ROM These are other terms for intensity, resistance, and displacement; the EP-C should be familiar with various terminology.

Which activity would be contraindicated for someone with cardiovascular disease? a) Aqua aerobics b) Slow dancing c) Racquet sports d) Leisure cycling

Racquet sports

Rhabdomyolysis is a clinical pathology that is characterized by:

Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue.

You are ready to proceed with scheduling a fitness assessment with your client tomorrow. To get the most accurate heart rate response, you instruct your client to:

Refrain from drinking any caffeinated beverages 30 minutes prior to the assessment.

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia? a) Exercise may have a favorable result in increasing the total cholesterol to HDL-C ratios. b) Regular exercise can increase HDL-C levels. c) Exercises increases LDL-C levels. d) Triglyceride levels are reduced for up to 36 hours following exercise.

Regular exercise can increase HDL-C levels.

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia? a) Triglyceride levels are reduced for up to 36 hours following exercise. b) Exercise may have a favorable result in increasing the total cholesterol to HDL-C ratios. c) Exercises increases LDL-C levels. d) Regular exercise can increase HDL-C levels

Regular exercise can increase HDL-C levels. Regular exercise improves cholesterol profile by increasing HDL-C levels

Which type of routine would be BEST for a client with low back pain? a) Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk b) Flexion and rotation exercises of the trunk to increase strength c) Light rowing machine work to strengthen the low back d) Stretching all the lower trunk and lower leg muscles

Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk

For men, a three-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________.

Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh The Jackson-Pollock three-site skinfold formula estimates body fat percent averages for the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men.

The training principle that describes the need to swim if you want to get better at swimming, cycle to improve at cycling, run to gain skill at running, is: a) Overload. b) SAID. c) Overtraining. d) Periodization.

SAID. Specific adaptations to imposed demands, the SAID principle, indicates that the adaptation will be specific to the demands the exercise places upon the individual.

Running takes place in predominantly what plane of movement?

Sagittal

Basketball takes place in predominantly which plane? a) Frontal and transverse b) Sagittal c) Sagittal, frontal, and transverse d) Sagittal and frontal

Sagittal, frontal, and transverse

Protraction and retraction movements are characteristic of what joint?

Scapulothoracic joint.

Len is a 75-year-old client referred to you by an occupational therapist for strengthening of the lower leg muscle responsible for endurance in standing and walking. You would have Len perform ________ calf raises to emphasize his ________ muscle.

Seated; soleus Seated calf raises will strengthen the soleus. Note that the knee joint must be flexed in order to make the gastrocnemius inefficient, and thus isolate the soleus in strengthening

Upon review of medical history, you learn that a new client has experienced symptoms that are consistent with unstable ischemia. You recommend that the client:

Seek medical treatment immediately. Individuals with unstable ischemia need to seek medical treatment immediately, as unstable ischemia may be a warning sign that a heart attack is imminent. In no case should this person be performing exercise or an exercise test

The belief of your clients in their ability to succeed is defined as:

Self-efficacy.

According to goal setting theory research, the most effective type of health goals are:

Self-selected by the client. Research in goal setting theory has provided an understanding of the type of health goals that are most effective; individuals who develop self-selected goals are more likely to be successful than those who have goals determined from an outside source

Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint? a) Trapezius and rhomboids b) Trapezius and pectoralis minor c) Rhomboids and serratus anterior d) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

Which of the following assesses flexibility? a) Step test b) Push-up test c) Sit-and-reach test d) Curl-up test

Sit-and-reach test

An appropriate progression for balance training should transition from:

Sitting to standing

An injury to a ligament is considered a _______.

Sprain

Which resistance training program would be MOST appropriate for a 10-year-old child? a) Squats for 4 to 6 reps, bicep curls for 20 reps, tricep extensions for 16 reps b) Squats for 10 to 15 reps, push-ups for 10 to 12 reps, pull-ups for 8 to 10 reps c) Lunges for 2 reps each side, lateral shoulder raises for 20 to 22 reps, abdominal crunches for 30 reps d) Lunges for 2 reps each side, bicep curls 20 to 22 reps, abdominal oblique crunches for 20 reps

Squats for 10 to 15 reps, push-ups for 10 to 12 reps, pull-ups for 8 to 10 reps Children should perform resistance training at least 3 days per week using large muscle groups for 6 to 15 reps.

Which type of warm-up has been shown to decrease strength and endurance performance? a) Dynamic stretches b) Dynamic exercises c) ROM dynamic flexibility d) Static stretching

Static stretching

During an outdoor training session, your client begins to complain about fatigue and muscle cramping. You should: a) Suggest that the client take potassium supplements and drink as much water as possible. b) Ask the client to consume eight glasses of water before the next workout. c) Have the client consume a mineral drink and reduce exercise intensity. d) Stop the exercise, and have the client rest in a cool place

Stop the exercise, and have the client rest in a cool place. The exercises should be stopped immediately if the client complains of pain or the EP-C suspects that the client is in pain. The last thing the EP-C wants to do is induce or aggravate an injury

During an exercise session on the recumbent bicycle, your client has a squeezing and burning sensation down both arms. Your client passed the PAR-Q+ test, so you should: a) Stop the exercise, and refer the client to a physician. b) Take the client's pulse and blood pressure. c) Switch your client to a stair climber. d) Use a treadmill instead.

Stop the exercise, and refer the client to a physician

In describing the relationship between weight and energy, if a person eats more than he expends, the excess energy is ________, and body weight will ________.

Stored; increase

What does the 1 RM bench press assess? a) Strength of the muscles involved in shoulder adduction b) Strength of the muscles involved in horizontal abduction c) Strength of the muscles involved in arm extension: Strength of the muscles involved in arm flexion

Strength of the muscles involved in arm extension: Strength of the muscles involved in arm flexion The 1 RM bench press measures the strength of the muscles involved in arm extension. Research has shown that the single best weightlifting test for predicting total dynamic strength is the 1 RM bench press

Your client has an acute hamstring strain. You should AVOID:

Stretching the hamstring for up to 60 seconds per stretch.

Which type of stretch would be best for opening up the external rotators of the hips? a) Supine hip rotator stretch b) Supine knee to chest stretch c) Supine rotation stretch d) Side-lying quad stretch

Supine hip rotator stretch During the supine hip rotator stretch, focus on opening up the right knee until tension develops in the outer portion of the right thigh.

Which stretch increases range of motion in the low back? a) Kneeling hip flexor stretch b) Side-lying quad stretch c) Supine knee to chest stretch d) Supine hip rotator stretch

Supine knee to chest stretch

Which of the following recreational activities would be MOST appropriate for an apparently healthy pregnant woman? a) Cross-country skiing at 7,000 feet b) Swimming c) Scuba diving d) Cycling outdoors

Swimming

Which sport will most likely cause a shoulder impingement due to overtraining? a) Swimming b) Soccer c) Hockey d) Golf

Swimming Some of the predisposing factors for impingement syndrome include biomechanically unsound exercises and particular sports activities (e.g., swimming).

Muscles that assist in a movement are called:

Synergists

Scope of practice for the EP-C in the area of nutrition includes:

Teaching nutrition fundamentals and assisting clients with weight loss programs. The EP-C can teach the fundamentals of nutrition to clients and assist with weight loss programs, but not develop or provide clinically relevant meal plans.

Certain amino acids used to build protein are "essential" because:

The body is not capable of manufacturing them. Essential amino acids are used to build protein and must be obtained from food because the body isn't capable of manufacturing them

During resistance training, pain is a sign that:

The client needs to stop the exercise.

Which of the following is the mechanism of injury that leads to coronary artery disease? a) An aortic valve failing to close properly during systole b) Inflammation of the epicardium secondary to risk factors c) A blood clot that breaks off and blocks an artery d) The formation of plaque in the elastic and smooth lining of the arteries

The formation of plaque in the elastic and smooth lining of the arteries

The EP-C can safely work with a Type 2 diabetic patient provided that:

The individual has well-controlled blood glucose levels. The EP-C can safely work with well-controlled Type 2 diabetic patients. Type 2 diabetic patients who experience frequent swings in blood glucose level should be referred to a health care professional and encouraged to exercise under the supervision of more skilled personnel.

The amount of muscle force generated in plyometric training has greater potential because of: a) The preceding eccentric muscle action. b) The myotatic stretch of the Golgi tendon organs. c) The number of muscle fibers being recruited. d) The number of motor units involved in the movements.

The preceding eccentric muscle action. This type of muscle action in plyometric training provides a physiological advantage because the muscle force generated during the concentric muscle action is potentiated by the preceding eccentric muscle action

During a back squat, it is important to rest the barbell on: a) Whatever feels comfortable. b) The upper trapezius near T2. c) The low back, well below T4. d) The top of the shoulder near C7.

The upper trapezius near T2. During a back squat, it is important for the bar to rest below the cervical spine near T12, but not so low that you cannot keep the bar on the back without stressing the arms and neck

During a lat pull-down, the bar should be pulled to the _________.

Upper chest

The easiest way to tell if you are dehydrated is:

Urine color.

Which of the following alters the resistance throughout an exercise's range of motion in an attempt to match increases and decreases in the strength curve of a muscle? a) Eccentric training b) Elastic resistance bands c) Cable crossover machine d) Variable resistance equipment

Variable resistance equipment

The most toxic of all vitamins if taken in high amounts, causing cardiovascular and renal damage and high blood calcium, is: a) Vitamin B. b) Vitamin K. c) Vitamin D. d) Vitamin C.

Vitamin D. Vitamins B and C are water soluble, and vitamin K is involved in blood clotting. Vitamin D is the most toxic of the vitamins.

The best exercise progression for a sedentary client who wants to begin downhill skiing again would be: a) Jogging, running, aqua aerobics, and downhill skiing. b) Jogging, downhill skiing, running, and cross-country skiing. c) Stepping exercise, walking, downhill skiing, and skating. d) Walking, jogging, cross-country skiing, and downhill skiing.

Walking, jogging, cross-country skiing, and downhill skiing.

Functional isometric strength training is effective when performed near the sticking point or ________ of the exercise.

Weak point

When a client takes the PAR-Q+ test, she should be referred to her doctor if she answers: a) Yes to two or more questions. b) Yes to three or more questions. c) No to any questions. d) Yes to one or more questions.

Yes to one or more questions

Child athletes tend to be at greater risk of developing serious heat illness because:

Young athletes have fewer sweat glands and produce less sweat per gland. Because young athletes typically have fewer sweat glands and can produce less sweat per gland, child athletes are likely to be at even greater risk of developing serious heat illness

How many days are required to become acclimated to the heat? a) 10 b) 5 c) 3 d) 1

a) 10

Which repetition range would be best suited for a healthy older adult? a) 10 to 15 b) 20 to 25 c) 8 to 10 d) 4 to 6

a) 10 to 15

Target exercise intensity for clients with cardiovascular disease should fall ________ below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms. a) 10 to 15 bpm b) 15 to 20 bpm c) 20 to 30 bpm d) 5 to 10 bpm

a) 10 to 15 bpm

What would be a good heart rate range for an apparently healthy 20-year-old client using an estimate of the maximum heart rate method? a) 140 to 170 bpm b) 128 to 188 bpm c) 110 to 130 bpm d) 170 to 200 bpm

a) 140 to 170 bpm

The initial inflammatory stage of a sprain or strain is about: a) 2 to 3 days. b) 6 to 7 days. c) 24 hours. d) 4 to 5 days.

a) 2 to 3 days.

Approximately 95% of adults who successfully lose weight regain their weight within: a) 5 years. b) 10 years. c) 6 months. d) 1 year.

a) 5 years.

At what age are children physically and mentally ready for resistance training exercise? a) 7 to 8 b) 10 to 11 c) 4 to 5 d) 12 to 13

a) 7 to 8

A range of ________ of one-repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains. a) 75% to 90% b) 50% to 60% c) 60% to 75% d) 80% to 95%

a) 75% to 90%

What would be a good target heart rate range for a deconditioned 50-year-old male? a) 77 to 96 bpm b) 8 to 9 RPE on the RPE scale of 6–20 c) 13 to 15 RPE on the RPE scale of 6–20 d) 120 to 130 bpm

a) 77 to 96 bpm

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the mode of flexibility during warm-up and cool-down? a) All modes are effective and may be used during warm-up and/or cool-down. b) Static flexibility gains are best achieved during warm-up. c) PNF stretching is an ideal mode during warm-up or cool-down. d) Dynamic flexibility provides greater ROM gains during cool-down.

a) All modes are effective and may be used during warm-up and/or cool-down.

Which of the following phases in plyometric training must be as short as possible to maximize training adaptations? a) Amortization b) Eccentric c) Concentric d) Power

a) Amortization

Compared to nonathletes, the protein requirement for physically active people is: a) Approximately double. b) The same. c) Slightly less. d) About three times as much.

a) Approximately double.

Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort? a) Arteriovenous oxygen difference b) Systolic blood pressure c) Blood lactate d) Exercise heart rate

a) Arteriovenous oxygen difference

USDA dietary guidelines recommend reducing certain food components, increasing nutrients, building healthy eating patterns, and: a) Balancing calories to manage weight. b) Tracking daily eating habits. c) Understanding special populations. d) Ensuring safe food preparation

a) Balancing calories to manage weight.

Which of the following are considered whole grain? a) Brown rice b) White flour c) Degermed cornmeal d) White bread

a) Brown rice

Which type of resistance training program would be best for a client with diabetes? a) Circuit training at a low intensity b) Plyometric training c) Olympic lifting d) Strength training at 6 to 8 reps

a) Circuit training at a low intensity

To avoid underhydration during activity, make sure your clients: a) Consume fluids on a fixed time interval. b) Coordinate drinking fluids with heart rate increases. c) Consume electrolyte beverages. d) Rely on thirst cues.

a) Consume fluids on a fixed time interval.

Fluid intake guidelines suggest which of the following for optimal performance? a) Consuming fluids with 6% to 8% carbohydrate solution, as it is ideal for gastric emptying b) Consuming large volumes of fluids to quickly rehydrate c) Ensuring that urine color is dark yellow before rehydration d) Drinking enough fluids to match your sweat rates during exercise

a) Consuming fluids with 6% to 8% carbohydrate solution, as it is ideal for gastric emptying

Which of the following is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease? a) Dyspnea b) Tachycardia c) Valsalva maneuver d) Ischemia

a) Dyspnea

What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic aerobic exercise? a) Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles b) Decreased cardiac stress c) Improved VO2max d) Reduced work environment for the heart

a) Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles

The first step the EP-C should take with a client who is overtraining is: a) Express empathy through reflective listening. b) Reduce exercise intensity by 50%. c) Call the client's spouse. d) Call the client's doctor.

a) Express empathy through reflective listening.

Compounding issues of liability around supplementation, manufacturers rarely carry any insurance coverage, and: a) Fitness professional insurance doesn't usually offer product liability protection. b) Vitamin and supplementation products are not regulated. c) Ingredient lists on supplements often misrepresent quantities. d) Research on supplementation is rarely unbiased.

a) Fitness professional insurance doesn't usually offer product liability protection.

Which muscle or muscle group is responsible for hip extension? a) Gluteus maximus b) Iliopsoas c) Quadriceps d) Quadratus lumborum

a) Gluteus maximus

Which of the following BEST summarizes the small changes model of behavior change? a) Gradual and cumulative behavior change is achieved relative to baseline activity. b) The client's environment, feelings, and thoughts toward behavior change are also accounted for. c) Clients are given a specific concrete plan for change. d) The client's intention to make behavior change is increased significantly.

a) Gradual and cumulative behavior change is achieved relative to baseline activity.

To provide a safe environment during balance training, you should: a) Have spotters close by. b) Use a stability ball next to the wall. c) Start on a slightly unstable surface. d) Start on a stable surface.

a) Have spotters close by.

One of the roles of protein is maintaining fluid balance between the blood and surrounding tissues. During exercise this: a) Helps maintain blood volume and sweat rates. b) Helps avoid edema. c) Stabilizes production of stress hormones. d) Ensures heart rate increases are gradual.

a) Helps maintain blood volume and sweat rates.

What are the four phases of traditional linear periodization? a) Hypertrophy phase, strength/power phase, peak phase, and recovery phase b) Strength/power phase, hypertrophy phase, recovery phase, and peak phase c) Hypertrophy phase, recovery phase, strength/power phase, and peak phase d) Strength/power phase, hypertrophy phase, peak phase, and recovery phase

a) Hypertrophy phase, strength/power phase, peak phase, and recovery phase

Your client can leg press one set of 12 repetitions, with a 50 kg load. What weight and repetition range would be most appropriate for progression? a) Increase weight to 55 kg and decrease reps to 8 b) Keep weight the same and increase reps to 15 c) Increase weight to 60 kg and keep reps at 12 d) Increase weight to 65 kg and decrease reps to 6

a) Increase weight to 55 kg and decrease reps to 8

Which of the following BEST describes the physiological principle associated with the Valsalva maneuver? a) It increases intrathoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume. b) It increases intrathoracic pressure, which results in increased stroke volume. c) It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume. d) It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which results in increased stroke volume.

a) It increases intrathoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume.

Consuming too little energy consistently can have what negative impact on athletic performance? a) Lean body mass (muscle) is burned, which reduces metabolic rate. b) Blood pressure increases, which reduces maximum heart rate. c) Fat mass decreases, which reduces power output. d) Glycogen stores deplete, which lowers anaerobic threshold.

a) Lean body mass (muscle) is burned, which reduces metabolic rate.

Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency. a) Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult b) Shorten the lever arm; easier c) Shorten the lever arm; more difficult d) Lengthen the lever arm; easier

a) Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult

What muscles and shoulder joint action are required for a dumbbell front raise? a) Pectoralis major and flexion b) Coracobrachialis and abduction c) Short head of the biceps brachii and flexion d) Anterior deltoid and abduction

a) Pectoralis major and flexion

Which of the following types of training is guided by the principle that different training loads and power requirements recruit different types and numbers of motor units? a) Periodization b) Double progressive c) Pyramid d) Supersets

a) Periodization

When spotting the elbow extension exercise, where is the best place to spot? a) Place your hands on the client's elbows. b) Hold the client's torso upright. c) Place your hands on the client's shoulders. d) Assist by pressing the bar with the client.

a) Place your hands on the client's elbows.

Failure of the EP-C to consider nutrition when working with a client will MOST likely result in which of the following outcomes? a) Poor progression and training b) Diminishment of the client's commitment to training c) Negative effects on the EP-C–client relationship d) Questionable credibility as a fitness professional

a) Poor progression and training

For a beginning client who displays some minor errors in performing an exercise, what type of cueing is MOST appropriate? a) Provide encouragement for what was done well, and proceed to correct faulty movements. b) Tell the client to stop, and demonstrate the entire movement from the start position. c) Motivate the client to continue practicing and improving. d) Demonstrate the movement again once the client has completed the current exercise set.

a) Provide encouragement for what was done well, and proceed to correct faulty movements.

Which back exercise would be the most sport-specific for swimming? a) Pull-up b) Bent-over row c) Seated row d) Front raise

a) Pull-up

For a client to continue to see strength gains, he should increase which of the following in his resistance training program? a) Reps, sets, or load are all correct choices. b) Load c) Sets d) Reps

a) Reps, sets, or load are all correct choices.

Which of the following activities is contraindicated for pregnant women? a) Scuba diving b) Jogging c) Strength training in supine positions d) Vigorous-intensity walking

a) Scuba diving

A basketball player would benefit MOST from which of the following skill components of fitness? a) Speed, agility, and power b) Balance, coordination, and reaction time c) Speed, coordination, and agility d) Balance, strength, and endurance

a) Speed, agility, and power

Your client is performing a strength exercise that is new to him. He states that he feels some discomfort in his right shoulder after the first set. You should: a) Switch to another exercise that does not elicit any symptoms. b) Review the exercise, and correct his form and technique. c) Refer the client to a physician to have his shoulders examined. d) Ask the client to perform another set to smooth out movement patterns

a) Switch to another exercise that does not elicit any symptoms.

Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pull-down exercise? a) Teres major b) Anterior deltoid c) Pectoralis major d) Biceps brachii

a) Teres major

Which rotator cuff muscles externally rotate the shoulder joint? a) Teres minor and infraspinatus b) Supraspinatus and infraspinatus c) Subscapularis and teres minor d) Subscapularis and teres minor

a) Teres minor and infraspinatus

Your client has set a goal of running 3 times per week for 2 months to increase his fitness level and lose weight. What is the BEST way to measure this goal? a) Track the duration and intensity of each workout in a daily log. b) Track his daily eating habits and emotional relationship to exercise. c) Measure his VO2max weekly and track his miles for the week. d) Weigh him each week, and track his weekly caloric intake.

a) Track the duration and intensity of each workout in a daily log.

Which of the following is a local stabilizer of the core musculature? a) Transverse abdominis b) Erector spinae c) External obliques d) Rectus abdominis

a) Transverse abdominis

Which of the following statements provides corrective cues and then reinforces what the client did well after completing the first set of an unfamiliar strength exercise? a) "That was a good start. For the next set, keep your shoulders down and back." b) "Exhale when you push the weight up. You started out just fine, so slow down just a bit, and get your breathing in sync." c) "No. Don't do that on the next set. Keep your elbow closer to your body." d) "Keep breathing, and avoid holding your breath as the exercise gets harder. Start the next set when you're ready."

b) "Exhale when you push the weight up. You started out just fine, so slow down just a bit, and get your breathing in sync."

A highly trained male athlete, age 25, with a resting heart rate of 50, increases his VO2max by exercising at which of the following heart rate ranges? a) 145 to 155 bpm b) 173 to 188 bpm c) 166 to 185 bpm d) 165 to 175 bpm

b) 173 to 188 bpm

Exercise prescription parameters for clients with osteoporosis include which respective recommendations for frequency, intensity, and duration? a) 2 to 3 days, 40%–59% VO2max, for 20 minutes b) 3 to 5 days, 40%–59% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes c) 4 to 7 days, 65%–75% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes d) 3 to 5 days, 75%–85% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes

b) 3 to 5 days, 40%–59% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes

A 29-year-old male has a bench press weight ratio of 1.48. What rep range would you start him with? a) 10 to 15 b) 8 to 12 c) 15 to 20 d) 4 to 6

b) 8 to 12

Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint? a) ATP b) ATP and creatine phosphate c) Anaerobic glycolysis d) Aerobic oxidation

b) ATP and creatine phosphate

A client who is a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic index to guide his "refueling" after practices and matches. You should recommend: a) Oatmeal. b) Apples. c) Rye bread. d) Carrots.

b) Apples.

The MOST accurate fact regarding energy drinks is that they: a) Provide a safe limit of caffeine. b) Are typically high in sugar. c) Have shown some evidence as an ergogenic aid. d) Should be consumed in moderation.

b) Are typically high in sugar.

When using variable-resistance devices, what are the three types of strength curves? a) Strength, endurance, and power b) Ascending, descending, and bell-shaped c) Primary, secondary, and stabilizer d) Lever 1, lever 2, and lever 3

b) Ascending, descending, and bell-shaped

Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint? a) Gracilis b) Biceps femoris c) Semimembranosus d) Semitendinosus

b) Biceps femoris

Vegetarian athletes have a greater challenge maintaining adequate levels of: a) Vitamins A and D. b) Calcium and iron. c) Essential fatty acids. d) Potassium

b) Calcium and iron.

It is critical that the EP-C understand cardiovascular pathology and preventative efforts because: a) Cardiovascular pathology increases the risk of hypertension and dyslipidemia. b) Cardiovascular disease kills more people in the United States than any other disease. c) Individuals are more likely to be at risk for cardiovascular disease than obesity. d) Exercise plays a significant role in reversing the disease process.

b) Cardiovascular disease kills more people in the United States than any other disease.

To minimize any type of detraining effects, strength training should primarily consist of: a) Isokinetic training. b) Concentric training. c) Isometric training. d) Eccentric training.

b) Concentric training.

When exercising in the heat, which material works best to keep the body cool? a) Cotton b) CoolMax c) Polyester d) Nylon

b) CoolMax

Which of the following is a benefit of regular physical activity? a) Decreased anxiety and depression b) Decreased LDL-C levels c) Increased HDL-C levels d) Increased diastolic blood pressure

b) Decreased LDL-C levels

Abdominal bracing involves: a) A hollowing movement of the rectus abdominis and obliques. b) Engaging the stabilizers such as the transverse abdominis and multifidus. c) Drawing the abdomin into the spine using the rectus abdominis. d) Engaging the stabilization of the quadratus lumborum.

b) Engaging the stabilizers such as the transverse abdominis and multifidus.

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position? a) Rectus abdominis b) Erector spinae c) Hamstrings d) Hip flexors

b) Erector spinae

In which environmental condition is it MOST important to replace body fluids? a) Exercising in humidity b) Exercising in heat c) Exercising in both heat and cold d) Exercising in cold

b) Exercising in heat

Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform? a) P = mv b) F = ma c) Newton's first law d) Newton's third law

b) F = ma

Which muscles act as agonist muscles during a lateral cable leg lift? a) Sartorius b) Gluteus medius and minimus c) Adductor brevis d) Peroneals

b) Gluteus medius and minimus

Which of the following allows the muscles and tendons to elongate, allowing for greater range of motion in a joint? a) Mitochondria b) Golgi tendon organ c) Muscle spindle d) Myosin

b) Golgi tendon organ

Which of the following is a goal in a training cycle for periodization? a) Peaking b) Hypertrophy c) Supercompensation d) Transition

b) Hypertrophy

Which of the following is MOST important when working with special needs clients? a) Having expertise with prescription medication and dosage b) Implementing the appropriate levels of training intensity c) Testing muscle strength and motor control d) Performing postural and gait assessments

b) Implementing the appropriate levels of training intensity

A measure of cardiorespiratory fitness improvement includes: a) Increased heart rate at a given submaximal workload. b) Increased maximal oxygen consumption. c) Increased respiration rate at maximal workload. d) Increased VO2 at a given submaximal workload.

b) Increased maximal oxygen consumption.

During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demand for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with: a) Pulmonary ventilation. b) Lactate threshold. c) VO2max d) Aerobic capacity.

b) Lactate threshold.

Which muscles function to elevate the shoulder girdle? a) Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor b) Levator scapulae and upper trapezius c) Teres major and latissimus dorsi d) Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior

b) Levator scapulae and upper trapezius

Which of the following includes all components of a well-stated exercise goal? a) Increase range of motion in the lower back by performing 40 to 60 abdominal crunches daily for 6 weeks. b) Lose 1 to 2 lbs per week over the next 10 weeks through a program of diet, aerobic exercise, and strength training. c) Lose 15 lbs in 8 weeks through a program of low-intensity aerobic activity. d) Increase bicep measurement from 12 to 15 inches in 6 months through a strength training program of 1 set of 15 repetitions performed 2 times per week.

b) Lose 1 to 2 lbs per week over the next 10 weeks through a program of diet, aerobic exercise, and strength training

The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the: a) Serratus anterior and subscapularis. b) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus. c) Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major. d) Levator scapula and upper trapezius.

b) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus.

When a muscle is stretched beyond ballistically causing potential harm to the body, the _____ is stimulated. a) Golgi tendon organ b) Muscle spindle c) Action d) Myosin

b) Muscle spindle

There is some evidence to suggest that static stretching may contribute to a decrease in: a) Muscle extensibility. b) Muscular strength. c) Muscle elasticity. d) Muscular hypertrophy

b) Muscular strength.

To manipulate the intensity and increase the challenge of balance-related training, you should: a) Widen the base of support. b) Narrow the base of support. c) Shift the line of gravity through rotary motion. d) Shift the line of gravity outside the base of support.

b) Narrow the base of support.

Your client notices that he is able to perform several resistance exercises with more weight and a few more repetitions after the first 2 weeks of training. Which of the following BEST explains these training effects? a) Aerobic enzyme changes b) Neural adaptations c) Anaerobic enzyme changes d) Muscle capillary density

b) Neural adaptations

Which of the following is TRUE regarding obesity? a) Type 1 diabetes is often a comorbidity seen with obesity. b) Obesity is associated with several comorbidities. c) Obesity is strongly influenced by high caloric intake. d) Lack of structured physical activity is a key contributor to obesity.

b) Obesity is associated with several comorbidities.

The key to determining optimal rest period lengths is to: a) Perform a VO2 test. b) Observe the client. c) Perform the step test. d) Use a percentage of 1 RM.

b) Observe the client.

Social cognitive theory states that the most important factors in behavior change are self-efficacy and: a) Self-control. b) Outcome expectations. c) Reward system. d) Social support.

b) Outcome expectations.

Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl? a) Extensor carpi radialis b) Palmaris longus c) Extensor carpi ulnaris d) Pronator quadratus

b) Palmaris longus

Which muscles are prime movers for eversion of the ankle joint? a) Gastrocnemius and soleus b) Peroneus longus and brevis c) Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus d) Tibialis posterior and plantaris

b) Peroneus longus and brevis

Which of the following provides ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adaptations in the bone? a) Swimming b) Plyometric training c) Indoor rowing d) Indoor cycling

b) Plyometric training

Which type of exercise predominantly uses the anaerobic energy system? a) 800-yard dash b) Plyometrics c) 10-k run d) 5-k run

b) Plyometrics

What does a partial squat create when done prior to a vertical jump? a) Poststretch b) Prestretch c) Ballistic stretch d) PNF stretch

b) Prestretch

Anita wants to feel good for her 20th high school reunion in several months. Her goal is to lower her body fat to 18%. Her profile is as follows: Female Client Age: 38 Weight: 75 kg Height: 175 cm % Body fat: 30% Activity level: Sedentary Lean body mass: 50 kg You recommend that she: a) Increase her metabolism with aerobic activity. b) Reassess her target percentage fat goal, and reduce it by half. c) Boost basal metabolic activity by high-intensity strength training. d) Divide her target goal into equal weekly objectives.

b) Reassess her target percentage fat goal, and reduce it by half.

Inadequate carbohydrate intake is MOST associated with: a) Weight gain. b) Reduced exercise performance. c) Body composition changes. d) Low blood pressure.

b) Reduced exercise performance.

Your regular female client becomes dizzy after a weight training session. You cease training and her symptoms disappear after 30 minutes. Your best response would be to: a) Switch from strength training to circuit training. b) Refer her to her physician. c) Switch her to cardio training only. d) Make note and reduce the load for the next workout

b) Refer her to her physician.

Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Pectoralis minor and trapezius b) Rhomboids and middle trapezius c) Latissimus dorsi and subscapularis d) Posterior deltoid and triceps brachii

b) Rhomboids and middle trapezius

Research shows that one of the key factors in behavior change is: a) Outside guidance. b) Self-monitoring. c) Knowledge. d) Social support.

b) Self-monitoring.

When a client has a "winging" scapula at the end of the push phase of a push-up, the ________ muscle is probably weak. a) Supraspinatus b) Serratus anterior c) Subscapularis d) Sartorius

b) Serratus anterior

Which of the following exercises is MOST effective in increasing muscular power? a) Leg extension b) Snatch c) Depth jump d) Pull-up

b) Snatch

The skill-related components of physical fitness include: a) Speed, flexibility, coordination, balance, power, and strength. b) Speed, agility, coordination, balance, power, and reaction time. c) Agility, flexibility, coordination, balance, power, and endurance. d) Agility, speed, coordination, balance, reaction time, and endurance.

b) Speed, agility, coordination, balance, power, and reaction time.

An experienced client has good flexibility and would like to address functional flexibility during his postexercise stretching routine. He should incorporate: a) Active isolated stretching and ballistic stretching. b) Static stretching and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation. c) Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching. d) Myofascial release and active isolated stretching.

b) Static stretching and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

During initial client contact, the EP-C should provide a service introduction packet that contains a health history evaluation, medical clearance form (if needed), informed consent, and: a) PAR-Q+. b) The Client–Certified Exercise Physiologist Agreement. c) Workout template. d) Nutrition handouts

b) The Client–Certified Exercise Physiologist Agreement.

A great resource for providing feedback to clients on their exercise sessions is: a) Facebook. b) The Internet. c) A diary. d) Handouts from peer-reviewed journals.

b) The Internet.

The term "metabolic rate" is defined as: a) The rate at which food is converted into energy. b) The rate at which calories are burned. c) The rate at which fat is converted to energy. d) The rate at which muscles store energy.

b) The rate at which calories are burned.

The best way to address all types of learning styles when teaching a new resistance training exercise is to: a) Demonstrate the exercise. b) Use the tell-show-do method. c) Give visual cues. d) Give auditory and visual cues.

b) Use the tell-show-do method.

Which of the following statements about flexibility is the MOST accurate? a) Any buildup of scar tissue after injury often causes flexibility to plateau. b) With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching. c) Flexibility naturally increases with age because of a decrease in collagen levels. d) Males typically have more flexibility in the lower extremity than females.

b) With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching.

A female client who is 63 inches, weighs 68 kg and has a BMI of 26.6 walks on a treadmill at 3.5 mph at a 5% grade for 30 minutes. What is her total caloric expenditure for that exercise session? a) 200 kcal b) 286 kcal c) 186 kcal d) 150 kcal

c) 186 kcal The calculation for this problem is as follows: mph &multi; (26.8 miles · min) = miles · min (3.5 mph) &multi; (26.8 miles · min) = 93.8 miles · min 5% grade = 0.05 VO2(mL · kg · min) = (0.1 &multi; miles · min) + (1.8 &multi; miles · min &multi; grade) + 3.5 VO2 (mL · kg · min) = (0.1 &multi; 93.8) + (1.8 &multi; 93.8 &multi; 0.05) + 3.5 VO2 (mL · kg · min) = 9.38 + 8.44 + 3.5 VO2 = 21.32 mL · kg · min (mL · kg · min) &multi; 1,000 ÷ kg VO2 L · min) (21.32 &multi; 1,000) ÷ 58 = 1.24 L · min L · min &multi; 5 = kcal · min 1.24 &multi; 5 = 6.2 kcal · min 6.2 kcal · min &multi; 30 min = 186 kcal

Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a minimum of ________ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week. a) 480 b) 120 c) 240 d) 360

c) 240

It has been estimated that a total of ________ liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude. a) 5 to 6 b) 1 to 2 c) 3 to 4 d) 7 to 8

c) 3 to 4

The goal for the 1 RM bench press is to find the 1 RM in ________ maximal efforts. a) 1 to 2 b) 6 to 8 c) 3 to 5 d) 2 to 4

c) 3 to 5

How many sets per exercise should a client perform for advanced resistance training benefits? a) 1 to 2 b) 6 to 8 c) 3 to 6 d) 2 to 3

c) 3 to 6

Per the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, what percentage of U.S. adults meet the ACSM recommended guidelines for regular moderate-intensity activity? a) 50% b) 20% c) 35% d) 10%

c) 35%

How long should heavy eccentric training be performed? a) 6- to 8-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year b) 1- to 2-week training cycles, 4 to 6 times per year c) 4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year d) 2- to 3-week training cycles, 2 to 4 times per year

c) 4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year

The recommended calorie/energy distribution for athletes and physically active adults includes which of the following? a) Less that 10% of total calories from protein b) 20% to 30% of total calories from carbohydrates c) 45% to 65% of total calories from carbohydrates d) No more than 10% of total calories from fat

c) 45% to 65% of total calories from carbohydrates

What is the ideal frequency and duration of exercise for a child age 10? a) 30 minutes per day, 5 to 7 days per week b) 20 minutes per day, 7 days per week c) 60 minutes per day, at least 3 days per week d) 10 to 20 minutes per day, 2 to 4 days per week

c) 60 minutes per day, at least 3 days per week

Approximately what percentage of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise? a) 35% to 40% b) 55% to 60% c) 85% to 90% d) 15% to 20%

c) 85% to 90%

To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side. a) Extension b) Adduction c) Abduction d) External rotation

c) Abduction

Minimizing the length of the ________ phase maximizes the use of elastic energy in plyometric training. a) Isometric b) Concentric c) Amortization d) Eccentric

c) Amortization

All of the following are considered nutrients EXCEPT: a) Water. b) Vitamins. c) Antioxidants. d) Minerals.

c) Antioxidants.

Measuring a client's exercise intensity using the Karvonen formula would be best for which client? a) Hypertensive client b) Obese male c) Athlete d) Pregnant woman

c) Athlete

The theory of planned behavior suggests that successful behavior change is dependent on the client's subjective norms, perceived control, and: a) Self-efficacy. b) Social network. c) Attitude. d) Past success at behavior change.

c) Attitude.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by limited gas exchange in the lungs? a) Cardiovascular disease b) Transient ischemic attack c) Chronic restrictive pulmonary disease d) Peripheral vascular disease

c) Chronic restrictive pulmonary disease

Returning a tennis serve well is due to a high degree of: a) Power. b) Reaction time. c) Coordination. d) Balance.

c) Coordination.

The BEST cardiovascular training routine for someone with diabetes is: a) 2 to 3 times per week for 30 to 60 minutes. b) 3 to 5 times per week for 10 to 20 minutes. c) Daily for 20 to 60 minutes. d) 10 minutes most days of the week.

c) Daily for 20 to 60 minutes.

The highest force produced in a resistance training exercise is during which type of contraction? a) Isometric b) Isotonic c) Eccentric d) Concentric

c) Eccentric

Respectively, lateral flexion and axial rotation are produced by which of the following muscles during unilateral contraction? a) Rectus abdominis; middle trapezius b) Piriformis; semispinalis c) Erector spinae; multifidus d) Iliopsoas; erector spinae

c) Erector spinae; multifidus

Lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack's pins is known as: a) Eccentric training. b) Partial repetition. c) Functional isometrics. d) Forced negatives

c) Functional isometrics.

Many Certified Exercise Physiologists use ________ as it gives clients concrete plans for change. a) SMART Theory b) Social Cognitive Theory c) Goal Setting Theory d) Small Changes Model

c) Goal Setting Theory

Which sport is performed primarily in the ATP (anaerobic) pathway? a) Tennis b) 400-meter dash c) Golf d) Swimming

c) Golf

What can be expected of older adults who begin an exercise program later in life? a) No improvement in motor performance b) Limited ROM in the hip and shoulder joint c) Increase in fat-free mass d) Initial decline in strength

c) Increase in fat-free mass

Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of: a) Increase in myofibrils. b) Increased fatty oxidation. c) Increased capillary density. d) Increased ATP from the KREB cycle.

c) Increased capillary density.

Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine? a) Quadratus lumborum and tensor fascia latae b) Rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis c) Internal and external obliques d) Erector spinae and multifidus

c) Internal and external obliques

Which of the following BEST determines your client's exercise preferences? a) Regularly monitor your client's satisfaction and enjoyment of the sessions. b) Write an exercise contract before your client begins the program. c) Interview the client before beginning the program. d) Have the client attempt a different activity at each session for one month, and ask the client to rate which exercise was preferred.

c) Interview the client before beginning the program.

You have a 4-foot, 8-inch tall female client who is obese and would like to build lower body strength. Which exercise variation is best suited for her? a) Leg curl machine b) Hip extension machine c) Kettlebell squat d) Leg extension machine

c) Kettlebell squat

During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, where should the upper body be? a) Draped over the knee b) Leaning away from the front knee c) Lifted tall d) In a back bend

c) Lifted tall

The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the: a) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor. b) Upper trapezius and rhomboids. c) Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor. d) Rhomboids and serratus anterior.

c) Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor.

Which of the following is a benefit of using machine versus free-weight exercises? a) Machines are designed to fit the proportions of all individuals. b) Machines readily allow for power training. c) Machines are more practical when training certain populations. d) Machines better accommodate linear resistance and its range of motion.

c) Machines are more practical when training certain populations.

As a source of energy, fat provides: a) The same energy as a gram of carbohydrate. b) The same energy as a gram of protein. c) More than twice the energy of a gram of carbohydrate. d) Slightly less energy than a gram of alcohol.

c) More than twice the energy of a gram of carbohydrate.

The PRIMARY benefit of implementing a periodized program is that it: a) Improves joint integrity. b) Increases muscular power. c) Moves past training plateaus. d) Decreases risk of injury.

c) Moves past training plateaus

Recommended exercises that train the core musculature are: a) Abdominal curl-ups and back extensions. b) Planks and side planks. c) Multidirectional exercises that involve rotational and diagonal patterns. d) Abdominal crunches and planks.

c) Multidirectional exercises that involve rotational and diagonal patterns.

Tai chi is considered which type of exercise? a) Strength b) Flexibility c) Neuromotor d) Power

c) Neuromotor

An informal way to continually reevaluate the health status of clients would be: a) Direct questions. b) Written assessments. c) Observation. d) Physical assessments.

c) Observation.

During the supine rotational stretch, it is important to have the abdomen: a) Facing the knees. b) Facing the floor. c) Oriented toward the ceiling. d) Facing the hand.

c) Oriented toward the ceiling.

What principle describes the need to stress the body beyond daily activity to create fitness gains? a) Hypertrophy b) Adaptation c) Overload d) Specificity

c) Overload

A proper cool-down, allowing for a gradual return toward baseline, will help the client avoid which of the following? a) Blood pooling in the heart b) Postexercise hypertension c) Postexercise hypotension d) Blood pooling in the arms

c) Postexercise hypotension

Which of the following is a global stabilizer of the core musculature? a) Lower trapezius b) Multifidus c) Quadratus lumorum d) Internal obliques

c) Quadratus lumorum

Which of the following exercise intensities would be BEST for a pregnant woman? a) 50% to 60% of HRR b) 60% to 70% of HRR c) RPE of 12 to 14 on the RPE scale of 6–20 d) 60% to 75% of VO2max

c) RPE of 12 to 14 on the RPE scale of 6–20

Which of the following is an acute response to exercise? a) Reduced resting heart rate b) Reduced resting blood pressure c) Reduced blood flow to the gut d) Reduced body fat

c) Reduced blood flow to the gut

Which of the following routines is an example of specificity training for a runner? a) Resistance training for the lower body, 3 times per week, using 4 to 8 reps b) Resistance training for the upper body, 3 times per week, using 8 to 12 reps c) Resistance training for the entire body, 3 times per week, using 15 to 20 reps d) Resistance training for the entire body, most days of the week, using 6 to 8 reps

c) Resistance training for the entire body, 3 times per week, using 15 to 20 reps

Deborah recently went through menopause and is finding that maintaining her weight isn't as easy as it used to be and she would like to lose weight. Her husband is not supportive of exercise, and Deborah is not motivated without his support. What is the best exercise self-regulation strategy for helping Deborah begin a successful exercise program? a) Deborah should be motivated through using tape measurements and scale measurements at least once a week so she can see she is on target to lose weight. b) Encourage Deborah to set a goal of losing 2 lbs a week so she has something measurable to attain each and every week. c) Revisit Deborah's motivations for exercise, and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good. d) Consider encouraging Deborah to have a serious conversation with her husband about how important staying active is to her and how she needs his support in order to be successful.

c) Revisit Deborah's motivations for exercise, and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good.

Your client is performing a dumbbell lunge with the weight in her right hand and right leg forward. You notice that during the concentric phase, she drops her pelvis on the contralateral side. Which muscle is MOST likely weak? a) Right erector spinae b) Left gluteus medius c) Right gluteus medius d) Left biceps femoris

c) Right gluteus medius

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease? a) HDL = 70 b) BMI of 27 c) Sedentary lifestyle d) Woman, age 45

c) Sedentary lifestyle

Which muscle is responsible for protraction of the scapula? a) Pectoralis major b) Teres minor c) Serratus anterior d) Rhomboids

c) Serratus anterior

Which of the following muscles may be weak if a client has a "winging" scapula during a push-up? a) Pectoralis minor b) Pectoralis major c) Serratus anterior d) Rhomboids

c) Serratus anterior

A client who has suffered from whiplash and has been cleared for exercise would most likely benefit from which training routine? a) Stretching the teres minor, erector spinae, and levator scapulae, and strengthening the latissimus dorsi, middle trapezius, and sternocleidomastoid b) Stretching the pectoralis major, spinalis muscles, and upper trapezius, and strengthening the middle deltoids, middle trapezius, and shoulder adductors c) Stretching the levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoids, and strengthening the rhomboids, neck extensors, upper trapezius, and middle trapezius d) Stretching the pectoralis minor and middle trapezius, and strengthening the deltoids, lower trapezius, and pectoralis major

c) Stretching the levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoids, and strengthening the rhomboids, neck extensors, upper trapezius, and middle trapezius After ruling out fracture, dislocation, instability, and disc herniation, treatment of whiplash usually includes passive modalities, stretches, and strengthening exercises for the neck

Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint? a) Teres minor b) Infraspinatus c) Subscapularis d) Supraspinatus

c) Subscapularis

Why are great volumes of sweat produced in hot, humid climates? a) Sweat glands close. b) Sweat evaporates. c) Sweat becomes ineffective. d) Sweat is too salty.

c) Sweat becomes ineffective.

Which of the following terms refers to muscle contraction force created by the sliding-filament theory? a) Torque b) Work c) Tension d) Power

c) Tension

Which of the following BEST describes the effect of length changes on the force-generating capacity of shortened muscles? a) They will have diminished force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but greater force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths. b) The shortened muscles will produce the same amount of force as they did at normal length, only at a faster rate of movement. c) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length. d) The lengthened muscles generally have a higher force production throughout the full range of motion, as muscles are strongest when they are longest.

c) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length.

A 40-year-old homemaker has come to you to lose weight and reduce back pain. You realize she uses her pain to get attention from her family. Which statement would best motivate her to begin a strengthening program? a) "Strength training will make you feel young again, and you won't need the attention you are craving from your family." b) "I will mix strength training and running in your program to take your mind off your worries and stress." c) "Low back pain is hard to correct; however, if you work hard you will overcome this issue, and you can focus on your family." d) "Starting a strengthening program will reduce your back pain and improve your quality of life, enabling you to spend more positive time with your family."

d) "Starting a strengthening program will reduce your back pain and improve your quality of life, enabling you to spend more positive time with your family."

USDA dietary guidelines recommend that daily sodium intake for diabetics, hypertensives, African Americans, individuals with chronic kidney disease, or persons age 51 and older should be no more than: a) 2,500 mg. b) 3,000 mg. c) 1,000 mg. d) 1,500 mg.

d) 1,500 mg.

Which heart rate range would be ideal for a 65-year-old male on high blood pressure medication who needs to lose 30 lbs and has been cleared for exercise? a) 69 to 85 bpm b) 101 to 116 bpm c) 8 to 10 RPE on the RPE scale of 6 to 20 d) 12 to 13 RPE on the RPE scale of 6 to 20

d) 12 to 13 RPE on the RPE scale of 6 to 20

What would be a good target heart rate range for a moderately trained female, age 42, with a resting heart rate of 60? a) 125 to 142 bpm b) 160 to 170 bpm c) 120 to 130 bpm d) 143 to 154 bpm

d) 143 to 154 bpm

Reduced athletic performance is associated with body water weight loss of ________ during activity. a) 1% b) 5% c) Any amount d) 2%

d) 2%

The minimum number of minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity needed 5 days each week is: a) 30 minutes. b) 10 minutes. c) 15 minutes. d) 20 minutes.

d) 20 minutes.

Your 220-pound client should consume how many grams of carbohydrates each day? a) 120 to 200 grams b) 22 to 36 grams c) 220 grams d) 60 to 100 grams

d) 60 to 100 grams

A traditional or classic periodized training program consists of: a) A varying increase in the intensity that alternates between higher volumes and lower volumes during training weeks. b) A straight-line increase in the intensity that has a 2-week active rest period after each mesocycle. c) A varying increase in the intensity that alternates weeks between higher volumes and lower volumes. d) A straight-line increase in the intensity that trades off between intensity and volume.

d) A straight-line increase in the intensity that trades off between intensity and volume.

Which of the following is the BEST rationale for strengthening the core musculature? a) A strong core increases muscular endurance of the back and abdominal musculature. b) A strong core increases intra-abdominal pressure and thus lumbopelvic stability. c) A strong core enables the body to better absorb forces during athletic movements. d) A strong core facilitates efficient energy transfer between the upper and lower extremities.

d) A strong core facilitates efficient energy transfer between the upper and lower extremities.

Resistance training exercise prescription requires continual planning, assessing, and changing. Sound decisions must factor in the needs of the sport or activity, individual training response, and: a) Client motivation. b) Body composition. c) Exercise history. d) Available testing data.

d) Available testing data.

Which type of activity would benefit from having ballistic stretching in the warm-up? a) Swimming b) Cycling c) Running d) Basketball

d) Basketball

If you take special care to end the initial client meeting with personalization and hospitality, clients will MOST likely: a) Question your ability to help them meet their goals. b) Be concerned that you may not have their best interests in mind. c) Have doubts they are spending their money wisely. d) Be motivated and inspired to return for the next visit.

d) Be motivated and inspired to return for the next visit.

Regular cardiorespiratory, resistance, flexibility, and neuromotor exercise training is ________ for most adults. a) Appropriately safe b) Beneficial c) Highly recommended d) Considered essential

d) Considered essential

What is MOST critical for a client as it relates to safety and effectiveness during a training session? a) Spotting b) Client education c) Nueromotor training d) Cueing

d) Cueing

Joseph has reached his strength and body composition goals by strength training 3 days per week for an hour each day over the last few months. He now wants to focus on maintaining his strength while on summer vacation for a month. Which program would be MOST appropriate? a) Decrease weight load and total sets, and utilize primarily free weight exercises b) Use a 3-day split routine using a set and repetition range of 3 &multi; 4–6 c) Decrease the time spent strength training to 30 minutes, and train 5 days per week d) Decrease exercise to 2 days per week, training the total body for at least 1 set

d) Decrease exercise to 2 days per week, training the total body for at least 1 set

For most clients, a positive effect of consistent energy deficits is: a) Reduced muscle mass. b) Increased carbohydrate stores. c) Lower metabolic rate. d) Decreased body weight.

d) Decreased body weight.

Types of equipment used for dynamic constant external resistance include: a) Machines with cams. b) Cable crossover machines. c) Unstable platform devices. d) Dumbbells and kettlebells

d) Dumbbells and kettlebells

The best type of stretch to include in a warm-up for walking or cycling is: a) Static. b) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation. c) Ballistic. d) Dynamic.

d) Dynamic.

Which of the following is the MOST critical to overall low back health? a) Flexible hamstrings and hip flexors b) Flexibility in trunk flexion c) Strong abdominals d) Endurance of the core musculature

d) Endurance of the core musculature

Energy nutrients do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Maintain core body temperature at 98.6° F. b) Transfer electrical energy between nerve cells. c) Contract muscles to perform work. d) Provide lubrication for joint capsules

d) Provide lubrication for joint capsules

For athletes seeking to optimize performance, diets that are severely energy-deficient should not be recommended because: a) Compliance is too difficult long term. b) Lean body mass is compromised. c) This will lead to significant weight loss. d) Energy requirements cannot be met to sustain power output.

d) Energy requirements cannot be met to sustain power output.

When a client keeps a daily workout log, this helps with ______. a) Social barriers b) Fear of injury c) Environmental barriers d) Exercise adherence

d) Exercise adherence

Overcoming a shoulder impingement can be done by strengthening and improving the function of the ________, and stretching the ________. a) Posterior deltoids; supraspinatus b) Medial deltoid; subscapularis c) Internal shoulder rotators; external shoulder rotators d) External shoulder rotators; internal shoulder rotators

d) External shoulder rotators; internal shoulder rotators

Which of the following is a fallacy regarding dietary fiber? a) Fiber can lower fat and cholesterol absorption. b) Fiber assists with control of blood sugar. c) Fiber may reduce risk of heart disease. d) Fiber is found mainly in simple carbohydrates.

d) Fiber is found mainly in simple carbohydrates.

A new, sedentary client has come to you and wants to lose weight. What would be the ideal type of periodization? a) Linear b) American-style c) Reverse linear d) Flexible nonlinear

d) Flexible nonlinear

Which of the following advanced resistance training techniques should be used only 1 to 2 times per year for 4- to 6-week training cycles? a) Supersets b) Breakdown sets c) Plyometrics d) Forced negatives

d) Forced negatives

When a client flexes the hips and knees from a standing position to a parallel squat, which muscles perform the eccentric action? a) Hamstrings and erector spinae b) Hamstrings and gracilis c) Gluteus minimus and sartorius d) Gluteus maximus and quadriceps

d) Gluteus maximus and quadriceps

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint? a) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius b) Piriformis and gluteus maximus c) Gluteus medius and hamstrings d) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings

d) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings

The products that make up cardiac output are: a) Mean arterial pressure and heart rate. b) Stroke volume and VO2max. c) VO2max and heart rate. d) Heart rate and stroke volume.

d) Heart rate and stroke volume.

Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following? a) Assistance in establishing neutral spine b) Lengthened gastrocnemius and soleus c) Minimized patellofemoral joint forces d) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps

d) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps

Which of the following is an example of the type of question that the EP-C must ask continuously regarding client goal development for a resistance training program? a) Is the goal determined by the client? b) Is the goal something I believe is achievable for the client? c) Am I experienced enough in helping clients reach goals of this type? d) Is it vital to the program's success to achieve a particular training goal?

d) Is it vital to the program's success to achieve a particular training goal?

Individuals with arthritis should ideally stretch when: a) They are not taking any anti-inflammatory medications. b) They are able to complete their regular physical activity first. c) They have the greatest range of hip motion. d) Joint pain is minimal.

d) Joint pain is minimal.

When stepping up and down on a device for cardiovascular training, you should: a) Lean forward, and try to stay on the balls of the feet. b) Use the arm rests as much as possible. c) Look down at your feet the entire time. d) Keep your body upright and push through the heels.

d) Keep your body upright and push through the heels

Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint? a) Short head of the biceps brachii b) Pectoralis minor c) Brachialis d) Long head of the biceps brachii

d) Long head of the biceps brachii

The MOST important principle regarding core training is to: a) Emphasize strength of the anterior chain musculature. b) Tighten the involved muscles during dynamic movements. c) Emphasize strength of the posterior chain musculature. d) Maintain cocontraction of the deep stabilizers.

d) Maintain cocontraction of the deep stabilizers.

Which of the following is the MOST important safety consideration when working with children? a) Minimize jumping and bounding drills. b) Maintain a very structured warm-up, conditioning, and cool-down. c) Limit strength to five-repetition maximum for strength training. d) Maintain proper hydration to avoid heat injuries.

d) Maintain proper hydration to avoid heat injuries.

Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significantly reduce the overload and volume, and increase the amount of rest. a) Minor soreness b) Joint tightness c) Transient hypertrophy d) Moderate soreness

d) Moderate soreness

Your client is taking a multivitamin supplement, and she has no specific nutrient deficiencies. You recommend that the supplement provide: a) 200% of the recommended daily allowance for iron. b) At least 50% of recommended daily allowances. c) Extra calcium. d) No more than 100% of recommended daily allowances.

d) No more than 100% of recommended daily allowances.

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome? a) Over-developed lower trapezius b) Over-developed posterior deltoid c) Over-developed middle trapezius d) Over-developed anterior deltoid

d) Over-developed anterior deltoid

The feeling of chronic muscular fatigue is a sign of: a) Increased oxygen uptake. b) Lactic acid accumulation. c) Increased VO2. d) Overuse.

d) Overuse.

Individuals with hyperkyphosis would benefit MOST from which stretch? a) Quadratus lumborum stretch b) Iliopsoas stretch c) Erector spinae stretch d) Pectoralis major stretch

d) Pectoralis major stretch

What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint? a) Prevent scapular winging b) Promote shoulder impingement during motion c) Promote scapular stability during arm movements d) Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion

d) Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion

Which exercise will require a strong core component? a) Standing barbell bicep curl with feet close together b) Bench press from the floor c) Machine hamstring curl d) Push-up on a stability ball with feet close together

d) Push-up on a stability ball with feet close together

Which muscles are prime movers for lateral flexion of the lumbar spine? a) Iliocostalis, longissimus, and interspinalis b) Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, and external obliques c) Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and tensor fascia latae d) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques

d) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques

You are working with an older adult who is on high blood pressure medication. What is the BEST way to monitor his cardiovascular intensity? a) Karvonen formula b) Talk test c) Age-predicted maximum heart rate d) RPE scale of 0 to 10

d) RPE scale of 0 to 10

Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches? a) Rotate her trunk toward the left during concentric motion b) Maintain pure flexion motion in the sagittal plane throughout the motion c) Have her lay on her left side, and flex her trunk to the right, maintaining pure frontal plane motion d) Rotate her trunk toward the right during concentric motion

d) Rotate her trunk toward the right during concentric motion

Which type of movement creates the MOST harmful stresses to the low back? a) Extension b) Abduction c) Adduction d) Rotation

d) Rotation

Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises? a) Seated calf raises emphasize the gastrocnemius muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the soleus muscle. b) The seated calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for power in the lower leg, while the standing calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for endurance. c) The seated calf raise targets the soleus, while the standing calf raise targets the gastrocnemius and invertors. d) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle.

d) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle.

Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging? a) Latissimus dorsi b) Middle trapezius c) Teres major d) Serratus anterior

d) Serratus anterior

Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a three-site skinfold test? a) Chest b) Abdomen c) Suprailiac d) Thigh

d) Thigh

Thoughts can shape both feelings and behaviors. Positive self-talk can promote confidence to make positive lifestyle change, while negative thoughts reduce the confidence needed to make change. These are called: a) Reality models. b) Mind power aids. c) Motivators. d) Thought traps

d) Thought traps

The upper trapezius causes ________ of the scapula and the lower trapezius causes ________ of the scapula. a) Downward rotation; upward rotation b) Upward rotation; protraction c) Downward rotation ; retraction d) Upward rotation; upward rotation

d) Upward rotation; upward rotation

The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that individuals over age 50 consume foods fortified with which vitamin? a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin B12

d) Vitamin B12