VET TECH PREP: Dentistry

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D. 6 Explanation The correct answer is 6. The 3-rooted permanent teeth in the maxilla of a dog are P4, M1, and M2 (so 3 on each side of the upper jaw). There are no 3-rooted permanent mandibular teeth in the dog.

How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a dog? A. 8 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

A. Zero Explanation Goats have no upper front teeth (incisors); their upper front mouth is one big gumline. In the back on their mouth they do have both upper and lower teeth. Goats are born with teeth which are replaced by permanent teeth as they age. The dental formula for permanent teeth in the goat is: 2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32

How many upper incisors does a goat have? A. Zero B. Four C. Two D. One E. Six

A. Zero Explanation Goats have no upper front teeth (incisors); their upper front mouth is one big gumline. In the back on their mouth they do have both upper and lower teeth. Goats are born with teeth which are replaced by permanent teeth as they age. The dental formula for permanent teeth in the goat is: 2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32

How many upper incisors does a goat have? A. Zero B. Six C. Two D. One E. Four

D. Apical Explanation The following terms are used in veterinary dentistry to describe different positions in the mouth and aspects of the tooth: Rostral - Any structure closer to the front of the head relative to another structure Caudal - Any structure closer to the back of the head relative to another structure Buccal - The tooth surface that faces the cheek Labial- The tooth surface that faces the lips Vestibular- surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal (cheek) and labial (lip) surfaces Facial - The surface of the tooth visible from the front (same as the vestibular surface but applies mainly to the incisor teeth) Lingual - The surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue Palatal - The surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate Mesial - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch Distal - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch (the opposite side of mesial) Apical - The portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure Coronal - The portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure

Which of the following terms describes the something that is closer to the root of a tooth relative to another structure? A. Buccal B. Distal C. Coronal D. Apical E. Caudal

D. Maxillary Sinus Explanation The 4th upper premolars (carnassial teeth) communicate directly with the maxillary sinus. In the case of a carnassial tooth that becomes infected, an abscess builds up around the affected root just under the skin below and in front of the eye.

The 4th upper premolars are connected with which structure in dogs? A. Pharynx B. Nasal cavity C. Frontal Sinus D. Maxillary Sinus

A. Sternal recumbency Explanation Sternal recumbency is best for the maxilla (upper jaws). Dorsal recumbency is easiest for the anterior mandible. Lateral is best for the premolars and molars of the mandible.

A dog is having his teeth cleaned and has a discolored upper right third premolar. The doctor would like you to take an x-ray of this tooth. Which patient position would make the radiograph easiest to take? A. Sternal recumbency B. Dorsal recumbency C. Right lateral recumbency D. Left lateral recumbency

D. Plaque Explanation A plaque is an accumulation of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria. Bacterial toxins damage the gingiva and oral mucosa. Dental calculus or tartar is mineralized plaque and can lead to persistent inflammation. Dental caries, also known as cavities or decay, are incidents of demineralization of the teeth.

Accumulations of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria along the teeth are known as which of the following? A. Caries B. Tartar C. Calculus D. Plaque

B. Attrition Explanation Attrition is the wearing of teeth by tooth-on-tooth contact during mastication. Hypertrophy is a general term that means enlargement or overgrowth.

As teeth make contact and grind together they gradually become worn. What is this process known as? A. Dentition B. Attrition C. Hypertrophy D. Thinning

E. Gingiva Explanation Periodontal disease is one of the most common conditions seen. The periodontum includes the gingiva, the alveolar bone, the periodontal ligament and cementum of the tooth. Gingivitis is usually the first sign of periodontal disease.

Periodontal disease can refer to processes affecting which of the following? A. Enamel B. Tongue C. Dentin D. Hard palate E. Gingiva

C. Probe Explanation The probe is used to check pocket depth. The scaler is used to remove plaque and calculus from the teeth. In dentistry, the curet is a spoon-shaped instrument used for removing necrotic cementum and calculus from the teeth and can be used supragingival and subgingival. The elevator is used to wear down the periodontal ligament to aid in extracting teeth from the oral cavity.

Periodontal pockets are measured by which dental instrument? A. Curet B. Scaler C. Probe D. Elevator

C. The largest shearing tooth of each dental arcade Explanation "Carnassial" literally means tearing of flesh but is used in veterinary dentistry to describe the largest shearing tooth of the mandible and maxilla in carnivores. This is the tooth that does the most work during mastication. In dogs and cats, the carnassial teeth are the maxillary fourth premolar and the mandibular first molar.

What is the carnassial tooth? A. This is another term for a supernumerary tooth B. This is another term for a missing tooth C. The largest shearing tooth of each dental arcade D. The tooth with the deepest root in each dental arcade E. This is another name for the canine tooth

C. Upper: 3-1-4-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 Explanation The upper quadrant of the horse's dental arcade has 3 incisors, 1 canine (primarily male horses), 4 premolars (including "wolf" tooth) and 3 molars; the lower arcade has 3 incisions, 1 canine, 3 premolars and 3 molars. Not all horses have the 1st upper premolar, the so-called wolf tooth. Generally, females do not have canine teeth.

What is the dental formula for the adult horse (i.e. incisor-canine-premolar-molar)? A. Upper: 4-1-2-3 Lower: 4-1-2-3 B. Upper: 3-1-2-3 Lower: 3-1-2-3 C. Upper: 3-1-4-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 D. Upper: 4-1-3-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3

A. Dexmedetomidine Explanation Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor) is an alpha 2 agonist of which the major side effect is bradycardia. Patients with 1st degree AV block are often already bradycardic, and the AV block could be made worse by giving an alpha 2 agonist. While diazepam, butorphanol, and acepromazine all cause different degrees of sedation, they do not cause significant changes in heart rate or contractility. Acepromazine causes vasodilation, which can lead to hypotension, but it is anti-arrhythmic and can actually help stabilize the heart.

A 10 year old male neutered West Highland White Terrier with a history of 1st degree AV block is admitted to the clinic for a routine dentistry. All of his pre-anesthetic lab work has come back normal. Which of the following anesthetic drugs would be most contraindicated in this case? A. Dexmedetomidine B. Acepromazine C. Butorphanol D. Diazepam

C. 2.18 mls Explanation You must first convert pounds to kilograms dividing 12 by 2.2 = 5.45 kg. 5.45 kg multiplied by 4 mg/kg = 21.8 mg. 21.8 mg divided by 10 mg/ml = 2.18 mls. In a real clinical setting, you would likely round the number down and draw up 2 mL.

A 12 pound DSH is presented to your hospital for a dental cleaning. The attending veterinarian has asked you to induce the cat with Propofol at a dosage of 4 mg/kg IV. The concentration of Propofol is 10 mg/ml. How many milliliters will you draw up in the syringe? A. 0.22 mls B. 21.8 mls C. 2.18 mls D. 4.8 mls

B. 375 mg Explanation After converting the body weight to kilograms the dose needs to be multiplied by the body weight. 60 lb / (2.2 lb/kg) = 27 kg (Notice the pounds cancel out) 27 kg x 14= 378 mg Many medications are available in different concentrations to accommodate different sized patients. This is particularly the case with oral medications so that owners don't have to worry about trying to halve or quarter medications.

A 60-lb patient is to go home on Clavamox after his dental cleaning. The dose is 14 mg/kg. What size tablet should the patient be sent home with? A.125 mg B. 375 mg C. 62.5 mg D. 250 mg

B. Gingival hyperplasia Explanation Gingival hyperplasia is overgrowth of the gum tissue characterized by non painful swellings of the gingiva. In some cases, a biopsy may be required to rule out neoplasia. The proliferative tissue can be trimmed away during a dental but dogs with this condition are prone to recurrence. The cause is often unknown, but it may be hereditary or caused by medications such as cyclosporine, phenytoin, or amlodipine.

A boxer presents with overgrowth of the gums. This condition is known as which of the following? A. Stomatitis B. Gingival hyperplasia C. Odontoclastic D. Resorptive Lesions E. Faucitis

A. Endodontic treatment Explanation The pulp is the soft pink portion inside the tooth that includes the nerves and blood vessels. If the pulp is exposed, this is painful and may lead to infection. These teeth are treated with a root canal (an endodontic procedure), especially for the larger premolars and canine teeth) or are extracted.

A dog presents for a broken adult canine tooth. The tooth is broken at the tip and a small area of pulp is exposed. Exposure of pulp in a tooth should be treated in which way? A. Endodontic treatment B. Antibiotics and soft food until it heals C. It should be left alone since treatment is not required D. A sealant

D. Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 Explanation While exceptions do occur, the following are generally accepted and true. In dogs, all of the permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1 has one root. PM 2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M3 can have one or two roots. In the maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes have 3 roots. PM 4 and M1 and 2 all have 3 roots.

In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots? A. Maxillary premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 B. Mandibular premolar 1 and molars 2 and 3 C. Maxillary molars 1 and 2 D. Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1

D. Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 Explanation While exceptions do occur, the following are generally accepted and true. In dogs, all of the permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1 has one root. PM 2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M3 can have one or two roots. In the maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes have 3 roots. PM 4 and M1 and 2 all have 3 roots.

In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots? A. Maxillary premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 B. Maxillary molars 1 and 2 C. Mandibular premolar 1 and molars 2 and 3 D. Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1

A. 6 months A tooth is considered retained if it is still present after full eruption of the permanent tooth. Teething can begin around 3 1/2 to 4 months, and will continue until about 6 months of age on average, at which point all 42 permanent teeth should be present. If the deciduous teeth are still present after the permanent teeth have come in, they are considered retained and should be extracted (typically at the time of the spay or neuter). The dog in the photo has multiple retained teeth. The most common teeth to be retained are the upper canines, followed by the lower canine teeth and the incisors. Sometimes, the premolar teeth may also be retained.

In general, at what age are puppy teeth (deciduous) considered to be retained? A. 6 months B. 18 months C. 3 months D. 1 year

D. Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine Explanation In normal occlusion, the mandibular incisors are palatal (behind) the maxillary incisors, and the coronal third of the mandibular incisors rests on a smooth convex bulge on the maxillary incisors known as the cingulum. The mandibular canines should be centered between the maxillary third incisor and the maxillary canine (mesial to the maxillary canine), without touching either tooth.

In normal occlusion, what is the proper position of the incisors and canine teeth when the mouth is closed? A. Mandibular incisors are buccal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine B. Mandibular incisors are buccal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is distal to the maxillary canine C. Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is distal to the maxillary canine D. Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine

A. Calculus Explanation Calculus is mineralization of plaque on the teeth. Plaque is a mixture of bacteria, saliva, and food parts that cover the tooth in a thin film. Plaque can turn into calculus in as early as a week. Dentin is the hard, white portion of the tooth. Cementum is calcified connective tissue.

Mineralized debris on the tooth surface is known as which of the following? A. Calculus B. Dentin C. Cementum D. Plaque

D. Probe Explanation The instrument pictured is a periodontal probe. It is marked and used to measure depth of periodontal pockets.

Name this dental instrument (see photo). A. Luxator B. Polisher C. Curette D. Probe

C. 104 Explanation In this system, the first numeral denotes the quadrant of the tooth and if it is permanent or deciduous. They are numbered starting at the right maxilla and moving counter-clockwise: 1 = Right maxilla (5 = deciduous) 2 = Left maxilla (6 = deciduous) 3 = Left mandible (7 = deciduous) 4 = Right mandible (8 = deciduous) The next two digits indicate how many teeth over from the midline. For example, in the dog: 701 is the deciduous mandibular left first incisor. 104 is the permanent right maxillary canine. 409 is the permanent mandibular right first molar.

The Triadan numbering system is commonly used in human and veterinary dentistry to specify a tooth. What is the correct number of the permanent right maxillary canine tooth of a dog or cat? A. 404 B. 201 C. 104 D. 301

D. Enamel Explanation Enamel is the hard mineralized surface of the tooth. It is made up of hydroxyapatite, or calcium phosphate. The cementum is the thin calcified layer of tissue that covers the dentin of the tooth root. The tooth itself is made up mostly of dentin. The dentin is covered by the enamel on the crown and by cementum on the roots. The pulp is the center part of a tooth that is made up of living connective tissue and is the softest part containing nerve fibers.

The tooth crown is covered with which of the following? A. Dentin B. Cementum C. Pulp D. Enamel

A. Actinomyces bovis Explanation "Lumpy jaw" is caused by Actinomyces bovis. It is most often diagnosed by palpating a firm mass that is immobile over the mandible. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes caseous lymphadenitis. It results in an onion appearance in abscesses found most commonly in the neck region and abdomen Mycobacterium bovis causes bovine tuberculosis and is a zoonotic disease. It most often causes coughing and other respiratory symptoms. Moraxella bovis causes pinkeye in cattle.

This 6-year-old Friesian cow has developed a mass on the left jaw region (see image). The farmer reports that it developed over the last several weeks. The mass is firm, immobile, and painful on manipulation. While assisting the veterinarian, you notice a thick granular discharge coming from the mass. The veterinarian suspects "lumpy jaw", which is caused by which of the following agents? A. Actinomyces bovis B. Mycobacterium bovis C. Moraxella bovis D. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A. It helps cool the instrument tip Explanation The ultrasonic scaler uses water to cool the instrument tip and to flush debris from the tooth as it is scaled away. By cooling the instrument tip, the water helps to prevent thermal damage to the tooth. The polisher is the instrument used to help smooth the tooth surface.

Water comes from the ultrasonic scaler for which purpose? A. It helps cool the instrument tip B. It smoothes the surface of the tooth C. It prevents introduction of bacteria into the gumline D. It prevents dulling of the instrument

B. 10-15 seconds Explanation The scaler must be kept in constant motion on the tooth surface and should not be on a tooth for more than 10 to 15 seconds. This is because heat can buildup and cause thermal damage to the tooth. The water from the scaler also helps to prevent heat buildup. The scaler should be held in a modified pen grasp during the procedure.

What is the maximum time that an ultrasonic scaler can be used on a tooth surface? A. 3-5 seconds B. 10-15 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 30 seconds

A. 0-3 mm Explanation In dogs, a sulcus depth of 0-3 mm is considered normal. Depths greater than 3 mm are suggestive of periodontal disease. In cats, the normal depth is only 0-1 mm.

What is the normal sulcus depth of the teeth in dogs when examining with a periodontal probe? A. 0-3 mm B. 0-1 mm C. 3-8 mm D. 3-5 mm

B. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) Explanation The correct answer is 2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3). Remember the dog has 42 teeth total.

What is the permanent dental formula for a dog? A. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/4 M1/3) B. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) C. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1) D. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P2/4 M3/3)

D. To smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface Explanation Scratches or pits on the tooth that can be created by the scaling procedure or from mastication increase the surface area on the tooth, allowing plaque/calculus to build up more quickly. Polishing helps to smooth out any defects. All surfaces of the tooth crown should be polished on slow rotational speed. The polisher should be kept in constant motion to prevent thermal damage to the tooth.

What is the purpose of polishing the teeth after a dental cleaning? A. To prevent cavity formation B. To strengthen the enamel C. To remove any remaining calculus on the teeth D. To smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface

B. 75% Explanation It is thought that 80% of dogs and 70% of cats have some degree of periodontal disease over the age of 3 years. This is why it is so important to discuss dental care with pet owners.

What percentage of dogs and cats, on average, has periodontal disease? A. 60% B. 75% C. 95% D. 40% E. 25%

C. Mask, eye protection, gloves Explanation For a dental, a face shield or eye protection is needed due to the splatter from dental cleaning. A mask is needed to prevent inhalation of this splatter or mist. Gloves are required to prevent the spread of infection. Dental cleanings are not sterile procedures, so a cap and booties would not be required.

What personal protective equipment would be required for a dental cleaning? A. Booties, cap, mask, gloves B. Mask, eye protection, cap C. Mask, eye protection, gloves D. Eye protection, cap, booties, gloves

A. Floating Explanation Horses' teeth grow throughout their lives. When a horse eats normally, grinding food between the back teeth, the abrasives wear the teeth down to keep them even and smooth. However, when a horse eats a softer diet like one containing a lot of alfalfa and grains, the teeth do not wear evenly and can form sharp, painful points. A horse with overgrown or sharp teeth may have difficulty eating, may hypersalivate, may start dropping food from its mouth, and can begin losing weight. Floating entails filing down the teeth using a dental rasp, or float, to make the teeth even and smooth again. Cribbing is the act of swallowing air or "wind sucking" and is thought to be behavioral. Sometimes cribbers will chew or suck on fences or other fixed objects so they can actually draw in air. Quidding is when a horse stores a bolus of food inside its mouth and spits it out or drops food from its mouth. The most common cause is bad teeth; the horse may need to have its teeth floated.

What procedure performed in horses includes filing and smoothing their teeth? A. Floating B. Raking C. Cribbing D. Quidding

B. Within 24 hours of birth Explanation Piglets are born with 8 sharp needle or milk teeth. The teeth can lacerate the sow during nursing, and playing or fighting behavior with other piglets may cause trauma. The teeth are most often clipped within the first 24 hours after birth.

When are needle teeth in piglets usually clipped? A. At 3 months of age B. Within 24 hours of birth C. At 3 weeks of age D. At 3 days of age

B. Within 24 hours of birth Explanation Piglets are born with 8 sharp needle or milk teeth. The teeth can lacerate the sow during nursing, and playing or fighting behavior with other piglets may cause trauma. The teeth are most often clipped within the first 24 hours after birth.

When are needle teeth in piglets usually clipped? A. At 3 weeks of age B. Within 24 hours of birth C. At 3 months of age D. At 3 days of age

A. Lingual Explanation The lingual side is closest the tongue. The buccal side is closest the cheek.

When discussing teeth, what is the tooth surface closest to the tongue termed? A. Lingual B. Gingival C. Buccal D. Frontal

C. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 Explanation Cats have 3 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, and 1 molar on one side of the upper jaw and 3 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, and 1 molar on one side of the lower jaw so the dental formula for the cat is: 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 permanent teeth Dogs have 42 teeth, so their dental formula is : 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

Which is the dental formula for a cat? A. 2 (I 2/2 C 1/1 P 3/3 M 2/1)= 30 B. 2 (I 3/2 C 2/2 P 3/3 M 0/1)= 32 C. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 D. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

C. Alginate Explanation This material is mixed, placed into an impression tray, and placed over the teeth. After it sets, the tray is removed in one motion in the direction of the long axis of the teeth. Plaster of Paris is the classic material that used to be used to make casts; however, nowadays most doctors use fiberglass to make casts. Gel foam is a collagen sponge that surgeons use to help create clots during surgical procedures.

Which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation? A. Gel foam B. Plaster of Paris C. Alginate D. Casting gel

D. Rabbits and chinchillas Explanation Rabbits, chinchillas, and dogs develop dental caries. Caries are very rare in the other species listed. Caries are cavities.

Which of the following animals develops dental caries? A. Cattle and sheep B. Pigs and reptiles C. Goats and camelids D. Rabbits and chinchillas E. Horses and cats

C. Rodents Explanation Rodents do not have canine teeth. Horses, pigs and ferrets all have canine teeth.

Which of the following animals do not have canine teeth? A. Ferrets B. Horses C. Rodents D. Pigs

A. Rodents Explanation Rodents do not have canine teeth. Horses, pigs and ferrets all have canine teeth.

Which of the following animals do not have canine teeth? A. Rodents B. Horses C. Ferrets D. Pigs

C. Upper 4th premolars Explanation In the dog, the upper 4th premolars (also known as carnassial teeth), have three roots. The upper 1st and 2nd molars also have 3 roots. A dog has 3 incisors, 1 canine, 4 premolars and 2 molars on one side of the upper jaw and 3 incisors, 1 canine, 4 premolars and 3 molars on one side of the lower jaw, so the dental formula for the dog is: 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

Which of the following are triple rooted teeth in dogs? A. Lower 2nd premolars B. Upper 1st premolars C. Upper 4th premolars D. Lower 1st molars

D. Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces Explanation Stomatitis describes inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces. It can be subdivided by region, such as buccal stomatitis (inflammation of the cheek mucosa). Inflammation of the tongue is known as glossitis. Inflammation of the glossopalatine folds around the area housing the tonsil is known as faucitis. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone fall under the category of periodontitis.

Which of the following correctly defines the term stomatitis? A. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone B. Inflammation of the tongue C. Inflammation of the region housing the tonsils D. Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces

B. Tetracycline Explanation Tetracyclines can cause a discoloration of puppy teeth. Tetracycline binds to calcified tissues (bone, cementum, dentin), gets incorporated into the hydroxyapatite crystals with the calcium, and causes the discoloration. This occurs with puppy teeth because the teeth are still being actively formed. After the adult teeth are present, this should no longer occur.

Which of the following drugs can cause discoloration of puppy teeth? A. Metronidazole B. Tetracycline C. Amoxicillin D. Enrofloxacin

C. Root canal Explanation Endodontics deals with the tooth pulp and the tissues surrounding the root of a tooth. The root canal is the most common endodontic procedure.

Which of the following is an example of an endodontic treatment? A. Tumor removal from the tongue B. Dental scaling C. Root canal D. Soft palate resection surgery

D. A non-malignant oral tumor Explanation An epulis is a non-malignant tumor of the periodontal ligament. These tumors do not metastasize but can be locally invasive. The most aggressive form of this condition, an acanthomatous epulis, can invade and destroy bone.

Which of the following is the best description of an epulis? A. A gingival lesion caused by inflammation B. A gingival lesion caused by trauma C. A developmental tooth disorder D. A non-malignant oral tumor

C. 2(I1/1 C0/0 PM1/1 M3/3) = 20 Explanation The formula is designated as fractions to indicate the upper and lower dental arcades. The 2 at the beginning of the formula is for the left and right upper and lower dental arcades. I stands for incisor teeth. C stands for canine teeth. PM stands for premolar cheek teeth. M stands for molar cheek teeth. Therefore, guinea pigs have 4 incisors total (1 upper and lower on the left and the right), no canine teeth, 4 premolar cheek teeth (1 upper and lower on the left and right), and 12 molar cheek teeth total (3 upper and lower on the left and right).

Which of the following is the correct dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas? A. 2(I1/1 C1/1 PM1/1 M2/2) =20 B. 2(I3/3 C1/1 PM1/1 M2/2) = 28 C. 2(I1/1 C0/0 PM1/1 M3/3) = 20 D. 2(I2/2 C0/0 PM 0/0 M 3/3) =20

C. Caries Explanation Dental caries is the condition where trapped food is fermented by bacteria, forming acids that demineralize the hard tissue of the tooth. Odontoclastic resorptive lesions are a process where the cementum of the tooth is resorbed and replaced with bone-like material. Enamel hypoplasia, is the absence of enamel formation on the tooth crown during tooth development. Stomatitis is inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces.

Which of the following is the correct term for dental decay, causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth? A. Stomatitis B. Odontoclastic resorptive lesions C. Caries D. Enamel hypoplasia

B. The incisors on the mandible should be palatal to the incisors on the maxilla Explanation The incisors on the mandible (lower jaw) rest palatal (or behind facing up toward the palate) to the maxilla (upper jaw). If it were opposite, the animal would have an underbite. Also, the mandibular (lower) canine teeth should rest distal to the upper third incisor and mesial to the maxillary (upper) canine tooth. The dog has 6 upper and 6 lower incisors (12 total incisors). The lower first molars (309 and 409) in the dog are double-rooted.

Which of the following is true regarding dentition in dogs? A. The dog has a total of 6 incisors B. The incisors on the mandible should be palatal to the incisors on the maxilla C. The lower first molars in the dog are triple-rooted D. The incisors on the maxilla should rest caudal to the incisors on the mandible

C. Enamel hypoplasia Explanation This dog has enamel hypoplasia, which is an enamel deficiency that causes an abnormal enamel matrix and presents as if the enamel has been eaten away. This may be a finding in adult dogs previously infected with distemper virus as a puppy. Tetracycline antibiotics may also cause this, seen as a permanent brown discoloration of teeth when used in young puppies.

Which of the following may be seen in a puppy who has had distemper? A. Enamel hyperplasia B. Gingival hyperplasia C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Retained deciduous teeth

B. Infraorbital block Explanation The infraorbital block or maxillary block are local anesthetic techniques used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for procedures involving the maxilla. The inferior alveolar block and mental nerve block are local anesthetic techniques for the mandible.

Which of the following nerve blocks can be used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for a dental extraction of a maxillary tooth? A. Inferior alveolar block B. Infraorbital block C. Mental nerve block D. Auriculopalpebral block

F. Rabbit Explanation Rabbits have a second row of incisors distal to the proximal incisors. When malocclusion occurs, it is important to trim both sets of teeth to maintain proper dentition.

Which of the following species has a double row of incisors? A. Guinea Pig B. Rat C. Hamster D. Chinchilla E. Ferret F. Rabbit

D. Horses Explanation Hypsodont teeth have a long crown height and erupt throughout the animal's life, such as in horses and rabbits. Humans, pigs, dogs, and cats have brachyodont teeth, which have a short crown length and do not continue to erupt throughout life.

Which of the following species have hypsodont teeth? A. Dogs B. Cats C. Pigs D. Horses

D. Pigs Explanation Cats, pigs, humans and other carnivores have all brachyodont teeth. This means that they have a small crown relative to the size of the roots, and the apex of the each tooth root is only open for a brief period during development and does not continue to erupt. Horses, rodents, and lagomorphs have hypsodont teeth, which means that they have a relatively large amount of crown that is beneath the gingival margin as well as a root structure that allows for continued eruption during most of the animala's lifetime. Hypsodont teeth can be further categorized as radicular hypsodont teeth, such as the cheek teeth of horses. These have apices that eventually close and stop growing, but continued eruption offsets attrition from occlusion. Aradicular hypsodont teeth (such as the incisors of rabbits) lack a true root structure, allowing for lifelong growth of the tooth itself.

Which of the following species have teeth that only grow for a limited time during development and do not continually erupt or grow throughout the life of the animal? A. Rats B. Horses C. Rabbits D. Pigs

A. Rabbits Explanation Rabbits have four incisors-two on the top and two on the bottom. Right behind the top incisor teeth are two small peg-like teeth called auxiliary incisors or "peg teeth". Rabbits have cheek teeth that they use to grind their food. These are the 6 upper premolars, the 4 lower premolars, 6 upper molars and 6 lower molars (and no canines). Cows have 2 lower canines. Horses and llamas both have 4 canine teeth (2 upper and 2 lower).

Which species does not have canine teeth? A. Rabbits B. Horses C. Llamas D. Cows

A. Horses Explanation Wolf teeth are small teeth that are the first premolars in the horse. It is thought they may be deciduous teeth. They are located immediately rostral to the first cheek teeth in horses.

Which species has wolf teeth? A. Horses B. Cats C. Pigs D. Cows E. Dogs

A. Cattle Explanation Cattle chew their "cud", which is food that they regurgitate for remastication. When a cow chews her cud, she regurgitates a food bolus into her mouth, which is then re-chewed and re-swallowed. While cattle are chewing their cud, they produce saliva which acts as a natural antacid that helps to buffer and protect the rumen. Cows sometimes spend up to 8 hours a day chewing their cud.

Which species regurgitates food for remastication? A. Cattle B. Cats C. Pigs D. Lagomorphs E. Horses

B. Bisecting angle technique Explanation In the bisecting angle technique, the film is placed next to the tooth; the primary x-ray beam is aimed perpendicular to the plane that bisects the angle created by the plane of the central tooth axis to the plane of the dental film.

Which technique is needed to produce quality intra-oral radiographs? A. Maxillary angle technique B. Bisecting angle technique C. Occlusal angle technique D. Oblique angle technique

B. 42 Explanation The adult dog has 42 teeth. Cats have 30 teeth. Most cats and dogs have all of their permanent teeth by 6 months of age.

You perform a dental prophylaxis on a dog that has all of his teeth. How many adult teeth are in the dog's mouth? A. 28 B. 42 C. 32 D. 24


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