VTNE study
The parotid gland is responsible for making and secreting....
saliva
FeLV is shed in...
saliva and other bodily secretions
You volunteered at the zoo and spent the day handling the tortoises. A day later you have gastrointestinal symptoms. Reptiles are a major source for which of the following?
salmonella
Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse?
sarcocysitis neurona
Cnemidocoptes pilae, is also known as
scaly face/scaly leg (in birds)
________ film is more sensitive to light, and _________ film is more sensitive to x-rays.
screen film = more sensitive to light non-screen film = more sensitive to xrays
Sebum is made by the...
sebaceous glands
The veterinarian diagnoses white muscle disease. He asks you to assist with collecting blood samples from the herd to test for what deficiency?
selenium (or vit E)
what muscle contains the sciatic nerve and thus is a concern when giving IM injections?
semitendinosus
Ecdysis means..
shedding/sloughing of skin in reptiles
the "ovine" is also known as...
sheep
the most common definitive hosts of fasciola hepatica are
sheep and cattle LIVER FLUKE
The glenohumeral joint is the __________ joint
shoulder
Enamel hypoplasia is a secondary defect due to...
side effect of tetracycline-use in puppies, or may be related to previous distemper virus infection
Cataracts are due to a problem with the transparency of the... A) cornea B) vitreous humor C) lens D) aqueous humor
C) Lens
Define the radiograph process...
silver halide crystals in the film that are sensitized by exposure during the x-ray are converted to black metallic silver in the developer. The remaining crystals are removed by the fixer.
A dorsoproximal-dorsodistal oblique radiograph of the carpus is frequently referred to as what type of radiograph?
skyline view
A drug that is a cholinergic agent will have what effects on the body?
slow HR, reducing IOP, stimulates GI motility
The cardiologist prescribes the drug propanolol to a canine patient. What effect will this medication have on the heart?
slows HR
Drugs are mostly absorbed through what GI structure?
small intestine
Senn rake retractors are small hand-held retractors that are usually used to retract
small muscle bellies, tendons, or ligaments
Acetylcholine is released as a neurotransmitter by.. A) effector organs B) sensory bodies C) Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers D) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
C) Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers NOTE: D (postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers) are releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
what kind of muscles do the stomach wall, uterus, urinary bladder, intestine, and ciliary body have?
smooth muscle
Fasciola hepatica requires what as an intermediate host?
snail
an imbalance of what minerals can affect nerve function?
sodium and potassium (Na & K)
WHAT is the fluid treatment of choice to help reduce the potassium.
sodium chloride (NaCl)
What is the treatment for cyanide toxicity in horses?
sodium nitrate or sodium thiosulfate IV.
An animal that has been diagnosed with underlying cardiac insufficiency may need to be restricted on intake of:
sodium; consuming more sodium is likely to retain more water (not good)
what divides the rostral part of the pharynx into oro- and naso- pharynx's?
soft pallet
lactulose helps with...
softening the stool
Ancylostoma braziliense is known as the
southern dog hookworm
how to prevent pseudocyesis?
spay
what are oligodendrocytes?
specialized glial cells in the brain and spinal cord
what are Schwann cells
specialized glial cells in the peripheral nerves
What organ can be completely removed and is not required to sustain life?
spleen
When is the time frame usually common for cattle warbles to make their "emerge" from the back of the animal...
spring
when do dogs estrous cycles occur?
spring and fall
"-stasis" means...
stand still
list some common gram-positive bacterium...
staphyloccocus, clostridium, leptospira
Mannitol Salt Agar, or MSA, selects for growth of which species of organism?
staphylococcus
Mannitol Salt Agar, or MSA, selects for growth of which species of organism?
staphylococcus; turning red when positive
how to tell the difference between diabetic ketoacidosis and starvation if there is ketones in the urine...
starvation-related ketones would NOT have hyperglycemia, whereas the diabetes would have hyperglycemia as well.
A colloid contains larger molecules than a crystalloid. This size difference allows the fluid to
stay in the intravascular space for longer; thus increasing oncotic pressure.
Femorotibial refers to the joint at the area of the
stifle
Habronema spp. and Draschia spp. are...
stomach worms of the horse.
The surgeon asks you to get him some gelatin foam. What will he use this for?
stop the oozing of blood
Program and Sentinel work by...
stopping flea eggs from hatching
Quidding is when a horse
stores a bolus of food inside its mouth and spits it out or drops food from its mouth. (usually due to teeth problems)
Streptococcus equi causes
strangles
What is the causative agent of Equine strangles?
streptococcus equi
Cardiac Output (CO) is determined by what variables?
stroke volume x HR
Type B (blood) in cats means they have strong __________ alloantibodies. Which means...
strong anti-A alloantibodies, so if you give type A blood to a type B cat it could result in life-threatening acute hemolytic transfusion reactions.
What organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse?
strongylus vulgaris
How are bladder stone types identified?
submitting stones to the lab for analyzing
Miotics are...
substances causes constriction of the pupil
Stephanurus dentatus is...
swine kidney worm
Trichuris suis is.... (where is it located?)
swine whip worm - lives in cecum
Input from what system causes vasoconstriction during exercise and therefore an increase in blood pressure?
sympathetic nervous system
What are some qualities that the phenothiazine derivative drugs have? (ie: Acepromazine)
synergy with opioids, no analgesic properties, frequently cause hypotension , have antiemetic properties
The mucin clot test is performed on what type of fluid? What is this test for?
synovial fluid; mucin is a component of synovial fluid that will form a clot when mixed with acetic acid. The properties of the resulting clot reflect the amount of hyaluronic acid present; more clot = better synovial fluid quality.
Tramadol is a... What issues is it commonly used for?
synthetic drug that acts on the opiate receptor and is often effective against bone pain in dogs.
the pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is...
systolic blood pressure
Patients suffering from substantial blood loss can be expected to have
tachycardia, tachypnea, pale MM, and weak pulses
What are the clinical signs you'd see in a dog with chocolate toxicosis?
tachycardia, v/d, tremors
how do you prepare a direct fecal smear?
take an applicator stick and collect a small amount of feces. This is mixed with a drop of saline on a glass slide. A coverslip is placed on the drop and it is examined under the microscope at 10X.
When handling a raptor, what is the anatomic structure that can cause the most damage to a handler?
talons
A ____ is used to put a thread into the hole so that the screw can be placed securely when putting a plate into a bone.
tap
praziquantel treats....
tapeworm
What is the difference in appearance between tapeworm and roundworm eggs
tapeworm (taenia) eggs are smaller, denser-outer ring; stripes/striations within
Praziquantel is used to treat
tapeworms
Taenia is a genus of...
tapeworms
What does bog spavin describe?
tarsocrural effusion
The TBT test... (define and explain)
template bleeding time; determines the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound.
Examples of short acting beta-2 agonists are
terbutaline and albuterol
What are hoof testers used for in horses?
test for pain
Enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining is caused by (when given to young animals)?
tetracycline antibiotics
The advantage of using a screen system is
that much less radiation is needed to create the image but the trade-off is a loss of detail from the intensifying screen.
The main difference between non-screen film and screen film is
that non-screen film has the image produced by x-rays themselves making them more sensitive to x-rays
The steady state is
the accumulation of a drug concentration in the body until the concentration plateaus.
What portion of the adrenal gland secretes mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens (steroids)?
the adrenal cortex (outer part of the adrenal gland)
What portion of the adrenal gland secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?
the adrenal medulla (inner part of the adrenal gland)
adenohypophysis is...
the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
Parrot fever is caused by
the bacterium Chlamydophila psittaci
Q fever is caused by
the bacterium Coxiella burnetii
where is the pituitary gland located
the base of the brain, just below the hypothalamus
Plague is usually transmitted by
the bites of fleas
A sarcomere is
the contractile unit of a myofibril, or muscle cell
define meconium
the dark green substance forming the first feces of a newborn infant.
The PR segment on the ECG represents
the delay at the AV node and partial atrial repolarization
Diazepam should not be stored in a plastic syringe because
the drug will bind to the plastic, and the proper dose will not be dispensed when injected.
define pica
the eating of foreign materials.
The therapeutic index is a measure of a drug's safety margin. It is defined as the ratio between
the effective dose (ED50) and the lethal dose (LD50) to a population ED50 : LD50
The "quality" of an x-ray beam refers to
the energy distribution of the photons that are emitted
Parascaris equorum, otherwise known as..
the equine roundworm
When taking a lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog, where is the CRANIAL and where is the CAUDAL landmarks?
the film should also be collimated to include the MANUBRIUM (as the cranial landmark) and half way between the xiphoid and the last rib (as the caudal landmark).
The intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum is...
the flea
Linear artifacts on a film are usually due to...
the grid
Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known for their potential toxic effects to
the kidneys and the ear
Where should an injection ideally be given to a pet bird?
the large pectoral muscle mass region
Fasciola hepatica is
the liver fluke
Dura mater and pia mater (along with arachnoid) are part of
the meninges of the brain
what is the low point of a glucose curve called? (this is also the peak of insulin)
the nadir
The pitch of a screw describes
the number or distance between each thread.
The observance of ketones is always abnormal. This suggests that...
the patient is diabetic and is unable to take glucose out of the blood stream
neurohypophysis is...
the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
Pregnant dogs may receive killed antigens such as
the rabies vaccine
A mastectomy is
the removal of a mammary gland
The cranial nerves originate from the... A) Cerebellum B) spinal cord C) Brainstem D) cerebrum
C) brainstem
ACTH will stimulate the release of... A) FSH B) Thyroxine C) cortisol D) insulin
C) cortisol
In ferrets, spaying is recommended due to
the risk of bone marrow toxicity from the high levels of circulating estrogen during prolonged heat cycles.
Glaucoma is... A) decreased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye B) increased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye C) Increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye D) decreased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye
C) increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye
Lymph nodes that are found medial to the caudal part of the jaw are the... A) popliteal nodes B) inguinal nodes C) mandibular nodes D) prescapular nodes
C) mandibular nodes
Apnea will cause... A) metabolic acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory acidosis D) respiratory alkalosis
C) respiratory acidosis; caused by build up of CO2
Long term use of glucocorticoids will... A) increase lymphocyte production B) increase plasma protein levels C) suppress the immune system D) decrease blood glucose levels
C) suppress the immune system
In cattle, black leg is caused by which clostridium species?
C. chauvoei
In cattle, black leg is caused by which clostridium spp.?
C. chauvoei
The diencephalon is composed of
the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland.
Half-life describes
the time it takes for the blood concentration of a drug to drop to half of its steady state.
dogs demonstrate what type of estrous cycle? a) polyestrous b) seasonally polyestrous c) diestrous d) monoestrous
C; diestrous
in what stage of estrous cycle does the corpus luteum develop? a) proestrus b) estrus c) metaestrus d) diestrus
C; metaestrus; because the corpus luteum develops after ovulation
when a stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached a) repolarization b) refractory period c) threshold d) action potential
C; threshold
What is the most common early sign of lidocaine toxicity in dogs?
CNS depression
What are the side effects of phenothiazine antiemetics?
CNS depression, decrease in seizure threshold, and HYPOtension.
Changing kilovoltage changes the amount of
CONTRAST
A horse with flared nostrils and a heave line from the tuber coxae towards the elbow with forced expiration likely has what condition?
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). Comparable to asthma in humans.
____________ increases absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines and decreases their excretion in the urine.
Calcitriol
What is the triple routed tooth in a dog known as?
the upper 4th premolars (108, 208); the carnassial teeth
The ST segment on an ECG comes after the QRS and is when
the ventricle is depolarized
What is the minute volume?
the volume of air inspired during one minute of respiration
What urinary crystal has a picket-fence shape?
Calcium oxalate monohydrate
___________ is mineralization of plaque on the teeth.
Calculus
What are the disadvantages to using a larger filament in an x-ray?
the wider focal spot leads to decreased image definition and increased penumbra effect (blurring effect)
Oblique radiographic views are typically requested in areas where
there are multiple overlapping structures
What does CMT mean in regards to cows...
California Mastitis Test
What test measures somatic cells to identify mastitis in cows? What is it looking for specifically?
California Mastitis Test (CMT) looking for udder infection
What do you advise a client about amoxicillin? What if it was a different penicillin-drug?
Call if any adverse reactions occur, complete all meds expensed even if pet is feeling better, should be refrigerated. Amoxicillin does NOT need to be given on an empty stomach, most other penicillins do.
Antibiotics are not needed for seromas because
they are not infections; they just consist of serous fluid from "dead space" post op
Why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term (> 7 days) use in horses?
they are the least thrombogenic
List the order in which RBC encounters the following: veins arteries heart and capillaries
Capillaries, veins, heart, arteries
The ruminant placenta is epitheliochorial which means... as opposed to a...
they have all three layers: endometrium, connective tissue, and uterine endothelium AS OPPOSED to... endotheliocorial placenta (only has the uterine endothelium)
what does it mean to be seasonally polyestrous?
they repeatedly cycle during the breeding season
The coffin bone is a layman's term for part of the anatomy of which species?
third phalanx in a horse
Central venous pressure, or CVP, monitoring must be performed according to specific guidelines to reduce the possibility of inappropriate readings. The _____________________ is the anatomical landmark that the normal values are based on.
third thoracic vertebrae
What is the drug digoxin used for?
Cardiac glycoside used to treat CHF
In the non-rebreathing circuit oxygen flows
through a flowmeter and into the vaporizer. At this point, gases exiting the vaporizer go directly to a hose for delivery to the patient with no inhalation flutter valve
define transmammary
through nursing
what gland is larger in young animals and shrinks as they age?
thymus
How is tularemia transmitted (what is the vector)?
ticks
Ivermectin has activity against what parasites?
ticks, mites, nematodes, and even lice.
What are the components of a typical X-ray cassette in order from front (where X-rays enter) to back?
Cassette front, padding, intensifying screen, film, intensifying screen, padding, cassette back
Ivermectin has activity against what parasites...
ticks, mites, nematodes, and lice
What is the "minute volume" equation of a patient under anesthesia?
tidal volume x RR
What does Proin do?
tighten bladder sphincter muscles
Telazol is...
tiletamine and zolazepam; an injectable anesthetic/tranquilizer
What is the function of the screen of an X-ray cassette?
to decrease exposure necessary to create an image on the film (also known as intensifying screens)
define Poiseuille's Law
Catheters that are shorter in length and larger in diameter can deliever the largest volume of fluids in the shortest amount of time
A farmer brings the one-half inch grub to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. What is the name of the parasite
Cattle warble (hypoderma)
Why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in gastrointestinal surgeries?
Causes nitrous build up in the GI tract
Interferon is given to do what? And is derived from..... and recognized for its....
to enhance the function of the immune system, derived from WBC's, recognized for its immunoregulatory effects
In an emergency GDV, when placing the orogastric tube for emptying out gastric contents, where do you measure?
to just the last rib
Torsion means
to twist or turn
You are developing a template for the drug labels at your new hospital. Every prescription drug label should include the following statement:
Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by the order of a licensed veterinarian; dosage, route of administration, quantity of ingredient, and a lot or control number
What is the blind ended sac that is part of the lg intestine
Cecum
What is the negative aspect of a direct fecal smear to identify parasites?
too small of a sample
Imidacloprid is a....
topical flea adulticide
TPN, otherwise known as _______________, uses what site for catheter placement...
total parenteral nutrition, Multi-lumen jugular catheter
What can be the reason you see heinz bodies on a patients blood smear?
toxins, selenium deficiency, certain drugs, or inherited disorders
A direct life cycle is seen in which of the following parasites? Dirofilaria immitis Fasciola hepatica Toxocara canis Dipylidium caninum
toxocara canis
A direct life cycle is seen in which of the following parasites? Dirofilaria immitis Dipylidium caninum Fasciola hepatica Toxocara canis
toxocara canis (roundworm)
Ocular larva migrans are caused by
toxocara canis (roundworm)
What casts are seen in acute tubular degeneration?
Cellular casts
Ascarids family is known as...
toxocara, toxascaris (ROUND WORMS)
The root of the tooth is covered by the...
Cementum
What is the cause of ocular larva migrans?
toxocara/roundworms
Curved mosquito forceps are (traumatic or atraumatic)?
traumatic
misoprostol is commonly used for...
treatment of, or prevention of, stomach ulcers especially when caused by NSAIDS -- wear gloves when administering --
What is another term for the type of parasite known as a fluke?
trematode
Which of the following is another term for the type of parasite known as a fluke?
trematode
Regarding lice parasites, the biting louse found in canines is known as...
trichodectes
Clomicalm (clomipramine) is a..... Used for...
tricyclic antidepressant drug used for OCD/separation anxiety
What does the thyroid gland secrete?
triiodothyronine (T3) thyroxine (T4) calcitonin
Which part of the brain is associated with regulation and coordination of movement, posture, and balance?
Cerebellum
The distal femur articulates with the patella at the level of the
trochlear groove
Direct fecal smears can help detect ...
trophozoites
T/F: asthma is non-existent in dogs.
true
What is the vertebral formula for dogs and cats?
Cervical 7, Thoracic 13, Lumbar 7, Sacral 3
Amikacin can cause kidney damage. What could you do to monitor for early renal side effects?
Check a daily urine protein
T/F: you have to know a cats blood type before any blood transfusion can be done.
true. because if it is a type B, it would be deadly to give type A blood.
The pancreas produces enzymes such as ..... to break down food.
trypsin, lipase, and amylase
Mycobacterium bovis causes bovine
tuberculosis (ZOONOTIC)
what is a chelonian?
turtles, tortoises, etc.
Clients should be cautioned against sticking Q-tips in the ears of their pets because they could rupture the...
tympanic membrane
What is the most common blood type in cats?
type A
What are these drugs common side effects and what are they all used for? Cyclophosphamide Lomustine L-asparaginase Doxorubicin
Chemotherapy drugs... Cyclophosphamide = cystitis Lomustine = pancreatitis L-asparaginase = anaphylaxis Doxorubicin = cardiotoxicity
What is the most common blood type of "exotic" cats?
type B
Degeneration of beta cells of the pancreas can lead to....
type I diabetes
what structure carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
umbilical arteries
The placenta supplies the fetus with oxygen via which structure?
umbilical vein
Endoscopy is a scope that is used in the
upper GI tract
Psittacosis, also known as Parrot fever, is caused by the bacterium ; how is it spread
Chlamydia psittaci; spread to humans by bird droppings and nasal discharge
In a compound microscope how is the image viewed -versus- how it is actually being moved?
upside-down and reversed
What are the two types of stones that do not usually show up on radiographs and require ultrasound or contrast studies to diagnose.
urates and cysteines
What antibiotic is commonly used with rabbits and pocket pets to treat infections? Why this drug? And why be cautious, what are the risks?
Chloramphenicol; because penicillins and cephalosporins can be toxic to these animals. It is a risk because it can cause myelosuppression - humans need to wear gloves when administering
What type of drug is carbachol? What is it used for most commonly?
Cholinomimetic drug that binds and activates acetylcholine receptors (cholinergic agonist, parasympathomimetics) often used for glaucoma treatment or ophthalmic surgery - constriction of pupils
What is an intravenous pyelogram most useful in detecting?
ureteral stones
Birds metabolize most of their nitrogen to ________________, whereas mammals metabolize most of their nitrogen to urea.
uric acid
Gout is an accumulation of....
uric acid (affecting the joints)
Phenylpropanolamine is used to treat
urinary incontinence in dogs (also known as Proin)
What does isosthenuria indicate?
urine that has the same SG as plasma
define chylothorax
Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky white fluid and is odorless
A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in...
Chylothorax
During ultrasound of the bladder, a hyperechoic (white) linear structure is seen against the bladder wall that creates a black shadow obscuring all structures deep to it. What is this structure most likely?
urolith
What are organophosphates used for? What are the side effects?
used to control endo- and ecto-parasites side effects are as follows: V/D, tremors, hyper-excitability, increased salivation, and neurotoxicity is possible
Eye pressures lower than 10 can be caused by..
uveitis
A keratocyte is a red blood cell that appears to contain a...
vacuole
Antivenin contains
venom-neutralizing antibodies
Which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated for use in cats?
Cisplatin cannot be used in cats as it causes pulmonary toxicity. Remember the phrase "Cisplatin splats cats".
What is an appropriate anticoagulant for collection of blood from a donor horse for the purposes of blood transfusion to a recipient horse?
Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA)
A dog is being referred to the neurologist for a cervical disk compression that is causing forelimb paresis. Where will the surgical incision likely be made?
ventral side of neck
Cleanest to most risk-of infection surgeries are as follows:
Clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, and infected surgery. (I, II, III, IV)
where does a ventral slot surgery usually take place (in reference to: where is the incision made)?
ventral side of neck
what does the QRS complex represent on an EKG
ventricular depolarization
The QRS complex on an ECG represents
ventricular depolarization, and the ventricular rate can be calculated by the time interval between the QRS complexes.
what is the treatment for feline toxoplasmosis?
Clindamycin
What drug is commonly used to treat OCD and anxiety in dogs?
Clomipramine (Clomicalm)
blue top tube uses and what's in it...
Clotting tests (PTT, PT), contains sodium nitrate
A proliferative honeycomb beak along with scaly crusty lesions on the legs and feet of a bird can be a sign of
Cnemidocoptes pilae
what does the T wave represent on an EKG
ventricular repolarization
A __________ is a small blister on the skin or mucosa, similar to a cyst.
vesicle
Sulfasalazine is sometimes used in veterinary medicine to treat what chronic condition? What type of drug is this?
Colitis/chronic intestinal conditions This is a sulfa antibiotic
A dog presenting with a head tilt and loss of balance most likely has disease associated with which nerve?
vestibulocochlear AKA nerve # VIII
what is the serosa that covers abdominal organs
visceral peritoneum
Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by....
vit E deficiency
what are the common side effects of misoprostol
Common side effects include diarrhea, abdominal/stomach pain, vomiting, and flatulence AKA GI upset
An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type?
Compound
What deficiency can cause goats to have a dull haircoat, be very thin, and have nasal discharge?
vitamin A deficiency
Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by
vitamin E deficiency
Doberman Pinchers are predisposed to having what..
von Willebrand's disease
Cheyletiella is also known as
walking dandruff
define characterstics of mycobacterium
waxy coat on their cell walls
Streptococcus suis is more common in
weaning piglets
What is the most accurate method to estimate a horse's weight out on a farm call?
weight measuring tape wrapped around the barrell
Hamsters are susceptible to proliferative ileitis. What is the common name for this debilitating disease?
wet tail
what is diastolic blood pressure?
when ventricles are relaxed
When viewing a slide on a microscope, the objects themselves are in focus but there appear to be haloes or fuzzy rings around the objects you are viewing that you cannot eliminate using the focus knobs. What is probably not adjusted correctly?
Condenser
What is the rumen function in a cows stomach? Where is this located?
where all the fermentation is occurring thanks to the help of symbiotic organisms that help break down the food. The rumen occupies the majority of the LEFT side of the abdominal cavity.
In an ultrasound what color does a hyperechoic structure come up as?
white
Due to divergence of the x-ray beam, intervertebral disc spaces will appear
wider toward the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film.
Non-screen film is not recommended for what use... why?
with larger animals or body parts because it requires too much exposure (and therefore a longer exposure which will have greater motion) to obtain a well exposed radiograph.
The best time to administer antibiotics for a surgical patient is...
within 1 hour of surgery
When are needle teeth in piglets usually clipped?
within the first 24 hrs to help prevent trauma to sow or littermates
Which is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis? Xenopsylla cheops Dermacentor variabilis Dipylidium caninum Vampirolepis nana
xenopsylla cheops (rat flea)
Ruminants are highly sensitive to ___WHAT DRUG____ when compared with horses, dogs, and cats. They generally require only one-tenth of the dosage required for horses to exhibit the same effect
xylazine
Which of the following drugs is a sedative, analgesic, and also provides muscle relaxation? Tilitamine Ketamine Acepromazine Xylazine
xylazine
Is hookworm zoonotic?
yeS
Which breed is most likely to have a portosystemic shunt? Bedlington terrier Labrador Rottweiler Yorkshire terrier
yorkshire terrier
You are attempting to give an intra-jugular injection to a horse and insert the needle to the hub. Blood is forcefully pulsating and ejecting from the needle. What is the most likely explanation?
you are in the carotid artery
Which of the following is NOT a good recommendation to make to an owner after having had a declaw performed on their cat? Monitor the bandages for slippage Restrict his activity as much as possible Use clay based litter in the litter box Discourage licking or chewing of the toes
you do NOT want to use clay based litter in the litterbox - you want newspaper/paper towels to help the incisions heal
Fluoroquinolones can be used in mature horses but are believed to have adverse effects on....
young horses due to interrupting growing immature cartilage.
Which of the following solutions used for fecal flotation floats protozoal organisms with the least distortion? Sodium nitrate Saturated sodium chloride Formalin Zinc sulfate
zinc sulfate
What is the most commonly used method for fecal parasite testing for dogs and cats?
zinc sulfate centrifugation
What toxicity is caused by ingestion of pennies?
zinc toxicity
Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches?
Cranial nerve V (five) is the Trigeminal nerve and has three major branches
_____________ is the act of swallowing air or "wind sucking" and is thought to be behavioral; can sometimes see the horse biting fences/etc.
Cribbing
What zoonotic pathogen might a technician contract from treating a 10 day old dairy calf with diarrhea?
Cryptosporidium parvum
__________________ Parvum is a protozoan parasite that causes gastroenteritis in animals and humans.
Cryptosporidium parvum
What is the usual vector of western, eastern, and Venezuelan equine encephalitis?
Culex mosquitos
How is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus?
Culture of smegma
A horse is having difficulty breathing. You assist the vet in examining and note that the horse is in respiratory distress. He has dilated pupils and bright red MM. You are asked to pull blood for testing which you note is also bright red in color. What may cause this in the horse?
Cyanide toxicity
A pregnant rodent has what kind of placentation? A) Zonary B) Cotyledonary C) Diffuse D) Discoid
D) Discoid: a placenta in which the chorionic villi are arranged in a circular plate as in human and rodent placentae. IMAGE: C
Cholesterol is necessary for... A) Extracellular transport B) cell membrane production C) urine excretion D) vitamin C metabolism
D) Vitamin C metabolism
Atropine works primarily by... A) Stimulating the sympathetic system B) Blocking the sympathetic system C) Stimulating the parasympathetic system D) Blocking the parasympathetic actions
D) blocking the parasympathetic actions
Which reaction is the result of parasympathetic nervous system? A) bronchodilation B) pupil dilation C) decreased GI motility D) decreased heart rate
D) decreased heart rate
Which condition would be typical of hypothyroidism? A) decreased water consumption B) oily hair coat C) very active D) gaining weight
D) gaining weight NOTE: the others are conditions of hyperthyroidism
Edema would mostly likely develop during or after which of the following conditions? A) Salt deficiency B) dehydration C) low BP D) inactivity
D) inactivity
Which is not a function of insulin? A) increased glucose transport into muscle B) lipogenesis C) fatty acid synthesis D) increased blood pressure
D) increased blood pressure is NOT a function of insulin
Areas with low sensory sensitivity are characterized by... A) nerves with small receptor fields B) overlapping receptor fields C) large numbers of neurons D) lots of convergence
D) lots of convergence
In dairy cattle, the teats and udder are gently washed before milking to stimulate the release of _____________, which causes milk let down. A) Adrenalin B) norepinephrine C) dopamine D) oxytocin
D) oxytocin NOTE: the other drugs would inhibit oxytocin release!
Nociceptors are important for detecting... A) Color B) warmth C) lactic acid D) pain
D) pain.... (sensory pain receptorS)
All of the following are examples of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) that require special treatment or handling EXCEPT which of the choices listed? A) Carcass of a cat that was brought to your clinic dead on arrival upon which you performed a necropsy B) Gauze sponges used in equine surgery to soak up blood C) Needle and syringe used to give chemotherapy to a dog D) Paint-stripping solvents that may release toxic fumes E) Scalpel blade that was used to make a spay incision on a healthy cat
D) paint stripping solvents that may release toxic fumes this choice is because: RMW, also known as biohazardous waste, applies to waste that is potentially infectious; these solvents do require additional consideration when being disposed of, but they are not Regulated Medical Waste
Dehydration will typically not lead to... A) Thirst B) urine with a SG greater than 1.015 C) Increased osmolarity of blood D) Polyuria
D) polyuria
what species is an induced ovulator? a) bovine b) equine c) canine d) feline
D; feline
which muscle cells have single nuclei? a) skeletal and cardiac b) skeletal and smooth c) skeletal only d) smooth and cardiac
D; smooth and cardiac
what happens within the neuron that allows local anesthetics to be effective? a) potassium gates open b) the charge within the cell becomes positive c) the charge within the cell becomes negative d) sodium channels become blocked
D; sodium channels become blocked
What administration is responsible for regulating controlled drugs?
DEA (drug enforcement administration)
The current accepted standard image format for digital radiographs is called
DICOM (digital imaging and communications in medicine)
What is unique about DICOM images?
DICOM image files require special viewing software. This makes it difficult for the images to be altered, which maintains their integrity as a medical document. DICOM files contain information about the patient and study performed, and they can be stored, retrieved, and manipulated.
An example of the popular stool softener, often helpful in patients recovering from anal surgery, is...
DSS (docusate sodium succinate) -- trade name: Colace
A diet high in concentrates or grains may lead to WHAT in cattle?
Decreased rumen pH
Most of the tooth is made up of what kind of tissue
Dentin
New methylene blue (also NMB) is an organic staining agent used in diagnostic cytopathology and histopathology. It is useful for
Determining morphology of cells
As a technician, it will be your responsibility to administer medications in most situations. What is not a common medication administered to horses post-operatively? Why?
Dexamethasone; steroid can result in immunosuppression and secondary infection at the surgical site
An 11-year old male German shepherd dog with previously diagnosed dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) presents to your clinic following a dog fight. The dog is significantly aggressive and resistant to handling. What medication should NOT be used to sedate this patient? WHY? Atropine Butorphanol Midazolam Dexmedetomidine Buprenorphine
Dexmedetomidine; it can cause a significant reduction in cardiac output due to reduced heart rate. It should be avoided whenever possible in patients that have compromised cardiac function.
What common antitussive drug is available OTC?
Dextromethorphan (note: think of "Robitussin DM" = DextroMethorphan)
What is a class IV drug?
Diazepam (Valium)
What laboratory testing stain is used when trying to differentiate white blood cell types?
Diff-Quick stain note: this is the one we used in school
Exocrine secretion of pancreas contains large amounts of...
Digestive enzymes
What are common drugs of plant-origin?
Digoxin and Atropine
How does digoxin work?
Digoxin increases cardiac output by increasing myocardial contractility. It also decreases sympathetic tone and as a result causes increased diuresis and a reduction of edema. The overall result is a reduction in heart size, heart rate, blood volume, and pulmonary and venous pressures.
what type of drug is digoxin?
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. Because of its narrow therapeutic index, blood levels of this drug must be monitored.
These parasites all require an intermediate host. Intermediate hosts are: Dirofilaria (__________), Dipylidium (_________), and Fasciola (___________)
Dirofilaria = mosquito Diplydium = flea Fasciola = snail
What worms can be primarily found in the pulmonary arteries
Dirofilaria immitis worms
What is the first stage of heartworm development?
Dirofilariaimmitis microfilaria
Colic is a common condition in horses. Which of the following is not a common cause of colic? Enterolithiasis Displaced abomasum Intestinal volvulus Intestinal incarceration
Displaced abomasum... "abomasum" does not exist within a horse; that is a ruminent digestive organ
Which method is used to determine the sex of young mice?
Distance between the anus and genitalia
what is a zonary placenta?
Dogs and cats have a zonary placenta. The placenta forms a band of tissue surrounding the fetus. They have an endotheliocorial placenta (only has the uterine endothelium).
A 6-year old Doberman cardiac arrested and was resuscitated. However, the dog has a consistently low systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg. What drug may be prescribed to increase the blood pressure and via what route?
Dopamine increases blood pressure by increasing systemic vascular resistance and is administered via IV - CRI. (this is a positive inotrope)
What is the most common location for placement of an arterial catheter (a-line) in a dog?
Dorsal metatarsal artery
What 2 antibiotics have been associated with esophageal strictures in cats, therefore the liquid preparation is preferred?
Doxycycline and clindamycin
Which antibiotic choice is NOT bactericidal? Cephalexin Doxycycline Baytril Gentamicin
Doxycycline; Tetracyclines (including doxycycline) are bacteriostatic, which means these antibiotics do not kill bacteria (just inhibit growth)
Proximal to distal parts of the small intestine...
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Purple top tube uses and what's in it...
EDTA - anticoagulant, used for CBC
What is the most sensitive and preferred test for detecting Giardia?
ELISA test
This is partly why animals with chronic renal failure become anemic. The kidneys are no longer able to make WHAT efficiently...
EPO (erythropoeitin)
What is the earliest age a dog should be given heartworm preventatives? Latest age?
Earliest age = 6-8wks Latest age = 6 months
____________ are often seen in rattlesnake envenomation on a blood smear.
Echinocytes
Pair the tick with it's rickettsial disease! Rhiphacephalus (brown dog tick) Ixodes (deer tick) Dermacentor
Ehrlichia Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)
What is happening within the x-ray machine when you actually take the x-ray (when you push the pedal fully/when you push the second button)?
Electrons get accelerated and hit the anode
The main stimulus for ventilation is the partial pressure of what gas?
Elevations of carbon dioxide are the main stimulus for respiration.
What are the 4 main functions of the digestive system
Elimination, absorption, digestion, prehension
______________ is the thin layer of cells lining the inside surface of blood vessels.
Endothelium
What drug is commonly used on pocket pets and rabbits because it is not active against the anaerobic flora of the gut?
Enrofloxacin (Baytril)
What cell normally has multi-lobed nuclei
Eosinophils
You are assisting with Coggins testing. What does this test for?
Equine infectious anemia (EIA)
Rumination is a 4 stage process, name the steps
Eructation, reinsalivation, remastication, rediglutition
What organism causes "Diamond Skin Disease" in pigs?
Erysipelas rhusiopathiae
You are called to a pig operation where some of the adult pigs are experiencing sudden death. The vet points out purple skin lesions that look like a "diamonds." What organism causes "Diamond Skin Disease" in pigs?
Erysipelas rhusiopathiae note: erysip diamonds...
Which type of cell should not be found in normal joint fluid? Macrophages Neutrophils Erythrocytes Lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
When a calf is born, milk goes immediately to the omasum and bypasses the rumen and reticulum. Which anatomic structure makes this possible?
Esophageal groove
What suture type is non-absorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration?
Ethilon (Nylon) also: silk, polypropylene
Examples of sulfonamides; what are common side effects?
Examples: Tribrissin, Primor, Albon Side effects commonly associated are: KCS, polyarthritis, hematuria, photosensitivity, and hypothyroidism
Which of the following is a common cause of epistaxis in horses? Allergic rhinitis Tooth abscess Sinus infection Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage
Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage
Which of the following clinical signs is LEAST COMMONLY observed in horses with colic? Pawing with the forelimbs Repeated laying down and getting up Flank watching Kicking at the abdomen with the hindlimbs Frequent rolling Fever
FEVER is uncommon with colic
You are running some blood tests, and the veterinarian asked that the pet be fasted. Why is this necessary? Which tests is this especially important to do this for?
Fasting an animal helps to reduce the lipemia in the blood that can interfere with testing. This is especially important when checking values such as triglycerides and cholesterol.
Ketones are intermediate products of....
Fat metabolism.
Cats can transfer WHAT virus via a bite, through grooming each other, and via sharing food and water dishes/litter boxes, etc. It is also transmitted from an infected mother cat to her kittens either in utero or via nursing.
FeLV
Which feline disease is most commonly transmitted via saliva sharing, such as through food or water bowls, grooming, etc.?
Feline Leukemia Virus
What are some class II drugs?
Fentanyl, along with hydromorphone, methadone, morphine, and pentobarbital
What is the treatment for arterial thromboembolism secondary to cardiomyopathy? What specific drug is more commonly used for this?
Fibrinolytic drug (to dissolve fibrin clot), most common one used for thromboembolism is Streptokinase
What is the structure of the fetal heart that allows blood to bypass pulmonary circulation
Foramen ovale
A patient presents with rodenticide toxicity and is hemorrhaging. The doctor decides the animal needs a transfusion. What blood product is most likely to help stop the patient's bleeding?
Fresh frozen plasma
Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) are the most common arrhythmia after what surgeries?
GDV/splenectomy
What is the correct order from least-to-most radiodense (darkest-to-whitest on the film)? choices: bone, fat, metal, soft tissue & fluid, gas
Gas, fat, soft tissue and fluid, bone, metal
least to most radiodense...
Gas, fat, soft tissue and fluid, bone, metal
What is the term when botfly larvaes are found within the horses stomach?
Gasterophilus
What could be used for hemostasis at the site of a liver punch biopsy?
Gelfoam
Which of the following drugs would be the most likely to cause a nephrotoxicity? Amoxicillin Gentamicin Enrofloxacin Cephalexin
Gentamicin (aminoglycosides)
What is one way to help determine if a nasogastric tube was properly placed in a horse?
Gently blow air into the tube and listen for gurgling
While performing an epidural on a dog, your needle begins to fill with a clear pale straw colored fluid, what is the appropriate action?
Getting CSF in the needle means you have punctured the ligamentum flavum and the needle has entered the subarachnoid space. Only half of the dose should be administered.
What is a human, oral anti-diabetic agent that may be used in certain non-insulin dependent diabetic cats?
Glipizide (Glucotrol)
Glipizide, also known as _______________, is used to treat WHAT?
Glucotrol, non-insulin dependent diabetic cats
how to tell the difference between gram negative and gram positive bacteria.
Gram negative bacteria lose the primary complex, take up the secondary dye safranin, and appear red or pink in color. Gram-positive bacteria will retain the crystal violet iodine and appear dark blue or purple.
You are monitoring an adult cat under anesthesia. Since induction, the heart has been slowing down. What is the approximate lowest acceptable heart rate for this cat?
HR should not fall below 100-120
What equine gastrointestinal parasite, when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mucous membranes, is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores?
Habronema spp. (equine roundworm normally of the stomach)
Which of the following techniques should NOT be performed when trying to stimulate breathing in a newborn calf? Pour cold water over the calf's head. Use of a respiratory stimulant such as doxapram. Place a finger or piece of straw in the calf's nose. Use of acupuncture points on the muzzle. Hang the calf off the ground by its back legs and shake or swing it to stimulate breathing.
Hang the calf off the ground by its back legs and shake or swing it to stimulate breathing.
When cattle are placed in lateral recumbency during general anesthesia, how should the head be positioned to decrease the risk of aspiration? why?
Head and oral cavity lower than the neck; decreases chances of aspiration
______________ are round structures seen in red blood cells that represent denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative damage.
Heinz bodies
_______________ virus is a very serious and often deadly zoonotic disease that can be carried by macaque monkeys.
Herpes B Virus
examples of colloids
Hetastarch, blood products (whole blood, plasma, etc.), and Dextrans.
Oculosympathetic palsy is also known as.. and is..
Horner's syndrome, damage to sympathetic nerves
_______________ are basophilic nuclear remnants seen in red blood cells; increased numbers are seen after splenectomy.
Howell-Jolly bodies
For bone marrow aspirations, the most common collection sites in the dog are
Humeral head, femoral canal, and iliac crest
The viscosity of synovial fluid is directly related to what component in the fluid?
Hyaluronic acid
What is the most common and life-threatening metabolic abnormality in a cat with a urethral obstruction?
Hyperkalemia (because a majority of potassium is excreted in the urine usually)
Patients with chronic renal failure generally have an increase in WHAT electrolyte? What are the drugs of choice? Why?
Hyperphosphatemia (phosphate), treated with Amphogel - Basialjel because they bind phosphate when given with food so that it isn't absorbed by the GI
What fly causes "warbles" in cattle?
Hypoderma bovis is the warble fly whose larvae cause "warbles" or bumps under the skin in cattle.
Bacterial sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?
Hypoglycemia is an important finding in patients with sepsis. and Neutropenia.
Old Optic Ostriches Trot Triumphantly About Fresh Vegetable Gardens Valiantly And Happily
I-Olfactory nerve (smell) II-Optic nerve III-Oculomotor nerve IV-Trochlear nerve V-Trigeminal nerve (sensory to the face) VI-Abducens nerve VII-Facial nerve VIII-Vestibulocochlear nerve IX-Glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory for gag reflex) X-Vagus nerve (motor for gag reflex) XI-Accessory nerve XII-Hypoglossal nerve
list all the cranial nerves and their connections to the body's responses...
I-Olfactory nerve (smell) II-Optic nerve III-Oculomotor nerve IV-Trochlear nerve V-Trigeminal nerve (sensory to the face) VI-Abducens nerve VII-Facial nerve VIII-Vestibulocochlear nerve IX-Glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory for gag reflex) X-Vagus nerve (motor for gag reflex) XI-Accessory nerve XII-Hypoglossal nerve Old Optic Ostriches Trot Triumphantly About Fruit & Vegetable Gardens Valiantly And Happily
Ferrets are what types of ovulators
INDUCED (like cats!)
What signs are most often seen in a cat with heartworm disease?
If they do show symptoms, they are typically respiratory in nature (coughing, wheezing). Chronic vomiting can also be a sign.
____ is the only class of antibody to cross the placenta from mother to fetus
IgG
The chordae tendinae can be found where
In both A-V valves of the heart
Three methods to INCREASE radiographic density (blackness of film).
Increase energy of X-rays; increase the number of photons; decrease distance from source to film
Respiratory obstruction leads to accumulation of carbon dioxide. This leads to...
Increased PCO2 results in lower blood pH. This is respiratory acidosis.
If the kidney has a drop in blood flow and a part of the kidney dies, what would this area be termed?
Infarcted
What nerve blocks can be used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for a dental extraction of the mandibular teeth?
Inferior alveolar block and mental nerve block
define cotyledonary placenta
Instead of having a single large area of contact between maternal and fetal vascular systems, these animals have numerous smaller placentae
Where is the bundle of His located? What's the pathway?
Interventricular septum of the heart. It conducts impulses FROM the AV node and TO the purkinje fibers
You have a small canine patient in cardiac arrest that needs emergency drugs. The animal does not have venous access, and placing a venous catheter would be too difficult and take too long. What is the best way to get the drugs to this animal quickly?
Intraosseous catheter
What three parts make up the uvea in the eye?
Iris, choroid, ciliary body
Which nutrient must piglets be supplemented with?
Iron (to prevent anemia)
A dog is hit by a car and presents in a Schiff-Sherrington posture. What does this mean?
It causes paralysis of the hind limbs; fore limbs stiff and stretched out
A dog with hypothyroidism comes in to have his blood drawn to check his thyroid level. He has been on Levothyroxine since he was first diagnosed. How many hours after the thyroid medication is given should the blood be drawn?
It is best to draw the blood 4-6 hours after medication is given because that is when the thyroid level is at its highest peak
A dog with hypothyroidism comes in to have his blood drawn to check his thyroid level. He has been on Levothyroxine since he was first diagnosed. How many hours after the thyroid medication is given should the blood be drawn?
It is best to draw the blood 4-6 hours after medication is given because that is when the thyroid level is at its highest peak.
what does the fructosamine level tell you about your patient?
It is used to assist in monitoring the effectiveness of insulin therapy in diabetic pets, and is useful in differentiating stress hyperglycemia from diabetes.
______________ can cause depression, paralysis, coma, or death in chelonians (which are...), so this drug should never be administered to them.
Ivermectin ; turtles/tortoises
what is the longest portion of the small intestine?
Jejunum - also does the most absorption in the sm intestine
The sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of what species? What is this structure?
Just proximal to the cecum is a gastrointestinal structure containing a large amount of lymphoid tissue called the sacculus rotundus which has some immune function. It is present only in lagomorphs. (aka rabbits)
Pilocarpine is used for.... What type of drug is this?
KCS or glaucoma it is a cholinergic agonist, miotic (constricts pupil) - parasympathomimetic
Cyclosporine ophthalmic ointment is most often used in treating which condition?
KCS/dry eye
Bismuth subsalicylate (otherwise known as: _______________) is used for....
Kaopectate/Peptobismul, for indigestion and diarrhea
Amphotericin B is often used in cases of resistant fungal infections, such as occurs with diseases like Coccidioides immitis. This medication is known for the potential to cause severe damage to which organ?
Kidneys
What components or settings influence x-ray beam quality?
KvP and filter
Where are the purkinje fibers located
L and R ventricles of the heart
What hormone is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum?
LH (luteinizing hormone)
What hormone stimulates ovulation?
LH (luteinizing hormone)
What is the largest gland in normal adult animal body
LIVER
milk fever when seen in dairy cows causes...
LOW fever... unlike in dogs (high fever occurs)
A celiotomy is another name for
Laparotomy
Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs?
Left jugular vein
You are assisting with exams on 1-week old piglets. What method of restraint will you use?
Lift the piglet by its rear leg
For the following animals; what are the gestation periods? Llama Horse Cow Sheep/Goat Pig Dog/Cat Ferret
Llama = 1 year Horse = 11-12 months Cow = 283 days/9months Sheep/Goats = 150 days (5 months) Pigs = 4 months (114 days) Dog/Cat = 63 days (2 months) Ferret = 1.5 months (42 days)
After parturition, it is normal for the bitch to have a reddish brown vaginal discharge for a few weeks. This discharge is referred to as....
Lochia
What diet should be fed to a diabetic?
Low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet
What hormone causes the follicle to ovulate? Then the follicle becomes..
Luteinizing hormone then the follicle becomes the corpus luteum
What cell has large nuclei normally, and are important for immunity?
Lymphocytes
This media contains the indicator phenol red.
MSA (mannitol salt agar)
In dogs, what are the permanent teeth with 2 roots?
Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 & 2. Maxilla PM 2
How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a dog? which teeth are they?
Maxillary teeth only: 6; P4, M1, and M2
If hypochromasia is identified in a blood smear, which value on a complete blood count would one anticipate to be decreased? Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration Red cell distribution width Mean corpuscular volume Red blood cell count
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
You are asked to place a nasal oxygen tube in a dog. What is the measurement for placement of nasal oxygen?
Measure to the medial canthus of the eye
What are the common benign eyelid tumors in dogs?
Meibomian gland tumors
What drug will a dog receive for killing adult heartworms?
Melarsomine AKA immiticide (note: "ARSenic" drug, sounds more aggressive, for the adults)
What are the specialized epithelial cells that line the internal organs and body wall in the peritoneal and pleural cavities and line the pericardium?
Mesothelial cells
What is a Knott's test is useful for detecting?
Microfiliariae
What kind of drug is misoprostol? What is the trade name?
Misoprostol is a synthetic (man-made) prostaglandin; also under the name Cytotec
A degenerative left shift implies... whereas in a regenerative shift there are
More neutrophilic bands than normal neutrophils more normal neutrophils than bands
______________________, remember the word "milk," is often given as a constant rate infusion for pain in dogs.
Morphine, lidocaine, and ketamine (MLK)
The small intestine is made up of four layers. What are these layers from inside to outside?
Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
The small intestine is made up of four layers. Which of the following describes these layers from inside to outside?
Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
You are helping the neurologist with a Tensilon test in a dog. Tensilon is the trade name for edrophonium chloride. By administering this drug, you are testing for what disease?
Myasthenia gravis
What is the genus of the causative agent of Johne's disease?
Mycobacterium
The neutrophil lineage, from most immature to mature, proceeds as follows:
Myeloblast, promyelocyte, neutrophilic myelocyte, neutrophilic metamyelocyte, neutrophilic band, neutrophil.
What procedure requires the use of contrast (dye)? Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) CT scan Arthroscopy Ultrasound Myelogram
Myelogram
Demodectic mange signs...
NOT pruritic commonly cause alopecia with lesions
phenylbutazone is what class of drug
NSAID
Banamine is what kind of drug? What species is this commonly used for?
NSAID for horses
What is piroxicam? When is it contraindicated?
NSAID with some anti-cancer properties against transitional cell tumors and nasal adenocarcinomas in dogs. Contraindicated with dogs that have renal failure.
Phenylbutazone is what kind of drug? and what precautions must be taken with this drug?
NSAID; do not give outside of the vein (sloughing can occur) and in humans can cause aplastic anemia
Flunixin and phenylbutazone are both types of....
NSAIDs
what is mucomyst used for relating to horses
Nebulized acetylcysteine is used for the treatment of meconium and milk aspiration in the neonatal foal. Acetylcysteine retention enemas may be used to treat refractory meconium impactions. It is also used as a mucolytic agent in intra-uterine infusions, and in the treatment of chondroids of the guttural pouch.
You are asked to administer an intramuscular injection to a beef cow. Where should you administer it?
Neck muscles
Parvoviral enteritis causes severe vomiting and diarrhea, which leads to dehydration and often sepsis and fever. The sepsis (overwhelming infection) leads to what laboratory changes?
Neutropenia and hypoglycemia
List the granulocytes
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
What is the most common blade-size used for incising an animals skin?
No. 10
what is the normal for bile acids test - vs when would you be concerned?
Normally, bile acids increase after a meal due to release from the gall bladder, but they do not increase too much because they are reabsorbed by the liver through the portal circulation. In animals with liver dysfunction, including portosystemic shunts, bile acids are not reabsorbed and accumulate in the systemic circulation after a meal.
What are common ace-inhibitor drugs
Note that ace-inhibitor drugs usually end in a "pril". Examples: benazapril, captopril, enalapril
Feline scabies is caused by the mite known as...
Notoedres cati
In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, you are most concerned about damage to WHAT nerve?
Obturator nerve paralysis (ONP) is most common.
What is OSHA?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
The ruminant forestomach that mostly dehydrates and grinds feed is the...
Omasum
If a pulmonary metastatic lesion is visible on a right lateral radiograph but not on a left lateral radiograph, where is the lesion most likely to be?
One of the left lung lobes
What is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis?
Oppossum
what are the side effects of acetylcysteine/mucomyst?
Oral administration: nausea, vomiting, and hypersensitivity. Oral acetylcysteine tastes terrible. In some cases it is preferable to administer via NG tube. Acetylcysteine liquid is unstable at room temperature.
Contagious ecthyma is a disease that causes painful oral ulcerations, pustules, and scabs. It is most often seen in sheep and goats, and is more commonly known as
Orf
What is the parapox virus called that is zoonotic and found orally in sheep and goats?
Orf
Which parasite is the most important cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle and is commonly known as the brown stomach worm? (also most common GI parasite in cattle)
Ostertagia ostertagi
"spinous ear ticks". What is the proper name for this parasite?
Otobius megnini
______________ is an antibiotic commonly used in food animals.
Oxytetracycline
The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with the arterial wall depolarization is the...
P wave
____________ is a drug used in food animals to influence the estrous cycle.
PGF2-alpha
symptoms of pyometra...
PU/PD, pyrexia (fever), decreased appetite
What is another common name for herpes infection in psittacine birds?
Pacheco's disease
What endocrine organ functions and produces many digestive enzymes
Pancreas
While the doctor is pinching along the dogs back on either side of the spine, the skin twitches, causing contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle. Which reflex specifically is being tested?
Panniculus reflex
what is the lungworm of cats called?
Paragonimus kellicotti
What is the term for equine roundworm?
Parascaris equorum note: "ascari"d = round worm
What internal parasite is a threat to young (but typically not adult) horses? causing what?
Parascaris equorum - can cause poor growth and a pot-bellied appearance. A more severe problem occurs when the small intestine becomes obstructed from a heavy worm burden.
What over-the-counter medication is sometimes given for diarrhea?
Pepto-Bismul AKA Bismuth subsalicylate
What are some examples of cholinergic drugs used in animal medicine?
Pilocarpine, Metaclopramide (Reglan)
An 11-year old female spayed dog is diagnosed with a bladder tumor. She is still able to pass urine, but she strains towards the end of her urination and needs to go out frequently. Her bloodwork is unremarkable. What medication is sometimes prescriped specifically to alleviate symptoms from bladder tumors in dogs?
Piroxicam is a NSAID that has some anti-cancer properties
What is the proper technique for making bone-marrow slides?
Place a drop on one end of the slide, tilt slightly and make a pull smear
You are assisting with a bone marrow aspirate on a dog with suspected neoplasia. You are asked to make slides to send to the laboratory with the samples the veterinarian is collecting. Which describes proper technique for this?
Place a drop on one end of the slide, tilt slightly and make a pull smear; you want it to dry fast
Define the parts of a tortoise: Plastron Carapace
Plastron is the bottom part of the shell Carapace is the top part of the shell
______________ forceps will help keep the fracture properly reduced while a bone plate is being applied.
Point-to-point
Why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term (> 7 days) use in horses?
Polyurethane catheters (such as those made by Mila) are the least reactive and thrombogenic
What is cholestasis?
Poor flow of bile from the liver to the GI tract (duodenum)
what is the treatment for tapeworm?
Praziquantel (Droncit)
In a pregnant mare, "red bag" delivery implies what situation?
Premature placental separation; THIS IS A MEDICAL EMERGENCY
What is digoxin usually prescribed for?
Prescribed usually for: Congestive heart-failure, cardiac arrhythmias, atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachycardia.
Trade name for omeprazole?
Prilosec
A female dog has some vaginal bleeding, swollen vulva, and attracts males but will not allow them to mount. What stage of the estrus cycle is she in?
Proestrus...but when the female will stand to be mounted, she is in estrus.
stages of estrus....
Proestrus: vaginal discharge, males attracted to females, females unwilling to mate Estrus: swollen vulva, yellowish vaginal discharge, mating occurs during this phase. Metestrus (or Diestrus): the period after estrus or mating. Anestrus: the period of inactivity (sexual and hormonal) between estrus phases.
What are the segments of tapeworm that looks like rice in the animals feces?
Proglottids (eggs)
Myositis in a horse can occur as a result of which of the following? A blood lactate level of 1.0 mg/dl and higher will result in myositis Administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories prior to anesthesia will result in myositis Prolonged recumbency during anesthesia Intraoperative hypertension will result in myositis
Prolonged recumbency during anesthesia
The cardiologist prescribes the drug propanolol to a canine patient. What effect will this medication have on the heart? What is the category of this drug?
Propanolol is a Beta-1 and Beta-2 blocker. It blocks the sympathetic nervous system (sympatholytic) which allows for the parasympathetic effects on the heart to dominate. The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart.
What common injectable medication comes in an emulsion containing egg lecithin and soybean oil?
Propofol
___________ can be one of the first things seen if there is damage to the kidneys
Proteinuria
Culture or draining lesions of which bacteria gives a characteristic sweet smell?
Pseudomonas
Which of the following in an example of a Gram-negative bacterium? Clostridium Leptospira Pseudomonas Lactobacillus Staphylococcus
Pseudomonas
In cattle, this disease causes intense itching, also known as "mad itch", then seizures and death.
Pseudorabies
What is the name for the muscle group that includes the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius?
Quadriceps
Birds and reptiles have nucleated...
RBC's
what cells have the highest specific gravity?
RBCs
What species are more common to develop dental caries?
Rabbits, chinchillas, and dogs
For a centrifuge, the relationship between revolutions per minute (RPM) and relative centrifugal force (g or RCF) can be calculated based on....
Radius of the centrifuge head
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to
Rate of blood flow to the kidneys
When performing a major cross-match when a blood transfusion is necessary, What samples are mixed?
Recipient serum with donor erythrocytes
When performing a major cross-match when a blood transfusion is necessary...
Recipient serum with donor erythrocytes
What do mast cells release?
Release histamine and heparin Note the very granular appearance
In radiation safety, what is the difference between the "rad" and the "rem"?
Rem applies a quality factor to rad
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) is also known as...
Rickettsia rickettsii
What condition in rats results from living in an area with the humidity too low?
Ringtail; where the blood supply has been compromised
Sporothrix schenckii. This is a zoonotic disease also known as what in humans?
Rose gardener's disease
The erythorocyte lineage, from most immature to mature, proceeds as follows:
Rubriblast, prorubricyte, basophilic rubricyte, polychromatophilic rubricyte, metarubricyte, reticulocyte.
What is the fermentation vat seen in the ruminant digestive system
Rumen
Largest ruminant forestomach is called the
Rumen ("fermentation vat")
The correct order of the ruminant digestive system in regards to the chambers of their stomach is:
Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum.
Define each part of SOAP briefly...
S: subjective; history O: objective; facts (weight, temp, etc)/physical exam A: assessment; problem list and rule-outs P: plan; next steps in evaluation
In the healthy heart, the heartbeat is initiated by the...
SA node
what is the heart's dominant pacemaker?
SA node
In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart?
SA node, AV node, bundle of his, purkinje fiber
If phenylbutazone is given perivascularly, what is likely to happen?
SEVERE tissue necrosis
The pulse oximeter measures what variable?
Saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen
_________ is the common term for diarrhea in calves.
Scours
___________________ is a very common arrhythmia in adult horses as a result of high vagal tone. This arrhythmia is "regularly irregular" and often alleviates with exercise. It is more common in athletic horses.
Second degree AV block
What is the outermost layer of the digestive tract
Serosa
What test would be most helpful in the diagnosis of feline pancreatitis?
Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI)
What test is best for evaluating a dog with possible exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
Serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)
What type of blood body fluid cannot clot
Serum. Does not contain fibrinogen.
In regards to gas anesthesia in the horse, choose the correct order, from most commonly used to least commonly used.
Sevoflurane, Halothane, Isoflurane
Stomach to anus digestive tract is lined with what kind of epithelium
Simple columnar
The circulatory system is lined by what kind of epithelium
Simple squamous
The main component of the tunica media of muscular arteries is...
Smooth muscle fibers
A cat has a blood pH of 6.4 which is low, or acidic. WHAT DRUG can increase the blood pH for short term.
Sodium bicarbonate
Fleet (also known as ______________) enemas, are contraindicated in what species?
Sodium phosphate, contraindicated in CATS
What is the lymphoid organ that is not essential to life?
Spleen
____________ is a cigar-shaped yeast and is typically found in soil and vegetation in coastal regions or river valleys.
Sporothrix
Give the THREE stages of rabies...
Stage 1) prodromal: change in attitude Stage 2) furious: bite, snap, and attack for no reason Stage 3) paralytic: Excessive salivation and change in bark
greasy pig disease (exudative epidermitis) is caused by...
Staphylococcus hyicus
Ketones in the urine may be caused by unregulated diabetes (diabetic ketoacidosis). What is another potential cause of ketonuria?
Starvation
A guinea pig presents with swollen glands in the neck. What organism most often causes this problem?
Streptococcus zooepidemicus
What type of muscle is the heart?
Striated muscle, involuntary
Larvae of what parasite are commonly transmitted to foals in the mare's milk causing diarrhea
Strongyloides westeri
What organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse?
Strongylus vulgaris
What is a ranula?
Sublingual mucocele
What is a ranula?
Sublingual mucocele (found under tongue)
A coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is.... How does this work?
Sucralfate binds with hydrochloric acid in the stomach (AKA give on an empty stomach!)
There are many plants that can accumulate cyanide to levels that are toxic to horses. They include
Sudan and Johnson grasses, cherries (chokecherries), and Sorghum
Sievert (Sv) = ___ rem
Sv = 100 rem
What is the another word for tapeworm eggs?
Taenia
The "hock joint" of a horse is more appropriately identified as what structure?
Tarsocrural joint (composed of numerous bones)
A bone scan is a nuclear medicine test that involves administration of a bone-seeking radioisotope known as...
Technetium phosphate
Myasthenia gravis can sometimes be diagnosed with what 2 tests?
Tensilon test; acetylcholine receptor antibody test (ARAT)
What drug class may lead to bone or teeth problems if given to young animals?
Tetracyclines
Two species of cattle warble are..
The 2 species are H. bovis and H. lineatum.
what is the difference between a TBT test and APTT/PT tests?
The APTT and PT determine if there are deficiencies in the coagulation factors and do not assess platelet function; TBT test assesses platelet function
______________________ injection protocol describes an ACTH stimulation test which is a measure of adrenal gland function
The Cortrosyn (cosyntropin)
NAVTA stands for?
The National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America
how to clip an abdomen for a laparotomy
The abdomen should be clipped widely with at least 2 cm margins cranial to the xiphoid and 2 cm caudal to the pubis.
describe the flea life cycle...
The adult female feeds, mates, and lays eggs on the host. Eggs usually fall off into the environment. After several days to weeks, the eggs hatch into larvae that feed on skin debris or other organic matter in the environment and then create a cocoon and pupate. The pupa then develops over 10 days or can remain in the environment considerably longer before emerging as an adult flea. This fact is important because this is why treating the host for fleas is not enough to eradicate a flea problem, as the environment is frequently contaminated and can re-infest the host after treatment.
The ________ attaches the ileum to the colon to form the
The cecum; forms the ileocecal-colic junction.
What is a sarcolemma?
The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber
What error in taking and processing a radiograph would result in a completely clear film?
The exposed film was put in fixer before developer
When taking a lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog, where should the field be CENTERED?
The film should be centered at the 5th rib and caudal border of the scapula
Where to give SQ injection in a snake...
The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales.
What is the commonly used venipuncture site for pigs?
The right anterior vena cava
Approximately 5ccs of an inhalant anesthetic is spilled while the vaporizer on an anesthetic machine is being filled. What course of action should be taken?
The vaporizer should be closed and the room well ventilated
You are asked to take a DLPMO radiograph of a horse's fetlock with a portable x-ray unit. Where will the x-ray unit be and where should the film cassette be?
The x-ray beam should come from the more dorsal side of the limb, and the film will be on the more medial aspect of the limb
what is another name for "the eyeworm"? How is it transmitted?
Thelazia; transmitted by Diptera flies
When are ace-inhibitor drugs commonly used? (with what common diseases)
They are most commonly used in cases of heart and kidney disease
define analytic variables...
Things that affect the way a test might vary between laboratories, usually depending on the type of instrumentation or the conditions under which an assay is run.
A multi-lumen jugular catheter must be placed in a canine with renal disease for CVP monitoring. To what anatomical landmark should the catheter be inserted to?
Third thoracic vertebrae
Where would you find Anaplasma marginale? What type of disease is this?
This is a rickettsial disease, and the organisms are found in the red blood cells of cattle.
Guinea pigs are born "precocious" what does that mean?
This means their eyes are open and they are aware and can see and hear and walk from birth.
when is digoxin administered? (what is wrong with the patient?)
This medication is used most often in certain cases of congestive heart failure (CHF), atrial fibrillation (AFibb), and supraventricular tachycardias (SVT).
what is the obturator nerve
This nerve is responsible for adducting the hind limbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs.
Why do ACTH levels get tested?
To check if Addison's (hypoadrenocorticism) is adrenal or pituitary originated
Why are oblique radiographic views of certain joints typically obtained?
To decrease superimposition of structures
What is the function of the screen of an X-ray cassette?
To decrease the exposure necessary to create an image on the film
In regards to rabbit anesthesia, why is the use of sedative premeds given prior to inducing anesthesia using a mask or induction chamber to deliver gas agents such as Isoflurane?
To help prevent breath holding
A 7-year old Saint Bernard dog has a lesion of the left distal radius that is highly suspicious for a bone tumor (osteosarcoma). Prior to surgery, a bone scan is ordered and performed. What is the main reason for this study?
To identify possible additional bone lesions (other than the left radius lesion) that may represent bony metastases
Why should pigs be fed from a bin or trough and not on the ground?
To prevent development of trichobezoars (hair balls)
what is mucomyst used for topically?
Topical acetylcysteine is used commonly on its own, or in combination with antibiotics or antifungal drugs of the treatment of KCS and corneal ulcers.
When collecting an arterial blood sample, the best location to obtain arterial blood in the standing adult horse is where?
Transverse facial artery
_______________, otherwise known as trichomoniasis, is a venereal disease of cattle that causes WHAT?
Trichomonas fetus infertility and abortions
What is the protozoan found only in the reproductive tract of the bovine?
Trichomonas fetus/trichomoniasis
What is the name for the triangular region of the bladder where the ureters and urethra are connected to the bladder?
Trigone; smooth triangular part of the internal urinary bladder formed by the two ureteral openings and the internal urethral opening.
A chihuahua is diagnosed with pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism. Which of the following medications may be used for treating Cushing's disease in this patient?
Trilostane
Cushing's is commonly treated with
Trilostane
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye) can result from the use of what medication?
Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS); The sulfa drugs can cause dry eye in some patients
What is rabbit fever also known as and what is it caused by?
Tularemia ; caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis
There are 4 types of hypersensitivity:
Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity -- ie atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity -- ie autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease -- ie Glomerulonephritis Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity -- ie contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).
What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity... Give examples for each.
Type I: inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. IE: atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II: antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. IE: autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III: immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. IE: Glomerulonephritis. Type IV: delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. such as certain contact allergies (ie: poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs)
What brings fresh, O2 rich blood from placenta to developing fetus?
Umbilical vein
What is the dental formula for the adult horse (i.e. incisor-canine-premolar-molar)?
Upper: 3-1-4-3 / Lower: 3-1-3-3
For taking a diagnostic radiograph, what techniques will reduce the amount of scatter radiation that reaches a film?
Use of a grid with a Potter-Bucky diaphragm and putting the cassette & film further from patient
Which of the following principles will always improve radiographic image quality? Use the lowest kilovoltage (kVp) setting and the highest milliampere (mA) that adequately exposes the film as possible Use the highest kilovoltage (kVp) setting and the lowest milliampere (mA) that adequately exposes the film as possible Use the highest milliampere (mA) setting and lowest time (s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs Use the lowest milliampere (mA) setting and the highest time (s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs
Use the highest milliampere (mA) setting and lowest time (s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs
You are on a house call with the veterinarian to evaluate some goats that are having "night blindness" per the owner. Upon arrival you can see that the goats have a dull haircoat, are very thin, and have nasal discharge. What deficiency can cause these symptoms?
VITAMIN A
Which of the following is not a nutrient that provides energy? Vitamins Fats Carbohydrates Proteins
VITAMINS do not provide energy
Stimulation of the Vagus nerve results in....
Vagal stimulation slows the heart rate.
Diazepam trade name
Valium
CO2 rich blood goes into the R. Atrium via....
Vena cava
_____________________ is a severely abnormal heart rhythm that is most often identified in patients that have undergone cardiac arrest.
Ventricular fibrillation
Trilostane's trade name is
Vetoryl (Treats Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism))
The surface area of the small intestinal lining is increased by....
Villi
______________ deficiency can cause poor wool production and white-muscle disease in sheep...
Vit E and Selenium
You are working in the emergency clinic and are assisting with treating a dog that has been hit by a car. You are asked to set up for a blood transfusion, and the doctor would like you to give whole blood. A whole blood transfusion would include which of the following components?
WBC, RBC, platelets, plasma
What is a symptom of myasthenia gravis?
Weakness and muscle fatigue
A castrated male goat is known as a:
Wether
How can Cushing's disease (naturally) occur?
When the adrenal glands produce too much cortisol. This can be due to a functional adrenal tumor or due to a functional pituitary tumor that secretes ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) which stimulates cortisol secretion from the adrenal gland.
Osteoporosis is...
Where bones become weak and brittle
define the "Heel effect"
X-ray distribution in diagnostic X-ray units is uneven, with the beam being most intense at the cathode side of the machine and weakest at the anode side
What two drugs are common sedatives for horses? What type of drugs are these?
Xylazine and Detomidine. Both of these drugs are alpha 2-adrenergic agonists used for their sedative and analgesic effects.
What is malassezia?
Yeast organisms Commonly found on skin and ear cytologies Note the bowling pin shape
You pull a 6 year old film out of a folder to compare to radiographs that you took today. The old film appears to have yellow-brown staining. What is the likely cause of this?
Yellow-brown staining over time is the result of incomplete removal of chemicals (usually from the fixer) during the final washing step in film development
__________________ is a gram-negative bacterium and has a bipolar safety-pin appearance.
Yersinia Pestis
While performing the epidural you get blood in the hub of the spinal needle. What does this mean and what should you do?
You have entered the venous sinus, you should withdraw the needle and start over.
How many upper incisors does a goat have?
ZERO
The three types of acid-fast stains are
Ziehl-Neelson, Kinyoun, and fluorochrome
A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation? A) Zonary B) Cotyledonary C) Diffuse D) Discoid
Zonary: The placenta takes the form of a complete or incomplete band of tissue surrounding the fetus. IMAGE: D
Lincosamides (such as lincomycin and clindamycin) are contraindicated for use in which species of animal?
___________ are contraindicated in horses, ruminants, rodents, and rabbits. Can cause severe GI effects and may result in death.
Tyzzer's disease is... and is caused by...
a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium piliforme
Alpha hemolysis is partial hemolysis, creating what on the blood agar
a band of slimy discoloration around a bacterial colony
FIV is more commonly transferred via
a bite
The ergot is
a callus-type structure on the underside of the fetlock.
Quinidine is...
a class 1 antiarrhythmic medication (used mostly in horses)
A cyst is...
a closed-off sac that may contain fluid, air, semi-solid material, etc.
How does a bile acids test work?
a fasted blood sample is drawn and a post-feeding blood sample is drawn to compare bile acid levels.
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when
a fertilized egg has implanted outside the uterus, most often in the fallopian tubes. (can be deadly)
Ctenocephalides is...
a flea
an oblique fracture is...
a fracture which goes at an angle to the axis
spiral fracture is...
a fracture which runs around the axis of the bone
Iodine deficiency in goats most often causes
a goiter
Acepromazine should be avoided in patients with....
a history of seizures
What is oxytocin?
a hormone that caused increased contraction of the uterus during labor and stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts.
Strongylus vulgaris is..
a large intestinal worm in horses that can migrate to the anterior mesenteric artery
A nadir is
a low point, often used to describe the lowest blood sugar during a glucose curve
what is progestin
a natural or synthetic steroid hormone, such as progesterone, that maintains pregnancy and prevents further ovulation during pregnancy.
an epulis is..
a non-malignant oral tumor
With small animal anesthesia, as a general rule, any patient under 7 kilograms should be placed on what type of breathing circuit?
a nonrebreathing circuit
A food trial should consist of
a novel protein and a novel carbohydrate source such as Rabbit, Duck, Venison, etc. Another option is a diet with hydrolyzed proteins such that the body cannot form an immune response (Z/D)
A decubital ulcer is the proper term for
a pressure sore
A decubital ulcer is the proper term for
a pressure sore.
Renal azotemia is caused by
a primary problem with the kidneys (acute or chronic kidney failure)
A pneumocystogram is
a radiograph of the bladder taken after insertion of a urinary catheter, draining of the urine, and injection of air (negative contrast) into the bladder via the catheter.
A glucose curve is a common way to monitor diabetic regulation. Describe how this process works?
a series of blood glucose values are taken (typically every 2 hours) to help determine how effective the insulin is reducing the glucose level. It helps to determine when the glucose starts to decrease and then increase again to determine how long the insulin worked for
Seborrhea is
a skin condition characterized by either greasy skin from excessive sebum (overproductive glands in the skin), or dry skin characterized by flaking scales.
what is progesterone
a steroid hormone released by the corpus luteum that stimulates the uterus to prepare for pregnancy.
what is obstructive shock? give examples.
a type of cardiogenic shock, caused by an obstruction of blood flow. Examples of this include heartworm, pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE), or pericardial disease
to achieve normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches to what structure? a) endometrium b) placenta c) oviduct d) cervix
a; endometrium (lining of the uterus)
EHV-1 causes
abortion in horses
When using xylazine with bovine, the dosing is.... and why?
about 1/10 of equine dosing because they are especially sensitive to this drug
When performing CPCR (cerebro-cardio pulmonary resuscitation) in lateral recumbency, how far should you press down on the chest during compressions?
about 1/3 of chest width
How much lubrication does the 3rd eyelid provide?
about 1/3 of the eye's lubrication. which is why it is not recommended to remove.
The estrous cycle of the mare is how long?
about 21 days in length
A systolic blood pressure above ___ and below ___ mmHg is ideal for a cat or dog.
above 90, below 160
What is a localized accumulation of pus in the body known as?
abscess
Rad and rem are both OLD units of types of
absorbed dose that can be applied to either personnel or patient
What two common sedatives do NOT have reversals?
acepromazine and propofol
Phenothiazine antiemetics include....
acepromazine, chlorapromazine, prochlorperazine
Mucomyst =
acetylcysteine
Calcium oxalate dihydrate crystals usually form in what environment?
acidic urine Note; CalCium oxalate dihydrate = aCidiC
"Lumpy jaw" is caused by
actinomyces bovis
What is the reticulum function in a cows stomach?
acts as a conduit for food and helps pace the contractions of the rumen
Granular casts in large numbers may be indicative of...
acute renal disease
Which disease can cause a severe bradycardia that could be life-threatening? Addison's disease Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Cushing's disease Portosystemic shunt
addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
What is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?
adjust light intensity note: think of rheo"stat" like a thermo"stat" to adjust intensity!
The licensure we receive before being able to practice as a veterinary technician is an example of which branch of ethics?
administrative ethics
Cortisol is a steroid hormone, or glucocorticoid, produced by the
adrenal glands
Epinephrine is made by the...
adrenal glands
sensory nerves are considered... a) afferent nerves b) efferent nerves c) motor nerves d) efferent motor nerves
afferent
what is pet signalment?
age, spay/neuter status, and breed
what is the treatment of choice for psittacosis?
aka Parrot Fever/Chlamydiosis; tx with doxycycline
Where is the sinoatrial node located?
aka SA node, Right atrium
____________ provides oncotic pressure which helps maintain fluid in the vasculature
albumin
Which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?
alginate
What are the enzymes you'd want to examine if a patient was suspected to have cholestasis?
alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)
Struvite crystals usually form in what environment?
alkaline urine
________ hemolysis is partial hemolysis, creating a band of slimy discoloration around a bacterial colony on blood agar.
alpha
What type of drug is xylazine?
alpha-2 agonist
what kind of drug is meditomidine?
alpha-2 agonist
Phenylpropanolamine is an commonly used for..
alpha-adrenergic agonist; used for incontinence : causes tightening of the urethral sphincter
define septic shock? which is also known as...
also called "distributed shock"; bounding pulse; brick red MM, vasodilation
An acanthocyte is a red blood cell with surface projections that are seen mainly in animals with
altered lipid metabolism or liver disease
MRI-compatible equipment might be made of what kind of metals?
aluminum or titanium
Gentamicin is an ____what drug group_____ and these drugs, with the exception of amikacin, can be identified with the -micin or -mycin suffix in the chemical name.
aminoglycoside
The iris regulates the
amount of light going into the eye
what is a portosystemic shunt?
an abnormal vessel that allows blood to bypass the liver
define a Bain-circuit
an anesthetic breathing circuit in which the fresh gas flow is used to remove exhaled carbon dioxide.
Post-renal azotemia is shown by...
an elevation in BUN and creatinine due to pathology located after the kidney
Where is the thymus located?
an immune organ located in the mediastinum in the chest
The foramen ovale is
an opening in the septum between the atria in the heart of the fetus which allows blood to bypass the lungs
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is Where is it used specifically to detect problems?
an x-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder using iodinated contrast material injected intravenously and excreted via the kidneys. It is used to detect problems in the urinary tract (particularly the upper urinary tract).
Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for what purpose?
analgesia; NSAID
What causes cutaneous larval migrans in humans?
ancylostoma (hookworm)
Luteinizing hormone is produced by the
anterior pituitary gland
What gland secrets ACTH?
anterior pituitary gland
prolactin is produced by the..
anterior pituitary gland
metoclopramide, also known as.... is used for...
anti-emetic, GI motility (upper GI) also known as Reglan
Procaine-penicillin G is what kind of drug?
antibiotic
It is inappropriate to inject ____________ into the epidural space.
antibiotics
Atropine is what type of drug?
anticholinergic (aka ParasympathoLYTIC/sympathoMIMETIC)
You are performing an FeLV snap test on a kitten that was found by your neighbor. What type of test is this?
antigen test
Aspirin has ____________ effects (it is a COX-1 inhibitor)
antithrombotic
define bulk-forming laxative
any laxative which absorbs water and expands, increasing stool volume and increasing motility
what are the signs of toxicity with digoxin?
arrhythmias, gastrointestinal upset, lethargy, neurologic signs, and others.
S. vulgaris is a large strongyle that causes
arteritis and thrombosis of the vessels of the GI tract in the horse
A film that is not dried completely commonly has...
artifacts around the edges of the film.
What is the medical term for free fluid in the abdomen?
ascites
The skin of a prepped surgical site is considered..
aseptic (NOT sterile!)
What is the major concern when a patient has a long recovery post-op and is laterally recumbent for an extended period of time? Anemia Atelectasis Hypovolemia Pericardial effusion
atelactasis
what is the reversal for meditomidine?
atipamazole or yohimbine
In the horse, the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure?
atrophy of the shoulder muscle in the horse. It is caused by damage to the suprascapular nerve.
There is an enzyme in about 40% of rabbits that neutralizes a common drug. What drug is not used in rabbits because of this?
atropine
What medication is commonly given to patients with organophosphate toxicity?
atropine
When anesthetizing a rabbit for anesthesia, which vein is most often used?
auricular
Pemphigus is a disease affecting the skin and mucous membranes. Pemphigus is what type of disease?
autoimmune
functions that an animal does not have to consciously control, such as peristalsis in the intestine, are influenced by the...
autonomic nervous system
Which of the following foods is considered toxic to parrots? Cheese Avocado Chicken Habanero peppers Blueberries
avocado
Cytology of feces would mostly just be looking for..
bacteria
The causative agent for cat scratch disease is the
bacteria Bartonella henselae.
Cat scratch fever is caused by
bacterium Bartonella henselae
what is another name for non-rebreathing circuit?
bain system
Haemonchus is known as...
barberpole worm or red stomach worm; common in sheep
Cat scratch fever is caused by
bartonella henselae
What is the most common lead system used in a horse for electrocardiography (ECG) tracings? Where are the leads placed?
base-apex lead; electrodes are placed at the left axillary region, right jugular region and a ground on the neck or withers region.
Tetanus is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani and are introduced by...
being in the soil and then getting into an open or penetrating wound.
define osteoma
benign bone tumor
what kind of drugs are diazepam and midazolam?
benzodiazepines
You are examining a blood agar plate from a submitted bacterial culture and see an area of complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. What type of hemolysis is this?
beta hemolysis
Propanolol is a
beta-blocker; blocks the sympathetic nervous system
What is a common cholinergic drug used? When would we use it?
bethanechol; treat gastric atony or urinary retention in the bladder and increases salivation
a horse epidural should be placed where...
between the last sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae or between the first and second coccygeal vertebrae
Non-rebreathing systems have what type of valve...
bi-directional valve
The hamstrings are what muscles...
biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles.
"chole-" means..
bile
Assessing what values on serum chemistry is most appropriate in the assessment of liver function?
bilirubin ALKP, ALT, GGT
Endoscopy is used to perform...
biopsies of the stomach and small intestine. It is very useful to examine for underlying disease grossly (via the endoscope's camera) and microscopically via the biopsy specimens.
In which species would you find the bursa of Fabricius? where is this located?
birds; which is an outpocketing of the cloaca.
What is the primary defense method of a pig?
bite
What color would x-ray film be if exposed to light before put through the radiograph process?
black
Capillaria plica is the
bladder worm in dogs
hypothyroidism could lead to elevated...
blood lipids
The megakaryocyte is a bone marrow cell responsible for the production of
blood thrombocytes (platelets)
CPDA is an appropriate anticoagulant to use for
blood transfusions
"Hematoma" is the term for...
blood-filled
In the US, these tank colors match WHAT gases? Blue = Gray = Yellow = Green = Black= Brown=
blue = nitrous oxide gray = CO2 yellow = medical compressed air green = oxygen black = nitrogen brown = helium
What tissue is the most sensitive to RT?
bone marrow
Estrogen toxicity causes what side effects...
bone marrow suppression
Prolonged exposure to estrogen can cause
bone marrow suppression
when DES is given at higher doses, it can lead to....
bone marrow suppression
define altricial
born with eyes closed, hairless and helpless.
Humans, pigs, dogs, and cats have ____________ teeth, which have a short crown length and do not continue to erupt throughout life.
brachyodont
Excessive vagal tone can cause...
bradycardia
An injury to what region of the brain is most likely to result in respiratory arrest?
brain stem
The liver helps to
break down fats, converts glucose to glycogen, produces urea (the main substance of urine), makes some amino acids, filters harmful substances from the blood, stores vitamins and minerals (vitamins A, D, K and B12) and maintains a proper level of glucose in the blood. The liver also produces cholesterol, albumin, bile, and coagulation factors.
The brainstem (midbrain, pons, and medulla) control what functions of the body
breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure
Some x-ray machines have the option of using 2 different sized filaments at the cathode. What are the advantages of using a larger filament?
broader electron beam with a larger focal spot. This spreads out the area of the target where heat is generated and allows higher exposures to be used.
Myoglobinuria (pigment in the urine) from muscle damage causes the urine to appear what color?
brown
What diagnostic test would give the best indication of whether a doberman has an increased risk of bleeding due to von Willebrand's disease?
buccal mucosal bleeding test
If the oncotic pressure is decreased from low albumin and movement of blood through the body is slow due to a low heart rate (bradycardia), fluid can
build up in the lungs causing pulmonary edema
Psyllium and metamucil are examples of....
bulk laxatives
What structure is the site of hematopoiesis in young birds and is needed for B cell development?
bursa of Fabricius
Orf/"soremouth" is caused by.... how can it be transmitted to humans?
by a parapox virus transmitted via direct contact with infected animals or by contact with fomites
from the estrous cycle to parturition in what order are the following hormones released? a) estrogen, oxytocin, progesterone b) oxytocin, estrogen, progesterone c) estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin d) progesterone, estrogen, oxytocin
c) estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin estrogen prepares the animal for breeding and pregnancy, progesterone prepares the uterus for implantation and maintains pregnancy, oxytocin causes contractions for parturition
A 1-year old pregnant female bulldog presents with a history of unproductive labor. The dog has not had contractions in several hours, and the veterinarian has requested a chemistry panel. What value would be most important on this panel?
calcium
Urine from horses and rabbits contain high concentrations of ______________ crystals that can make the urine appear milky.
calcium carbonate
Antifreeze poisoning causes the formation of _________ crystals in the urine
calcium oxalate
What canine disease should ferrets be vaccinated against?
canine distemper virus
A 9-year old male castrated Westie presents on emergency after being rescued from a house fire. On presentation, the dog has a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute with increased inspiratory effort and moderate distress. The dog's mucous membranes are bright red. What is the likely cause of the bright red color of the dog's mucous membranes? What is the treatment method?
carbon monoxide; should be supplemented with 100% oxygen and humidifying the air
The ________ is the anatomical term for the portion of the stomach attached to the esophagus.
cardia
what is the sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach...
cardia
What are the 3 main types of flexural deformities in a horse?
carpal (knee), distal interphalangeal (coffin joint), and metacarpophalangeal (fetlock)
The three main types of flexural deformities in a horse are
carpal, distal interphalangeal (coffin joint), and metacarpophalangeal (fetlock).
Ruminant placental cotyledons attach to a ________ to form a placentome
caruncle (maternal side)
A schistocyte is a red blood cell fragment that is usually formed due to shearing from intravascular trauma and they are seen in ...
cases of DIC or vascular neoplasms such as hemangiosarcoma
A shock organ is the organ or tissue that exhibits the most marked response to an allergic reaction. What is the shock organ in the cat? Dog?
cat = lungs dog = liver
diabetes mellitis typically causes what eye-condition in dogs?
cataracts
How many cat blood types are there? dogs?
cats have 3 dogs have 13
Normal temps: Cattle_____, Goats/Sheep ______, Pig _____, and Rabbit _____
cattle = 101 F, goats/sheep = 102.3 F, pigs = 102.5 F, rabbit = 103.1 F
Hypoderma worm is also known as...
cattle warble
define hypovolemic shock
caused by decreased perfusion, especially from blood loss or dehydration. Hypovolemic shock is the most common cause of shock in small animals.
Severe azotemia does what to the body...
causes generalized acidity
what shavings should be avoided with Chinchillas? why?
cedar-shavings because they can cause respiratory irritation
What is the best construction form for a tortoise outdoor enclosure? stacked rocks cement pressure treated wood chain-link fence chicken wire
cement
What system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord?
central nervous system
the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves are anatomically part of what system
central nervous system
List some common bactericidal antibiotics...
cephalexin, Baytril (enrofloxacin), gentamicin
A canine patient presents for his annual exam. The owner states they will be taking a road trip and "Bailey" gets extremely car sick. What medication has been FDA approved for motion sickness in dogs?
cerenia (maropitant)
Ears have _____________ glands
ceruminous
EDTA (anticoagulant) works by...
chelating calcium, which is needed for blood clotting.
An osteotome is the orthopedic version of a
chisel
Which of the following drugs should not be given to any animal intended for human consumption? Chloramphenicol Amprolium Prostaglandin F2-alpha Oxytetracycline
chloramphenicol
Which of the following medications requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans? Chloramphenicol Chlorpheniramine Famotidine Phenylpropanolamine Metronidazole
chloramphenicol
Novalsan is also known as...
chlorhex (also known as Hibiclens)
Hibiclens is also known as?
chlorhex (also known as Novalsan)
Type II diabetes occurs mostly due to insulin resistance and can occur from things such as
chronic use of corticosteroids, obesity, or pancreatitis.
what is the digestive stomach content that moves through the pylorus
chyme
The cat is currently taking lactulose to help soften the stools. What other medication could be given to help the cat empty his colon?
cisapride
Drugs common in treating hypomotility ...
cisapride and metoclopramide
Beta hemolysis is complete hemolysis, leaving a..
clear zone on the blood agar
define coronal
closer to the crown of the tooth
define apical
closer to the root of the tooth
Tiger top tube uses and what's in it...
clot activator, used for blood chemistries, gel is for serum separator
define cataracts
clouding of the lens
Fresh frozen plasma provides
coagulation factors
Albon is used to treat
coccidia
Which intestinal parasite is NOT considered zoonotic to humans? Toxocara Coccidia Giardia Ancylostoma
coccidia
Sulfadimethoxine is used to treat..
coccidia (med is also known as Albon)
Microscopic evaluation of peritoneal fluid would be useful in a horse with what issue?
colic
Why should atropine, a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine receptors, be used cautiously in horses (i.e. what is a major side effect of the drug)?
colic can occur if continuously used
Only the _________ contains enough lead to shield the primary radiation beam.
collimator
Banamine is...
common NSAID used in horses
The ___________ focuses light on the object on a microscope and can be raised and lowered relative to the stage.
condensor note: think of it as "condensing" the light to focus on the subject
red top tube uses and what's in it...
contains nothing, can use with sterile urine sample, and used for phenobarbital levels
Define status epilepticus...
continuous seizing (EMERGENCY)
What are hypsodont teeth?
continuously growing throughout life
What muscle does the panniculus reflex test?
contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle on the back
The cerebellum is responsible for
coordination and balance
DHPP vaccine is...
core vaccines: canine distemper, parvo, bordatella, parainfluenza
The hoof wall grows from the __________
coronary band
FIP is caused by a...
coronavirus
What is the term used to describe the junction between the skin and hoof of the horse's distal limb?
coronet/coronary band
In cotyledonary placentation the mother's side of the attachment is called the... a) caruncle b) cotyledon c) placentome d) polycyton
correct answer = A) Caruncle cotyledon = fetal side of placenta placentome = when caruncle and cotyledon are joined
The two main types of thread used in surgical screws are.. what are the differences?.
cortical and cancellous; Cortical screws are designed for dense bone; cancellous screws are made for softer bone.
define Hemoptysis
coughing up blood/tinged fluid
what drugs can cause KCS?
could be due to sulfa drugs
True ruminants such as... (WHAT) have 4 stomach compartments
cows, goats, sheep, and deer
You have been working in the barn with baby calves that have been having severe diarrhea. You now are having a severe watery diarrhea. Which parasite would be most likely for you to have contracted from these calves?
cryptosporidium
Dexamethasone suppression tests are typically used to diagnose
cushings disease
Ancylostoma causes which zoonotic disease in humans?
cutaneous larval migrans
You assist the vet in examining the horse and note that the horse is in respiratory distress. He has dilated pupils and bright red mucous membranes. You are asked to pull blood for testing which you note is also bright red in color. What may cause this in the horse?
cyanide toxicity
When collecting a sample, when should the needle never be re-directed? Thoracocentesis Fine needle aspiration Cystocentesis Jugular blood draw
cystocentesis (too much risk)
Organelles reside in the ...
cytoplasm
Progestins and progesterones usually have "-______" in their drug name. Give an example.
"-gest" ie: altrenogest
Note that ace-inhibitor drugs usually end in a
"-pril"
ALARA stands for..
"As low as reasonably achievable" in radiology; it means keep exposure to a minimum
It is a protrusion of the chorioallantois and is an emergency...
"red bag" during birth in the mare
During estrus, the mare is receptive to the stallion and lifts her tail and everts the clitoris, which is called...
"winking"
Bang's disease is... and caused by...
(AKA Brucellosis) an infectious disease of cattle caused by the bacteria Brucella abortus
Omeprazole is a.... what is the trade name?
(AKA Prilosec); proton-pump inhibitor; decreasing stomach acids to help prevent gastric ulcers
what are the clinical signs for feline toxoplasmosis (AKA...)?
(AKA Toxoplasma gondii) Neurologic/seizures are most common. some others may be Fever, loss of appetite, and lethargy
what are the 3 major branches of the trigeminal cranial nerve
(AKA nerve-5); 1) Ophthalmic nerve 2) Maxillary nerve 3) Mandibular nerve (the largest branch)
Lufenuron also known as.... works by...
(AKA: Program) controls flea populations by stopping the life cycle at the egg stage. It is an oral formulation.
What does MAC measure (in regards to anesthetic drugs)?
(Minimum alveolar concentration); anesthetic potency measurement
Famotidine is used for.... and how does it work
(PEPCID) - decreasing gastric acid production by blocking histamine (H2) receptors in the stomach
What does the neurohypophysis secrete?
(aka posterior lobe of pituitary gland): ADH and Oxytocin
Where is the safest place to do an intraperitoneal injection?
(into abdominal cavity): At the area of the umbilicus, 2 to 3 inches on either side
What is Albon commonly used for?
(sulfadimethoxine): antibiotic medication used to treat bacterial infections in dogs. Also used to treat a coccidiosis, a serious parasitic infection in dogs.
What are some common rules to follow when putting a nasogastric tube into a horse for colic?
-The tube is placed in the ventral meatus of the nasal passage -The neck should be flexed to help the horse swallow the tube -Sucking back on the tube and getting negative pressure helps to confirm that the tube is in the esophagus
define bactericidal vs bacteriostatic agents?
-cidal = killing bacteria -static = slows growth/reproduction
Enrofloxacin, and other drugs in fluoroquinolone class, should not be used in young, growing animals as it causes
...damage to the joint cartilage.
You are working in the critical care unit and learning to perform central venous pressure readings. What is a normal CVP reading?
0-10 cm H2O
In cats, the normal periodontal probe depth is
0-1mm
What is the normal sulcus depth of the teeth in dogs when examining with a periodontal probe?
0-3mm
Which is safe to put in the ears if the tympanum may be ruptured?
0.9% NaCl
Gray (Gy) = ____ rad
1 Gy = 100 rad
1:1000 concentration =
1 g / 1000 ml also known as: 1000mg / 1000ml
You draw up a canine distemper-parvo combination vaccine. How long is the vaccine considered viable at room temperature?
1 hour; vaccines should be discarded if they have been left out at room temperature for longer than one hour.
convert g to kgs
1 kilogram equals 1,000 g 285 g/ 1,000 g/kg = 0.285 kg
generic to trade: 1) enrofloxacin 2) marbofloxacin 3) orbifloxacin What types of drugs are these
1) Baytril 2) Zeniquin 3) Orbax Antibiotics -- flouroquinolones
generic to trade: 1) Pyrantel-pamoate 2) fenbendazole 3) ivermectin
1) Nemex 2) Panacur 3) Ivomec, HeartGuard
Generic to trade: 1) Megestrol acetate 2) Oxazepam 3) amitryptyline 4) fluoxetine
1) OvaBan 2) Serax 3) Elavil 4) Prozac
Generic to trade: 1) famotidine 2) sucralfate 3) omeprazole 4) erythropoetin
1) Pepcid 2) Carafate 3) Prilosec 4) Epogen
Generic to trade: 1) Xylazine 2) Detomidine 3) Acepromazine
1) Rompun 2) Dormosedan 3) PromAce
Trade to generic: 1) Anipryl 2) Clomicalm
1) Selegiline 2) Clomipramine
Trade name to Generic.... 1) Filaribits 2) Interceptor 3) Heartguard 4) Revolution
1) diethylcarbamazine 2) milbemycin 3) ivermectin 4) selamectin
How to calculate normal urine output in dogs..
1-2 mL per kg per hour.
urination expectancy for a normal, healthy dog...
1-2ml/kg/hr
What is the normal amount of gastric reflux obtained from a healthy horse via nasogastric tube placement?
1-3 Liters
What is the life expectancy of a hamster?
1.5-2 years
What is the life expectancy of a chinchilla?
10-15 years
Normal eye pressures for dogs is typically between .. and for cats...
10-20 for dogs 10-25 for cats
How much % are IV drugs bioavailable?
100%
The LD50 toxic dose of theobromine in dogs is ... meaning..
100-150 mg/kg 50% of pets die at this dose
what is the correct dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?
1013/1013
Which of the following is the correct dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?
1013/1013 (x2) = 20 NO CANINES***
What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken?
107 degrees F
What is the very earliest that a pregnancy can be confirmed with an ultrasound in a horse?
11 days
horses are kept off food for approximately ____ hrs prior to surgery
12
A drop in the normal body temperature by 1 or 2 degrees means that labor will likely start within
12-24 hrs
Typically, when should a dog or cat be offered food following gastrointestinal surgery?
12-24 hrs post op
Pregnancy check in the mare can be performed via ultrasound as early as...
14 days
Hamsters have the shortest gestation of all rodents, what is their gestation period?
15 days
The gestation period for hamsters makes them a valuable research model. What is their gestation period?
15 days
Typical tidal volume for a dog is about...
15 ml / kg
What is the average gestation for goats and sheep?
150 days
The heart rate of an adult cat should range between....?
150-220 bpm
A safe amount of blood to collect from a horse is...
15ml/kg
how many thoracic vertebrae do horses have?
18
you must be at least ____ years old to participate in helping for radiographing patients...
18
In cats, the typical minute volume is
180-380 ml/kg/min
How many mammary glands does a horse have?
2
What is a goats dentition?
2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32 OR read as: 0033/3133
What minimum quantity of feces is required to run a reliable fecal test for ova and parasites?
2 grams
Esmarch bandages and tourniquets are occasionally used in equine surgery. What is the maximum time that a tourniquet may be left in place?
2 hrs
Approximately what percentage of body weight should a horse consume in forage (i.e. hay) per day?
2%
What is the correct dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?
2(I1/1 C0/0 PM1/1 M3/3) = 20 or seen as: 1013/1013
What is the minimum volume of water required by mammals to sustain life?
2-4 mls/kg/hr
Cheyletiella have a ______ day life cycle and can survive up to ____ days off a host.
21 day life cycle cannot live more than 10 days off a host (these are also known as "walking dandruff")
A neonatal foal should have his immunoglobulin G (IgG) measured at what time after birth?
24 hours... The IgG should be evaluated in foals between 16-24 hours of age. This is testing for failure of passive transfer.
What is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia for an elective procedure? why?
24-48 hours REDUCING BLOAT
HR for an adult horse should be in what range?
25-50 beats per minute
For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last minimum...
3 WEEKS
What is the maximum time a fecal can be used for fecal flotation with zinc centrifugation to look for ova and parasites if kept in the refrigerator?
3 days
Generally, how much time do you have before cardiac arrest causes irreversible brain damage?
3 mins
When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last?
3 months
When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last?
3 months minimum
Eclampsia most often occurs around
3 weeks after whelping due to losing calcium in the milk and the inability of the body to keep up with demand
A puppy presents for his first distemper-parvo puppy shot. He is currently 8 weeks of age. When should he receive his next set of vaccines?
3 weeks from now
What is the ideal age for tail docking in puppies?
3-5 days of age
1 gallon = __ liters
3.8 Liters
The adult cat has ____ (amount of) teeth
30
Perioperative antibiotics are essential in preventing unwanted infections. What is the best time to administer the antibiotic?
30 mins prior to incision
cats RR
30-42/min
how many mls are in an ounce?
30mls
What is the dental formula for a cat?
3131/3121 (x2) = 30
What is the permanent dental formula for a dog?
3142/3143
Whole blood units may be stored for ______ ( how long) if the unit is collected aseptically, stored appropriately and mixed daily.
35 days
How many chambers does the stomach of a llama have? What are these chambers called?
3; rumen, omasum, and abomasum
What is the anatomic term for a horses "cannon bone"?
3rd metacarpal bone
How many mammary glands does a cow have?
4
You remove an IV catheter from a peripheral vein and place a pressure bandage. What is the maximum amount of time this bandage should stay on?
4 hrs
At what minimum age is rabies vaccination given to puppies/kittens?
4 months
How long does estrus in the dog typically last?
4-13 days
Blood samples can be stable for how long in room temperature? Refrigerated?
4-7 hrs at room temp 5-7 days refrigerated
The adult dog has ____ (amount of) teeth.
42
How many days after fertilization will canine fetal skeletons first appear on a radiograph?
42 days
In cats, the isotonic crystalloids shock dose is... and Synthetic colloids can be administered at a dose of...
45 ml/kg 5-10 ml/kg
what is the shock dose fluids for cats?
45ml/kg
how many mLs in one teaspoon?
5 mL = 1tsp
What age should pigs be castrated?
5-14 days
A cat is starting weekly subcutaneous fluid administration for renal failure at the clinic where you work. The client asks how long it will take for him to absorb the fluids after they are given. You tell him most cats will absorb the fluid within:
5-8hrs
how many mls are in 1 tsp?
5mls
When taking a lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog, where should the field be centered?
5th rib and caudal border of the scapula
How tall of a fence (minimum) would likely be required to keep goats confined?
6 feet
Propofol should be used within ___ hours of opening
6 hours
At what age should a dog be spayed ideally?
6 months
Most dogs and cats have their permanent teeth by what age?
6 months
Without a heartworm test, what is the LATEST age that heartworm preventative could safely be started in a dog?
6 months
The dog has ___ upper and ___ lower incisors The lower ____ molars (____ and _____) in the dog are double-rooted.
6, 6 Lower first molars = 309, 409
What is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time?
6-8 Liters
maintenance fluid math...
60 ml / kg / day
maintenance fluids are roughly..
60 ml / kg / day
What is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?
60-100 mg/kg
How to calculate maintenance fluids?
60mL/kg/day
1 grain is equal to _____ mg
64.8 mg = 1 grain
A breeder calls and wants to know how long sperm may be viable to fertilize an egg after dogs have mated. What will you tell her?
7 days
Canine sperm may live or be able to fertilize an ovum for about ______
7 days
The heart rate of an adult dog should range between....?
70-160 bpm
What percentage of dogs and cats, on average, has periodontal disease?
75%
Piglets are born with HOW MANY sharp needle or milk teeth.
8
What is the life expectancy of ferrets and sugar gliders
8-10 years
How long should food be withheld prior to general anesthesia for a cat or dog?
8-12 hrs
The respiratory rate for an adult horse should generally be:
8-20 breaths/min
The respiratory rate for an adult horse should generally be:
8-20/min
In dogs, isotonic crystalloids shock dose is... and Synthetic colloids can be administered at a dose of...
90 ml/kg 10-20 ml/kg
what is the shock dose fluids for dogs?
90ml/kg
While caring for a week old orphan puppy, it is important to monitor body temperature. Rectal temperature should be between:
94-99 degrees F
The relative humidity in the steam sterilizer must reach _________ % humidity in order to provide proper sterilization.
97-99%
What is the normal rectal temperature for a horse?
99.5-101.5
What volume can the stomach of a kitten or puppy hold on average?
9ml/kg
inverse square law formula =
= ( old distance / new distance ) ^ 2
When a tortoise is kept in an indoor enclosure, what is the most important light in that enclosure? What does this help the tortoise absorb?
A UVB light is needed to properly process and absorb calcium from the diet. Sunlight is the natural way to process calcium.
define bile acid test (how it works and what it's measuring)
A bile acids test is a measure of liver function. It requires fasting. A blood sample is drawn. The animal is then fed, and another sample is drawn 2 hours after feeding.
AB cats can receive what blood type?
A or B
define cystogram
A radiograph of the bladder taken after direct injection of positive contrast
define a surgeon's knot...
A surgeon's knot is produced by passing one strand through the loop twice on the first throw of a square knot
what hormone contracts the female reproductive to help move spermatozoa into the oviducts? a) estrogen b) progesterone c) prolactin d) oxytocin
d) oxytocin
Horner's syndrome can occur as a result of
damage along the sympathetic trunk, especially as the trunk goes through the middle ear.
Wet-to-dry bandages best serve the purpose for
debriding necrotic tissue, especially in the cases of trauma where the wounds are dirty and have the potential of having tissue necrosis around the site
define hypovolemia
decreased blood flow in the body
Magnesium hydroxide is used for...
decreasing stomach acid, increasing water in the intestines, MAY induce defecation. AKA: A laxative used to help with occasional constipation and an antacid.
An increased PCV could be indicative of....
dehydration
What is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise?
dehydration
Pre-renal causes of azotemia include..
dehydration and lack of perfusion
what is a precision vaporizer? is it in or out of circuit?
delivers exact concentration of gas anesthetic to patients breathing circuit VOC (vaporizer out of circuit)
_________ hemolysis creates a double zone of hemolysis wherein a narrow area around the colony is hemolyzed and surrounded by a larger region with some hemolysis.
delta
A deep skin scraping wherein the skin is scraped until capillary blood is seen is generally necessary to recover what parasites?
demodex
Which of the following mites that can be found on dogs is not contagious?
demodex
These parasites are potential zoonotic pathogens EXCEPT for which of the following? Cryptosporidium parvum Toxacara canis Demodex canis Toxoplasma gondii Giardia spp.
demodex canis
Focal-film distance refers to the distance of the film relative to the X-ray source. As the film is moved closer to the source, ____________ increases exponentially due to the inverse-square law.
density increases
Canine Dental Prophylaxis means...
dental cleaning
The P wave on an ECG represents
depolarization spreading from the SA node through the atria.
What can the drug ivermectin cause in a turtle?
depression, paralysis, coma, or death in chelonians (turtles, tortoises, etc.)
what does the Baermann test look for?
detecting lungworm
A 10 year old male neutered West Highland White Terrier with a history of 1st degree AV block is admitted to the clinic for a routine dentistry. All of his pre-anesthetic lab work has come back normal. Which of the following anesthetic drugs would be most contraindicated in this case?
dexmeditomidine
What are common premeds given to rabbits prior to gas-anesthetics?
dexmeditomidine, diazepam, or midazolam
what disease can commonly lead to cataracts?
diabetes
A water deprivation test may be used to diagnose
diabetes insipidous
A fructosamine test is for... how does it work
diabetic regulation gives an average blood sugar reading from 2 weeks
Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI) Serum lipase Serum amylase all are good tests for...
diagnosing pancreatitis
Chelonians don't have a ____________, unlike most other animals.
diaphragm
It appears a cat has intestinal contents in the chest cavity. What is this evidence of?
diaphragmatic hernia
List heart worm preventatives...
diethylcarbamazine, milbemycin, ivermectin, selamectin
DES is a....
diethylstilbestrol; synthetic estrogen
define anisocoria
different sized pupils
Acinar cells secrete
digestive enzymes
DICOM =
digital imaging and communications in medicine
example of a positive inotrope commonly used
digoxin
What is the anatomic term for a horses "coffin bone"?
distal phalanx
The mandibular (lower) canine teeth should rest
distal to the upper third incisor and mesial to the maxillary (upper) canine teeth. AKA beyond upper third incisor and inward from the maxillary upper canine teeth
drugs such as __________ can help raise the blood pressure of an anesthetized patient.
dobutamine
The cardia (does/does not) contain the lower esophageal sphincter.
does not; overlaps it
When drawing blood for a fructosamine level in a canine, how many hours do you have to wait after insulin is given to draw the blood? why?
doesn't matter; a fructosamine measurement is a blood test which indicates the average glucose concentration over the past 1-2 weeks.
A minor cross-match combines...
donors serum with recipients erythrocytes
In what position is colic surgery most commonly performed?
dorsal recumbency
define DLPMO
dorsolateral-palmaro/plantaromedial oblique
Which of these antibiotic choices is bacteriostatic? Doxycycline Cephalexin Enrofloxacin Penicillin
doxycycline
ptyalism
drooling
define ptosis
drooping of the upper eyelid
What is the appropriate method to handle newborns...
drying the infant, massaging the body gently to help stimulate breathing, and removing any secretions from the mouth or nose. One of the most important concerns is maintaining a warm body temperature for the newborn.
The _______________ is the shunt connecting the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch in a fetus.
ductus arteriosus
The ______________ shunts some blood flow from the umbilical vein to the vena cava.
ductus venosus
The pancreas connects to which part of the intestine?
duodenum
list the order (cranial to caudal) of the small intestine
duodenum, jejunum, ilEum
Chinchilla's require ________- baths every 1-2 days, why?
dust baths to maintain coat health; but if done too much can cause conjunctivitis
Pyometra is an infection in which the uterus fills with pus. It is most commonly caused by what bacteria..
e-coli
The most common method of identification of pigs is what?
ear notching
What is cerumen
ear wax
The Toxoplasma parasite is typically acquired through...
eating raw meat/prey
What cells are often seen in rattlesnake envenomation?
echinocytes
what are motor nerves
efferent nerves that send impulses to the skeletal muscles, organs, and glands
youngest to oldest tick lifecycle...
egg, larva, nymph, adult
The humeroradial joint is also known as the..
elbow
Periosteal elevators are good for
elevating muscle attachments from bone or periosteum
What is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diaphragm on an X-ray machine (sometimes called a "Bucky tray")?
eliminate grid lines on the film
brachycephalic breeds almost always have what characteristics (in regards to their respiratory system)
elongated soft pallet and stenotic nares
What condition may be seen in a puppy who has had distemper?
enamel hypoplasia
Placing a crown is an example of what kind of procedure?
endodontic
Gram-negative bacteria release ________________ (which are found in their cell wall) when they die.
endotoxins
define Buphthalmos
enlarged and bulging globe (such as with glaucoma)
What is the antibiotic of choice in adult guinea pigs?
enrofloxacin (Baytril)
A 2-month old male mixed-breed puppy is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Culture and sensitivity of the urine show the bacteria to be susceptible to enrofloxacin. Why should a different antibiotic be chosen over enrofloxacin?
enrofloxacin causes cartilage abnormalities in growing puppies
In the typical life cycle of the flea (i.e. Ctenocephalides felis), where does the larva pupate and form into the adult flea?
environment
Where is the best place to give an intramuscular injection in a dog?
epaxial
When giving IM injections, what common site used in veterinary medicine is actually contraindicated in the horse?
epaxial muscles
What connects the testicles with vas deferens?
epididymus
Where do sperm mature?
epididymus
A vet at your clinic is preparing to perform a punch biopsy of a dermal mass in a cat under local anesthesia. He asks you to add epinephrine to his lidocaine before administering the local anesthetic. What is the rationale for adding epinephrine?
epinephrine prolongs lidocaines effects
In which species will you never perform a reticulocyte count? Why?
equine because they do not release them into circulation
In which species is it common to observe Rouleaux formation in a blood smear?
equine, cats, pigs
Which type of cell should not be found in normal joint fluid?
erythrocytes
Where would you find Anaplasma marginale?
erythrocytes of cattle
Administration of which antimicrobial is MOST LIKELY to result in diarrhea in the adult horse?
erythromycin
Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium?
estrogen
ovulation occurs during which stage of estrous cycle?
estrus
Altrenogest is used for....
estrus synchronization and is a synthetic progestin
NMB (new methylene blue) can be used for things other than determining cell morphology such as...
evaluating vaginal smears during estrus and examining for blood parasites like heartworm microfilariae
how often do you want to turn a patient (when lateral) during recovery? why?
every 15-20 mins. to prevent lung atelactasis
Hypertrichosis is...
excessive hair
Guaifenisin is used for...
expectorant, and (IV) muscle relaxation in equine
How many mammary glands are typically found on a bitch? A) 8-12 B) 12-14 C) 4-6 D) 10-16
A) 8-12; varies but typically: 4 thoracic, 4 abdominal, and 2 inguinal
Where on a primate's body are they tested for tuberculosis?
eyelid
Harderian glands are associated with what part of the anatomy? Which animals have them more prominently?
eyes ; is an accessory lacrimal gland on the inner side of the orbit in reptiles and birds
Sheep mostly breed during which season?
fall
Sheep mostly breed during which season? so they give birth in what season typically?
fall; give birth in the spring
Oviducts are also known as
fallopian tubes
The term pseudocyesis means
false pregnancy
dehydration leads to WHAT reading on a hematocrit PCV?
falsely "high" readying AKA it'll be lower than what it reads
what are some common acid-blockers?
famotidine (Pepcid) pantoprazole (Protonix)
To perform a bile acids test, what is required?
fasting sample, feed animal, 2 hrs after get another sample
A patient who has been diagnosed with pancreatitis should avoid foods that are high in....
fat
Umbilical hernias are often a small piece of _____ protruding through the body wall. What is to be done about this?
fat; it is not life-threatening but can be removed during spay/neuter procedure.
Between the ages of 8 and 10 weeks puppies experience a ______ period... so,
fear period.. Because of this, painful and traumatic situations should be avoided especially in this timeframe.
Meat in the diet will result in a false positive
fecal occult blood test
Toxocara canis (a roundworm) is the cause of Ocular and Visceral larva migrans. It is transmitted....
fecal-oral (sandboxes, backyards, parks, and beaches)
FIV is passed in..
feces, utero, or saliva
define pyrexia
fever
Which of the following proteins is typically much higher in plasma than in serum? Globulin Trypsin Amylase Fibrinogen Albumin
fibrinogen
The product of multiplying the milliamperage (mA) and time (s) is the mAs, which determines the degree of
film exposure (with a given kVp)
define Meconium
first newborn dark-intestinal excretion/stool "Baby's first poop"
Fasciola hepatica is...
flatworm (liver fluke) resembling a leaf
Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are all used in treatment of
fleas
Selamectin acts against...
fleas heartworm and scabies
What do you use to treat malessezia (yeast)
fluconazole
Pleural effusion is...
fluid around the lungs in the pleural space.
Pericardial effusion is
fluid surrounding the heart in the pericardial sac.
define supernatant
fluid that lies above spun-down sediment
how do you know when the epidural is placed correctly?
fluid will be drawn into the hub
Ivermectin is ineffective against..
flukes
Fecal sedimentation is good to diagnose for...
flukes; eggs that sink
what is the reversal to diazepam and midazolam?
flumazenil
what category of drug is enrofloxacin?
fluoroquinolone (antibiotic)
The ________________ allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium in a fetus.
foramen ovale
compound fracture is...
fracture which breaks the skin
A client who feeds his dog "ad libitum" follows what schedule?
free choice feeding
Which of the following is not an acceptable means of euthanasia in reptiles? Anesthetic followed by decapitation Injectable pentobarbital Carbon dioxide Freezing
freezing
Microbiology materials or media that are not in use should be stored where?
fridge
What is Mycology the study of?
fungi
Which breed is most at risk for developing Degenerative Myelopathy? Corgi German Shepherd Dachshund Standard Poodle Golden Retriever
g shep
Horses do not have what common organ?
gallbladder
list common aminoglycosides what are they used for
gentamicin, amikacin, streptomycin, neomycin (antibiotics - gram neg tx)
GnRH will stimulate the release of... A) FSH B) thyroxine C) cortisol D) insulin
A) FSH
A 4 year old male neutered domestic shorthair cat presents to your clinic with a history of straining to urinate. The owner is unsure how long it has been since the cat urinated. What is the first thing you should check while waiting for the doctor? why?
get a HR because if hyperkalemic (deadly) HR would be slow
What is proptosis? why does it occur?
globe being dislodged from orbit (eye) most often due to trauma
What hormones are produced by the adrenal glands?
glucocorticoids; ie cortisol.
the liver makes and stores...
glucose
All of the following can be expected to be found on a complete blood count EXCEPT for which of the following? Glucose Hematocrit Neutrophils Hemoglobin
glucose is found on chem panel
Sodium fluoride is mainly used as a
glucose preservative
Cats are deficient in the liver enzyme known as _________________ leading to slow aspirin metabolization.
glucuronyl transferase
What areas should be avoided when giving intramuscular injections in cattle? Why?
gluteal muscles because it is more susceptible to abscesses
The goat has __ mammary glands. The cow has __ mammary glands the horse has __ mammary glands.
goats have 2 cows have 4 horses have 2
Gram-positive bacteria stain _______ because of the chemical and physical properties of the cell wall. Gram-negative bacteria would appear _______. (Gram staining)
gram Pos = PurPle (triple P) gram Neg = piNk
What is pasteurella?
gram-negative, anaerobic bacteria -- ZOONOTIC
An elevated PCV is considered normal for what breed...
grey hounds
Nervous tissue without myelin is known as
grey matter
What is the omasum function in a cows stomach?
grinds up the food material and absorbs water and bicarbonate
Horses have unique structures that are paired diverticuli of the Eustachian tube located near the pharyngeal region of the horse. What is the common name of these structures?
gutteral pouches
Which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhythmia?
halothane
define intermediate host
harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite.
define definitive host...
harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite.
Rats are known to produce a substance called "red tears" or chromodacyorrhea. Where are red tears produced?
harderian gland
Traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is most commonly known as....
hardware disease
Why is tungsten an ideal material for the filament and target of an x-ray machine?
has a high melting point
Where are the striated muscles located?
heart and skeletal muscles
Define cardiogenic shock?
heart can't meet body's needs - pale MM, cool extremities, crackles/harsh lung sounds, cough, weak pulse etc. due to heart disease
The Knot's test is useful in diagnosing WHAT in dogs?
heartworm
Oxidative damage to red blood cells commonly causes formation of what to the RBC's?
heinz bodies
consumption of onions results in..
heinz body anemia
The purpose of the Esmarch bandage is to
help push blood out of the limb
What do ace-inhibitor drugs do...
help to relax smooth muscle in the arterioles and veins.
What is the most common splenic tumor?
hemangiosarcoma
Color in a red blood cell is attributed to the presence of....
hemoglobin
Which of the following is an anticoagulant that DOES NOT chelate calcium? Fluoride Heparin Oxalate Citrate EDTA
heparin
Why is EDTA a preferred anticoagulant over heparin when collecting a blood sample that will be used for a differential blood film?
heparin will clump WBC's
What does Eimeria stiedai cause? What species does this occur in?
hepatic coccidosis in rabbits; leading to liver failure
Ketoconazole can be associated with what type of toxicity?
hepatotoxicity
The vagus nerve is cranial nerve _____. A) X B) XII C) V D) VI
A) X
what are adult trematodes called?
hermaphrodites
You are using a Bain circuit to anesthetize a ferret for a spay procedure. What measures is the most important thing to do to prevent re-breathing of carbon dioxide by the ferret?
high oxygen flow rate
A pregnant queen has what kind of placentation? A) Zonary B) Cotyledonary C) Diffuse D) Discoid
A) Zonary: The placenta takes the form of a complete or incomplete band of tissue surrounding the fetus.
If there is a cat that reacts poorly to metoclopramide: A) what adverse side effects are common? B) how do you treat this?
A) aggression, nervous, jittery B) Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
Insulin resistance is commonly seen in animals that... A) are obese B) have high BP C) exercise excessively D) seek warmth
A) are obese
In a healthy dog, if the right eye is in low light and a light is shown to the left eye, the pupil(s) in... A) Both eyes would be constricted B) Both eyes would be dilated C) The right eye would dilate and the pupil in the left eye would constrict D) The right eye would constrict and the pupil in the left eye would remain the same
A) both pupils constrict
The _____A______ is the fetus side of the placenta. The ______B______ is the maternal side of the placenta. The _____C_____ is the cotyledon and caruncle together.
A) cotyledon B) caruncle C) placentome
The neurotransmitter that is most responsible for the fight or flight reaction is... A) epinephrine B) Acetylcholine C) Dopamine D) Serotonin
A) epinephrine
Increasing a neuron's permeability to Na+ will cause.... A) hyperexcitability B) increase in the intensity of the stimulus required to generate an action potential C) The neuron to become more hyperpolarized D) The membrane potential of the neuron to become more negative
A) hyper-excitability; lidocaine, a local anesthetic, is a Na+ channel BLOCKER, that is, it does the opposite of increasing permeability to Na+
In the healthy, awake cat the primary stimulus in blood for respiration is.. A) increased CO2 B) decreased O2 C) increased lactic acid D) increased K+
A) increased CO2
On inspiration the pressure in the thoracic cavity, as compared with ambient air pressure, is.. A) negative B) positive C) Same as the ambient air pressure D) Fluctuating
A) negative
Lymph nodes found on the caudal aspect of the leg at the level of the patella are the... A) popliteal nodes B) inguinal nodes C) mandibular nodes D) prescapular nodes
A) popliteal nodes
advantages and disadvantages of high-frequency and low-frequency probes for ultrasound...
high-frequency probe = higher quality, but lower penetrating abilities low-frequency probe = lower quality, but higher penetrating abilities
what diet helps with glycemic control?
high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet
the hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is... a) estrogen b) progesterone c) prolactin d) oxytocin
A; estrogen
cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle? a) polyestrous b) seasonally polyestrous c) diestrous d) monoestrous
A; polyestrous
Cephalexin (AKA...) is a ___what drug group___ which can be identified by....
AKA - Keflex cephalosporin identified: the pre-fix -ceph or -cef in most of the drugs of this group.
Itraconazole (AKA...) is an ___what drug group__. These medications have the suffix -azole.
AKA - sporonox antifungal
Doxycycline (AKA..) is in the ____________ family of drugs recognized by the -_____ suffix.
AKA - vibramycin tetracycline -cycline
what is metronidazole used for?
AKA Flagyl; antibiotic for colitis and diarrhea
What is famotidine used for?
AKA Pepcid; gastric acid reducer
Phenylpropanolamine, AKA ___________, can cause....
AKA Proin. can cause hypertension (High BP)
Define "founder" in horses...
AKA laminitis, is a severe and debilitating disease of the equine hoof that results from inflammation of the interdigitations (laminae) between the hoof and the 3rd phalanx, causing rotation of the bone.
A drug that is a cholinergic agent will have what effects?
AKA parasympathomimetics; mimicking acetylcholine; they promote salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation (sometimes abbreviated SLUD or referred to as "rest and digest" functions). They can cause pupil constriction or decreased heart rate.
Where might you find the parasite Oestrus ovis? Aka...
AKA sheep nasal bot; Nasal cavity of the sheep
TPN solutions (AKA...?) contain 10% (or greater) dextrose and must be given in a central catheter to avoid WHAT?
AKA total parenteral nutrition; avoid phlebitis
Comparing x-rays to visible light they have _________ frequency and _______ wavelength.
higher frequency shorter wavelength
In order for oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli into the capillaries, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the alveoli in the lungs must be
higher in the lungs than in the capillaries
higher kVp gives _____ contrast and lower kVp gives ______ contrast
higher kVp = less contrast lower kVp = higher contrast
define hypertonicity
higher osmotic pressure
define urticaria
hives
define ancylostoma
hookworm
Uncinaria stenocephala and Ancylostoma caninum are...
hookworms
Which parasite is commonly passed from a mother to her young via the transmammary route?
hookworms/Ancylostoma
If a snake is undergoing "dysecdysis", what does this mean?
Abnormal shedding of the skin
The true stomach comparative to the ruminant is the...
Abomasum
Which of the 4 stomach compartments in the ruminant is considered the true glandular stomach? Reticulum Rumen Omasum Abomasum
Abomasum
Which species is not susceptible to "hoof-and-mouth" disease? Pigs Sheep Cattle Horses
horses (because it occurs in cloven-hoofed animals)
Rouleaux formation may be a normal physiologic finding in what species?
horses, cats, and pigs.
What species has "wolf teeth"? what are these?
horses; small teeth that are the first premolars in the horse. It is thought they may be deciduous teeth.
Why is it contraindicated to give acepromazine to a young breeding stallion?
Ace, and other phenothiazine tranquilizers, can cause penile-prolapse (paraphimosis)
what is mucomyst used for relating to cats & dogs
Acetylcysteine can be used to treat acetaminophen toxicity in both dogs and cats (due to hepato-protective qualities). also a mucolytic
The following cow diseases are each caused by or forms WHAT: Lumpy Jaw = Morexella Bovis = Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis = Mycobacterium bovis =
Actinomyces Bovis Pink Eye Lymphadenitis Zoonotic; Bovine tuberculosis
What anti-emetic can cause severe gastritis and should be used with extreme caution?
hydrogen peroxide; can damage stomach lining
What is an expected finding in a patient with Hypervitaminosis D, or Vitamin D toxicity?
hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
Schnauzers are notorious for having __________________, and when their blood is spun down, the serum often appears milky
hyperlipidemia
Zinc deficiency in goats can cause
hypersalivation, chronic skin problems, testicular hypoplasia, and deformed hooves.
A Boston terrier puppy presents lethargic and minimally responsive at your clinic. The owner says he hasn't been eating very well; his gums are a little pale, temperature is 99.1F. What is the likely cause of his acute symptoms?
hypoglycemia
Bacterial sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?
hypoglycemia
________________ (bloodwork value) is an important finding in patients with sepsis
hypoglycemia
What electrolyte abnormality is known to cause ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness?
hypokalemia (lack of potassium)
ADH is produced in the
hypothalamus
ADH is produced in the...
hypothalamus
what does a APTT/PT test stand for?
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time and a Prothrombin Time
Oxytocin is made by the... BUT is released by the...
hypothalamus released by pit. gland
Estrogen is made when the follicle stimulates GnRH from the ___________ and causes LH release from the ___________________.
hypothalamus; anterior pituitary
what is the most common type of shock in small animals?
hypovolemic shock
A foal with neonatal isoerythrolysis will have...
icterus
Parascaris equorum, or the equine ascarid (roundworm), typically only infests foals and can cause
ill thrift, coughing, pneumonia, and colic.
define iatrogenic
illness caused by medical examination/treatment
Where is the subcutaneous tissue in relation to the dermis?
immediately below the dermis
What are the common side effects to chemotherapy drugs?
immunosuppression (#1), v/d, myelosuppression, alopecia
fermentation in "non-ruminant" herbivores (such as the horse) occurs where?
in the cecum and colon
Where is the mediastinum located?
in the chest
Where is the hypothalamus is located?
in the diencephalon
define anhidrosis
inability to sweat
define celiotomy
incision through abdomen
define polycythemia
increased RBCs (high hematocrit)
If you have a smaller focal spot AKA a smaller filament used for an x-ray, what are the advantages?
increased image definition, decreased penumbra effect (blurring effect)
_______________ is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic used in veterinary practice under the trade name ________
Alfaxalone; trade name = Alfaxan
This material is mixed, placed into an impression tray, and placed over the teeth.
Alginate
What is meant by a "left shift" when describing a complete blood count?
increased numbers of immature neutrophils
Darbopoetin is used for...
increasing RBC production
An __________ is an area of necrosis due to a local lack of oxygen from due to a disturbance in blood flow to the area.
infarct
what are some reasons agalactia could occur?
infection (especially in sheep, goats, and pigs), poor nutrition or water deprivation, hormonal imbalances, anatomical causes, or failure of the neonate to suckle properly so then the milk let-down reflex is not stimulated.
A "UMIC" would be performed on a urine sample to check for
infection and antibiotic susceptibility
define nosocomial
infection/diseases/illness originating in the hospital
Myiasis is the term for
infestation of fly larvae
___________ is an anti-coccidial drug used in food animals.
Amprolium
Normative ethics is defined as
An individual's attempt to discover what he or she believes to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior
Myositis define
inflammation and degeneration of muscle tissue.
What nerve blocks can be used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for a dental extraction of a maxillary tooth?
infraorbital block
What is the etiology of Clostridium botulinum, the toxin that causes botulism in cattle?
ingestion; C. botulinum is found in decomposing plants and animals, and toxins are produced in the decaying material. The most common source of the toxin for cattle is feed contaminated by carcasses of mice and birds.
Fipronil acts by...
inhibiting GABA and kills adult fleas. It is a topical; can also work against ticks
What is the most prevalent tick-borne pathogen in livestock
Anaplasma marginale
what are the two types of hookworms?
Ancylostoma and Uncinaria
Which of the following is NOT a use for an indwelling arterial catheter?
injections
Where are the anal sacs located?
inside the anus at the 4- and 8- o'clock positions
Beta cells of the pancreas make
insulin
A very tiny kitten presents with severe dehydration and is hardly responsive to handling. You are unable to place a peripheral IV catheter. What route could be used as a fast or most efficient way of administering fluids and medications to such a small animal?
intraosseous
Anode = Cathode = (positive or negative)
Anode = positive Cathode = negative
What is happening within the x-ray machine while you are "prepping" the x-ray (when you push the pedal halfway/when you push the first button)?
Anode rotates and filament is heated
ADH means
AntiDiuretic Hormone
What two parts of the digestive system are not lined with simple columnar epithelium? What are they lined by?
Anus and esophagus (lined by stratified squamous epithelium)
The ___________ square law states the intensity of the x-ray beam is _________ proportional to the square of the distance from the X-ray source. Therefore when the distance is smaller...
inverse square law states intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance.. therefore when the distance is smaller, the intensity is greater
The natural ovulatory season for mares in the northern hemisphere occurs during approximately which months?
April - August
What is the proper location for a hog snare?
Around the maxilla, over the snout
Which toxicity is not a common concern in cattle? Iron toxicity Salt toxicity Lead toxicity Aspergillus toxicosis
iron toxicity
Struvite crystals form when the pH of the urine
is ALKALINE note: Struvit(E) = Alkalin(E) (C)alcium ox = Acidi(C)
Coccidia is also called...
isospora
What is the most common swine gastrointestinal parasite?
Ascaris suum (large roundworms)
Only use ________ fluids for subcutaneous administration. what does this mean
isotonic; This means that the osmotic properties are equal to that of the extracellular fluid.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the presence of crystals in a dog or cat urine sample? It is always normal It is never normal It is usually normal Crystals are not present in urine
it is usually normal
When performing orthopedic surgery, it is sometimes necessary to advance a pin into the medullary canal of a bone. what instrument should the surgeon be provided to advance a pin?
jacob's chuck
In which part of the intestinal tract is nutrient absorption the greatest?
jejunum (longest portion)
what is Arthrocentesis?
joint-tap
Barium for an upper GI radiograph series should not be given to a patient with which of the following? Diarrhea Aspiration pneumonia Partial small intestinal obstruction Dehydration Renal insufficiency
Aspiration pneumonia
An indication of possible fluid overload is
jugular distention, fatigue, nose-leaking
The cerebellum is located...
just above the brainstem
AAFCO =
Association of American Feed Control Officials
Padding is extremely important when a horse is under general anesthesia. When the animal is placed in dorsal recumbency, how much padding is required between the surgical table and the horse?
At least six inches
What is the reversal for dexdomitor?
Atipamazole
Quinidine is a medication used to treat what condition in horses?
Atrial fibrillation
___________________ is an irregular arrhythmia and a more serious condition that occurs when the SA node isn't firing properly. Electrocardiogram is the best way to determine this by identifying a lack of p waves. It is treated with....
Atrial fibrillation treated with Quinidine, an antiarrhythmic.
What is the standard temperature and duration accepted for autoclaving?
Autoclaving standard is 250 degrees Fahrenheit (121 degrees Celsius) for 13 minutes.
The primary constituent of blood responsible for oncotic (osmotic) pressure of blood is... A) NaCl B) Albumin C) Hemoglobin D) RBCs
B) Albumin is the primary constituent of blood responsible for the oncotic pressure of blood. Oncotic pressure is a form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins in blood plasma. It pulls water in the circulatory system.
After a myelogram, dogs have a risk of having a seizure due to the contrast administration. The risk can be decreased by....
keeping the head elevated after the procedure.
What is KCS? how to treat?
keratoconjunctiva sicca - dry eye Treat with: cyclosporine, maybe steroid w/ antibiotics (if no ulcer)
Formula for % dehydration deficit... Give an example for a 65 lb dog with 5% dehydration.
kg x X% dehydration = volume in (L) ie: 65 / 2.2 = 30 kg x 0.05 = 1.5 L
Amphotericin B is often used in cases of resistant fungal infections, such as occurs with diseases like Coccidioides immitis. This medication is known for the potential to cause severe damage to what organ?
kidneys
Erythropoetin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone produced mainly by the:
kidneys
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination of the
kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder using iodinated contrast material injected intravenously
Pyrethrin is used for... and derived from what plant...
killing fleas derived from the chrysanthemum plant
You are on a farm call with a veterinarian to investigate the cause of agalactia in the farmer's cows. These cows have:
lack of milk production
Prolactin stimulates...
lactation (but oxytocin stimulates milk-letdown)
MacConkey agar contains ________
lactose
A horse with extended forelimbs and arched and tense back that is painful when turning most likely has...
laminitis
Use of black walnut shavings in horse bedding can cause
laminitis
define celiotomy
laparotomy - large abdominal incision
Mitral murmurs are usually
left sided holistic murmurs
whip worm is also known as... and what shape is it?
lemon shaped! known as - trichuris vulpis
what does the PR interval represent on an EKG
length of time for the impulse to travel through the AV node
What structure in the eye is responsible for focus?
lens
The term pediculosis indicates a problem with
lice
What drugs will cause loss of motor function when administered during an epidural?
lidocaine, bupivicaine; local anesthetics
What should be done with a dog after a myelogram to decrease the risk of procedure-related complications?
lift the head to prevent seizure
Glucose comes from _____________ production and from the GI tract when food is absorbed.
liver
Prothrombin, or factor II, is one of the clotting factors made by the...
liver
The gall bladder is located in the
liver
What organ is located directly behind the diaphragm in carnivores?
liver
The main sources of ALP are the
liver and bone
Lice are also called...
louse
Chemotherapy drugs usually have relatively __________ margins of safety.
low
When cows are dry (not lactating), they should be kept on what type of diet?
low calcium
What type of diet should a cat or dog in renal failure be fed?
low in phosphorous low in protein
A dog presents with scabies. You are instructed to give the dog a lime-sulfur medicated dip. What must you do prior to starting this dip?
lubricate eyes w/ protective ointment
Where would you collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from a standing sedated horse?
lumbosacral space (only can do atlantooccipital space if anesthetized)
A dog is having a mass removed from his side. What is the general term for this procedure?
lumpectomy
A kitten presents to the emergency service for burns in the mouth after biting into an electrical cord. Aside from the oral burns, what organ system would you most be concerned about? why?
lungs; because most pets will develop non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema when electrocuted. The fluid in the lungs can be life threatening and most of these pets will need extended hospitalization with oxygen and careful monitoring.
Capillaria aerophila is a
lungworm (aero..)
You see a lymph cell with multiple nucleoli...what is this diagnosis?
lymphoma (mitotic figures = multiple nucleoli)
in taking an x-ray, when you want to keep the same density, but double the distance of the focal point, what measurement should be adjusted and to what extent?
mAs 4X
Electrolytes (potassium, sodium, chloride) are measured in what units?
mEq/L
"Grass tetany" may been seen in sheep or goats due to a deficiency in which mineral?
magnesium deficiency mG = Grass tetany
"Grass tetany" may been seen in sheep or goats due to a deficiency in which mineral? How do you treat this?
magnesium; treat with Mg and Ca supplementation
Albumin provides oncotic pressure which helps...
maintain fluid in the vasculature
What are the side effects of atropine as a preanesthetic agent?
maintains HR, decreases oral secretions, decreases GI motility, decreases lacrimal secretions
Positive inotropes mostly work by
making more calcium available to the muscle and thus increase cardiac contractility.
Male ferret is called... female?
male = hob female = jill
C. septicum causes
malignant edema
C. septicum causes WHAT in cattle?
malignant edema.
Which animal is seasonally polyestrous and is not an induced ovulator? Sow Mare Queen Bitch
mare
A rabbit has been presented to your hospital for an abdominal surgery. The rabbit is dehydrated and will need to have fluids during the procedure so you need place an IV catheter before the procedure begins. Which location would be the best to use?
marginal ear vein
MPD stands for...
maximum permissable dose
After performing a blood smear in a patient it is determined that macrocytosis is present. What value would be expected to be elevated based on this observation on a complete blood count?
mean corpuscle volume (greater volume within a RBC)
Sodium fluoride is the preferred anticoagulant for what purpose?
measurement of blood glucose
what is a dental probe used for?
measuring periodontal disease/pockets
The frequency of an ultrasound probe is usually measured in
megahertz (MHz)
The ___________ is a bone marrow cell responsible for the production of blood thrombocytes (platelets).
megakaryocyte
A progestin drug, once commonly used for inappropriate urination in cats, but is now avoided due to harsh side effects such as mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma is known as....
megestrol acetate (OvaBan)
What is the anatomic term for a horses "fetlock"?
metacarpophalangeal joint
what is the poison found in snail bait?
metaldehyde
_______________ (Tapazole) may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect
methimazole
What is the treatment choices for hyperthyroidism?
methimazole or radioactive iodine
Which of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility? Barium Metoclopramide Famotidine Diphenhydramine
metoclopramide (Reglan)
A cat presents with watery diarrhea. On fecal examination, a wet mount shows motile protozoal trophozoites; a centrifugal zinc sulfate fecal flotation shows cysts of the parasite. What medication is most successful in treating this?
metronidazole
Which antibiotic often used for diarrhea has potential to cause a neurologic side effect? How would you treat this toxicity?
metronidazole treat with Valium (diazepam)
What does the mosquito transfer into an animal (if the animal is diagnosed with heartworm)?
microfilaria
Which of the following is a diagnostic stage of Dirofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworm, in dogs? Larval stage 1 (L1) Microfilarial stage Nymphal stage Larval stage 3 (L3)
microfilarial stage
The canine uterus is shaped like the letter: A) U B) Y C) J D) V
B) Y
Which of the following nutrients can be used for gluconeogenesis? A) Long chain fatty acids B) amino acids C) vit. C D) iron
B) amino acids
Which reaction is the result of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? A) Decreased heart rate B) Dilated pupils C) increased GI activity D) increased salivation
B) dilated pupils
cardiac muscle is.... a) non striated involuntary b) striated involuntary c) non-striated voluntary d) striated voluntary
B) striated involuntary
Which of the following conditions is most life threatening? A) atrial fibrillation B) ventricular fibrillation C) first degree heart block D) complete heart block
B) ventricular fibrillation: there is effectively no blood being pumped by the heart
A kitten presents with hair loss over the top of the head and you take a sample for DTM culture. The culture begins to turn red within two days and grows some white fuzz on the surface. What likely is this organism?
microsporum canis
The brain stem is made of the
midbrain, pons, medulla
the uvea is the _______ layer of the eye.
middle
Eclampsia also known as...
milk fever
The settings that affect exposure without changing contrast are
milliamperage and exposure time
A cubic centimeter is the same volume as a
milliliter
______________, produced by the adrenal cortex, helps regulate water and electrolytes within the body.
mineralocorticoids
Symptoms of Horner's syndrome include...
miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), enophthalmos, and third eyelid protrusion.
miosis and mydriasis (define)
miosis = constriction of pupils mydriasis = dilation of pupils
What medication would be beneficial to a patient who is being treated for an NSAID overdose?
misoprostal
smooth muscles can be found in the... a) heart b) stomach c) pelvic limb d) diaphragm
B; stomach
Flunixin meglumine is also known as
BANAMINE
Which lab test is used to assess kidney function and its breakdown product of protein?
BUN
When 75% of kidney function is lost, what values will you see change? and in what way?
BUN and creatinine will increase
The DHPP vaccine is what type of vaccine?
modified live
Aspergillus toxicosis is caused by
moldy feed
The Strongyloides stercoralis parasite is passed in the feces in the L1 larval form. What is the best way to recover and identify this parasite?
Baermann technique
What method involves collecting nematode larvae by allowing them to pass through a wire net or cheesecloth?
Baermann technique
Which of the following components of a digital radiography unit has the biggest influence on image quality? Workstation graphics card Workstation processor Monitor Server processor
monitor
For a tie-over bandage, when doing the loop sutures which kind of suture is best used?
monofilament, non-absorbable, the higher/stronger "0" suture the better (aka 0 is better than 1-0, etc)
darker = more or less exposure on xray film
more
Which of the following analgesics most often causes vomiting as a side effect in dogs? Morphine Butorphanol Meloxicam Fentanyl
morphine
What is the most common factor that makes it difficult to get a radiograph on a horse?
movement
A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is a
moving grid; helping to reduce scatter onto the film
what is the lining of the small intestines that absorbs nutrients? how does it do it?
mucosa. It is lined with villi which help to absorb nutrients
Valium is often given with ketamine to provide which effect?
muscle relaxant
Glucocorticoids are often used for treating.... but NOT for....
musculoskeletal problems, immune-mediated diseases, and allergies NOT FOR: infections
What is the most common cause of flexural and angular deformities in horses?
musculotendinous and musculoskeletal growth deformities; Abnormal development
What type of organisms are typically detected with an acid-fast stain?
mycobacteria and Nocardia
Which bacteria will not stain using the Gram staining method? Campylobacter E.coli 0157 Salmonella Mycobacterium
mycobacteria because it needs an acid-fast stain
white matter is...
myelinated
When myelosuppression is severe, it is called....
myeloablation
The study of muscles is
myology
IS coccidia zoonotic?
nO
Roundworms/Toxocara is a type of...
nematode
Dirofilaria immitis falls under what category of parasite?
nematode (roundworm)
Listeria leads to what side effects in cattle?
neurologic issues; head tilt
The type of cell responsible for the transmission of impulses through the nervous system is...
neuron
Canine parvovirus can cause which of the following laboratory changes? why?
neutropenia because if sepsis occurs this overwhelming infection can lead to decrease in neutrophils
What is the preferred stain to identify reticulocytes and Heinz bodies in erythrocytes?
new methylene blue
Iron toxicity is most common in
newborn pigs
In the United States, what type of gas is in a blue gas tank?
nitrous oxide
Gamma hemolysis causes what in blood agar plate?
no change in appearance
Gamma hemolysis causes
no change in the blood agar medium's appearance
For a LDDS test: what increments do you do blood tests?
Base line, 4hrs, 8hrs
What is the least numerous blood cell in circulation?
Basophils
Enrofloxacin =
Baytril
Why should blood-level when on Digoxin be monitored closely?
Because of its potential side effects that can occur due to toxic serum levels
Viruses with WHAT characteristic are significantly more resistant to environmental degradation; in other words, they survive longer in the environment. What's a common example.
non-enveloped such as parvovirus
what is the best description of an epulis?
non-malignant tumor of the periodontal ligament
_______________ are one of the most helpful tests in evaluating liver function, particularly in cases of portosystemic shunts.
Bile acids
The main difference between non-screen film and screen film is that..
non-screen film has the image produced by x-rays themselves, whereas screen film uses light produced in an intensifying screen to generate the image.
On average, cows have their estrous cycle how often?
non-seasonal polyestrous; every 21 days
define eupnea
normal respiration
yellow rads are usually due to...
not being "fixed" appropriately in the fixer
An owner has fed her diabetic cat and has given the insulin injection. She calls the clinic because there is a wet spot on the fur where she gave the injection and she doesn't think it went in. What will you advise her to do?
not to re-dose; keep on schedule
Gasterophilus are...
not worms but rather bot fly larvae and are also known as the stomach bot. found in horses
What action do you take if you notice the presence of a few hyaline casts in urine...
nothing; no concern; may be normal
While evaluating a post-operative patient, a small amount of serosanguinous fluid is noted oozing from the surgical incision. What is the best course of action?
notify the vet
You are processing a fluid sample from a CSF tap. There is some blood contamination of the sample. What values can be most significantly changed by blood contamination and is frequently corrected for when analyzing the results?
nucleated cell count
where is RNA produced
nucleolus
"spinous ear ticks". What is the proper name for this parasite?
obtobius megnini
Which of the following structures in the body is most sensitive to radiation? Ocular lens Thyroid gland Cerebral neurons Bones of the hand
ocular lens
Plant-originated drugs are ineffective in a cow when given orally because...
of digestive microorganisms in the rumen
what is a diffuse placenta?
of horses and pigs - The placenta is formed by the whole allantochorion surface. They also have an epitheliochorial placenta like ruminants.
What is a discoid placenta?
of primates and rodents - (a single discoid shaped placenta). They have a hemochorial placenta (no maternal layers, but instead direct contact of maternal blood with the chorion)
what is a cotyledonary placenta?
of ruminants - numerous smaller placentae instead of a single large contact area between the mother and fetus
Where do you do SQ injections on a horse? Why?
on the lateral side of the neck; because if it causes a reaction it is easier to manage
Decompression should be performed on the stomach; the best place for the trocharization is
on the right side
Hemoabdomen is
one type of ascites, specifically blood in the abdomen.
When administering a blood transfusion to a rat which species is able to donate?
only rats
What treatments work against cattle warbles...?
organophosphates or macrocyclic lactones (ie ivermectin)
Epidural anesthesia provides analgesia and is of great benefit in
orthopedic surgeries regarding hind-limbs in dogs
Rabbit pox is caused by
orthopox virus; only infective for lab rabbits and not wild rabbits
define enopthalmos
osterior displacement of the eyeball within the orbit
What is the most common roundworm in cattle.
ostertagia ostertagi
why are animals with azotemia often on acid blockers?
otherwise the acidity that accumulates can lead to ulcers in the entire GI tract/oral region.
Gentamicin can cause what 2 toxicities if not monitored appropriately?
ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
What is of the biggest concern when shipping pigs?
overheating (same for sheep)
What is the structure that transports the egg from the ovary to the uterus?
oviducts (fallopian tubes)
Orf is the cause of contagious ecthyma primarily in which species? this is also known as...
ovine (sheep) and goats; also known as "sore mouth"
Progesterone levels increase after
ovulation has already occurred
In dogs dentition: The incisors on the mandible should be _________ to the incisors on the maxilla
palatal
When looking at a dogs oral occlusion; incisors on the mandible should be...
palatal to the incisors on the maxilla
Amylase comes from what organ
pancreas
Which organ is responsible for producing most of the digestive enzymes used to breakdown food? Liver Pancreas Stomach Spleen
pancreas
Which organ(s) in the body is (are) responsible for producing insulin?
pancreas
What parasite can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in the foal
parascaris equorum
What is "within" the thyroid gland?
parathyroid glands
The ________ is the largest of the salivary glands.
parotid
A spherocyte is a dark staining red blood cell with no central pallor that usually occurs from
partial phagocytosis of the cell as is seen with immune-mediated destruction.
giving birth is known as...
parturition
The non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, ketoprofen, should not be used in...
patients with renal failure
Blood lactate is a marker of what?
perfusion and oxygen delivery to the tissues
There are ________ glands and _________ glands associated with the anus of dogs and cats.
perianal and apocrine
Which anatomic structure is the passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems?
pharynx
The most widely used type of antiemetic drugs used to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats are...
phenothiazines
The most commonly prescribed medication for urinary incontinence is
phenylpropanolamine
What drug is used for urinary incontinence and increases urethral sphincter tone?
phenylpropanolamine
define myoglobinurea
pigmented urine
Which species has ovaries that look like grape clusters?
pigs
What species has ovaries that look like grape clusters?
pigs (remember they are litter bearing!)
Moraxella bovis is the cause of
pink eye in cattle
Lactose-fermenting bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar?
pink/red
An owner presents her diabetic cat and new glucometer with lancets. Where is the best place for her to collect a sample?
pinna/smaller veins
What worms typically lay their eggs around the rectum?
pinworm (esp. seen in equine)
What drug is the most common OTC vermifuge?
piperazine (Pipa-Tabs)
what type of bedding should you not put in with a horse because it can cause laminitis?
Black Walnut (Juglans nigra) tree
what gland is known as the "master gland"?
pituitary
ACTH, GH, and TSH (Thyroid stim hormone) are all produced in the
pituitary gland
ADH is stored and released from the
pituitary gland
What is the best way to restrain a unwilling rat for an exam?
place your thumb and forefinger under their front legs while applying gentle tension on the base of the tail.
The menace test will elicit which response? Which two nerves is this testing?
Blink; nerves II, VII
Yersinia pestis is the causative agent for which zoonotic disease?
plague
Stored plasma contains
plasma proteins only
Pseudorabies is a virus caused by
porcine Herpes virus 1
Which vessel transports blood from the intestines to the liver?
portal vein
oxytocin is produced by the...
posterior pituitary gland
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) can cause a high _____________ level...
potassium. *hyperkalemia
_____________ vaporizers should always be used in small mammal anesthesia.
precision
What typically appear hyperechoic (bright white) on ultrasound imaging?
Bone and gas
Ticks can serve as vectors to transmit several diseases in animals including Lyme disease. What is the agent that causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
A large canine patient that has been in the hospital developed a decubital ulcer. What is likely causing this?
pressure from laying in one position for too long
What part of the brain controls heartbeat, respiration, and blood pressure?
Brain stem
What species require Vitamin C in their diets because they cannot synthesize it?
primates and guinea pigs
Cisapride is a
pro-motility medication
What is the function of a goblet cell?
produce mucous
As estrogen rises during ______________, the vaginal epithelium proliferates, cornifies, and keratinizes, presumably in preparation for mating.
proestrus
Chronic exposure to which hormone leads to a pyometra?
progesterone
What hormone maintains pregnancy?
progesterone
corpus luteum produces what hormone...
progesterone
Cherry eye is also known as...
prolapsed 3rd eyelid/disorder of the nictitating membrane
A dog presents to the emergency hospital in status epilepticus. What drugs may be given for this condition?
propofol or diazepam/valium
what is a neuroglia
protects and support the nervous system; "connective tissue" of the nervous system
BUN measures blood nitrogen levels that come from the waste product urea. Urea is made when ________ are broken down.
proteins
A coccidiostat is used to control what type of infection?
protozoal (eimeria, isospora)
What is the anatomic term for a horses "pastern bone"?
proximal phalanx
Which of the following is considered a reportable swine disease? Pseudorabies Pasturella multocida Erysipelas Sarcoptic mange
pseudorabies
Where do adult heartworms live?
pulmonary arteries
Nitrous oxide is also contraindicated when pathology such as
pulmonary bullae are present.
A dog with bradycardia and a low albumin on a high rate of IV fluids is at risk for developing what?
pulmonary edema
A syncopal episode is an episode of fainting. A common cause of this in dogs is
pulmonary hypertension or underlying cardiovascular disease.
What are some class III drugs
Buprenorphine and ketamine
What is a common partial mu agonist/antagonist used in vet medicine? What does this mean/what effects?
Butorphanol; provides analgesia and sedation by binding to the mu receptors, while also reversing some actions of pure mu agonists (like morphine) due to its antagonist properties.
the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures of the expanding and contracting arterial walls is the...
pulse
You are preparing to collect abdominal fluid from a horse presented for signs of colic. Collection of abdominal fluid for cytologic examination should be collected in what type of sample tube?
purple (EDTA)
how to work with the heel effect when radiographing your patient...
put the thicker part of the patient towards teh cathode side
the muscular sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the...
pylorus
serious, potential side effects of estrogen administration include...
pyometra and bone marrow suppression
The sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of
rabbits
Which species does not have canine teeth? Horses Rabbits Cows Llamas
rabbits
Which animals develop dental caries?
rabbits, chinchillas, dogs
It is the _________ of the centrifuge that determines how much force is generated for a given RPM speed.
radius
A physiologic isotonic solution would contain... A) 100 mOsm B) 200 mOsm C) 300 mOsm D) 500 mOsm
C) 300 mOsm
The quadriceps contain what muscles..
rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius
define chromodacryorrhea
red tears
what do the adrenal glands do?
regulate electrolytes, metabolism, sexual functions, and the body's response to injury.
define vagal effects
relating to vagus nerve (CN-X), reacts with parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and digestive tract.
What is the "antidote" or treatment for Flagyl toxicity in animals?
reminder: "Flagyl" = metronidazole treatment for toxicity = diazepam (Valium)
ablation is...
removal of material from the surface of the object
define caudalectomy
removal of the tail
What findings in a urine sample is associated with renal tubular damage or disease?
renal casts
Renal casts are suggestive of..
renal disease
Isosthenuria may be observed during
renal failure (kidney's can't concentrate urine)
The T wave on an ECG represents
repolarization of ventricle
Amphotericin B is often used in cases of
resistant fungal infections
Opioids are commonly used in veterinary medicine. What is one of the most common side effects of opioids? Increased heart rate Respiratory depression Elevated temperature Diarrhea
resp. depression
The pons and medulla are important for what function?
respiratory
hardware disease occurs when metals are collected in what part of the cows stomach
reticulum
An IVP is not as useful for urethral stones because they are further down in the urinary tract; in this case, __________________________ would be more helpful.
retrograde cystography
The withers is located...
ridge between the shoulder blades
The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber?
right atrium
A pregnant mare has what kind of placentation? A) Zonary B) Cotyledonary C) Diffuse D) Discoid
C) Diffuse: a placenta made up of villi diffusely scattered over almost the whole surface of the chorion (as in whales, swine, and horses) IMAGE: A
Blood flows from the...
right atrium, to the tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, then to the rest of the body.
An ECG should ideally be recorded on a patient in what position?
right lateral recumbancy
dermatophytosis is also known as
ringworm
microsporum canis is a cause of... (what in cats)
ringworm (dermatophytosis)
A 6-year old collie presents after falling out of a moving vehicle. The dog has an open tibial fracture and pulmonary contusions. What would be the best way to immediately stabilize the fracture?
robert jones bandage
what is the most common endodontic procedure?
root canal
Crowns are placed after a....
root canal procedure
The tapeworm of Dipylidium is a flat, segmented worm. It attaches to the intestine via the ___________ has hooks on it. It has __ rows of teeth.
rostellum; 6 rows of teeth
protein synthesis is done with what intracellular structure
rough er
define Ascarid
roundworm
Parascaris equorum is...
roundworm of horses
What is the causative agent of visceral larval migrans in humans?
roundworms (toxocara canis)
what are the long folds found in the stomach called
rugae
Administrative ethics are defined as:
rules set by governmental standards
cattle, sheep, antelopes, deer, and giraffes are all what type of animal...
ruminants
which animal has cotyledonary placenta?
ruminants -- sheep, cattle, etc.
What type of placenta does... a ruminent have? a primate/rodent have? a cat/dog have? horses and pigs?
ruminants have cotyledonary placentas primates and rodents have discoid placentas Dogs and cats have zonary placentas Horses and pigs have a diffuse placenta
drawer motion is usually caused by a
ruptured cranial cruciate ligament
