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The veterinarian you work for is referring a Cocker Spaniel for an ear canal ablation procedure. What will this procedure entail? Opening of the tympanic membrane and flushing of the middle ear Surgical excision and closure of the external ear canal Ligation of the 8th cranial nerve A deep flush and culture of the ear canal

Surgical excision and closure of the external ear canal Ear canal ablation is often performed in dogs with chronic stenotic, painful, and infected ears in which ancillary therapies have failed. It entails surgical removal and closure of the external ear canals.

A feline patient presents for onychectomy. What does this entail? Nail trim Bladder stone removal Surgical nail removal Anal gland expression Neuter

Surgical nail removal Onychectomy, mostly known as declawing, is an operation to surgically remove an animal's nails by means of amputating the distal phalanx.

What is the most common location for placement of an arterial catheter (a-line) in a dog? Brachial artery Dorsal metatarsal artery Femoral artery Pulmonary artery Radial artery

Dorsal metatarsal artery

What is the normal temperature for a cat or dog? 95.7-103.5F 100-102.6F 103.5-104.5F 97.8-98.5F

100-102.6F Normal temperature for dogs and cats is around 100 to 102.5F. When they are stressed or excited, the temperature may increase somewhat or may remain normal for some patients. Therefore, a temperature slightly higher than the reference range should be interpreted based on clinical status of the patient.

What is the term given to the end of the spinal cord? Spinous terminata Corte finale Cauda equina Cordus altus

Cauda equina The cauda equina is at the lower end of the spine and is made up of nerve roots. The base of this region includes around 3-5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and a coccygeal nerve. The reason it is called the cauda "equina" is that the appearance of this area grossly resembles a horse's tail.

You are performing an ACTH stimulation test. You are instructed to give Cortrosyn at a dose of 5 micrograms/kg IV. The Cortrosyn has been reconstituted to a concentration of 0.25 mg/mL. Your patient weighs 27 pounds. How much Cortrosyn should you administer? 0.08 mL 2.4 mL 0.24 mL 2.1 mL 0.85 mL

0.24 mL 27 pounds = 12.2 kg 12.2 kg X 5 micrograms = 61 micrograms 61 micrograms/ 1000 micrograms per mg = 0.06 mg (1 mg is equal to 1000 mcg) 0.06 mg/ 0.25 mg/mL = 0.24 mL IV

A 285-gram guinea pig weighs: 2.8 lbs 0.285 kg 2.85 kg 1.2 lbs

0.285 kg 1 kilogram equals 1,000 g 285 g/ 1,000 g/kg = 0.285 kg If you want to convert into pounds, multiply kg X 2.2 pounds/kg. 0.285 kg x 2.2 pounds/kg = 0.627 pounds

A dog refuses a rectal temperature. You take his temperature under the axillary region and get a reading of 99.5F. What is likely his core body temperature? 101.5F 98.7F 102.1F 99.5F

101.5F Typically a temperature taken in the ear or under a peripheral limb reads 1 to 2 degrees lower than rectal temperature, or core body temperature.

How many liters of 50% dextrose should be added to 5 liters of 0.9% saline to make a 5% dextrose solution? 0.5 L 0.75 L 0.25 L 0.05 L

0.5 L To answer this question, the following formula should be implemented: C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2) C is the concentration V is the volume C(1) =0.5 V(1) = x C(2) = 0.05 V(2) = 5 L 0.5x = 0.05(5) x = 0.5 L 0.5 L of 50% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution.

You are working in the critical care unit and learning to perform central venous pressure readings. What is a normal CVP reading? 10-15 cm H2O 0-10 cm H2O 90-120 cm H2O 15-20 cm H2O Less than 0 cm H2O

0-10 cm H2O The central venous pressure is the blood pressure of the thoracic vena cava. It is very helpful in monitoring the hydration status of a patient. A value less than zero would indicate dehydration and a value starting to trend upward around 5-8 indicates adequate fluids. Readings over 10 may indicate fluid overload or venous congestion. These values should always be interpreted in light of the patient's clinical status (i.e. body weight, skin turgor, heart rate, mucus membrane status, etc).

What is the normal sulcus depth of the teeth in dogs when examining with a periodontal probe? 3-8 mm 3-5 mm 0-1 mm 0-3 mm

0-3 mm In dogs, a sulcus depth of 0-3 mm is considered normal. Depths greater than 3 mm are suggestive of periodontal disease. In cats, the normal depth is only 0-1 mm.

A 47 pound Standard Poodle has come to your hospital for a hind limb lameness and the veterinarian would like you to give an injection of Carprofen SQ for pain. The dosage is 2.2 mg/kg. Using the image, how many milliliters will you give to this patient? 4.6 ml 4.1 ml 0.9 ml 2.0 ml

0.9 ml First you must convert pounds to kilograms dividing 47 by 2.2= 21.3 kg. 21.3 kg multiplied by 2.2 mg/kg= 47 mg divided by 50 mg/ml= 0.9 ml

What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken? 98.8F 102F 104F 107F

107F The deep body temperature of a chicken is around 107 degrees Fahrenheit.

Which of the following catheters would allow the largest volume of fluids to be given over the shortest amount of time? 16g x 1" 22g x 3/4" 18g x 2" 24g x 1"

16g x 1" Catheters that are shorter in length and larger in diameter can deliver the largest volume of fluids in the shortest amount of time. This is known as Poiseuille's Law.

How many milliliters should be administered to a 100-kg patient that needs 50 mg of a 2.5% solution? 125 ml 25 ml 2.5 ml 2 ml

2 ml Percent is equal to weight (in Grams) / 100 parts volume (in mLs) (This is based on water since 1 mL weighs 1 Gram): Example: A 3% solution: 3 Grams / 100 mL or 3000 mg / 100 mL or 30 mg/mL The easiest way to remember is to just add a zero onto any percentage for the milligrams (i.e. 2% solution = 20 mg/ml; 10% solution = 100 mg/ml, etc.) In this situation a 2.5% solution is equivalent to 25 mg/ml. Therefore: 50 mg / (25 mg/ml) = 2 ml

You are recovering an 80 pound patient post-op and the dog is painful. The surgeon would like you to give a Fentanyl injection prior to starting the constant rate infusion. He asks you to give 4 micrograms per kg IV. Fentanyl concentration is 0.05 mg/mL. What quantity do you administer? 0.29 mL 2.9 mL 0.9 mL 1.2 mL

2.9 mL First convert to kg: 80 pounds/2.2 = 36.3 kg 36.3 kg X 4 micrograms= 145 micrograms Now convert the microgram dose into milligrams: 145 micrograms / 1,000 = 0.145 mg Now divide the dose by the concentration of the medication: 0.145 mg/ 0.05 mg/mL = 2.9 mL

A patient is hypoventilating and the end-tidal CO2 is rising. The doctor instructs you to give the patient a breath. The pressure on the manometer to which you ventilate the patient is: 20 cm H2O 40 cm H2O 60 cm H2O 5 cm H2O

20 cm H2O When inflating the lungs, the pressure should reach but not exceed 20 cm H2O.

A 12-pound cat has presented with diabetic ketoacidosis and is currently in shock. The doctor orders that a 40 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% saline be administered. How many milliliters will this patient receive? 220 ml 9 ml 36 ml 480 ml

220 ml The body weight needs to be converted to kilograms. 12 lb / (2.2 lb/kg) = 5.5 kg 5.5 kg x (40 ml/kg) = 220 ml

Which neurotransmitter is associated with the sympathetic nervous system? Epinephrine Acetylcholine Glutamate GABA Histamine

Epinephrine Neurotransmitters transmit signals from a neuron to a cell across a synapse. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are the neurotransmitters associated with the sympathetic nervous system. Acetylcholine is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system.

A neonatal foal should have his immunoglobulin G (IgG) measured at what time after birth? 24 hours 1 hour 30 days 7 days

24 hours Neonatal foals have a functioning immune system but have minimal antibodies present in the blood when born; therefore, they rely on passive transfer of maternal antibodies by consumption of colostrum from the mare. The IgG should be evaluated in foals between 16-24 hours of age. This is testing for failure of passive transfer.

What is the normal respiratory rate of a cat? 40-76 breaths per minute 6-14 breaths per minute 24-42 breaths per minute 12-18 breaths per minute

24-42 breaths per minute Cats have a resting respiratory rate of approximately 24-42 breaths per minute. Dogs have a resting respiratory rate of approximately 10-30 breaths per minute. Horses have a respiratory rate of approximately 8-16 breaths per minute.

What is the ideal age for tail docking in puppies? 2 to 3 weeks 4 to 6 months or at the time of sterilization At birth 3 to 5 days

3 to 5 days Tail docking in puppies should occur within 3 to 5 days after birth.

A 13.2-lb cat is being sent home with an oral solution of Tramadol for post-operative pain control. At a dose of 3 mg/kg, how many milliliters should be given if the solution comes in a 5 mg/ml concentration? 5 ml 8 ml 18 ml 3.6 ml

3.6 ml First, convert pounds to kilograms. 13.2 / (2.2 lb/kg) = 6 kg Then calculate milligrams necessary. 6 kg x 3 mg/ml = 18 mg Finally, calculate milliliters necessary. 18 mg / (5 mg/ml) = 3.6 ml

Your clinic has decided to start harvesting blood from volunteer donors to administer to patients. How long can whole blood units be stored in the refrigerator if properly collected? 35 days 3 months 45 days 1 year 21 days

35 days Whole blood units may be stored for 35 days if the unit is collected aseptically, stored appropriately and mixed daily.

A 60-lb patient is to go home on Clavamox after his dental cleaning. The dose is 14 mg/kg. What size tablet should the patient be sent home with? 62.5 mg 375 mg 125 mg 250 mg

375 mg After converting the body weight to kilograms the dose needs to be multiplied by the body weight. 60 lb / (2.2 lb/kg) = 27 kg (Notice the pounds cancel out) 27 kg x 14= 378 mg Many medications are available in different concentrations to accommodate different sized patients. This is particularly the case with oral medications so that owners don't have to worry about trying to halve or quarter medications.

You remove an IV catheter from a peripheral vein and place a pressure bandage. What is the maximum amount of time this bandage should stay on? 12 hours 1 hour 30 minutes 4 hours

4 hours Venous return can become compromised if a compression bandage or pressure wrap is left on for more than 4 hours. It is best to remove the pressure bandage once the bleeding has stopped so that the bandage is not forgotten and venous return is not compromised.

How long does estrus in the dog typically last? 1-3 days 4-13 days 6 months 14-28 days

4-13 days Estrus typically lasts 4 to 13 days, with an average of 9 days. The entire estrous cycle in the dog is approximately 6 months.

You calculate the volume deficit for a patient which is approximately 2 liters. You are instructed to give this volume over the next 5 hours. What should the fluid rate be? 250 mL/hr 160 mL/hr 400 mL/hr 310 mL/hr

400 mL/hr First convert the liters (L) into milliliters (mL): (there are 1000 mL in 1 L) 2 L X 1000mL/L (liters cancel out)= 2000 mL You need to give this over 5 hours: 2000 mL/ 5 hours (mL cancel out)= 400 mL/hr

Anesthetic monitoring of pet patients is one of the most important veterinary technician duties. How often should vitals be checked and recorded? 1 minute 5 minutes 20 minutes 10 minutes

5 minutes Most places require that readings be taken at 5 minute intervals. The requirements may vary by state or facility.

When scrubbing in for a surgery, the minimum time for a scrub is which of the following? 15 minutes 1 minute 10 minutes 5 minutes

5 minutes One of the most important parts of scrubbing in for surgery is contact time of the scrub on the skin. The minimum time for scrubbing is 5 minutes. Most scrubs take an average of 5 to 8 minutes.

Regarding fluid types, which cannot be given subcutaneously? 0.9% NaCl Lactated Ringers 5% Dextrose Isolyte

5% Dextrose Only use isotonic fluids for subcutaneous administration. This means that the osmotic properties are equal to that of the extracellular fluid. Dextrose given subcutaneously can cause sloughing of the skin and abscess formation.

What percentage of mammary gland tumors in the cat are malignant? 20% 90% 50% 100%

90% Mammary tumors in the cat have about a 90% chance of being cancerous. In the dog, the chance is closer to 45-50%.

While caring for a week old orphan puppy, it is important to monitor body temperature. Rectal temperature should be between: 92-94F 94-99F 101-103F 99-101F

94-99F If the temperature falls below 94F, the heart rate will drop and intestinal motion ceases. Death will occur if not corrected.

You are responsible for autoclaving surgical packs in the hospital. You are using a steam sterilizer and heat to a temperature of 250 degrees Fahrenheit (121 degrees Celsius) for 30 minutes. What minimum humidity level is needed in order to provide adequate sterilization? 97-99% humidity 80-85% humidity 10-15% humidity 30-35% humidity

97-99% humidity The relative humidity in the steam sterilizer must reach 97-99% humidity in order to provide proper sterilization.

What is it called when a limb is moved outward or away from the median plane of the body? Extension Adduction Flexion Abduction

Abduction Abduction involves movement away from the midline. Adduction is movement toward midline.

Diphenhydramine is typically used in treating which of the following conditions? Urinary incontinence Keratoconjunctivitis sicca Auto-immune conditions Allergic reactions Urinary tract infections

Allergic reactions Diphenhydramine is also known as Benadryl. It is a an anti-histamine most commonly used for treating allergies or allergic reactions. A urinary tract infection would require an antibiotic. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is an immune mediated condition and is usually treated with cyclosporine. Auto-immune conditions also call for immunosuppressive agents. Urinary incontinence may be treated with phenylpropanolamine.

How can a technician determine if a pack was sterilized appropriately? The tape on the outside of the pack is not broken An indicator strip inside the pack changes color The pack is steaming when removed from the autoclave The pack is double wrapped prior to autoclaving, ensuring sterility

An indicator strip inside the pack changes color The only way to know for sure if a pack has received appropriate sterilization is if the indicator strip changes color inside the pack.

Which of these dog breeds is most predisposed to development of gastric dilatation and volvulus? Great Dane Cocker Spaniel Dalmatian Chihuahua

Great Dane The correct answer is Great Dane. Large and giant breed pure-bred dogs, particularly with deep chests, are very predisposed to developing GDV. Great Danes are a classic example; other common breeds include Weimaraner, Saint Bernard, and Irish Setters.

What causes cutaneous larval migration in humans? Toxocara Dipylidium Ancylostoma Echinococcus

Ancylostoma The correct answer is Ancylostoma. These are hookworms; when they come in contact with unprotected skin, the infective larvae penetrate the epidermis but generally cannot penetrate the basement membrane. They therefore migrate aimlessly, and the disease is usually self-limiting in humans.

Anemia would likely result from a heavy infection with which parasite? Dipylidium Ancylostoma Toxocara Cystoisospora

Ancylostoma The most significant risk to an animal with hookworms is anemia. Hookworms live in the small intestine and ingest blood. Ancylostoma and Uncinaria are the two hookworms in dogs and cats (hookworm eggs are shown in this photo). Cystoisospora (coccidia) can cause a significant bloody diarrhea in some cases, which could lead to anemia, but this is not as likely as with hookworms.

What is the average gestation length of a cow?

Approximately 285 days

If an owner is instructed to give a medication "prn", how often should it be given? Hourly As needed Every 4 hours Once daily Continuous via infusion

As needed Derived from the Latin "pro re nata", prn means to give when needed or as necessary.

Which lab test is used to assess kidney function and its breakdown product of protein? -Albumin -Total bilirubin -Creatinine -Glucose -BUN

BUN BUN measures blood nitrogen levels that come from the waste product urea. Urea is made when proteins are broken down. Creatinine is a waste product from breakdown of muscle tissue which is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys.

Mineralized debris on the tooth surface is known as which of the following? Cementum Plaque Dentin Calculus

Calculus Calculus is mineralization of plaque on the teeth. Plaque is a mixture of bacteria, saliva, and food parts that cover the tooth in a thin film. Plaque can turn into calculus in as early as a week. Dentin is the hard, white portion of the tooth. Cementum is calcified connective tissue.

The rear end of an animal is referred to as which of the following regions? Cranial region Ventral region Dorsal region Caudal region

Caudal region Cranial is toward the head. Caudal is toward the tail. Ventral is toward the abdomen; dorsal is toward the backbone. Lateral is away from midline and medial is toward midline. Proximal is close to the spine or body while distal is away; these are typically used when describing limbs (e.g. fracture of the proximal femur vs. fracture of the distal femur). Palmar is the bottom of the paw of the forelimb; plantar is the bottom of the paw of the hind limb. Anterior is toward the head and posterior is away from the head. In veterinary medicine, anterior and posterior are usually used only to describe distal extremities or areas of the head.

Where is the hypothalamus is located? Brain stem Diencephalon Mid-brain Mediastinum

Diencephalon The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland. The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain adjoining the brain and spinal cord. Most of the cranial nerves originate in the brain stem. The brain stem includes the medulla oblongata, pons, and the midbrain. The thymus is located in the mediastinum. The mesencephalon is the mid-brain (part of the brain stem).

Which method is used to determine the sex of young mice? Palpation of testicles in males Distance between the anus and genitalia Penile extrusion Tail length

Distance between the anus and genitalia Anogenital distance is the best way to determine whether juvenile mice are male or female.

Which chemotherapeutic agent has been associated with cardiotoxicity? L-asparaginase Cyclophosphamide Lomustine Ivermectin is effective against which organisms?

Doxorubicin Different chemotherapy drugs are known for causing certain side-effects. Doxorubicin has been associated with cardiotoxicity. Cyclophosphamide is associated with cystitis. A more common side effect of L-asparaginase is anaphylaxis. Lomustine may cause pancreatitis.

You are preparing to collect abdominal fluid from a horse presented for signs of colic. Collection of abdominal fluid for cytologic examination should be collected in what type of sample tube? - EDTA (purple top) -Clot tube (red top) -Sodium citrate (blue top) -Sodium heparin (green top)

EDTA (purple top) Cells from fluid samples are best preserved and prevented from clotting in an EDTA tube.

A client calls to schedule an appointment with the doctor because her dog has been shaking his head and now his ear flap feels swollen, warm to the touch, and is squishy. What should you book the appointment as? Ear canal ablation Ear hemangiosarcoma Ear hematoma Pinnal balloon

Ear hematoma An ear hematoma occurs when the vessels inside the pinna rupture (from shaking the head, trauma, or vasculitis). The pinna (ear flap) fills with blood like a balloon. The term for this condition is an ear hematoma. The most common treatment includes placing a drain in the pinna that stays in place for a couple of weeks. Underlying ear disease should be treated as well.

In the United States, what is the appropriate color of an oxygen gas tank? Green Yellow Black Gray Blue

Green In the United States: Green indicates oxygen Gray = carbon dioxide Yellow = medical compressed air Blue = nitrous oxide Black = nitrogen Brown = helium Other countries use different color markings. Gas mixtures are indicated by two or more designated colors on the cylinder.

Many times, horses require additional muscle relaxation during anesthesia. Which of the following is commonly used for its property of being a centrally acting muscle relaxant? Atracurium Succinylcholine Guaifenesin Ketamine

Guaifenesin The correct answer is guaifenesin. Unfortunately, the exact mechanism is unknown; however, we do know that guaifenesin acts centrally by blocking nerve impulse transmission at the internuncial neuron level in the subcortical brain, brain stem, and spinal cord. Early signs of toxicity are in the form of increased rigidity. Ketamine is a dissociative agent and is known for its ability to cause hypertonia. Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts by competitively binding to cholinergic receptors at the motor endplate. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent.

What is most commonly used to restrain a horse for basic procedures? Twitch Halter Squeeze chute Hobbles

Halter The halter is a "head collar" or headgear that fits behind the ears and around the muzzle. A lead rope is attached to the halter. It is a basic piece of equipment that is almost always used when handling an adult horse. Twitches are also used when greater restraint is needed.

The tibiotarsal joint may also be referred to as which of the following? Stifle Elbow Hock Shoulder

Hock The tibiotarsal joint (the joint between the distal tibia and the tarsus) is also commonly called the hock.

Phenylpropanolamine is used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs. It can commonly cause which side effect that should be discussed with the owner? Renal failure Hypertension Hypocalcemia Profound hyperglycemia

Hypertension Phenylpropanolamine (Proin) can cause a high blood pressure (hypertension). If this occurs with the drug, a different treatment should be considered.

Which of the following nerve blocks can be used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for a dental extraction of a maxillary tooth? Mental nerve block Auriculopalpebral block Inferior alveolar block Infraorbital block

Infraorbital block The infraorbital block or maxillary block are local anesthetic techniques used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for procedures involving the maxilla. The inferior alveolar block and mental nerve block are local anesthetic techniques for the mandible.

A low packed cell volume could occur due to which of the following? Low phosphorus Iron deficiency Hyperkalemia Iron toxicity

Iron deficiency A low packed cell volume indicates anemia. Iron deficiency is also known as hypochromic microcytic anemia. It is most often suspected in patients with chronic blood loss but could also result from poor nutrition.

Which drug choice is a dissociative anesthetic and used for anesthetic induction and analgesia in veterinary medicine? Propofol Acepromazine Ketamine Xylazine

Ketamine Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic often used for induction of anesthesia. It is an NMDA receptor antagonist and also binds to opioid receptors, which provides analgesic effect. It is often given simultaneously with diazepam for anesthetic inductions.

Which type of gas is formed due to rumenal fermentation? Sevoflurane Octane Oxygen Methane

Methane Microbial fermentation of feed leads to production of methane gas. Carbohydrate digestion in the rumen (anaerobic methanogenesis) causes the highest amount of methane gas to be released.

Horner's syndrome can cause which of the following clinical symptoms? Miosis Hind limb weakness Mydriasis Exophthalmos

Miosis Horner's syndrome can occur as a result of damage along the sympathetic trunk, especially as the trunk goes through the middle ear. Symptoms include miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), enophthalmos, and third eyelid protrusion. At least three of these signs must be present to confirm the diagnosis. Weakness of the thoracic limb can also be present on the affected side.

You perform a vaginal cytology of a bitch in heat. Which of the following should you normally see? No neutrophils, large number of red blood cells Mostly cornified cells No cornified cells, mostly neutrophils with a few red blood cells A few cornified cells, no red blood cells, and a large number of neutrophils

Mostly cornified cells During heat, cytology will show 90-100% cornified epithelial cells.

Dirofilaria immitis falls under which category of parasite? Trematode Protozoan Coccidian Nematode Cestode

Nematode Dirofilaria immitis is the heartworm and is a nematode (a type of roundworm). The mosquito is the intermediate host.

Which of the following should never be given in a bolus to a patient? Potassium chloride Lidocaine Mannitol Hetastarch 0.9% Sodium chloride

Potassium chloride Rapid infusion of potassium can cause cardiac arrest. There is never a good reason to bolus potassium chloride; however sometimes it is inadvertently bolused when administering fluids which had potassium chloride added to them. Administration of greater than 0.5 meq/kg of potassium chloride can be deadly. All other choices as long as appropriately dosed may be bolused.

Where do adult heartworms live? Left ventricle Pulmonary arteries Lungs Aorta

Pulmonary arteries Most adult heartworms reside in the pulmonary arteries.

A pus-filled uterus is known as which of the following? Pyometra Pyoderma Pyogenes Pythiosis

Pyometra A pyometra is a uterus filled with pus and requires removal of the uterus surgically. The prefix "pyo" means pus.

The sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of which species? Horse Psittacine bird Camel Rabbit

Rabbit Just proximal to the cecum is a gastrointestinal structure containing a large amount of lymphoid tissue called the sacculus rotundus which has some immune function. It is present only in lagomorphs.

Casts in the urine generally indicate damage in what part of the urinary system? -Renal tubules -Bladder -Glomerulus -Urethra -Ureters

Renal tubules Casts form in the distal and collecting tubules of the kidney because urine is the most concentrated and acidic in these areas.

Which of the following animals do not have canine teeth? Horses Rodents Pigs Ferrets

Rodents

Which of the following is an example of an endodontic treatment? Soft palate resection surgery Tumor removal from the tongue Root canal Dental scaling

Root canal Endodontics deals with the tooth pulp and the tissues surrounding the root of a tooth. The root canal is the most common endodontic procedure.

The pulse oximeter measures what variable?

Saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen

What is the biggest risk when restraining a rabbit? Broken ear Spinal cord trauma The rabbit can easily escape Inguinal hernia

Spinal cord trauma Rabbits have very strong hindlimbs that must be restrained properly. This will prevent them from kicking. If not, they will kick and risk severe spinal cord trauma that could result in a broken back or permanent paralysis. A rabbit should never be picked up or restrained by its ears.

Which organ can be completely removed and is not required to sustain life? Spleen Intestines Heart Liver

Spleen The spleen can be surgically removed. The other organs listed are essential to life. Only a portion of the liver could be resected as the liver is needed to sustain life. The liver also has the ability to regenerate.

You are assisting with an exploratory surgery, and the dog has a septic peritonitis from a perforated bowel. Before closure, the veterinarian lavages the abdomen with what? Sterile physiologic saline Sterile physiologic saline with betadine Sterile physiologic saline infused with antibiotics Sterile Lactated Ringer's solution

Sterile physiologic saline Copious lavage of the abdomen with sterile physiologic saline solution is performed prior to closure of the abdomen.

Which of the following is a clinical sign you would see in a dog with chocolate toxicosis? Bradycardia Swollen tongue Hyperpigmentation Paralysis Tachycardia

Tachycardia The toxic principles of chocolate are methylxanthines (specifically theobromine and caffeine). Methylxanthines can cause CNS excitation tachycardia, and vasoconstriction. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, hyperactivity, polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death.

Ectopic pregnancy means which of the following? There is no fetus, just an empty amniotic sac The pregnancy is occurring outside of the uterus There is more than one fetus The fetus is getting resorbed by the body

The pregnancy is occurring outside of the uterus Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg has implanted outside the uterus, most often in the fallopian tubes. Mostly these pregnancies are not viable and pose a bleeding risk which can lead to death.

The eardrum is also known as which of the following? Tympanum Ortolani Otic diaphragm Percussionum

Tympanum The proper term for the eardrum is the tympanic membrane, or tympanum.

What is the most accurate method to estimate a horse's weight out on a farm call? Approximate the weight based on body condition score Use a weight measuring tape Pick up a foot and use that weight to approximate the weight Approximate the weight by height

Use a weight measuring tape Specialized measuring tapes are commonly used to approximate the weight of a horse. There are markings that show weights and the tape is wrapped around the barrel of the horse just caudal to the withers.

The broad ligament attaches which structure to the body? Intestines Bladder Spleen Uterus

Uterus The broad ligament is attaches the uterus to the pelvis.

Where is the thyroid gland located? Ventral neck Cranial to the bladder Near the hypothalamus in the brain Above the right kidney

Ventral neck

You are on a house call with the veterinarian to evaluate some goats that are having "night blindness" per the owner. Upon arrival you can see that the goats have a dull haircoat, are very thin, and have nasal discharge. What deficiency can cause these symptoms? Vitamin E Iodine Vitamin A Zinc

Vitamin A Vitamin A deficiency causes a rough dry haircoat, thick nasal discharge, diarrhea, and can also lead to night blindness. Vitamin E can cause white muscle disease (a nutritional muscular dystrophy). Zinc deficiency can cause hypersalivation, chronic skin problems, testicular hypoplasia, and deformed hooves. Iodine deficiency most often causes a goiter.

Which drug is a commonly used sedative for horses? Ketamine Propofol Xylazine Diazepam

Xylazine Xylazine is a very common sedative for horses. Detomidine is also commonly used for sedation in horses. Both of these drugs are alpha 2-adrenergic agonists used for their sedative and analgesic effects.

A dog presents to your hospital to have surgery for a cranial cruciate ligament rupture (see x-ray). The veterinarian wants you to place an epidural after the patient is under anesthesia and before the procedure is performed. While performing the epidural you get blood in the hub of the spinal needle. What does this mean and what should you do? You have entered the sinus and you should give only 1/2 the dose of anesthetic. You have entered the sinus, you should withdraw the needle and start over. You have created a hematoma going through the skin, it is ok to administer the full dose of anesthetic once the needle is in its proper place. You have created a hematoma going through the skin, you should withdraw the needle and start over.

You have entered the sinus, you should withdraw the needle and start over. If you see blood flow into the spinal needle it means that you have entered a venous sinus, the needle should be removed and the procedure can be started again.

How many upper incisors does a goat have? One Two Zero Six Four

Zero Goats have no upper front teeth (incisors); their upper front mouth is one big gumline. In the back on their mouth they do have both upper and lower teeth. Goats are born with teeth which are replaced by permanent teeth as they age. The dental formula for permanent teeth in the goat is: 2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32

What toxicity is caused by ingestion of pennies? Lead toxicity No toxicity is caused by penny ingestion Nickel toxicity Zinc toxicity

Zinc toxicity Any penny minted after 1982 contains a large amount of zinc, leading to zinc toxicity in animals even from just a single penny.

Anticholinergics can be used in small mammals as part of a preanesthetic protocol. Of the following, which anticholinergic is the best choice for use in rabbits? Atropine Glycopyrrolate Midazolam Diazepam

Glycopyrrolate Both atropine and glycopyrrolate can be used in small mammals, but glycopyrrolate is preferred for use in rabbits. This is because the effect of atropine is less effective in this species because many animals have high levels of atropinesterase. Both diazepam and midazolam are benzodiazapines, not anticholinergics.

What term describes an enlarged thyroid gland? Goiter Thyroiditis Hypothyroidism Thyroidosis

Goiter Goiter is the abnormal gross enlargement of the thyroid gland. Thyroiditis is inflammation of the thyroid tissue. Thyroidosis is not a medical term. Hypothyroidism is inadequate production of thyroid hormone.

What term describes an enlarged thyroid gland? Thyroiditis Thyroidosis Hypothyroidism Goiter

Goiter Goiter is the abnormal gross enlargement of the thyroid gland. Thyroiditis is inflammation of the thyroid tissue. Thyroidosis is not a medical term. Hypothyroidism is inadequate production of thyroid hormone.

What species offspring is labeled "precocious"? Ferret Rabbit Guinea Pig Cat Rat Hamster

Guinea Pig Due to the long gestation period for guinea pigs, the development of the fetus occurs in utero. After 58 days, the young are born with their eyes open, fully furred and able to walk. This is know as "precocious". The opposite is "altricial". This means to be born with eyes closed, hairless and helpless.

What equine gastrointestinal parasite, when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mucous membranes, is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores? Onchocerca cervicalis Oxyuris equi Strongylus vulgaris Habronema spp. Strongyloides westeri

Habronema spp. Habronema spp. and Draschia spp. are stomach worms of the horse. The larvae in feces are ingested by the maggots of flies, and the flies can deposit them at susceptible moist skin areas, damaged skin areas, or mucous membranes where the larvae cause an eosinophilic granuloma as a reaction to their migration.

Where would you find an arrector pili muscle? Hair follicle Penis Ovary Heart Ear

Hair follicle Arrector pili muscles are tiny bands of muscle tissue that connect the hair follicles to the dermis. This muscle is what makes the hair stand up or the hackles go up on a dog.

Purkinje fibers are found in which of the following organs? Stomach Duodenum Bladder Heart Pancreas

Heart Purkinje fibers are conductive fibers within ventricular walls. They relay cardiac impulses to ventricular cells, which allow contraction.

A cat presents with a history of having difficulty walking and is dragging one of his back legs. The limb is cool to the touch. The veterinarian diagnoses a saddle thrombus. Which of the following underlying diseases is most likely present in this cat? Thrombocytopenia Heart disease Liver disease Renal disease Pancreatic disease

Heart disease Aortic thromboembolism, or saddle thrombus, is a complication associated with heart disease in the cat. A thrombus is a blood clot. An embolism is when a clot lodges inside a blood vessel. In cats, a saddle thrombus develops due to underlying cardiomyopathy. A clot forms in the heart, then breaks free and travels in the blood vessels until it becomes lodged. The most common site for the clot to lodge is in the bifurcation of the aorta, in the area where blood supply branches off to supply the rear legs. The thrombus cuts off the circulation to the legs and is very painful.

You are asked to prepare a patient for a bone marrow aspirate. Which of the following sites are commonly used in dogs to obtain a bone marrow sample? Humeral head and iliac crest Femoral head or sacrum Sternum or iliac crest Femoral condyle and greater tubercle of the humerus

Humeral head and iliac crest The most common collection sites in the dog are the humeral head, iliac crest, and femoral canal. In cats, the femoral head can be used. In horses, bone marrow can be obtained from the sternum.

Which species has wolf teeth? Pigs Horses Dogs Cats Cows

Horses Wolf teeth are small teeth that are the first premolars in the horse. It is thought they may be deciduous teeth. They are located immediately rostral to the first cheek teeth in horses.

What is the disease Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy also known as? Black Leg Disease Hardware disease Mad Cow Disease Polioencephalomalacia

Mad Cow Disease BSE is most commonly known as Mad Cow Disease and is a neurodegenerative prion disease in cattle. It causes a spongy degeneration in the brain and spinal cord and is fatal. Polioencephalomalacia is a central nervous system condition that is ultimately a result of thiamine deficiency. One cause may be by an enzyme that destroys thiamine. Black Leg in cattle is caused by Clostridium chauvoei and is an acute febrile disease causing emphysematous swelling in the heavy muscles. Hardware disease is a common term for bovine traumatic reticulopericarditis. It is caused when the cow swallows a sharp, heavy metallic object that falls to the floor of the rumen and is pushed forward into the reticulum, where it can penetrate into the pericardium.

Which structure is NOT a part of the equine large intestine? Right Dorsal Colon Left Dorsal Colon leum Cecum Pelvic Flexure

leum The ileum is part of the small intestine. The large intestine of the horse starts with the cecum and continues with the right ventral colon, sternal flexure, left ventral colon, pelvic flexure, left dorsal colon, diaphragmatic flexure, right dorsal colon, transverse colon, and small colon.

Where might you find the parasite Oestrus ovis? Under the skin of a rabbit In the ear of a goat Under the skin of a cow Nasal cavity of the sheep

Nasal cavity of the sheep Oestrus ovis is the sheep nasal bot. Flies deposit their larvae around the nares. They enter the nasal cavity and migrate to the sinuses where they mature. They then leave the nose and pupate in the soil. The word "ovis" should have been a hint that the parasite is likely found in the sheep (ovine). Cuterebra is a bot that can be found under the skin, notably under a hole found on the skin in several different species. Hypoderma bovis is the warble fly whose larvae cause "warbles" or bumps under the skin in cattle.

You are responsible for anesthetizing an adult cat. What size endotracheal tube would you have ready for this patient? #2 #6 #8 #4

#4 The average adult cat is properly intubated with a #4 endotracheal tube. A #2 would be too small for an adult. It could be used for a young kitten. The #6 and #8 would be too big for a cat and would be applicable for small to medium dogs.

After completing a routine spay, the doctor asks you to administer 0.015 mg/kg of buprenorphine intravenously for post operative pain. How many milliliters will you administer if it comes as a 0.3mg/ml solution and the cat weighs 6.6 lbs? 0.33 ml 0.15 ml 1.5 ml 0.5 ml

0.15 ml Always try to work in kilograms. The body weight must first be converted to kilograms. 6.6 lbs / (2.2 lbs/kg) = 3 kg Now that you have the weight in kilograms, multiply by the dose. 3 kg x (0.015 mg/kg) = 0.045 mg (Notice the kilograms cancel out and you are left with milligrams.) Now, figure out how many milliliters is equivalent to 0.045 mg. 0.045 mg / (0.3 mg/ml)= 0.15 ml (Notice the milligrams cancel out.) When solving these equations, be sure to keep track of the decimal place. Being off by a decimal point can result in a severe overdose.

A 10-year-old male neutered Pug presents in respiratory distress and appears to be having an allergic reaction. He has hives and a swollen face. The doctor asks you to get epinephrine ready at a dose of 0.02 mg/kg. He weighs 9 kg. When you get the bottle of epinephrine from the refrigerator it says it is a 1:1000 solution. How many mLs will you draw up for this patient? 0.8 mL 0.18 mL 0.08 mL 1.8 mL

0.18 mL First you have to understand what a 1:1000 concentration means. A 1:1000 solution is the same as saying 1 gram in 1,000 mL. And we know that 1 gram is equal to 1,000 mg. So it would be 1,000 mg: 1000 mL which is the same as 1 mg/mL (when the thousands cancel out). Next you take the patient's weight in kg X the dose: 9 kg/dog X 0.02 mg/kg (the kg cancel out) = 0.18 mg/dog Now divide the dose by the concentration: 0.18 mg/dog x 1mg/mL (mg cancel out) = 0.18 mL/dog

A dog having a rough recovery from anesthesia has been ordered to receive 0.02 mg/kg of acepromazine. The dog's body weight is 40 lbs, and the acepromazine is diluted to a 1 mg/ml solution. How much acepromazine should this patient be administered? 0.36 ml 0.036 ml 0.8 ml 1.2 ml

0.36 ml First, convert the body weight to kilograms. 40 lbs / (2.2 lbs/kg) = 18.2 kg Now determine the amount of milligrams needed. 0.02 mg/kg x (18.2 kg) = 0.36 mg (note the kilograms cancel out) Finally determine the amount of milliliters needed. 0.36 mg / (1 mg/ml) = 0.36 ml (note the milligrams cancel out)

A dog presents with a history of coughing and rapid breathing. Radiographs confirm congestive heart failure (see image). You are asked to administer 2 mg/kg of furosemide IV. The concentration of furosemide is 50 mg/mL. The dog weighs 25 pounds. How many milliliters should you administer to this patient? 0.44 mL 2.0 mL 1.2 mL 0.12 mL

0.44 mL The dog is 25 pounds. 25 pounds/2.2 pounds per kg= 11.3 kg Now multiply the dog's weight in kg by the dose you need (2mg/kg): 11kg X 2mg = 22 mg The dog needs 22 mg. Now divide this dose by the concentration of furosemide (50 mg/mL): 22mg/ 50 = 0.44 mL

A dog presents with a history of coughing and rapid breathing. Radiographs confirm congestive heart failure (see image). You are asked to administer 2 mg/kg of furosemide IV. The concentration of furosemide is 50 mg/mL. The dog weighs 25 pounds. How many milliliters should you administer to this patient? 2.0 mL 0.44 mL 0.12 mL 1.2 mL

0.44 mL The dog is 25 pounds. 25 pounds/2.2 pounds per kg= 11.3 kg Now multiply the dog's weight in kg by the dose you need (2mg/kg): 11kg X 2mg = 22 mg The dog needs 22 mg. Now divide this dose by the concentration of furosemide (50 mg/mL): 22mg/ 50 = 0.44 mL

A 60-kg dog needs to be sedated with dexmedetomidine and butorphanol. The doctor would like a dose of 10 ug/kg for dexmedetomidine and 0.1 mg/kg for butorphanol. Dexmedetomidine comes in a 1 mg/ml solution, and butorphanol is in a 10 mg/ml solution. How many milliliters of each medication will need to be administered for the patient's sedation? 60 ml of dexmedetomidine and 0.6 ml of butorphanol 0.6 ml of dexmedetomidine and 0.6 ml of butorphanol 0.6 ml of dexmedetomidine and 6 ml of butorphanol 0.06 ml of dexmedetomidine and 0.3 ml of butorphanol

0.6 ml of dexmedetomidine and 0.6 ml of butorphanol For dexmedetomidine, do the following math: 60 kg x (10 ug/kg) = 600 ug Note the units and convert to work with milligrams as the solution is in milligrams per milliliter. 600 ug / (1000 mg/ug) = 0.6 mg 0.6 mg / (1 mg/ml) = 0.6 ml For butorphanol, do the following math: 60 kg x 0.1 mg/kg = 6 mg 6 mg / (10 mg/ml) = 0.6 ml

Which is safe to put in the ears if the tympanum may be ruptured? Neomycin 0.9% NaCl Chlorhexidine Gentamicin

0.9% NaCl Saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is considered safe. The others listed (especially aminoglycoside antibiotics) could potentially be ototoxic if the eardrum is not intact.

What is the approximate minute volume of a 4 kg cat? 1 L 100 ml 25 ml 250 ml 4 L 40 ml

1 L The minute volume is the volume of air inspired during one minute of respiration. In cats, the typical minute volume is 180-380 ml/kg/min. For a 4 kg cat, the choice of 1 L per minute is the only one that is close to this range.

You draw up a canine distemper-parvo combination vaccine. How long is the vaccine considered viable at room temperature? 24 hours 1 hour 20 minutes 8 hours

1 hour Vaccines should be discarded if they have been left out at room temperature for longer than one hour. Most references state that if they are refrigerated they can be used within 24 hours, but this is controversial. The best option is to use the vaccine shortly after it is drawn up to avoid any concerns.

Acepromazine concentration is 10 mg/mL. You are instructed to make a dilute acepromazine solution at 1 mg/mL. Which of the following could be used for how much acepromazine and how much sterile water are mixed to make this concentration? 9 mL acepromazine and 1 mL sterile water 1 mL acepromazine and 9 mL sterile water 10 mL acepromazine and 25 mL sterile water 0.1 mL acepromazine and 2.5 mL sterile water

1 mL acepromazine and 9 mL sterile water 1 mL of acepromazine is equal to 10 mg (since ace is 10 mg/mL). This 10 mg mixed in 9 mL of sterile water results in a concentration of 1 mg/mL. 1 mL (10 mg) of ace + 9 mL of sterile water = 10 mL total volume 10 mg / 10mL = 1 mg/mL

A patient that is currently receiving 30 ml/hr of NaCl needs a medication added to the fluid bag. The clinician would like the patient to receive a total of 3 mg/kg/day of this medication. The medication comes in a 10 mg/ml solution. How many mL should be added to the bag if it is a 250 mL bag and the patient weighs 10kg? 10 ml 6 ml 12.5 ml 4 ml 1 ml

1 ml A 10-kg patient will need 30 mg/day of the medication (10 kg x 3 mg/kg/day) Since the fluid is being administered at an hourly rate we need to figure out how much medication we are administering per hour. 30 mg/day / (24 hr) = 1.25 mg/hr To determine how much volume of the medication is needed the following math is performed: 1.25 mg/hr / (30 ml/hr) x (250 ml) = 10.4 mg (Notice how the units cancel out) 10.4 mg / (10 mg/ml) = 1 ml

A 620-kg horse weighs how many pounds? 281 pounds 1,364 pounds 1,240 pounds 1,625 pounds

1,364 pounds There are 2.2 pounds per kg. So, to convert the kg into pounds, multiply the kg by 2.2. 620 kg X 2.2 pounds/kg = 1364 pounds

What is the normal amount of gastric reflux obtained from a healthy horse via nasogastric tube placement? 10-12 liters 14-18 liters 1-3 liters 5-8 liters

1-3 liters Normally, a healthy horse will have a small amount of gastric reflux, 1-3 liters. If you get back 8-12 or more liters of reflux, the horse likely has an obstructive intestinal disease or ileus of some sort.

A patient is having a seizure in middle of the treatment room. The doctor quickly asks for some diazepam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg. The patient's body weight is approximately 24.2 lbs. How many milliliters do you need to draw up? Valium is available as a 5 mg/ml solution. 2.4 ml 8 ml 1.1 ml 0.5 ml

1.1 ml As always convert the body weight into kilograms. 24.2 kg/ (2.2 lbs/kg) = 11 kg Next, determine the amount of milligrams necessary. 11kg x (0.5 mg/kg) = 5.5 mg Finally, determine the amount of milliliters necessary. 5.5 mg / (5 mg/ml) = 1.1 ml

A 12-pound cat needs Clavamox drops at 14 mg/kg BID. The solution is 62.5 mg/mL. How many mLs should this cat receive twice daily? 2.4 mL 0.8 mL 3.1 mL 1.2 mL

1.2 mL 12 pounds/2.2= 5.4 kg 5.4 kg X 14 mg/kg dose = 76 mg 76 mg dose/ 62.5 mg/mL concentration = 1.2 mL

The veterinarian would like you to give famotidine to a 23 kg Doberman Pinscher that has been hospitalized for vomiting. The dosage is 0.5 mg/kg. Using the image, how many milliliters you will be administering? 1.4 ml 1.2 ml 0.12 ml 11.5 ml

1.2 ml 23 kg multiplied by 0.5 mg/kg= 11.5 mg divided by 10 mg/ml= 1.2 ml

A 6.7 kg Chihuahua has been prescribed a 2 mg/kg/day constant rate infusion of metoclopramide. The metoclopramide is to be added to the intravenous fluids. If the metoclopramide is 5 mg/ml and the Chihuahua's fluid rate is 17 ml/hr, how many milliliters of metoclopramide should be added to a 250 ml bag of intravenous fluids? 13.4 mL 0.56 mL 4.6 mL 1.6 mL

1.6 mL Even though this may not seem like an entry level question, there may be a constant rate infusion question on the VTNE. Let's walk through the math in this question: 6.7 kg x 2 mg/kg/day = 13.4 mg/day 13.4 mg/day / 24 hours/day = 0.56 mg/hour 0.56 mg/hr / 5 mg/ml (conc. of metoclopramide) = 0.11 ml metoclopramide/hour 250 ml/bag / 17 ml/hr = 14.7 hours of intravenous fluids/bag 14.7 hours/bag x 0.11 ml metoclopramide/hour = 1.6 ml of metoclopramide/250 ml bag

The veterinarian orders 3 mg/kg diphenhydramine IM for a 60-pound dog. The concentration is 50 mg/mL. How much should you give the dog? 1.6 mL 2.5 mL 3.2 mL 1.2 mL 0.8 mL

1.6 mL First convert to kilograms: 60 pounds/ 2.2= 27kg Now calculate how many miligrams you need to give: 27kg X 3mg= 81mg Finally figure out how many milliliters 81mg would be: 81mg/ 50mg/mL= 1.63 mL

The veterinarian asks you use glycopyrrolate to premedicate a patient in the hospital. Using the image, calculate how many milliliters you will administer to a 35 kg dog at a dosage of 0.01 mg/kg? 0.18 ml 1.75 ml 0.004 ml 0.08 ml

1.75 ml 35 kg multiplied by 0.01 mg/kg= 0.35 mg divided by 0.2 mg/ml= 1.75 ml

"Pablo", a 66 pound Labrador mix, is in oliguric renal failure. The veterinarian has asked you to start a constant rate infusion of dopamine at 5 micrograms per kilogram per minute (ug/kg/min) and a fluid rate of 120 mL per hour. Dopamine comes in a concentration of 40 mg/mL. How much dopamine will you add to a liter of 0.9% sodium chloride solution? 19.5 mL 5.6 mL 1.86 mL 0.78 mL

1.86 mL Constant rate infusions are not something that an entry level technician would typically perform. However, the VTNE may have some questions on CRI and it will benefit you to know how to do these calculations. To solve this problem, break down the basic parts to make it less overwhelming: 1) Convert pounds to kilograms- 66 pounds/2.2 pounds per kg = 30 kg 2) Calculate the number of hours an infusion will last by dividing the volume in the bag (1 Liter, or 1,000 mL) by the rate per hour: 1,000 mL/120mL/hr = 8.3 hours 3) Now take the number of hours (8.3) and multiply by 60 to calculate how many minutes this is: 8.3 X 60 = 498 minutes 4) Now plug into the equation: 5 ug/30kg/498min= 74,700 ug 5) Now convert the ug into mg by dividing by 1,000: 74,700/1,000 = 74.7 mg 6) Calculate the quantity of dopamine to add by now dividing the 74.7 mg by the concentration of the drug (40mg/mL) : 74.7mg/40mg/mL = 1.86 mL To be truly accurate when adding drugs to a bag like this, you should discard 1.86 mL of fluids from the bag prior to adding the 1.86 mL of dopamine.

A cat is having a surgical procedure. How long should food be withheld prior to general anesthesia? 6 hours 10 hours 3 hours 24 hours 1 hour 18 hours

10 hours General anesthesia can decrease swallowing reflexes and esophageal sphincter tone. Patients may experience vomiting during or after anesthetic procedures. This predisposes them to esophagitis, esophageal stricture, or aspiration pneumonia. Domestic animals should be fasted prior to any anesthetic procedure. The amount of time varies by species, but in general food should be withheld for 8-12 hours in dogs, cats, and horses and 24-48 hours for cattle. Neonates should not be fasted prior to anesthesia and small patients (under 2 kg) should be fasted for shorter lengths of time. Water should be withheld for less time to avoid causing dehydration, which can be exacerbated by anesthesia; 2-4 hours is generally sufficient for dogs and cats.

An animal needs to be sedated with Dexmedetomidine. The patient weighs 2200, lbs and the dose that the clinician wishes to administer is 10 micrograms per kilogram. Dexmedetomidine is available as a 1 mg/ml solution. How many milliliters will be administered? 1 ml 0.5 ml 100 ml 10 ml

10 ml To solve this question, it is very important to know that there are 1000 micrograms in 1 milligram. Similarly, there are 1000 milligrams in 1 gram. First, convert body weight to kilograms. 2200 lbs / (2.2 lbs/kg) = 1000kg 1000kg x (10 micrograms/kg) = 10,000 micrograms 10,000 micrograms / (1 milligram/1000 micrograms) = 10 milligrams (Notice the micrograms cancel out.) 10 mg / (1 mg/ml) = 10 ml This question is critical to understand. Not having a good grasp of the difference between a milligram vs. microgram vs. gram can result in misdosing a patient.

Removal of sutures or staples before an incision has healed can result in unwanted complications. What is the typically recommended time window for suture/staple removal? 5-7 days after surgery 14-19 days after surgery 10-14 days after surgery 20-28 days after surgery

10-14 days after surgery Incisions will usually be sufficiently strong by 10-14 days after surgery and will no longer require skin sutures/staples. Leaving the sutures/staples in longer than 14 days can result in unwanted suture or staple reaction and is of no benefit to the incision.

What is the maximum time that an ultrasonic scaler can be used on a tooth surface? 3-5 seconds 10-15 seconds 30 seconds 60 seconds

10-15 seconds The scaler must be kept in constant motion on the tooth surface and should not be on a tooth for more than 10 to 15 seconds. This is because heat can buildup and cause thermal damage to the tooth. The water from the scaler also helps to prevent heat buildup. The scaler should be held in a modified pen grasp during the procedure.

The veterinarian prescribes the NSAID carprofen for a 50-pound dog with arthritis at a dose of 4.4 mg/kg and would like this dose divided into two equal daily doses. In your hospital, you stock 25mg, 75mg, and 100 mg chewable tablets. What will you dispense and what are the directions? 75 mg tablets- Give 1 tablet in the morning and 1 in the evening 100mg tablets- Give 1 tablet in the morning and 1 in the evening 75 mg tablets- Give 1/2 tablet in the morning and 1/2 in the evening 25 mg tablets- Give 1 tablet in the morning and 1 in the evening 100 mg tablets- Give 1/2 tablet in the morning and 1/2 in the evening

100 mg tablets- Give 1/2 tablet in the morning and 1/2 in the evening First, calculate the dose needed for this patient. 50 pounds/2.2 pounds/kg (pounds cancel out) = 22.7 kg 22.73 kg X 4.4 mg/kg (kg cancel out) = 100 mg total dose per day (the vet wants this divided into equal doses so now divide the dose in half) 100 mg / 2 = 50 mg twice daily will be given So, the correct answer choice is 100mg tablets- Give 1/2 tablet (50mg) twice a day

An 11-year old intact male Golden Retriever presents with respiratory distress and a temperature of 106.7 F. The attending veterinarian has gone to talk to the client and has requested that the patient be cooled. To what temperature should the dog be cooled? 104.0 99.0 100.0 103.0 102.0

103.0 A patient will continue to cool despite cessation of active cooling, so a patient should not be cooled past the high end of the normal temperature range. Normal temperature range is 101-102.5F in dogs and cats.

A dog has snail bait poisoning (metaldehyde) and presents with seizures. His temperature is 109F, and you begin cooling techniques while the veterinarian treats the seizures. At what temperature should you stop trying to cool him? He should not be cooled 102F 100F 107F 103F

103F When the temperature reaches 103F, it is time to cease the cooling techniques, as the temperature can continue to drop and get dangerously low.

The Triadan numbering system is commonly used in human and veterinary dentistry to specify a tooth. What is the correct number of the permanent right maxillary canine tooth of a dog or cat? 404 201 104 301 501

104 In this system, the first numeral denotes the quadrant of the tooth and if it is permanent or deciduous. They are numbered starting at the right maxilla and moving counter-clockwise: 1 = Right maxilla (5 = deciduous) 2 = Left maxilla (6 = deciduous) 3 = Left mandible (7 = deciduous) 4 = Right mandible (8 = deciduous) The next two digits indicate how many teeth over from the midline. For example, in the dog: 701 is the deciduous mandibular left first incisor. 104 is the permanent right maxillary canine. 409 is the permanent mandibular right first molar.

A patient's fluid rate is currently set at 150 ml/hr. The doctor asks you to decrease the fluid rate by 25%. What is the new rate? 112.5 ml 87.5 ml 37.5 ml 90 ml

112.5 ml First, we need to determine how much 25% of 150ml is. 150 ml x 0.25 = 37.5 ml Now, subtract the answer above from the original fluid rate to determine the new rate. 150 ml - 37.5 ml = 112.5 ml

Typically, when should a dog or cat be offered food following gastrointestinal surgery? 48-72 hours after surgery 3-5 days after surgery 6-12 hours after surgery 12-24 hours after surgery

12-24 hours after surgery Most animals undergoing intestinal surgery should be offered food and water within 12-24 hours after surgery. Further delaying the delivery of nutrition may result in slower healing. Trying to feed a patient within 6-12 hours after major surgery is usually unrewarding because the patient is still recovering from anesthesia and is frequently under the effects of strong pain medications which contribute to inappetence and nausea.

You are monitoring an adult cat under anesthesia. Since induction, the heart has been slowing down. What is the approximate lowest acceptable heart rate for this cat? 140 120 160 180

120 If the heart rate drops below 100-120 beats per minute in an anesthetized cat, the heart rate needs to be increased and the anesthetic depth should be evaluated. If appropriate, atropine may be administered in this situation, and anesthetic gas turned down if possible.

A 20-kg patient is being sent home on famotidine to help with potential esophagitis. How many 10 mg tablets should be sent home with the owner, if the patient requires 0.5 mg/kg PO BID x 7 days? 21 7 14 40

14 To correctly answer the question, the following math should have been performed: 20 kg x (0.5 mg/kg) = 10 mg (This is the amount the patient needs per dose, which is equivalent to 1 tablet.) 1 x 2= 2 (This is the number of pills needed per day, since the dosing is BID.) 2 x 7= 14 (This is the number of pills needed for the 7 day treatment course.)

Pregnancy check in the mare can be performed via ultrasound as early as which of the following? 42 days 60 days 30 days 14 days

14 days Ultrasound is the method of choice for detecting pregnancy in the mare and can be done as early as 11 to 14 days (around 2 weeks).

The gestation period for hamsters makes them a valuable research model. What is their gestation period? 15 days 21 days 30 days 56 days

15 days Hamsters have the shortest gestation period of all the rodents. Their rapid reproduction makes them valuable in the biotech field, saving on cost. In addition, it allows quick results for any reproductive study.

What is the average gestation for goats and sheep?

150 days This list of gestations should be committed to memory: Llama 1 year (350 days), Horse 11 months (330 days), Cow 9 months (280 days), Sheep/Goat 5 months (150 days), Pig 4 months (114 days), Dog/Cat 2 months (63 days), Ferret 1.5 months (42 days)

The heart rate of an adult cat should range between which of the following? 120-150 bpm 30-60 bpm 150-220 bpm 80-120 bpm

150-220 bpm An adult cat typically has a resting heart rate between 150-220 bpm. Keep in mind that if the cat is very excited the heart rate might be faster. A dog's heart rate ranges between 70-160 bpm. As with the cat, there may be variation. Remember that puppies and kittens will have faster heart rates.

The heart rate of an adult cat should range between which of the following? 30-60 bpm 80-120 bpm 120-150 bpm 150-220 bpm

150-220 bpm An adult cat typically has a resting heart rate between 150-220 bpm. Keep in mind that if the cat is very excited the heart rate might be faster. A dog's heart rate ranges between 70-160 bpm. As with the cat, there may be variation. Remember that puppies and kittens will have faster heart rates.

A 65-pound Golden Retriever "Marley" presents with a history of gastroenteritis over the past 48 hours. He is approximately 5% dehydrated and the attending veterinarian would like to hospitalize him on IV fluids for the day. Calculate the volume deficit in this patient. 1500 mL 480 mL 3 L 325 mL

1500 mL Formula- kg X % dehydration = volume (memorize this) For Marley: 65 pounds/ 2.2 pound/kg (pounds cancel out) = 30 kg 30 kg X 0.05 (which is 5%) = 1.5 L volume deficit Since 1.5 L is not an answer choice, continue converting into mL: There are 1000 mL in 1 liter: 1.5 L X 1000mL/liter (liters cancel out)= 1500 mL total volume deficit

How tall would a horse that measures 66 inches be, in hands? 14-3 hands 16 hands 15 hands 16-2 hands

16-2 hands A hand is equivelent to 4 inches. Thus 66 divided by 4 = 16 hands + 2 inches or 16 - 2 hands.

A client calls and would like her dog's phenobarbital refilled. He is currently getting 1/4 grain every 12 hours. How many milligrams is in 1/4 grain? 64.8 mg 58.0 mg 16.2 mg 32.4 mg

16.2 mg 1 grain is equal to 64.8 mg. Therefore, 1/4 of 64.8 mg is equal to 16.2 mg. Phenobarbital is commonly dispensed in "grains".

How many thoracic vertebrae do horses have? 13 18 9 12

18 Horses have 18 thoracic vertebrae. Dogs, cats , cows, and sheep have 13 thoracic vertebrae. Pigs have 14-15 thoracic vertebrae.

You are making serial dilutions of a sample in the laboratory. You start by making a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample. You then take this new solution and make a serial 1:5 dilution of it. What is the dilution ratio of this new solution? -1:50 -1:20 -1:1 -1:25 -1:5

1:25 When calculating the final dilution ratio of a serial dilution, you must multiply the dilution factors. Here 1:5 is multiplied by 1:5 and the final dilution is (1 x 1):(5 x 5) = 1:25

Which of the following suture size is the largest? 2-0 6-0 2 1-0

2 As the number to the left of the "-0" increases, the diameter of the suture decreases. If there is no "-0" following the number, then as the number increases the diameter of the suture increases. In this question, 6-0 is the smallest diameter suture listed.

You want to give a 22 pound cat a 5 mg/kg dose of a drug. The drug comes as a 2.5% solution. How many milliliters should you give the cat? 4.4 2 .4 8.8 .2 20

2 First, you must recognize that the cat's weight is given in pounds and should immediately be converted to kilograms. There are 2.2 lbs/kg so this is a 10 kg cat. Second, you must be able to convert a percent solution to mg/ml. A 2.5% solution is 25 mg/ml. This is hard for some students to remember. A memory tip is that a 100% solution would be 1 gram/ml. Therefore a 50% solution would be 500mg/ml, and a 5% solution would be 50 mg/ml. The math to solve this question is: 22 lbs x (1 kg/2.2 lbs) x 5mg/kg x (1ml/25mg) = 2 ml

How many mammary glands does the goat have? 1 2 6 4

2 The goat has 2 mammary glands. The cow has 4 mammary glands; the horse has 2 mammary glands.

How many mammary glands does the goat have? 4 6 1 2

2 The goat has 2 mammary glands. The cow has 4 mammary glands; the horse has 2 mammary glands.

Which is the dental formula for a cat? 2 (I 3/2 C 2/2 P 3/3 M 0/1)= 32 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 2 (I 2/2 C 1/1 P 3/3 M 2/1)= 30 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 Cats have 3 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, and 1 molar on one side of the upper jaw and 3 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, and 1 molar on one side of the lower jaw so the dental formula for the cat is: 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 permanent teeth Dogs have 42 teeth, so their dental formula is : 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

What is the minimum volume of water required by mammals to sustain life? 2 - 4 mls/kg/hr 10 - 12 mls/kg/hr 20 - 25 mls/kg/hr 30 - 35 mls/kg/hr

2 - 4 mls/kg/hr

Esmarch bandages and tourniquets are occasionally used in equine surgery. What is the maximum time that a tourniquet may be left in place? 30 minutes 4 hours 1 hour 2 hours

2 hours The maximum recommended time is 2 hours. The purpose of the Esmarch bandage is to help push blood out of a limb by wrapping the bandage from distal to proximal and then applying a tourniquet. In this way, the surgeon can minimize the amount of bleeding at the surgical site. However, prolonged use can result in severe ischemia and deleterious effects.

A 12 pound DSH is presented to your hospital for a dental cleaning. The attending veterinarian has asked you to induce the cat with Propofol at a dosage of 4 mg/kg IV. The concentration of Propofol is 10 mg/ml. How many milliliters will you draw up in the syringe? 0.22 mls 21.8 mls 2.18 mls 4.8 mls

2.18 mls You must first convert pounds to kilograms dividing 12 by 2.2 = 5.45 kg. 5.45 kg multiplied by 4 mg/kg = 21.8 mg. 21.8 mg divided by 10 mg/ml = 2.18 mls. In a real clinical setting, you would likely round the number down and draw up 2 mL.

What is the typical length of time that an incision should be monitored after an uncomplicated surgery? 21 days 48 hours 2 weeks 5 days

2 weeks Most incisions will heal in approximately 10-14 days. Although the skin has not fully returned to its pre-surgical strength, this is enough time that an incisional complication is extremely unlikely. Incisions should be carefully monitored for excessive pain, swelling, discharge, or bleeding for the first 10-14 days after surgery or until suture/staple removal.

Approximately what percentage of body weight should a horse consume in forage (i.e. hay) per day? 12% 5% 2% 8%

2% The average horse should consume approximately 2% of its body weight in forage. In a 1000 lb horse, this would equal 20 lbs of hay/day.

A large dog collapses in the lobby of your veterinary clinic. The dog is taken to the treatment area where an ECG reveals that the patient is in ventricular tachycardia. What drug would be administered intravenously in an attempt to convert the dog to a normal sinus rhythm? Vasopressin Atropine Digoxin Ephinephrine 2% lidocaine

2% lidocaine 2% lidocaine, administered as a bolus dose, can convert a dog into a normal sinus rhythm. If the bolus dose is successful, the veterinarian may prescribe a constant rate infusion to help maintain the rhythm. Epinephrine and atropine are used to in CPCR. Vasopressin is a potent blood pressure medication. Digoxin is an oral medication used for patients with atrial fibrillation.

Which of the following is the correct dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas? 2(I2/2 C0/0 PM 0/0 M 3/3) =20 2(I1/1 C1/1 PM1/1 M2/2) =20 2(I3/3 C1/1 PM1/1 M2/2) = 28 2(I1/1 C0/0 PM1/1 M3/3) = 20

2(I1/1 C0/0 PM1/1 M3/3) = 20 The formula is designated as fractions to indicate the upper and lower dental arcades. The 2 at the beginning of the formula is for the left and right upper and lower dental arcades. I stands for incisor teeth. C stands for canine teeth. PM stands for premolar cheek teeth. M stands for molar cheek teeth. Therefore, guinea pigs have 4 incisors total (1 upper and lower on the left and the right), no canine teeth, 4 premolar cheek teeth (1 upper and lower on the left and right), and 12 molar cheek teeth total (3 upper and lower on the left and right).

What is the permanent dental formula for a dog? 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1) 2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) 2(I3/3 C1/1 P2/4 M3/3) 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/4 M1/3)

2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) Remember the dog has 42 teeth total.

A 40 kg dog presents to your hospital and is approximately 5% dehydrated. What is the replacement fluid volume needed for this dog? 1,200 mL 500 mL 2,000 mL 1.5 L

2,000 mL To calculate the replacement fluids use the following formula: Body weight (in kg) X percent dehydration= fluid deficit (in Liters) For this dog: 40 X 0.05 = 2 L If you want the fluid measurement in milliliters, just multiply by 1,000 (since there are 1,000 mL in 1 L). For this dog, it would be 2,000 mL (the same as 2 Liters).

You want to give a pre-surgical dose of antibiotics to your patient. You have a 1 gram vial of cefoxitin that is reconstituted with 5 mls of sterile water. You want to give a 20 mg/kg dose to a 25 kg dog. How many mls do you give? 5 2.5 10 7.5 1.25

2.5 The resulting concentration of the cefoxitin solution is 1gm/5ml or 200mg/ml. The desired dose is 20mg/kg x 25 kg = 500 mg 200 mg/ml x ____ ml= 500 mg, Therefore the answer is 2.5 ml

A client calls the clinic and says her 12 pound mixed breed dog was just stung by a bee and his face is starting to swell. You recommend she brings her pet in immediately, and the doctor recommends she give Benadryl 12.5 mg orally now before she leaves her house. The woman has some Benadryl liquid that is 12.5 mg per teaspoon. How many milliliters should she give her pet? 2.5 mLs 5 mLs 1.5 mLs 0.5 mLs

2.5 mLs 1 teaspoon is equal to 5 milliliters

What quantity of drug is found in 200 mLs of a 10% solution? 20 grams 2,000 milligrams 2,000 grams 20 milligrams

20 grams A 10% solution is equal to 100 mg/mL. The easiest way to remember this conversion is to add a zero to the percentage. (10%= 100 mg/mL, 15% = 150 mg/mL, etc.) If 1 mL is equal to 100 mg, then to find out the quantity of drug in 200 mLs, multiply 100 mg X 200 = 20,000 mg. There are 20,000 mg in 200 mLs of a 10% solution. But none of the choices are 20,000 mg. We need to go one step further and determine how many grams this is. 1 gram is equal to 1,000 mg. We need to divide the milligrams by 1,000. So, 20,000mg / 1,000 = 20 grams.

How many milliliters of 25% dextrose should be added to 1 L of 0.9% saline to make a 5% dextrose solution? 50 ml 200 ml 100 ml 20 ml

200 ml To answer this question, the following formula should be implemented: C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2) C is the concentration V is the volume C(1) =0.25 V(1) = x C(2) = 0.05 V(2) = 1000 ml 0.25x = 0.05(1000) x = 200 ml 200 ml of 25% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution.

A 50-kg Golden Retriever has presented with extremely pale mucous membranes and is diagnosed with a hemoabdomen. A blood transfusion has been requested, and the doctor would like a 10ml/kg/hr transfusion rate for 4 hours. How many milliliters of blood will you need? 20 ml 1000 ml 40 ml 2000 ml

2000 ml The patient is receiving 500 ml/hr. 50 kg x (10 ml/kg/hr) = 500 ml/hr In four hours, the patient will receive 2000 ml 4 hr x (500 ml/hr) = 2000 ml.

What is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia for an elective procedure? 4-6 hours 8-12 hours Ruminants should not be fasted prior to anesthesia 24-48 hours

24-48 hours Bloat results from continuous fermentation in the rumen when the ability to eructate is absent. In general there is less risk of bloat if cattle are fasted for 48 hours prior to anesthesia. This may not always be possible in emergency situations, but ideally for an elective procedure should fast for at least 24-48 hours.

The heart rate for an adult horse should generally be in which of the following ranges? 60-80 beats per minute 45-65 beats per minute 25-50 beats per minute 15-25 beats per minute

25-50 beats per minute Horses on average have a heart rate of around 35 beats per minute (with a range of 25 to 50 beats per minute).

A patient is slowly being weaned off fluid therapy. Her body weight is 10 kg, and she is currently at a rate of 30 ml/hr. The doctor wishes to decrease her fluid rate by 15%. What is her new rate? 27 ml 4.5 ml 22 ml 25.5 ml

25.5 ml First, we need to determine how much 15% of 30 ml is. 30 ml x 0.15 = 4.5 ml Now we subtract the answer above from the original rate. 30 ml - 4.5 ml = 25.5 ml is the new fluid rate. Notice that the body weight is not necessary to calculate this rate change.F

What is the standard temperature and duration accepted for autoclaving? 400 degrees Fahrenheit for 20 minutes 1200 degrees Fahrenheit for 60 minutes 250 degrees Fahrenheit for 13 minutes 150 degrees Fahrenheit for 55 minutes

250 degrees Fahrenheit for 13 minutes

Thiopental is a barbiturate used to induce anesthesia. Once reconstituted it is a 2% solution. The attending veterinarian asks you to induce a 27 kg dog with a dosage of 10 mg/kg. How many milligrams do you need, and how many milliliters will you draw up into the syringe? 13.5 mg / 270 mls 135 mg / 27 mls 270 mg / 13.5 mls 27 mg / 2.7 mls

270 mg / 13.5 mls 27 kg multiplied by 10 mg/kg = 270 mg. A 2% solution is equal to 20 mg/ml. 270 mg divided by 20 mg/ml = 13.5 mls

How many chambers does the stomach of a llama have? 6 2 4 1 3

3 The llama has a stomach that functions similar to that of a true ruminant, but it only has 3 compartments (rumen, omasum, and abomasum). True ruminants such as cows, goats, sheep, and deer have 4 compartments including the rumen, omasum, abomasum, and the reticulum.

How many feline blood types exist? 3 4 2 13 1

3 There are three feline blood types: A, B, and AB. Group A is the most common, as 98% of cats are type A. Type B is more rare and seen most often in some exotic breeds. Only approximately 1.7% of cats have type B blood. AB is rare in all breeds. Always crossmatch cats unless you know their blood types. Dogs have 13 blood types.

When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last? 6 months 3 months 2 weeks 48 hours

3 months For food-related skin allergies, a food trial should last at least 3 months. For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last at least 3 weeks. A food trial should consist of a novel protein and a novel carbohydrate source such as Rabbit, Duck, Venison, etc. Another option is a diet with hydrolyzed proteins such that the body cannot form an immune response (Z/D is an example of this).

How many milliliters are in 3 Liters? 300 mL 3.3 mL 30,000 mL 3,000 mL

3,000 mL There are 1,000 mL in 1 Liter, so 3 L = 3,000 mL.

How many milligrams are in 100 ml of a 3% solution? 0.3 mg 30 mg 3 mg 3,000 mg

3,000 mg A 3% solution is equal to 30 mg/mL. Now take 100 mL X 30 mg/mL = 3000 mg= 3 grams (since there are 1000 mg in 1 gram)

You are instructed to add 40 mEq of potassium chloride (KCl) to a 1 Liter bag of 0.9% sodium chloride for a patient. The patient to receive fluids weighs 50 pounds and will be on a rate of 85 mL/hr. You know that the maximum potassium a patient should receive is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr. What is his potassium intake, and is it too high? 3.4 mEq/hr; No 2.0 mEq/hr; No 5.6 mEq/hr; Yes 12.7 mEq/hr; Yes

3.4 mEq/hr; No The correct answer is 3.4 mEq/hr, which is only about 1/3 of his maximum potassium dose per hour, so it is not too high. Let's do the math on this problem: First, calculate how many mEq/hr he will be receiving with this dose and rate: (There are 1,000 mL in 1 Liter) 40 mEq/1000 mL = 0.04 mEq/mL Next multiply by his fluid rate: 0.04 mEq/mL X 85 mL/hr (mL cancel out) = 3.4 mEq/hr he is receiving currently Now calculate his maximum dose: Convert his body weight to kg: 50 pounds/2.2 pounds/kg = 22.7kg 0.5 mEq X 22.7 kg = 11.3 maximum mEq/hr he can have He is getting 3.4 and his max is 11.3, so he is only getting about 1/3 of his maximum.

A patient has come into the hospital after being stung by a bee. The patient's muzzle is severely swollen, and the doctor has ordered a dose of dexamethasone sodium phosphate to be given intravenously. The patient weight is 30 kg, and the dose is 0.5 mg/kg. The concentration of the dexamethasone is 4 mg/ml. How many milliliters is this patient to receive? 8 ml 1.7 ml 12 ml 3.75 ml

3.75 ml First calculate the amount of milligrams to be given. 30 kg x (0.5 mg/kg) = 15 mg Next calculate the amount of milliliters to be administered. 15 mg / (4 mg/ml) = 3.75 ml

How much 2% lidocaine should be drawn up if performing an intra-articular injection at a dose of 2mg/kg in a 38-kg dog? 12 ml 38 ml 7.6 ml 3.8 ml

3.8 ml 2% lidocaine is equivalent to 20 mg/ml. 38 kg x (2 mg/kg) = 76 mg 76 mg / (20 mg/ml) = 3.8 ml

Frequently, the doctor will ask that a prescription for Cephalexin be filled. How many 500 mg capsules should be sent home for a dog receiving 22 mg/kg PO TID for 10 days? The dog weighs 50 lbs. 30 60 45 15

30 To get the answer, the body weight must first be converted to kilograms. 50 lbs / 2.2 kg/lb = 22.7 kg (There are 2.2 lbs per kilogram) Then, 22.7 kg x (22mg/kg) = 499.4 mg This is rounded up to 500 mg. The patient takes 3 capsules per day for 10 days. 3 x 10 = 30 The patient should be sent home with 30 capsules.

You are working in the large animal ward at the hospital. You are receiving a horse that needs immediate treatment for dehydration. The vet asks you to calculate the fluid deficit for this horse. He is a 950-pound horse that is about 7% dehydrated. What is his fluid deficit? 63 L 15 L 5 L 30 L

30 L You can estimate the fluid deficit by the following formula: Body weight in kg X % dehydration = Liters needed to re-establish hydration So for this horse: 950 pounds/2.2 pounds per kilogram (pounds cancel out) = 431.8 kg (will round up to 432kg) Now, multiply by percent dehydrated: 432 kg X 0.07 (which is 7%) = 30 Liters

Perioperative antibiotics are essential in preventing unwanted infections. What is the best time to administer the antibiotic? 1 hour prior to anesthesia 24 hours prior to surgery Immediately after surgery At the time of the incision 30 minutes prior to making an incision

30 minutes prior to making an incision Research has shown that the best time to administer perioperative antibiotics is approximately 30 minutes prior to making an incision. This allows time for the antibiotics to have adequate circulating blood levels, resulting in good protection. By convention, most surgeons will repeat a dose of antibiotics every 90 minutes while in surgery. There is no literature to support the use of antibiotics after surgery in uncomplicated surgeries. If there is substantial contamination, break in technique, or other indication for continued use of antibiotics such as discovery of an abscess, then it is beneficial.

If you have 25% mannitol and you wish to give 500 mg per kg to a 15 kg dog, how much should you give? 300 mls 3 mls 30 mls 60 mls 600 mls

30 mls The correct answer is 30 mls. 25% corresponds to 250 mg/ml strength. At a dose of 500 mg/kg, the total dose for a 15 kg dog should be 7,500 mg, which divided by 250 mg/ml equals 30 mls.

A 38-kg Great Dane is recovering from Gastric Dilatation Volvulus surgery. The doctor would like to send him home on Tramadol. The doctor requested that a prescription be filled out for 5 days at 3 mg/kg orally three times per day. How many pills should you send home? Tramadol is available in 50 mg tablets. Round to the nearest whole number. 40 tablets 25 tablets 50 tablets 30 tablets

30 tablets The correct answer is 30 tablets: 38 kg x 3 mg/kg = 114 mg 114 mg / 50 mg = 2.28 (Rounding to the nearest whole number would be 2 tablets) If getting 2 tablets per dose, then 6 tablets per day are needed. Five days' treatment would be 30 tablets.

Which of the following is the best approximation of the typical tidal volume of a 20 kg dog? 800 ml 4 L 100 ml 8 L per minute 300 ml

300 ml The tidal volume is volume of air that is normally displaced during inspiration and expiration. Typical tidal volume for a dog is about 15 ml/kg (slightly more for smaller dogs and slightly less for large dogs). Tidal volume can be used to help estimate minute volume and the necessary fresh gas flow rates with various gas anesthesia machines.

Cats do not have first and second premolars on the mandible. Therefore, what is the number in the Triadan system for the premolar that is closest to the canine on the left mandible? 405 307 404 305 407

307 In the Triadan system, each tooth has a predictable number, even with teeth missing. Therefore, even though cats do not have PM 1 and 2 (numbered 305 and 306 on the left mandible), the third premolar which is the tooth closest to the canine is 307. In all species, the canine tooth ends in 04 and the first molar ends with 09.

"Zoe", a 40 kg Labrador Retriever is recovering after a liver mass resection. The doctor asks you to start "Zoe" on a fentanyl constant rate infusion at 4 micrograms per kilogram per hour (ug/kg/hr). The concentration of fentanyl is 0.05mg/mL. The fluid rate is currently set at 100 mL/hour. How much fentanyl will you add to a liter of Normosol-R? 32 mL 8 mL 14 mL 61 mL

32 mL Constant rate infusions are not something that an entry level technician would typically perform. However, the VTNE may have some questions on CRI and it will benefit you to know how to do these calculations. To solve this problem, break down the basic parts to make it less overwhelming: 1) Convert pounds to kilograms- Note that in this problem the units are already in kg so no conversion is necessary. Make sure to pay attention to this. 2) Calculate the number of hours an infusion will last by dividing the volume in the bag (1 Liter, or 1,000 mL) by the rate per hour: 1,000 mL/100mL/hr = 10 hours (If the problem asks for a dose per minute, you will need to multiply the hours by 60 to convert to minutes, but since this problem asks for ug/kg/HOUR, you do not need to further convert) 4) Now plug into the equation: 4 ug/40kg/10 hours= 1600 ug 5) Now convert the ug into mg by dividing by 1,000: 1600/1,000 = 1.6 mg 6) Calculate the quantity of fentanyl to add by now dividing the 1.6 mg by the concentration of the drug (0.05 mg/mL) : 1.6mg/0.05mg/mL = 32 mL To be truly accurate when adding drugs to a bag like this, you should discard 32 mL of fluids from the bag prior to adding the 32 mL of fentanyl.

You are helping admit a patient to the hospital. Rudy is a 5-year old female spayed Yorkie with pancreatitis. The hospital is very busy and all of the fluid pumps are currently being used by other patients. You are asked to start fluids at 24mL/hr for Rudy. Calculate the drip rate for this patient. Her body weight is 8 pounds. The drop size for your administration set is 10 drops/mL. 2 qtt/min 4 qtt/min 12 qtt/min 21 qtt/min

4 drops/minute The body weight given in this question is irrelevant. You already know what rate you need. You would only need the body weight if you were calculating her rate. Formulas for drop sizes per mL are as follows (you may wish to memorize these): 10 drops/mL: (mL/hr) / 6 = drops/minute 15 drops/mL: (mL/hr) / 4 = drops/minute 20 drops/mL: (mL/hr) / 3 = drops/minute 60 drops/mL: (mL/hr)/ 1 = drop/minute So to calculate using these simple formulas: 24/6 = 4 drops per minute Or, If you did not know this formula, or if you forget, just convert it using what you know. First convert hours into minutes: 24 mL per hour divided by 60 minutes in an hour: 0.4 mL per minute You administration set will give 10 drops per 1 mL. So, multiply 0.4mL/min X 10 drops/1mL (the mLs cancel out) = 4 drops/minute Now check your math: 4 drops per minute X 60 minutes in a hour (minutes cancel out)= 240 drops per hour Your set gives 10 drops in 1 mL. 240 drops/10 drops/mL (drops cancel out) = 24 mL per hour (correct)

Counting 20 heartbeats in a 15 second time period means the patient's heart rate is how many beats per minute? 120 80 60 40

80 The number of heartbeats counted in 15 seconds is multiplied by 4 because there are FOUR 15 second blocks within a 1 minute time frame. 15 x FOUR= 60 seconds. 4 x 20= 80 beats per minute.

A patient has developed a severe run of ventricular premature contractions. The clinician asks you to immediately pull up a 4 mg/kg dose of lidocaine for to administer intravenously. The lidocaine in the hospital comes in a 2% solution. How many milliliters should you draw up for this 20 kg patient? 8 ml 2 ml 12 ml 4 ml

4 ml To determine how many milligrams are need, do the following math: 20 kg x (4 mg/kg) = 80 mg. Now the difficult part is determining how to calculate how many milliliters of a 2% solution of lidocaine is equivalent to 80 mg. Percent is equal to weight (in Grams) / 100 parts volume (in mLs) (This is based on water, since 1 mL weighs 1 Gram): Example: A 2% solution: 2 Grams/100 mL or 2000 mg/100 mL or 20 mg/mL The easiest way to remember is to just add a zero onto any percentage for the milligrams (i.e. 2% solution = 20 mg; 10% solution = 100 mg; 25% solution = 250 mg). Therefore, 80 mg / (20 mg/ml) = 4 ml

A client has a dog with allergies, and the doctor recommends she give the dog diphenhydramine (Benadryl) twice daily for 1 week. She instructs that the dog have 3.0 mg/kg every 12 hours. Over-the-counter Benadryl contains 12.5 mg per teaspoon, and the owner wishes to give a liquid. What quantity of Benadryl in milliliters should the dog receive every 12 hours if he weighs 8 pounds? 4.3 mL 0.85 mL 1.2 mL 3.1 mL

4.3 mL To solve this question you need to know that there are 5 mL in 1 teaspoon. This means that the concentration of the Benadryl liquid is: 12.5 mg/5 mL = 2.5 mg/mL The dog weighs 8 pounds/ 2.2 pounds/kg = 3.6 kg The dog needs 3.0 mg/kg per dose. So, 3.0 mg/kg X 3.6 kg = 10.8 mg per dose (every 12 hours) 10.8 mg/ 2.5 mg/mL = 4.3 mL

A 10 kg Miniature Schnauzer is to receive 22mg/kg cefazolin intravenously following a laceration repair. If the concentration of the cefazolin is 50mg/ml, how many milliliters should be administered? 3.2 4.4 6.0 2.2 1.5

4.4 The answer is 4.4 mL. 10kg x 22mg/kg = 220mg cefazolin. 220mg/ 50mg/ml = 4.4 mL to be administered.

A 120-pound Great Dane has presented with Gastric Dilatation Volvulus. The clinician has asked you to quickly prepare the drug protocol. As a premedication, the dog is to receive 0.08 mg/kg of Hydromorphone. How many milligrams will you administer? 2.2 mg 9.6 mg 6.4 mg 4.4mg

4.4mg To calculate milligrams administered the dog's body weight should be converted to kilograms. As a general rule, the majority of medications are dosed in a milligram-per-kilogram dosing. Therefore all body weights need to be converted to kilograms so that you are working in the same units. 120 lb/2.2 = 54.5 kg (There are 2.2 lbs per kilogram) 54.5 kg x (0.08 mg/kg) = 4.4 mg (Notice the "kg" will cancel out when you do the math) If your answer was 9.6 mg, you did not convert the body weight into kilograms.

You have a bottle of 50% Dextrose. You are asked to add it to a bag of LRS for a pet in diabetic ketoacidosis to create a 2.5% solution. The pet has 800 mL left in his bag. How much will you add to his bag? 60 mL 40 mL 20 mL 25 mL 80 mL

40 mL 800 mL X 0.025 = 20 mL. If this were 100% dextrose, adding 20 mL to the bag would create the 2.5% concentration. Since it is 50% dextrose, this number must be doubled: So, 20 mL X 2 = 40 mL Draw out 40 mL from the bag (now there are 760 mL left in the bag). Add in 40 mL of 50% Dextrose. Now, 2.5% of the total 800 mL is Dextrose. Double check the math: 40 mL/ 800mL = 0.05 (i.e. 5%) divided by 2 {because it was 50% dextrose that was added) = 0.025 = 2.5%.

You perform a dental prophylaxis on a dog that has all of his teeth. How many adult teeth are in the dog's mouth? 24 32 28 42

42 The adult dog has 42 teeth. Cats have 30 teeth. Most cats and dogs have all of their permanent teeth by 6 months of age.

What is the shock dose of fluids for a cat? 90 mL/kg 45 mL/kg 50 mL total per cat 150 mL total per cat

45 mL/kg The full shock dose of fluids for cats is 45 mL/kg of crystalloids. When giving shock doses of fluids, they are often given in 1/4 increments. The shock dose of fluids for dogs is 90 mL/kg.

A 7-kg Dachshund "Rudy" is being treated for pancreatitis and has been vomiting. You are asked to start him on a constant rate infusion of metoclopramide at 2 mg per kilogram per day (mg/kg/day). He is on a fluid rate of 23 mL/hr. Metoclopramide comes in a concentration of 5mg/mL. How much metoclopramide will you add to a liter bag of LRS? 3 mL 1.2 mL 8 mL 5 mL

5 mL Constant rate infusions are not something that an entry level technician would typically perform. However, the VTNE may have some questions on CRI and it will benefit you to know how to do these calculations. To solve this problem, break down the basic parts to make it less overwhelming: 1) Convert pounds to kilograms- Note that in this problem the units are already in kg so no conversion is necessary. Make sure to pay attention to this. 2) Calculate the number of hours an infusion will last by dividing the volume in the bag (1 Liter, or 1,000 mL) by the rate per hour: 1,000 mL/23mL/hr = 43 hours We want to make sure the units match the equation in the problem which asks for mg/kg/DAY. So divide the hours by 24 (since there are 24 hours in a day): 43 hours/24 hours/day = 1.8 days 4) Now plug into the equation: 2mg/7kg/1.8 days= 25 mg 5) Calculate the quantity of metoclopramide to add by now dividing the 25 mg by the concentration of the drug (5 mg/mL) : 25mg/5mg/mL = 5 mL To be truly accurate when adding drugs to a bag like this, you should discard 5 mL of fluids from the bag prior to adding the 5 mL of metoclopramide.

The attending veterinarian would like you to administer a 22 mg/kg dosage of Cefazolin to a 67 pound dog that is about to have surgery. You find that the vial that has been reconstituted is empty and you need to make a new bottle. How much sterile water will you add to a 1 gram vial if you want the concentration to be 200 mg/ml? 5 ml 50 mls 1 gram of powder can not be reconstituted to 200 mg/ml 200 mls

5 ml First convert grams to milligrams 1 gram = 1000 mg. 1000 mg divided by 200 mg/ml = 5 mls Note that in this question the body weight and dose are not needed to solve.

How many milliliters of 50% dextrose should be added to a 100 ml solution of Lactated Ringer's Solution to make it 2.5%? 0.5 ml 5 ml 10 ml 1 ml

5 ml To answer this question, the following formula should be implemented: C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2) C is the concentration V is the volume C(1) =0.5 V(1) = x C(2) = 0.025 V(2) = 100 ml 0.5x = 0.025(100) x = 5 ml 5 ml of 50% dextrose should be added to 100 ml in order to make a 2.5% solution.

Tramadol is to be sent home with a 27 pound Beagle following a routine ovariohysterectomy. The veterinarian wants you to fill the prescription giving 2 mg/kg every 8 hours PO for 3 days. Tramadol comes in 50 mg tablets. How many tablets will you dispense? Dispense as many tablets as the owner would like in case the patient is painful for more than 3 days. 18 tablets 9 tablets 5 tablets

5 tablets First you must convert pounds to kilograms dividing 27 by 2.2 = 12.2 kg. 12.2 kg multiplied by 2 mg/kg = 24.5 mg. This patient will get 1/2 tablet by mouth (25 mg) every 8 hours or 3 times daily. 0.5 tablet multiplied by 3 times daily is 1.5 tablets per day multiplied by 3 days is 4.5 tablets. The appropriate number of tablets to dispense is 5.

A ferret presents to your hospital in lateral recumbency. A blood glucose test confirms hypoglycemia, and dehydration is making venous access very difficult. The veterinarian directs you to administer subcutaneous fluids. Which of the following fluids can not be given via this method? 5% dextrose in 0.9% Sodium Chloride Lactated Ringer's Solution 0.9% Sodium Chloride Plasma-Lyte

5% dextrose in 0.9% Sodium Chloride 5% dextrose in 0.9% NaCl is a hypertonic solution and can not be given subcutaneously because it can cause sloughing of the skin and increases risk for bacterial infections at the injection site. The other solutions are safe to be given subcutaneously.

5 grams is equal to how many milligrams? 5,000 500 50 0.05

5,000 1 gram is equal to 1,000 mg. To calculate this, you multiply 5 by 1,000. 5 grams = 5,000 mg.

Which of the following is not an anticipated finding when evaluating a urine sample after performing a cystocentesis? -Struvite crystals -Calcium oxalate crystals -5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field -Erythrocytes

5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field There should be less than 0-5 white blood cells per high-powered field in a urine sample. Erythrocytes are not uncommon when performing a cystocentesis. This can occur secondary to trauma to the bladder wall when performing urine collection. Keep in mind that an excessive presence of blood can be abnormal. Struvite and calcium oxalate crystaluria is not necessarily abnormal.

A client presents with her 8-week old puppy. She wants to know when she can be spayed. What is the ideal recommended age for spays and neuters? 10-12 weeks The younger the better, as young as 2 weeks 8-10 months 5-6 months

5-6 months The ideal age for this procedure is 5-6 months of age. This helps to decrease the anesthetic risk that may occur in younger animals but allows for the procedure before the first heat cycle. The first heat cycle typically occurs around 6-8 months of age. Most shelter facilities conduct the procedure earlier so that the pets may be adopted.

A cat is starting weekly subcutaneous fluid administration for renal failure at the clinic where you work. The client asks how long it will take for him to absorb the fluids after they are given. You tell him most cats will absorb the fluid within: 24 hours 5-8 hours 1 hour 48 hours

5-8 hours Subcutaneous fluids are most commonly absorbed within 5 to 8 hours of administration. However, fluids are absorbed when they are needed, and absorption is dependent on having adequate SQ blood flow, which can be decreased in severely hypothermic or dehydrated patients.

The attending veterinarian asks you to administer 120 mg of enrofloxacin (Baytril) IV slow over 20 minutes to a dog that is hospitalized in your clinic. The strength of injectable enrofloxacin is 2.27%, how many milliliters of drug will you administer? There is not enough information available to calculate the dosage 52.8 mls 5.3 ml 0.53 mls

5.3 ml A 2.27% solution is 22.7 mg/ml. 120 mg divided by 22.7 mg/ml = 5.3 mls

You are instructed to administer 12 liters of sterile isotonic IV fluids via a fluid pump over the next 24 hours. What is the appropriate fluid rate to administer this volume of IV fluids? 1 liter/hour 12 liters/hour 500 mL/hour 250 mL/hour

500 mL/hour 12 liters (12000 mLs) divided by 24 hours would equal 500 mLs/hour.

How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a dog? 2 6 4 8

6 The correct answer is 6. The 3-rooted permanent teeth in the maxilla of a dog are P4, M1, and M2 (so 3 on each side of the upper jaw). There are no 3-rooted permanent mandibular teeth in the dog.

You are planning to get some goats out on your ranch property and would like to keep them confined to a certain area to keep the weeds down. How tall of a fence (minimum) would likely be required to keep the goats confined? 6 feet 4 feet 3 feet 8 feet

6 feet Fencing is a very important aspect of raising sheep and goats. Most goats can jump or climb over a fence that is shorter than 6 feet, so this would be the minimum recommended height.

In general, at what age are puppy teeth (deciduous) considered to be retained? 6 months 18 months 3 months 1 year

6 months A tooth is considered retained if it is still present after full eruption of the permanent tooth. Teething can begin around 3 1/2 to 4 months, and will continue until about 6 months of age on average, at which point all 42 permanent teeth should be present. If the deciduous teeth are still present after the permanent teeth have come in, they are considered retained and should be extracted (typically at the time of the spay or neuter). The dog in the photo has multiple retained teeth. The most common teeth to be retained are the upper canines, followed by the lower canine teeth and the incisors. Sometimes, the premolar teeth may also be retained.

Without a heartworm test, what is the latest age that heartworm preventative could safely be started in a dog? 2 months 6 months 1 year 4 months

6 months Heartworm prevention should be started at 6 to 8 weeks of age. Most heartworm preventatives can be started once an animal is over 2 pounds body weight. Since heartworm prevention kills microfilaria, heartworm preventative must be started before 6 months to insure that the microfilaria have not matured to the adult stage.

What is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time? 1-2 Liters 10-15 Liters 6-8 Liters 20-25 Liters

6-8 Liters The average size horse (800 to 1200 pounds) has a stomach capacity of only about 4 gallons. It is best to give smaller quantities of fluids more frequently, and no more than 6 to 8 liters should be given at one time.

A 20-kg patient is currently receiving 52 ml/hr of Lactated Ringer's Solution. The clinician has requested that 2 mg/kg/day of metoclopramide be added to the bag. Metoclopramide is available as a 5 mg/ml solution. How many milliliters do you need to add to a 1 liter bag? 6.5 ml 3 ml 0.8 ml 45 ml

6.5 ml This is definitely a more complicated calculation question, but when broken down it is not insurmountable. A 20-kg patient will need 40 mg/day of metoclopramide (20 kg x 2 mg/kg/day) Since the fluid is being administered at an hourly rate, we need to figure out how much metoclopramide we are administering per hour. 40 mg/day / (24 hr) = 1.7 mg/hr To determine how much volume of metoclopramide is needed, the following math is performed: 1.7 mg/hr / (52 ml/hr) x (1000 ml)= 32.6 mg (Notice how the units cancel out.) 32.6 mg / (5 mg/ml) = 6.5 ml

A 2-ounce bottle of Dermacool spray contains how many milliliters? 40 mL 60 mL 15 mL 30 mL

60 mL There are 30 mL in one ounce. 2-ounce bottle X 30 mL/ounce = 60 mL

What is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs? 150-200 mg/kg 60-100 mg/kg 10-15 mg/kg 0.5-2 mg/kg

60-100 mg/kg The LD50 toxic dose of theobromine in dogs which many texts list is 100-150 mg/kg, and may be the correct answer if listed as a choice. HOWEVER, this means that about 50% of pets die at this level; therefore, obviously the true toxic dose would be lower than this. In some sensitive pets, toxic doses could as low as 20 mg/kg. On average, the toxic dose is likely somewhere between 60-100 mg/kg.

A 60 lb Bulldog is to receive intravenous fluids at a maintenance rate. Assuming the maintenance rate can be calculated as 60 ml/kg/day, what would the fluid rate be per hour? Round answer to the closest milliliter/hour. 150 68 108 163 30

68 The answer is 68. 60 lb/2.2 kg/lb = 27.27 kgs in weight. 27.27 x 60 ml/kg = 1636 ml/day. 1636 ml/day / 24hrs/day = 68 ml/hour

How many cervical vertebrae do cows have? 13 7 6 9

7 Cows as well as dogs, sheep, pigs, cats, goats, horses and humans have 7 cervical vertebrae.

How many lumbar vertebrae do dogs and cats have? 13 5 7 18

7 Dogs and cats have 7 lumbar vertebrae. Horses and cows have 6 lumbar vertebrae. Humans only have 5 lumbar vertebrae. Pigs and sheep can vary in the number of vertebrae they have (6-7).

A breeder calls and wants to know how long sperm may be viable to fertilize an egg after dogs have mated. What will you tell her? 4 days 24 hours 7 days 14 days

7 days Canine sperm may live or be able to fertilize an ovum for about 7 days.

A patient with a chest tube needs to have lidocaine administered via the tube to help with pain control. The patient weighs 80 lbs and needs 2 mg/kg of lidocaine administered. The doctor asks that the lidocaine be diluted in an equal volume of saline. The lidocaine comes in a 2% solution. How many total milliliters will you administer into the chest? 3.0 ml 3.6 ml 2.8 ml 7.2 ml

7.2 ml First convert the body weight to kilograms. There are 2.2 lbs in 1 kilo. 80 lbs / (2.2 lbs/kg) = 36.4 kg Next, calculate the amount of lidocaine that needs to be given in mg. 36.4 kg x (2 mg/kg) = 72.7 mg Percent is equal to weight (in Grams) / 100 parts volume (in mLs): Example: A 3% solution: 3 Grams/100 mL or 3000 mg/100 mL or 30 mg/mL The easiest way to remember is to just add a zero onto any percentage for the milligrams. (i.e. 2% solution = 20 mg; 10% solution = 100 mg; 25% solution = 250 mg) Therefore, the 2% lidocaine solution is 20 mg/ml. 72.7 mg / (20 mg/ml) = 3.6 ml LIDOCAINE Now, you will add an equal part of saline = 3.6 mL SALINE Add them together: 3.6 mL lidocaine + 3.6 mL saline = 7.2 mL total volume to be injected into the chest. 7.2 ml is the best answer choice.

The heart rate of an adult dog should range between which of the following? 120-200 bpm 70-160 bpm 180-240 bpm 24-50 bpm

70-160 bpm A dog heart rate ranges between 70-160 bpm. As with the cat, there may be variation. An adult cat typically has a resting heart rate between 150-220 bpm. Keep in mind that if the cat is very excited, the heart rate might be faster. Remember that puppies and kittens will have faster heart rates.

A 55-pound Pit Bull mix "Rocky" was hit by a car and is hospitalized in the emergency ward. The ECG is showing continuous runs of ventricular tachycardia. The veterinarian asks you to start a constant rate infusion of lidocaine to be given at 80 micrograms per kilogram per minute (ug/kg/min). The dog is currently on a fluid rate of 80 mL per hour. Lidocaine is a 2% solution. How much lidocaine will you add to a liter of LRS? 19 ml 26 ml 75 ml 5 ml

75 ml *Note that a 2% solution is the same as 20 mg/mL (add a zero to the % number, so 1% is 10mg/mL, 20% is 200 mg/mL, etc.) 1) Convert pounds to kilograms-55 pounds/2.2 pounds per kg = 25 kg 2) Calculate the number of hours an infusion will last by dividing the volume in the bag (1 liter, or 1,000 ml) by the rate per hour: 1,000 ml/80ml/hr = 12.5 hours 3) Now take the number of hours (12.5) and multiply by 60 to calculate how many minutes this is: 12.5 X 60 = 750 minutes 4) Plug into the equation: 80 ug/25kg/750min= 1,500,000 ug 5) Now convert the ug into mg by dividing by 1,000: 1,500,000/1,000 = 1500 mg 6) Calculate the quantity of lidocaine to add by dividing the 1500 mg by the concentration of the drug (20mg/ml): 1500mg/20mg/ml = 75 ml To be truly accurate when adding drugs to a bag like this, you should discard 75 ml of fluids from the bag prior to adding the 75 ml of lidocaine.

A 4-kg puppy is in need of subcutaneous fluids due to dehydration. The doctor prescribed a dose of 20 ml/kg. How many milliliters should this patient receive? 24 ml 80 ml 200 ml 5 ml

80 ml To obtain the answer the following math should have been performed: 4 kg x (20 ml/kg) = 80 ml Notice the kilograms were canceled out.

A 55-pound Pit Bull mix "Rocky" was hit by a car and is hospitalized in the emergency ward. The ECG is showing continuous runs of ventricular tachycardia. The veterinarian asks you to start a constant rate infusion of lidocaine to be given at 80 micrograms per kilogram per minute (ug/kg/min). The dog is currently on a fluid rate of 80 mL per hour. Lidocaine is a 2% solution. How much lidocaine will you add to a liter of LRS? 5 ml 75 ml 26 ml 19 ml

75 ml Constant rate infusions are not something that an entry-level technician would typically perform. However, the VTNE may have some questions on CRI, and it will benefit you to know how to do these calculations. To solve this problem, break down the basic parts to make it less overwhelming. *Note that a 2% solution is the same as 20 mg/mL (add a zero to the % number, so 1% is 10mg/mL, 20% is 200 mg/mL, etc.) 1) Convert pounds to kilograms-55 pounds/2.2 pounds per kg = 25 kg 2) Calculate the number of hours an infusion will last by dividing the volume in the bag (1 liter, or 1,000 ml) by the rate per hour: 1,000 ml/80ml/hr = 12.5 hours 3) Now take the number of hours (12.5) and multiply by 60 to calculate how many minutes this is: 12.5 X 60 = 750 minutes 4) Plug into the equation: 80 ug/25kg/750min= 1,500,000 ug 5) Now convert the ug into mg by dividing by 1,000: 1,500,000/1,000 = 1500 mg 6) Calculate the quantity of lidocaine to add by dividing the 1500 mg by the concentration of the drug (20mg/ml): 1500mg/20mg/ml = 75 ml To be truly accurate when adding drugs to a bag like this, you should discard 75 ml of fluids from the bag prior to adding the 75 ml of lidocaine.

t is estimated that blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels become elevated when what percentage of kidney function is lost? 75% 50% 25% 90%

75% BUN and creatinine are not considered very sensitive tests of renal function because they often do not become elevated until at least 75% of kidney function is lost. Urine becomes isosthenuric when approximately 66% of kidney function is lost.

What percentage of dogs and cats, on average, has periodontal disease? 95% 25% 75% 60% 40%

75% It is thought that 80% of dogs and 70% of cats have some degree of periodontal disease over the age of 3 years. This is why it is so important to discuss dental care with pet owners.

A dog has recently obtained a fresh superficial linear wound after lacerating its flank on a fence. Within what time period can this wound be optimally repaired by primary closure? 8 hours 12-24 hours 3-5 days 2 hours

8 hours After 8 hours pass, the wound tissue starts to become increasingly compromised, and risk of infection and necrosis increase. Primary closure is used when a wound is classified as clean or clean-contaminated. Closure of these involves immediate lavaging, suturing, and closure of the wound. Delayed primary closure is used in clean-contaminated wounds or contaminated wounds and is performed 2-5 days later. The wound is lavaged and debrided. Closure of the wound takes place before the development of granulation tissue. Secondary closure is wound management consisting of lavage and debridement until granulation tissue develops (3-5 days). Then, the edges of the wound are excised, and the skin edges are sutured over the granulation tissue. Second-intention healing is when a wound is allowed to heal by granulating in, wound contraction, and epithelialization; no surgical closure is performed.

Socialization plays an important role in companion animal behavior. At what age is it vital that painful and/or traumatic experiences be avoided?

8-10 weeks Between the ages of 8 and 10 weeks puppies experience a fear period. Because of this, painful and traumatic situations should be avoided. Between the ages of 3 and 8 weeks puppies socialize best with other dogs. At 16-20 weeks puppies go through a period when they are curious and exploring new environments.

An adult canine patient is in cardiac arrest and it is your job to administer thoracic compressions. How fast should you give compressions? 180-200 beats per minute 80-120 beats per minute As fast as you can 40-60 beats per minute

80-120 beats per minute Any faster or slower than 80-120 bpm and one runs the risk of the circulation becoming impaired. This will then result in organs and muscles not getting the oxygen that they need.

A veterinarian hands you a prescriptions that reads: Cephalexin 250 mg, SIG: 3 cap PO BID x 14d What is correct amount of medication to dispense and what directions should be typed on the drug label? 42 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. 136 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth three times daily for 14 days. 84 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. 84 capsules (75 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. 42 capsules (75 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth once daily for 14 days.

84 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. The signatura (SIG) or transcription is the directions for the medication. PO stands for "Per Os" which means orally. BID means twice daily. So the correct instructions are: Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. If 3 capsules are given twice daily, then 6 are given total per day. 6 X 14 days= 84 capsules

Some orphaned kittens are left on the doorstep of the clinic where you work. You volunteer to take care of these kittens. What volume can the stomach of a kitten or puppy hold on average?

9 mL/kg The stomach volume of a kitten is around 9 mL/kg. Giving more than this at a time can lead to regurgitation and causes increased risk of aspiration.

A 3-year old male neutered Labrador Retriever presents for lethargy and inappetence of a few days in duration. The dog is approximately 7% dehydrated with pale and dry mucous membranes, a capillary refill time > 2 sec, heart rate > 170 bpm and weak femoral pulses. The veterinarian diagnoses the dog with hypovolemic shock and orders isotonic crystalloid fluid therapy. What is the isotonic crystalloid total "shock dose" in dogs? 10-20 ml/kg 180 ml/kg 40-60 ml/kg 90 ml/kg 5 ml/kg

90 ml/kg The isotonic crystalloids shock dose in dogs is 90 ml/kg. 1/4 to 1/3 of this volume should be administered initially and the patient reassessed. In cats, the isotonic crystalloids shock dose is 40-60 ml/kg. Synthetic colloids can be administered at a dose of 10-20 ml/kg in dogs and 5-10 ml/kg in cats; hypertonic saline can be administered at a dose of 5 ml/kg.

"Bernie," a 4-year-old Maltese mix presents to your clinic after having ingested a full milk chocolate bar about 20 minutes prior to his arrival; this means he consumed about 1.55 ounces, according to the package the owner brought. How many milligrams of theobromine would this be? (Hint: Milk chocolate contains about 60mg per ounce of theobromine, the toxin we are concerned about.) Bernie weighs 15 pounds. 240 mg 900 mg 93 mg 74 mg

93 mg This question is asking about how many mg he ingested, so his body weight is irrelevant for this particular problem. He consumed 1.55 oz X 60 mg/oz (oz cancel out)= 93 mg ingested The toxic dose of chocolate can vary per patient. At 20mg/kg may be hyperactive, agitated, and have GI symptoms. Around 50mg/kg may start to have cardiac effects such as tachycardia or arrhythmias. Doses above 60 mg/kg may start to cause neurologic symptoms such as tremoring, seizures, etc.; in severe cases death may occur. To see what effects Bernie might have, let's take it one step further: He weighs 15 pounds/2.2 pounds/kg = 6.8 kg 93 mg ingested/6.8kg = 13.6 mg/kg dose ingested (this is well below the 20mg/kg that may cause hyperactivity) Going off the information about side effects above, Bernie is not likely to have any severe effects other than possibly some GI upset. If he just ate the chocolate, the vet may still wish to induce vomiting, or just monitor.

Which of the following is considered a normal pulse oximetry reading? 98% 1% 90% 50%

98% Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation. Normal oxygenation is greater than 96% on average. It can be difficult to always get an accurate reading on an awake animal due to pigmented skin, fur, and/or the cooperation of the animal. Typical places for readings on an awake animal are the ears or lips. During anesthesia, the reading is on the tongue. If the pulse oximetry drops during anesthesia, wet and massage the tongue and take another reading.

What is the normal rectal temperature for a horse? 98.5-99.5 99-101.5F 101.5-102.5F 102.5-103.5F

99-101.5F Average rectal temperature for a horse is around 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Averages for other species are: Cattle 101F, Cat/Dog 101-102F, Goats/Sheep 102.3F, Pig 102.5F, and Rabbit 103.1F

A reticulocyte count should be included on a complete blood cell count in which of the following instances? -A 9-year old horse with a total white blood cell count of 2,000/ul -An 8-year old cat with a platelet count of 30,000/ul -A 3-year old dog with a total white blood cell count of 32,000/ul -A 13-year old cat with a packed cell volume of 19%

A 13-year old cat with a packed cell volume of 19% A reticulocyte count is performed to assess whether a patient is generating a bone marrow response to anemia. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that are released from the bone marrow when the marrow is stimulated to increase red blood cell production. Therefore, anemia (or a low packed cell volume) is the primary reason to perform a reticulocyte count.

Which anesthetic breathing circuit should be used for rabbit anesthesia? A breathing circuit with minimal dead space As long as you are using a nonprecision vaporizer the breathing circuit does not matter A breathing circuit with plenty of dead space As long as you are using a precision vaporizer the breathing circuit does not matter

A breathing circuit with minimal dead space As with small animal anesthesia, as a general rule, any patient under 7 kilograms should be placed on a nonrebreathing circuit. These offer minimal dead space, less resistance to breathing, and provide faster changes in anesthetic depth. Precision vaporizers should always be used in small mammal anesthesia, but this does not change the need for minimal dead space.

Which of the following can occur as an injection of Cerenia (maropitant) is given subcutaneously? A burning or stinging sensation Acute collapse Hyperkalemia Bradycardia

A burning or stinging sensation Cerenia is given as an anti-nausea to prevent vomiting or motion sickness in dogs. Maropitant is a neurokinin (NK1) receptor antagonist that blocks the pharmacological action of substance P in the central nervous sytem (CNS). Some studies have also concluded that this medication provides visceral analgesia to some patients. It may cause a burning or stinging sensation, and sometimes the pet will whine or cry when receiving this injection SQ. Acute collapse and bradycardia can occur secondary to any injection but is not common, nor more prevalent when maropitant is administered. Hyperkalemia is unlikely to occur instantaneously in any situation.

A 6-year old male domestic short hair presents dyspneic with fluid dripping from both nares. The veterinarian suspects heart failure due to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What type of injection would most likely immediately be given? A corticosteroid Intravenous fluids An antibiotic A sedative A diuretic

A diuretic Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition whereby the myocardium becomes thickened and diastolic function becomes impaired, often resulting in congestive heart failure. The diuretic is given to decrease blood volume and therefore reduce the strain on the heart. Intravenous fluids should not be given as they would increase plasma volume. A sedative might be advantageous to calm the patient but should be given after treatment has begun. An antibiotic will not treat HCM. Corticosteroids are contraindicated in cases of heart failure.

Which of the following types of wounds would most benefit from a wet-to-dry bandage? A dog with a clean cut on its side from a fence A dog that has a lick granuloma on its forelimb that is severely inflamed A dog that has a scrape on its hock with a large surface area A dog hit by a car that has an open wound with gravel debris and macerated tissues

A dog hit by a car that has an open wound with gravel debris and macerated tissues Wet-to-dry bandages best serve the purpose for debriding necrotic tissue, especially in the cases of trauma where the wounds are dirty and have the potential of having tissue necrosis around the insult. The goal is to treat these wounds with wet-to-dry bandages until the tissues have healthy granulation tissue and can be adequately debrided and closed. Also, these bandages are beneficial in trauma cases when primary closures are not possible due to more significant internal injuries that need to be addressed first.

Which of the following best describes a seroma? A fluid pocket at an incision site that is not infected A mass of immune cells that forms due to tissue injury that can occur from trauma or surgery A fluid pocket at an incision site containing pus A pocket or distribution of air under the skin

A fluid pocket at an incision site that is not infected A seroma is a pocket of fluid that sometimes develops at a surgery site post-op. It is typically a clear or pink serous fluid and is not infected. It often builds up in dead space or from a suture reaction. An abscess is a pocket of pus (infection). Air under the skin is referred to as subcutaneous emphysema. A granuloma is a mass of immune cells that forms from tissue injury.

Microsporum This is Microsporum canis, a common cause of dermatophytosis (ringworm). Trichophyton is also a cause of ringworm, though the macroconidia are much longer and more narrow. Malassezia is yeast and often appears budding or looks like bowling pins. Contaminant hyphae are commonly seen on cytology, making it necessary to confirm a positive DTM culture as ringworm by identifying the causative macroconidia microscopically.

A kitten presents with hair loss over the top of the head and you take a sample for DTM culture. The culture begins to turn red within two days and grows some white fuzz on the surface. You use a tape preparation to identify the organisms growing and see the following under the microscope (see image). What is this? -Trichophyton -Microsporum -Pollen, a normal contaminant -Malassezia

What constitutes anemia? A low neutrophil count A low thrombocyte count A low packed cell volume An increased hematocrit

A low packed cell volume Anemia is a condition in which the body doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells (erythrocytes). A low packed cell volume (PCV), or hematocrit (HCT), constitutes anemia. The PCV is the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by the red blood cells. Also important to note is that in mammals, the hematocrit is not related to body size. Normal PCV of a dog is between 37-55% and cats 29-50%. Puppies and kittens normally have lower PCV's. A low thrombocyte count would be thrombocytopenia (low platelets). A low neutrophil count would be neutropenia.

Which animal might receive a perineal urethrostomy? A dog with a pus-filled uterus A male cat with a urethral obstruction A female dog with a large bladder stone A dog that has a puppy stuck in the birth canal

A male cat with a urethral obstruction Perineal urethrostomies are performed in male cats with a urethral blockage. The procedure is performed when a cat has had multiple episodes of obstruction or when the obstruction cannot be relieved manually. The procedure entails making a new opening in the urethra in the perineal area and removing the penis.

Which of the following is the best description of an epulis? A gingival lesion caused by inflammation A non-malignant oral tumor A gingival lesion caused by trauma A developmental tooth disorder

A non-malignant oral tumor An epulis is a non-malignant tumor of the periodontal ligament. These tumors do not metastasize but can be locally invasive. The most aggressive form of this condition, an acanthomatous epulis, can invade and destroy bone.

Which ICU patient on fluids needs to be watched closely for jugular distention? A patient with history of seizures An aggressive patient A patient in renal failure A patient with a heart murmur

A patient with a heart murmur A patient with underlying cardiac disease is at the highest risk of pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs) from fluid overload. An indication of possible fluid overload is jugular distention.

Sarcoptes This is Sarcoptes scabiei which causes scabies- typically a very itchy disease. This piglet was treated successfully with 2 doses of Ivermectin. Otodectes is the ear mite, and Hematopinus is a louse. Demodex is a cigar-shaped follicular mite that is not typically itchy unless there are secondary infections present.

A pot-bellied piglet presents with a history of hair loss and severe itching. You help the doctor perform a skin scraping around one of the lesions on his side and you see the following under the microscope. What parasite is this? -Demodex -Otodectes -Hematopinus -Sarcoptes

In which situation would a post-operative sponge count be necessary following an abdominal exploratory? Sponge counts are not necessary since they are radiopaque Sponge counts only need to be performed for mass removals A sponge count should always be performed regardless of the nature of the abdominal surgery Sponge counts are performed only when there is excessive bleeding

A sponge count should always be performed regardless of the nature of the abdominal surgery Inadvertently leaving a sponge in the abdomen is a completely avoidable complication which unfortunately still occurs. Sponge counts should always be performed at the beginning of surgery and then again at the end of surgery to ensure that no sponge was left behind. If a sponge cannot be located, a radiograph of the patient should be performed. The sponge will only show up on the radiograph if it had a radiopaque marker.

The kitten has roundworms This is a photo of a Toxocara egg, which is a roundworm. Roundworms are very common in kittens and puppies.

A woman presents with her 10-week-old kitten who has been having diarrhea. She brought a fresh fecal sample and you perform a fecal flotation while the doctor is performing his exam. You see the following under the microscope (see image). What do you tell the doctor when he asks about the fecal? -The kitten has hookworms -The kitten has roundworms -The kitten has tapeworms -The kitten has coccidia

In cattle, a balling gun is sometimes used for which of the following. Euthanasia Floating teeth Castration Administering medications

Administering medications A balling gun is used to give medication boluses to cattle. Fluids and medications can also be given via orogastric tube.

When anesthetizing a rabbit for anesthesia, which vein is most often used? Jugular Medial saphenous Auricular Lateral saphenous Cephalic

Auricular The auricular (ear vein) is most often used in rabbits when IV access is necessary. For short procedures in private practice, subcutaneous or intramuscular injectable anesthetics are are often given, or a gas induction is used.

What is the most common cause of flexural and angular deformities in horses? Incorrect shoeing Excessive riding Abnormal development Laminitis

Abnormal development Flexure and angular deformities occur as a result of musculotendinous and musculoskeletal growth deformities. These abnormalities may be present at birth or develop over the first few months to years of life. Treatment may be as simple as corrective shoeing or bandaging, but more advanced cases may require surgical intervention. The three main types of flexural deformities are carpal, distal interphalangeal (coffin joint), and metacarpophalangeal.

If a snake is undergoing "dysecdysis", what does this mean? Retention of the eye cap or "spectacle" after shedding Abnormal shedding of the skin External parasitism by mites or ticks Normal physiologic process of skin sloughing Difficulty breathing

Abnormal shedding of the skin "Ecdysis" means the shedding or sloughing of the skin and occurs in reptiles including snakes. Dysecdysis is the term used when there is abnormal or incomplete sloughing. In pet reptiles, this is most commonly due to a habitat that is not sufficiently humidified.

Which of the 4 stomach compartments in the ruminant is considered the true glandular stomach? Abomasum Rumen Reticulum Omasum

Abomasum The abomasum is the true glandular stomach and is responsible for mixing food with digestive enzymes. The omasum grinds up the food material and absorbs water and bicarbonate. The rumen is the where all the fermentation is occurring thanks to the help of symbiotic organisms that help break down the food. The rumen occupies the majority of the LEFT side of the abdominal cavity. The reticulum acts as a conduit for food and helps pace the contractions of the rumen.

Trichomoniasis causes which of the following conditions in cattle? Dry, scaly skin lesions Abortions Severe watery diarrhea Mucopurulent nasal discharge

Abortions Trichomonas fetus (trichomoniasis) is a venereal disease of cattle that causes infertility and abortions. It is a protozoan found only in the reproductive tract of the bull and cow.

What is a localized accumulation of pus in the body is known as? Abscess Vesicle Adenoma Cyst Seborrhea

Abscess An abscess is a collection of pus that accumulates and is surrounded by inflammatory tissue. A cyst is a closed-off sac that may contain fluid, air, semi-solid material, etc. A vesicle is a small blister on the skin or mucosa, similar to a cyst. Adenoma is a benign glandular tumor. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by either greasy skin from excessive sebum (overproductive glands in the skin), or dry skin characterized by flaking scales.

What is the term that describes nerve fibers that carry an impulse TOWARD the brain? Peripheral Dendritic Afferent Efferent

Afferent Afferent fibers carry impulses toward the brain and/or spinal cord. Efferent fibers carry them away from the brain and/or spinal cord. Peripheral nerves are outside of the brain and spinal cord. Dendritic is an adjective that describes a highly branched structure and refers to the projections from a nerve cell.

What is the function of soda lime in an anesthetic machine? Absorb nitrogen Absorb oxygen Absorb carbon monoxide Absorb anesthetic gases Absorb carbon dioxide

Absorb carbon dioxide Soda lime is used in rebreathing anesthetic systems to absorb carbon dioxide and prevent it from accumulating in the circuit.

What type of folding method is preferred for cloth drapes that would allow for easy unfolding and placement of the drape? Diagonal folding Triangle folding Square folding Accordion folding

Accordion folding Cloth drapes should be packed such that they can easily be unfolded while maintaining sterility. An accordion-type of fold will achieve this goal. The other answer choices are not used.

Which of these drugs should be used with great caution in stallions due to the risk of causing paraphimosis or priapism? Trimethoprim-sulfa Ketamine Atropine Acepromazine

Acepromazine The correct answer is acepromazine. Phenothiazine tranquilizers can cause relaxation of smooth muscles and engorgement of the corpus cavernosum with blood, leading to an inability to withdraw the penis into the sheath, or paraphimosis. While this drug side effect is very rare, veterinarians should be cautious in the use of acepromazine in stallions and should consider another sedative such as xylazine or detomidine when sedation is necessary.

Which of the following drugs are toxic to cats? Ketoprofen Prednisolone Famotidine Xylazine Acetaminophen

Acetaminophen Acetaminophen (Tylenol), even in small doses, can be very toxic to cats. They are very sensitive to this drug due to low levels of an enzyme (glucoronyl transferase) in the liver that is needed to metabolize acetaminophen. Prednisolone is a glucocorticoid steroid that may be used in cats that are deficient in glucocorticoid production (rare) or for its anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive properties. Ketoprofen is an NSAID sometimes used in cats. Famotidine is a gastric acid reducing drug. Xylazine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist sometimes used in cats for sedation or as an emetic.

What is the neurotransmitter for skeletal muscle? Norepinephrine Acetylcholinesterase GABA Dopamine Acetylcholine

Acetylcholine Acetylcholine (ACh) is the transmitter for skeletal muscle and is located at the terminal ends of each motor neuron. Acetylcholinesterase destroys ACh and thus turns off muscle activity. GABA and Dopamine are CNS neurotransmitters. Norepinephrine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in smooth muscle.

A young male cat with symptoms of feline lower urinary tract disease and struvite crystalluria should receive: Acidifying diet Diet with low protein Alkalinizing diet Diet with low fat

Acidifying diet Struvite crystals form when the pH of the urine is high or alkaline. Therefore, an acidifying diet would help to decrease the pH of the urine and prevent formation of the crystals. It can often be of benefit in cases of FLUTD in addition to increasing water intake (canned diets can help with this) and decreasing stress in the home.

This 6-year-old Friesian cow has developed a mass on the left jaw region (see image). The farmer reports that it developed over the last several weeks. The mass is firm, immobile, and painful on manipulation. While assisting the veterinarian, you notice a thick granular discharge coming from the mass. The veterinarian suspects "lumpy jaw", which is caused by which of the following agents? Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis Moraxella bovis Actinomyces bovis Mycobacterium bovis

Actinomyces bovis "Lumpy jaw" is caused by Actinomyces bovis. It is most often diagnosed by palpating a firm mass that is immobile over the mandible. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes caseous lymphadenitis. It results in an onion appearance in abscesses found most commonly in the neck region and abdomen Mycobacterium bovis causes bovine tuberculosis and is a zoonotic disease. It most often causes coughing and other respiratory symptoms. Moraxella bovis causes pinkeye in cattle.

Which disease can cause a severe bradycardia that could be life-threatening? Addison's disease Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Cushing's disease Portosystemic shunt

Addison's disease Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) can cause a high potassium level (hyperkalemia) and can be life-threatening. Addison's occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol, resulting in a crisis. A low heart rate is often associated with high potassium. Sodium chloride is the fluid treatment of choice to help reduce the potassium.

A butterfly catheter is most commonly used to: Administer an IV injection Give intraosseous fluids Collect a urine sample Give tube feedings

Administer an IV injection Butterfly catheters have a smaller gauge needle with plastic "wings" attached below the hub that are used to help stabilize the needle on insertion. These catheters are often used to administer IV medications or to draw blood from the medial saphenous vein in cats.

An animal presents with difficulty breathing. You take the animal to the treatment area. The doctor is on the way. What do you do first? Place an IV catheter and start IV fluids Don't do anything until the doctor arrives, just restrain the animal Start taking chest radiographs Administer supplemental oxygen

Administer supplemental oxygen All animals in respiratory distress can benefit from supplemental oxygen. If the patient is stressed, then blow-by oxygen can be used if a mask isn't tolerated. The technician should never attempt to do other treatments such as starting fluids, performing radiographs, etc. without instruction from the veterinarian.

When is the appropriate time to immerse surgical instruments in surgical milk? Immediately after surgery After a preliminary rinsing of the instruments After being cleaned in the ultrasonic cleaner Just prior to placing them in the ultrasonic cleaner

After being cleaned in the ultrasonic cleaner Surgical instruments should be placed in surgical milk after being cleaned in the ultrasonic cleaner. Surgical milk is used to help lubricate instruments and protect them from rust. Placing an instrument in an ultrasonic cleaner after being in the surgical milk will result in removal of the surgical milk. For highly specialized instruments such as drills, it is recommended that the technician follow the recommendations of the manufacturer for the best cleaning and sterilization practices.

You are asked to recover a patient after surgery. When should you pull the endotracheal tube? After the patient's temperature has reached at least 100.0 After the eyes are alert and the dog is aware of its surroundings After the patient has an adequate swallowing reflex After the patient is able to move its limbs

After the patient has an adequate swallowing reflex The endotracheal tube should be pulled when the animal has an adequate swallowing reflex. Brachycephalic breeds should have their tube kept in as long as possible due to their predisposition for respiratory problems.

What adverse side effect can occur in cats given metoclopramide? Aggressive behavior Estrus behavior Dilated and fixed pupils Cyanosis

Aggressive behavior Rare side effects that can occur are nervous, jittery, or aggressive behaviors. The antidote for these types of behaviors is diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Head bobbing can also rarely occur as a side effect of Reglan (metoclopramide).

The veterinarian diagnoses a tension pneumothorax in a dog that was hit by a car. What does this mean? Air is building up in the pleural space and can't escape Air is building up inside the lungs and causing pressure in the chest A broken rib is protruding from a chest wound The airway is obstructed

Air is building up in the pleural space and can't escape Tension pneumothorax is when air accumulates under pressure in the pleural space (around the lungs, not in the lungs). This condition develops when a tear or hold in the chest forms a 1-way valve, allowing air to enter the pleural space but preventing the air from getting out. In this situation, the pressure inside the chest exceeds the pressure outside the chest.

Which substance should never be used for prepping the digits for a declaw if a laser is going to be used? 0.9% sodium chloride Chlorhexidine Alcohol Povidone iodine

Alcohol Alcohol is flammable and laser may ignite the area.

Which food is a good source of calcium for large animals? Oats Barley Alfalfa Corn

Alfalfa Legumes (such as clover and alfalfa) and beet pulp are all high in calcium; corn, oats, and barley are low in calcium.

Which of the following drugs is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic? Alfaxalone Telazol Thiopental Propofol

Alfaxalone Alfaxalone is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic used in veterinary practice under the trade name Alfaxan. It achieves its central effects via interactions with GABA receptors (as with most anesthetics). It is licensed for use in both dogs and cats. Thiopental is a barbiturate. Telazol is a combination of tiletamine (a dissociative anesthetic) and zolazepam (a benzodiazepine derivative). Propofol is a short-acting, lipophilic intravenous general anesthetic.

Which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation? Plaster of Paris Alginate Casting gel Gel foam

Alginate This material is mixed, placed into an impression tray, and placed over the teeth. After it sets, the tray is removed in one motion in the direction of the long axis of the teeth. Plaster of Paris is the classic material that used to be used to make casts; however, nowadays most doctors use fiberglass to make casts. Gel foam is a collagen sponge that surgeons use to help create clots during surgical procedures.

You are assisting with chemotherapy treatments. Which of the following is true regarding blood collection from chemotherapy patients? All chemotherapy patients should be sedated prior to blood draws Do not use the jugular vein if possible The patient should not have blood drawn within 72 hours of their last chemotherapy treatment All blood samples should be drawn from the jugular if possible

All blood samples should be drawn from the jugular if possible Blood should be drawn from the jugular veins when possible. Peripheral veins are spared for intravenous chemotherapy administration or for catheter placement during hospitalization stays. The other answer choices are false.

A chihuahua is born with no hair. What is a term for no hair? Hypertrichosis Pruritus Mange Alopecia

Alopecia Alopecia is lack or loss of hair/baldness. This chihuahua has hypotrichosis (lack of hair). It can be familial in this breed and is also more common in poodles. Hypertrichosis is excessive hair. Mange is a skin condition caused by mites that can lead to alopecia and skin pathology. Pruritus is the term for itchy.

Gas exchange occurs between air and blood by diffusion through which structure? Trachea Bronchi Alveoli Pleura

Alveoli The alveoli are the site of gas exchange. They are tiny air sacs in the lungs that exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen and are located at the last branching of the respiratory tract. They are lined with simple squamous epithelium. The oxygen diffuses through the epithelium and the capillary endothelium in the exchange. The upper airway is lined mostly with pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

What causes cutaneous larval migration in humans? Dipylidium Toxocara Echinococcus Ancylostoma

Ancylostoma These are hookworms; when they come in contact with unprotected skin, the infective larvae penetrate the epidermis but generally cannot penetrate the basement membrane. They therefore migrate aimlessly, and the disease is usually self-limiting in humans.

A dog with a hematocrit of 23% has which of the following? Dehydration Hypercoagulation Anemia Low platelets An elevated PCV

Anemia The hematocrit and packed cell volume (PCV) are red blood cell counts. A hematocrit or a PCV of 23% would be considered low, otherwise known as anemia. Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count. An animal with dehydration would have hemoconcentration and typically, an elevated hematocrit, unless the animal has both anemia and dehydration concurrently.

You are opening the boxes from today's shipments and find soda lime. What is this used for? Vaccine refrigerator Autoclave Suction canister Anesthesia machine

Anesthesia machine Soda lime or ("Sodasorb") is used in the anesthesia machine. In the machine, these granules absorb carbon dioxide exhaled by the patient in a rebreathing anesthesia circuit.

A 4-year-old domestic short hair cat presents with her pupils being noticeably of two different sizes (see image). What is the proper term for this condition? Mydriasis Buphthalmos Anisocoria Miosis

Anisocoria Anisocoria is the proper term for two differently sized pupils. It can have a variety of causes, including Horner's syndrome, trauma, middle ear disease, inflammatory conditions, or neoplasia.

One of the most common incisional complications encountered in veterinary surgery is the formation of a seroma. Which of the following is a poor treatment choice for an incision diagnosed with a seroma? Warm compress Exercise restriction Placement of a drain Antibiotics

Antibiotics Seromas are not infections and do not need to be treated with antibiotics. They consist of serous fluid, which is usually secondary to excessive dissection or "dead-space" that was created during surgery. Excessive activity and motion at the surgical site may predispose to the formation of a seroma. A warm compress will help increase blood flow to the region and thus help the body reabsorb the fluid. Nonetheless, it may take days to weeks for a seroma to completely resolve. Placing a drain at the site of a seroma may help speed up its resolution, as this helps keep the tissues adhered to each other.

Drugs from which of the following categories are inappropriate to inject into the epidural space? Alpha-2 agonists (ie; xylazine) Coriticosteroids (ie; methylprednisolone) Opioids (ie; morphine) Antibiotics (i.e; ampicillin) Local anesthetics (ie; bupivacaine)

Antibiotics (i.e; ampicillin) It is inappropriate to inject antibiotics into the epidural space. All of the other categories listed have drugs that may provide analgesia and are safe when placed in the epidural space.

You are performing an FeLV snap test on a kitten that was found by your neighbor. What type of test is this? -Immunodiffusion test -Immunohistochemistry test -Antigen test -Antibody test

Antigen test The FeLV (feline leukemia virus) test is an antigen test, meaning it is testing for the agent itself. The FIV test is an antibody test, meaning it is testing for antibodies made by the host against the agent (immune response). Antigen tests are often referred to as an ELISA test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

Which of the following terms describes the something that is closer to the root of a tooth relative to another structure? Apical Coronal Caudal Buccal Distal

Apical The following terms are used in veterinary dentistry to describe different positions in the mouth and aspects of the tooth: Rostral - Any structure closer to the front of the head relative to another structure Caudal - Any structure closer to the back of the head relative to another structure Buccal - The tooth surface that faces the cheek Labial- The tooth surface that faces the lips Vestibular- surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal (cheek) and labial (lip) surfaces Facial - The surface of the tooth visible from the front (same as the vestibular surface but applies mainly to the incisor teeth) Lingual - The surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue Palatal - The surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate Mesial - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch Distal - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch (the opposite side of mesial) Apical - The portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure Coronal - The portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure

A patient who has stopped breathing after administration of a short-acting anesthetic can be described as being which of the following? Apneic Atelectic Eupneic Dyspneic

Apneic This patient would be apneic, which means the patient is not breathing. Dyspnea implies difficulty breathing. Eupnea is normal respiration. Atelectasis is the description given to collapsed lungs.

Which drug can be given as a tablet into the conjunctival sac in the eye to induce vomiting? Morphine Xylazine Apomorphine Hydrogen peroxide

Apomorphine Apomorphine can be given as an injectable or in tablet form that can be dissolved into the eye to induce emesis. Giving it orally is not as effective. It acts by dopamine stimulation.

Which of these is an effective drug to induce emesis in the dog? Apomorphine Xylazine Azathioprine Magnesium hydroxide

Apomorphine The correct answer is apomorphine. Apomorphine is an opioid dopaminergic agonist that acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting in dogs. It can be administered IM, SC, IV, or in the conjunctival sac. Xylazine is a fairly effective emetic in the cat but is not used in the dog for this purpose. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive drug not used to induce vomiting. Magnesium hydroxide or Milk of Magnesia is a cathartic but is not used for vomiting.

If a dog has atrophy of its muscles, what appearance will the muscles take on? Be irregular and lumpy on palpation Appear sunken with loss of tone Appear larger than normal Have calcification and be hard to the touch

Appear sunken with loss of tone Atrophy means to decrease in size. Hypertrophy is to enlarge in size.

The medications Mirtazapine and Cyproheptadine can both be used for which purpose? To stop epistaxis Appetite stimulation Sedation for brief procedures To increase hemoglobin levels

Appetite stimulation Mirtazapine and Cyproheptadine are both commonly used as appetite stimulants in veterinary medicine.

The natural ovulatory season for mares in the northern hemisphere occurs during approximately which months? September - November April - August December - February March - May

April - August The natural ovulatory season for mares occurs during April through August and September in the northern hemisphere. Some horse breeders will induce early ovulatory cycles in mares by supplying artificial lighting during the winter months.

What is the fluid in the anterior chamber of the eye called? Lens Vitreous humor Fundus Cornea Aqueous humor

Aqueous humor Aqueous humor is the fluid in the anterior chamber of the eye. It is produced by the ciliary body. The vitreous humor is the gel filling the area between the lens and retina.

What is the proper location for a hog snare? Around the neck, dorsal to the ears Around the hind leg, above the hock Around the mandible Around the maxilla, over the snout

Around the maxilla, over the snout The hog snare is used to control the movement of the pig. By controlling the maxilla and snout you maintain good control of the whole pig. It is similiar to the twitch in the horse in terms of behavioral control.

Which drug inhibits platelet aggregation? Metronidazole Aspirin Enalapril Amoxicillin

Aspirin Aspirin has antithrombotic effects (it is a COX-1 inhibitor); it blocks the platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase (aspirin is a Cox-1 inhibitor) resulting in inhibition of platelet aggregation.

An "FHO" would most likely be performed on a patient with which of the following problems? Arthritic hip Ovarian cysts Blindness from glaucoma Incontinence

Arthritic hip "FHO" stands for Femoral Head Osteotomy. This procedure is removal of the femoral head from the hip joint. It is often performed when there is severe arthritis of a hip or due to fracture or disease from trauma to that hip joint.

Which of the following should be a sterile procedure? Tooth extraction Arthrocentesis Fine needle aspirate of a mass Lymph node aspirate Anal gland abscess culture

Arthrocentesis Arthrocentesis, or joint tap, should be performed with sterile technique. A joint tap is the act of inserting a needle into the joint space to withdraw synovial fluid for culture or analysis. The oral cavity is not sterile, and tooth extraction is not sterile. Lymph node and mass aspirates should be clean procedures but are not sterile. The same applies for culturing an abscess or site of infection.

In which situation would perioperative antibiotics be strongly indicated? Arthroscopy Ovariohysterectomy Orchidectomy 3.5 cm lipoma excision

Arthroscopy Procedures that are considered uncomplicated and clean typically do not require perioperative antibiotic therapy unless there is a break in sterility. Performing arthroscopy carries a very low likelihood of infection; however, because an infection of the joint can be catastrophic, it is recommended that perioperative antibiotics be administered.

What is commonly done to get a mare to cycle out of season? Keep a stallion in the same barn Artificial lighting Manual manipulation of the ovaries via rectal palpation Administration of oxytocin

Artificial lighting Most breeders prefer for a foal to be born early in the year. This is because all horses are considered 1 year old on January 1 no matter when they are born. Many mares are not cycling at the right time for this to occur, so artificial lighting is used to trick the mare that it is the breeding season. While keeping a stallion in the barn may be of benefit, horses are seasonally polyestrous, so they cycle when there are longer days, typically March-September. 16 hours of artificial light mimics this time period. Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for milk letdown. Palpation of the ovaries does not cause cycling.

What is the most common swine gastrointestinal parasite? Ascaris suum Stephanurus dentatus Trichuris suis Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Ascaris suum Ascaris suum is the large roundworm of pigs. This parasite undergoes hepato-tracheal migration (the egg with L2 is ingested; the larvae undergo hepatic migration and molt to L3, then migrate to lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed. They molt two more times and become adult roundworms in the intestine). Stephanurus dentatus is the swine kidney worm. Erysipelothrix is a bacterium which causes diamond skin disease in pigs. Trichuris suis is the swine whipworm which lives in the cecum; it is also fairly common but not as common as the roundworm.

Which of the following is NOT part of the small intestine? Duodenum Ileum Jejunum Ascending colon

Ascending colon The small intestine is made up of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The colon is large intestine.

A 10-year old Golden Retriever presents with a distended abdomen, and when you touch his belly you notice a fluid wave. What is the medical term for free fluid in the abdomen? Ascites Pericardial effusion Pleural effusion Hemoabdomen

Ascites Ascites is free fluid in the abdomen. Pleural effusion is fluid around the lungs in the pleural space. Pericardial effusion is fluid surrounding the heart in the pericardial sac. Hemoabdomen is one type of ascites, specifically blood in the abdomen.

The skin of a prepped surgical site is considered: Aseptic Sterile Bacteria-free Contaminated

Aseptic Aseptic means the number of bacteria has been reduced below the level that would overwhelm the body's defenses. It is not possible to completely sterilize the skin. Note that "aseptic" and "aseptic technique" have slightly different meanings than the term "asepsis" which is the state of being free from disease-causing contaminants (such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites).

While performing an epidural on a dog, your needle begins to fill with a clear pale straw colored fluid, what is the appropriate action? Aspirate and if there is no blood it is ok to administer half of the calculated dose of anesthetic. This is normal and it is ok to aspirate, if there is no blood give the full calculated dose of anesthetic. You must withdraw the needle completely and no further attempts should be made. You must withdraw the needle completely and start over.

Aspirate and if there is no blood it is ok to administer half of the calculated dose of anesthetic. The fluid is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF); this means you have punctured the ligamentum flavum and the needle has entered the subarachnoid space. Only half of the dose should be administered.

While performing an epidural on a dog, your needle begins to fill with a clear pale straw colored fluid, what is the appropriate action? Aspirate and if there is no blood it is ok to administer half of the calculated dose of anesthetic. You must withdraw the needle completely and start over. You must withdraw the needle completely and no further attempts should be made. This is normal and it is ok to aspirate, if there is no blood give the full calculated dose of anesthetic.

Aspirate and if there is no blood it is ok to administer half of the calculated dose of anesthetic. The fluid is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF); this means you have punctured the ligamentum flavum and the needle has entered the subarachnoid space. Only half of the dose should be administered.

What is the biggest complication in patients with megaesophagus? Glaucoma Anemia Aspiration pneumonia Spinal cord compression

Aspiration pneumonia Megaesophagus patients are at a high risk of aspirating due their high incidence of regurgitation.

Which heart rhythm is a flatline, or a state of no cardiac electrical activity? Atrioventricular block Asystole Arrhythmia Ventricular fibrillation

Asystole Asystole is defined as the complete absence of electrical activity in the myocardium.

When is generally considered the optimal time to spay a dog? Anytime after the third estrus At approximately 6 months of age Anytime after the second estrus, but before the third At 2 years of age

At approximately 6 months of age Spaying before the first estrus dramatically reduces the lifetime likelihood of developing mammary neoplasia. Dogs that are spayed after the first estrus have an 8% chance of developing mammary neoplasia. Dogs spayed after the second estrus have a 24% chance of developing mammary neoplasia. Performing a spay at the time of estrus can be done but is not recommended, as the uterus is highly vascularized at this time, and the chances of complications or excessive bleeding may be greater. It is usually recommended to perform a spay 3-4 months after estrus (if the dog went into estrus).

Padding is extremely important when a horse is under general anesthesia. When the animal is placed in dorsal recumbency, how much padding is required between the surgical table and the horse? At least six inches At least twelve inches Two to four inches Twelve to fourteen inches

At least six inches At least six inches of padding should be used to prevent neuropathies of the head, shoulder, and hip.

You are helping treat a dog with severe papillomas of the muzzle and oral cavity. This new therapy involves weekly intraperitoneal injections. Where is the safest place to do an intraperitoneal injection? On midline in between the last 2 nipples With the animal in right lateral recumbency, just caudal to the rib cage At the location of the umbilicus, 2 inches right or left of midline On midline 3 inches below the umbilicus

At the location of the umbilicus, 2 inches right or left of midline At the area of the umbilicus, 2 to 3 inches on either side is the safest place to give an injection into the abdominal cavity to prevent organ damage.

What is the major concern when a patient has a long recovery post-op and is laterally recumbent for an extended period of time? Atelectasis Anemia Hypovolemia Pericardial effusion

Atelectasis Atelectasis is collapse of all or part of a lung. In a patient who is recumbent for a long period of time, there is increased risk that the lung could collapse (usually the lung that is down). This is why it is so important to turn the patient every 15 to 20 minutes after recovery. Turning the patient will help them to recover more quickly and will help to prevent atelectasis.

A cat is given dexmedetomidine, and the cat's heart rate has dropped significantly. The veterinarian asks you to give the reversal, which is the following is the appropriate reversal agent? Atropine Acepromazine Atipamezole Naloxone

Atipamezole The reversal of medetomidine or dexmedetomidine (Domitor or Dexdomitor) is atipamezole (Antisedan). Yohimbine may also have some reversal effects but is not as commonly used to reverse medetomidine. Yohimbine is more often is used to reverse xylazine. Naloxone reverses morphine and other opioids. Atropine is an anticholinergic given to increase heart rate. Even though atropine will counteract medetomidine-induced bradycardia, its use results in severe hypertension and is not given with medetomidine. Acepromazine is a tranquilizer and is not a reversal agent.

You need to perform a CBC and take thoracic radiographs on a somewhat fractious cat. You sedate the cat with an intramuscular injection of medetomidine. While on the X-ray table, you become concerned that the cat is not doing well, and the veterinarian asks you to reverse the effects of medetomidine. What should you give the cat? Atipamezole Naloxone Atropine Yohimbine Flumazenil

Atipamezole Atipamezole (trade name: Antisedan), an alpha-2 antagonist, is the reversal agent for medetomidine (trade name: Dormitor). Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist. Xylazine would be another example of an alpha-2 agonist. Yohimbine is its reversal agent. Other alpha-2 agonists are clonidine, detomidine, dexmeditomidine and romifidine. Flumazenil is a reversal agent for benzodiazepines. Naloxone is used to reverse opioids. Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist of acetylcholine and may be dangerous to use after administration of alpha-2 agonists. This is because alpha-2 agonists cause marked vasoconstriction and high afterload on the heart. Giving atropine and increasing the heart rate can place further stress on the heart. You do not want to set in motion peripheral vasoconstriction and compensatory bradycardia brought on by the alpha-2, thereby increasing the heart rate against the high afterload.

Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type I hypersensitivity where chemical mediators are released from mast cells after encountering an antigen? Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Glomerulonephritis Atopy Poison ivy allergy

Atopy There are 4 types of hypersensitivity: Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).

Quinidine is a medication used to treat which condition in horses? Colic Laminitis Corneal ulceration Atrial fibrillation

Atrial fibrillation Quinidine is a class 1 antiarrhythmic medication used mostly in horses to treat atrial fibrillation.

Which medication is commonly given to patients with organophosphate toxicity? IV vodka Vitamin K Atropine Morphine

Atropine Atropine is an anticholinergic drug and is an important treatment of organophosphate toxicity. This is because organophosphates are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, and toxicity allows a buildup of acetylcholine. Atropine counteracts these effects.

As teeth make contact and grind together they gradually become worn. What is this process known as? Attrition Dentition Thinning Hypertrophy

Attrition Attrition is the wearing of teeth by tooth-on-tooth contact during mastication. Hypertrophy is a general term that means enlargement or overgrowth.

What is the name for a steam sterilizer? Radiator Filtration chamber Steamvac Autoclave

Autoclave There are physical and chemical ways to sterilize. Physical means include filtration, radiation, and heat. Filtration separates particles from gases or liquids and is used for sterilizing many pharmaceuticals. Gloves and suture materials are sterilized via radiation, destroying microorganisms without causing high temperatures that could damage the materials. Heat is the most common means of sterilization. This includes autoclaving which (is steam under pressure). This is used to sterilize surgical packs/instruments.

Pemphigus is a disease affecting the skin and mucous membranes. Pemphigus is which type of disease? Infectious Autoimmune Neoplastic Allergic

Autoimmune Pemphigus is an autoimmune condition that affects the skin and mucous membranes. Antibodies made by an animal's immune system attack the bridges that hold skin cells together. Antibodies are deposited in the intercellular spaces causing the cells to detach from each other (also called acanthosis). Treatment for this condition involves the use of immunosuppressants such as corticosteroids. In some cases it may be caused by a drug allergy or reaction, but is still an autoimmune condition.

A 5-year-old domestic short hair cat presents with some lesions on his chin. The doctor diagnoses feline acne and prescribes some antibiotics and ointment. Which of the following is a good suggestion a technician could make to the owner? Avoid plastic food and water dishes Apply hydrocortisone cream to the chin twice a day Allow the cat to go outside as the air will help the chin to dry out Gently pop the pimples on the chin twice a day

Avoid plastic food and water dishes In some cats, a hypersensitivity to plastic can cause feline acne. This is a good suggestion to make to the owner of any cat with this condition. You cannot make recommendations for medications other than what the doctor prescribed during the visit. Popping the pimples can further irritate the skin and should not be performed by the owner. Taking the cat outside will not likely help this condition.

Impulses are carried away from the neuronal cell body by which of the following structures? Axon Spinous process Dendrite Afferent nerve

Axon The axon is the nerve cell projection that conducts the electrical impulses away from the neuronal cell body.

What is the term that describes an animal with elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels measured in the blood? Azotemic Uremic Hyperemic Nephrotic

Azotemic Azotemia is the term meaning an animal has elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. Uremia indicates a clinical syndrome seen in animals with severe kidney disease where they develop nausea, inappetence and potentially other signs such as oral ulcers. Hyperemia refers to red-colored mucous membranes. Nephrotic syndrome refers to a series of changes found in animals with ongoing or severe proteinuria.

During surgery, which is NOT considered sterile? Surgical instruments Back of surgical gown Surgical gloves Surgical drape

Back of surgical gown The back of the surgical gown is not considered sterile. Surgeons should pass each other face to face or back to back if needed to maintain sterility of the front of the gown.

What is the most common lead system used in a horse for electrocardiography (ECG) tracings? Lead III Base-apex lead Lead II aVR aVL

Base-apex lead The most common is the 3-lead base-apex system in which the electrodes are placed at the left axillary region, right jugular region and a ground on the neck or withers region.

What is another name for a non-rebreathing anesthesia circuit? Bain system Circle system CO2 system Peep system

Bain system The Bain system is a non-rebreathing system. All non-rebreathing circuits lack unidirectional valves and soda lime carbon. They are used in patients less than 10 lb. In the non-rebreathing circuit oxygen flows through a flowmeter and into the vaporizer. At this point, gases exiting the vaporizer go directly to a hose for delivery to the patient with no inhalation flutter valve. Exhaled gases pass through another hose and may enter a reservoir bag but do not enter a CO2 absorber. The gas is then released into a scavenger. In a circle or rebreathing circuit (used in patients over 10 lb.), gases exhaled by the patient travel through the expiratory hose and enter the CO2 canister. They are directed into the reservoir bag and back toward the patient through the inhalation flutter valve. Oxygen and anesthetic gas enter the circuit here from the vaporizer and mix with the patient?s exhaled gas.

What is another name for a non-rebreathing anesthesia circuit? Circle system Bain system CO2 system Peep system

Bain system The Bain system is a non-rebreathing system. All non-rebreathing circuits lack unidirectional valves and soda lime carbon. They are used in patients less than 10 lb. In the non-rebreathing circuit oxygen flows through a flowmeter and into the vaporizer. At this point, gases exiting the vaporizer go directly to a hose for delivery to the patient with no inhalation flutter valve. Exhaled gases pass through another hose and may enter a reservoir bag but do not enter a CO2 absorber. The gas is then released into a scavenger. In a circle or rebreathing circuit (used in patients over 10 lb.), gases exhaled by the patient travel through the expiratory hose and enter the CO2 canister. They are directed into the reservoir bag and back toward the patient through the inhalation flutter valve. Oxygen and anesthetic gas enter the circuit here from the vaporizer and mix with the patient?s exhaled gas.

When performing abdominal surgery, which of the following instruments is frequently used retract the abdominal wall? Malleable retractor Balfour retractor Meyerding retractor Finochietto retractor

Balfour retractor Balfour retractors are self-retaining retractors specifically designed to hold the abdomen open. Finochietto retractors are designed for thoracotomies to spread the ribs apart. A Malleable retractor is a versatile retractor that can be bent in multiple directions to achieve the desired retraction. A Meyerding retractor is typically used in orthopedics to hold muscle bellies out of the surgical field.

Two black mice present for progressive, partial alopecia that started at the face and head and progressed to the trunk. The underlying skin is normal. The other mouse that the two are housed with appears normal. What is the most likely cause of the alopecia? Dermatophytosis (ringworm) Barbering or chewing of the hair by their cage mate Pattern alopecia Mite infestation

Barbering or chewing of the hair by their cage mate The correct answer is barbering or chewing of the hair by their cage mate. The key to this question is that the underlying skin is normal and the cage mate is normal. Barbering is usually a behavior exhibited by more dominant mice. Dermatophytosis or a mite infestation would cause crusting and scaling of the underlying skin, pruritis, and the cage mate would most likely be affected. Pattern alopecia would not typically start on the face and head and would also not likely affect two of the three mice. The hair would not appear chewed with pattern alopecia, but would show a more uniform or symmetrical loss.

Which of the following components of an anesthetic machine needs to be replaced regularly? One-way valves Barium lime Vaporizer Breathing tubes

Barium lime Barium lime is a carbon dioxide absorber that can become exhausted (lose its ability to absorb carbon dioxide) and must be replaced. The other components listed can be re-used.

Which of the following appropriately describes a surgical preparation of an incision site? Alternate chlorhexidine and iodine scrubs for a total of 6 scrubs Scrub from cranial to caudal starting at the hairline Scrub and rinse the area a minimum of 6 times Begin where the incision will be made and scrub in outward circles, not returning to the central area

Begin where the incision will be made and scrub in outward circles, not returning to the central area Either chlorhexidine or betadine can be used, but not both together. Scrubbing is started near the center of the incision site in a circular scrubbing motion, moving from the center to the periphery without returning from the periphery to the center. Frequently, the site is scrubbed alternately with alcohol or saline although the benefit of this practice is controversial.

You are examining a blood agar plate from a submitted bacterial culture and see an area of complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. What type of hemolysis is this? -Delta hemolysis -Beta hemolysis -Gamma hemolysis -Alpha hemolysis

Beta hemolysis Alpha hemolysis is partial hemolysis, creating a band of slimy discoloration around a bacterial colony. Beta hemolysis is complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. Gamma hemolysis causes no change in the medium's appearance. Delta hemolysis creates a double zone of hemolysis wherein a narrow area around the colony is hemolyzed and surrounded by a larger region with some hemolysis.

Approximately how much urine should a 40-pound dog produce in a 24-hour period if the dog is drinking and urinating normal amounts and is not dehydrated? Between 450 and 850 mL of urine About 2.2 Liters of urine Between 150 to 300 mL of urine About 1.5 Liters of urine

Between 450 and 850 mL of urine Normal urine output for a dog is 1-2 mL per kg per hour. This dog is 40 pounds, about 18 kg (40 pounds/2.2 = 18.1 kg) 18 kg X 1 = 18 mL/hr X 24 hours = 432 mL 18 kg X 2 = 36 mL/hr X 24 hours = 864 mL Normal urine output for this dog is between 432 mL and 864 mL in a 24-hour period. 1.5 Liters is equal to 1500 mL (there are 1,000 mL per Liter) 2.2 Liters is equal to 2200 mL

The degree to which an administered drug is absorbed intact into the systemic circulation is known as which of the following? Bioavailability Half-life Metabolism First-pass

Bioavailability Bioavailability is a word used to describe how chemicals are absorbed by the body. It is the administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation. This is the amount of the drug that the body can actually use. IV drugs are 100% bioavailable to the body, because they don't pass through the gastrointestinal system and are directly injected into the circulation. Some oral medications are not fully absorbed so they have a lower bioavailability than IV medications. Drug interactions can also affect the bioavailability of certain drugs.

In which species would you find the bursa of Fabricius?

Birds Birds have a bursa of Fabricius (BF), which is an outpocketing of the cloaca. This bursa is the site of hematopoiesis in young birds and is needed for B cell development. It involutes during sexual maturity.

Uric acid is the major end product of nitrogen metabolism in which of the following animals? Birds Cats Horses Ferrets Goats

Birds Birds metabolize most of their nitrogen to uric acid, whereas mammals metabolize most of their nitrogen to urea.

Uric acid is the major end product of nitrogen metabolism in which of the following animals? Cats Ferrets Goats Birds Horses

Birds Birds metabolize most of their nitrogen to uric acid, whereas mammals metabolize most of their nitrogen to urea.

Which technique is needed to produce quality intra-oral radiographs? Occlusal angle technique Maxillary angle technique Bisecting angle technique Oblique angle technique

Bisecting angle technique In the bisecting angle technique, the film is placed next to the tooth; the primary x-ray beam is aimed perpendicular to the plane that bisects the angle created by the plane of the central tooth axis to the plane of the dental film.

Which of the following over-the-counter medications is sometimes given for diarrhea? Famotidine Diphenhydramine Bismuth subsalicylate Simethicone

Bismuth subsalicylate Bismuth subsalicylate is an anti-diarrheal medication which is found in Pepto-Bismol and Kaopectate. It also has some antacid properties. Famotidine (Pepcid AC) is an antacid or H2-receptor antagonist or blocker. Simethicone, found in Gas-X, is used to reduce gas symptoms. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine used for allergies and allergic reactions.

What is the primary defense method for a pig? Kicking Running Biting Striking

Biting Pigs bite as a method of aggression. They will scream when frightened, but bite if challenged.

What is a comedone? Hyperkeratinized skin Fungus Sebaceous wart Blackhead

Blackhead A comedone is another term for blackhead. Comedones are fairly common in dogs with seborrhea (excess production of sebum), endocrinopathies, and demodex.

Snakes have the same organs as mammals except they lack which of the following? Lungs Bladder Liver Spleen

Bladder Snakes have a cloaca which the ureters empty into, so they do not have a urinary bladder.

Which of the following is the best method for killing Parvovirus? Bleach Direct sunlight Alcohol Hydrogen peroxide

Bleach A 1:30 (1 parts bleach to 30 parts water) will destroy parvovirus.

An owner of a large breed dog calls the clinic and said she just came home from work to find the pantry open and a large portion of the dog food gone. The dog is salivating, dry heaving, and has a distended abdomen. What is a common condition in large breed dogs that can cause these symptoms? Pyometra Bloat Urinary Obstruction Allergic reaction Heartworm Disease

Bloat A dog with a history of the listed symptoms should be seen immediately by a veterinarian. Large breed dogs are at a higher risk for "bloat" which occurs when the stomach becomes distended with gas, fluid, and/or food. The stomach can actually rotate upon itself in some cases and cause a life-threatening emergency called a Gastric Dilatation Volvulus (GDV). Straining to urinate, dribbling, or difficulty urinating could be symptoms of a urinary obstruction. Pyometra occurs in unspayed females and is when the uterus fills with pus. Common symptoms of clinical heartworm disease would include exercise intolerance and coughing. Allergic reactions most typically cause a swollen face or muzzle, hives, and sometimes vomiting.

Blood lactate is a marker of what? Blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues Activity of muscle Activity of the liver Amount of tissue carbon dioxide production

Blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues Blood lactate is a marker of perfusion and oxygen delivery to the tissues. When there is adequate oxygen present in the patient, aerobic metabolism (oxidative phosphorylation) occurs, producing energy. When there is lack of oxygen delivery to the body or a specific tissue/organ, anaerobic metabolism occurs and produces lactate as a by-product. Instances in which lactate may be elevated include sepsis, GDV in dogs, and strangulating intestinal lesions in horses.

A Jamshidi needle is used for which of the following procedures? Joint tap Liver core biopsy Bone marrow aspirate Cerebrospinal fluid tap Bone marrow core biopsy

Bone marrow core biopsy A Jamshidi needle is used to obtain a bone marrow core by inserting the needle into the cortical bone, usually of the iliac crest, and then rotating back and forth to cut a piece of bone. A Michele trephine is also used for the same purpose.

Estrogen toxicity most commonly causes which side effect? Seizures Hypertension Bone marrow suppression Hypoglycemia

Bone marrow suppression Estrogen containing medications (such as Diethylstilbesterol also known as DES) or natural causes of increased estrogen (like ferrets having prolonged heat cycles) may lead to bone marrow suppression. Although bone marrow suppression is rare with low doses of DES, it is good to monitor complete blood counts in patients taking this medication to monitor for bone marrow suppression.

Which vaccination is most commonly given the intranasal route? Distemper Periodontal Parvo Rabies Bordetella

Bordetella Bordetella bronchiseptica is a common cause of kennel cough. An intranasal vaccine against Bordetella is widely used. There is also an injectable vaccine available for Bordetella.

For which of the following diseases should an animal be isolated? Diabetes Ehrlichia canis Demodectic mange Bordetella bronchiseptica

Bordetella bronchiseptica Bordetella is one cause of kennel cough and is contagious to other dogs. The other diseases listed are not contagious. Diabetes is not a contagious condition as is a result of an endocrinopathy. Demodectic manage is secondary to a non-contagious mite. Ehrlichia canis is a tick-borne disease and is not directly transmissible.

Ticks can serve as vectors to transmit several diseases in animals including Lyme disease. What is the agent that causes Lyme disease? Ixodes pacificus Borrelia burgdorferi Rickettsia rickettsii Neorickettsia helminthoeca

Borrelia burgdorferi Borrelia burgdorferi is the name of the rickettsial organism that causes Lyme disease. Ixodes is a genus of tick that may transmit the disease. Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Neorickettsia helminthoeca is the causative agent of salmon poisoning.

A 2-year old bulldog presents with respiratory distress, specifically on inhalation, and stertor. What, of the following, would be the most common cause of respiratory distress in this patient? Tracheal mass Tracheal foreign body Laryngeal paralysis Asthma Brachycephalic syndrome

Brachycephalic syndrome As a young bulldog, this patient would be suspected of having an elongated soft palate, stenotic nares, and (as a result of turbulent airflow), everted laryngeal saccules, or a combination of the three. Laryngeal paralysis is typically seen in large breed, older dogs. Asthma is nonexistent in dogs. A tracheal mass would be uncommon in such a young dog. While a tracheal foreign body is possible, brachycephalic syndrome is a better fit considering the breed and presence of stertor.

Increased input from the vagus nerve can result in which of the following responses? Vomiting Tachycardia Bradycardia Seizures

Bradycardia Excessive vagal tone can cause a slower heart rate (bradycardia). Vomiting can sometimes stimulate the vagus nerve but vagal nerve stimulation should not cause vomiting. The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic fibers.

Circling is usually a result of which type of disease? Renal Brain Spinal cord Cardiac

Brain Circling is when an animal circles to the right or left and is usually a sign of brain/neurologic disease.

What part of the brain controls heartbeat, respiration, and blood pressure? Brain stem Cerebellum Hypothalamus Cerebral cortex

Brain stem The brain stem is made of the midbrain, pons, and medulla. It controls basic vital functions such as breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure.

An injury to what region of the brain is most likely to result in respiratory arrest? Cerebrum Cerebellum Brain stem Diencephalon

Brain stem The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. The pons contains important respiratory centers. The medulla also influences the respiratory rate as well as heart rate. The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and balance. The diencephalon contains the thalamus and hypothalamus. The thalamus behaves as a relay station for sensory input. The hypothalamus is involved in helping regulate many endocrine functions of the body. Motor control and interpretation of sensory impulses occurs at the cerebrum.

A client calls to schedule an appointment and tells you his male cat is straining to urinate in his litter box but no urine is seen in the box. He wants to know if it would be okay to give him some leftover Clavamox from when he had a skin infection last month. What should you tell him? Bring the cat in immediately for an exam Have him pick up some non-absorbable litter from the clinic so that he may collect a urine sample at home when the cat finally urinates Give 1/2 teaspoon of cod liver oil because although it appears he is straining to urinate, he is likely constipated Tell him to give the leftover Clavamox he has in his cabinet and come in first thing tomorrow morning so the doctor can collect a urine sample Orally syringe water to keep him hydrated and schedule an appointment for tomorrow morning since there are no open appointments today

Bring the cat in immediately for an exam A male cat straining to urinate is always an emergency. If the cat has a urethral obstruction, this can be immediately life-threatening. The cat needs to be examined so that the doctor can assess the cat and palpate his bladder.

A 12-year old flat coated retriever presents early for an appointment with a 24-hour history of lethargy. The patient is alert and responsive, has very strong pulses, and a heart rate of 160 beats per minute. The veterinarian has just begun a new pet appointment with a long-term client. This patient should be: Brought into the treatment area and be immediately examined by the veterinarian. Started on IV fluids immediately, prior to the veterinarian's examination Allowed to stay in the lobby until the patient's appointment time Transferred to the local emergency clinic immediately Brought into the treatment area and monitored until the veterinarian is finished with the current appointment

Brought into the treatment area and be immediately examined by the veterinarian. This patient is most likely in compensatory shock and should be examined by a veterinarian immediately. A heart rate of 160 is well over the normal range for a large dog and very strong pulses are often bounding pulses indicating hypovolemia. Sending this patient to another clinic will delay treatment, and that decision should be left to the attending veterinarian. Intravenous fluids may or may not be indicated depending on the dog's diagnosis, and the decision to administer them should also be left up to the veterinarian.

This instrument is commonly used in surgery for grasping tissues. vWhat is the name of this instrument? Debakey forceps Brown-Adson forceps Allis tissue forceps Kelly forceps

Brown-Adson forceps The Brown-Adson tissue forceps are thumb forceps used for grasping tissue without causing excessive trauma. Note the multiple tiny teeth on each tip. Debakey thumb forceps are even less traumatic in that they don't have tiny teeth at the tip. Allis tissue forceps as well as Kelly forceps are different primarily in that they have a "scissor-type" handle. These can be very traumatic to delicate structures.

A 3-year old female Doberman presents for a routine spay. The owner states that she has not recently been in heat and has been healthy her entire life. The veterinarian is concerned that Doberman Pinchers are predisposed to having von Willebrand's Disease (vWD). Which of the following diagnostic tests would give the best indication of whether the dog has an increased risk of bleeding due to this disorder? Chest radiographs Total protein level Abdominal ultrasound Buccal mucosal bleeding test

Buccal mucosal bleeding test Doberman Pinschers are predisposed to having von Willebrand's Disease (vWD). Specifically, Dobermans have increased incidence of Type 1 vWD. In this type, there is a reduced presence of the functional von Willebrand factor. This factor is crucial in initial clot formation; it attracts platelets and allows them to bind to exposed subendothelium after injury. A buccal mucosal bleeding test should result in a clot in less than 4 minutes in normal dogs. An abnormal result warrants further investigation to confirm the presence of vWD in order to take the appropriate measures prior to surgery.

A male rabbit is also referred to as a

Buck A female rabbit is a doe, while a male rabbit is a buck.

When dogs are mating, the male dog "ties" with the female so that the penis cannot be removed from the vagina for a period of time. This is due to the swelling of which structure? Os penis Prostate Epididymis Scrotum Bulbis glandis

Bulbis glandis The bulbis glandis is erectile tissue on the penis that swells during mating and locks or ties the penis in the vagina.

Which of the following is a local anesthetic of choice for use in veterinary dentistry because it can provide 3-5 hours of pain relief? Lidocaine Bupivacaine Proparacaine Preservative-free morphine

Bupivacaine 0.5% bupivacaine is a local anesthetic of choice because it provides a longer duration of effect that the other agents listed, frequently 3-5 hours. Some studies report that the duration may be even longer.

An extremely fractious cat has been admitted to the facility. Due to its disposition, you are unable to remove it from its carrier. What opioid normally given by injection can be given orally for sedation or analgesia? Dexmedetomedine Hydromorphone Acepromazine Morphine Buprenorphine

Buprenorphine Buprenorphine, a commonly-used pain medication in small animals, can be absorbed through the oral mucosa. None of the other medications can be absorbed in this manner.

Which of the following drugs is NOT useful in the treatment of seizures? Phenobarbital Potassium bromide Butorphanol Propofol Diazepam

Butorphanol Butorphanol is an opiate partial agonist and is mostly used as an antitussive, analgesic, or sedative. The other medications can be used in treatment of seizures. Propofol can be useful when treating status epilepticus.

Which of the following is considered a partial mu agonist/antagonist? Butorphanol Morphine Naloxone Hydromorphone

Butorphanol Butorphanol provides analgesia and sedation by binding to the mu receptors, while also reversing some actions of pure mu agonists (like morphine) due to its antagonist properties.

Release of what molecule from the sarcoplasmic reticulum ultimately helps to achieve muscle contraction? Sodium Calcium Adenosine triphosphate Chloride

Calcium

What is the name of the portion of the stomach that attaches to the esophagus? Hypopharynx Pylorus Cardia Duodenal papilla

Cardia The cardia is the anatomical term for the portion of the stomach attached to the esophagus. The cardia overlaps but does not contain the lower esophageal sphincter. The pylorus is where the stomach opens into the duodenum.

In cattle, black leg is caused by which of the following clostridium species? C. septicum C. novyi C. chauvoei C. botulinum

C. chauvoei C. chauvoei causes black leg in cattle. C. novyi causes black disease, C. botulinum causes botulism, and C. septicum causes malignant edema.

Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches? CN I CN XI CN XII CN V

CN V Cranial nerve V (five) is the Trigeminal nerve and has three major branches: First branch: Ophthalmic nerve- sensory to the eye socket and its contents, the anterior nasal cavity, and the skin of the nose and forehead. Second branch: Maxillary nerve- sensory to maxilla, nasal cavity/sinuses, palate, and part of the face. Third branch: Mandibular nerve (the largest branch)- sensory fibers to the lower jaw, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the lower teeth, and supplies motor fibers to the muscles of mastication (note: that this is the only branch that supplies motor function).

A 1-year old pregnant female bulldog presents with a history of unproductive labor. The dog has not had contractions in several hours, and the veterinarian has requested a chemistry panel. What value would be most important on this panel? Calcium Albumin Potassium Phosphorous Sodium

Calcium Low ionized calcium levels are an indication of eclampsia. Changes in sodium, potassium and albumin, while important in the overall assessment of the patient, do not give information as to the ability of the patient to produce uterine contractions.

A 3-year old female Yorkie presents to your hospital as an emergency for seizures and tetany. In the history, you learn that the bitch had a litter of 3 puppies about 2 weeks ago. What is the most likely treatment this dog will need to correct the cause of its problem? Calcium gluconate IV Tetanus anti-toxin Diazepam IV Phenobarbital

Calcium gluconate IV The correct answer is calcium gluconate IV. Puerperal tetany (eclampsia) is often seen in post-partum toy breed dogs. Emergency treatment for these patients is IV calcium in the form of calcium gluconate. Diazepam (either IV or per rectum) can be given to stop the seizures, but does not treat the problem of hypocalcemia. Tetanus intoxication is less likely in this patient.

For which very contagious and rapidly fatal disease are ferrets vaccinated against? Feline panleukopenia Canine adenovirus Feline rhinotracheitis Canine parvovirus Canine distemper Canine bordetella

Canine distemper Ferrets are very susceptible to the canine distemper virus. It is very contagious between ferrets and thus has a very high morbidity and mortality rate.

Which of the following terms best describes the region at the corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet. Iris Sclera Canthus Lid

Canthus The "canthus" is the palpebral commissure (where the eyelids come together at the corners). There is a medial and a lateral canthus to an eye. Medial is towards the nose and lateral is towards the ear.`

What is the "top" shell of a tortoise called? Choana Plastron Scute Carapace Patagium Cloaca

Carapace The carapace is the top shell and the plastron is the bottom shell. Patagium is the skin or membrane that extends between the body and a limb or wing (such as seen in a flying squirrel or wing of a bat). A scute is a bony external plate or scale. A choana is either of the pair of posterior openings between the nasal cavity and nasopharynx. The cloaca is the posterior opening that serves to pass feces, urine, and reproductive excretions (connects the rectum, vagina, and urethra into a single channel), such as in reptiles and birds.

The main stimulus for ventilation is the partial pressure of which of the following gases? Carbon dioxide Nitrogen Carbon monoxide Oxygen

Carbon dioxide Elevations of carbon dioxide are the main stimulus for respiration. Low levels of oxygen can also stimulate ventilation; however, carbon dioxide is a more potent stimulant.

A 9-year old male castrated Westie presents on emergency after being rescued from a house fire. On presentation, the dog has a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute with increased inspiratory effort and moderate distress. The dog's mucous membranes are bright red. What is the likely cause of the bright red color of the dog's mucous membranes? Carbon monoxide Ash Burns Carbon dioxide

Carbon monoxide The bright red mucous membranes in a dog suspected of having smoke inhalation are concerning for carbon monoxide toxicity. Carbon monoxide displaces oxygen on hemoglobin molecules, forming carboxyhemoglobin complexes, which leads to tissue hypoxia. The dog should be supplemented with 100% oxygen which reduces the half-life of the carboxyhemoglobin complexes from 4 hours on room air to 30 minutes. Other treatments for smoke inhalation include humidifying the air to promote mucociliary clearance and to prevent drying injuries to the airways.

When performing CPR in the neonatal calf which are the two most critical procedures to begin? Establishing an airway and venous access Establishing venous access and cardiac compressions Cardiac compressions and establishing an airway Cardiac compressions and administration of drugs Establishing venous access and administration of drugs

Cardiac compressions and establishing an airway Establishing an airway and adequate cardiac compression rate first contribute to positive outcomes when performing CPR in the neonatal calf.

Which of the following is the correct term for dental decay, causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth? Caries Enamel hypoplasia Odontoclastic resorptive lesions Stomatitis

Caries Dental caries is the condition where trapped food is fermented by bacteria, forming acids that demineralize the hard tissue of the tooth. Odontoclastic resorptive lesions are a process where the cementum of the tooth is resorbed and replaced with bone-like material. Enamel hypoplasia, is the absence of enamel formation on the tooth crown during tooth development. Stomatitis is inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces.

What is a main function of a red blood cell? Produce histamine Help clot a wound Facilitate phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses Carry oxygen to the tissues

Carry oxygen to the tissues Red blood cells have hemoglobin in their cytoplasm which binds oxygen and causes the red color of the cells. They are responsible for carrying oxygen to the tissues. Platelets help clot a wound. Leukocytes such as macrophages phagocytose bacteria and viruses. Mast cells produce histamine.

An elastrator band is used for which purpose? To hold pressure on the abdomen in cases of hemoabdomen Castration To aid in ambulation for pets that have had back or orthopedic surgery To reduce stomach size in obese pets Valve replacement in the heart

Castration An elastrator band is used to castrate young calves. It is placed on the scrotum. In 2-3 weeks after placement, the scrotum and testes are sloughed.

An emasculator tool is used in which procedure? Hoof testing Teeth floating Enucleation Castration

Castration An emasculator is a tool used in the castration of livestock. It functions to simultaneously crush and cut the spermatic cord, preventing hemorrhaging.

Which species commonly has laryngospasm when you are trying to place an endotracheal tube during anesthetic induction? Dog Cow Cat Horse

Cat Cats very commonly have laryngospasm, which can make it tricky to get the endotracheal tube placed. A drop of topical anesthetic can help to facilitate easier placement.

Which of the following species is an induced ovulator? Cat Human Horse Dog

Cat Cats, rabbits, and ferrets are induced ovulators. This means they will ovulate after being bred. Dogs have a diestrous cycle, meaning they cycle in the spring and fall. Animals that cycle continuously throughout the year have polyestrous cycles. Horses are seasonally polyestrous and cycle continuously during specific seasons of the year. Humans are spontaneous ovulators and will ovulate regardless of mating.

Which species regurgitates food for remastication? Cats Cattle Pigs Lagomorphs Horses

Cattle Cattle chew their "cud", which is food that they regurgitate for remastication. When a cow chews her cud, she regurgitates a food bolus into her mouth, which is then re-chewed and re-swallowed. While cattle are chewing their cud, they produce saliva which acts as a natural antacid that helps to buffer and protect the rumen. Cows sometimes spend up to 8 hours a day chewing their cud.

Which of the following is an expected side effect of atropine? Cause bradycardia Cause inhibition of excessive salivation Cause pupillary constriction Cause mild sedation

Cause inhibition of excessive salivation Atropine functions as a sympathetic, competitive antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors. It inhibits salivary secretions, causes increased heart rate, and causes dilation of pupils. It is not a sedative.

A hypotonic solution will do what to a red blood cell? Cause the red blood cell to shrink Will have an unpredictable effect on red blood cell size Cause the red blood cell to burst Will have no effect on red blood cell size

Cause the red blood cell to burst In a hypotonic solution, the extracellular fluid is less concentrated than the intracellular fluid. This will result in movement of water into the area of higher concentration (the intracellular fluid). In this case the red blood cell would swell and eventually burst. A hypertonic solution will result in fluid movement from the extravascular space into the blood stream. If the hypertonic solution is extremely concentrated, it can cause movement of water out of the red blood cell and cause the cell to shrink.

Why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in gastrointestinal surgeries? Causes hypersegmentation of the bowel Causes vomiting Longer recovery due to delayed GI emptying Causes nitrous build up in the GI tract Causes flatulence

Causes nitrous build up in the GI tract Nitrous oxide moves into closed gas spaces such as the intestines. As such, its use is contraindicated in bowel surgeries. You should also be aware that nitrous oxide decreases fractional inspired oxygen levels, although this can be managed and monitored in most instances. Nitrous oxide is also contraindicated when pathology such as pulmonary bullae are present.

You are developing a template for the drug labels at your new hospital. Every prescription drug label should include the following statement: Give as directed by your veterinarian Shake well for liquid medications Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by the order of a licensed veterinarian For veterinary use only Stop this medication and contact your veterinarian should any adverse reactions occur

Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by the order of a licensed veterinarian Federal regulation requiring labels to bear statements such as "For veterinary use only" represent a sales policy and hold no legal basis. Every label should include the caution label (as indicated in the correct answer), dosage, route of administration, quantity of ingredient, and a lot or control number. While the other choices may be of value, they are not legally required.

In small animals, what is the name of the blind-ended pouch that is part of the large intestine and connects the ileum with the colon? Appendix Cecum Gall bladder Guttural pouch

Cecum The cecum attaches the ileum to the colon to form the ileocecal-colic junction. The appendix is a blind-ended tube connected to the cecum in humans. Most small animals do not have an appendix. The gall bladder is located in the liver. The guttural pouch is an air-filled sac that is dorsal to the pharynx in the horse.

What is the best construction form for a tortoise outdoor enclosure? Pressure treated wood Cement blocks Chain link fence Chicken wire Stacked rocks or pavers

Cement blocks Cement blocks mortared together will prevent falling as tortoise digs, and is sturdy enough for even the biggest tortoise. Chain link fence is fine if the bottom of the fence is covered. If a tortoise can see through the fence, it will try to escape. Pressure treated wood may have chemicals in the wood that is bad for the tortoise. Chicken wire is not strong enough to hold a large tortoise. The rocks could cause injury if they fell on the tortoise while it was digging, or if it tried to climb.

A veterinarian asks you to give a 1 ml/kg dose of lidocaine to a dog that is having ventricular premature complexes. You realize after it is too late that you miscalculated the dose and gave 10 times what was asked for. What is the most common early sign of lidocaine toxicity in dogs? Anaphylaxis Peripheral neuropathy Central nervous system depression Apnea Profound bradycardia

Central nervous system depression In dogs, toxicity of lidocaine is manifested primarily as CNS signs. Drowsiness or agitation may progress to muscle twitching and convulsions at higher doses. This occurs before respiratory or cardiac depression. Hypotension may develop if an IV bolus is given too rapidly. Cats are more sensitive to lidocaine toxicity and may show cardiac suppression and CNS excitation.

A 2-year old male neutered Great Dane presents on emergency with a distended abdomen and a history of unproductive retching. A catheter must be placed to provide immediate fluid therapy. What is the best site for catheterization? Lateral saphenous vein Femoral artery Jugular vein Cephalic vein Dorsal pedal artery

Cephalic vein A catheter should be placed in the cephalic vein. A large breed dog with a distended abdomen and history of unproductive retching would be highly suspicious of gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV). Patients with GDV have poor perfusion to the hind limbs; therefore a saphenous catheter would not be the best choice. If a cephalic catheter cannot be achieved, then a saphenous catheter is better than not having one at all. A jugular vein may be used; however, placing a catheter there would be more time consuming than placing a cephalic catheter. Arterial catheterization would not be recommended as this catheter could not be used for rapid infusion of fluids.

Which part of the brain coordinates motor activity? Disease of this part of the brain can cause a hypermetric gait. Brainstem Cerebellum Cerebral cortex Frontal lobe

Cerebellum The cerebellum has a major role in motor control. It helps to coordinate voluntary movement and is located just above the brainstem. Hypermetria is an exaggerated gait in which the movements extend beyond what is intended.

Which part of the brain is associated with regulation and coordination of movement, posture, and balance? Cerebral cortex Cerebellum Brain stem Hypothalamus

Cerebellum The cerebellum is involved in the coordination of voluntary motor, balance and equilibrium. It is located just above the brain stem.

A patient is hospitalized with a resistant infection and is getting Amikacin injections and IV fluid therapy. Amikacin can cause kidney damage. What could you do to monitor for early renal side effects? Check the urine specific gravity twice daily Check a daily urine protein Monitor urine output Renal ultrasound daily

Check a daily urine protein Proteinuria can be one of the first things seen if there is damage to the kidneys. Urine output and specific gravity would not be reliable indicators since this patient is on IV fluids. Ultrasound would not be helpful picking up early kidney damage since this occurs at a microscopic level in the renal tubules. Kidney changes can be seen with ultrasound only if gross disease is present in the renal architecture. BUN and creatinine levels can be helpful, however, remember that usually these values do not become elevated until more than 70% of the renal function has been compromised.

An owner rushes her dog to your hospital because she noticed his eye looked red. This condition is sometimes referred to as which of the following (see image)? Exophthalmus Cherry eye Meibomian gland prolapse Raisin eye

Cherry eye "Cherry eye" is a prolapsed gland of the third eyelid. This gland is responsible for producing about a third or more of the tear film. If this gland is resected, the patient is at a higher risk for developing dry eye. The recommended treatment is to surgically tack or tuck the gland back in place.

A rabbit is brought in for skin problems. Upon exam, you notice large flakes of dead skin over the dorsum. Some of these flakes appear to move. What might you be seeing? Demodex Sarcoptes Otodectes Notoedres Cheyletiella Psoroptes

Cheyletiella Cheyletiella is also known as "walking dandruff". It is a 8 legged mite that can live on the skin of rabbits, dogs, cats and humans. They do not bury in the skin but live in the keratin layer. They have a 21 day life cycle and cannot live more than 10 days off the host.

Which of the following medications requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans? Chlorpheniramine Metronidazole Famotidine Chloramphenicol Phenylpropanolamine

Chloramphenicol Chloramphenicol can cause a rare reaction in people who are exposed to the drug leading to aplastic anemia. Because of this, chloramphenicol is typically used as a last resort and only in special situations. Direct contact with the drug should be avoided and therefore gloves must be worn when handling. The tablets should never by crushed to avoid inhalation of any powder.

Which of the following drugs should not be given to any animal intended for human consumption? Prostaglandin F2-alpha Oxytetracycline Chloramphenicol Amprolium

Chloramphenicol Chloramphenicol should never be given to a food producing animal and is banned for such use due to the potential to cause irreversible aplastic anemia in humans. Oxytetracycline is an antibiotic commonly used in food animals. PGF2-alpha is a drug used in food animals to influence the estrous cycle. Amprolium is an anti-coccidial drug used in food animals.

Novalsan is also known as which of the following? Betadine Isopropyl alcohol Phenol Chlorhexidine

Chlorhexidine Novalsan and Hibiclens are both names of chlorhexidine solutions or scrub.

Many factors can contribute to insulin resistance in pets. Which of the following can lead to insulin resistance and type II diabetes? Loss of acinar cells of the pancreas High-protein diet Increased drinking and urinating Chronic use of corticosteroids

Chronic use of corticosteroids Type II diabetes occurs mostly due to insulin resistance and can occur from things such as chronic use of corticosteroids, obesity, or pancreatitis. Acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes. Beta cells of the pancreas actually make insulin, and degeneration of these cells can lead to type I diabetes. Increased drinking and urinating is a clinical symptom of diabetes but doesn't cause insulin resistance. A high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet actually helps with glycemic control.

A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following? Hemoabdomen Pericardial effusion Pyothorax Chylothorax

Chylothorax Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and others. If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to determine the effusion is chylous.

Which of the following is an appropriate anticoagulant for collection of blood from a donor horse for the purposes of blood transfusion to a recipient horse? EDTA Citrate phosphate dexamethasone Sodium fluoride Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA) Heparin

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA) CPDA is an appropriate anticoagulant to use for blood transfusions; the solution must prevent clotting of blood while providing a "fuel" source, such as dextrose, to the cells.

Some bacteria produce beta-lacatamases that destroy or inactivate penicillins. What beta-lactamase inhibitor is added to amoxicillin to prevent this from occurring? Chloride Sulfamethoxazole Clavulanic acid Procaine

Clavulanic acid Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor added to amoxicillin to prevent some types of antibiotic resistance. Sulfamethoxazole is a sulfonamide bacteriostatic antibiotic typically given with trimethoprim. Sulfa medications can cause side effects such as dry eye, acute hepatitis, and bone-marrow toxicity. Procaine is a local anesthetic, historically added to penicillin to reduce the pain associated with the injection. Clavulanic acid contains a potassium salt, but not chloride.

A very young puppy presents with a history of milk coming from his nose and seems to cough and gurgle when he eats. What deformity commonly results in this presentation? Esophageal stricture Stenotic nares Cleft palate Persistent right aortic arch Occluded sinus

Cleft palate A common presentation for cleft palate is milk coming from a puppy's (or kitten's) nose after or during eating. It is a defect that affects the upper lip and/or the roof of the mouth. Cleft palate can involve only the soft tissue in the back of the mouth (soft palate) or extend forward through the front of the mouth (hard palate). If there is a hole in the roof of the mouth, milk can travel out the nose while the puppy is drinking.

A method of castration in cattle that is performed without incising the skin is known as: Inguinal castration Occult castration Cryptic castration Closed castration

Closed castration Closed castration is a method sometimes used in cattle or small ruminants which involves use of an emasculatome, which crushes the cord within the scrotum without cutting the scrotal skin. It is also referred to as a "bloodless" castration. Incisions are more likely to attract insects and cause disease susceptibility in a field situation. A "closed" castration may also refer to castrations when an incision is made in the skin, but the vaginal tunic is not entered.

Which type of gloving method would result in the least chance for contamination? Closed gloving Double open gloving Assisted gloving Open gloving

Closed gloving Closed gloving results in the least chance of contamination and is the preferred method for surgical preparation. In closed gloving, the skin never contacts the outside part of the glove. The arms are still inside the gown sleeves, the glove is placed on the sleeve, and then the hand is pushed through the sleeve and into the glove.

A proliferative honeycomb beak along with scaly crusty lesions on the legs and feet of a bird can be a sign of which of the following? Mycobacterium avium Cnemidocoptes pilae Avian pox Chlamydophila psittaci

Cnemidocoptes pilae Cnemidocoptes pilae, is also known as "scaly face" or "scaly leg." This mite can be treated with topical or oral ivermectin. It is more common in birds that are immunocompromised, and beak deformity may be permanent even after the mite is cleared.

Which intestinal parasite is NOT considered zoonotic to humans? Ancylostoma Giardia Toxocara Coccidia

Coccidia Coccidia are host-specific. Cystoisospora (the coccida found in dogs and cats) is not infective to humans.

What is a round or spherical shaped bacteria called? -Pleomorphic -Spirochete -Nematode -Bacillus -Coccus

Coccus Cocci are spherical bacteria. Bacilli are rods. Spirochetes are spiral shaped. A nematode is a parasite, not a bacterium. Pleomorphic describes variably shaped organisms.

Which of the following could cause a hamster to go into "pseudo-hibernation"? Cold temperature Low Vitamin C level Low Calcium level Poor air quality

Cold temperature Hamsters have the ability to "hibernate" in a sense. If the temperature drops too low (usually below 41 degrees F) they can go into pseudo-hibernation and owners can mistake them for dying. Low Vitamin C can lead to scurvy in hamsters. Scurvy symptoms include loss of fur, lethargy, squealing, weight loss, and weakness. Good air quality is important for overall health which is why hamsters should not be kept in aquarium type housing. Low calcium may lead to brittle bones and broken teeth.

Which of the following is NOT a component of an incisional dehiscence secondary to infection? Cold to the touch Pain Purulent discharge Swelling

Cold to the touch Incisional dehiscences are very serious, and the sooner they are identified the better. When dealing with an abdominal or thoracic incision, it is that much more important to recognize a problem early before there are life-threatening consequences as a result of incision failure. An infection is characterized by all the cardinal signs of inflammation (redness, pain, swelling, heat) as well as purulent discharge.

Sulfasalazine is sometimes used in veterinary medicine to treat which chronic condition? Pancreatitis Bronchitis Hepatitis Colitis

Colitis Sulfasalazine (Azulfadine) is used in treating chronic intestinal conditions, such as ulcerative colitis, because it reduces inflammation in the colon. It is a sulfonamide antibiotic.

What is the term given to the initial milk produced by a female after giving birth? Allantois Chorion Colostrum Amnion

Colostrum The initial milk produced is known as colostrum because it contains a large amount of antibodies which provide the newborn with immediate immunity. Colostrum plays a very important role in providing immediate immunity to disease in certain species, depending on the type of placenta. For example, it is crucial for calves to receive colostrum, but this is not as important in dogs and cats. The amnion, allantois, and chorion are all fetal membranes around the embryo. The amnion is the closest layer to the fetus and forms a fluid filled sac in which waste material (amniotic fluid) is deposited. The middle layer is the allantois, and the outermost layer is the chorion. The chorion is attached to the endometrium.

An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type? Spiral Greenstick Compound Comminuted

Compound Fracture types: Oblique - a fracture which goes at an angle to the axis Comminuted - a fracture of many relatively small fragments Spiral - a fracture which runs around the axis of the bone Compound - a fracture which breaks the skin Greenstick - a fracture of soft bone where the bone can bend and be partially broken, seen in young animals

A dog has ruptured a chordae tendinae. What condition can this lead to? Paralyzed diaphragm muscle Chronic osteoarthritis and lameness Congestive heart failure Incontinence

Congestive heart failure The chordae tendinae are cord-like tendons that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid valve and the mitral valve in the heart. If this structure ruptures, the valves can no longer function properly, and this can lead to congestive heart failure.

Which of the following is NOT a use for an indwelling arterial catheter? Blood pressure monitoring Constant rate infusions Collection of blood samples Measurement of arterial blood gasses

Constant rate infusions Injections should never be given into an arterial catheter (a-line). Arterial catheters are a great way to get real-time blood pressure measurements. These measurements are also helpful when trying to evaluate general cardiac output. They are often used to collect small blood samples, most notably for blood gas measurements.

A subtotal colectomy in which a small amount of colonic contents spills into the abdomen in a cat is an example of which of the following? Contaminated surgery Clean surgery Infected (dirty) surgery Clean-contaminated surgery

Contaminated surgery In order from cleanest to most at risk from infection, surgery can be categorized by the following system: Clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, and infected surgery. These can also be referred to as category I, II, III, or IV surgeries respectively. A clean surgery is one where the surgical wound is made under aseptic conditions, no contaminated viscous is entered, and no breaks in sterile technique occur. Examples include castration, splenectomy, and hernia repair. A clean-contaminated surgery is one made under aseptic conditions that enter the oropharynx, respiratory, alimentary, or urogenital tracts, but there is no other source of contamination (i.e. no spillage of contents). Examples include lung lobectomy and gastrotomy. A contaminated surgery is one where there is either a spill of contaminated material, a break in sterile technique, or entry into a region with a high bacterial load such as the oral cavity or colon. An infected or dirty surgery is a procedure involving a site with known infection. Examples include ear canal ablation or removal of abscessed or necrotic tissue.

You are riding along with the veterinarian to a small sheep operation. The operation has had two sheep die in the last 24 hours. Upon arrival, icterus, depression, and weakness are noted in several sheep in the herd. One sheep urinates and the urine is very dark. Toxicity from which mineral can cause icterus and hemoglobinuria (red urine) in sheep? Potassium Selenium Copper Salt

Copper The correct answer is copper. Sheep are highly susceptible to copper toxicity. Because this causes an acute hemolytic crisis, the most common signs are acute death, icterus, depression, hemoglobinuria, increased respiratory rate, and weakness. Pathology often shows dark, hemoglobin filled kidneys ("gun metal blue"). Goats and cattle are less susceptible to copper toxicity. While you will not be responsible for diagnosing animals, you should know that copper toxicity causes icterus in sheep . Salt toxicity in livestock often causes neurologic symptoms. Selenium and potassium toxicities are not common. Selenium deficiency (along with Vitamin E deficiency) may cause poor wool production, decreased fertility, and is the cause of white muscle disease.

What is the most rostral structure of the eye? Lens Cornea Retina Pupil

Cornea The cornea is the most rostral structure of the eye and is where light first enters.

When discussing the equine hoof, which structure produces cells that become the hoof wall? Frog Coronary band Sole Ergot

Coronary band The hoof wall grows from the coronary band. The coronary corium produces cells that become the horn of the hoof wall. It is soft skin tissue such as the cuticles on our fingers. If the coronary band is ever damaged, the hoof may grow improperly and could cause lameness. The ergot is a callus-type structure on the underside of the fetlock. The sole is the bottom of the hoof. The frog is the structure that is shaped like a heart and extends forward across two-thirds of the sole. It grows from front to back where it then merges with the heel periople.

What is the term used to describe the junction between the skin and hoof of the horse's distal limb? Frog Periople Transitional epithelium Laminae Coronet

Coronet The transition is called the coronet or coronary band; the hoof is formed by epithelial keratinization over a greatly modified dermis.

Which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal glands? Growth hormone (GH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Cortisol Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Cortisol Cortisol is a steroid hormone, or glucocorticoid, produced by the adrenal glands. ACTH, GH, and TSH are all produced in the pituitary gland. ADH is produced in the hypothalamus, then stored and released from the pituitary gland.

You are assisting with an ACTH stimulation test to test for hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease). ACTH stimulates the release of which of the following? -Insulin -Amylase -Cortisol -Bile

Cortisol The ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulation test measures the ability of the adrenals to respond to the hormone ACTH. This hormone is made in the pituitary and stimulates the adrenals to produce cortisol. Cushing's disease is an overproduction of cortisol due to either a pituitary or adrenal mass. Addison's disease is the lack of production of cortisol from the adrenal glands.

What type of placenta does a ruminant have? Discoid Zonary Diffuse Cotyledonary

Cotyledonary Ruminants (not including camels) have a cotyledonary placenta. This means they have numerous smaller placentae instead of a single large contact area between the mother and fetus. Ruminant placental cotyledons attach to a caruncle to form a placentome. The ruminant placenta is epitheliochorial (they have all three layers: endometrium, connective tissue, and uterine endothelium). The cotyledon is the fetus side of the placenta. The caruncle is the maternal side of the placenta. The placentome is the cotyledon and caruncle together. Dogs and cats have a zonary placenta. The placenta forms a band of tissue surrounding the fetus. They have an endotheliocorial placenta (only has the uterine endothelium). Primates and rodents have a discoid placenta (a single discoid shaped placenta). They have a hemochorial placenta (no maternal layers, but instead direct contact of maternal blood with the chorion). Horses and Pigs have a diffuse placenta. The placenta is formed by the whole allantochorion surface. They also have an epitheliochorial placenta like ruminants.

The hip joint is known as which of the following? Glenohumeral Coxofemoral joint Femorotibial Ileocecal

Coxofemoral joint This is the joint where the coxae (pelvis bone) meets the femur (leg bone). The joint is where the head of the femur meets the acetabulum of the pelvis to form the ball and socket joint. Ileocecal does not refer to a joint at all, but refers to the area where the Ileum (distal part of the small intestine) meets up with the colon (the cecum specifically). Remember that the ileum is part of the small intestine, and the ilium is uppermost and largest bone of the pelvis. The glenohumeral joint is the shoulder. Femorotibial refers to the joint at the area of the stifle.

What is the best way to restrain a foal? It is too dangerous to restrain a foal, it is best just to corner them and not use restraint Use a halter Cradle one hand under the neck and grasp the base of the tail with the other hand Remove the foal from its mother and cradle one hand under the neck and the other under the abdomen

Cradle one hand under the neck and grasp the base of the tail with the other hand It is best to keep the foal with the mother. Foals are unpredictable and not trained to use a halter. Best control is achieved when cradling one hand under the neck and grasping the tail base with the other hand.

The retina is innervated by which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve VI Cranial Nerve I Cranial Nerve II Cranial Nerve IV Cranial Nerve III

Cranial Nerve II The optic nerve (II) provides the sensory input to the brain to produce visual images. CN I is the olfactory nerve, CN III is the oculomotor nerve, CN IV is the trochlear nerve, and CN VI is the abducens nerve.

You are assisting in radiographing a four-year-old German Shepherd. The dog has been limping on his left hindlimb. The veterinarian elicits a "drawer motion" in the limb during physical exam, and the doctor's suspicion is confirmed by the radiographs. What diagnosis is supported by these findings? Osteosarcoma Hip dysplasia Luxating Patella Cranial cruciate ligament rupture

Cranial cruciate ligament rupture Cranial cruciate ligament injuries are the most common orthopedic problem seen in dogs. Based on the radiographic finding of stifle effusion of the left stifle noted by the displacement of the infrapatellar fat pad, this patient likely has a cranial cruciate ligament rupture. The clue in this question is the veterinarian palpating "drawer motion." This is most commonly associated with a cranial cruciate rupture. (You would not be expected to diagnose this patient, but you should know the general fact that drawer motion is usually caused by a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament.)

You are examining a blind dog and want to know if the dog has a sense of smell. You wave a treat in front of the dog's nose, and he smells it right away. Which nerve were you testing? Cranial nerve I (one) Cranial nerve X (ten) Cranial nerve II (two) Cranial nerve V (five)

Cranial nerve I (one) The Olfactory nerve deals with the sense of smell and is Cranial nerve I.

A 10-year old Chow Chow needs a whole blood transfusion due to anemia from chronic renal failure. The patient has received multiple blood transfusions over the last 2 years. What blood test is needed prior to initiating the transfusion? Coagulation profile Tick-titer Blood type Crossmatch Total protein

Crossmatch Patients who have had multiple blood transfusions are more likely to have a reaction to subsequent blood product transfusions. In order to reduce the likelihood of a reaction, a major and minor crossmatch should be performed prior to administration. To know what donors would most likely be compatible, the patient's blood type could be determined. Dogs with the same blood type still require a crossmatch, especially if the dog has received prior transfusions.

Which of the following pairs of measurements are equivalent to each other? Kilogram and kiloliter Nanometer and microliter Cubic centimeter and milliliter Cubic foot and meter Kilogram and liter

Cubic centimeter and milliliter A cubic centimeter is the same volume as a milliliter. A liter of water weighs one kilogram, but these terms are not interchangeable because a liter is a volume and a kilogram is a weight. A liter of a heavier fluid would weigh more than a kilogram. A cubic foot is a volume, and a meter is a distance.

How is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus? -Blood culture -Blood smear -Culture of smegma -Microscopic exam of sperm -Wet mount of feces

Culture of smegma Trichomonas is a venereal disease of cattle caused by the flagellated protozoan Trichomonas foetus. The prepucial hairs are shaved and the prepuce cleansed and dried. A dry plastic insemination pipette is placed into the prepuce and used to suction and scrape the prepucial membrane and penis to collect approximately 1 mL of smegma for culture. The culture is placed into a vial with 2 mL of saline and then placed on Diamond's medium for culture.

Which syndrome can occur in dogs when long-term corticosteroids such as prednisone are administered? Addison's Hyperthyroidism Cushing's Hypothyroidism

Cushing's Cushing's syndrome, or hyperadrenocorticism, occurs from high levels of cortisol. It can be due to over-production of cortisol by the adrenal glands or can be iatrogenic from long-term or chronic corticosteroid administration. Symptoms of this include a thinning haircoat, polyuria and polydipsia, pot belly, thinning skin, and calcinosis cutis. Long-term corticosteroid administration can also lead to insulin resistance, leading to type II diabetes in some patients.

Which syndrome can occur in dogs when long-term corticosteroids such as prednisone are administered? Cushing's Hypothyroidism Addison's Hyperthyroidism

Cushing's Cushing's syndrome, or hyperadrenocorticism, occurs from high levels of cortisol. It can be due to over-production of cortisol by the adrenal glands or can be iatrogenic from long-term or chronic corticosteroid administration. Symptoms of this include a thinning haircoat, polyuria and polydipsia, pot belly, thinning skin, and calcinosis cutis. Long-term corticosteroid administration can also lead to insulin resistance, leading to type II diabetes in some patients.

Which syndrome can occur in dogs when long-term corticosteroids such as prednisone are administered? Hypothyroidism Addison's Hyperthyroidism Cushing's

Cushing's Cushing's syndrome, or hyperadrenocorticism, occurs from high levels of cortisol. It can be due to over-production of cortisol by the adrenal glands or can be iatrogenic from long-term or chronic corticosteroid administration. Symptoms of this include a thinning haircoat, polyuria and polydipsia, pot belly, thinning skin, and calcinosis cutis. Long-term corticosteroid administration can also lead to insulin resistance, leading to type II diabetes in some patients.

Chronic administration of prednisone to animals can cause an iatrogenic form of what condition? Bang's disease Addison's disease Cushing's disease Tyzzer's disease

Cushing's disease Cushing's disease (hyperadrenocorticism) naturally occurs when the adrenal glands produce too much cortisol. This can be due to a functional adrenal tumor or due to a functional pituitary tumor that secretes ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) which stimulates cortisol secretion from the adrenal gland. Prednisone is a synthetic glucocorticoid, and chronic administration for conditions such as allergies can lead to iatrogenic Cushing's disease. Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism) occurs due to inadequate cortisol levels and can be caused by prompt withdrawal of prednisone after prolonged use. Tyzzer's disease is a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium piliforme. Bang's disease, or Brucellosis, is an infectious disease of cattle caused by the bacteria Brucella abortus. An iatrogenic disease is one caused by a medical or surgical procedure.

A 3-year old female spayed DSH cat presents for evaluation of a fistulous swelling of the ventrum. Physical exam is unremarkable, except for an area of matted hair over an erythematous 1 cm swelling on the ventrum that exudes a small amount of purulent material which you shave and examine. The cat has no history of fighting; what parasite can cause a lesion like this? Notoedres cati Microsporum canis Demodex cati Cuterebra Ctenocephalides felis

Cuterebra The lesion described is what is seen with Cuterebra infestations. Cuterebra is a botfly. The adults deposit eggs in the environment that animals may acquire as they pass through contaminated areas. The heat from the host causes eggs to hatch, and the larvae typically enter the body through the mouth during grooming or through open wounds. The larvae migrate to subcutaneous locations on the body and develop. They require a breathing pore in the skin and eventually will exit the skin. Lesions in dogs and cats are most commonly seen around the head, neck, and trunk. Suspect lesions should be explored, enlarged, and probed with forceps. The lesion should not be squeezed because rupturing the larva can cause anaphylaxis. It is preferable to remove the larva in one piece as residual pieces may cause recurrent infection or abscesses. Ctenocephalides felis is the cat flea, which can cause irritation but not the fistulated swelling described here. Demodex cati and Notoedres cati are mites and microsporum canis is a dermatophyte. These can all cause pruritus, dermatitis, and crusting but should not cause the fistulated swelling described here.

What is the optimal method of sampling if a urine culture is to be performed in a dog? -Urinary catheterization -Cystocentesis -Bladder expression -Free catch

Cystocentesis The only way to definitively obtain a sterile urine sample is by performing a cytocentesis. All other methods carry the risk of environmental contamination with bacteria.

A rancher pulls into the clinic you are working at and rushes in to say his horse is having difficulty breathing. You assist the vet in examining the horse and note that the horse is in respiratory distress. He has dilated pupils and bright red mucous membranes. You are asked to pull blood for testing which you note is also bright red in color. Which of the following may cause this in the horse? Choke Walnut toxicity Cyanide toxicity Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

Cyanide toxicity The correct answer is cyanide toxicity. The bright red-colored blood and mucous membranes with signs of respiratory distress are typical findings for cyanide toxicity. There are many plants that can accumulate cyanide to levels that are toxic to horses. They include Sudan and Johnson grasses, cherries (chokecherries), and Sorghum. Treatment is with sodium nitrate or sodium thiosulfate IV. Use of black walnut shavings in horse bedding can cause laminitis. Choke is an obstruction in the esophagus. It may cause coughing or distress, but not bright red blood. COPD, also called heaves due to heavy expiration, can be caused by dusty or moldy hay, dust and molds in bedding, or pollens, dust and other irritants in the environment. Horses housed with these symptoms should be led out to pasture to remove them from the irritating environment.

While the surgeon is focused on the task at hand, it is the anesthetist's job to make sure the patient's vitals are maintained at a normal plane. Which of the following is not suggestive of significant blood loss? Cyanotic mucous membranes Rapid respiratory rate Rapid heart rate Weak pulses

Cyanotic mucous membranes Patients suffering from substantial blood loss can be expected to have tachycardia, tachypnea, and weak pulses. In addition, pale/white mucous membranes as opposed to cyanotic mucous membranes would be noted. Cyanotic mucous membranes are seen when the patient lacks oxygen.

What is the shape of a bacillus such as the bacteria that causes anthrax, Bacillus anthracis?

Cylindrical A bacillus is a rod- or cylindrical- shaped bacterium.

Which of the following is a term for a method of urine collection from a patient in a sterile manner? Cystocentesis Cystogram Free catch Cystotomy

Cystocentesis Cystocentesis involves the sterile introduction of a needle into the bladder for collection of urine. A free catch is the opportunistic collection of urine from a voiding patient. This urine is not sterile because it becomes contaminated as it exits the urethra. A cystotomy is an incision into the bladder. A cystogram is a radiographic contrast study of the bladder.

When collecting a sample, when should the needle never be re-directed? -Thoracocentesis -Fine needle aspiration -Cystocentesis -Jugular blood draw

Cystocentesis Never re-direct the needle to try and collect a urine sample via cystocentesis. There is too great of a risk the bladder could tear, or that other damage could be caused by the needle.

Which of the following terms describes an incision into the bladder? Cystotomy Cystectomy Dystocia Cystocentesis

Cystotomy When a word ends with "-otomy" it means an incision or to cut into organ. For example, an enterotomy is an incision into the intestine just as a cystotomy is an incision into the bladder. Words that end in "-ectomy" mean that they are being removed. So a cystectomy would be the removal of the bladder. Words that end in "-centesis" imply the removal of fluid. A cystocentesis is what would be performed to obtain a urine sample via a needle and syringe inserted into the bladder. Dystocia is a general term used to describe an abnormal or difficult labor. There can be many different causes of dystocia.

Septic shock may cause the gums to appear: Cyanotic Dark red Pale pink Icteric Orange

Dark red A dark brick-red color or injection of the gums can be seen with septic shock.

Which of the following instruments is the least traumatic to use on the intestine? Brown-Adson forceps Curved mosquito forceps Debakey forceps Rat-toothed forceps

Debakey forceps The Debakey forceps are thumb forceps designed to be atraumatic. The other thumb forceps listed are traumatic and should not be used when handling delicate organs. Curved mosquito forceps are great for controlling bleeding vessels, but they are traumatic and should not be used to clamp on intestines.

A dirty wound has edges and tissue that need to be removed. What is the term for removing questionable tissue? Skin scraping Debridement Incising Grafting

Debridement Debriding is removing tissue or material from a wound to aid in healing. A skin scraping is done by taking a dull blade and mineral oil and scraping the skin in an attempt to find mites such as Demodex or Sarcoptes. A graft is a piece of tissue taken from one part of the body to use in another region of the body. Incising is the simple term for cutting or making an incision.

A drug that is an anti-cholinergic agent will have which of the following effects? Constrict the pupil of the eye Decrease salivation Decrease heart rate Suppress the cough reflex

Decrease salivation Anti-cholinergic agents are drugs that antagonize the effects of acetylcholine in the autonomic nervous system. Commonly used examples of anticholinergic agents include atropine and pilocarpine. They are commonly used prior to anesthesia because they increase the heart rate (most anesthetic drugs decrease heart rate) and decrease oral secretions, which can aid intubation.

Which of the following would NOT be a potential indicator of intraoperative pain? Decreased blood pressure Increased patient movement Increased heart rate Increased respiratory rate

Decreased blood pressure An increased blood pressure, respiratory rate, heart rate, and actual movement of the patient can all be signs of pain. Monitor the patient closely for any trends that may be indicative of pain and adjust the plane of anesthesia accordingly.

A diet high in concentrates or grains may lead to which of the following in cattle? Increased rumen pH Decreased rumen pH Hypocalcemia Hyperlipidemia

Decreased rumen pH Rumenal acidosis (decreased pH) may occur when feeding a high concentrate diet. This is due to microbes fermenting the starches in the grains too quickly such that the pH drops dramatically (less than a pH of 5.5). This increased acidity in the rumen can cause severe damage to the rumenal papillae.

Which of these is the term for the animal that harbors the mature, sexual stage of a parasite? Reservoir host Paratenic host Intermediate host Definitive host

Definitive host The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A paratenic host (also known as a transport host) indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.

Pre-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by which of the following? Chronic renal failure Dehydration Urethral obstruction Acute renal failure Pyelonephritis

Dehydration Dehydration is the most common cause of pre-renal azotemia. Azotemia is the term for elevated renal values (BUN and creatinine). When a patient is dehydrated, renal values may be elevated. When re-hydration occurs, renal values should return to normal. Renal failure (acute or chronic) causes primary renal azotemia. Post-renal azotemia is most often caused by obstruction either in the bladder or urethra, which prevents urine from being voided.

What is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise? Ingestion of sand substrate Dehydration Small habitat enclosure Poor lighting Poor thermoregulation

Dehydration Dehydration leads to crystallization of urates and causes bladder stone formation. Dehydration and improper diet are the two most common causes of bladder stones in tortoises, but poor husbandry in general may contribute.

Which of the following would not be an underlying cause for a urine specific gravity of less than 1.020? -Dehydration -Renal failure -Hypoadrenocorticism -Diabetes mellitus

Dehydration Dehydration usually results in an elevated urine concentration (USG > 1.050). Overhydration would result in an increased urine output in an effort to return to a normal hydration state. This would result in more dilute urine. Renal failure, hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's), and diabetes mellitus can all be causes of dilute urine and all cause polyuria and polydipsia.

An increase in the total protein, PCV, and BUN with a urine specific gravity of 1.061 may be due to: Increased protein intake Renal failure Dehydration Iron toxicity

Dehydration Hemoconcentration or dehydration may cause an increase in the albumin, PCV or hematocrit, and BUN. The elevated specific gravity helps to determine that the BUN is elevated due to dehydration and not due to renal failure. Animals in kidney failure typically have hyposthenuria because the kidneys have lost the ability to concentrate.

A cigar-shaped mite that is seen on a skin scraping from a dog with severe generalized skin lesions is probably what type of mite? Notoedres Otodectes Cnemidocoptes Demodex Sarcoptes

Demodex Demodex is the cigar-shaped mite. The other mites are much rounder. The generalized skin lesions are not specific for Demodex as they can also be seen with Sarcoptes.

Which of the following is not typically associated with pruritus? Malassezia Sarcoptes Demodex Otodectes Microsporum canis Cheyletiella

Demodex Demodex mites are typically not itchy. It is important to note however that with severe infections of demodex, secondary bacterial infections are common, and those can be itchy. Sarcoptes (scabies mites), Cheyletiella mites, Otodectes (ear mites), Malassezia (yeast), and Microsporum canis (ringworm) all cause pruritus.

These parasites are potential zoonotic pathogens EXCEPT for which of the following? Toxoplasma gondii Toxacara canis Demodex canis Cryptosporidium parvum Giardia spp.

Demodex canis Toxoplasma can cause birth defects in humans. Cryptosporidium and Giardia can cause severe diarrhea. Toxocara canis can cause visceral larva migrans. Demodex is a mite that commonly lives in the hair follicles. It is not contagious to humans.

Cattle, or other livestock, exposed to prolonged rainy conditions are most likely to develop: Habronema infestation Pediculosis Dermatophilosis Photosensitization

Dermatophilosis Dermatophilosis (also known as Rain Rot or Rain Scald) is caused by the bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis. It is a common skin infection seen in livestock during rainy seasons or in damp warm weather. Habronema is a gastrointestinal parasite seen in horses. Pediculosis is a lice infestation. Photosensitization would be more common with prolonged sun exposure.

Ringworm is the common name for which of the following types of organisms? Staphylococci Yeasts Trematodes Dermatophytes Ascarids

Dermatophytes Ringworm is the common name for the cutaneous fungi called dermatophytes. This group of fungi includes Microsporum canis, Microsporum gypseum, and Trichophyton mentagrophytes.

As a technician, it will be your responsibility to administer medications in most situations. Which of the following is not a common medication administered to horses post-operatively? Banamine Dexamethasone Omeprazole Procaine-penicillin G

Dexamethasone Dexamethasone is a steroid and is not a commonly used medication post-operatively. When this medication is noted as a treatment after surgery, the technician should double check with the clinician in charge. Inadvertent administration of steroids can result in immunosuppression and secondary infection at the surgical site. Banamine is a very commonly used non-steroidal anti-inflammatory in horses. Procaine-penicillin G is a commonly used antibiotic which may be used by clinicians post-operatively. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases the amount of stomach acid production in horses to help keep them from developing gastric ulcers.

Which of the following drugs is considered an alpha-2 agonist? Atropine Atipamezole Yohimbine Dexmedetomidine

Dexmedetomidine Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor) is a sedative/analgesic that acts on the alpha-2 receptors of the brain. Xylazine is also an important alpha-2 agonist to know. Atipamezole is the reversal for dexmedetomidine. Therefore it is an alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist (it antagonizes the effects of the dexmedetomidine). Yohimbine is an alpha-2 blocker used to reverse xylazine (which is an alpha-2 agonist). Atropine is an anticholinergic drug (parasympatholytic).

A 10 year old male neutered West Highland White Terrier with a history of 1st degree AV block is admitted to the clinic for a routine dentistry. All of his pre-anesthetic lab work has come back normal. Which of the following anesthetic drugs would be most contraindicated in this case? Diazepam Butorphanol Dexmedetomidine Acepromazine

Dexmedetomidine Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor) is an alpha 2 agonist of which the major side effect is bradycardia. Patients with 1st degree AV block are often already bradycardic, and the AV block could be made worse by giving an alpha 2 agonist. While diazepam, butorphanol, and acepromazine all cause different degrees of sedation, they do not cause significant changes in heart rate or contractility. Acepromazine causes vasodilation, which can lead to hypotension, but it is anti-arrhythmic and can actually help stabilize the heart.

An 11-year old male German shepherd dog with previously diagnosed dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) presents to your clinic following a dog fight. The dog is significantly aggressive and resistant to handling. What medication should NOT be used to sedate this patient? Butorphanol Atropine Buprenorphine Midazolam Dexmedetomidine

Dexmedetomidine Dexmedetomidine should only be used in patients with normal cardiac function as it can cause a significant reduction in cardiac output due to reduced heart rate. It should be avoided whenever possible in patients that have compromised cardiac function. Butorphanol and buprenorphine would be better options for sedation as these drugs would not have as much effect on cardiac output and would provide some pain relief. Midazolam can be used to sedate the patient via IM administration and, although it would not provide any pain control, it would allow for safer handling of the patient. Atropine is not a sedative, but an anticholinergic used most commonly to increase heart rate.

Which of the following diseases would be most likely to cause the development of cataracts in dogs? Toxocara canis Diabetes mellitus Hypoadrenocorticism Hypothyroidism

Diabetes mellitus Diabetes mellitus very commonly causes the development of cataracts in dogs. Cats do not typically get cataracts from diabetes. Toxocara canis (roundworm intestinal parasite) may cause ocular larval migrans in humans and thus is a zoonotic disease. It does not cause cataracts. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) does not cause cataracts. Hypothyroidism could lead to elevated blood lipids and an increased chance of lipid corneal deposition but would not lead to cataract formation.

Fructosamine levels are used to evaluate the control of which of the following diseases? -Diabetes mellitus -Hypothyroidism -Addison's disease -Hyperthyroidism -Cushing's disease

Diabetes mellitus The fructosamine level is a measure of the amount of glucose bound to plasma proteins. It goes up when glucose levels are persistently elevated in the blood. It is less subject to the fluctuations seen in blood glucose because plasma proteins have much longer half-lives. Fructosamine levels correspond to the average serum glucose over the previous 1-2 week period. A related test is glycosylated hemoglobin level, which corresponds to average serum glucose over several months.

What is the name for the blood pressure measurement when the ventricles of the heart are relaxed? Mean corpuscular volume Diastolic pressure Central venous pressure Mean arterial pressure Systolic pressure

Diastolic pressure Diastolic pressure (DP) is the minimum arterial pressure during relaxation and dilation of the ventricles, which represents the pressure when the heart is resting. The systolic pressure (SP) is the pressure when the heart is contracting. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is essentially an average blood pressure that represents the perfusion pressure seen by the organs in the body. It is calculated by using the systolic and diastolic pressures as seen by the formula: MAP=DP + 1/3 (SP-DP) Central venous pressure (CVP) is the pressure of blood in the thoracic vena cava and is a good estimation of right atrial pressure. CVP reflects the amount of blood returning to the heart and the ability of the heart to pump blood. Mean corpuscular volume is a laboratory term used to describe average volume of a red blood cell that helps to classify an anemia as microcytic or macrocytic.

An owner calls your vet clinic in a panic because her epileptic dog is currently having a seizure. She says that the vet at your hospital had given her a drug to give rectally to help. She starts to list off the medications in her medicine cabinet. Which of these is the appropriate drug for this instance? Potassium bromide Naloxone Diazepam Clomipramine Ketamine

Diazepam Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that can stop a seizure. It is most commonly given intravenously in the clinic but it can be given rectally by an owner at home and is sometimes dispensed for this purpose. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic and an NMDA antagonist that is used in anesthetic drug combinations, but it can be seizurogenic and should not be used in dogs prone to seizures. Potassium bromide is used as an anti-seizure drug; it is usually given orally for seizure prevention but an IV loading dose can be given. It is not effective per rectum and must be given over too long of a period of time to be effective at stopping an ongoing seizure. Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is an antidepressant sometimes used as part of the treatment of behavioral disorders in dogs. Naloxone is an opioid reversal agent.

It is the beginning of the day and you are getting together the anesthetic and pre-anesthetic drugs for all of patients for the day. Which of the following drugs should not be drawn up into a disposable plastic syringe, labeled, and stored in a lockbox unless they are going to be used promptly? Atropine and thiopental Medetomidine and ketamine Diazepam and propofol Acepromazine and etomidate

Diazepam and propofol Propofol should not be stored in a lockbox at room temperature because the vehicle for propofol is a liquid emulsion that serves as an excellent growth medium for bacteria. It should be used promptly or discarded. Diazepam should not be stored in a plastic syringe because the drug will bind to the plastic, and the proper dose will not be dispensed when injected. There is no similar contraindication to the storage of the other drugs listed.

Occasionally, animals will present with dystocia. What does the term dystocia mean? Difficult birth Distended abdomen Fluid around the brain Pus-filled uterus

Difficult birth Dystocia means difficult birth or labor.

Because of its potential side effects that can occur due to toxic serum levels, a blood level of which medication should be monitored closely? Pimobendan Spironolactone Furosemide Digoxin

Digoxin Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. Because of its narrow therapeutic index, blood levels of this drug must be monitored. This medication is used most often in certain cases of congestive heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and supraventricular tachycardias. Toxic levels can cause arrhythmias, gastrointestinal upset, lethargy, neurologic signs, and others.

Which of the following medications is commonly found over-the-counter (OTC)? Doxycycline Hydrocodone Diphenhydramine Pimobendan

Diphenhydramine The other name for diphenhydramine is Benadryl and can be found over-the-counter. Hydrocodone is commonly used as a cough suppressant in veterinary medicine and is a controlled substance requiring a prescription. Doxycycline (an antibiotic) and Pimobendan (a heart medication) are by prescription only.

Which of the following medications is commonly found over-the-counter (OTC)? Doxycycline Pimobendan Diphenhydramine Hydrocodone

Diphenhydramine The other name for diphenhydramine is Benadryl and can be found over-the-counter. Hydrocodone is commonly used as a cough suppressant in veterinary medicine and is a controlled substance requiring a prescription. Doxycycline (an antibiotic) and Pimobendan (a heart medication) are by prescription only.

Colic is a common condition in horses. Which of the following is not a common cause of colic? Intestinal incarceration Intestinal volvulus Displaced abomasum Enterolithiasis

Displaced abomasum Horses are not ruminants and therefore do not have an abomasum. The abomasum is the fourth stomach in ruminants and functions in a similar fashion to a monogastric stomach. Enteroliths are stones that can form in the gastrointestinal tract that result in an obstruction. Intestinal incarceration is the trapping of intestines through a small opening. Finally, an intestinal volvulus occurs when a section of intestine spins about its axis and occludes its own blood supply.

The acronym DIC stands for which of the following? Disseminated intravascular coagulation Disseminated inflammatory cardiomyopathy Dissipated infectious coagulopathy Dilated immune-mediated cardiomyopathy

Disseminated intravascular coagulation DIC, or Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the condition in which coagulation factors are excessively consumed. This prevents additional clots from being formed and also impairs the breakdown of existing clots. Patients in DIC are both pro-thrombic (producing micro-clots that get trapped in the capillaries) and anti-thrombic (unable to create new clots). These patients have severe bleeding tendencies. DIC most often follows severe trauma, inflammatory conditions, or sepsis.

To obtain an accurate blood pressure in this patient, the doppler crystal should be placed: Proximal to the blood pressure cuff but distal to the metatarsal pad Beneath the blood pressure cuff In the webbing between digits 3 and 4 Distal to the blood pressure cuff but proximal to the metatarsal pad

Distal to the blood pressure cuff but proximal to the metatarsal pad To obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement, the crystal must always be placed distal to the cuff so that blood flow is properly occluded.

Which breed most commonly has von Willebrand's disease? Labrador Retriever Shar pei Doberman Pinscher English Bulldog

Doberman Pinscher Von Willebrand's disease is an inherited bleeding disorder most often seen in the Doberman. Other breeds can also have the disease, just not as commonly.

You are entering an exam room to obtain a history and perform a physical exam on a 2 year old German Shepherd. Which of the following body language signals would indicate that the dog is nervous or anxious? Dog is standing with ears erect and forward, tail straight down, and looking forward. Dog is standing with ears erect, tail straight down, and looking around the room. Standing at attention, making eye contact, hackles raised, and growling. Dog is laying on his back, tail tucked to his abdomen, and ears flattened. Dog is standing but crouched down, ears pinned back, tail down, and the head lowered.

Dog is standing but crouched down, ears pinned back, tail down, and the head lowered. A dog that is crouched down, with the ears pinned back, head lowered, and the tail down is displaying nervous body language. A dog with erect ears, tail down, and looking around the room is calm. A dog holding his ears erect and forward with the tail down is alert. A dog laying on his back with his tail tucked and ears flat is submissive. A dog standing at attention with hackles raised and growling is showing aggression and may be protective of the owner.

Which of these are used in the major cross-match for blood products to be transfused to a dog? -Donor red blood cells, donor plasma -Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma -Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma -Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma

Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma The correct answer is donor red blood cells, recipient plasma. In a major crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the recipient are going to react to the donated red blood cells.

A 6-year old Doberman cardiac arrested and was resuscitated. However, the dog has a consistently low systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg. What drug may be prescribed to increase the blood pressure and via what route? Hydromorphone via intravenous administration Dopamine via intravenous infusion Dopamine via intramuscular administration Terbutaline via subcutaneous administration

Dopamine via intravenous infusion Dopamine increases blood pressure by increasing systemic vascular resistance and is administered via intravenous constant rate infusion. Dopamine is not labeled for intramuscular use. Hydromorphone is an opioid and may cause a reduction in the patient's blood pressure. Terbutaline is a bronchodilator.

A tibial fracture needs to be repaired. The surgeon is intending to place a bone plate on the medial aspect of the tibia. How should the patient be positioned and prepped? Dorsal recumbency with leg tied to the table Lateral recumbency with affected side down Lateral recumbency with affected side up Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped

Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped The best positioning is that which will allow the surgeon good access to the proposed surgical site while ideally keeping the patient comfortable. Any time surgery is being performed on the tibia, the leg should be hung while it is being prepped for surgery. Sometimes the surgeon will prefer the leg to stay hung while performing the repair. Such an approach helps maintain retraction on the bone fragments and thus reduce the fracture. This is common practice when placing external fixators. When placing bone plates, the surgeon will usually opt to "cut" the leg down and lay it such that the lateral side is against the surgery table. This will allow for an incision into the medial aspect of the tibia. This is the preferred location as there is not nearly as much musculature on this side. This allows an easier approach and dissection, and reduces morbidity. Therefore the best answer is to have the patient in dorsal recumbency with the limb temporarily hung until the patient is draped.

Which medication has been associated with esophageal strictures in cats, therefore the liquid preparation is preferred? Amoxicillin Sucralfate Metoclopramide Famotidine Doxycycline

Doxycycline Doxycycline and clindamycin are the two medications most associated with esophageal strictures in cats (mostly doxycycline). This occurs when a pill gets lodged in the esophagus. Anytime this medication must be given in tablet form, the tablet should be followed with at least 6 mLs of water to help wash the tablet down. Liquid preparations are preferred.

Which antibiotic choice is NOT bactericidal? Baytril Gentamicin Cephalexin Doxycycline

Doxycycline Tetracyclines (including doxycycline) are bacteriostatic, which means these antibiotics do not kill bacteria. Bacteriostatic antibiotics act to inhibit bacterial growth. Tetracyclines, the macrolides (like erythromycin), chloramphenicol, and trimethoprim sulfa are all bacteriostatic. Bacteriostatic antibiotics can be sufficiently effective if the host's immune system is strong.

Which instrument is specifically designed for atraumatically clamping across the intestine? Doyen forceps Kelly forceps Halted mosquito forceps Rochester-Carmalt Crile forceps

Doyen forceps Doyen forceps are the only forceps used in veterinary medicine for atraumatically occluding a loop of bowel. All the other forceps mentioned will result in trauma to the intestine and are not recommended for use on either the intestine or any other delicate structure that the surgeon is trying to preserve.

You are scrubbed in as the surgery technician and are assisting with an intestinal foreign body removal. The surgeon wants to clamp the intestine above and below the foreign body. What instrument could be used for this? Gelpis Doyens DeBakeys Brown-Adsons

Doyens Doyen intestinal forceps are a curved non-crushing occluding clamp with longitudinal grooves. They are used for the purpose described, but over-tightening should be avoided because they can still damage the intestinal tissue. The others listed should not be used on the intestines. DeBakey forceps are vascular forceps that are used to hold vascular tissue with minimal damage to the vessels. Brown-Adson forceps are for holding tissue and have grasping teeth. The Gelpi is a self-retaining small retractor.

To perform a bile acids test, what is required? Draw a fasted sample 2 consecutive days Feed the pet, draw first sample 1 hour after feeding and a second sample at 2 hours Draw a fasted sample, feed the pet, collect urine 3 hours after feeding Draw a fasted blood sample, feed the animal, draw another sample 2 hours after feeding

Draw a fasted blood sample, feed the animal, draw another sample 2 hours after feeding A typical bile acids test includes "pre-prandial" (before eating) and "post-prandial" (after eating) samples. A fasted sample is drawn, the pet is fed, and another sample is drawn 2 hours after feeding. A 12-hour fast is recommended for this test.

You accidentally write the wrong name for medication in the chart. What should you do? Cover it with an exam sticker Draw a single line through it and initial Scribble over it until it cannot be read White it out

Draw a single line through it and initial When a mistake is made in a medical record, a single line should be drawn through the mistake and initialed by the person making the mark.

A pet that is exhibiting the symptom of ptyalism has which clinical sign? A penis that is stuck protruding from the prepuce A jaw locked shut A head that is hung downward Drooling

Drooling Ptyalism is drooling or hypersalivation. The term for a penis that is stuck protruding from the prepuce is paraphimosis.

Which of the following signs likely means that parturition is imminent? Drop in body temperature Vocalization Poor appetite Pruritus of the abdomen

Drop in body temperature A drop in the normal body temperature by 1 or 2 degrees means that labor will likely start within 12-24 hours on average. It is important to evaluate this based on multiple temperatures taken at the same time each day over a period of time (i.e., don't take the temperature after the bitch has been outside using the bathroom in the heat and compare it to temperatures taken in the morning at rest, etc).

Which of the following description of the properties of an inhalant anesthetic is true? Drugs with high solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) are the most potent Drugs with low solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) are the most potent Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent Drugs with high minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent

Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent MAC is a measure of anesthetic potency or, the concentration of drug required to prevent response to a stimulus in 50% of patients. Listed from lowest to highest MAC, inhalant anesthetics include methoxyflurane, halothane, isoflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane. This means that methoxyflurane is the most potent, or, it requires the lowest percentage of gas to cause its effects. Desflurane is the least potent (requires the highest percentage of gas to cause its effects). Potency is not necessarily related to the speed of induction and recovery with an inhalant anesthetic; this property is determined by solubility.

Which of the following statements regarding inhalant anesthetics is true? Drugs with high minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) produce rapid induction and recovery rates Drugs with high solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) produce rapid induction and recovery rates Drugs with low solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) produce rapid induction and recovery rates Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) produce rapid induction and recovery rates

Drugs with low solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) produce rapid induction and recovery rates The solubility of an inhalant anesthetic determines the speed of induction and recovery. Low solubility drugs produce rapid induction and recovery. Listed from least to most soluble, inhalant anesthetics include desflurane, sevoflurane, isoflurane, enflurane, halothane, and methoxyflurane. Therefore, desflurane has the fastest induction and recovery rates, and methoxyflurane has the slowest. MAC is a measure of anesthetic potency or the concentration of drug required to prevent response to a stimulus in 50% of patients.

Cyclosporine ophthalmic ointment is most often used in treating which condition? Glaucoma Dry eye Herpes keratitis Corneal ulcers

Dry eye Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye) is often treated with topical cyclosporine (Optimmune) or with topical tacrolimus. These medications act to stimulate tear production; they may also be beneficial in cases of pigmentary keratitis or Pannus.

What are the three layers of the meninges? Cortex, brainstem, cerebellum Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater Dura mater, cerebrospinal fluid, cortex Limbic layer, cortex, cerebrospinal fluid

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater The meninges are layers that cover the brain and spinal cord. The meninges consist of the dura mater, the arachnoid mater, and the pia mater. The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid, function to protect the central nervous system (CNS).

Delivering puppies and kittens can be a rewarding experience and a procedure that the technician should always be ready to perform. What are the basic steps that need to be taken once a puppy or kitten is delivered? Bathe newborn in dilute chlorhexadine solution, massage gently, remove secretions from mouth and nose Dry the newborn, massage gently, dry and suction any secretions from mouth and nose Inject with vitamin B complex subcutaneously, flip patient upside down, dry newborn, massage gently, and remove secretions from mouth and nose Massage gently, vaccinate for rabies virus, dry and suction any secretions from mouth and nose

Dry the newborn, massage gently, dry and suction any secretions from mouth and nose The correct handling of a newborn kitten or puppy involves drying the infant, massaging the body gently to help stimulate breathing, and removing any secretions from the mouth or nose. One of the most important concerns is maintaining a warm body temperature for the newborn. Bathing would result in hypothermia and is not recommended. An injection of vitamin B complex is not necessary, and the neonates are also too young to receive a rabies vaccination. Rabies vaccinations are typically not administered until the kittens or puppies are 4 months of age.

In a fetus, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure? Ductus arteriosus Foramen ovale Foramen magnum Ductus venosus

Ductus arteriosus The ductus arteriosus is the shunt connecting the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch. In this way, the blood bypasses the lungs, or pulmonary circulation in utero. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is when this opening persists after birth and arterial blood is re-circulated through the lungs, which is abnormal. The foramen ovale allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium. The ductus venosus shunts some blood flow from the umbilical vein to the vena cava. The foramen magnum is the large opening in the occipital bone at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes.

The pancreas connects to which part of the intestine? Duodenum Ileum Cecum Jejunum

Duodenum The pancreas connects to the duodenum (the first segment of the small intestine). It secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct.

Which describes the proper order of intestinal segments? Ileum, duodenum, jejunum, colon Jejunum, ileum, duodenum, colon Jejunum, duodenum, ileum, colon Duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon The proper order of the GI tract is: esophagus, stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, colon. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum make up the small intestine. The cecum is the pouch that connects the small intestine to the colon (the large intestine).

Which of the following is required for chinchilla health? Cedar shavings Dust baths Vitamin C Monthly dental adjustments A warm (90 degree) basking spot

Dust baths Chinchillas require dust baths every 1-2 days in order to maintain coat health. The dust bath should not be left in the enclosure at all times since frequent bathing may cause conjunctivitis. Chinchillas are heat-intolerant, and the enclosure should not be kept at temperatures above 80 degrees Fahrenheit. Cedar shavings should be avoided as bedding, since they can cause respiratory irritation. Chinchillas do not require supplemental Vitamin C. Healthy chinchillas do not require dental adjustments, although dental disease is a common problem.

A patient presents for difficulty swallowing and is found to have a bone lodged at the back of its throat during physical exam. Which of the following is the term for this presenting complaint? Dysphagia Ptyalism Stomatitis Anuria

Dysphagia The term for difficulty swallowing is dysphagia. It may be caused by an oral or esophageal foreign body, esophagitis, neurologic disease (myasthenia gravis), etc. Anuria is the term for absence of urination. Ptyalism is drooling and is sometimes observed in patients with dysphagia. Stomatitis is inflammation of the soft structures in the oral cavity (cheeks, gums, tongue, etc.).

From youngest to oldest, which is the correct order of the tick's life cycle? Nymph, larva, egg, adult Nymph, egg, larva, adult Larva, egg, nymph, adult Egg, larva, nymph, adult Egg, nymph, larva, adult

Egg, larva, nymph, adult The exact time course and types of hosts can vary, but female ticks commonly lay thousands of eggs, usually on the ground. These hatch into larval ticks, which will feed on a host and then molt to the nymph stage. The nymphal tick then feeds off a second host and falls off when fully fed. It then becomes an adult that will feed, and the cycle repeats.

What is cerumen? A mucoid substance secreted by the stomach Ear wax Oil produced by sebaceous glands The oily part of the tear film

Ear wax Cerumen is the proper term for ear wax. It is the yellowish waxy hydrophobic protective substance that is secreted in the ear canal. Sebum is an oily substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands.

Coprophagy is the term used to describe an animal that is doing what? Eating feces Regurgitating and then eating what was regurgitated Digging holes Straining to defecate

Eating feces An animal that is eating its own feces or feces of other animals is said to be coprophagic. Coporophagy is a normal behavior of rabbits and many rodents.

Coprophagy is the term used to describe an animal that is doing what? Straining to defecate Regurgitating and then eating what was regurgitated Eating feces Digging holes

Eating feces An animal that is eating its own feces or feces of other animals is said to be coprophagic. Coporophagy is a normal behavior of rabbits and many rodents.

A dog has dislocated his hip joint and the doctor has reduced the dislocation. What can be used to hold the hip in place? Ehmer sling External fixator Robert Jones bandage Strict cage rest

Ehmer sling The Ehmer sling is a figure-eight type of bandage that keeps the affected hindlimb in the flexed position. When the hip is dislocated, the joint capsule becomes torn. The goal of the Ehmer sling is to hold the hip joint in place after the joint has been reduced back to normal positioning to allow the joint capsule to heal. This sling provides abduction and internal rotation of the femur and flexion of the knee.

The doctor is going to spay a 6 pound Chihuahua and asks you to make sure the patient stays warm during and after the procedure. Which of the following methods is NOT appropriate to use as a heating source for anesthetized patients? Warming bean bags Electric heating pad Water Circulating blanket Warmed 1 liter fluid bags Bair Hugger

Electric heating pad Severe burns may result from electric heating pads even when using a barrier between the pad and patient. In addition, the electric heating pads are not recommended for conscious animals because of the danger of electrocution from the patient bithing the cord.

A dog presents with excitability, muscle tremors, and hyperthermia. A blood panel shows hypocalcemia, and the patient is prescribed an intravenous dose of calcium gluconate. What monitoring must be performed during calcium gluconate administration? Electrocardiogram Central Venous Pressure End-Tidal CO2 Respiration Blood pressure

Electrocardiogram Electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring must be performed during calcium gluconate administration, and the administration should be slowed or discontinued if bradycardia or arrhythmias occur. Respiration should be monitored but might not change until the heart rate has already significantly slowed. The same is true of blood pressure. Central venous pressures or CVPs would not provide information on the electrical activity of the heart. ETCO2 would also not provide any information pertinent to the infusion.

What instrument is used to perform a castration in horses? Emasculator Rongeurs Freedom forceps Kelly carmalt

Emasculator The correct answer is an emasculator. This device crushes the spermatic cord as well as cuts it. The crushed end stays with the patient to prevent hemorrhage. Care must be taken when applying the device to ensure that the crushed end stays with the patient, otherwise major bleeding can occur.

Which drug is known as an ACE-inhibitor? Metoclopramide Acepromazine Enalapril Diphenhydramine

Enalapril Ace-inhibitors like enalapril are vasodilators which block angiotensin-converting enzyme to prevent angiotensin II (a vacosconstrictor) and aldosterone (causes sodium retention) from forming. Ace-inhibitors help to relax smooth muscle in the arterioles and veins. They are most commonly used in cases of heart and kidney disease. Note that ace-inhibitor drugs usually end in a "pril" (benazapril, captopril, enalapril, etc.)

The tooth crown is covered with which of the following? Enamel Cementum Pulp Dentin

Enamel Enamel is the hard mineralized surface of the tooth. It is made up of hydroxyapatite, or calcium phosphate. The cementum is the thin calcified layer of tissue that covers the dentin of the tooth root. The tooth itself is made up mostly of dentin. The dentin is covered by the enamel on the crown and by cementum on the roots. The pulp is the center part of a tooth that is made up of living connective tissue and is the softest part containing nerve fibers.

Which of the following may be seen in a puppy who has had distemper? Gingival hyperplasia Retained deciduous teeth Enamel hypoplasia Enamel hyperplasia

Enamel hypoplasia This dog has enamel hypoplasia, which is an enamel deficiency that causes an abnormal enamel matrix and presents as if the enamel has been eaten away. This may be a finding in adult dogs previously infected with distemper virus as a puppy. Tetracycline antibiotics may also cause this, seen as a permanent brown discoloration of teeth when used in young puppies.

Which drug is a fluoroquinolone? Cephalexin Clindamycin Enrofloxacin Carprofen

Enrofloxacin Fluoroquinolones include antibiotics such as enrofloxacin (Baytril), ciprofloxacin (Cipro), and marbofloxacin (Zeniquin). The fluoroquinolones are bactericidal. If possible, they should not be used in young, growing animals due to potential for cartilage disturbances. In some cases, they also have the potential side effect of causing blindness in cats at higher doses and should be used with caution.

A dog presents for a broken adult canine tooth. The tooth is broken at the tip and a small area of pulp is exposed. Exposure of pulp in a tooth should be treated in which way? It should be left alone since treatment is not required Antibiotics and soft food until it heals Endodontic treatment A sealant

Endodontic treatment The pulp is the soft pink portion inside the tooth that includes the nerves and blood vessels. If the pulp is exposed, this is painful and may lead to infection. These teeth are treated with a root canal (an endodontic procedure), especially for the larger premolars and canine teeth) or are extracted.

Blood vessels are lined with a type of epithelium known as which of the following? Keratin Urothelium Mesothelium Endothelium

Endothelium Endothelium is the thin layer of cells lining the inside surface of blood vessels. The cells that form the endothelium are called endothelial cells. Mesothelial cells are specialized epithelial cells that line the internal organs and body wall in the peritoneal and pleural cavities and line the pericardium. Keratin is a part of the epidermis, or the skin. Urothelial cells, or transitional cells, are part of the urinary system and line the inside wall of the bladder.

A laryngoscope might aid in which procedure? Ear drum examination Anal gland expression Jugular catheter placement Endotracheal tube placement

Endotracheal tube placement A laryngoscope is a handheld instrument that has a blade with a light source; it helps to hold down the tongue and view the epiglottis and laryngeal region. It is used to examine this area of the oral cavity and is also used to assist with endotracheal tube placement.

Which breed almost always needs a Cesarean section to give birth? English Bulldog Chihuahua Yorkshire Terrier Bedlington Terrier

English Bulldog More than 90% of bulldogs need a C-section due to their conformation.

A 5-week old cat received emergency surgery for a laceration. What antibiotic should NOT be used in this patient? Amoxicillin Enrofloxacin Cefazolin Clindamycin Ticarcillin

Enrofloxacin Young animals should not receive enrofloxacin (Baytril) due to risk of cartilage defects (mostly in young large breed dogs). This drug must be used with caution and at lower doses in cats because it may cause blindness.

Which of the following antimicrobial medications should not be administered to young, growing animals? Cefazolin (Cephalosporins) Enrofloxacin (Fluoroquinolones) Gentamicin (Aminoglycosides) Trimethoprim (Trimethoprim-sulfonamide combinations) Ampicillin (Penicillins)

Enrofloxacin (Fluoroquinolones) Enrofloxacin, and other drugs in fluoroquinolone class, should not be used in young, growing animals as it causes damage to the joint cartilage. The other antimicrobial drugs may have side effects, but these can occur at any age.

A 2-month old male mixed-breed puppy is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Culture and sensitivity of the urine show the bacteria to be susceptible to enrofloxacin. Why should a different antibiotic be chosen over enrofloxacin? Enrofloxacin causes cartilage abnormalities in growing puppies Enrofloxacin does not reach therapeutic levels in the urinary tract The half-life of enrofloxacin is greatly reduced in puppies Enrofloxacin causes enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining in young animals

Enrofloxacin causes cartilage abnormalities in growing puppies The correct answer is that enrofloxacin causes cartilage abnormalities in growing puppies. Bubble-like changes to articular cartilage can be seen when given to dogs from 2 to 8 months of age. Enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining is caused by tetracycline antibiotics given to young animals. With enrofloxacin, therapeutic levels are reached throughout most of the body except CSF.

Where is the best place to give an intramuscular injection in a dog? Sternohyoid muscle Semitendinosus muscle Epaxial muscle Any muscle will do

Epaxial muscle This is a large group of muscles between the spine and the wings of the ileum. They are easy to find and use. Semitendinosus muscles on the rear legs can be used, but there is a possibility of sciatic nerve damage if not done carefully. The sternohyoid muscle is a muscle of the neck and not appropriate to use for intramuscular injection. Muscles used for intramuscular injection need to be large, vascular, and easy to find and use. Not all muscles are appropriate.

The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT? Epaxial muscles Muscles of the neck Semimembranosus Pectorals Semitendinosus

Epaxial muscles The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.

Where do sperm mature? Prostate Oviduct Vas deferens Epididymis

Epididymis The epididymis is the tube attached to the backside of the testes. It is found within the scrotum and is a coiled segment of the spermatic ducts in which spermatozoa mature. It connects the testicle with the vas deferens. Sperm matures within this tube. Oviducts, also called fallopian tubes, are found in the female reproductive tract. The egg passes from the ovary into the uterus via the oviduct. The prostate stores and secretes a portion of the seminal fluid.

You should not give a phenothiazine tranquilizer to an animal with which disease? Epilepsy Diabetes Cushings Hypothyroidism Glaucoma

Epilepsy Phenothiazine tranquilizers such as acepromazine or chlorpromazine are traditionally thought to be contraindicated in patients with seizure disorders. More recent research has shown that they are not nearly as dangerous as originally perceived and some don't consider these medications as being contraindicated.

A vet at your clinic is preparing to perform a punch biopsy of a dermal mass in a cat under local anesthesia. He asks you to add epinephrine to his lidocaine before administering the local anesthetic. What is the rationale for adding epinephrine? Epinephrine allows the lidocaine to be more rapidly cleared Epinephrine, when given by this route, has a sedative effect on cats Epinephrine acts as a pharmacologic antagonist to the systemic effects of lidocaine, to which cats can be particularly sensitive Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine's effects Epinephrine neutralizes the acidic pH of lidocaine, decreasing the pain on injection

Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine's effects Epinephrine is used with lidocaine to cause local vasoconstriction, preventing rapid systemic absorption. This is typically done to prolong the duration of local anesthetic effects of lidocaine by maintaining it at the site. It can decrease systemic uptake and toxicity, but it is not a lidocaine antagonist. Epinephrine does not neutralize the pH of lidocaine; sodium bicarbonate is sometimes added for this purpose.

Which of the following is the correct medical term for a bloody nose? Melena Epistaxis Hemoptysis Pytalism

Epistaxis Epistaxis is Greek for "to bleed from the nose." Ptyalism is excessive drooling. Melena is the term for digested blood in the stool (black or tarry stools). Hemoptysis is coughing up blood.

In which species will you never perform a reticulocyte count? -Bovine -Equine -Feline -Canine

Equine Horses do not release reticulocytes (immature erythrocytes) into circulation.

In which species is it common to observe Rouleaux formation in a blood smear? -Bovine -Avian -Equine -Canine

Equine It is very common for horses to have blood cells arranged like a stack of coins (Rouleaux formation). This is not typically seen in the other species listed and may be indicative of an underlying inflammatory process in those species. Rouleaux formation may be a normal physiologic finding in horses, cats, and pigs. Of these, it is by far the most common in horses.

Which of the following vaccines is not available for horses? Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis Vaccine Streptococcus equi (strangles) Vaccine Eastern Equine Encephalitis Vaccine Equine Herpes Virus Type 1 Vaccine Equine Influenza Virus Vaccine

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis Vaccine While equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is a common neurologic disease in horses caused by Sarcocystis neurona, there currently is no effective vaccine to prevent this disease. The other vaccines listed are all available.

You are called to a pig operation where some of the adult pigs are experiencing sudden death. The vet points out purple skin lesions that look like a "diamonds." What organism causes "Diamond Skin Disease" in pigs? Streptococcus suis Staphylococcus hyicus Haemophilus parasuis Erysipelas rhusiopathiae

Erysipelas rhusiopathiae Erysipelas may cause diamond shaped purple skin lesions in pigs. This bacterium is commonly found in the tonsils of pigs, but may cause disease and death if the pigs experience stress, poor sanitation or feed, causing the bacteria to invade the bloodstream and cause sepsis. Staphylococcus hyicus causes greasy pig disease (exudative epidermitis). Haemophilus parasuis causes Glasser's disease (polyserositis/arthritis/cyanotic ears and skin). Streptococcus suis is more common in weaning pigs (may cause meningitis, and also has similar symptoms to Glasser's disease).

Where would you find Anaplasma marginale? Platelets of horses Urine of sheep Erythrocytes of cattle White blood cells of horses

Erythrocytes of cattle Anaplasma marginale is the most prevalent tick-borne pathogen in livestock. This is a rickettsial disease, and the organisms are found in the red blood cells of cattle.

Which of these cell types are all typically found in circulation? -Lymphoblasts, erythrocytes, leukocytes - Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes -Rubriblasts, thrombocytes, erythrocytes -Leukocytes, thrombocytes, metamyelocytes

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes The cellular makeup of the blood includes erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets)

When a calf is born, milk goes immediately to the omasum and bypasses the rumen and reticulum. Which anatomic structure makes this possible? Esophageal groove Reticular folds Gastric rugae Epiploic foramen

Esophageal groove The esophageal groove is a structure at the distal esophagus that forms a tube to allow milk to go directly into the abomasum. The purpose of this is to prevent the milk from being fermented by microorganisms found in the rumen. This structure is also sometimes called the reticular groove.

Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium? Prolactin Progesterone Testosterone Estrogen Cortisol

Estrogen The correct answer is estrogen. As estrogen rises during proestrus, the vaginal epithelium proliferates, cornifies, and keratinizes, presumably in preparation for mating.

What is the most likely period of time during the estrous cycle that a female will be receptive to mating? Anestrus Estrus Proestrus Diestrus

Estrus Estrus is the main period of sexual receptivity. At this point, the uterus and uterine horns are primed for receiving an embryo. Proestrus is the period just prior to estrus and is under the influence of a hormone call follicular stimulating hormone (FSH). During this period FSH stimulates release of estrogen. During diestrus the corpus luteum (ruptured follicle) secretes hormones. If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate and stop secreting hormones. Anestrus is the period in which there is sexual inactivity.

Ovulation occurs during which part of the estrous cycle? Diestrus Proestrus Anestrus Estrus

Estrus Ovulation occurs when a mature egg is released from the ovary and is available to be fertilized. It occurs in estrus or just shortly thereafter.

What does the abbreviation "q" stand for on a prescription? Give Discontinue Every Orally

Every "q" means every. It may say something such as: Give 1 tablet q 12 hours for 14 days. This would mean give 1 tablet every 12 hours for 14 days. The abbreviation for orally is "P.O." (per os).

On average, cows have their estrous cycle how often? Every 6 months Every 21 days Every 30 day Every 60 days

Every 21 days Cows are non-seasonal polyestrous (have estrous cycles year-round). The average estrous cycle in the cow is 21 days (every 18-24 days).

Why should atropine, a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine receptors, be used cautiously in horses (i.e. what is a major side effect of the drug)? Excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic) Excessive use can result in intense constriction of the pupil Excessive use can result in diarrhea Excessive use can result in bradycardia

Excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic) Atropine is commonly used topically to dilate the pupil in horses with uveitis; with excessive administration, atropine can cause intestinal motility to decrease, possibly resulting in abdominal pain (colic) in the horse. Atropine is also used to increase the heart rate during general anesthesia.

In which situation would perioperative antibiotics NOT be indicated? An orthopedic procedure lasting 1 hour Surgery on a patient with hyperadrenocorticism Excisional biopsy of a 2cm mass Surgery on a patient with diabetes mellitus Surgery on a patient treated with glucocorticoids

Excisional biopsy of a 2cm mass Diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, and chronic steroid therapy can all result in immunosuppression; these patients should be treated with perioperative antibiotics unless the surgeon specifically requested that an antibiotic not be used in the event that an intraoperative sample is needed for bacterial culture. Any patient having an orthopedic procedure involving the placement of implants should have perioperative antibiotics. A clean procedure performed under 90 minutes in an otherwise healthy and immunocompetent patient does not require perioperative antibiotics. An excisional biopsy of a 2cm mass would fall under this category.

A dog has been brought into your clinic showing stage two signs of rabies. What are the animal's symptoms? Sudden change in behavior, unusually shy or nervous, seeks solitude Paralytic, excessive salivation, and change in bark Animal will be asymptomatic Excitability, viciousness, biting, and snapping

Excitability, viciousness, biting, and snapping Stage two of rabies is the furious stage. Animals will bite, snap, and attack for no reason, spreading the disease in their saliva though bite wounds. Stage one is the prodromal stage which is characterized by changes in attitude. The animal may become shy, nervous, and apprehensive. Stage three of the disease is the paralytic stage. Muscles will become uncoordinated and paralysis sets in. The animal will lose the ability to swallow and excessively salivate.

Aside from diabetes, what is another cause for glucosuria in a cat? Excitement High carbohydrate diet Dehydration Estrus

Excitement Excitement, stress, and fear increase blood glucose levels. If those levels exceed the renal threshold, glucosuria can occur. The other answer choices do not result in glucosuria.

Which of the following is a common cause of epistaxis in horses? Allergic rhinitis Sinus infection Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage Tooth abscess

Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage is a common cause of epistaxis (bloody nose) in the horse. The other choices do not commonly cause epistaxis.

A client's dog has been diagnosed with a splenic mass that requires surgical removal. The dog has also been previously diagnosed with liver disease. The owner has pet insurance and is submitting a claim for the laparotomy. She is afraid the insurance company will deny the claim because of the liver disease and asks you to omit that from the medical record until the claim is approved. Of the following, which would be the most appropriate action to take? By law you must report attempted fraud to the insurance company. Explain to the owner that by law you can not change the medical record. Explain to the owner that the medical record can not be altered but you can omit the liver disease from the claim form. Let the owner fill out the claim form by herself and you will be absolved of any responsibility of committing insurance fraud.

Explain to the owner that by law you can not change the medical record. Explaining to the owner that you can not change the medical record by law is the appropriate response.

Where is a meibomian gland located? Testicles Foot pads Eyelid Ear canal

Eyelid Meibomian glands line the eyelids. They secrete sebum and help to prevent evaporation of the tear film. Meibomian growths are common in dogs. The dog in this photo has a meibomian gland tumor on his upper eyelid.

Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy? Eyes Ears Anus Bladder

Eyes The Harderian gland is an accessory lacrimal gland on the inner side of the orbit in reptiles and birds; it is also present but is usually degenerate in mammals. Ears have ceruminous glands. There are perianal glands and apocrine glands associated with the anus of dogs and cats. The bladder is made up of transitional epithelium and is not glandular.

In neonatal calves and foals, what is the most common reason that these animals succumb to disease and death? Failure of passive transfer Iron deficiency Gastrointestinal parasitism Infection acquired by the mother from the placenta

Failure of passive transfer Newborns require essential maternal antibody absorption from the colostrum to help protect against infectious diseases. If they do not get these precious immunoglobulins, they can suffer from increased morbidity and mortality from infections. There are now field test kits that can detect blood levels of IgG in calves and foals to help determine if failure of passive transfer has occurred.

Sheep mostly breed during which season? Fall Winter Spring Summer

Fall Sheep are polyestrous in the fall so they will give birth in the spring.

Oviducts are also known as which of the following? Ovaries Spermatic cords Uterine horns Fallopian tubes

Fallopian tubes Fallopian tubes and oviducts are the same structure. It is the structure that transports the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

The term pseudocyesis means which of the following? Ovarian cysts False pregnancy Resembling a cystic structure Infertility

False pregnancy Pseudocyesis is a false pregnancy. Dogs can become pseudopregnant after estrus when the female dog is not bred, or if it is bred by an infertile male. Pseudopregnant dogs can develop mammary glands, lactate, and have nesting behaviors. Spaying is the best way to prevent future episodes.

Which of the following is true regarding anesthesia of reptiles? Perioperative antibiotics are not recommended due to reptile sensitivity to these drugs Because reptiles are cold-blooded, heat support is not necessary Fasting is not usually necessary The skin should never be scrubbed but rinsed only with antiseptic

Fasting is not usually necessary Regurgitation during anesthesia is not a concern for reptiles, and thus fasting is not usually necessary unless they are undergoing gastrointestinal surgery. The rough nature of reptile skin makes it difficult to aseptically prep for surgery. A stiff brush with antiseptic solution should be used for preparation of the skin. Reptiles are prone to hypothermia. They are ectothermic and hold their breath so heat support is extremely important for better control of anesthesia. Reptiles are susceptible to microbial infections; stress from surgery may potentiate these infections (and the skin is difficult to sterilely prep). Perioperative antibiotics are almost always warranted.

A patient who has been diagnosed with pancreatitis should avoid foods that are high in which of the following? Protein Vitamins Carbohydrates Fat Water

Fat Pancreatitis means inflammation of the pancreas, the glandular organ that secretes enzymes needed to digest food. When something causes these enzymes to be activated prematurely, they can actually begin to digest the pancreas itself, resulting in pain and inflammation. There is evidence that feeding a low protein, high fat diet can induce pancreatitis.

Which of the following drugs is commonly delivered via a transdermal patch? Budesonide Diazepam Fentanyl Butorphanol

Fentanyl Fentanyl is often administered via a transdermal patch. It provides analgesia for approximately 4 days, and absorption rates may vary. For post-operative uses, it is best to apply the patch at least 12 hours before the procedure if possible.

A client calls your clinic Monday morning to let you know her dog had an emergency foreign body surgery over the weekend. She said they placed a pain patch on his skin that will need to be removed in 2 more days. This patch likely contains which of the following analgesics? Lidocaine Carprofen Fentanyl Morphine

Fentanyl Fentanyl is the most commonly used transdermal patch in small animals. The patch is usually left on for around 4 days to provide analgesia. Lidocaine also comes in a patch form, but is for more short term and local use (such as after a declaw procedure when they may be applied to the paws overnight).

Which of these drugs is considered a Class II controlled substance by the Drug Enforcement Administration? Ketamine Buprenorphine Diazepam Fentanyl

Fentanyl Fentanyl, along with hydromorphone, methadone, morphine, and pentobarbital, is classified as a schedule II drug. Buprenorphine and ketamine are both schedule III. Diazepam (Valium) is a schedule IV. Schedule I have the highest potential abuse, and schedule IV have the lowest potential for abuse.

Canine Distemper Virus can be transmitted to which species? Cat Ferret Pig Horse

Ferret Raccoons, ferrets, skunks and some other species can contract Canine Distemper Virus.

Which of the following clinical signs is LEAST COMMONLY observed in horses with colic? Repeated laying down and getting up Kicking at the abdomen with the hindlimbs Flank watching Pawing with the forelimbs Fever Frequent rolling

Fever Colic is a non-specific term describing abdominal pain. There are many causes of colic in the horse resulting in various clinical signs, including the ones listed here. Of these listed, fever is the least commonly seen. Occasionally, diseases such as infectious peritonitis or metritis can result in fever and signs of colic but are less common.

Which procedure could be performed without using a surgical scrub, and an alcohol wipe would be sufficient? IV catheter placement Joint taps Bone marrow aspirate Feline neuter Fine needle aspiration

Fine needle aspiration Surgical scrubs are needed for all other procedures listed here.

You are scrubbing in to assist in a surgery. The scrub should occur in which order? Forearms, wrists, hands, fingers Fingertips, hands, wrists, forearms Elbows, forearms, hands, fingers Between fingers, wrists, forearms, fingertips

Fingertips, hands, wrists, forearms The scrub should start at the fingertips and work up towards the forearms. The scrub should not go back in the reverse direction. The elbows are not typically included in the scrub at all.

Flea allergy dermatitis is a very common cause of pruritus in dogs in endemic areas. This is usually an allergy to what? Flea saliva Flea eggs Flea feces Flea cytoskeleton (chitin)

Flea saliva Many pets are allergic to flea saliva and it causes a dermatologic hypersensitivity. It may manifest with symptoms of pruritus, erythematous skin, secondary pyodermas, and hot spots.

You are combing through a pet's hair with your fingers and notice a large amount of dark debris which looks like dirt. This may implicate which parasite? Ticks Mites Lice Fleas

Fleas "Flea dirt" is organic debris which includes digested blood that is passed in the feces of adult fleas. Finding this debris suggests that the pet likely is infested with fleas.

Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are all used in treatment of which of the following? Fleas Ticks Ascarids Sarcoptic mites

Fleas Lufenuron (Program) controls flea populations by stopping the life cycle at the egg stage. It is an oral formulation. Fipronil acts to inhibit GABA and kills adult fleas. It is a topical and also works against some ticks. Imidacloprid is a topical flea adulticide and is a neurotransmitter blocker (Ach inhibitor). Selamectin (not listed) would act against fleas and sarcoptic mites.

The term myiasis indicates a problem with which of the following? Worms Lice Flies Mites Fleas

Flies Myiasis refers to infestation with larvae of flies (diptera). Pediculosis is the term for infestation with lice.

What procedure performed in horses includes filing and smoothing their teeth? Cribbing Quidding Raking Floating

Floating Horses' teeth grow throughout their lives. When a horse eats normally, grinding food between the back teeth, the abrasives wear the teeth down to keep them even and smooth. However, when a horse eats a softer diet like one containing a lot of alfalfa and grains, the teeth do not wear evenly and can form sharp, painful points. A horse with overgrown or sharp teeth may have difficulty eating, may hypersalivate, may start dropping food from its mouth, and can begin losing weight. Floating entails filing down the teeth using a dental rasp, or float, to make the teeth even and smooth again. Cribbing is the act of swallowing air or "wind sucking" and is thought to be behavioral. Sometimes cribbers will chew or suck on fences or other fixed objects so they can actually draw in air. Quidding is when a horse stores a bolus of food inside its mouth and spits it out or drops food from its mouth. The most common cause is bad teeth; the horse may need to have its teeth floated.

Which of the following is an indicator that a spinal needle has successfully been placed into the epidural space in a horse? There is moderate resistance when pushing fluid through the spinal needle Spinal fluid fills the hub of the needle Fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle Fluid bubbles immediately when placed on the hub of the needle

Fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle A horse epidural should be placed between the last sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae or between the first and second coccygeal vertebrae. When placed correctly, fluid will be drawn into the hub. Spinal fluid is a sign that the needle is not in the epidural space. The push of fluid into the spinal needle should be very smooth. Any resistance is an indication that the needle is probably not in the epidural space.

What is the name of the dye commonly applied to the eye to identify a corneal ulcer? Fluorescein dye Rose bengel dye Lugol dye Schirmer dye

Fluorescein dye Fluorescein dye is the most commonly used dye to identify corneal ulcers; the dye adheres to exposed corneal stroma and stains it bright green. Rose bengel dye is occasionally used but much less frequently than fluorescein.

You are working in the ICU; a dog on a high rate of fluids has a very sudden drop in urine production in his urine collection bag. What do you do first? Perform a urine sediment examination Immediately notify the veterinarian on call immediately Run a BUN and creatinine to check kidney function Flush the urinary catheter with sterile saline

Flush the urinary catheter with sterile saline First, flush the catheter and make sure the line didn't get kinked, etc. If the urine production had been good and suddenly urine production slowed dramatically, it is likely a result of some mechanical issue. If the catheter flushes normally and all appears OK, call the veterinarian immediately.

Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for which purpose? For constipation For analgesia For tapeworm infestation For acid reflux

For analgesia Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is a non-narcotic, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to provide analgesia and to reduce inflammation. It may also be used as a fever reducer.

A patient presents with rodenticide toxicity and is hemorrhaging. The doctor decides the animal needs a transfusion. What blood product is most likely to help stop the patient's bleeding? Packed red blood cells Stored plasma Any blood product will do Fresh frozen plasma

Fresh frozen plasma Rodenticide toxicity causes hemorrhage by inhibiting vitamin K1 clotting factors. Fresh frozen plasma provides coagulation factors. Fresh whole blood could be used as well because it also contains coagulation factors; however, this was not an option in this question. Packed red blood cells don't have any coagulation factors since the plasma has been removed. Stored plasma has plasma proteins only. Platelets or coagulation factors are no longer present at significant levels.

When looking at the bottom of a horse's hoof, what is the name of the triangular shaped structure behind the sole of the foot? Frog Laminae White line Secondary sole Bars

Frog The name of the triangular structure is the frog (cuneus ungulae); this structure fills in the gap between the bulbs of the heels. The frog is a soft structure and is a normal part of the hoof anatomy.

A dog presents with lethargy and coughing. The doctor asks you to take a blood sample to test for Coccidioides immitis, also known as Valley Fever. This disease, most commonly seen in the southwestern United States, is caused by which of the following? Rickettsia Fungus Bacteria Mite

Fungus Coccidioides is the fungus that causes Valley Fever which can have many different symptoms. Symptoms most commonly include lameness, coughing, lethargy, and loss of appetite. The treatment of choice is fluconazole. Rickettsia is a genus of Gram-negative bacteria which are transmitted most commonly by a tick bite. Examples of rickettsial diseases include Ehrlichia canis (Tick Fever), Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii), and Salmon Disease (Neorickettsia helminthoeca). These are treated with doxycycline.

Emesis should not be induced in dogs that have ingested which toxin? Chocolate Bromethalin Gasoline Brodifacoum

Gasoline The correct answer is gasoline. Emesis, if you can initiate it soon after exposure to a toxin, is a very effective means of decontamination. The times that emesis is not appropriate is for caustic (acid or alkali) substances and substances that are volatile and may be inhaled, causing pulmonary toxicity or aspiration pneumonia. The other contraindication to inducing emesis is when the patient is not awake enough to protect their airway and prevent aspiration.

An owner rushes in with her Labrador retriever who is having non-productive retching, is lethargic, and has a distended abdomen. She wants to know if he has "bloat". Which condition is she concerned about? Ascites Splenic mass Gastric dilation volvulus Mesenteric volvulus

Gastric dilation volvulus Gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV) is when the stomach dilates and then rotates around itself on the short axis. It is a life-threatening emergency to which owners often refer to as "bloat".

For which of the following emergency situations would you most likely pass a stomach tube in a dog? Mesenteric torsion Perforated stomach Gastric-dilatation-volvulus Intestinal intussusception

Gastric-dilatation-volvulus Of the answer choices provided, the only condition which results in life-threatening distension of the stomach is gastric-dilatation-volvulus. This condition results in abnormal positioning of the stomach such that blood flow to the stomach is disrupted and gas accumulation within the stomach occurs. The more gas that accumulates, the less blood is able to flow through the stomach walls. In time, this will cause necrosis of the stomach wall. Eventually, there is enough distension that the stomach begins to compress the caudal vena cava, and blood return to the heart is impeded. This results in shock, and if patients are not treated immediately they will die. One of the emergency procedures used to help stabilize the patient is the passing of a stomach tube. The tube is measured to the level of the stomach and then passed through the mouth. Decompression of the stomach will save the patient's life. However, the stomach should be anchored in a normal anatomical position by performing a gastropexy so that a GDV could never recur.

A Great Dane is presented for her ovariohysterectomy. The owner would also like to have a procedure done at the same time to secure her stomach to the body wall to prevent her from a gastric dilatation volvulus in the future. What is this procedure called? Gastrectomy Gastropexy Gastric bypass Gastrotomy

Gastropexy Pexy" is the term for surgical fixation. A gastropexy is attachment of the stomach to the abdominal wall to prevent the stomach from torsion or malposition. Gastrotomy is an incision into the stomach. Gastrectomy is the removal of the stomach. Gastric bypass procedure typically reduces the size of the stomach and allows food to bypass part of the small intestine. (This is mostly performed in people as a weight loss procedure.)

You are working with an aggressive chihuahua, and the standard muzzles available in the practice will not fit this dog. Which alternative could you try? Cover the dog's head with a towel Gauze muzzle Use your hand to firmly close the dog's mouth during examination No muzzle, just grasp firmly around the neck region so the dog cannot turn its head to bite

Gauze muzzle If it is difficult to place a regular muzzle on a dog or if the correct size is not available, a gauze muzzle can be used by tying the gauze around the muzzle and behind the ears. You should never grasp around the neck as described. Some breeds, such as brachycephalics, may have underlying airway disease and this would put them at risk for becoming cyanotic from excessive restraint. The same applies for the towel. It is too dangerous to try and attempt to hold an aggressive dog's muzzle with your hand given the risk of being bitten.

Which of the following could be used for hemostasis at the site of a liver punch biopsy? Bone wax Styptic powder Gelfoam Silver nitrate

Gelfoam Gelfoam is a sterile compressed sponge that is intended to aid in hemostasis; it allows for absorption of blood and formation of a clot at the bleeding site. It has a very useful application in liver biopsies. Bone wax controls bleeding from bone and functions as a mechanical plug that is pressed into the bleeding bone surface. Silver nitrate applicators are used to stop small superficial bleeders such as a snipped skin tag or a bleeding toenail. These are not sterile. Styptic powder is used to stop bleeding toenails and would never be used on tissues.

Which of the following drugs would be the most likely to cause a nephrotoxicity? Enrofloxacin Gentamicin Amoxicillin Cephalexin

Gentamicin Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known for their potential toxic effects to the kidneys (nephrotoxicity) and ear (ototoxicity). In some cases, these drugs may cause tubular necrosis of the proximal renal tubular cells, so caution and monitoring are important.

What is one way to help determine if a nasogastric tube was properly placed in a horse? Fluid will automatically come out of the tube when it is properly placed When the horse breathes, you can feel air coming from the tube Gently blow air into the tube and listen for gurgling Infuse water down the tube to see if the horse coughs

Gently blow air into the tube and listen for gurgling A nasogastric (nose to stomach) tube should go down the esophagus (not the trachea). First measure the length of the tube needed to reach the pharynx and the length to reach the stomach. Lubricate the tube before insertion. Enter the ventral nasal meatus and gently push forward; do not force the tube. Once it reaches where the pharynx would be, flex the neck of the horse which helps to get it into the esophagus and not the trachea. The tube should pass when the horse starts to swallow. If the tube goes into the trachea, the horse does not always cough. You should not feel the horse breathing through the tube; this would indicate that the tube has entered the trachea. You do not want to put water in the tube until correct esophageal placement is confirmed. Often times when the tube is passed into the stomach, there may be a sweet or fetid odor. If you gently blow air into the tube it will cause bubbling in the stomach, and you can hear it by ausculting on the left side between the 8th and 14th ribs. Fluid does not automatically come out of the tube.

In the name Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium is the: Family Order Genus Species Class

Genus Clostridium is the genus and perfringens is the species. The genus name is always capitalized.

If restrained in a stressful or frightening manner, which species might be prone to seizure? Gerbil Cat Horse Llama Dog

Gerbil Gerbils have a high incidence of spontaneous seizures, which may be precipitated by being scared or stressed. To restrain a gerbil, it should be grasped by the tail base (not the tip, which could cause a degloving injury). The other hand then grasps the skin at the scruff of the neck. If possible, support the rear legs, as this can help to keep the gerbil calm.

Which breed is most at risk for developing Degenerative Myelopathy? Golden Retriever Dachshund Corgi Standard Poodle German Shepherd

German Shepherd This is a progressive spinal cord disease that causes that myelin sheath around the nerves to degenerate. German Shepherds are over-represented for this condition. Dachshunds most commonly get intervertebral disk disease.

Periodontal disease can refer to processes affecting which of the following? Tongue Enamel Dentin Gingiva Hard palate

Gingiva Periodontal disease is one of the most common conditions seen. The periodontum includes the gingiva, the alveolar bone, the periodontal ligament and cementum of the tooth. Gingivitis is usually the first sign of periodontal disease.

A boxer presents with overgrowth of the gums. This condition is known as which of the following? Faucitis Stomatitis Gingival hyperplasia Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesions

Gingival hyperplasia Gingival hyperplasia is overgrowth of the gum tissue characterized by non painful swellings of the gingiva. In some cases, a biopsy may be required to rule out neoplasia. The proliferative tissue can be trimmed away during a dental but dogs with this condition are prone to recurrence. The cause is often unknown, but it may be hereditary or caused by medications such as cyclosporine, phenytoin, or amlodipine.

Buprenorphine is to be sent home with a 17 pound domestic long hair for pain following an abdominal exploratory surgery. The veterinarian would like the prescription to be 0.01 mg/kg PO QID PRN, dispense 12 syringes. If the concentration of buprenorphine is 0.3 mg/ml, what will you put on the label? Give 0.56 mls by mouth every 6 hours as needed for 3 days. Give 0.25 mls by mouth every 6 hours as needed for 3 days. Give 0.25 mls three times daily for 12 days. Give 0.25 mls PO QID for 12 days.

Give 0.25 mls by mouth every 6 hours as needed for 3 days. First you must convert pounds to kilograms dividing 17 by 2.2 = 7.7 kg. 7.7 kg multiplied by 0.01 mg/kg = 0.07 mg. 0.07mg divided by 0.3 mg/ml = 0.25 mls. The patient will recieve 0.25 mls by mouth (PO) every 6 hours (QID), and dispensing 12 syringes will provide 3 days worth of medication.

A dog under anesthesia has an end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) reading of 60 mm Hg. What should be done? Increase the oxygen flow rate to the patient Increase the anesthetic gas because the patient is light Give a dose of atropine IV Give the patient a breath, or ventilate, to lower the ETCO2

Give the patient a breath, or ventilate, to lower the ETCO2 If the patient has an ETCO2 greater than 55, the patient is hypoventilating. Giving the patient some breaths, or ventilating the patient, will help to lower this value. Increasing the oxygen flow rate would increase the amount of anesthetic flowing through the circuit. Atropine would increase the heart rate. Typically, a patient in a light plane of anesthesia would be hyperventilating and may have a lower ETCO2 (less than 30).

An owner brings a box of rat poison to your hospital and says her dog ingested it. You help the doctor induce vomiting. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for an animal that has ingested an anticoagulant rodenticide? Give atropine Give diazepam Give IV vodka Give vitamin K

Give vitamin K It takes at least a few days for anticoagulant rodenticides to cause prolonged bleeding times and clinical hemorrhage. This could likely be prevented with early intervention with decontamination and Vitamin K1 administration. In patients that have prolonged bleeding times, plasma is also indicated. The bright green vomit confirms the owners suspicion of rodenticide ingestion because many rat poison contains a bright green dye. Dogs that ingest these products may have bright green vomit or stool.

Dorzolamide ophthalmic drops may be used in treating what eye condition? Glaucoma Corneal ulcer Keratoconjunctivitis sicca Pannus

Glaucoma Dorzolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is a common eye drop used in the treatment of glaucoma (increased eye pressures). This drug helps to decrease aqueous production in the eye, thus lowering intraocular pressure.

You are performing treatments on a horse and you need to apply dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) topically over a region of tenosynovitis in a horse. Which of the following personal protective equipment should be worn? Protective goggles Gloves Surgical gown Filtered respirator

Gloves DMSO is an anti-inflammatory drug. It may be administered topically, orally, or diluted and administered IV. Gloves should be worn when applying or handling DMSO because it can be absorbed through the skin. Nitrile gloves are preferable to latex because DMSO can be absorbed through latex gloves.

Which blood chemistry value may be artificially lowered if analysis of a blood sample is delayed? -Glucose -Sodium -Creatinine - Alanine aminotransferase

Glucose Even after sample collection, glucose continues to be metabolized and, as a result, an artificially low blood glucose value can be expected if analysis is delayed.

Which of the following mostly produces endotoxins? Gram-negative bacteria Intestinal parasites such as roundworms and hookworms Yeast and other fungal organisms Gram-positive bacteria

Gram-negative bacteria Gram-negative bacteria release endotoxins (which are found in their cell wall) when they die.

Which food consumed by humans can be highly toxic to dogs and cats? Tomatoes Spinach Carrots Bananas Grapes

Grapes Grapes and raisins can cause severe kidney problems/failure in some cats and dogs. This may be due to the high levels of oxalates they contain. Other toxic foods include macadamia nuts, onions, and chocolate. Coffee, alcohol, yeast dough, nutmeg, and sugarless gum containing xylitol can also cause severe toxicities.

Which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhythmia? Sevoflurane Isoflurane Halothane Oxygen

Halothane While any of the inhaled anesthetics may cause cardiac arrhythmias, they would be more likely to occur with the use of Halothane gas. Because of this, most veterinary practices have moved toward the use of Isoflurane or Sevoflurane for anesthetic maintenance during procedures.

What is the number one way to prevent transmission of disease in the large-animal hospital setting? Foot baths Separation of species Gowning Hand hygiene

Hand hygiene Hand hygiene is the number one way to help prevent transmission of disease. Washing hands before and after patient contact, after using the bathroom, before and after eating, and when entering and leaving the hospital are all important times to wash. Environmental decontamination and/or disinfection are the other most important ways to prevent disease transmission. The other things listed are additional ways to help prevent the spread of disease in the hospital setting.

Which of the following techniques should NOT be performed when trying to stimulate breathing in a newborn calf? Hang the calf off the ground by its back legs and shake or swing it to stimulate breathing. Use of a respiratory stimulant such as doxapram. Use of acupuncture points on the muzzle. Place a finger or piece of straw in the calf's nose. Pour cold water over the calf's head.

Hang the calf off the ground by its back legs and shake or swing it to stimulate breathing. Recent data suggests that hanging calves to clear the airway is unnecessary. Placing a finger or piece of straw in the nose will elicit a gasping reflex and help aerate the lungs. Pouring cold water over the head will stimulate a hypothermal respiratory response. A pharmacological initiation of respiration can be achieved with medications like doxapram (Dopram). Acupuncture points on the muzzle are also useful for stimulation of respirations.

Rats are known to produce a substance called "red tears" or chromodacyorrhea. Where are red tears produced? Retro-orbital gland Conjunctival gland Nasal tissue gland Harderian gland

Harderian gland The Harderian gland produces the substance known as red tears. The red color is from a porphyrin pigment in the tears. Rats under stress may show this red tear production. Due to the connection between the tear ducts and the nasal cavity, the red stain may show up as a nasal discharge. Many owners will think it is blood.

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is most commonly known as which of the following conditions? Metal heart disease White muscle disease Reticulitis Hardware disease

Hardware disease Hardware disease is caused by ingestion of wire, nails, etc; these foreign bodies migrate into the reticulum and may pierce through and cause damage to internal organs (including the heart and diaphragm). It is most easily prevented via a magnet being placed into the reticulum to prevent these ingested metallic foreign bodies from migrating.

You are assisting during surgery, and the surgeon is about to close the incision. She needs a pair of Olsen-Hegar needle holders. What is a fundamental difference between this type of needle holder as compared to others? Has a built-in scissor The tips are magnetized Does not have a ratcheting device The jaws are serrated for a better grip

Has a built-in scissor Olsen-Hegar needle holders are popular among veterinarians who are performing surgery without assistants, because Olsen-Hegar holders have a built-in suture scissor. One major disadvantage is that one may inadvertently cut the suture when tying a knot. All standard needle holders will have a ratcheting device built into them.

Which of the following is accurate about a cryptorchid dog? Has an additional testicle Is prone to prostate infections Has one testicle larger than the other Has both male and female sexual organs Has one or both testicles retained and not in the scrotum

Has one or both testicles retained and not in the scrotum A cryptorchid dog has one or both testicles retained. They are usually retained in the abdomen or in the inguinal region.

The owner of an 8-year old German Shepherd dog calls to report that the dog may have ingested an unknown quantity of rat bait 12 hours ago. What would be the best course of action to advise over the phone? The new formulations of rat bait on the market are pet-friendly and no action needs to be taken Have the owner bring the dog to the clinic immediately Take a message and have the veterinarian call the owner back Have the owner monitor the dog's mucus membranes and bring the dog to the clinic if the mucus membranes become pale Have the owner induce vomiting at home

Have the owner bring the dog to the clinic immediately Rat bait can cause prolonged clotting times or cerebral edema, and the dog should be seen immediately. It may not be advisable to induce vomiting without a veterinarian examination. Signs such as poor mucus membrane color only develop after a coagulopathy has developed, and by that time, intervention will be much less effective. The veterinarian won't be able to provide any treatment for rat bait ingestion over the phone. Rat bait is never pet-friendly.

The surgeon asks you to please get him some gelatin foam. What will he use this for? He will use it to preserve the biopsy specimen He will use it to test for the presence of bacteria He will use it as an analgesic He will use it to stop bleeding

He will use it to stop bleeding Gelatin foam (gel foam) is used to stop oozing of blood.

When cattle are placed in lateral recumbency during general anesthesia, how should the head be positioned to decrease the risk of aspiration? Head and oral cavity lower than the neck Head and oral cavity higher than the neck or at the same level as the neck Head and oral cavity higher than the neck Head and oral cavity at the same level as the neck

Head and oral cavity lower than the neck During general anesthesia the esophageal sphincter relaxes, and if regurgitation occurs the fluid can be aspirated. Positioning the head and oral cavity lower than the neck paired with a properly inflated endotracheal cuff can reduce this risk.

A 2-year old Dalmatian presents after being hit by a car. Anisocoria is noted during the initial physical examination. What type of trauma would be suspected? Splenic torsion Orthopedic injury Pneumothorax Head trauma Ruptured bladder

Head trauma Anisocoria is defined as unequal or asymmetrical pupil size and results most often from CNS trauma. Although other systems may have sustained damage, the most likely cause of anisocoria in a patient that was hit by a car is head trauma.

A 4 year old male neutered domestic shorthair cat presents to your clinic with a history of straining to urinate. The owner is unsure how long it has been since the cat urinated. What is the first thing you should check while waiting for the doctor? PCV (Packed cell volume) Blood pressure Pupillary Light Response Temperature Heart rate

Heart rate Cats with a urethral obstruction can develop hyperkalemia (high potassium) due to decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and the inability of the kidneys to excrete potassium from the body through the urine. Hyperkalemia can slow down the heart rate which can be fatal if it is severe enough, so it is very important to check the heart rate immediately. An ECG can also be of benefit to further assess the heart rhythm. Body temperature can decrease if the patient is in shock and the patient may need to be warmed until the body can maintain a normal temperature on its own. A packed cell volume and blood pressure could be useful in the overall assessment of the patient, but these would not be assessed immediately on presentation.

The surgeon clamps off a bleeding blood vessel. It could be said that the surgeon achieved which of the following? Hemolysis Coagulation Hemostasis Fibrinolysis

Hemostasis Hemostasis is to stop bleeding or hemorrhage. Coagulation is the complex process by which blood forms clots which has not yet necessarily occurred in this example. Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down of clot. Hemolysis is the rupturing of erythrocytes.

What does Eimeria stiedai cause? Cloacal coccidiosis in chickens Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits It is a non-pathogenic coccidia in horses Intestinal coccidiosis in dogs and cats

Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits Eimeria stiedai is the species of Eimeria that causes hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits. The rabbits ingest sporulated oocysts, which contain four sporozoites that hatch and travel via the hepatic portal vein to the liver and penetrate the bile duct epithelium. The schizonts in the bile duct cause bile duct hyperplasia; they block the bile duct, causing hepatomegaly, icterus, and liver failure.

An obese cat that is not eating for multiple days is at an increased risk for developing which condition? Inflammatory bowel disease Anemia Megacolon Hepatic lipidosis Gastric outflow tract obstruction

Hepatic lipidosis Hepatic lipidosis is also known as fatty liver syndrome. Excess fats are broken down from the cat's fat stores and transported to the liver. The liver should then process this fat for utilization. In cats with hepatic lipidosis, this is impaired, resulting in accumulation of liver fat. The liver cells fill with fat and swell. This condition must be treated aggressively or can lead to death. The most important treatment for this condition is feeding. Most cats require placement of a feeding tube.

Which of the following fluid types is a colloid? Hypertonic saline Hetastarch 5% dextrose in saline Lactated Ringers Sodium chloride 0.9%

Hetastarch A colloid contains larger molecules than a crystalloid. This size difference allows the fluid to stay in the intravascular space for longer and thus helps to increase oncotic pressure. Examples of colloids are Hetastarch, blood products (whole blood, plasma, etc.), and Dextrans.

In order for oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli into the capillaries, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the alveoli in the lungs must be: Higher in the capillaries than in the lungs Oxygen cannot diffuse through the alveoli The same pressure between both the lungs and the capillaries Higher in the lungs than in the capillaries

Higher in the lungs than in the capillaries Partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is ~100mmHg, and is ~45mmHg in the capillaries. Gas diffuses from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

The veterinarian is performing an orthopedic exam and says a dog has positive Ortolani sign. What corresponds with this? Luxating patella Cervical instability Cranial cruciate rupture Hip dysplasia

Hip dysplasia Ortolani is the palpable sensation of gliding the femoral head in and out of the acetabulum and suggests joint laxity, most often seen in hip dysplasia. A "drawer sign" would correspond with a cranial cruciate rupture.

The veterinarian is performing an orthopedic exam and says a dog has positive Ortolani sign. What corresponds with this? Hip dysplasia Cranial cruciate rupture Cervical instability Luxating patella

Hip dysplasia Ortolani is the palpable sensation of gliding the femoral head in and out of the acetabulum and suggests joint laxity, most often seen in hip dysplasia. A "drawer sign" would correspond with a cranial cruciate rupture.

You see that a Shar Pei is scheduled to come in for a second opinion about his entropion. What is wrong with the pet? He has severe itching His eyelids roll inward He is unable to retract his penis into the prepuce He has a hernia

His eyelids roll inward Entropion is when the eyelid edges roll inward towards the globe of the eye so that the lashes are rubbing against the cornea. It is a painful condition that often causes tearing and secondary infections, ulcers, etc. It is treated surgically. The proper term for itching is pruritus. Paraphimosis is the term for an extruded penis that cannot be retracted. A hernia is a hole or tear in the body wall from which abdominal contents can protrude subcutaneously.

A 10-year old domestic short hair presents with a history of vomiting and inappetance and is severely dehydrated. His CBC shows a hematocrit of 22%. What can be said about this cat? His true hematocrit is likely higher than 22% The cat is likely in renal failure His true hematocrit is likely lower than 22% The cat is losing blood

His true hematocrit is likely lower than 22% A hematocrit of 22% tells us that the cat is anemic. Dehydration causes a falsely elevated hematocrit or PCV. This means that because this cat is dehydrated, the hematocrit is likely actually lower than 22%. The hematocrit or PCV often goes down when hydration is restored. While chronic renal failure can lead to anemia of chronic disease, this assumption cannot be made based on the information given in the question. Even though the hematocrit is low, this doesn't mean the cat is losing blood. To know whether blood loss or chronic disease is causing the anemia, a reticulocyte count would be needed to see if this cat is regenerating (making new red blood cells). In cases of blood loss or lysis, the anemia is usually regenerative (reticulocytes greater than 60,000). In cases of chronic disease, the anemia is usually non-regenarative (reticulocytes less than 60,000).

You are checking the fax machine and get a report from the local emergency clinic that a patient from the hospital where you work presented overnight for severe urticaria. What did this patient have? Tremoring Limping Nasal discharge Hives Diarrhea

Hives Urticaria are hives. They are often itchy, red, raised welts on the skin surface. They are typically caused by an acute allergic reaction.

A male ferret is also referred to as which of the following? Boar Jack Hob Jill

Hob A male ferret is known as a hob, while a female is called a jill. If you want to get really technical, these terms hob and jill are used for intact ferrets. A gib would be a neutered male and a sprite would be a spayed female (but often they are just called neutered hobs and spayed jills).

Which of the following methods is not recommended when picking up a snake? Hold it by the caudal half of the body Hold it with a snake hook Hold it by the tail Hold it by the base of the neck

Hold it by the tail Some snakes can lose their tails as a defense so should not be picked up by the tail. This will prevent skin loss or degloving injury. The same applies to lizards.

After which procedure is it most important that you immediately wash your hands as soon as the procedure is complete? Skin scraping on a dog with Demodex Holding a dog that may have Microsporum canis Fluoroscopy Restraining a cat that has Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)

Holding a dog that may have Microsporum canis Microsporum canis is the most common cause of ringworm and is a zoonotic fungal disease. Fluoroscopy is a term that describes the acquisition of real-time x-rays. Demodex is a non-contagious mite. FIV is transmitted by close contact between cats. Of course, it is safe practice to always wash your hands before and after handling patients.

Smooth muscle is found in what regions? Within the muscles of mastication Hollow organs Extremities Within the muscles of the eye

Hollow organs Smooth muscle is under involuntary control and is found lining the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. The extremities are surrounded by skeletal muscle which is voluntarily controlled. Muscles of the eye and mastication are also made up of skeletal muscle.

Which parasite is commonly passed from a mother to her young via the transmammary route? Giardia Tapeworms Hookworms Whipworms Coccidia

Hookworms A common mode of hookworm transmission (Ancylostoma) is transmammary (nursing) through infected milk.

For which species is it most common to clip and clean the surgical site prior to anesthetic induction? Cat Horse Dog Ferret

Horse Out of the species listed, the horse is most amenable to being clipped and cleaned prior to surgery. Clipping and cleaning prior to anesthesia will help reduce the amount of total anesthesia time.

Which species is not susceptible to "hoof-and-mouth" disease? Sheep Pigs Horses Cattle

Horses Hoof-and-mouth disease (often called foot-and-mouth disease) is a viral disease of cloven-hoofed animals including cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats.

Fermentation is a microbial process that uses enzymes to decompose food so that it may be utilized by the animal. In which species is this process most utilized in the hindgut during digestion? Dogs Cows Sheep Horses

Horses Horses are hindgut (large-intestinal) fermenters. They are herbivores, and the cellulose in the plants they consume is difficult to digest. They have a fermentation system which contains specific microflora, that break sdown the plant material, allowing them to access useful nutrients. Ruminants (sheep and cows) are also herbivores but are foregut fermenters as their fermentation process occurs in the rumen. Dogs are carnivores and monogastrics.

Which of the following species have hypsodont teeth? Cats Dogs Pigs Horses

Horses Hypsodont teeth have a long crown height and erupt throughout the animal's life, such as in horses and rabbits. Humans, pigs, dogs, and cats have brachyodont teeth, which have a short crown length and do not continue to erupt throughout life.

Which of the following species have hypsodont teeth? Monkeys Dogs Pigs Horses

Horses Hypsodont, or high-crowned teeth, continue to erupt throughout life. All of the permanent teeth of horses and cheek teeth of ruminants are this type, with the roots embedded in the alveolus of the jaw bone. Dogs, cats, monkeys, and pigs have brachydont, or low-crowned teeth in which the root is embedded in the jaw bone.

Which of the following species is unable to vomit? Cows Birds Dogs Horses Cats

Horses The correct answer is horses. Horses are unable to regurgitate or vomit; they are less likely to develop aspiration pneumonia secondary to vomiting or regurgitation while under anesthesia. Regardless, horses are kept off food for approximately 12 hours prior to surgery to allow the stomach to empty. Taking this precaution may help the horse achieve better ventilation while under anesthesia.

An 8-month old Siamese kitten presents for ataxia, and the veterinarian suspects the kitten has "water on the brain" due to her enlarged head size. What is the term for this? Hydrocephalus Paracervical edema Brachycephalus Craniostosis

Hydrocephalus Hydrocephalus is a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid inside the skull, leading to brain swelling. Hydrocephalus means "water on the brain".

Which of the following drugs is a controlled substance? Hydrocodone Propofol Medetomidine Acepromazine

Hydrocodone Hydrocodone (Hycodan, Tussigon) is an opiate agonist and is a controlled narcotic. It is often used for its anti-tussive properties in animals that are coughing. The other drugs listed are not controlled.

What is an expected finding in a patient with Hypervitaminosis D, or Vitamin D toxicity? Hypoglycemia Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypokalemia Hypercalcemia

Hypercalcemia Vitamin D is the building block of calcitriol, which works with parathyroid hormone. Calcitriol increases absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines and decreases their excretion in the urine. In so doing, calcium levels in the blood rise and PTH levels drop. So, when vitamin D is too high from intake, calcium is too high (there is no negative feedback mechanism with PTH).

What is the most common and life-threatening metabolic abnormality in a cat with a urethral obstruction? Increased BUN and creatinine Hyperglycemia Hyperkalemia Hypochloremia Hyponatremia

Hyperkalemia A high potassium level is life-threatening. The majority of potassium is excreted in the urine. When the cat is unable to urinate, potassium builds up in the bloodstream and can cause serious metabolic consequences. Although the BUN and creatinine are often high, they are usually elevated from pre-renal (dehydration) causes and post-renal (obstruction) causes and will normalize after fluid therapy.

What clinical signs are associated with infection with Clostridium tetani in the horse? Hypersensitivity to sound and touch characterized by signs such as muscle spasms (stiff gait) and protrusion of the third eyelid Generalized muscle paresis characterized by signs of generalized weakness and difficulty breathing Increased anxiousness and sweating as a result of tachycardia and increased circulating epinephrine Increased gastrointestinal motility characterized by increased passage of loose stool

Hypersensitivity to sound and touch characterized by signs such as muscle spasms (stiff gait) and protrusion of the third eyelid Clostridium tetani causes muscle spasms as a result of the organism producing toxins that block normal inhibitory neurons. Classic clinical signs include hypersensitivity to sound and touch resulting in muscle rigidity (lockjaw) and protrusion of the third eyelid.

Which of the following is known as Addison's disease? Hyperadrenocorticism Hyperthyroidism Hypoparathyroidism Hypoadrenocorticism

Hypoadrenocorticism Hypoadrenocorticism is a decrease in circulating cortisol. Hyperadrenocorticism is an increase in circulating cortisol and is known as Cushing's disease.

A bird that is laying eggs with thin soft shells likely has: Anemia Psittacosis Giardia Hypocalcemia

Hypocalcemia Calcium is necessary to construct a rigid egg shell. If the laying bird is hypocalcemic then not enough calcium will be deposited into the shell, resulting in a soft egg. Giardia is a parasitic disease that does not result in soft eggs and usually affects the gastrointestinal tract. Anemia is a decrease in hematocrit below normal levels which may result in pallor and weakness. There are many possible causes for anemia. Pstittacosis is caused by a type of chlamydia bacteria which causes a combination of weakness, ocular discharge, respiratory illness and gastrointestinal disease.

A Yorkshire Terrier who has given birth 2 weeks ago presents with a history of tremoring. She is febrile and not eating well. On her electrolyte panel which of the following would you expect to see? Hyponatremia Hypomagnesemia Hypokalemia Hypocalcemia

Hypocalcemia Eclampsia, also known as "milk fever" is caused by a low calcium level. It most often occurs around 3 weeks after whelping due to losing calcium in the milk and the inability of the body to keep up with demand. It is most common in small-breed dogs with larger litters. It is treated with calcium gluconate IV in an acute crisis and oral supplementation is then required. Milk fever is also seen more commonly in dairy cows that are close to calving. It typically causes a LOW temperature and often causes staggering and recumbency. It can also cause tremors and dilated pupils. It is also treated with injectable calcium. When cows are dry (not lactating), they should be kept on a LOW calcium diet so that calcium can be mobilized more rapidly from the bone when it is needed during calving and lactation.

When looking under the microscope at a blood sample of a patient with iron deficiency, which of the following terms describes what you would most likely see? -Hyperchromasia -Hypovolemia -Hyponatremia -Hypochromasia

Hypochromasia Hypochromasia means lack of color or diminished color in the red blood cell. Iron is important in the formation of hemoglobin, and hemoglobin is responsible for the majority of color in the RBC. Therefore, a lack of iron would result in a pale red blood cell (hypochromasia).

You are working at an emergency practice and a woman brings in her ferret "Macy" who is obtunded. The ferret is very weak and appears neurologic. The veterinarian suspects an insulinoma, which is the third most common tumor in the ferret. If this is the case, what laboratory finding would you expect? Hypoglycemia Hypokalemia Hyperglycemia Ketones in the urine

Hypoglycemia An insulinoma is a tumor on the pancreas. The tumor causes the pancreas to secrete excess insulin. Insulin causes the blood sugar to decrease. A low blood sugar is called hypoglycemia. This can lead to neurologic symptoms and extreme weakness seen in this patient. Ketones in the urine would be more common in a chronic diabetic (hyperglycemic) patient. Hypokalemia is a low potassium and can cause extreme weakness and ventroflexion of the neck.

A Boston terrier puppy presents lethargic and minimally responsive at your clinic. The owner says he hasn't been eating very well; his gums are a little pale, temperature is 99.1F. What is the likely cause of his acute symptoms? Head trauma Parvovirus Intestinal parasites Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia When a young puppy or kitten presents lethargic and minimally responsive, or has symptoms of weakness or pale gums, hypoglycemia should be at the top of your list of suspected afflictions. You should draw a blood sample to check the glucose level, and be ready to administer dextrose when the veterinarian gives the order. Parvovirus and intestinal parasites can also cause hypoglycemia (what he is acutely presenting for), so additional diagnostics will be necessary to determine the underlying cause of this puppy's problem.

An owner called and said that her dog ate a pack of sugarless gum containing xylitol. You tell her to bring her dog in right away. Which of the following could this cause? Hypophosphatemia Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia Hypercalcemia

Hypoglycemia Xylitol is a sugar alcohol found in many sugarless candies, sweets, and gum. Xylitol toxicity can be life-threatening. Dogs that ingest doses of >0.1 g/kg of xylitol are at risk for developing hypoglycemia, while dogs that ingest >0.5 g/kg may develop acute liver failure. Supportive care and dextrose for treatment of hypoglycemia are indicated.

Which electrolyte abnormality is known to cause ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness? Hypermagnesemia Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Hypercalcemia

Hypokalemia Hypokalemia (low potassium) can result from various metabolic and endocrine disorders. It causes muscle weakness and can cause cervical ventroflexion. Hypokalemic myopathy has been linked with chronic kidney disease and excessive potassium loss (especially in cats). Hypokalemia can also result from osmotic diuresis, correction of acidosis, or insulin-mediated cell uptake that is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis therapy. Some medications can also contribute to hypokalemia, such as furosemide, which causes excess potassium loss in the urine. Other causes include inadequate potassium intake in the diet, gastrointestinal loss, and hereditary causes; also it is often seen in cases of hepatic lipidosis.

A urine sample with a specific gravity of less than 1.008 is considered to be which of the following? -Hyposthenuric -Isosthenuric -Hypersthenuric -Normosthenuric

Hyposthenuric The correct answer is hyposthenuric. Urine samples between 1.008-1.012 are considered isosthenuric. Samples greater than 1.012 are hypersthenuric. Normal canine urine ranges from approximately 1.015-1.045.

What is the most frequently observed side effect associated with acepromazine use in geldings? Paraphimosis Arrhythmias Hypotension Seizures

Hypotension The correct answer is hypotension. Acepromazine will reliably cause hypotension. Acepromazine may cause paraphimosis in male horses, but this is uncommon. However, due to the risk of paraphimosis, many veterinarians will not use acepromazine on stallions. Acepromazine actually has anti-arrhythmogenic properties. Acepromazine does reduce the seizure threshold, but seizures are not as common as hypotension.

A 5-year-old female spayed Shih Tzu presents to your emergency hospital with a several-day history of vomiting and diarrhea. On presentation, she is dehydrated with pale and dry mucous membranes and a prolonged capillary refill time. Her heart rate is 220 bpm, and she has weak femoral pulses. What type of shock is she in? Cardiogenic shock Anaphylactic shock Hypovolemic shock Distributive shock

Hypovolemic shock Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a critical reduction in intravascular volume (severe dehydration, hemorrhage, third-space loss). The decrease in intravascular volume (preload) results in a decrease in stroke volume and subsequently cardiac output, which will eventually result in decreased tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Cardiogenic shock is the result of a decrease in myocardial contractility with subsequent decrease in oxygen delivery. It is always associated with primary heart disease. Distributive or vasogenic shock is typically secondary to sepsis and anaphylactic reaction, causing vasodilatation.

During calving, the rupture of the umbilical cord before birth causes which of the following? Fetal sepsis Septic peritonitis in the cow Hypoxia in the calf Hyperemia in the calf

Hypoxia in the calf Hypoxia is inadequate tissue oxygenation. The umbilical cord supplies oxygen from the mother's blood to the calf, therefore, if the umbilical cord ruptures, the calf will not receive oxygen and it is a life threatening emergency. Hyperemia is the increase of blood flow to different tissues in the body. Sepsis is caused by infection and does not result from a ruptured umbilical cord.

What is the causative agent of what is commonly known as "Ich" in fish? Ichthyophthirius multifiliis Ichthyophthirius multifilementum Ichthyophthirius multocida Ichthyophthirius magnum

Ichthyophthirius multifiliis The correct answer is Ichthyophthirius multifiliis, a protozoan ectoparasite. The other answers are simply tricky distractors.

Upon examining this 7 year old female spayed Dachshund, you notice her mucous membrane color is abnormal. What term would your write in the medical record to describe your findings? Hemoptysis Cyanosis Hyperemic Icterus

Icterus Icterus, or jaundice, is the yellowing of the mucous membranes, skin, or sclera. It is often seen in patients with liver dysfunction or immune mediated hemolytic anemia. Cyanosis is the blue, purple, or grey tinge seen in the mucous membranes of patients with low oxygen levels. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood or blood tinged fluid. Hyperemic mucous membranes are bright or brick red and are usually caused by sepsis, allergic reactions, or shock.

What immunoglobulin is the only one to pass through the human placenta, thereby providing protection to the fetus in utero? -IgM -IgG -IgE -IgD -IgA

IgG Antibodies come in different varieties and differ in their biological properties, functional locations, and ability to deal with different antigens. IgG is the only class of antibody to cross the placenta from mother to fetus; it is also the most abundant of all antibodies.

When is the optimal time to clean surgical instruments? 24 hours after surgery 15 minutes after surgery Immediately after surgery 1 hour after surgery

Immediately after surgery Surgical instruments should be cleaned immediately after surgery. This will help to prevent blood and other residue from drying onto the instruments, which would make them more difficult to clean later. In addition, immediate cleaning and drying helps decrease the occurrence of staining, corrosion, and pitting.

Where is the subcutaneous tissue in relation to the dermis? Immediately below the dermis The subcutaneous tissue runs within the dermis Two layers above the dermis Immediately above the dermis

Immediately below the dermis The epidermis is the outermost later of the skin. This is followed by the dermis. Underneath the dermis lies the subcutaneous tissue.

Colostrum provides passive immunity to the neonate because it is rich in which of the following? Antigens Electrolytes Folate Immunoglobulins

Immunoglobulins Immunoglobulins are antibodies that are essential to the neonate to protect against infections.

The movement of fluid from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration across a semi-permeable membrane is called: Mitosis Diuresis Meiosis Osmosis

In chemistry, osmosis is the movement of solute molecules through a semi-permeable membrane to an area of higher solute concentration. Net movement of solvent occurs from the less concentrated (hypotonic) to the more concentrated (hypertonic) solution to help equalize the concentration on either side of the membrane.

What causes Metabolic Bone Disease (MBD) in tortoises? Improper calcium/phosphorus ratio Warm temperature UVB light A diet mostly of fresh greens Sun exposure

Improper calcium/phosphorus ratio If the dietary calcium is too low, it will cause malformation and softening of bones with deformed shells (called pyramiding). Typical tortoise diets are low in calcium and high in phosphorus, hence the need for most tortoises to receive a calcium supplement. Too much calcium or over-supplementation may cause zinc, copper, and iodine deficiency, and could lead to bladder stones. If the temperature is too low, it will hinder the ability to digest food properly. UVB light or natural sunlight is needed to absorb and metabolize calcium. There are other factors that contribute to MBD, but improper care and diet are the main factors.

This New Caledonian Giant Gecko (Rhacodactylus leachianus) is suffering from dysecdysis. What is the major cause of this abnormality in captivity? Excessive vitamin A supplementation Excessive dietary phosphorus supplementation Improper humidity Improper UVB lighting

Improper humidity Especially in climates with very low ambient humidity, reptiles kept in an improper humidity range will often have difficulties with normal ecdysis. Owners may need to provide a "humidity box" to give these animals an area with increased humidity to help with shedding. Excessive dietary phosphorus supplementation may sometimes cause excessive bone formation or renal mineralization, but rarely is a direct cause of dysecdysis. Improper UVB lighting may affect normal calcium metabolism but does not directly relate to normal shedding. Signs of hypervitaminosis A include epidermal necrosis and sloughing. Generally, there are other skin lesions present in addition to dysecdysis (if present).

Prior to placement of an endotracheal tube, you measure the tube so you know how far in to place it. Where should your measurement be? Just in front of the first rib In between the larynx and the thoracic inlet To the caudal point of the mandible Just past the point of the larynx

In between the larynx and the thoracic inlet The tube should be pre-measured to be placed midway between the larynx and the thoracic inlet.

You have assisted with multiple biopsies on a pet. You are asked to package up the samples for submission. You have taken several samples including GI tract, liver, and skin. What is the best way to package these? In 0.9% saline with a 5:1 ration of saline to tissue In formalin with a 10:1 ratio of formalin to tissue In a sterile container with no additives In isopropyl alcohol enough to cover over the tissue

In formalin with a 10:1 ratio of formalin to tissue Formalin is used to preserve the integrity of the cells for biopsy. A 10:1 ratio of formalin to tissue is recommended.

Where would you find pia mater? Under the tongue In the lining of the urinary bladder In the brain Inside the ear canals

In the brain Pia mater, arachnoid, and dura mater are the three layers of the meninges of the brain. The meninges cover the brain and spinal cord and thus are found in the central nervous system.

You are reading a report from an oncologist and read that the popliteal lymph nodes were enlarged. Where are these nodes located? Inside each thigh at the inguinal area At the chest area over the pectoral muscles On either side of the neck just under the jaw rostral to the salivary glands In the caudal portion of the hindlimbs at the level of the stifle and back of the thigh

In the caudal portion of the hindlimbs at the level of the stifle and back of the thigh The popliteal nodes are located on the back of the thigh just caudal to the stifle. The pre-scapular nodes are located at the chest over the pectoral muscles. The mandibular nodes are located under the jaw rostral to the salivary glands. The inguinal nodes are located inside each thigh at the inguinal region.

You are reading a report from an oncologist and read that the popliteal lymph nodes were enlarged. Where are these nodes located? In the caudal portion of the hindlimbs at the level of the stifle and back of the thigh On either side of the neck just under the jaw rostral to the salivary glands Inside each thigh at the inguinal area At the chest area over the pectoral muscles

In the caudal portion of the hindlimbs at the level of the stifle and back of the thigh The popliteal nodes are located on the back of the thigh just caudal to the stifle. The pre-scapular nodes are located at the chest over the pectoral muscles. The mandibular nodes are located under the jaw rostral to the salivary glands. The inguinal nodes are located inside each thigh at the inguinal region.

Where is the thymus located? In the abdomen just above the kidneys Ventral neck region In the cranial mediastinum in the chest In the brain

In the cranial mediastinum in the chest The thymus is an immune organ located in the mediastinum. It extends from the thoracic inlet to the pericardium upon which it is molded. The thyroid gland is located in the ventral neck region. The adrenal glands are located just above the kidneys. The hypothalamus is located in the brain.

In the typical life cycle of the flea (i.e. Ctenocephalides felis), where does the larva pupate and form into the adult flea? In a tapeworm intermediate host In the environment (off of the host) On the surface of the host animal In the gastrointestinal tract of the host animal

In the environment (off of the host) In the flea life cycle, the adult female feeds, mates, and lays eggs on the host, but the eggs are smooth and usually fall off into the environment, often where the host typically lies down. After several days to weeks, the eggs hatch into larvae that feed on skin debris or other organic matter in the environment and then create a cocoon and pupate. The pupa then develops over 10 days or can remain in the environment considerably longer before emerging as an adult flea. This fact is important because this is why treating the host for fleas is not enough to eradicate a flea problem, as the environment is frequently contaminated and can re-infest the host after treatment.

In the typical life cycle of the flea (i.e. Ctenocephalides felis), where does the larva pupate and form into the adult flea? In the gastrointestinal tract of the host animal On the surface of the host animal In a tapeworm intermediate host In the environment (off of the host)

In the environment (off of the host) In the flea life cycle, the adult female feeds, mates, and lays eggs on the host, but the eggs are smooth and usually fall off into the environment, often where the host typically lies down. After several days to weeks, the eggs hatch into larvae that feed on skin debris or other organic matter in the environment and then create a cocoon and pupate. The pupa then develops over 10 days or can remain in the environment considerably longer before emerging as an adult flea. This fact is important because this is why treating the host for fleas is not enough to eradicate a flea problem, as the environment is frequently contaminated and can re-infest the host after treatment.

What does the word anhidrosis mean? Hidden disease Without tears Lack of drinking Inability to sweat

Inability to sweat The cause is unknown, but some horses lack the ability to sweat. This condition in known as anhidrosis. Keep horses with anhidrosis as cool as possible during hot or humid weather. Use of mist, sponging, fans, shade or stall rest can be helpful during exposure to heat.

Which of the following is expected from a positive inotropic drug? Dramatic decrease blood pressure Prevention of arrhythmias Increase in cardiac contractility Decrease in adrenal gland stimulation

Increase in cardiac contractility Positive inotropes mostly work by making more calcium available to the muscle and thus increase cardiac contractility. Digoxin is a positive inotrope and acts by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump of the cells. Toxicity can cause arrhythmias and a slow heart rate. It should be avoided or used with extreme caution in patients with renal disease or hypokalemia because it increases the risk of toxicosis.

Which of the following is a classic symptom of pyometra? Increased drinking and urinating Seizures Syncope Hives

Increased drinking and urinating Pyometra is an infection in which the uterus fills with pus. It is most commonly caused by E. coli. It is an emergency in which ovariohysterectomy must be performed. Clinical symptoms include decreased appetite, lethargy, fever, and polyuria/polydipsia.

Which of the following may be a sign of pain in dogs? Hypotension Increased heart rate Vomiting Decreased respiratory rate

Increased heart rate Signs of pain can include increased heart and respiratory rates, increased panting, trembling, whimpering, etc. Pain would likely make the blood pressure go up, not cause hypotension. Pain is not likely to cause vomiting in dogs.

Which of the following is characteristic of an animal in shock? Decreased heart rate Increased blood pressure Normal temperature Increased heart rate

Increased heart rate Typical signs of shock in general are pale gums, increased heart rate, and low blood pressure. Frequently, body temperature is low; however in septic shock, the temperature can be high and the gums brick red in color.

Oscillometric or Doppler equipment is a way of measuring what parameter? Oxygen saturation Blood glucose Hematocrit Central Venous Pressure Indirect blood pressure

Indirect blood pressure Oscillometric and Doppler machines measure indirect blood pressure and are often used in the clinical setting. These methods are non-invasive and easy to perform. (The Dinamap is an example of an oscillometric machine.) Direct blood pressure measurements are taken when an animal has an arterial line in place; they are typically used only in patients that are critical and undergoing major surgery.

If the kidney has a drop in blood flow and a part of the kidney dies, what would this area be termed? Diuretic Azotemic Infarcted Dialyzed

Infarcted An infarct is an area of necrosis due to a local lack of oxygen from due to a disturbance in blood flow to the area. In the kidneys, this is termed renal infarct.

Which of the following delays wound healing? Infection Jagged edges Bed of granulation tissue Increased blood supply

Infection Bacteria and inflammation from infection cause direct cellular damage. This can cause separation of tissues, which leads to infection and delays healing time. Granulation tissue is a normal part of healing unless it becomes exuberant. Other factors which delay healing include corticosteroid administration or immunosuppression, poor blood supply, and hypoproteinemia.

A dog has a high fever, is lethargic, and is diagnosed with peritonitis. What does this dog have? Inflammation of the internal abdominal lining Fluid in the pericardial sac around the heart Inflammation of the pleura A ruptured bladder

Inflammation of the internal abdominal lining The peritoneum is a membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. It also covers most of the abdominal organs. The peritoneum helps support the organs and helps to facilitate blood and lymph flow to these organs. Peritonitis is inflammation ("itis") of the peritoneum. The most common causes of peritonitis include infection (such as a leak in the GI tract or a ruptured gall bladder). In cats, FIP causes a viral peritonitis. Fluid in the pericardial sac is termed pericardial effusion. The pleura is the tissue that protects the lungs.

The clinical condition of "founder" in the horse refers to what? Inflammation of the laminae of the equine hoof and subsequent rotation of the third phalanx Inflammation of the distal sesamoid bone of the hoof and subsequent crushing of the bone Inflammation of the coronary band of the hoof and subsequent abscess formation Inflammation of the laminar joint of the hoof and subsequent lameness

Inflammation of the laminae of the equine hoof and subsequent rotation of the third phalanx Founder, also known as laminitis, is a severe and debilitating disease of the equine hoof that results from inflammation of the interdigitations (laminae) between the hoof and the 3rd phalanx, causing rotation of the bone.

Which of the following correctly defines the term stomatitis? Inflammation of the tongue Inflammation of the region housing the tonsils Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone

Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces Stomatitis describes inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces. It can be subdivided by region, such as buccal stomatitis (inflammation of the cheek mucosa). Inflammation of the tongue is known as glossitis. Inflammation of the glossopalatine folds around the area housing the tonsil is known as faucitis. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone fall under the category of periodontitis.

What is the etiology of Clostridium botulinum, the toxin that causes botulism in cattle? Ingestion Contamination of deep puncture wounds Direct contact Trauma

Ingestion C. botulinum is found in decomposing plants and animals, and toxins are produced in the decaying material. The most common source of the toxin for cattle is feed contaminated by carcasses of mice and birds. Botulism is characterized by a progressive muscle weakness (paralysis). Affected animals may be weak, stagger about, or go down. Cattle characteristically display flaccid paralysis and occasionally protrusion of the tongue.

A 2-year old dachshund presents with acute urticaria and facial swelling. Which of the following would be a most likely cause for this presentation Drug eruption Insect sting Flea allergy dermatitis Contact dermatitis

Insect sting While any of these choices may cause hives, the most common cause for an acute reaction such as this is an insect bite or sting. This patient should be assessed and treated for an allergic reaction, which most often includes administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and dexamethasone. Epinephrine may be used in cases of anaphylaxis when the patient is collapsed in a state of shock.

Which of the following is most appropriate when placing a urinary catheter in a dog or cat? Do not use lubrication, as this can irritate the inside of the urethra Insert the catheter until urine flows, then advance 1 cm further and secure Insert the catheter until resistance is met Insert the catheter no more than 3 inches in any pet, whether urine flows or not

Insert the catheter until urine flows, then advance 1 cm further and secure A sterile urinary catheter should always be used and coated in sterile lube. Sterile gloves should also be worn. Contaminants around the prepuce should be cleaned away with a gentle scrub. The catheter should be advanced until urine flows then 1 additional centimeter before securing in place. Placing the catheter until resistance is met can cause damage or irritation to the bladder wall, as well as cause bleeding, and can cause the catheter to loop back on itself.

Where are the anal sacs located? In the large intestine just caudal to the cecum Inside the anus at the 4 and 8 o'clock positions Inside the anus at the 12 and 6 o'clock positions The dorsal external anus region

Inside the anus at the 4 and 8 o'clock positions Anal sacs (also referred to as anal glands) are located just inside the anus at the 4 and 8 o'clock positions. Many dogs have difficulty expressing these sacs, which should normally occur during a bowel movement. Thus, manual expression is needed and is a procedure frequently provided by technicians. A symptom of full or irritated anal sacs is scooting or licking the rear end.

An anthelmintic is used for treating which of the following? Mange Intestinal parasites Ticks Fleas

Intestinal parasites Anthelmintics are drugs used for expulsion of intestinal worms. Ivermectin, praziquantel, fenbendazole, pyrantel, etc. are a few examples of anthelmintics.

You have a small canine patient in cardiac arrest that needs emergency drugs. The animal does not have venous access, and placing a venous catheter would be too difficult and take too long. What is the best way to get the drugs to this animal quickly? Intracardiac injection Subcutaneous injection Intraosseous catheter Intramuscular injection

Intraosseous catheter An intraosseous catheter or spinal needle can easily be placed in the trochanteric fossa of the femur for vascular access. The marrow has a similar rate of absorption as venous catheters allowing for quick delivery of drugs and fluids. Intracardiac injection presents high potential hazards such as inducing fibrillation and pneumothorax. Subcutaneous injections are very slowly absorbed and would not be a good option for this patient. Intramuscular injection would not be effective because of the length of time the drugs would require to reach circulation.

A very tiny kitten presents with severe dehydration and is hardly responsive to handling. You are unable to place a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following routes could be used as a fast or most efficient way of administering fluids and medications to such a small animal? Intraperitoneal Subcutaneous Intraosseus Orogastric tube

Intraosseus Intraosseus fluid administration is delivery of fluid directly into the bone/bone marrow. It can be very beneficial and life saving in a tiny animal with poor peripheral veins when a catheter cannot be placed. Intraperitoneal means inside the abdominal cavity; this route has very slow absorption. Oral/orogastric absorption is very slow, especially in an animal that is obtunded; this may put the patient at an increased risk for aspiration. Subcutaneous fluid administration could be used but may be poorly absorbed in a patient this dehydrated and is not the most efficient.

A 2-year old male Golden Retriever has been brought to your facility in cardiac arrest. Obtaining intravenous access will be extremely difficult due to degloving injuries on all legs and additional trauma to the head and neck. What alternate route would be the first choice for atropine and epinephrine administration? Intramuscular Intratracheal Subcutaneous Intracardiac Rectal

Intratracheal Both atropine and epinephrine can be administered via the endotracheal tube (intratracheal). Three times the intravenous dose must be administered. Intracardiac administration can be used; however, it would not be the first alternate choice as significant cardiac trauma can be caused. Subcutaneous and intramuscular administration both are too slow for resuscitation drugs as it can take up to 30 minutes for drugs to reach the blood stream via these routes. Rectal administration of these medications is not beneficial.

During an emergency you are assisting with CPCR. What is the best way listed to administer the drugs (atropine, epinephrine, and lidocaine)? You are unable to place an IV catheter despite multiple attempts. Intraperitoneal Subcutaneously Via stomach tube Intratracheally

Intratracheally Drugs are rapidly absorbed via the intratracheal route. Establishing an airway is the second step (see below) in CPCR, so a polypropylene urinary catheter or red rubber feeding tube can be placed inside the endotracheal tube; the drug can then be injected through the tube followed with several mLs of sterile saline to help with distribution. The other methods listed are not appropriate for administration of emergency drugs as they would be absorbed at a very slow rate and absorbed very poorly due to poor circulation during cardiac arrest. *Establishing an airway was previously the first step in CPCR. However, the current guidlines put "Circulation" above "Airway", so that chest compressions are to be started immediately even prior to placing the endotracheal tube. (Obviously the endotracheal tube needs to also be placed ASAP)

Which of the following routes of administration would give a drug the highest bioavailability? Intramuscular Intravenous Oral Subcutaneous

Intravenous Absorption of a drug is the movement of the drug from the site of administration into the systemic circulation. The route of administration directly affects how bioavailable the drug is. When a drug is given IV (intravenous), there is no absorption phase because it is injected directly into the systemic circulation. So drugs given IV have 100% bioavailability. Drugs given intramuscularly (IM) have a high bioavailability as well, but not as high as the IV route. Drugs given subcutaneously (SQ) and orally (P.O.) must pass several barriers and thus will usually have a lower bioavailability.

Which route of drug administration usually allows for the most rapid onset of action? Oral Intravenous Intramuscular Subcutaneous

Intravenous Drugs given IV have the most rapid onset of action, highest initial drug levels, and shortest duration of activity.

The doctor tells you that a medication is only to be given parenterally. A parenteral drug is given via which route? Intravenous Rectally Topically Orally

Intravenous Parenteral means administration NOT via the gastrointestinal tract (not orally or rectally). Parenteral drugs are given via injection. Intravenous, subcutaneous, and intramuscular injections are all parenteral routes of administration. In the strictest sense of the word, inhalation or topical applications could be considered parenteral since they are not given through the GI tract, but they are generally not regarded as such.

How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administered? Jejunostomy tube Esophagostomy tube PEG tube Intravenous

Intravenous Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is feeding exclusively intravenously, bypassing the GI tract. It is very useful in cases when animals are unable to eat or will not eat for an extended time period. The other choices listed are all feeding tubes that enter the GI tract. Esophagostomy tubes go into the esophagus, PEG tubes go into the stomach, and jejunostomy tubes go into the jejunum (intestine).

Two technicians are inducing anesthesia on a cat for an ovariohysterectomy. The veterinarian is not present in the room. The cat becomes apneic. In what order should steps be taken to intervene? The cat should be: Start flow by oxygen, call veterinarian Call veterinarian and do not start any treatments until the doctor arrives Intubated, manually ventilated with 100% oxygen, veterinarian should be called Intubated, manually ventilated with room air, veterinarian should be called Veterinarian should be called, start on flow by oxygen

Intubated, manually ventilated with 100% oxygen, veterinarian should be called It will take both technicians to properly intubate the patient. It would be suboptimal to wait for a veterinarian to intubate the patient. A patient in imminent danger of respiratory or cardiac arrest should be given life-saving care without delay. 100% oxygen should be used to increase the amount of oxygen available to tissues that have recently been deprived of oxygen. The veterinarian should be called immediately once an airway has been established and manual ventilation has commenced.

A 6-month old puppy has presented to the hospital with a history of severe straining to defecate. A fecal float identifies a severe parasitic infection. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, and the doctor identified that one of the loops of intestine was telescoping into another segment of intestine. What is this called? Intussusception Hydrometra Strangulation Evisceration

Intussusception This question is describing an envagination of intestine into an adjacent segment of intestine. The part which prolapses into the other is called the intussusceptum, and the part which receives it is called the intussuscipiens. Evisceration refers to the removal of organs from body, usually from the abdomen. A hydrometra is the word used to describe fluid in the uterus. If the uterus were filled with pus, it would be referred to as a pyometra. Strangulation of a loop of intestine results in a point of constriction which then impedes circulation.

Which toxicity is not a common concern in cattle? Aspergillus toxicosis Salt toxicity Lead toxicity Iron toxicity

Iron toxicity Iron toxicity is most common in newborn pigs. Aspergillus toxicosis is caused by moldy feed. Salt toxicity is caused by consumption of excessive salt and lack of adequate amounts of water. Lead toxicity is associated with seeding and harvesting activities when used oil and battery disposal from machinery is handled improperly.

Your dog's histopathology results have arrived and show an adenoma. What is true about an adenoma? Is always easy to excise and small in nature Is not malignant Is frequently life-threatening Does not cause morbidity

Is not malignant Benign tumors are not cancerous. There are many large benign tumors that are difficult to remove or are inoperable that can cause the patient serous morbidity. Just because a lesion is not cancerous does not mean that it will not be large or problematic for the pet.

A dog is hit by a car and presents in a Schiff-Sherrington posture. Which is true regarding this condition? It causes paralysis of the hindlimbs It is caused by a brain lesion, usually from trauma It causes hindlimb hypertonicity The lesion is located at C1-C5 It causes forelimb paralysis

It causes paralysis of the hindlimbs The Schiff-Sherrington response is an autonomic reflex that is seen when the animal is in lateral recumbency (lying on its side). The propriospinal tract in the T3 to L3 spinal cord is damaged in this condition, and the forelimbs exhibit extensor hypertonicity (they are stiff). The forelimbs are not paralyzed but, when left alone, will extend. Also, paralysis caudal to the lesion is often seen (hindlimbs are paralyzed). If both forelimb extensor hypertonicity and hindlimb paralysis are seen, it is generally due to a very severe spinal cord injury described as causing Schiff-Sherrington posture.

What does polyvalent mean when talking about a vaccine? It has no adjuvant added It contains multiple antigens It provides immunity for greater than 3 years It may be given to multiple species

It contains multiple antigens A polyvalent vaccine contains multiple antigens. The DHPPC-L vaccine is one example of a polyvalent vaccine and, as such, it contains antigens for distemper, hepatitis, parainfluenza, parvo, corona, and leptospirosis.

The dog penis differs from that of other animals in what way? It has spiny epithelial projections It is composed of tiny suction cups at the tip It has a non-articulating bone known as the os penis It is composed of erectile tissue

It has a non-articulating bone known as the os penis Dogs have a non-articulating bone known as the os penis. Cats have spiny epithelial projections on their penis that give them a "barbed" look. All animals have some degree of erectile tissue in their penis. The dog and stallion penis mostly consist of erectile tissue and very little connective tissue. This is in contrast to the ram, boar, and bull, all of which have more connective tissue and very little erectile tissue.

Why should an NSAID and a corticosteroid never be given together? It prevents absorption of nutrients from the intestine It causes profound sedation It causes PU/PD It increases risk of serious GI ulceration

It increases risk of serious GI ulceration Giving an NSAID and steroid together puts an animal at a very high risk for an ulcer which could perforate. This is when a hole is created in the intestine and intestinal contents leak into the abdomen, causing peritonitis. This is a very severe condition which can lead to death.

Which of the following correctly describes a "surgeon's knot" which may be used to close tissues where tension makes it difficult to apply a regular square knot? It involves passing one strand through the loop twice on the first throw When applied correctly, it results in moderate inversion of the tissue It is an alternative term used to describe a half-hitch knot It is a continuous pattern

It involves passing one strand through the loop twice on the first throw A surgeon's knot is produced by passing one strand through the loop twice on the first throw of a square knot. It is for closure of tissues where tension on the tissues makes it difficult to apply a regular square knot. A surgeons knot can be used with many different suture patterns including interrupted sutures or the first or last knot of a continuous pattern. It can also be used with inverting or everting patterns, but the knot itself does not cause inversion or eversion. A half-hitch is a different type of knot that can be used to slide a knot down a suture line (i.e. toward a pedicle).

The doctor hands you a written prescription for spironolactone and asks you to give it to a client while they are checking out. The client asks you to remind her what this medication is for again, and you reply that: It is an anti-inflammatory for her pet's post-operative pain It is a steroid inhibitor used for treating Cushing's disease It is a corticosteroid used for treating Addison's disease It is a diuretic for her pet's congestive heart failure

It is a diuretic for her pet's congestive heart failure Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist and a potassium sparing diuretic used as an adjunctive treatment for heart failure. If furosemide is not enough to control the pulmonary edema, sometimes spironolactone is added on as an additional diuretic to keep fluid out of the lungs.

A six month old Collie comes into your clinic for a technician exam and deworming. What antiparasitic drug should be used with caution in this breed? Pyrantel pamoate Ivermectin Sulfadimethoxine Fenbendazole Propofol

Ivermectin Collies, Australian Shepherds,and Shelties have a greater sensitivity to Ivermectin thought to be caused by a greater permeability in the blood-to-brain barrier. These breeds may show symptoms of toxicity even at therapeutic doses.

A Yorkie is presenting for a bile acids test and has been fasted. Which of the following is true regarding a bile acids test? -It is a measure of liver function -It is a measure of adrenal function -It is a measure of kidney function -Fasting is not necessary for this test -It involves drawing a blood sample, giving a cosyntropin injection, and drawing another blood sample 1 hour after the injection

It is a measure of liver function A bile acids test is a measure of liver function. It requires fasting. A blood sample is drawn. The animal is then fed, and another sample is drawn 2 hours after feeding. The Cortrosyn (cosyntropin) injection protocol describes an ACTH stimulation test which is a measure of adrenal gland function, testing for Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism) or Addison's (hypoadrenocorticism).

What is the cause of hip dysplasia? Breed conformation Genetics Environment It is a multifactorial disease Poor diet

It is a multifactorial disease Hip dysplasia is multifactorial. Many things such as genetics, environment, nutrition, and breed conformation play a role in the disease. Therefore, the treatment is often multi-modal. This may include an exercise plan, special diet, supplements for cartilage protection, anti-inflammatories, surgery, and/or other treatments.

Which is true of "red bag" during birth in the mare? It indicates a breech position of the foal, and assistance for delivery is needed It indicates a tear of the uterus, and a c-section needs to be performed immediately It is a protrusion of the chorioallantois and is an emergency It is the appearance of a normal placenta as the mare is giving birth

It is a protrusion of the chorioallantois and is an emergency Red bag is a protrusion of the chorioallantois and indicates premature placental separation. It is an emergency situation in which the chorioallantois needs to be broken down manually to assist in delivery of the foal, or death of the foal can occur.

Which is true regarding epinephrine? It is a sympathomimetic It makes the blood pressure drop It may cause a low blood sugar It causes bradycardia

It is a sympathomimetic A sympathomimetic mimics the sympathetic nervous system. Epinephrine is also "adrenaline"; this stimulates the fight-or-flight response. When adrenaline spikes, heart rate increases, blood pressure jumps, etc. It may cause an increase in the blood sugar (hyperglycemia).

Which of the following is NOT true concerning a penrose drain? It is a soft, thin-walled, collapsible, latex rubber tube Fluid drains around the penrose tube, not through it It is a passive drain It is also referred to as a closed suction drain

It is also referred to as a closed suction drain The penrose drain is a passive drain composed of soft, thin-walled latex. The drain is placed so that the fluid within the site will drain around the outside of the drain, not through it. A closed suction drain is an active drain that sucks fluid from the wound site into a reservoir bulb.

Which of the following is true of the liver? It does not have the ability to regenerate It makes and stores glucose It produces amylase for digestion It is the only source for alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

It makes and stores glucose Glucose comes from liver production and from the GI tract when food is absorbed. The liver helps to break down fats, converts glucose to glycogen, produces urea (the main substance of urine), makes some amino acids, filters harmful substances from the blood, stores vitamins and minerals (vitamins A, D, K and B12) and maintains a proper level of glucose in the blood. The liver also produces cholesterol, albumin, bile, and coagulation factors. Amylase comes from the pancreas and also from saliva. The main sources of ALP are the liver and bone, but smaller amounts can be found in the intestine and kidney. Liver cells can regenerate.

Water comes from the ultrasonic scaler for which purpose? It smoothes the surface of the tooth It prevents dulling of the instrument It helps cool the instrument tip It prevents introduction of bacteria into the gumline

It prevents dulling of the instrument It helps cool the instrument tip The ultrasonic scaler uses water to cool the instrument tip and to flush debris from the tooth as it is scaled away. By cooling the instrument tip, the water helps to prevent thermal damage to the tooth. The polisher is the instrument used to help smooth the tooth surface.

A 5-year old feline presents after being hit by a car. The veterinarian wants you to administer mannitol intravenously. For what reason was mannitol chosen as a therapy? It increases respiratory rate It increases blood flow to the heart and lungs via peripheral vasoconstriction It reduces intracranial pressure It is a pain medication It helps to prevent GI ischemia

It reduces intracranial pressure Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and reduces acute increases in intracranial pressure. The veterinarian suspects head trauma has been sustained. Mannitol does not protect the GI tract from damage nor does it provide any pain control. It is not a pressor and therefore does not cause peripheral vasoconstriction.

You find Otodectes cynotis in an ear swab you prepared for a kitten that has been scratching her ears and has dark coffee ground looking debris in them. What could be used to treat this? Fluconazole Ivermectin Albon Clavamox

Ivermectin 0.01% can be applied topically to the ears to treat ear mites. Fluconazole is an anti-fungal that would be effective against Malassezia (yeast). Clavamox would be beneficial for a bacterial ear infection. Albon is used to treat coccidia (an intestinal parasite).

What is the name of the tick that is the primary vector for transmitting the bacteria which causes Lyme Disease? Rhipicephalus sanguineus Amblyomma americanum Dermacentor andersoni Ixodes scapularis Dermacentor variabilis

Ixodes scapularis Lyme Disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi (a spirochete bacteria) and is transmitted by Ixodes (Deer Tick). It may cause fatigue, lameness, decreased appetite, and depression. The pet may not show symptoms until months after infection. Rhipicephalus (Brown Dog Tick) transmits Ehrlichia canis and prefers warmer climates. Dermacentor variabilis (American Dog Tick) and Dermacentor andersoni (Rocky Mountain Wood Tick) are known for transmitting Rickettsia rickettsii, which causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Amblyomma (Lone Star Tick) transmits Ehrlichia chaffeensis, which causes Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis. It has also been implicated in other diseases.

Of the choices below, which tick is correctly matched with the corresponding disease transmitted? Rhiphacephalus, Lyme disease Ixodes, Ehrlichia Ixodes, Lyme disease Dermacentor, Ehrlichia

Ixodes, Lyme disease The correct tick to rickettsial disease pairs: Rhiphacephalus (brown dog tick), Ehrlichia Ixodes (deer tick), Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) Dermacentor, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)

In which part of the intestinal tract is nutrient absorption the greatest? Jejunum Duodenum Colon Ileum

Jejunum The jejunum is the longest portion of the small intestine and is the site of the most nutrient absorption.

You are asked to assist the doctor with an intra-articular injection. Where will the injection be given? Middle-ear Under the skin Jugular Joint Bone

Joint Articular means joint. An intra-articular injection is given into the joint space. Jugular would be intra-venous. Bone would be intra-osseous. Under the skin would be subcutaneous.

An 8-year old cat suffering from intestinal lymphoma has been prescribed TPN. Which of the following is necessary for the administration of TPN? Cephalic catheter Esophagostomy tube A-line Subcutaneous catheter Jugular catheter

Jugular catheter TPN stands for total parenteral nutrition. TPN solutions contain 10% (or greater) dextrose and must be given in a central catheter to avoid phlebitis. TPN solutions cannot be administered through peripheral catheters. Medications should never be injected into A-lines.

What is the most commonly used location for intravenous catheters in horses? Jugular vein Saphenous vein Lateral thoracic vein Cephalic vein Facial vein

Jugular vein The facial vein is relatively small and would be difficult to catheterize. It would also be difficult to maintain in place. The remaining answers are all possible locations to place an IV catheter, with the jugular being the most common. It is a large bore, easily-catheterized vein that allows administration of large volumes of fluid. Veins on the limbs can be catheterized but can also be difficult to maintain because of limb movement. The lateral thoracic vein is difficult to catheterize in some overweight horses but can still be placed.

When assisting with a forelimb declaw, it is helpful to place a tourniquet to help control hemorrhage. Where should the tourniquet be placed? Directly around the digit upon which the surgeon is working Just distal to the elbow Over the proximal humerus Just proximal to the elbow

Just distal to the elbow The optimal placement of the tourniquet is just below or distal to the elbow. Placing the tourniquet above the elbow can result in damage to the radial nerve, which will result in an inability for the patient to use the limb if the damage is permanent. Placing the tourniquet around the digit is unpractical and cumbersome.

Which of the following drugs can induce muscle rigidity, or a cataleptic state, during anesthesia? Ketamine Propofol Diazepam Acepromazine

Ketamine Catalepsy can be caused by ketamine and morphine. Ketamine (a dissociative anesthetic) is usually given along with diazepam (Valium) to counteract the muscle rigidity it causes. Ketamine can also result in increased intracranial pressure. Diazepam causes muscle relaxation. Acepromazine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer. Propofol is an anesthetic induction agent that is a hypnotic and does not cause catalepsy.

Which of the following sedative or anesthetic drugs would NOT frequently cause hypotension (low blood pressure)? Propofol Isoflurane Ketamine Acepromazine

Ketamine Ketamine's effects on the cardiovascular system include increased cardiac output, increased heart rate, and increased blood pressure. These cardiovascular effects are secondary to increased sympathetic tone. Isoflurane and other inhalant gases can cause profound hypotension. Acepromazine and propofol also very commonly cause hypotension.

Erythropoetin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone produced mainly by the: Bone marrow Kidney Pituitary Spleen

Kidney EPO is produced mainly by peritubular fibroblasts of the renal cortex. It is a cytokine for red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow. This is partly why animals with chronic renal failure become anemic. The kidneys are no longer able to make EPO efficiently.

Where would you find the Loop of Henle? Heart Ear Liver Kidney

Kidney The Loop of Henle is located in the kidney and is part of the nephron. The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney.

An owner has an elderly cat that has developed significant arthritis. She previously used meloxicam (Metacam) for her dog when he had arthritis. She would like to know if the doctor may prescribe the same medication for her cat. The use of metacam in cats, especially if used beyond a few days, has been known to cause which of the following complications? Acute hepatitis Kidney failure Gastrointestinal ulceration Urinary incontinence

Kidney failure Metacam may cause renal failure in cats. Even though it is still sometimes used post-operatively for a very brief period, risks should be discussed with the owner. For a cat such as this with arthritis, meloxicam is not a good choice for treatment. Any non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication can cause GI ulceration, but renal failure is the most concerning side effect in cats.

The adrenal glands are closest to what other structure? Brain Bladder Kidneys Pancreas Liver

Kidneys The adrenal glands are located right above the kidneys. The bladder sits in the caudal abdomen ventral to the colon. The liver is just caudal to the diaphragm and is the most cranial organ in the abdomen. The right limb of the pancreas runs parallel with the duodenum while the left limb runs along the body of the stomach.

When placing an epidural in a dog or cat, the spinal needle is inserted into the space located between which two vertebrae? L8, S1 L6, L7 L7, S1 L6, S1

L7, S1 There are 7 lumbar vertebrae, when placing an epidural it is done between the seventh lumbar vertebra and the first sacral vertebra.

Which of the following animals would have an increased energy requirement? Lactating Chihuahua A healthy Beagle who was spayed yesterday Geriatric Labrador Retriever Obese Cocker Spaniel

Lactating Chihuahua Energy requirements are lower in geriatric healthy patients because they are typically less active and sometimes have a slower metabolic rate. Any animal that is pregnant or lactating will have a higher energy requirement.

A horse with extended forelimbs and arched and tense back that is painful when turning most likely has which of the following conditions? Laminitis Colic Spinal cord compression Fractured shoulder

Laminitis Laminitis, also known as founder, is a very painful condition in which the lamina in the hoof becomes inflamed. The horse tries to compensate for this pain and postures with an arched back and extended forelimbs in an attempt to take weight off the toes. It is especially painful for the horse when walking or turning on hard surfaces.

A toggle-pin fixation for a luxated hip is going to be performed this afternoon. How will the patient be ultimately positioned for surgery after it is has surgically prepped? Dorsal recumbency Ventral recumbency Lateral recumbency Hanging leg technique

Lateral recumbency A toggle-pin fixation is performed to reduce a luxated hip. This is the most common surgical procedure performed for repair of a luxated hip. The approach is made with a curvilinear incision over the lateral aspect of the coxofemoral joint; it is therefore best to have the patient in lateral recumbency. A hanging leg technique would be performed to aseptically prep the limb prior to surgery, but the limb would not remain in that position for the duration of the surgery and is therefore not the best answer choice.

Castration is a common procedure performed in horses. How is a horse commonly positioned for the procedure? Dorsal recumbency with legs spread wide Dorsal recumbency with legs "hog" tied Lateral recumbency with upper rear leg tied around neck Dorsal recumbency with rear legs positioned cranially

Lateral recumbency with upper rear leg tied around neck The most common position for a horse castration is lateral recumbency with the upper rear leg tied around the neck. It is extremely important to confirm that both testicles are descended prior to heavily sedating the patient for the procedure.

A dog is fractious, and you need to draw blood with the dog laying on its side. You cannot access the front end of the dog. Which vein would be the best for collecting a sample? Auricular vein Lateral saphenous vein Cephalic vein Jugular vein

Lateral saphenous vein The lateral saphenous vein runs along the lateral side of the hindlimb and is most accessible below the stifle just above the tarsus. The other vessels listed are all located at the cranial end of the dog. Auricular is an ear vein; jugular is under the neck; cephalic is located in the forelimb.

When using the ultrasonic cleaner, it is important to do which of the following? Run the clean cycle for at least 27 minutes Scrub the instruments while the ultrasonic cleaner is running Lay the instruments in an open position Add surgical milk to the solution

Lay the instruments in an open position Laying the instruments in an open position will help ensure ultrasonic waves reach all areas of the instrument. Surgical milk should not be mixed in with the cleaner solution. The 10 minute run cycle is typically sufficient to clean the instruments. Scrubbing the instruments while in the ultrasonic cleaner is not necessary. Ideally, the instruments should be rinsed off of any major debris and residue or pre-cleaned prior to being placed in the ultrasonic cleaner.

Which drug treats hypothyroidism? Methimazole Levothyroxine Levofloxacin Theophylline

Levothyroxine Hypothyroidism is the condition of the thyroid being too low. When it is too low, the animal must be supplemented with levothyroxine. Methimazole is the drug used to treat hyperthyroidism (when the thyroid is too high). Radioactive iodine (I-131) also treats hyperthyroidism. Theophylline is a bronchodilator. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) is an antibiotic.

You are at a ranch property and are asked by the vet to tie a horse to a fence. How should the rope be tied? Leave 3 feet of slack and tie the rope level with the horse's fetlock Leave no slack and tie the rope level with the horse's nose Leave 3 feet of slack and tie the rope level with the top of the horse's back Leave 6 to 8 feet of slack and tie the rope level with the top of the horse's back

Leave 3 feet of slack and tie the rope level with the top of the horse's back Tie the rope level with the horse's back or withers (shoulder blade region) and leave approximately 3 feet of slack. Leaving more slack in the rope or tying the rope too low could increase the chances of the horse getting tangled up or injured.

A 3-year old female cow presents with a decreased appetite, decreased manure production, and decreased milk production. She calved three weeks ago and has been less active than normal. You auscultate the GI tract and elicit a pinging noise on the left side of the abdomen. Which of the following emergencies is most likely to be occurring? Left displaced abomasum Right displaced abomasum Mastitis Uterine prolaps

Left displaced abomasum Symptoms of left displaced abomasum include decreased appetite, activity, manure production, and milk production. Eliciting a pinging noise while flicking the abdominal area is an indication of a displaced abomasum. Because the pinging was found on the left, it is most likely a left displaced abomasum.

Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs? Right cranial vena cava Left jugular vein Auricular vein Tail vein

Left jugular vein The phrenic nerve is located near the left exterior jugular vein, so the left side of the neck in general should be avoided in pigs. The right anterior vena cava is a commonly used site to draw blood from pigs. The auricular vein can be used to draw up to 5 mLs of blood. The tail vein and the orbital sinus near the medial canthus of the eye are other sites that can be used to draw small quantities of blood in the pig.

Which drug treats hypothyroidism? Levofloxacin Methimazole Levothyroxine Theophylline

Levothyroxine Hypothyroidism is the condition of the thyroid being too low. When it is too low, the animal must be supplemented with levothyroxine. Methimazole is the drug used to treat hyperthyroidism (when the thyroid is too high). Radioactive iodine (I-131) also treats hyperthyroidism. Theophylline is a bronchodilator. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) is an antibiotic.

The term pediculosis indicates a problem with which of the following? Lice Flies Mites Fleas Worms`

Lice Pediculosis refers to infestation with lice. It does not differentiate between biting and sucking lice. Myiasis is the term for infestation with fly larvae.

When performing a lameness examination in a horse, perineural anesthesia is used to localize the site of lameness. The most common medication used to perform perineural anesthesia in a horse is what drug? Flunixin meglumine Lidocaine Butorphanol Ketamine Phenylbutazone

Lidocaine Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that is used to perform perineural anesthesia during a lameness examination. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic; butorphanol is an opioid analgesic. Flunixin and phenylbutazone are systemically administered analgesics.

A dog is having continuous runs of ventricular premature contractions following splenectomy and they seem to be happening with greater frequency (see image of his electrocardiogram). Which of the following drugs can be used to treat this condition? Pimobendan Epinephrine Lidocaine Atropine

Lidocaine Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) are the most common arrhythmia after GDV or splenectomy surgeries. Treatment of VPCs occurs IF: 1. They continue to occur with increasing frequency 2. The continuous heart rate is greater then 180bpm (in an adult animal) 3. R on T phenomenon is observed 4. There is evidence of decreased or impaired cardiac output- the dog is laterally recumbent and minimally responsive, poor arterial pulses, pulses are not synchronous with heart beats. If any of the above are seen beginning treatment with a lidocaine intravenously is strongly considered. If the VPCs persist, a lidocaine CRI may be necessary for up to 24-48 hours post-operatively. None of the other medications listed treat VPCs.

You are assisting with exams on 1-week old piglets. Which of the following may be used as a method of restraint? Lift the piglet by its rear leg Lift the piglet by its tail Lift the piglet by its snout Lift the piglet by its front leg

Lift the piglet by its rear leg A piglet up to 10 kg may be lifted by a rear leg. Be careful not to swing the piglet by the leg; just lift it so that you may then support the chest with your other hand when moving it. When finished with the exam or procedure, lower the piglet back down so that both front legs have contacted the ground and gently lower the back legs to the ground and release your hold.

When discussing teeth, what is the tooth surface closest to the tongue termed? Frontal Lingual Buccal Gingival

Lingual The lingual side is closest the tongue. The buccal side is closest the cheek.

Which bacteria are known for causing a head tilt and neurologic symptoms in ruminants? Salmonella Listeria Campylobacter E. coli

Listeria Encephalitis is the most readily recognized form of Listeriosis in ruminants and a droopy face or head tilt are frequently observed symptoms. If encephalitis is severe enough, death will typically occur. Encephalitis is treated with high doses of antibiotics. Listeria monocytogenes is a small motile coccobacillus (bacteria) causing neurologic symptoms due to localized lesions in the brainstem. Grazing animals ingest the organism and continue to further contaminate the soil through their feces.

Ketoconazole can cause toxicity most commonly to which of the organs or tissues listed? Retinas Cardiac muscle Liver Pancreas

Liver Ketoconazole can be associated with hepatotoxicity. Liver values should be closely monitored when using this medication. Fluconazole and itraconazole are more widely used because they are less hepatotoxic, but the cost is higher for these medications.

A drug from which of the following categories will cause loss of motor function when administered during an epidural? Local anesthetics (ie; bupivacaine, lidocaine) Opioids (ie; morphine, fentanyl) Corticosteroids (ie; methylprednisolone, dexamethasone) Alpha 2 Agonists (ie; dexmedetomidine, xylazine)

Local anesthetics (ie; bupivacaine, lidocaine) Only local anesthetics cause loss of motor function when used during an epidural. All other categories provide analgesia without loss of sensation.

After parturition, it is normal for the bitch to have a reddish brown vaginal discharge for a few weeks. This discharge is referred to as which of the following? Pyuria Lochia Melena Meconium

Lochia Lochia is the term for the reddish brown discharge following birth. Melena is digested blood in the stool. Meconium is the dark intestinal excretion (first stool essentially) from a newborn. Pyuria is the presence of pus in the urine.

After parturition, it is normal for the bitch to have a reddish brown vaginal discharge for a few weeks. This discharge is referred to as which of the following? Pyuria Meconium Lochia Melena

Lochia is the term for the reddish brown discharge following birth. Melena is digested blood in the stool. Meconium is the dark intestinal excretion (first stool essentially) from a newborn. Pyuria is the presence of pus in the urine.

What is fluoroscein stain used for? Look for a leak at intestinal anastamosis site Look for distichia on an eyelid Check for tear production Look for bacteria in the urine Look for a corneal ulcer

Look for a corneal ulcer Fluoroscein stain is a green/yellow dye placed in the eye to highlight a corneal ulcer or abrasion. It is best seen under a blue light (see image). A Schirmer Tear Test (STT) tests tear production. A distichia is an eyelash that arises from an abnormal spot on the eyelid and can cause a corneal ulcer if it irritates the surface of the eye.

Heart murmurs are often referred to in terms of "grade". What does this refer to? Loudness Rhythm Location Interval

Loudness Murmurs are graded according to the loudness/severity. They are typically graded on a scale of 1 through 6 (with 6 being the loudest). A description of the grades is: Grade 1: very soft murmur, only heard when carefully ausculted Grade 2: soft murmur but is evident Grade 3: moderate murmur but not associated with a palpable vibration/thrill Grade 4: loud murmur but a palpable vibration or thrill is not present or intermittent Grade 5: loud murmur that has a palpable thrill but is not heard when stethoscope is lifted away from the chest Grade 6: loud murmur with palpable thrill and can be heard even when the stethoscope is lifted off the chest

Which diet is the most appropriate for a cat in chronic renal failure? High carbohydrate High protein Low protein Low fat

Low protein To filter and eliminate the by-products of protein digestion (like creatinine), the kidneys must work harder. A diet lower in protein will decrease the workload on the kidneys as they process and eliminate waste products produced during protein metabolism. Many higher protein diets are also higher in phosphorus, which should be restricted in pets with kidney failure. Protein restriction is more important in pets that have proteinuria as a result of renal failure.

Where would you collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from a standing sedated horse? Atlantooccipital space Temporohyoid space Cervical-thoracic space Lumbosacral space

Lumbosacral space There are two sites that are routinely used to collect CSF from horses: the lumbosacral space and the atlantooccipital space. In the standing horse, the lumbosacral space is the only space that can be used. CSF is collected from the atlantooccipital space only in the anesthetized horse.

A kitten presents to the emergency service for burns in the mouth after biting into an electrical cord. Aside from the oral burns, what organ system would you most be concerned about? Lungs Heart Brain Kidneys

Lungs In addition to causing painful burns in the mouth, most pets will develop non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema when electrocuted. The fluid in the lungs can be life threatening and most of these pets will need extended hospitalization with oxygen and careful monitoring.

A shock organ is the organ or tissue that exhibits the most marked response to an allergic reaction. What is the shock organ in the cat? Gastrointestinal tract Heart Liver Lungs

Lungs In the cat, the shock organ is the lungs. In the dog, it is the liver. Both species often also have gastrointestinal involvement (vomiting, diarrhea).

"Grass tetany" may been seen in sheep or goats due to a deficiency in which mineral? Copper Sulfur Magnesium Potassium

Magnesium Magnesium deficiency may lead to "grass tetany" in sheep or goats, and sometimes in cows. It occurs when animals graze on pastures that are low in magnesium, or during lactation when demand for magnesium is higher. Treatment is with magnesium and calcium supplementation but can be a very serious and life-threatening condition. Symptoms can include restlessness, staggers, an over-alert appearance, being excitable, falling down, or convulsions and death.

You are using a Bain circuit to anesthetize a ferret for a spay procedure. Which of the following measures is the most important thing to do to prevent re-breathing of carbon dioxide by the ferret? Make sure the soda-lime canister is fresh Make sure the pop-off and one-way valves are opening correctly Maintain high flow rates of oxygen in the circuit Make sure that the endotracheal tube extension is longer than the ferret

Maintain high flow rates of oxygen in the circuit A Bain circuit is a non-rebreathing system (in contrast to circle systems used more commonly in animals over 5kg). Therefore, there is no carbon dioxide absorber such as soda lime. Instead, you must use sufficient oxygen flow rates to constantly flush the system (typically at least 100 ml/kg/min). The system is not dependent on valves like a circle system is. A long endotracheal tube will increase re-breathing and should not be used.

The parathyroid gland is responsible for which of the following? Releasing catecholamines Maintaining blood calcium level Making insulin Causing milk letdown

Maintaining blood calcium level

What does a lysosome do? Makes energy (ATP) Makes enzymes to break up cellular debris Packages proteins and lipids Provides the cytoskeleton for the cell

Makes enzymes to break up cellular debris A lysosome is a spherical organelle that produces enzymes which break up cellular debris that has been taken up by the cell. Lysosomes digest excess or old organelles, food particles, and viruses or bacteria. Mitochondria are responsible for making energy. The Golgi apparatus packages proteins and lipids after they are synthesized.

Which of the following is not a potential job responsibility of the technician during colic surgery? Making the initial incision into the abdomen Opening surgical packs Administering anesthesia Placing a jugular catheter

Making the initial incision into the abdomen Making the incision into the abdomen is the surgeon's responsibility. A technician is neither legally permitted nor adequately trained to perform surgery, including the initial incision. That being said, a technician may be asked to scrub into surgery to help assist with the surgery. Assisting in surgery includes such tasks as passing instruments, dabbing, retracting, and cutting suture. Administering anesthesia, placing catheters, and opening sterile surgical packs are all tasks the technician should know how to perform.

In normal occlusion, what is the proper position of the incisors and canine teeth when the mouth is closed? Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is distal to the maxillary canine Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine Mandibular incisors are buccal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine Mandibular incisors are buccal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is distal to the maxillary canine

Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine In normal occlusion, the mandibular incisors are palatal (behind) the maxillary incisors, and the coronal third of the mandibular incisors rests on a smooth convex bulge on the maxillary incisors known as the cingulum. The mandibular canines should be centered between the maxillary third incisor and the maxillary canine (mesial to the maxillary canine), without touching either tooth.

In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots? Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 Mandibular premolar 1 and molars 2 and 3 Maxillary molars 1 and 2 Maxillary premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1

Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 While exceptions do occur, the following are generally accepted and true. In dogs, all of the permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1 has one root. PM 2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M3 can have one or two roots. In the maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes have 3 roots. PM 4 and M1 and 2 all have 3 roots.

Which medication may help in a case of acute glaucoma? Atropine Ketamine Chloramphenicol Mannitol

Mannitol Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that will help to decrease intraocular pressure. Atropine raises intraocular pressure and would be contraindicated. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic, and ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and dissociative anesthetic. Neither of these are indicated in glaucoma.

What is the most common method of pregnancy diagnosis in cattle?

Manual rectal palpation Manually palpating for a pregnancy is the most common method in cows and can be done as early as 30 days. Ultrasound is becoming more popular for cows but is not the most common. Progesterone tests can detect presence of a corpus luteum, but sometimes a CL can be present while the cow is not pregnant. This is not a reliable method.

Which animal is seasonally polyestrous and is not an induced ovulator? Mare Queen Bitch Sow

Mare Mares are seasonally polyestrous, so they repeatedly cycle during the breeding season. This season occurs around the period when the days are longest (which is late March through September). The estrous cycle of the mare is about 21 days in length. During estrus, the mare is receptive to the stallion and lifts her tail and everts the clitoris, which is called "winking".

What personal protective equipment would be required for a dental cleaning? Booties, cap, mask, gloves Mask, eye protection, cap Eye protection, cap, booties, gloves Mask, eye protection, gloves

Mask, eye protection, gloves For a dental, a face shield or eye protection is needed due to the splatter from dental cleaning. A mask is needed to prevent inhalation of this splatter or mist. Gloves are required to prevent the spread of infection. Dental cleanings are not sterile procedures, so a cap and booties would not be required.

The 4th upper premolars are connected with which structure in dogs? Nasal cavity Pharynx Maxillary Sinus Frontal Sinus

Maxillary Sinus The 4th upper premolars (carnassial teeth) communicate directly with the maxillary sinus. In the case of a carnassial tooth that becomes infected, an abscess builds up around the affected root just under the skin below and in front of the eye.

Which of the following scissors are the most heavy duty and should be used for cutting through dense or thick tissues and fascia? Mayo Metzenbaum Iris Olsen-Hegar

Mayo Mayo scissors are heavy duty scissors compared to the other options. Metzenbaum and iris scissors have thinner blades and should be used for thin, delicate tissues only. Olsen-Hegar is a type of needle driver which includes a scissor for cutting suture material and should not be used for tissue due to potential to damage the tissue with the needle holder tip.

After performing a blood smear in a patient it is determined that macrocytosis is present. Which value would be expected to be elevated based on this observation on a complete blood count? - Mean corpuscular volume -Red cell distribution width -Red blood cell number -Hemoglobin

Mean corpuscular volume Macrocytosis is expected to result in an increase in mean corpuscular volume. Mean corpuscular volume is a measurement of the mean volume in a group of red blood cells. If there is a higher volume, then one can deduce that the cell is larger (macrocytosis). Red blood cell number as well as hemoglobin content should remain unaffected. Red cell distribution is a value that helps the interpreter determine if there is anisocytosis present.

You are asked to place a nasal oxygen tube in a dog. What is the measurement for placement of nasal oxygen? Advance the tube until the dog coughs and then pull back slightly The catheter should be placed 0.5 inches into the nostril Measure to the top of the head Measure to the medial canthus of the eye

Measure to the medial canthus of the eye A topical anesthetic (such as proparacaine) is instilled into a nostril prior to catheter placement. The catheter is lubed and slid into the nostril and introduced into the ventral nasal meatus. It is advanced to the level of the carnassial tooth or the medial canthus of the eye and is sutured to the skin.

A dog presents for his first day of heartworm treatment. He tested positive for heartworms last week, and the infection was confirmed by chest radiographs and finding microfilariae in his blood. Which drug will this dog receive for killing the heartworms? Milbemycin Selamectin Ivermectin Melarsomine

Melarsomine Melarsomine (more commonly known as Immiticide) is the drug of choice for killing adult heartworms. Care must be used when giving this medication as death of a large worm burden may result in a severe anaphylactic reaction. The others listed are heartworm preventatives that are effective against the microfilariae only.

When referring to teeth, which of the following terms describes the portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch? Distal Mesial Buccal Apical Lingual

Mesial The following terms are used in veterinary dentistry to describe different positions in the mouth and aspects of the tooth: Rostral - Any structure closer to the front of the head relative to another structure Caudal - Any structure closer to the back of the head relative to another structure Buccal - The tooth surface that faces the cheek Labial- The tooth surface that faces the lips Vestibular- surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal (cheek) and labial (lip) surfaces Facial - The surface of the tooth visible from the front (same as the vestibular surface but applies mainly to the incisor teeth) Lingual - The surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue Palatal - The surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate Mesial - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch Distal - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch (the opposite side of mesial) Apical - The portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure Coronal - The portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure

The fetlock joint of a horse refers to what structure? Proximal interphalangeal joint Distal interphalangeal joint Metacarpophalangeal joint Carpometacarpal joint

Metacarpophalangeal joint The fetlock in a horse is the common or lay term for the metacarpophalangeal joint. In the horse, the proximal phalanx (pastern bone) lies immediately distal to the third metacarpal bone (also known as the cannon bone), with which it articulates to form the condylar metacarpophalangeal joint (fetlock joint). The middle phalanx or second phalanx lies distal to the proximal phalanx, forming the proximal interphalangeal joint known as the pastern joint. The distal phalanx (coffin bone), is the most distal bone of the forelimb, and lies completely within the hoof capsule. The distal phalanx articulates with both the middle phalanx and the distal sesamoid, forming the distal interphalangeal joint known as the coffin joint.

What does MRSA stand for? Moderate Radiopaque Screen Application Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus Modified Recumbent Standing Apposition Medical Rating of Staff Accreditation

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus MRSA is a resistant bacterium that is becoming increasingly difficult to treat. Most infections are nosocomial and occur in open wounds, surgical or otherwise. This is why meticulous care and attention to cleanliness of the hospital, hand washing, and sterilization of medical equipment are so important.

A 10-year-old domestic short hair cat presents for facial excoriations. The cat is extremely itchy on its face. Which of the following medications may cause this side effect? Metronidazole Methimazole Famotidine Metoclopramide

Methimazole Methimazole (Tapazole) may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect. This medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism.

Which of the following are treatments for hyperthyroidism? Levothyroxine and I-131 Metronidazole and Levothyroxine Levamisole and I-131 Methimazole and radioactive iodine

Methimazole and radioactive iodine Hyperthyroidism (elevated thyroid level) in cats is treated with radioactive iodine or methimazole. I-131 and radioactive iodine are the same thing. Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism (thyroid level is too low).

A dog or cat with a hypomotile intestinal tract might most benefit from which of the following medications? Metronidazole Omeprazole Famotidine Metoclopramide

Metoclopramide Metoclopramide (Reglan) is used in cases of hypomotility due to its prokinetic properties. Cisapride is another drug that is used to treat hypomotility.

Which of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility? Metoclopramide Diphenhydramine Famotidine Barium

Metoclopramide Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide, increase gastrointestinal motility. Metoclopramide (Reglan) also acts centrally as an antiemetic by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors in the chemo-receptor-trigger-zone (CRTZ). Famotidine is an H2 blocker. Diphenhydramine helps prevent mast cell degranulation. Barium is used to perform contrast studies of the gastrointestinal tract.

Which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals? Metoclopramide Metronidazole Sucralfate Famotidine

Metoclopramide The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ or CRTZ) is part of the medulla that communicates with the vomiting center to initiate vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an anti-emetic primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting in small animals. This medication blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Sucralfate is a gastric "band-aid" that helps to protect and heal irritated mucosa. Famotidine (Pepcid AC) is a gastric acid reducer. Metronidazole is an antibiotic often prescribed for diarrhea or colitis.

Which antibiotic often used for diarrhea has potential to cause a neurologic side effect? Bismuth subsalicylate Metronidazole Amoxicillin Tylosin

Metronidazole Metronidazole is used frequently for treating diarrhea. It can cause neurologic symptoms in some sensitive patients or at higher dosages. The treatment for metronidazole toxicity is supportive care, including Diazepam as a main treatment. Owners with pets on higher dosages of this medication should be advised of this potential side effect. The most common use for higher doses is treatment of Giardia. Fenbendazole is often a safer option for this parasite.

This long slender scissor is used for cutting delicate tissue. What is the name of this type of scissor? Littauer Iris Mayo Metzenbaum

Metzenbaum Metzenbaum scissors can come in different lengths. They have a long shank to blade ratio. Iris scissors are small and have sharp-pointed ends. Mayo scissors are more traumatic when cutting through tissue, but can cut through denser tissues with more ease. Littauer scissors are used to remove sutures.

72 hours have passed since performing and exploratory laparotomy. It is important to evaluate the incision on a daily basis to help detect any complications early. Which of the following would you not expect to find on a 3-day-old incision? Mild serosanguinous discharge Moderate redness Moderate swelling Moderate pain

Mild serosanguinous discharge An incision will demonstrate all the classic signs of inflammation (redness, swelling, pain, and heat). Occasionally, there may be mild serosanguinous discharge from an incision, but this usually resolves in 24-48 hours. Persistence of discharge is worrisome as this may perpetuate bacterial colonization and subsequent incisional failure.

Which of the following medications would be beneficial to a patient who is being treated for an NSAID overdose? Lactulose Potassium Misoprostol Cortisone

Misoprostol Misoprostol is a protective prostaglandin used to treat overdoses of NSAIDs, and helps to provide protection to the gastric mucosa. Overdoses of NSAIDS would cause a high incidence of gastric damage or ulceration. Other concerns would be liver or kidney damage. Potassium would not provide any protection against these effects. Cortisone (or any type of steroid) would be contraindicated in a toxicity such as this as it may exacerbate the signs. Lactulose is a stool softener and would not be beneficial to the GI tract.

"Scabies" in dogs generally refers to skin disease caused by which type of organism? Protozoa Mite Flea Louse Bacterium Fly larva

Mite Scabies refers to infestation with Sarcoptes scabiei var. canis, which is a skin mite that can cause severe pruritus and skin lesions. It is usually seen in dogs and rarely in cats. It may also cause less severe lesions in humans.

Which cell structure is responsible for producing ATP? Lysosome Golgi complex Endoplasmic reticulum Mitochondria

Mitochondria The mitochondria are responsible for producing the ATP necessary for all cellular functions. The endoplasmic reticulum acts as a transportation system for proteins to be moved as well as for protein synthesis. The Golgi complex modifies and packages compounds that came from the endoplasmic reticulum. They are then released into the cytoplasm for use within the cell. Lysosomes contain enzymes which digest intracellular bacteria and non-functional organelles.

Which cell structure is responsible for producing ATP? Lysosome Mitochondria Endoplasmic reticulum Golgi complex

Mitochondria The mitochondria are responsible for producing the ATP necessary for all cellular functions. The endoplasmic reticulum acts as a transportation system for proteins to be moved as well as for protein synthesis. The Golgi complex modifies and packages compounds that came from the endoplasmic reticulum. They are then released into the cytoplasm for use within the cell. Lysosomes contain enzymes which digest intracellular bacteria and non-functional organelles.

What heart valve is responsible for separating blood between the left atrium and left ventricle? Aortic valve Mitral valve Pulmonary valve Tricuspid valve

Mitral valve The mitral valve is also known as the bicuspid valve and is responsible for separating blood between the left atrium and left ventricle. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the vena cava. This blood is then pumped into the right ventricle (passing through the tricuspid valve) which then gets pumped into the lungs (passing through the pulmonary valve) via the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. The newly oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary vein. Once in the left atrium, the blood is pumped into the left ventricle (passing through the mitral valve) from which it is then pumped into circulation via the aorta (passing through the aortic valve).

Most distemper-parvo vaccinations are of which type? Canarypox Cellular antigen extract Modified live virus Killed virus

Modified live virus Most distemper and parvo vaccinations are modified live virus vaccinations. Rabies is a killed virus vaccination in general. There is a feline-only rabies vaccination that is a canarypox vaccine. The injectable form of Bordetella vaccine is a cellular antigen extract vaccine.

When placing a bandage on the limb, what is the main purpose for leaving the tips of the toes exposed? Allow for toe nail trims Prevent odor Prevent swelling Monitor for swelling Prevent soiling

Monitor for swelling Leaving the toes exposed does not prevent soiling of the bandage, odor, or swelling. It is to monitor the toes for swelling in case the bandage is too tight. The two middle toes should be together. If swelling occurs, the toes will begin to spread apart.

Which organism causes pinkeye in cattle? Arcanobacterium pyogenes Moraxella bovis Dermatophilus congolensis Bovine herpesvirus

Moraxella bovis Moraxella bovis is the bacterium that causes bovine keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye) in cattle. It is transmitted from one bovid to another via flies, fomites, or direct contact. There are many different types of bovine herpesvirus that can result in different types of presentations. BHV-1 also known as infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus can occur concurrently with moraxella bovis, complicating the disease. Arcanobacterium pyogenes can cause wound infections and mastitis. Dermatophilus congolensis contributes to "rain scald"

What is normal tear production for a dog when performing a Schirmer Tear Test? Less than 15 mm/min More than 40 mm/min More than 25 mm/min More than 15 mm/min

More than 15 mm/min Normal tear production is more than 15 mm/min. on a tear test strip. Low tear production is termed "dry eye" or keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS). Excessive tearing clinically is termed "epiphora".

You are asked to collect a urine sample for urinalysis on a patient while it is boarding for the week. What would be the best time to collect this sample? Late evening Morning Time of collection does not matter Mid-day

Morning A first morning urine sample is always the best sample. This is because the first morning sample is likely the most concentrated. When the sample is better concentrated, it is easier to evaluate the urine sediment and to see how capable the kidneys are of concentrating urine.

Which of the following analgesics most often causes vomiting as a side effect in dogs? Butorphanol Meloxicam Fentanyl Morphine

Morphine Morphine is a potent opioid used to provide analgesia and sedation. A common side effect of this medication, especially when given as a pre-medication, is vomiting.

A 4-year old male intact Jack Russell is recovering post-operatively after a lung lobectomy following a coyote attack. The dog is very painful. Which of the following combinations of medications may be given as a constant rate infusion and is commonly used for pain control in the critical care setting? Propofol, morphine, bupivacaine Diazepam, ketamine, morphine Morphine, lidocaine, ketamine Medetomidine, acepromazine, lidocaine

Morphine, lidocaine, ketamine Morphine, lidocaine, and ketamine (MLK), remember the word "milk," is often given as a constant rate infusion for pain in dogs. Propofol is a short acting anesthetic without analgesic properties. Diazepam is given as a CRI to control seizures but not typically for analgesia. Acepromazine also is not an analgesic and is not typically administered as a CRI.

What is the usual vector of western equine encephalitis? Mosquito Biting flies Soft ticks Lice

Mosquito The correct answer is mosquitoes. Culex mosquitoes, as well as others, are the important vectors of western, eastern, and Venezuelan equine encephalitis.

What is the vector for transmission of heartworm disease? Flea Tick Mosquito Fly

Mosquito The heartworm, Dirofilaria immitis, is transmitted by infected mosquitoes (the mosquito is the intermediate host). The mosquito ingests microfilariae from the blood of an infected dog (an L1). Then the microfilariae mature in the mosquito to an infective state (L3). The mosquito punctures the skin, and the L3 enter into the new host where they begin migrating and maturing. The adults arrive in the heart about 110 days after infection. The females begin to produce the microfilariae about 6 months after infection, at which time the cycle can begin again via a mosquito bite.

Horses with laminitis should be fed which type of diet?

Mostly grass hay The cause of laminitis is multifactorial; however, a diet high in grains or grain overload has been identified as a potential cause. Also, alfalfa is higher in energy and protein, and consumption of this hay alone may attribute to laminitis in some horses. Therefore, horses with laminitis should be fed an average or mixed hay only and no grains.

A patient in ventricular fibrillation needs to be defibrillated, and you are assisting. Someone yells "clear" before the defibrillation. What do you do?

Move away from the patient and table Defibrillation delivers an electrical shock to the heart to try to re-establish a normal sinus rhythm. When this occurs, you should not touch either the patient or the table, or you could be shocked as well.

The small intestine is made up of four layers. Which of the following describes these layers from inside to outside? Serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis Serosa, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa Muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, serosa

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa The inner most layer of the intestine is the mucosa. It is lined with villi which help to absorb nutrients. The next layers working outward are the submucosa, muscularis, and serosa.

A 14-year old DSH has been prescribed total parenteral nutrition (TPN). What type of catheter would be most appropriate for TPN administration? 18 gauge saphenous catheter Single lumen PICC line in the hind leg A catheter is not needed; TPN can be delivered subcutaneously 18 gauge cephalic catheter Multi-lumen jugular catheter

Multi-lumen jugular catheter TPN must be administered via a central vein due to its hypertonicity. A short saphenous or cephalic catheter would not reach a central vein. TPN is never administered subcutaneously. While a single lumen PICC could be used, a multi-lumen catheter would be preferred as blood samples for blood glucose monitoring could be more easily obtained.

What purpose is the administration of the drug Guaifenesin typically used for in horses? Antimicrobial Muscle relaxation Expectorant Intestinal Prokinetic Anti-inflammatory

Muscle relaxation Guaifenesin is administered intravenously to horses to provide relaxation of skeletal muscles during induction of general anesthesia. The exact mechanism of action is unknown but believed to be related to central depression of nerve impulse transmission. Although guaifenesin is administered orally in some species as an expectorant, this is not the typical reason for its administration in horses.

Valium is often given with ketamine to provide which effect? Increased heart rate Muscle relaxation Increased cardiac contractility Increased muscle tone

Muscle relaxation Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity. Valium (diazepam) is often given with ketamine to provide muscle relaxation.

You are helping the neurologist with a Tensilon test in a dog. Tensilon is the trade name for edrophonium chloride. By administering this drug, you are testing for which disease? Myasthenia gravis Old dog vestibular disease Hydrocephalus Diskospondylitis Meningitis

Myasthenia gravis Myasthenia gravis can sometimes be diagnosed with a Tensilon test. With this disease, there are not many acetylcholine receptor sites on the muscles, and acetylcholine is broken down before it can fully cause muscle stimulus. This results in muscle weakness. By blocking the action of acetylcholinesterase, Tensilon prolongs stimulation to the muscles, thus temporarily improving strength. Results are usually seen within a minute of administering the drug IV. A blood test that can also help to aid in diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis is the acetylcholine receptor antibody test.

Which bacteria will not stain using the Gram staining method? -Salmonella -Mycobacterium -Campylobacter -E.coli 0157

Mycobacterium Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacteria that have a waxy coat on their cell walls (a lipoid capsule) and so they will not retain the crystal violet stain. The three types of acid-fast stains are Ziehl-Neelson, Kinyoun, and fluorochrome.

Which of the following terms describe a dilated pupil? Miotic Fixed Sympathetic Mydriatic

Mydriatic Mydriasis is the term for dilated pupils. Miosis is the term for constricted pupils. Fixed pupils are not moving (not dilating or constricting). The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for pupil dilation, but this is not a term given to a dilated pupil.

Nerve axons which are covered with a white sheath are known as being which of the following? Sympathetic Dead Slow transmitters Myelinated

Myelinated The myelin sheath is lipid-rich (made of cholesterol and phospholipids) which gives it its white color. The purpose of the myelin sheath is to increase the speed at which impulses can travel.

You are asked to administer an intramuscular injection to a beef cow. Where should you administer it? Shoulder muscles Epaxial muscles Gluteal muscles Neck muscles

Neck muscles Because this is a beef cow, the injection should be given in the neck muscles to avoid creating a scar or damaging tissues in the muscles that may be used as meat for human consumption. When injections are given in inappropriate locations, the meat could potentially be condemned.

A dog presents with a 1-week old wound on her side. The wound is foul-smelling and has dead tissue. What term best describes this wound? Necrotic Fistulated Fluctuant Ulcerated

Necrotic Necrosis is the death of living tissues and is used to describe lesions such as this. An ulcer is an erosion of the skin or mucous membranes. A fistula is a connection or passageway in between two areas (a hole). Fluctuant means movable or compressible (i.e. a fluctuant mass)

Ivermectin is effective against which organisms? Cestodes Protozoa Trematodes Nematodes

Nematodes Nematodes or roundworms are susceptible to ivermectin. Ivermectin has activity against ticks, mites, nematodes, and even lice.

You are riding along on an emergency call to assist the vet with a sick foal who was born two days ago. The foal appeared normal at birth, but is now lethargic and icteric. It has a fever of 102 F. The packed cell volume is down to 15%. Which of the following diseases leads to jaundice and anemia in young foals? Congenital portocaval shunt Viral hepatitis Neonatal isoerythrolysis Bacterial hepatitis

Neonatal isoerythrolysis This foal is hemolyzing its own red blood cells as a result of antibody it acquired in colostrum which is directed at the red cells. This is the best answer choice to explain the low hematocrit and signs of icterus. Only vigorous and effective treatments can save foals which are severely affected.

What term would describe inflammation of the kidneys? Cystitis Hepatitis Nephritis Blepharitis Gastritis

Nephritis Inflammatory conditions typically end in "-itis". Nephritis is inflammation of the kidneys. Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver. Cystitis is inflammation of the bladder. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelids/follicles. Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach.

Feline toxoplasmosis most often presents with which type of symptoms? Respiratory Neurologic Intestinal Cardiovascular

Neurologic Most cats infected with Toxoplasma gondii will not show any symptoms. When disease does occur, it typically occurs when the cat's immune response is suppressed. Fever, loss of appetite, and lethargy can be symptoms. Most commonly, neurologic symptoms occur including seizures or circling. Uveitis can be seen. Toxoplasmosis is treated with Clindamycin.

A breeder of turtles calls to inquire about giving ivermectin he bought at the feed store to one of his turtles. The veterinarian advises NOT to administer ivermectin, and despite this recommendation, the breeder does anyway. What would be expected in this turtle? Respiratory distress Regurgitation Neurologic signs Sloughing of the shell

Neurologic signs The correct answer is neurologic signs. Ivermectin is highly toxic in turtles and causes paresis, paralysis, and death at low doses due to an ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

Canine parvovirus causes which of the following laboratory changes? Neutrophilia Neutropenia Hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia

Neutropenia Parvoviral enteritis causes severe vomiting and diarrhea, which leads to dehydration and often sepsis and fever. The sepsis (overwhelming infection) leads to a low neutrophil count.

A lab report has a note from the pathologist that says the "segs" were elevated. What blood cell type is a "seg"? -Neutrophil -Red blood cell -Lymphocyte -Platelet

Neutrophil "Seg" is short for segmented neutrophil.

Granulocytes microscopically evaluated on a blood smear (i.e. CBC) include which cells? -Neutrophils, Macrophages, Basophils -Neutrophils, Macrophages, Lymphocytes -Neutrophils, Macrophages, Eosinophils -Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils

Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils As the name implies, granulocytes have granules; thus the 3 white cell types with granules (also known as polymorphonuclear cells) are neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils. Macrophages and lymphocytes are also known as mononuclear cells.

What is the proper name for the "third eyelid"? Ranula Frenulum Nictitating membrane Tympanic membrane

Nictitating membrane The nictitating membrane is the "third eyelid". The tympanic membrane is the "ear drum". A frenulum is a fold of tissue that prevents movement (such as with a persistent frenulum in the bull regarding the penis). Palpebra is the proper term in general for eyelid. A ranula is a mucocele usually found under the tongue region.

In the United States, what type of gas is in a blue gas tank? Oxygen Medical compressed air Carbon Dioxide Nitrous oxide Nitrogen

Nitrous oxide

Which of the following blades is the most commonly used when incising the skin of an animal? No. 11 No. 12 No. 10 No. 20

No. 10 The No. 10 blade is the most commonly used blade, and the technician needs to be familiar with this blade size. The No. 15 blade is also commonly used. This blade is smaller and will be used for more delicate incisions. The No. 11 blade is pointed at the tip and will be used to transect structures such as ligaments. The No. 12 blade is not commonly used but some may use it to lance abscesses.

Viruses with this characteristic are significantly more resistant to environmental degradation; in other words, they survive longer in the environment. Non-enveloped viruses DNA viruses RNA viruses Enveloped viruses

Non-enveloped viruses Non-enveloped viruses are typically very resistant to environmental degradation and therefore survive longer and are harder to disinfect than enveloped viruses. For example, parvoviruses, which are non-enveloped viruses, are difficult to disinfect and survive longer compared to influenza viruses which are enveloped. Whether a virus is a DNA or RNA virus has no effect on its environmental durability.

What type of estrous cycle does a cow have? Estrus every 6 months Non-seasonal polyestrous Polyestrous in the fall Induced ovulation when bred

Non-seasonal polyestrous Cows have non-seasonal polyestrous cycles. This means that they have estrus cycles year round. Average estrus is 21 days and lasts for 18 to 24 hours, but heat stress can shorten this window. Estrus is the time of "standing heat" when the cow will stand to be mounted by the bull.

A practitioner's view of convenience euthanasia is an example of which branch of ethics? Normal ethics Official ethics Normative ethics Administrative ethics

Normative ethics Normative ethics is defined as: An individual's attempt to discover what he or she believes to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior.

An owner has fed her diabetic cat and has given the insulin injection. She calls the clinic because there is a wet spot on the fur where she gave the injection and she doesn't think it went in. What will you advise her to do? Repeat the insulin injection since the cat ate Give Karo syrup orally and monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia Give another 1/2 dose of insulin Not re-dose the insulin, just give the next scheduled dose as directed

Not re-dose the insulin, just give the next scheduled dose as directed The cat should not be re-dosed. It would be more detrimental for the cat to receive additional insulin than for him to miss an injection. Advise the owner to just give the next regularly scheduled dose. Karo syrup is given when hypoglycemia is suspected (if too much insulin is given or if the animal is having symptoms of hypoglycemia)

If a break in sterile technique occurs during surgery, what should you do? Ask the surgeon for permission to administer additional intraoperative antibiotics Abort the surgery to reduce the likelihood of infection Send the patient home on at least 10 days of antibiotics Notify the surgeon immediately

Notify the surgeon immediately The first thing to do is notify the surgeon that there has been a break in sterility if he or she has not noticed. Although it would be ideal for the surgeon to take full responsibility for maintaining asepsis, the responsibility also lies with the O.R. nurse. The nurse must be meticulous with regard to asepsis; any break in asepsis can expose the patient to a nosocomial infection. If the patient is already receiving perioperative antibiotics, additional dosing will not potentiate their protective effect. Surgery cannot necessarily be aborted as a result of a break in sterility. The surgeon and staff must work together to remedy the situation and eliminate the source of contamination. Depending on the degree of contamination, the surgeon may elect to prophylactically treat with antibiotics after surgery; however, this course of action is not always necessary. Other procedures that may be taken when there is a break in sterile technique include changing instruments, changing gloves, and copious lavage of the surgery site.

While evaluating a post-operative patient, a small amount of serosanguinous fluid is noted oozing from the surgical incision. What is the best course of action? Apply a bandage over the incision Start the patient on antibiotics Clean the incision with hydrogen peroxide Notify the veterinarian

Notify the veterinarian The first thing you should do is notify the veterinarian in charge. It is possible that this is the beginning of an incisional dehiscence, and a veterinarian should be notified of the situation. Depending on the nature of the surgery as well as the health status of the patient, some mild serosanguinous discharge may be expected; however, this determination should be made by the attending veterinarian.

You are getting the weight of a patient in the exam room and are going to write it in the record. What part of a SOAP record would you put the weight in? A S O P

O O is the objective part of the record. It requires facts. All other sections, S, A, and P are subjective parts. They require interpretation and opinion. S- subjective O- objective A- assessment P- plan

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of epidural placement in the dog? Obesity Skin infection in the area of the needle insertion Coagulopathy Fractures of the sacrum or pelvis

Obesity Obesity is not a contraindication, but it may make finding the landmarks difficult while placing an epidural. Occasionally fractures of the sacrum or pelvis can cause abnormal anatomy and an epidural should not be attempted. If a coagulopathy exists, an epidural should not be attempted to avoid potential bleeding. Skin infections at the epidural site can lead to systemic infections if bacteria is introduced to the epidural space by the needle.

A horse with flared nostrils and a heave line from the tuber coxae towards the elbow with forced expiration likely has which of the following conditions? Laminitis Lead poisoning Congestive heart failure Obstructive airway disease

Obstructive airway disease These symptoms are typical of a horse with chronic increased respiratory effort. Coughing, weight loss, lack of energy, and exercise intolerance are also signs of this condition, termed "chronic obstructive pulmonary disease" (COPD). It is more common in older horses that are stabled during winter months. It is helpful to turn these horses out to pasture to help control the disease. COPD is similar to asthma in humans.

In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, you are most concerned about damage to which nerve? Peroneal Tibial Obturator Femoral

Obturator Obturator nerve paralysis (ONP) is most common. This nerve is responsible for adducting the hind limbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs. During birthing, this nerve can become crushed and lead to this problem.

What is OSHA? Occupational Safety and Health Administration Occupational Safety and Health Association Occupational Staff and Health Agency Obligatory Safety and Health Association

Occupational Safety and Health Administration OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is the main federal agency charged with the enforcement of safety and health legislation. They set standards for safety and practice, and veterinary services falls under their regulation.

Which of the following is NOT a common method of restraint in the horse? Skin twitch Nose twitch Ocular pressure Nose chain Lip chain

Ocular pressure Ocular pressure will not do anything except aggravate the horse more. A nose chain involves placing a chain over the bridge of the nose and applying pressure; a lip chain places a chain to the mucous membranes of the rostral aspect of the mouth (after lifting the lip); a nose twitch involves placing a rope around the soft part of the horse's muzzle and twisting the rope (it is attached to a long wooden stick); and a skin twitch involves grasping a fold of skin (such as the loose skin of the neck) and twisting the skin.

The National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America adopting a code of ethics is an example of which branch of ethics? Descriptive ethics Official ethics Administrative ethics Normal ethics

Official ethics Official ethics is defined as: Values formally adopted by organizations composed of members of that profession.

In domestic animals, which of the following is true regarding inheritance of a trait that is coded by a recessive gene according to classical rules of inheritance? If both parents display the recessive trait, some offspring will show the trait but some will not Offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait Offspring may display a recessive trait even if only one parent carries a gene for the trait If one parent displays the recessive trait and one does not, up to 75% of the offspring should display the trait

Offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait Domestic animals have paired chromosomes and therefore inherit 2 alleles of each gene, one from the mother and one from the father. For classical rules of inheritance, a single gene can be dominant or recessive. If an individual has 2 copies of a recessive gene, it will show the recessive trait. If an individual has 2 copies of a dominant gene, it will show the dominant trait. In the event that an individual has one copy of a dominant gene and one copy of a recessive gene, it will show the dominant trait (the recessive gene is "masked" by the dominant gene). Typically, the dominant gene is indicated by a capital letter and the recessive gene is indicated by a lower-case letter. For this question, let's consider the trait of congenital deafness (h) which is recessive versus normal hearing (H) which is dominant. In order for an individual to show the phenotype of congenital deafness, it must have an hh genotype. An individual that has normal hearing could have either an Hh genotype or an HH genotype. In the correct answer to this question, it states that offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait. It is possible that both parents could have normal hearing and have a Hh genotype. If both parents contribute the h gene to the offspring, it will display the recessive trait of congenital deafness.

Dirofilaria immitis and Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum The correct answer is Dirofilaria immitis and Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum. Dipetalonema reconditum is a blood parasite that looks similar to the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis, the agent of heartworm disease. The two parasites must be differentiated because Dipetalonema reconditum is not pathogenic and is therefore not treated. Uncinaria stenocephala and Filaroides osleri would not be found in the blood. Incidentally, the organism in this blood smear is D. immitis

On a CBC on a 5-year old Basenji at a routine wellness exam, you identify the microfilaria shown below. There are two species of microfilariae that can be seen in the peripheral blood in dogs. What are they? -Dirofilaria immitis and Uncinaria stenocephala -Dirofilaria immitis and Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum -Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum and Filaroides osleri -Uncinaria stenocephala and Filaroides osleri

You are restraining a horse with a halter while the veterinarian is examining a sore on the lateral side of the left pelvic limb. Where should you stand while holding this horse? On the right side, hold lead rope with little slack The horse should be tied up and you should stand to the right of the veterinarian at the hind end of the horse to prevent the horse from kicking On the left side, hold lead rope and leave enough slack so that the horse may turn his head around to see what the veterinarian is doing On the left side, hold lead rope with little slack

On the left side, hold lead rope with little slack When handling a horse, the holder and the person working on the horse should be standing on the same side. If the exam starts on the left, stand on the left; as the examiner moves to the right side, you should also move to the right side. There should be little slack in the lead rope to prevent the horse from moving.

Which of the following describes the best method for preparing a urine sediment sample for microscopic evaluation? -Once sample is obtained, transfer a small amount with the aid of a pipette onto a microscopic slide and evaluate -Once sample is obtained, heat it under a Bunsen burner until an adequate amount of supernatant has evaporated. Then, obtain a small sample with a pipette and transfer it to a microscopic slide for evaluation -Once sample is obtained, centrifuge the sample and remove the supernatant. Using a pipette, transfer small amount of urine onto a microscopic slide and evaluate -Once sample is obtained, allow it to sit in a refrigerated environment for 12 hours. Following this, centrifuge the sample, remove the supernatant, and transfer a small amount of urine onto a microscopic slide and evaluate

Once sample is obtained, centrifuge the sample and remove the supernatant. Using a pipette, transfer small amount of urine onto a microscopic slide and evaluate The best method for preparing a urine sample for microscopic evaluation is by centrifuging the sample and removing the supernatant first. Once this is complete, a small amount of urine from the tip of the tube can be transferred to a slide for evaluation. Heating the urine sample will destroy cellular elements and is not recommended. Centrifuging the sample is important in order to obtain a useful sample to evaluate microscopically. The sample should then be evaluated at 10x (low power field) and then at 40x (high power field).

What is the best way to restrain a dog for examination? One hand around the dog's muzzle and the other under the abdomen around to the flank One hand under the neck and the other firm grip at the base of the tail Both arms under the abdomen and around to the other side with a gentle squeeze One arm under and around the neck and the other under the abdomen and in front of the flank

One arm under and around the neck and the other under the abdomen and in front of the flank The correct answer describes the best way to restrain a dog for physical examination. Securing the head in this manner helps prevent biting and restricts movement. The tail grip restraint is used for foals.

You are instructed to give a patient fluids per os. How are these administered? Intravenous Intra-arterial Into the bone Subcutaneous Rectally Orally

Orally Per os, often abbreviated P.O., means orally or by mouth.

A cat with type A blood is in need of a transfusion, what type of blood is it able to receive? Only A blood Only B blood Only AB blood

Only A blood A cat with type A blood can only receive type A blood. Type B cats can only receive type B blood, while AB cats are able to receive type A or type B blood.

What is the medical term for declawing? Enucleation Caudectomy Ovariohysterectomy Onychectomy Orchiectomy

Onychectomy The procedure consist of surgically removing or amputating the third phalanx of each toe. The majority of practitioners who perform this controversial operation will only do the procedure on the front paws. Caudectomy is tail amputation. Orchiectomy is removal of the testicles. Ovariohysterectomy is surgical removal of the uterus and ovaries. This sterilization procedure prevents pregnancy and is called a spay. Enucleation is surgical removal of the eye.

What is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis? Wildebeest Raccoon Donkey Horse Opossum

Opossum The correct answer is opossum. The opossum is the definitive host for Sarcocystis, the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis.

Contagious ecthyma is a disease that causes painful oral ulcerations, pustules, and scabs. It is most often seen in sheep and goats, and is more commonly known as: Orf Oral Thrush Foot-and-Mouth disease Blue Tongue

Orf Contagious ecthyma, most commonly called Orf is a highly contagious and zoonotic parapox virus. Blue tongue is a virus of ruminants and camelids causing fever, lung disease, and congestion of the lips and oral mucosa. Oral thrush is Candidiasis (yeast). Thrush is caused by an overgrowth of normal yeast flora seen mostly in immunocompromised animals. Foot-and-mouth disease is a contagious vesicular virus that affects cloven-hooved species. It causes vesicles and ulcers in the mouth, lameness of the feet, and is a reportable disease.

Bone is made by which type of cell? Osteoclasts Osteoblasts Chondrocytes Osteocytes

Osteoblasts Osteoblasts are mononucleate cells that are responsible for bone formation and come from the bone marrow. Osteocytes are actually cells inside of the bone. Osteoclasts are large cells that dissolve the bone. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells.

Which parasite is the most important cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle and is commonly known as the brown stomach worm? Ancylostoma braziliense Strongylus vulgaris Ostertagia ostertagi Haemonchus contortus

Ostertagia ostertagi Ostertagia is the brown stomach/abomasal worm and is a major cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle. It is the most common roundworm in cattle. Strongylus vulgaris is a large intestinal worm in horses that can migrate to the anterior mesenteric artery. Ancylostoma braziliense is known as the Southern dog hookworm and is a primary cause of cutaneous larval migrans. Haemonchus is known as the barberpole worm or red stomach worm and is especially problematic in sheep.

Which vessel transports blood from the intestines to the liver? Portal vein Renal artery Hepatic duct Vena cava

Portal vein The portal vein is responsible for transporting the nutrient-dense blood from the intestines to the liver.

The doctor is performing a physical exam on a horse and notices the horse has some ticks in the ears. The ticks have large spines on their bodies. He refers to them as "spinous ear ticks". What is the proper name for this parasite? Otobius megnini Dermacentor albipictus Otodectes cynotis Oxyuris equi

Otobius megnini Otobius megnini is the spinous ear tick. These ticks are most commonly seen in the Southwestern states. They may infest many different warm blooded animals (including dogs), but are most commonly seen in horses and livestock. These ticks may crawl deep into the ears and feed on blood. They can spread rickettsial disease and other infectious disease such as Q-fever and tularemia. Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite of dogs and cats. Oxyuris is the equine pinworm. Dermacentor albipictus is the winter tick typically found on horses, cattle, or deer, especially in the mid-Western regions (Nebraska, Colorado, and Wyoming).

You are looking microscopically at a swab of the ear canal from a cat that has been head shaking and scratching at the ears. You identify an 8-legged mite. What is the name the ear mite? -Ctenocephalides felis -Trichodectes canis -Otodectes cynotis -Sarcoptes scabiei -Demodex gatoi

Otodectes cynotis Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite of dogs and cats (also seen in ferrets). These can result in head shaking and ear rubbing and stimulate production of brown waxy discharge. They frequently can be visualized if a swab is made and examined microscopically.

Regarding sterilization in reptiles, which is true? Only the oviducts should be removed and ovaries should be left intact Ovaries should always be removed during sterilization Reptiles should not be sterilized due to sensitivity to anesthetics Sterilization of female pet reptiles is recommended so that they do not develop estrogen toxicity

Ovaries should always be removed during sterilization When sterilizing a reptile, the ovaries should always be removed. Removal of only the oviducts puts the patient at risk for egg binding. With just the oviducts removed, the ovaries are still active and yolks can be released into the coelomic cavity.

Celiotomies are performed on a routine basis in veterinary medicine. Which of the following procedures is performed through a celiotomy? Femoral fracture repair Tail docking Ovariohysterectomy Lung lobectomy

Ovariohysterectomy A celiotomy or laparotomy is a surgical incision into the abdominal cavity. The term celiotomy is derived from the word coelom, which means body cavity. Knowing this information, the only surgery listed which is performed through a ventral midline incision is an ovariohysterectomy. To review, an ovariohysterectomy is the removal of the ovaries and uterus.

What is the recommended treatment option for a closed pyometra? Antibiotic therapy Estrogen therapy Ovariohysterectomy PGF 2-alpha

Ovariohysterectomy Pyometra occurs secondary to excessive or prolonged progesterone production which causes endometrial hyperplasia. This then sets up an environment conducive to bacterial colonization. The most common culprit is E. coli; however, other organisms have been implicated in pyometra. Antibiotic therapy may effectively treat pyometras which are "open" or draining, however this is only recommended if the patient is stable. PGF 2-alpha, and estrogen therapy is ineffective at treating pyometra.

The egg is fertilized in which of the following structures? Uterus Oviduct Vagina Peritoneum

Oviduct Fertilization of the ovum occurs in the oviduct.

Orf is the cause of contagious ecthyma primarily in which species? Porcine Bovine Ovine Canine

Ovine Ovine (sheep) and goats are the species which may contract Orf, also known as "soremouth". It is zoonotic and caused by a parapox virus. It is transmitted via direct contact with infected animals or by contact with fomites, so handlers should wear gloves when dealing with infected animals. It is a benign and self-limiting disease in most people but may be serious in immunocompromised people. Symptoms in sheep and goats include papules or pustules on the lips and muzzle that may then crust and bleed.

You are hooking up the anesthesia machine and place the pulse oximeter on the dog's tongue. This is to measure which of the following? Carbon dioxide Oxygen saturation Respiratory rate Electrical impulse of the heart

Oxygen saturation Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in arterial blood. The pulse-ox reading should generally always be above 94%. If this measurement drops, especially during anesthesia, sometimes rubbing and wetting the tongue can help improve circulation to the tongue and thus help get a more accurate reading.

What hormone stimulates uterine contraction? Prolactin Antidiuretic hormone Luteinizing hormone Oxytocin

Oxytocin Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for uterine contraction and is sometimes administered to animals with dystocia to help expel the fetus.

What hormone stimulates uterine contraction? Oxytocin Antidiuretic hormone Prolactin Luteinizing hormone

Oxytocin Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for uterine contraction and is sometimes administered to animals with dystocia to help expel the fetus. Prolactin stimulates lactation, and oxytocin causes the milk letdown. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates ovulation. Antidiuretic hormone results in water re-absorption when released.

What represents depolarization from the SA node through the atria on an electrocardiogram (ECG)? QRS complex P wave T wave ST segment

P wave The P wave represents depolarization spreading from the SA node through the atria. The PR segment on the ECG represents the delay at the AV node and partial atrial repolarization. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the ventricular rate can be calculated by the time interval between the QRS complexes. The ST segment comes after the QRS and is when the ventricle is depolarized. The ST segment can help to diagnose ischemia or hypoxia because it will become either depressed or elevated. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.

All of the following are examples of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) that require special treatment or handling EXCEPT which of the choices listed? Gauze sponges used in equine surgery to soak up blood Scalpel blade that was used to make a spay incision on a healthy cat Paint-stripping solvents that may release toxic fumes Carcass of a cat that was brought to your clinic dead on arrival upon which you performed a necropsy Needle and syringe used to give chemotherapy to a dog

Paint-stripping solvents that may release toxic fumes RMW, also known as biohazardous waste, applies to waste that is potentially infectious. It must meet both of the following conditions: 1) The waste must be generated as a result of the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of animals 2) It must be either sharps or biohazardous waste The scalpel and syringe are examples of sharps, and the blood-soaked sponges and carcass are examples of biohazards.

What is the proper terminology to describe a laceration under the right forelimb paw? Palmar aspect Posterior aspect Plantar aspect Anterior aspect

Palmar aspect Palmar is the bottom of the paw of the forelimb. Plantar is the bottom of the paw of the hind limb. Anterior is toward the head and posterior is away from the head. In veterinary medicine, anterior and posterior are usually used only to describe distal extremities or areas of the head. Cranial is toward the head; caudal is toward the tail. Ventral is toward the abdomen; dorsal is toward the backbone. Lateral is away from midline and medial is toward midline. Proximal is close to the spine or body while distal is away; these are typically used when describing limbs (e.g. fracture of the proximal femur vs. fracture of the distal femur).

Which organ(s) in the body is (are) responsible for producing insulin?

Pancreas The two main functions of the pancreas are endocrine or production of hormones (insulin and glucagon) and exocrine or production of digestive enzymes. The pancreatic beta cells are responsible for secreting insulin.

What is feline "parvo" virus is known as? Feline Leukemia Panleukopenia Rhinotracheitis Calicivirus

Panleukopenia Feline panleukopenia is sometimes referred to as "feline parvo". It causes feline infectious enteritis. It can be associated with cerebellar disease in young kittens.

A dog presents dragging the hindlimbs. While the doctor is pinching along the dogs back on either side of the spine, the skin twitches, causing contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle. Which reflex specifically is being tested? Spinal reflex Proprioception Patellar reflex Panniculus reflex

Panniculus reflex The panniculus (cutaneous) reflex tests for superficial pain. A fold of skin is grasped with a small hemostat and pinched just lateral to midline on both sides. A twich of the skin (the panniculus reflex) is observed (contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle). This helps to determine the caudal margins of normal superficial pain bilaterally. Proprioception is a test to determine if the pet knows where the limbs are in space, or position awareness. The paw is first flipped under so that the dorsal part of the foot is touching the floor, and then the paw is released. The pet should return the paw to the normal positioning. If the remaining paw flipped over, this indicates a proprioceptive deficit. Patellar reflex is performed by a tap on the patellar ligament in the knee. This should extend the stifle. Spinal reflexes are a general term and encompass multiple tests for sensory and motor components.

Which of the following is a causative agent of warts? Dermatophilus Orbivirus Papilloma virus Dermatophytosis

Papilloma virus Papilloma virus is responsible for causing warts. Dermatophilus is a bacterium that invades the skin typically in wet weather and causes crusting and infection of the skin (rain rot). Dermatophytosis is a fungus, most commonly ringworm (Trichophyton) in cattle. Orbivirus causes bluetongue disease in sheep, cattle, and goats.

Which of the following parasites can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in the foal? Echinococcus equinus Parascaris equorum Parelaphostrongylus tenuis Cryptosporidium

Parascaris equorum Parascaris equorum, or the equine ascarid (roundworm), typically only infests foals and can cause ill thrift, coughing, pneumonia, and colic. If a foal has a heavy burden of roundworms and is subsequently given an anthelmintic, impaction colic can result from a mass of dead worms obstructing the intestinal tract. Foals develop immunity to this organism as they age and are typically free of infestation as adults.

A Dachshund presents for back problems and the dog is ambulatory but very unsteady in both hindlimbs. The doctor suspects an intervertebral disk protrusion that is affecting the spinal cord. Regarding the gait, this dog has: Vestibular syndrome Paralysis Hypermetria Plegia Paresis

Paresis Paresis is partial loss or impaired movement; this is when motor is still present. A dog with paresis of both hindlimbs would have "paraparesis". Paralysis and plegia are terms used to describe lack of any voluntary motor. Hypermetria is an exaggerated gait caused by cerebellar disease. Pets with vestibular syndrome often have an abnormal gait and will veer toward one side or the other and have difficulty standing, but this is not a lack of motor.

Which of the following is a general term for giving birth that can be applied to all species? Pyometra Queening Parturition Whelping

Parturition Parturition is the act of giving birth. Pyometra is a life-threatening uterine infection. Whelping is the term for giving birth in dogs. Queening is the term for giving birth in cats.

The non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, ketoprofen, should not be used in which patients? Horses Patients with hypertension Cats Patients with renal impairment

Patients with renal impairment The correct answer is patients with renal impairment. Ketoprofen is an NSAID that is eliminated by the kidneys. It is one of the few NSAIDs that are tolerated well by cats. It can also be used in horses, and there is no contraindication of its use in patients with hypertension.al

Where should an injection ideally be given to a pet bird? Pectoral muscles Neck Leg Wing

Pectoral muscles For birds, the best place to give an injection is into the large pectoral muscle mass region. If drugs are injected in the lower half of the body, such as the legs, the medication can be absorbed towards the kidneys and could cause a problem. However, in some large birds, such as ostriches and emus, injections are sometimes given in the legs.

Which of the following drugs is commonly given by intravenous injection to humanely euthanize small animals? Digoxin Ketamine Cyanide Phenobarbital Pentobarbital

Pentobarbital A concentrated solution of sodium pentobarbital is the most commonly used euthanasia solution in small animals. It is administered by IV bolus and results in rapid general CNS anesthesia followed by respiratory and cardiac arrest. This is a controlled drug classified as a barbiturate. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate used to control seizures and is given orally or by injection. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in the treatment of certain types of heart disease due to its ability to improve myocardial contractility and decrease conduction impulses. Cyanide is a lethal toxin but is not a humane form of euthanasia. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic typically used in combination with other drugs for anesthetic induction or analgesia.

What is the most common drug in most euthanasia solutions? Thiopental Propofol Pentobarbital Phenobarbital

Pentobarbital Pentobarbital in euthanasia solution is used for rapid humane euthanasia for animals not to be used for food purposes. Many euthanasia solutions include pentobarbital and phenytoin.

Which medication given for diarrhea can cause the stools to appear dark in color, like melena? Forti-flora Metronidazole Pepto Bismol Tylosin Sucralfate

Pepto Bismol Pepto Bismol and some formulations of KaoPectate contain bismuth subsalicylate, which causes darkening of the stool and acts by anti-secretory effects on the intestine. Sucralfate is given to help sooth esophageal and gastric ulcers. Metronidazole and Tylosin are antibiotics. Forti-flora is given to help restore the normal gastrointestinal flora.

A 7-year-old Lab mix presents to your hospital with a very swollen muzzle. The vet suspects the swelling is from a rattlesnake bite. How could you support this suspicion? Perform an aspirate of the swelling for cytology Perform a blood smear and look for spherocytes Perform a blood smear and look for echinocytes Perform a buccal mucosal bleeding time

Perform a blood smear and look for echinocytes Echinocytes are often seen in rattlesnake envenomation. While rattlesnake bites may cause coagulopathies, an increased bleeding time would not be diagnostic for rattlesnake bite or support the suspicion as strongly the as presence of echinocytes. Spherocytes are most often seen in cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Aspirating the swelling would not be helpful, as the swelling is most often occurring due to edema (swelling within the cells) and not free fluid.

A dog owner is considering having a scheduled cesarean section for her dog and would like some more information regarding the risks associated with the procedure. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Performing a cesarean delivery will result in the dog being unable to have another pregnancy Performing a spay at the time of surgery is not recommended as there is a risk that the female will not display maternal instincts Performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production Performing a cesarean delivery will result in decreased milk production

Performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production It is important to be aware that performing a spay at the time of surgery does not have a detrimental effect on the female. There are no adverse effects on milk production or predictable unwanted behaviors. Similarly, there are no long-term negative effects of performing a cesarean delivery; however, there is a possibility of development of scar tissue at the site of a cesarean which may hinder the ability of a future embryo to attach at that specific location.

A purse-string suture would be been placed for which of the following surgeries? Enucleation Enterotomy Cystotomy Perianal mass excision

Perianal mass excision A purse-string suture is a surgical suture passed as a running stitch in and out along the edge of a circular region (as seen with the anus), so that when the ends of the suture are drawn tight the region is closed like a purse. This is often done around the anus prior to initiating surgery to prevent fecal contamination within your surgical site.

Which of the following lymph nodes are not palpated peripherally? Mandibular Prescapular Popliteal Perihilar

Perihilar Above the heart is a triangular depression named the hilum, near which the perihilar lymph nodes are located. They are inside the chest and therefore not palpated peripherally.

Which of the following instruments would be LEAST effective at cutting or removing bone from a patient? Michel trephine Curette Osteotome Periosteal elevator Gigli wire

Periosteal elevator Periosteal elevators are good for elevating muscle attachments from bone or periosteum. They would not be effective at actually cutting or removing bone. Curettes are great for removing small amounts of bone such as when obtaining a bone graft. Gigli wire is still used for cutting through bone. With an osteotome and mallet, precise bone cuts can be made by the experienced surgeon. Alternatively, a battery powered bone saw can be used. A Michel trephine is used to obtain core samples of bone. It is commonly used to help diagnose neoplasia involving the bone.

A 5-year-old female spayed domestic short hair cat presents on emergency for acute vomiting, weakness, hypersalivation, and tremoring. Her heart rate is 240 bpm and her temperature is elevated at 104.2F. The owner applied an over-the-counter flea control product to her skin earlier in the day. What toxicity is suspected? Coumadin Ethylene glycol Permethrin Metaldehyde

Permethrin Permethrin (a synthetic pyrethroid) is very toxic to cats and can be found in some topical flea prevention medications. It can cause neurologic side effects, tremoring, and may even cause seizures. Cats are treated by washing the product off immediately, placing an intravenous catheter, administering IV fluids, and giving muscle relaxants such as valium and/or methocarbamol. Metaldehyde is most commonly found in snail bait and is not part of flea control products. Ethylene glycol is antifreeze and coumadin is Warfarin (an anticoagulant found in some rat poisons); these are not found in flea control products.

Which cat would be most prone to having a hairball problem? Domestic short hair Persian Sphynx Abyssinian

Persian Persians have long hair and are thus most likely to have hairballs. However, all cats can get hairballs. This occurs if the cat swallows hair while it is grooming itself. Laxatone can help to keep the hairballs to a minimum and daily brushing also helps to reduce the amount of shedding.

The pinpoint red marks on this patient's gums can be described as: Petechia Ecchymosis Erythema Papillomas

Petechia Petechia are small (1-2mm)"pinpoint" red bruises under the skin, often associated with thrombocytopenia. Ecchymosis (also often called purpura) are very similar but are much larger areas of bruising, usually over 3mm. Papillomas are warts caused by a virus. Erythema is the general term for redness.

A bulldog presents for its fourth foreign body surgery. It eats dirt, toys, and other non-food substances on a regular basis. This condition of eating non-food items is known as: Aerophagia Pica Coprophagy Dysphagia

Pica Pica is a word used to describe the eating of foreign materials. Coprophagy is eating of feces. Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing. Aerophagia is swallowing of air.

The lower respiratory tract includes all of the following except for which of these? Trachea Bronchioles Pharynx Alveoli

Pharynx The lower respiratory tract includes portion of the larynx that is past the vocal cords, the trachea, the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli. Alveoli are the sites of gas exchange between air and blood and are in the lower-most respiratory tract (lung). The nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx, and the portion of the larynx above the vocal cords are all part of the upper respiratory system.

Which anatomic structure is the passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems? Esophagus Bronchi Larynx Tongue Pharynx

Pharynx The pharynx leads from the oral and nasal cavities to the larynx and esophagus. It helps to get food to the esophagus and air to the lungs.

Which of the following drugs is an anticonvulsant? Butorphanol Phenobarbital Acepromazine Xylazine

Phenobarbital Anticonvulsant drugs include barbiturates (phenobarbital, pentobarbital, primidone), benzodiazepines (diazepam, lorazepam, clorazepate), potassium bromide, levetiracetam, zonisamide, gabapentin, and felbamate. Acepromazine is a phenothiazine drug that can decrease anxiety. Xylazine is an alpha-2 agonist that causes sedation and analgesia. Butorphanol is an opioid analgesic.

You are about to sedate a dog, and the veterinarian would like to use a drug which is reversible. Which one of these is NOT an option? Diazepam Midazolam Hydromorphone Phenobarbital Medetomidine

Phenobarbital The correct answer is phenobarbital. Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist and can be reversed with yohimbine or atipamezole. Diazepam and midazolam are benzodiazepines can both be reversed with flumazenil. Hydromorphone is an opiate and is easily reversible with naloxone. There is no effective reversal agent for phenobarbital at this time.

Which of the following medications is known to cause perivascular tissue sloughing if given out of the vein? Ascorbic acid Ampicillin Phenylbutazone Dimethyl Sulfoxide (DMSO)

Phenylbutazone Phenylbutazone or "Bute" is an NSAID used for analgesia or fever (mostly in horses). It can cause tissue sloughing and necrosis if given out of the vein (it should NEVER be given subcutaneous or intramuscular). Also to note: In humans, phenylbutazone can cause aplastic anemia.

Which species other than cattle is considered cloven hoofed? Horse Camel Pigs Rabbit

Pigs A cloven hoof is a hoof split into two toes. This includes cattle, sheep, goats, deer, and pigs. Camels have two digits in their feet (III and IV) which are almost flat on the ground as part of a wide pad. Instead of hooves, the distal phalanges have nails on the upper surface.

Which of the following species have teeth that only grow for a limited time during development and do not continually erupt or grow throughout the life of the animal? Pigs Horses Rabbits Rats

Pigs Cats, pigs, humans and other carnivores have all brachyodont teeth. This means that they have a small crown relative to the size of the roots, and the apex of the each tooth root is only open for a brief period during development and does not continue to erupt. Horses, rodents, and lagomorphs have hypsodont teeth, which means that they have a relatively large amount of crown that is beneath the gingival margin as well as a root structure that allows for continued eruption during most of the animala's lifetime. Hypsodont teeth can be further categorized as radicular hypsodont teeth, such as the cheek teeth of horses. These have apices that eventually close and stop growing, but continued eruption offsets attrition from occlusion. Aradicular hypsodont teeth (such as the incisors of rabbits) lack a true root structure, allowing for lifelong growth of the tooth itself.

Which species has ovaries that look like grape clusters? Sheep Pigs Cows Horses

Pigs In the pig the follicles and corpora lutea sit almost on the surface of the ovary giving the appearance of a cluster of grapes. Pigs are also litter-bearing and thus usually have more follicles.

Lactose-fermenting bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar? -Clear or white -Pink or red -Tan or grey -Blue or green

Pink or red MacConkey agar contains lactose; when lactose-fermenting organisms are grown, they produce acid from lactose that causes them to turn red. Bacteria that do not ferment lactose are typically clear colonies.

An owner presents her diabetic cat and new glucometer with lancets. Where is the best place for her to collect a sample? Dorsal frontlimb Medial hindlimb Pad Pinna

Pinna Lancets are best to use on superficial smaller veins such as veins on the ear. Pads are very thick and therefore difficult to use for sample collection.

An 11-year old female spayed dog is diagnosed with a bladder tumor. She is still able to pass urine, but she strains towards the end of her urination and needs to go out frequently. Her bloodwork is unremarkable. What medication is sometimes prescriped specifically to alleviate symptoms from bladder tumors in dogs? Cranberry extract Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid Tramadol Piroxicam

Piroxicam Piroxicam is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that has some anti-cancer properties against transitional cell tumors and nasal adenocarcinoma in dogs. Piroxicam can cause renal papillary necrosis as a rare side-effect, so is usually reserved for cases that have no underlying renal issues.

What is the biggest risk when giving an animal fluids or medications via an orogastric or a nasogastric tube? Perforation of the esophagus Placing tube into the lungs Regurgitation through the nares GI foreign body from animal biting off the tube

Placing tube into the lungs Sometimes animals require medications through a tube. Horses that are having colic symptoms often receive fluids and mineral oil through a nasogastric tube. Sometimes small animals need to receive activated charcoal or barium through an orogastric tube. The biggest risk when tubing a patient is accidentally placing the tube into the lungs, so the tube goes down the trachea instead of the esophagus. This leads to compromise of the lungs and can lead to subsequent pneumonia and can have fatal consequences.

Yersinia pestis is the causative agent for which zoonotic disease? Cat scratch fever Plague Q fever Parrot fever

Plague Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of plague. Plague is usually transmitted by the bites of infected fleas. Yersinia pestis is a gram-negative bacterium and has a bipolar safety-pin appearance. Definitive diagnosis is based on culture. However, before collecting any samples, the state vet or CDC should be contacted. Plague is highly zoonotic, and bubonic, septicemic, pneumonic, and meningeal forms can occur. Early treatment is critical for survival. Antibiotic treatment early in the course of disease can greatly improve prognosis. Cat scratch fever is caused by the bacterium Bartonella henselae. Parrot fever is caused by the bacterium Chlamydophila psittaci. Q fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii.

Accumulations of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria along the teeth are known as which of the following? Calculus Plaque Tartar Caries

Plaque A plaque is an accumulation of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria. Bacterial toxins damage the gingiva and oral mucosa. Dental calculus or tartar is mineralized plaque and can lead to persistent inflammation. Dental caries, also known as cavities or decay, are incidents of demineralization of the teeth.

You are working in the emergency clinic and are assisting with treating a dog that has been hit by a car. You are asked to set up for a blood transfusion, and the doctor would like you to give whole blood. A whole blood transfusion would include which of the following components? Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets Plasma and red blood cells only Platelets, plasma, and red blood cells White blood cells and red blood cells only

Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets The correct answer is plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets (everything that is found in whole blood).

The bottom of a tortoise shell is called what? Carapace Terrapin Scute Plastron Bridge

Plastron The carapace is the upper shell and the plastron is the bottom shell. Scutes are a layer of keratin covering the shell. A bony bridge is an area that joins the carapace and the plastron together. A terrapin is a type of turtle which lives in fresh or brackish water.

A surgeon is asking for any non-absorbable suture to close a skin defect. Which of the following sutures would NOT be appropriate for you to give the surgeon? Polydioxanone Polypropylene Silk Nylon

Polydioxanone Polydioxanone is the real name for PDS. This suture is a monofilament absorbable suture which lasts approximately 180 days before being completely broken down. Silk, polypropylene, and nylon are all considered non-absorbable. Polypropylene and nylon are synthetic. Most people know polypropylene as Prolene and nylon as Ethilon; these are their trade names.

What is the term used for increased urine output? Oliguria Pollakiuria Anuria Polyuria

Polyuria Polyuria is the term that describes increased amount of urination. Pollakiuria refers to an increase in frequency in urination. Oliguria is a decrease in urination. Anuria is the complete absence of urine formation.

Which breed does not typically shed its haircoat? Golden retriever Poodle Pug Labrador

Poodle Poodles do not typically shed hair. They may lose hair during chemotherapy treatments or with certain endocrine diseases.

What is cholestasis? Enlarged liver lobes Poor flow of bile from the liver to the GI tract Bladder stone stuck in the urethra Rupture of the gall bladder Inability of the pancreas to produce enzymes

Poor flow of bile from the liver to the GI tract Cholestasis is a condition in which the bile has difficulty flowing from the liver into the duodenum. The prefix chole- means bile and the term stasis means to stand still. The enzymes associated with cholestasis are alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT).

You are on a farm call with a veterinarian to investigate the cause of agalactia in the farmer's cows. These cows have: Low calcium Infertility Poor milk production Blood in their milk

Poor milk production Agalactia (agalactorrhea) is either an absence of milk production or abnormally low milk production following parturition. There are many common causes including infection (especially in sheep, goats, and pigs), poor nutrition or water deprivation, hormonal imbalances, anatomical causes(inverted teats or absence of mammary tissue, scarring of tissue), or failure of the neonate to suckle properly so that the milk let-down reflex is not stimulated.

Certain drugs may cause a rapid rise in temperature during anesthesia. This is known as malignant hyperthermia. Which species is at greatest risk for this condition? Caprine Equine Porcine Canine

Porcine Pigs are at greatest risk for malignant hyperthermia. It is thought that this condition may be hereditary. During anesthesia in pigs, this must be monitored very closely as early detection is essential to prevent fatality. Cooling measures, Dantrolene, and oxygen are all implicated in treatment.

A 3-year old male neutered Maltese presents to your clinic because the owner saw "some white rice-looking things" around his anus. They were small and flat and seemed to be moving. Some of them were dried up. Which of the following drugs is effective against this organism? Praziquantel (Droncit) Selamectin (Revolution) Pyrantel (Strongid) Fenbendazole (Panacur) Fipronil (Frontline)

Praziquantel (Droncit) This dog likely has a tapeworm infection. Tapeworm segments are typically flat and white and small, resembling a grain of rice. The most common tapeworms in cats are Taenia taeniaeformis and Dipylidium caninum. The only medication that will treat both types is praziquantel. Praziquantel is in the products Drontal Plus and Profender, approved for the use in cats. Drontal Plus also contains pyrantel. Profender also contains emodepside. Both are also effective against roundworm and hookworm. Pyrantel is not effective against tapeworms and treats hookworm and roundworm infection. Fenbendazole (or Panacur), treats Taenia but not Dipylidium, and also treats hookworm, roundworm, and whipworm infection. Revolution treats and prevents hookworm, roundworm, heartworm, fleas, and ear mites in cats. Frontline treats and prevents fleas and ticks. A flea control should be recommended, since Dipylidium is transmitted by ingestion of an infected flea. Taenia is transmitted through eating an infected prey.

Which of the following scenarios describes the proper care of surgical instruments? Pre-rinse the instruments immediately after surgery to remove residues. Place in ultrasonic cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Place in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let instruments dry. Place instruments in ultrasonic cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Rinse instruments with distilled water and scrub as necessary. Place instruments in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let instruments dry. Place instruments in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and rinse to remove and debris and residue. Place instruments in ultrasonic cleaner for 10 minutes. Let instruments dry. Rinse the instruments to remove the debris and residue. Place in an ultrasonic cleaner for 30 minutes. Then place the instruments in surgical milk. After removing instruments from the surgical milk rinse them again.

Pre-rinse the instruments immediately after surgery to remove residues. Place in ultrasonic cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Place in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let instruments dry. The correct answer is to pre-rinse the instruments (using distilled water) immediately after surgery to remove residues. Place in ultrasonic cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Place in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let instruments dry.

In a pregnant mare, "red bag" delivery implies what situation? Premature placental separation Rupture of the chorioallantois Rupture of the amniotic sac Delivery of a premature foal

Premature placental separation Red bag is the layman's term for premature separation of the chorioallantois from the placenta and is a medical emergency. The chorioallantois interfaces with the mare's endometrium and is the interface that transfers oxygen to the fetus. Under normal circumstances, the fetus breaks through the chorioallantois at the cervical star, and the fetus and amniotic sac are delivered first. In a red bag delivery, the entire fetal-placental unit is being delivered all at once and thus can cut off the oxygen supply to the fetus prior to birth; this can result in death of the fetus if parturition is not facilitated immediately.

A large canine patient that has been in the hospital developed a decubital ulcer. What is likely causing this? Improper nutrition Kidney function is declining Pressure from laying in one position for too long MRSA infection

Pressure from laying in one position for too long A decubital ulcer is the proper term for a pressure sore. This is more common in patients that are not ambulatory and lay in the same position for too long; this is why patients must be turned and moved regularly.

Which of the following species require Vitamin C in their diets because they cannot synthesize it? Hamster Cat Primate Chinchilla

Primate Primates, including humans, are unable to synthesize adequate amounts of Vitamin C and must have it included in the daily diet. Guinea Pigs too have the same requirement for additional daily Vitamin C.

Periodontal pockets are measured by which dental instrument? Curet Probe Scaler Elevator

Probe The probe is used to check pocket depth. The scaler is used to remove plaque and calculus from the teeth. In dentistry, the curet is a spoon-shaped instrument used for removing necrotic cementum and calculus from the teeth and can be used supragingival and subgingival. The elevator is used to wear down the periodontal ligament to aid in extracting teeth from the oral cavity.

A bitch with a swollen vulva and bloody vulvar discharge that attracts but will not accept a male is likely in which stage of the estrous cycle? Diestrus Estrus Anestrus Proestrus

Proestrus In proestrus, vulvar edema is present with a bloody discharge. The bitch is attractive to males but will not stand for mating. A bitch that is in estrus will typically accept a male for mating. During estrus, the vulva is not quite as swollen and the discharge becomes more clear.

Which of the following lists the correct order of the phases in the estrous cycle? Proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus Estrus, proestrus, diestrus, metestrus, anestrus Anestrus, diestrus, estrus, metestrus, proestrus Metestrus, proestrus, estrus, anestrus, diestrus

Proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus Proestrus is the time when ovarian follicles are starting to grow. It immediately precedes estrus. Estrus is the time of actual heat when follicles are mature and ovulation occurs or can be induced depending on species. During Metestrus, estrogen stimulation subsides and the corpus luteum starts to form. The uterine lining begins to secrete small amounts of progesterone. Diestrus is regression of the corpus luteum. Anestrus is resting of the sexual cycle.

Which hormone maintains pregnancy? Estrogen Luteinizing hormone Progesterone Prostaglandin

Progesterone Estrogen is made when the follicle stimulates GnRH from the hypothalamus and causes LH release from the anterior pituitary. LH causes the follicle to ovulate. The follicle then becomes the corpus luteum, and progesterone maintains the pregnancy. Prostaglandin actually causes luteal death.

Chronic exposure to which hormone leads to a pyometra? Estrogen Progesterone Luteinizing hormone Testosterone

Progesterone Pyometra is often related to increased progesterone levels and their effect on the lining of the uterus. Prolonged exposure to estrogen can cause bone marrow suppression.

Myositis in a horse can occur as a result of which of the following? A blood lactate level of 1.0 mg/dl and higher will result in myositis Administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories prior to anesthesia will result in myositis Prolonged recumbency during anesthesia Intraoperative hypertension will result in myositis

Prolonged recumbency during anesthesia Prolonged recumbency puts a horse at a high risk for developing myositis. It is extremely important for the anesthesia team to provide appropriate padding by means of rubber pads, inflatable tubes, or even an inflatable water bed to help decrease the pressure exerted on muscles as result of recumbency. Intraoperative hypotension can contribute to myositis due to lack of blood flow and subsequent ischemia at the level of the muscle. Myositis can result in extreme muscle pain and soreness. In severe cases, horses can develop myoglobinuria which can cause renal damage. The blood lactate level of 1.0 mg/dl is actually in the normal range; however, an increasing blood lactate level is a sign of anaerobic metabolism, which may be secondary to poor muscle oxygenation; the cause should be investigated and addressed.

Which anesthetic is short-acting, white-opaque in color, and can cause transient apnea on induction? Thiopental Propofol Ketamine Etomidate

Propofol Propofol is an opaque-white short-acting anesthetic or sedative for intravenous use and is often used for anesthetic induction or sedation for short procedures. It can cause respiratory depression or transient apnea, especially when given too quickly.

You are working on assembling drugs for a canine anesthetic/analgesic protocol for an upcoming surgery. You will be giving hydromorphone or morphine as a premedication, diazepam just before induction with propofol, and you will place a fentanyl patch after surgery in addition to carprofen for pain control. Which of these mentioned drugs does not need to be logged as a controlled substance? Fentanyl patch Hydromorphone Morphine Diazepam Propofol

Propofol Propofol is not a controlled substance and is not required to be recorded in a drug log by DEA regulations. Any controlled substances such as morphine, hydromorphone, butorphanol, ketamine, diazepam, phenobarbital, fentanyl, buprenorphine, hydrocodone, etc. must be logged in a drug log. Drug logs should include the name of the pet owner, date, prescribing doctor, name and amount of drug used.

A dog presents to the emergency hospital in status epilepticus. Which of the following drugs may be given for this condition? Diphenhydramine Atropine Propofol Ketamine

Propofol Status epilepticus is the state of continuous seizuring. Propofol and valium are the most common drugs used for this condition. Rectal valium may be given initially until a vein can be accessed. Ketamine would be contraindicated, as this drug causes muscle rigidity.

Which of these sedative/anesthetic drugs does not have an antagonist? Propofol Diazepam Xylazine Hydromorphone Medetomidine

Propofol The correct answer is propofol. The reversal agents are: For diazepam: flumazenil For hydromorphone: naloxone or naltrexone For medetomidine: atipamezole For xylazine: yohimbine Acepromazine is another sedative that does not have an antagonist.

A dog is very weak in the hindend but is able to stand with support. The dog is being supported under the abdomen, and the paws are individually turned over so that the dorsal paw is touching the ground. The dog is not able to correct this posture. This is an evaluation of: Spinal pain Proprioception Malalignment of the vertebral column Mentation

Proprioception Proprioception is a test to determine if the pet knows where the limbs are in space, or position awareness. The paw is first flipped under so that the dorsal part of the foot is touching the floor, and then the paw is released. The pet should return the paw to the normal positioning. If the paw remains flipped over, this indicates a proprioceptive deficit. It is most often a result of spinal cord disease or spinal cord compression from disk disease, neoplasia, etc.

What is the proper term for when the globe (eye) comes out of the orbit due to trauma? Buphthalmos Proptosis Mydriasis Miosis

Proptosis A proptosed globe is an eye that has actually popped out of the orbit. Buphthalmos describes an enlarged and bulging globe which is usually caused by increased intraocular pressure (such as with glaucoma). Miosis is the term for constricted pupils and mydriasis is the term for dilated pupils.

A 10-year old male intact Rottweiler is currently undergoing surgery for removal of a prostatic mass. Which term best describes the procedure? Prostatitis Prostatectomy Cholecystectomy Onychectomy Orchidectomy

Prostatectomy There are a few basic rules that will allow you to comprehend a majority of the medical terms. Any term that ends with "-ectomy" infers to removal of that organ. Onychectomy is another word declawing or removal of the distal phalanx. Orchidectomy is the removal of a testicle. A cholecystectomy is removal of the gall bladder. The ending "-itis" means inflammation. In this case, prostatitis would be inflammation of the prostate.

The veterinarian asks you to retrieve a psittacine bird out of its cage for examination. Which of the following restraint tools would be least recommended for this type of bird? Net Protective falconry gloves Wash cloth Towel

Protective falconry gloves Thick protective gloves should never be used to restrain psittacine birds in the clinical setting because it is too difficult to feel the patient through the gloves and can lead to trauma. Towels can be helpful, and a bird should always be approached from the front with the towel. By letting the bird view the towel, it helps to alleviate stress and more easily allows handling than grabbing from behind. The most important thing with restraint in birds is to prevent restriction of the chest so that the bird can breathe properly.

Which of the following is considered a reportable swine disease? Pasturella multocida Pseudorabies Erysipelas Sarcoptic mange

Pseudorabies Pseudorabies is a virus caused by porcine herpesvirus 1. Wild mammals, cattle, sheep, dogs, and raccoons are also susceptible, and the disease can be fatal to these species. It is shed in oral and nasal secretions of swine and spread through oral/nasal contact or by fomites. Symptoms in pigs include abortion, nasal discharge/sneezing, seizures, depression, circling, and increased salivation. In cattle, it causes intense itching, also known as "mad itch", then seizures and death. The other diseases listed are more common in pigs and are not considered as reportable.

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease? White muscle disease Pacheco's disease Coccidioides Psittacosis

Psittacosis Psittacosis, also known as Parrot fever, is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci. It is spread via bird droppings and nasal discharge. In humans, it causes cough, fatigue, fever, headache, and muscle aches. Some birds may be carriers of the bacteria and appear healthy. These carriers can intermittently shed the bacteria in their stool. Symptomatic birds may have droppings which look like pea soup, have decreased appetite, weight loss, ruffled feathers, conjunctivitis, or symptoms of upper respiratory infection. Pacheco's disease (known as Parrot Herpesvirus) is a fatal bird disease but is not contagious to humans. White muscle disease in livestock is caused by a selenium deficiency and is not contagious. Coccidioides immitis is a fungus which is not considered zoonotic from direct contact between animals and people, although humans may contract Coccidiodes indirectly. Any draining lesions thought to be caused by the organism should be handled as such.

Which of the following breeds would be considered brachycephalic? Golden Retriever Chihuahua Pug Greyhound Dachshund

Pug A brachycephalic skull is relatively broad and short. Because of their conformation, dogs of this type more susceptible to respiratory problems. "Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome" includes elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules, and stenotic nares (narrow nostrils). These animals are also more prone to ocular problems. The most common (and visually obvious) dogs in this class include the Pug, Shih Tzu, Bull dog, Pekingese, Boston terrier, and Cavalier King Charles spaniel.

A parrot presents because it is bleeding profusely from one of its feathers. What would likely be the best course of action to take after examination by the veterinarian? Do not manipulate the feather and allow it to clot on its own Pull the feather out Cauterize the feather to stop bleeding Place a tight wrap around the feather shaft

Pull the feather out Blood feathers are immature feathers that still have a blood supply to the shaft. The shaft usually appears dark as opposed to white or clear as would be seen in a mature feather. If one is cut or breaks from trauma, it can bleed profusely and not clot. The bird can actually die of blood loss in some cases. Typically, the best course of action is to pull the blood feather out. This is typically done using a hemostat and giving a firm pull.

A dog with bradycardia and a low albumin on a high rate of IV fluids is at risk for developing which of the following? Pulmonary edema Thromboembolism Seizures Syncope

Pulmonary edema Albumin provides oncotic pressure which helps maintain fluid in the vasculature. If the oncotic pressure is decreased from low albumin and movement of blood through the body is slow due to a low heart rate (bradycardia), fluid can build up in the lungs (pulmonary edema).

Oxygenated blood returning from the lungs travels in which blood vessel? Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery Vena cava Aorta

Pulmonary vein Vessels that contain blood moving toward the heart are known as veins despite their oxygenation status. The pulmonary vein is responsible for returning oxygenated blood to the heart (via the left atrium) for distribution the rest of the body. The pulmonary artery contains deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle that is moving toward the lungs for oxygenation.

What is the ideal diet to feed a healthy lactating (nursing) dog? High carbohydrate food Geriatric food It is best to keep her on her normal diet Puppy formula food Low protein food

Puppy formula food Puppy food is higher in protein and is usually enriched with higher amounts of fats, vitamins, and minerals. A nursing mother needs about twice as much food than when she is not pregnant or nursing.

Newborn mice are often called which of the following? Pups Kits Squabs Colts

Pups Newborn mice are also referred to as pups or sometimes pinkies. They are pink and hairless and blind and deaf when born. Newborn rabbits are called kits and are also blind, deaf, and hairless when born. Ferrets are also called kits. Guinea pigs are also referred to as pups and are "precocious" when born. This means their eyes are open and they are aware and can see and hear and walk from birth.

When performing CPCR (cerebro-cardio pulmonary resuscitation) in lateral recumbency, how far should you press down on the chest during compressions? Push very lightly almost as if tapping on the chest Push all the way down so both sides of the ribs meet Push down about 1/3 of the chest width Push down about 1/2 of the chest width

Push down about 1/3 of the chest width The correct answer is to push down about 1/3 of the chest width because that level of compression is required to assure minimum circulation. Compressing the chest at a greater degree may result in fractured ribs or cardiac trauma.

Ingesta must travel through which opening as it passes through the stomach into the duodenum? Pyloric sphincter Lower esophageal sphincter Bile duct Duodenal papilla Anal sphincter

Pyloric sphincter The pylorus connects the stomach to the upper small intestine. The lower esophageal sphincter is between the esophagus and stomach. The anal sphincter is muscle around the anus that helps with anal tone. The duodenal papilla is a raised area that marks the opening of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct into the duodenum. The bile duct helps connect the liver to the duodenum and carries bile from the liver to aid in digestion.

You are assisting with thoracocentesis and the fluid removed from the chest has a very foul odor. Which of the following types of pleural effusions is most likely? Chylothorax Pyothorax Pneumothorax Hemothorax

Pyothorax Pyothorax is purulent fluid (pus) in the pleural space and most often has a very foul odor. Chylothorax is chyle (lymphatic fluid) in the pleural space. Hemothorax is blood in the pleural space. Pneumothorax is air in the pleural space.

What is the term used for an elevated number of white blood cells in a urine sample? Anuria Hematuria Stranguria Pyuria

Pyuria The correct answer is pyuria. Hematuria is the excessive presence of red blood cells in urine. Stranguria is difficulty or straining to urinate. Anuria is the lack of urine production.

Coxiella burnetti is the cause of what zoonotic disease in humans? Cat scratch fever Plague Q fever Undulant fever

Q fever Coxiella is a Gram-negative bacterium. Cattle, sheep, and goats are the primary reservoirs. Inhalation from infected birth tissues or urine is the main method of transmission. Undulant fever, or Bang's disease, is caused by Brucella. Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella. Plague is Yersinia pestis, a Gram-negative rod. Be wary of cats presenting with enlarged or abscessed mandibular lymph nodes and fever. Contact the local and state health departments if you suspect a case of plague.

Coxiella burnetti is the cause of what zoonotic disease in humans? Plague Cat scratch fever Undulant fever Q fever

Q fever Coxiella is a Gram-negative bacterium. Cattle, sheep, and goats are the primary reservoirs. Inhalation from infected birth tissues or urine is the main method of transmission. Undulant fever, or Bang's disease, is caused by Brucella. Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella. Plague is Yersinia pestis, a Gram-negative rod. Be wary of cats presenting with enlarged or abscessed mandibular lymph nodes and fever. Contact the local and state health departments if you suspect a case of plague.

What is the name for the muscle group that includes the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius? Triceps Quadriceps Gluteals Hamstrings

Quadriceps "Quad" means four, and the Quadriceps femoris is a large group of muscles that cover most of the middle thigh. This muscle group extends the knee. The rectus femoris originates on the ilium and also flexes the hip. The other three muscles originate from the femur. All four parts attach to the patella through the quadriceps tendon.

Which of the following species has a double row of incisors? Ferret Chinchilla Guinea Pig Rat Rabbit Hamster

Rabbit Rabbits have a second row of incisors distal to the proximal incisors. When malocclusion occurs, it is important to trim both sets of teeth to maintain proper dentition.

Tularemia would most likely be carried by which animal? Guinea pigs Goats Deer Rabbits Cows

Rabbits Tularemia is caused by the bacteria Francisella tularensis and is known as rabbit fever. It is zoonotic, and the bacteria can gain entrance through a cut or scratch when handling an infected animal. It leads to a skin ulcer and then swollen glands, fever, headache, and rash. It can also be transmitted to humans via tick bites or deerflies.

Tularemia would most likely be carried by which animal? Rabbits Goats Deer Cows Guinea pigs

Rabbits Tularemia is caused by the bacteria Francisella tularensis and is known as rabbit fever. It is zoonotic, and the bacteria can gain entrance through a cut or scratch when handling an infected animal. It leads to a skin ulcer and then swollen glands, fever, headache, and rash. It can also be transmitted to humans via tick bites or deerflies.

Which of the following animals develops dental caries? Horses and cats Cattle and sheep Pigs and reptiles Rabbits and chinchillas Goats and camelids

Rabbits and chinchillas Rabbits, chinchillas, and dogs develop dental caries. Caries are very rare in the other species listed. Caries are cavities.

Which vaccine can a pregnant dog receive? Parvo Rabies Bordetella Distemper

Rabies Pregnant dogs may receive killed antigens such as the Rabies vaccine. The DHPP vaccine is modified live. The Bordetella intranasal is modified live, and the Bordetella injectable is cellular antigen extract and should not be given to pregnant animals.

When administering a blood transfusion to a rat which species is able to donate? Rat, mouse, or ferret Rat or ferret Rat or mouse Rat only

Rat only The rat is the only species that can donate blood to be given to another rat.

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to which of the following? Tubule secretion rate Size of the kidneys Rate of blood flow to the kidneys Albumin level in the blood

Rate of blood flow to the kidneys Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a test used to check how well the kidneys are working by estimating how much blood passes through the glomeruli each minute.

When performing a major cross-match when a blood transfusion is necessary, which of the following samples are mixed? Recipient serum with donor erythrocytes Recipient serum with donor neutrophils Recipient serum and donor platelets Recipient platelets with donor serum Recipient erythrocytes with donor serum

Recipient serum with donor erythrocytes In a major cross-match, the recipient's serum is combined with the donor erythrocytes, and the sample is examined for agglutination or hemolysis, indicating incompatibility. A minor cross-match combines recipient erythrocytes with donor serum.

A dog presents with severe seizures, and you are unable to hit a vein for catheter placement and need to stop the seizures immediately. Which of the following is an acceptable means of giving valium to a seizuring dog? Subcutaneous Oral Rectal Intraperitoneal Intraosseous

Rectal Valium can be given rectally to stop seizures. NO oral medications should be given to a seizuring dog. Valium cannot be given via the other routes.

A patient with DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) may show abnormal red blood cells called schistocytes. What are schistocytes? -Nucleated red blood cells -Large blue tinged red blood cells -Red blood cells with nuclear fragments -Red blood cell fragments

Red blood cell fragments Patients with DIC frequently have schistocytes and decreased platelets on their blood smears. Schistocytes are red blood cell fragments.

Which of the following is NOT considered a leukocyte? Neutrophils Lymphocytes Eosinophils Macrophages Red blood cells (RBCs)

Red blood cells (RBCs) Leukocytes, or white blood cells, are responsible for many of the immune functions of the body and are classified as granulocytes (those that stain positive for granules) and agranulocytes. Red blood cells are not considered leukocytes.

Which of the following is true about red blood cells? -Red blood cells have a lifespan of over 2 years -Red blood cells are exclusively produced in the spleen -Nucleated red blood cells are never seen in dogs - Red blood cells are normally nucleated in birds

Red blood cells are normally nucleated in birds Interestingly, red blood cells are normally nucleated in birds and reptiles. Nucleated red blood cells can be seen in other species whenever there is a demand on the body to rapidly release red blood cells into the bloodstream. If demand exceeds the bone marrow's production capabilities, the body will begin to release juvenile red blood cells, which still have a nucleus.

What do spherocytes look like under the microscope? -Red blood cells that are spiculated - White blood cells with solid round nuclei -Red blood cells that are small, very dark, and perfectly round -White blood cells with blue round inclusion bodies -Red blood cells with blue round inclusion bodies

Red blood cells that are small, very dark, and perfectly round The spherocytes are smaller than normal red blood cells due to their loss of membrane, and there is no pale area in the center. The most specific disease showing this change in the RBCs is Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia. Other hemolytic conditions can also cause this change to occur. Echinocytes are spiculated red blood cells that are sometimes seen in snake bite cases.

You are instructed to give a medication which you are told is an antipyretic. What will this medication do? Reduce fever Prevent vomiting Provide sedation Reduce gastric acid

Reduce fever Anti-pyretics reduce fever. An example of an anti-pyretic medication is ketofen (Ketoprofen) which is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. The term pyrexia means fever. An example of an acid reducer (antacid) would be famotidine (Pepcid AC). A medication which would prevent vomiting would be an antiemetic. Examples of this include maropitant (Cerenia) or metoclopramide (Reglan). Reglan also has upper GI pro-kinetic properties.

Which of the following is a technician not allowed to do? Refill medications without veterinarian approval Give injections intramuscularly Dispense controlled substances even with veterinarian approval Perform a dental prophylaxis

Refill medications without veterinarian approval A technician must have approval by a veterinarian before refilling medications. Technicians are allowed to dispense controlled substances that are prescribed by a veterinarian, taking care to count and log the medications appropriately. Technicians commonly give injections and perform dental cleanings.

What is a common presenting complaint in a patient with megaesophagus? Syncope Muscle tremors Stiff, stilted gait Regurgitation Hematochezia

Regurgitation Megaesophagus is a condition in which there is severe dilation and often distension of the esophagus. Food may pool in the esophagus and be regurgitated (often appearing as an elongated sausage or bolus of food). Many clients do not realize the difference in regurgitation (passive process) and vomiting (active process with abdominal effort). Therefore, it is essential to thoroughly question the owner about the nature in which the animal is bringing up the food or vomitus.

What is the most common reason for placing a urinary catheter in a male cat? Contrast radiography Therapeutic infusion into the bladder Collect urine sample Relieve urethral blockage

Relieve urethral blockage Feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD) is a common problem in young male cats. The etiology is unknown but is thought to be related to stress and potentially diet. In this condition, the urethra becomes obstructed due to inflammation, or sometimes the formation of a plug of crystals and mucus. This is a life-threatening condition and requires immediate placement of a urinary catheter to relieve the obstruction.

An ovariohysterectomy is one of the most common procedures performed in veterinary medicine. This procedure entails which of the following? Removal of the ovaries and uterus Removal of the ovaries only Tying off of both fallopian tubes Removal of the uterine body only

Removal of the ovaries and uterus During an ovariohysterectomy (spay), the ovaries and uterus are removed. An ovariectomy involves removal of only the ovaries.

A Golden retriever ingests several tablespoons of antifreeze. This will cause the most damage to what organ system? Hepatic Cardiac Renal Gastrointestinal Nervous

Renal Ethylene glycol (EG), the primary ingredient in antifreeze, causes damage to the renal system (kidneys). EG causes damage to the renal tubular epithelium, causing build up of oxalate crystals in the renal tubules and metabolic acidosis.

Of the following options, oral ulceration is most common in patients with which condition? Liver failure Pancreatitis Renal failure Diabetes

Renal failure Severe azotemia causes generalized acidity in the body. This acidity makes animals in renal failure susceptible to development of ulcers in the gastrointestinal tract, including the mouth. This is an important reason why animals with azotemia are often on acid-blockers (such as famotidine).

A 2-year old domestic short hair cat presents for ingestion of the flowers seen in the picture below. The ingestion occurred about 2 hours ago and no clinical signs have been noted yet. What does the ingestion of this plant cause in cats? Seizures Hypoglycemia Muscle paralysis Renal failure

Renal failure The flowers are Tiger Lilies. Lilies of all different varieties as well as their leaves cause acute renal failure in cats when ingested. Treatment is similar to any other cause for renal failure and includes high rates of IV fluids, supportive medications, and occasionally diuretics such as furosemide or mannitol if the patient is anuric or oliguric.

A veterinarian has diagnosed a horse with a fracture of the distal metatarsal. In regards to emergency management, which of the following is NOT part of triage? Repair of the fracture Assessment and treatment of pain Stabilization of the fracture Developing a treatment plan

Repair of the fracture Stabilization, pain management, and development of a treatment plan are all part of triage; repair is not.

A dog tries to swallow his ball and it gets stuck in the back of his throat. He is breathing very slowly and is not ventilating properly. He is alert but the obstructive breathing is a concern. Which of the following abnormalities would you expect? Respiratory alkalosis Hypothermia Respiratory acidosis Pulmonary hypertension

Respiratory acidosis Respiratory obstruction leads to accumulation of carbon dioxide. Increased PCO2 results in lower blood pH. This is respiratory acidosis.

Opioids are commonly used in veterinary medicine. What is one of the most common side effects of opioids? Diarrhea Increased heart rate Elevated temperature Respiratory depression

Respiratory depression Mu agonists (opioids) are known for causing respiratory depression, mostly at higher doses. They should be used with caution in animals with known breathing difficulty. Other side effects may include nausea, vomiting, sedation, or sometimes dysphoria. Diarrhea is not common. While opioids may cause elevated temperature in some cats, it is not very common. Opioids are a cornerstone of pain management in veterinary medicine.

Which of the following is the "minute volume" of a patient under anesthesia? Respiratory rate multiplied by tidal volume Tidal volume divided by lung capacity Oxygen consumption multiplied by tidal volume Respiratory rate multiplied by lung capacity

Respiratory rate multiplied by tidal volume Minute volume is the volume of air that is inspired by a patient in one minute. It is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the number of breaths per minute. The tidal volume is the volume of air that is inspired on each breath. The respiratory rate is the number of breaths per minute. Tidal volume is usually considerably smaller than the total lung capacity.

Which of the following would be elevated in a pet with regenerative anemia? -Hematocrit -Hemoglobin concentration -Lymphocyte count -Reticulocyte count

Reticulocyte count Reticulocytes are newly released red blood cells. These immature erythrocytes are indicative of a bone marrow response. An anemia is considered regenerative if the reticulocyte count is greater than 60,000. The hematocrit is low in a patient with anemia. Hemoglobin is typically low in a patient with anemia, especially if the pet has iron deficiency. Lymphocyte number can be variable but is not usually directly related to the anemia.

Where is the sinoatrial node located? Left ventricle Right atrium Left atrium Ventricular septum

Right atrium The sinoatrial node provides automaticity to the heart and is located on the right atrium. The impulse then travels to the atrioventricular node which then conducts the impulse down the Bundle of His to the Purkinje fibers. This pattern of depolarization results in a very coordinated contraction of the heart, allowing for smooth blood flow.

Which is the correct direction through the heart in which blood flows? Right atrium, mitral valave, left atrium, tricuspid valve Right atrium, aortic valve, left atrium, pulmonic valve Right atrium, tricuspid valve, left atrium, mitral valve Left atrium, mitral valve, right atrium, aortic valve

Right atrium, tricuspid valve, left atrium, mitral valve The tricuspid and mitral valves are both atrioventricular valves that divide the right sided chambers and left sided chambers, respectively. To follow blood flow through the entire body: Blood flows from the right atrium, to the tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, then to the rest of the body.

Phenylbutazone (bute) is often used for pain relief in horses. What side effect has been associated with this drug? Laminitis Esophageal stricture Right dorsal colitis Colonic impaction

Right dorsal colitis Phenylbutazone is an injectable non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug commonly used for the relief of inflammatory conditions associated with the musculoskeletal system in horses. This drug may cause right dorsal colitis associated with ulcerations in this specific region of the bowel.

A dog presents in critical condition and the veterinarian detects an abnormal heart rhythm. She asks you to get an ECG (electrocardiogram) on this patient. Which position should he be placed in for this reading? Dorsal recumbency Right lateral recumbency Left lateral recumbency Sternal recumbency

Right lateral recumbency An ECG should ideally be recorded on a patient in right lateral recumbency. An easy way to remember where leads are placed: You read your newspaper in the morning (black/white) front limbs Christmas comes at the end of the year (green/red) back limbs white/right rhyme grass grown on the ground (in right lateral, the limb on the "ground" or table in the right hindlimb) So: white: right forelimb black: left forelimb green: right hindlimb red: left hindlimb Not all ECG units will have all leads (the green one is sometimes omitted) but the positioning remains the same.

You are reading a cardiologist report discussing tricuspid valve insufficiency and grade 3 murmur. The mitral valve is said to be normal. If you listened to this patient, where would you expect to hear the murmur the loudest? Sternal Right side Left side cranial portion of the chest Left side caudal portion of the chest

Right side The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle.

Name the heart chamber responsible for pumping blood toward the lungs. Left atrium Right atrium Right ventricle Left ventricle

Right ventricle The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the vena cava. This blood is then pumped into the right ventricle (passing through the tricuspid valve) which then gets pumped into the lungs (passing through the pulmonary valve) via the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. The newly oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary vein. Once in the left atrium, the blood is pumped into the left ventricle (passing through the atrioventricular valve) from which it is then pumped into the circulation via the aorta (passing through the aortic valve).

Which of the following conditions in rats results from living in an area with the humidity too low? Chronic Respiratory Disease Mycoplasma Ringtail Red tears

Ringtail Ringtail occurs primarily when rats are kept in an environment too low in humidity. It shows up as rings around the tail where the blood supply has been compromised. Correcting the humidity to 50% will prevent the problem, but will not reverse any damage that has already been caused. Red tears or chromodacryorrhea in rats is thought to be caused by stress. Chronic Respiratory Disease and Mycoplasma are infectious respiratory diseases.

A 6-year old collie presents after falling out of a moving vehicle. The dog has an open tibial fracture and pulmonary contusions. What would be the best way to immediately stabilize the fracture? Splint Tourniquet Internal stabilization External stabilization Robert-Jones bandage

Robert-Jones bandage Definitive stabilization, internal (plate or screws), or external fixation cannot be performed until the patient is stable for anesthesia; these would not be recommended immediately following the accident due to the presence of pulmonary contusions. Temporary stabilization with a Robert-Jones compression bandage would be best. Placing a Robert-Jones bandage on a broken femur is contraindicated as this could act as a fulcrum and cause further displacement of the fragments. Tourniquets for long periods of time can be dangerous.

A wound in front of the eye in a dog (toward the front of the nose) may be described as being which of the following? Caudal to the eye Rostral to the eye Dorsal to the eye Ventral to the eye

Rostral to the eye Rostral is a term that indicates a structure is towards the front of an animal; the term comes from the latin term rostrum indicating the beak or snout. In veterinary medicine, anterior and posterior are often used only to describe distal extremities but may sometimes be used to describe positions on the head. Cranial is toward the head; caudal is toward the tail. Ventral is toward the abdomen; dorsal is toward the backbone. Lateral is away from midline; medial is toward midline. Proximal is close to the spine or body while distal is away; these are typically used when describing limbs (e.g. fracture of the proximal femur vs. fracture of the distal femur). Palmar is the bottom of the paw of the forelimb; plantar is the bottom of the paw of the hind limb.

What is the causative agent of visceral larval migrans in humans? Hookworm Tapeworm Whipworm Roundworm

Roundworm The correct answer is roundworm. The roundworm, Toxocara canis, is the most common cause of visceral larval migrans in humans. Transmission is usually fecal-oral. Puppies may acquire the disease transplacentally.

The correct order of the ruminant digestive system in regards to the chambers of their stomach is: Rumen, reticulum, abomasum, omasum Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum. Reticulum, rumen, omasum, abomasum Abomasum, omasum, rumen, reticulum

Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum This is the order of the "stomachs" in ruminants such as cattle. The abomasum is the true glandular stomach. The rumen is the largest chamber. The reticulum, which has a honeycomb type lining, is positioned up against the diaphragm and is the chamber where a magnet can be placed to try and prevent Hardware Disease. If the cow swallows a metal object, it falls into the reticulum where the magnet can attach to it and prevent the object (such as a nail or wire) from piercing through the diaphragm into the heart.

What is a frightened sheep most likely to do? Head butt Bite Kick Run

Run Sheep are a fight or flight species and will run when frightened.

In what order does an electrical impulse travel through the heart? SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, Bundle of His Bundle of His, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers AV node, SA node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers SA node, Bundle of His, AV node, Purkinje fibers

SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers The sinoatrial node (SA node) is the pacemaker of the heart located in the wall of the right atrium. It generates an electrical impulse that is carried to the atrioventricular node (AV node) which is located between the atria and ventricles. The impulse is then relayed down the conducting tissues, or the Bundle of His, and branches to the paths that supply the right and left ventricles (the right and left bundle branches). Purkinje fibers are reached last and are conductive fibers within the walls of the ventricles that relay the impulses to the cells that cause contraction of the ventricles. This process of impulse travel is known as depolarization.

Choose in order the corresponding acronyms for: once daily, twice daily, three times daily, and four times daily SID, BID, TID, QID BID, SID, QID, TID QID, SID, TID, BID TID, BID, SID QID SID, BID, QID, TID

SID, BID, TID, QID These acronyms are often used when prescribing medications: SID - once daily BID - twice daily TID - three times daily QID - four times daily It is best to write: every 24 hours, every 12 hours, every 8 hours, or every 6 hours when possible to avoid confusion.

The parotid gland is responsible for making and secreting which of the following? Sebum Epinephrine Tears Oxytocin Saliva

Saliva The parotid is the largest of the salivary glands. Sebum is made by the sebaceous glands. Epinephrine is made by the adrenal glands. Oxytocin is made by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland. Tears are produced by the lacrimal gland.

You volunteered at the zoo and spent the day handling the tortoises. A day later you have gastrointestinal symptoms. Reptiles are a major source for which of the following? Salmonella E. coli 0157 Streptococcus Giardia

Salmonella Salmonella is a Gram-negative rod of the family Enterobacteriaceae. It is transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Reptiles and sometimes birds can be chronic carriers of Salmonella. Turtles, iguanas, and snakes are especially known to harbor the bacteria.

Which type of fracture occurs at the growth plate and is seen in young animals? Salter-Harris Greenstick Transverse Oblique Comminuted

Salter-Harris Salter-Harris fractures are pediatric fractures occurring at the growth plate. A greenstick fracture is a hair-line type fracture that is not separated from the bone shaft. An oblique fracture (often called a spiral fracture) is a break in the shaft that results in two long sharp points. A transverse fracture is a break that goes directly across the bone shaft. Comminuted fractures have multiple fragments.

The shoulder joint links which two bones? Humerus and ulna Radius and ulna Scapula and humerus Humerus and radius

Scapula and humerus The shoulder joint connects the scapula and the humerus. The head of the humerus sits at glenoid cavity of the scapula to form the shoulder joint.

Which test checks for keratoconjunctivitis sicca? Tonometry Fluoroscein stain Schirmer Tear Test Nasolacrimal flush

Schirmer Tear Test The Schirmer Tear Test is the test for keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), or most commonly known as "dry eye". Tonometry is the measurement of intraocular pressures and tests for glaucoma, which is increased pressure in the eye. Fluoroscein stain checks for corneal ulcers or abrasions; it is a yellow dye that these defects will uptake on the cornea and can be seen under a blue light. Nasolacrimal flush is used to flush/clear out the nasolacrimal duct (tear duct) if it becomes clogged.

Which structure is the white part of the eye? Vitreous Cornea Optic nerve Lens Sclera

Sclera The sclera is the white fibrous tissue that extends from the cornea (the clear surface of the eye) to the optic nerve in the back of the eye.

What is the term commonly used to describe diarrhea in calves? Creeps Trots Runs Scours

Scours Scours is the common term for diarrhea in calves. It can be a serious health problem in calves and is best prevented by good husbandry.

If a veterinarian says an animal has pruritus, which of the following clinical signs is the animal likely displaying?

Scratching Pruritus is the term indicating that an animal is itchy. Scratching is the most common sign of pruritus. Others might include rubbing or head shaking, depending on the location of the pruritus.

Fasciola hepatica requires which intermediate host? Snail Rat Mosquito Flea

Snail Fasciola hepatica is the liver fluke. It is typically found in wet environments where snails proliferate. Snails are the intermediate host for this parasite, and the most common definitive hosts are sheep and cattle. It is a flat worm, resembling a leaf.

A fracture has just been repaired with a 3.5 mm screws. What is the 3.5 mm in reference to? Screw diameter Screw length Pitch Thread type

Screw diameter The number is in reference to the screw diameter. The pitch of a screw describes the number or distance between each thread. The two main types of thread used are cortical and cancellous. Cortical screws are designed for dense bone; cancellous screws are made for softer bone. The screw length is also measured in millimeters. The most common sizes used in small animal surgery are 2.0, 2.7, and 3.5 mm screws. In large animal surgery 4.5, 5.5, and 6.5 mm diameter screws are used.

This canine patient presents following his neuter surgery. He was neutered at the local animal shelter and the owner did not follow instructions to use an E-collar. He now has an open wound and a swollen scrotum. The scrotum is filled with blood due to self trauma. This could be called which of the following? Scrotal atrophy Scrotal torsion Scrotal hematoma Scrotal ablation

Scrotal hematoma "Hematoma" is the term for blood-filled or localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, usually in liquid form within the tissue (in this case the scrotum). Torsion means to twist or turn (usually when an organ twists on itself such as the mesentery, lung lobe, or testicle), ablation is removal of material from the surface of an object (total ear canal ablation), and atrophy is partial or complete wasting away of a part of the body.

The sac containing the testicles is known as which of the following? Cremaster Glans Epididymis Scrotum

Scrotum The scrotal sac contains the male gonads (testes).

Which of the following arrhythmias is common in horses and can be alleviated by exercise? Third degree AV block Atrial Fibrillation Ventricular Fibrillation Second degree AV block

Second degree AV block Second degree AV block is a very common arrhythmia in adult horses as a result of high vagal tone. This arrhythmia is "regularly irregular" and often alleviates with exercise. It is more common in athletic horses. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular arrhythmia and a more serious condition that occurs when the SA node isn't firing properly. Electrocardiogram is the best way to determine atrial fibrillation by identifying a lack of p waves. It is treated with Quinidine, an antiarrhythmic. Ventricular fibrillation is a severely abnormal heart rhythm that is most often identified in patients that have undergone cardiac arrest. Third degree AV block, or complete heart block, is rare in horses and usually associated with degenerative or inflammatory changes in the heart. Horses with this condition usually have exercise intolerance or syncope.

A 4-month-old Angus calf in a beef herd in Northern California has died. Symptoms before death included lethargy and coughing. You assist with a necropsy and find pale areas in the cardiac muscles. The veterinarian diagnoses white muscle disease. He asks you to assist with collecting blood samples from the herd to test for what deficiency? Selenium Vitamin A Potassium Copper

Selenium Nutritional myodegeneration (white muscle disease) is associated with low dietary selenium levels and compounded by low dietary vitamin E. Unsupplemented cattle grazing soils of volcanic origin are at high risk, and calves born in these herds may show skeletal or cardiac muscle syndromes. Measurement of whole blood selenium in some of the cows from the herd will indicate if the herd needs supplementation with selenium.

Clomipramine is a veterinary approved drug used most commonly to treat which condition? Urinary incontinence Epilepsy Allergies Separation anxiety

Separation anxiety Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is most often used to treat generalized anxiety or separation anxiety in small animals. It is also approved for obsessive compulsive behaviors in dogs. Chlorpheniramine sounds similar, and is an anti-histamine used in treating allergies. The most commonly prescribed medication for urinary incontinence is phenylpropanolamine. Potassium-bromide and phenobarbitol are commonly used medications for epilepsy.

A foal has petechial hemorrhages on its pinna, injected sclera, and brick red mucous membranes. These are signs of which of the following? Failure of passive transfer Milk allergy Cryptosporidiosis Sepsis

Sepsis Depression, cold limbs, aural petechiations, injected tongue and mucous membranes, hypoglycemia, increased respiration, decreased suckling of the mare, hypothermia, and recumbency are all symptoms of sepsis in the foal. Failure of passive transfer predisposes the foal to sepsis.

Which of the following types of shock may cause brick-red mucous membrane color? Hypovolemic Obstructive Cardiogenic Septic shock

Septic shock Septic shock, sometimes called distributive shock, may cause brick-red or injected mucous membrane color and bounding pulses. This is because in cases of sepsis, the bacteria in the bloodstream cause severe vasodilation, which leads to hyperemic gums and low blood pressure. Septic shock may be caused by infectious diseases or by secondary infections. Cardiogenic shock is caused by decreased cardiac output. It may occur from primary heart diseases like cardiomyopathy, arrhythmia, or valvular disease. Obstructive shock is a type of cardiogenic shock, caused by an obstruction of blood flow. Examples of this include heartworm, pulmonary thromboemolism (PTE), or pericardial disease. Hypovolemic shock is caused by decreased perfusion, especially from blood loss or dehydration. Hypovolemic shock is the most common cause of shock in small animals.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of Humulin insulin? Shake well before use It causes blood sugar to decrease when administered It can be given intramuscularly Keep refrigerated

Shake well before use Most Insulin types should never be shaken. Insulin should only be gently rolled prior to use. The exception to this is Vetsulin, which should be shaken prior to use. Insulin should be refrigerated, and although typically given subcutaneously, it can be given intramuscularly and is often given this way in cases of diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin causes a drop in blood glucose.

Which breed should not receive ivermectin for treating Demodex? Boxer Sheltie Chihuahua Pit Bull

Sheltie Ivermectin should not be given to collie-type breeds due to a possible MDR1 gene mutation that could cause the drug to be toxic. Breeds included for possible ivermectin toxicity include Collies, Shelties, and Australian Shepherds. The saying is "white feet, don't treat".

What is the most likely period of time for a scrotal hernia to occur in a stallion? Shortly after a race Shortly after heavy jumping Shortly after breeding Shortly after a trailer ride

Shortly after breeding Newborn foals and breeding stallions are most commonly affected with scrotal hernias. In foals, the hernias may spontaneously resolve as long as they are addressed every time they occur. However, there is a risk that the herniated contents can become incarcerated, resulting in a surgical emergency. In breeding stallions, the contents usually become incarcerated and emergency surgery will be needed.

Patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid which of the following? Signs of diabetes insipidus Signs of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency Signs of hyperadrenocorticism Signs of hyperinsulinism Signs of hypoadrenocorticism

Signs of hypoadrenocorticism Chronic prednisone administration can lead to atrophy of the adrenal gland due to the absence of signaling to produce cortisol. If prednisone is suddenly stopped, the adrenal gland will not be capable of producing enough cortisol, and the animal may show signs of hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease).

Electrical activity that serves as the pacemaker in the heart originates from what specific area? Bundle of His in the left ventricle Atrioventricular node in the right atrium Bundle of His in the right ventricle Sinoatrial node in the left atrium Atrioventricular node in the left atrium Sinoatrial node in the right atrium

Sinoatrial node in the right atrium In health, the pacemaker of the heart is the sinoatrial node within the right atrium. This impulse is transmitted to the atrioventricular node located at the top of the interventricular septum, followed by the bundle of His (within the walls of the interventricular septum) and through the Purkinje system.

You are asked to restrain a dog for a cephalic draw. How are you going to hold the dog? Sitting position, holding the head steady and pointing the muzzle upward Lateral recumbency, holding off and stabilizing the lateral side of the pelvic limb Sitting position, holding off and stabilizing a forelimb Dorsal recumbency and stabilize the hindlimbs

Sitting position, holding off and stabilizing a forelimb The cephalic vein courses over the dorsal aspect of the radius and is a common place to draw blood. The position holding the head and pointing the muzzle upward is for jugular draws. The lateral aspect of a pelvic limb is used to draw from the lateral saphenous vein. The dorsal recumbency position is used sometimes for cystocentesis (inserting a needle in the bladder to collect urine)

A suture pack with a cutting needle would be used on which of the following? Gall bladder Skin Intestine Urinary bladder

Skin A cutting needle is ideal for skin. Cutting edge needles are not typically used when an airtight or watertight suture line is needed (like the bladder, intestines, etc.)

A drug that is a cholinergic agent will have which of the following effects? Dilate the pupil Decrease intestinal motility Cause central nervous system depression Slow the heart rate Decrease salivation

Slow the heart rate Cholinergic agents are drugs that mimic the effects of acetylcholine within the autonomic nervous system. These drugs stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system. They promote salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation (sometimes abbreviated SLUD or referred to as "rest and digest" functions). They can cause pupil constriction or decreased heart rate. A commonly used cholinergic drug is bethanechol which is structurally similar to acetylcholine but resists degradation. It is used to treat gastric atony or urinary retention in the bladder.

Stimulation of the Vagus nerve results in which of the following? Tachycardia Dilated pupils Slowed heart rate Diarrhea Hypersalivation

Slowed heart rate

You are working at the specialty center and are observing an echocardiogram for the first time. The cardiologist prescribes the drug propanolol to a canine patient. What effect will this medication have on the heart? Stops ventricular premature contractions Increases contractility Increases the heart rate Slows the heart rate

Slows the heart rate Propanolol is a Beta-1 and Beta-2 blocker. It blocks the sympathetic nervous system (sympatholytic) which allows for the parasympathetic effects on the heart to dominate. The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart. Remember- parasympathetic- rest and digest (slower heart rate), and sympathetic- fight or flight (increased heart rate).

The vomeronasal organ is closely associated with which sense? Taste Sight Balance Smell

Smell The vomeronasal organ is associated with olfaction, or smell. The Flehmen response sometimes seen in horses occurs when the horse extends its upper lip, facilitating exposure of this organ to better detect smells or pheromones.

Antivenin is typically given in cases of which of the following? Congestive heart failure Toxin ingestion Prolonged seizure activity Snake bites

Snake bites Antivenin contains venom-neutralizing antibodies and provides some passive immunity against viperine snakes (mostly Crotalidae species, or rattlesnakes).

A rabbit presents with a history of sneezing, nasal discharge, and conjunctivitis. The veterinarian suspects the rabbit has a Pasteurella infection, most commonly known as which of the following? Snuffles Rabbit fever Kennel cough Q fever

Snuffles Snuffles is caused most often by Pasteurella multocida and results in upper respiratory symptoms and sometimes conjunctivitis in rabbits. It is highly contagious and generally treated with antibiotics. Tularemia is sometimes known as Rabbit fever. Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetti.

An animal that has been diagnosed with underlying cardiac insufficiency may need to be restricted on intake of: Magnesium Sodium Thiamine Potassium

Sodium Water follows salt, so an animal consuming more sodium is likely to retain more water. This may be detrimental to an animal with underlying heart disease.

A 13-year old diabetic cat arrests during hospitalization during a blood glucose curve. During resuscitation efforts, an emergency blood panel is run which reveals a blood pH of 6.4. What drug may be requested by the veterinarian to help correct this abnormality but would not be used as a long-term therapy? Darbopoetin Insulin Sodium bicarbonate Potassium gluconate Methylprednisolone

Sodium bicarbonate A blood pH of 6.4 is low, or acidic. Sodium bicarbonate can increase the cat's blood pH but ultimately the underlying problem (the diabetes) must be treated. Insulin may be used in both resuscitation efforts and long-term therapy. Darbopoetin causes an increase in red blood cell production and has no effect on blood pH. Potassium gluconate is administered orally to correct hypokalemia. Methylprednisolone can cause an increase in blood glucose levels and is not a drug used to correct pH. Corticosteroids such as this should be avoided in diabetic patients when possible.

Which species is particularly aggressive when with her young, and extreme caution must be used? Sows Cows Mares Ewes

Sows In general, pigs are a more aggressive species. The lactating sow is particularly dangerous; and when handling piglets, it is best to remove the sow to a separate area where she cannot hear her piglets.

For which procedure is a celiotomy performed? Pericardial window Lung lobectomy Hemilaminectomy Spay

Spay A celiotomy is another name for laparotomy and involves making an incision into the abdomen. An ovariohysterectomy requires an incision into the abdomen, or a celiotomy. A pericardial window is a procedure to remove the pericardial sac from the heart and does not require an abdominal incision. A lung lobectomy is removal of a lung lobe and requires a thoracotomy (opening of the chest), not a celiotomy. A hemilaminectomy is a surgery used to relieve spinal cord compression.

Which of the following is an important safety feature that one must follow when using biomedical lasers for surgery? The patient must be maintained on oxygen only The patient's incision site may only be scrubbed with 0.05% dilute chlorhexadine solution The operator must hold his breath while the laser is being activated Special safety glasses must be worn

Special safety glasses must be worn Special safety glasses that are specific to the laser wavelength should be worn by anyone present in the room during biomedical laser use. There are no specific requirements regarding the gas the patient is breathing, but one must keep in mind that oxygen is flammable. If you are working near the mouth while the patient is receiving oxygen, make sure there are no leaks in the system. The incision site may be scrubbed with any commonly used pre-operative scrubbing agent. If alcohol is used, make sure the excess alcohol is removed or has evaporated prior to applying the laser. There is no need for the operator to hold his/her breath while activating the laser.

Which of the following would not typically be caused by tetanus in the horse? Muscular rigidity Respiratory arrest Inability to chew or swallow Convulsions Spontaneous abortion

Spontaneous abortion The toxin that causes tetanus in horses results in convulsions and muscle rigidity that starts in the hindquarters and moves towards the forequarters. In some cases, the tongue is paralyzed and the animal can not chew or swallow. Paralysis of the respiratory muscles can lead to respiratory arrest. Spontaneous abortions are not a symptom of tetnus.

What does the term "metastasis" used in veterinary medicine most often describe? A malignant tumor that is locally aggressive A non-cancerous lesion Spread of cancer from the primary site to another site Degeneration of a tumor without treatment

Spread of cancer from the primary site to another site A malignant tumor is synonymous with cancer. Malignant tumors may metastasize, or spread to other sites. Very common areas to which tumors metastasize are the lymph nodes and lungs. This is why lymph node aspirations and chest radiographs are often done as part of cancer staging.

What is the best type of feeding/drinking bowls to give to patients staying in your hospital? Plastic Bowls Stainless Steel Bowls Ceramic Bowls Paper Bowls Glass Bowls

Stainless Steel Bowls It is best to use stainless steel bowls since they are durable and can be sterilized if needed. It also beneficial to patients that may have allergies to plastic.

Mannitol Salt Agar, or MSA, selects for growth of which species of organism? -Escherichia coli -Staphylococcus -Clostridium -Streptococcus -Campylobacter

Staphylococcus This media contains a high concentration of salt, making it mostly selective for Staphylococci, since this level of NaCl inhibits most other bacteria. This media contains the indicator phenol red.

It is a very busy day at the clinic. Multiple emergencies walk in all at the same time. Choose the order in which the following cases should be seen. Dyspnea, status epilepticus, stranguria, cervical pain, fracture, abscess Dyspnea, fracture, status epilepticus, cervical pain, abscess, stranguria Stranguria, status epilepticus, dyspnea, fracture, abscess, cervical pain Status epilepticus, dyspnea, fracture, stranguria, cervical pain, abscess

Status epilepticus, dyspnea, fracture, stranguria, cervical pain, abscess In a perfect situation both the seizuring pet and the pet with difficulty breathing would be treated immediately. Sometimes this may not be possible and triage is necessary. Status epilepticus is a state of seizuring that is continuous. This is life-threatening, and the seizures must be stopped immediately or permanent brain and organ damage can occur. Dyspnea or difficulty breathing is always a top priority emergency. The dyspneic animal should be assessed and placed on oxygen while the seizuring dog is being treated. Fractures, while painful, are not immediately life-threatening as long as there is no bleeding vessel that needs to be controlled, which is sometimes the case with an open fracture. Straining to urinate is not usually life-threatening unless it is a "blocked cat", or urethral obstruction. If this were a blocked cat, it should be seen before the fracture. Neck pain and abscesses are not life-threatening and should be seen last if the patients are stable.

Sometimes drugs, such as phenobarbital, are given in a higher dose as a loading dose and then tapered back to a maintenance dose. This helps the drug to accumulate to a therapeutic level in the body until the concentration plateaus. When this occurs, the drug has reached which of the following? Bioavailability Steady state Nadir Half-life

Steady state The steady state is the accumulation of a drug concentration in the body until the concentration plateaus. A nadir is a low point, often used to describe the lowest blood sugar during a glucose curve. Half-life describes the time it takes for the blood concentration of a drug to drop to half of its steady state. The bioavailability is the degree to which an administered drug is absorbed. The drug may be absorbed even if peak concentrations or steady state has not yet been reached.

Sometimes drugs, such as phenobarbital, are given in a higher dose as a loading dose and then tapered back to a maintenance dose. This helps the drug to accumulate to a therapeutic level in the body until the concentration plateaus. When this occurs, the drug has reached which of the following? Half-life Bioavailability Nadir Steady state

Steady state The steady state is the accumulation of a drug concentration in the body until the concentration plateaus. A nadir is a low point, often used to describe the lowest blood sugar during a glucose curve. Half-life describes the time it takes for the blood concentration of a drug to drop to half of its steady state. The bioavailability is the degree to which an administered drug is absorbed. The drug may be absorbed even if peak concentrations or steady state has not yet been reached.

After finishing a routine enterotomy, the surgeon prepares to perform a leak check of the site. What instruments should you hand the surgeon? Sterile syringe, needle, and saline Sterile suction tip and gauze Sterile saline and the appropriate sized suture Sterile red rubber catheter and saline

Sterile syringe, needle, and saline A leak check is performed by occluding both sides of intestine several centimeters from the enterotomy and then injecting sterile intraluminal saline, with a syringe. As the intestine fills with saline the incision site is evaluated for obvious leakage. Ligatures are then placed as necessary to seal any leak sites. A sterile red rubber catheter may be used for leak checks in male dogs that have had a cystotomy. The red rubber catheter is introduced via the penis, and saline is then infused into the bladder to perform the leak check.

A dog is having his teeth cleaned and has a discolored upper right third premolar. The doctor would like you to take an x-ray of this tooth. Which patient position would make the radiograph easiest to take? Right lateral recumbency Sternal recumbency Left lateral recumbency Dorsal recumbency

Sternal recumbency Sternal recumbency is best for the maxilla (upper jaws). Dorsal recumbency is easiest for the anterior mandible. Lateral is best for the premolars and molars of the mandible.

A dog has torn his cranial cruciate ligament and is having surgery. What area should you clip and aseptically prep? Shoulder Stifle Abdomen Elbow Hip

Stifle The correct answer is stifle. An extracapsular repair involves placing a synthetic suture material like heavy gauge fishing line spanning in a similar orientation as the cranial cruciate ligament, except the material is outside the joint. This is a very common surgery performed in small breed dogs with ruptured cranial cruciate ligaments.

The main purpose of stimulating the perineal area of puppies and kittens is to: Help comfort them when orphaned Stimulate respiration at birth Stimulate urination and defecation Stimulate the suckle reflex

Stimulate urination and defecation Orphaned puppies and kittens need manual stimulation of the perineal area to help them to urinate and defecate. This mimics the mother dog licking the region to stimulate evacuation.

What is the main effect of Dopram (doxopram hydrochloride)? Slows heart rate Induces emesis Stops seizures Stimulates respiration

Stimulates respiration Dopram (doxopram hydrochloride) is a potent respiratory stimulant. In veterinary medicine, it is used to aid in diagnosis of laryngeal paralysis.

Electrocautery is often used for which of the following reasons? Sterilize the skin prior to surgery Make an incision Stop bleeding vessels Provide a shock to the heart

Stop bleeding vessels Electrocautery is used to achieve hemostasis by cauterizing bleeding vessels.

How do oral flea control products such as Program or Sentinel work? Sterilizing the male flea to prevent reproduction Paralyzing the nervous system of the flea Stopping egg hatching Killing adult fleas directly

Stopping egg hatching These products interfere with chitin synthesis. The flea's "egg tooth", which is made of chitin, is no longer able to help the flea hatch from the egg. Another possible correct choice, but not provided, would be that females produce sterile eggs. Female fleas may produce 150-300 eggs per week (or up to 50 eggs a day). These products do not kill adult fleas.

Streptococcus equi is a bacterium that causes swollen glands in horses. The common term for this condition is: Sweeney Strangles Founder Choke

Strangles Strangles is a highly contagious infection caused by the bacterium Streptococcus equi. It affects mostly the upper respiratory tract and causes fever, nasal discharge, lymph node swelling, and many other symptoms.

What is the causative agent of Equine strangles? Equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV1) Moraxella bovis Streptococcus equi Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus equi The most common symptoms of strangles are mucopurulent nasal discharge, fever, decreased appetite, cough, and abscessed lymph nodes that often rupture and drain. Horses with strangles should be isolated for 6 to 8 weeks because the disease is highly contagious. It is caused by the bacteria Strep equi. Moraxella bovis is the cause of pinkeye in cattle. EHV-1 causes abortion in horses.

A guinea pig presents with swollen glands in the neck (see image). What organism most often causes this problem? Escherica coli Streptococcus zooepidemicus Malassezia pachydermatis Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus zooepidemicus Cervical lymphadenitis is a swelling or abscess of the cervical lymph nodes in a guinea pig's neck. It is most often caused by Streptococcus zooepidemicus. It is a bacteria most commonly transmitted through broken oral mucosa. It is treated by surgical draining and flushing of the abscess. Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is the antibiotic of choice in adult guinea pigs. It is thought that this bacterium could be zoonotic in immune-compromised humans, so you the technician should wear gloves and take extra precautions when treating a guinea pig with a swelling such as this.

A guinea pig presents with swollen glands in the neck. What organism most often causes this problem? Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus zooepidemicus Malassezia pachydermatis Escherica coli

Streptococcus zooepidemicus Cervical lymphadenitis is a swelling or abscess of the cervical lymph nodes in a guinea pig's neck. It is most often caused by Streptococcus zooepidemicus. It is a bacteria most commonly transmitted through broken oral mucosa. It is treated by surgical draining and flushing of the abscess. Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is the antibiotic of choice in adult guinea pigs. It is thought that this bacterium could be zoonotic in immune-compromised humans, so you the technician should wear gloves and take extra precautions when treating a guinea pig with a swelling.

What type of muscle is the heart? Striated muscle, voluntary Smooth muscle, voluntary Smooth muscle, involuntary Striated muscle, involuntary

Striated muscle, involuntary The three muscle types are cardiac, smooth, and skeletal. Cardiac muscle cells are located in the walls of the heart. This is striated muscle that is under involuntary control. Smooth muscle fibers are located in walls of hollow visceral organs, except the heart and are spindle-shaped. This type is also under involuntary control. Skeletal muscle fibers are striated and are in muscles attached to the skeleton. They are under voluntary control.

Cardiac Output (CO) is determined by what variables? Systolic pressure X Stroke volume Systemic vascular resistance X Systolic pressure Stroke volume x Heart rate Heart rate X Systemic vascular resistance

Stroke volume x Heart rate The correct formula for cardiac output (the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute) is Stroke volume x Heart rate.

Infection of foals with the parasite whose egg is shown in the image below can be associated with diarrhea in young horses. What is the parasite? The microscopic image was taken at 40X; the egg is approximately 50 um. Oxyuris equi Strongylus vulgaris Parascaris equorum Strongyloides westeri

Strongyloides westeri This image shows a Strongyloides westeri egg. Strongyloides pass from the host in the larvated form and are recognizable as an oval-shaped, thin-shelled embryonated egg. Larvae of Strongyloides westeri are transmitted to foals in the mare's milk. Adult horses rarely have patent infections except when larvae harbored in their tissues migrate into a mare's milk after parturition. The worms are found in the small intestine and may cause diarrhea in young horses. Ivermectin or oxibendazole are effective in treatment of S. westeri.

Which of the following is NOT considered a clinically important large strongyle in the horse? Strongylus edentatus Strongylus vulgaris Strongylus equorum Strongylus equinus

Strongylus equorum Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentatus, and Strongylus equinus are the large strongyles of horses. Strongylus equorum does not exist. Although Parascaris equorum is a relevant parasite (round worm) in foals

Which of the following is NOT considered a clinically important large strongyle in the horse? Strongylus equorum Strongylus equinus Strongylus vulgaris Strongylus edentatus

Strongylus equorum Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentatus, and Strongylus equinus are the large strongyles of horses. Strongylus equorum does not exist. Although Parascaris equorum is a relevant parasite (round worm) in foals,

A 4-year old male Thoroughbred horse presents for colic due to verminous arteritis caused by an equine parasite. An egg of this parasite is shown below. What is the parasite that causes verminous arteritis of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses? Strongyloides westeri Taenia coli Strongylus vulgaris Trichostrongylus axei

Strongylus vulgaris Colic with an associated painful mass at the root of the mesenery is seen with verminous arteritis, caused by damage to the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches by Strongylus vulgaris. The strongyle egg shown in the picture is an extra hint. A number of anthelmintics are effective including benzimidazoles, pyrantel and ivermectin.

What organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse? Salmonella Strongylus vulgaris Parascaris equorum Cryptosporidium

Strongylus vulgaris S. vulgaris is a large strongyle that causes arteritis and thrombosis of the vessels of the GI tract in the horse and eventually can result in segmental ischemia or infarction of the bowel wall. This, in turn, results in signs of colic in the horse. Fortunately, with the advent of modern anthelmintics, this form of colic is not common.

What organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse? Salmonella Cryptosporidium Parascaris equorum Strongylus vulgaris

Strongylus vulgaris S. vulgaris is a large strongyle that causes arteritis and thrombosis of the vessels of the GI tract in the horse and eventually can result in segmental ischemia or infarction of the bowel wall. This, in turn, results in signs of colic in the horse. Fortunately, with the advent of modern anthelmintics, this form of colic is not common.

What type of crystal tends to form in urine that is alkaline and typically appears as a 6-8 sided prism with tapering sides? -Struvite -Ammonium biurate -Calcium oxalate - Calcium carbonate

Struvite Struvite crystals are sometimes described as resembling a coffin lid, although they may sometimes have a slightly different appearance. They are composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate. Calcium carbonate crystals are round with radiating lines from the center; they may also have a dumbbell shape. Calcium oxalate crystals appear as small squares with an "x" across them. Ammonium biurate crystals are round with long, irregular spicules.

The veterinarian asks you to please administer an FVRCP vaccination to a cat that is boarding. Where should you administer the vaccination? Subcutaneous at the nape of the neck Into the epaxial muscles on either side Subcutaneous on the lateral aspect of a forelimb as distal as possible Subcutaneous at the intrascapular region

Subcutaneous on the lateral aspect of a forelimb as distal as possible Because of the risk associated with feline vaccine-associated sarcomas, it is recommended to give feline vaccines on the lateral aspect of a limb as distal as possible. The intrascapular region and nape of the neck area should be avoided.

The interns at the hospital where you work are required to "SOAP" their patients daily. What does this stand for? Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan Symptoms, Outline, Assessment, Prognosis Subjective, Outline, Action, Plan Symptoms, Outline, Assessment, Plan

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan SOAP stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan. Subjective includes the history; Objective includes the physical exam and other information gathered; Assessment includes the problem list and rule outs; and Plan includes the next steps in the evaluation/plan.

What is a ranula? Sludge accumulation in the gallbladder Cyst on the eyelid Anal gland infection Sublingual mucocele

Sublingual mucocele A ranula is a fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct. They are found under the tongue.

How are bladder stone types identified? Gross examination Submit to lab for analysis Look for crystals on the urinalysis Check the urine pH

Submit to lab for analysis The only way to know what a bladder stone is composed of is through lab analysis of its composition. Sometimes we can make an educated guess based on the appearance of the stones grossly, on a radiograph, crystals in urine, or based on urine pH, but none of these things are definitive and can be unreliable.

What is the best way to administer long-term medications to the eye of a horse with a severe corneal ulcer? Manual direct application of the medication Subpalpebral lavage system Sedation Sub-conjunctival injection

Subpalpebral lavage system The horse has very strong palpebrae (eyelids) that tend to spasm and close when they are manually manipulated, especially if the eye is painful from a corneal ulcer. The subpalpebral lavage system is placed under the eyelid (not in contact with the cornea) and a long tube extends to the withers. This allows the frequent administration of medications without touching the eye. This is the best method if long term eye medications are necessary.

Which stain is used to look for lipids or fats and is helpful in looking for intestinal malabsorption? -Sedi-stain -Sudan stain -Sulphur dye -Hematoxylin and eosin stain -Silver stain

Sudan stain Intestinal malabsorption is detected via the Sudan Stain Test. It is performed on feces to look for fat. Sudan stain is a dye which stains for lipids specifically.

You find coccidia (Cystoisospora) on a fecal float for a puppy that presents with mucoid diarrhea with streaks of blood. What medication is used to treat coccidia? Metronidazole Praziquantel Fenbendazole Pyrantel Sulfadimethoxine

Sulfadimethoxine Sulfadimethoxine (Albon) is used to treat coccidia in dogs and cats.

In the horse, the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure? Suprascapular nerve Radial nerve Brachial plexus First cervical vertebrae

Suprascapular nerve Sweeney is the term for atrophy of the shoulder muscle in the horse. It is caused by damage to the suprascapular nerve. This nerve is responsible for innervation to the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles, which are found in the scapula (shoulder blade).

Which of the following surgical instruments should never be autoclaved? Surgical drills Scalpel blades Gauze sponges Mosquito forceps Surgical towels

Surgical drills Autoclaves can be used to sterilize drapes, gowns, gauze, glassware, and most surgical instruments such as forceps, clamps, scissors, and scalpels. Heat-sensitive items that must be sterilized by other means include fiber-optic equipment, lenses, plastic, electric and pneumatic devices.

Which of the following suture/needle combination is most commonly used in veterinary medicine? Swaged, straight needle Eyed, straight needle Swaged, curved needle Eyed, curved needle

Swaged, curved needle A swaged needle is one that has the suture connected to the needle. It is essentially "eye-less". Curved needles are preferentially used to suture all anatomic structures such as fascia, subcutaneous tissue, dermis, and skin. Eyed needles have a hole at the end through which suture is fed. These types of needles are more traumatic to the tissues and not as commonly used.

Bandages are commonly placed on the legs of animals after surgical procedures to help prevent swelling and protect the incision. They can also be used to help stabilize fractures or protect wounds. Which of the following is NOT a sign of a potential bandage complication when monitoring the bandage of a forelimb bandage? Swelling of the neck Soiling of the bandage Slipping of the bandage Swelling of the toes

Swelling of the neck Swelling of the neck would definitely be alarming but would not be associated with a bandage complication. Bandage complications are usually seen as a result of slippage, wetting, or soiling, which result in bandage sores. Additionally, slippage or improper placement can result in constriction and subsequent problems with circulation. If circulation is interrupted, a tourniquet effect may occur; this can be a very serious complication resulting in loss of the limb if gone unchecked.

Blood pressure increases as blood vessels constrict. Which system causes blood pressure to increase when stimulated, and which corresponding stimulus could induce this response? Parasympathetic nervous system, exercise Central nervous system, seizure Parasympathetic nervous system, digestion Sympathetic nervous system, fear Sympathetic nervous system, digestion

Sympathetic nervous system, fear The sympathetic nervous system comprises the "fight or flight" response of the nervous system; the parasympathetic nervous system comprises the "rest and digest" portion. When our blood pressure rises (think of fear-induced increases in heart rate and blood pressure), we are stimulating our sympathetic nervous system. Exercise also causes these increases during activity and is a stimulant of the sympathetic nervous system.

Parrots have the unique ability to mimic sound. What anatomical structure in birds is responsible for producing sound? Choana Larynx Cloaca Syrinx

Syrinx The syrinx is considered to be the voice box of parrots. They don't have a larynx, like mammels. The syrinx is located between the base of the tongue and the trachea. The choana is the slit-like opening in the roof of the bird's mouth that connects to the sinus cavity in the skull. The cloaca is the opening where the feces, urine, and reproductive activity exit the body.

A cat presents in respiratory distress and displays very rapid and shallow breathing. Which of the following is an accurate description of this breathing pattern? Tachycardic Agonal Obstructive Tachypneic

Tachypneic Tachypnea is rapid breathing. Tachycardia is a rapid heart rate. Agonal breathing is characterized by shallow, slow, irregular inspirations followed by irregular pauses. Obstructive breathing is characterized by a slow inspiratory phase followed by a rapid expiratory phase and can sometimes have respiratory noise (i.e. stertor) associated with breathing.

A puppy presents for his caudectomy procedure. What is being performed? Soft palate repair Tail removal Dewclaw removal Testicle removal

Tail removal Caudectomy is the removal of an animal's tail. Tail "docking" and tail amputation are caudectomy procedures.

A patient under general anesthesia has become hypoxic. You suspect that the endotracheal tube might be in too far. How can you be sure? If the endotracheal tube connector is past the incisors, it is in too far Take an endotracheal tube with a similar outside diameter, line up the connector on the proximal end, and then lay it against the outside of the patient approximately following the route of the trachea Move the endotracheal tube cranially an inch and check to see if the hypoxemia resolves Take an endotracheal tube with a similar outside diameter, line up the measurement numbers on the proximal end of the tube, and then lay it against the outside of the patient approximately following the route of the trachea

Take an endotracheal tube with a similar outside diameter, line up the measurement numbers on the proximal end of the tube, and then lay it against the outside of the patient approximately following the route of the trachea The endotracheal tube's distal end should not extend past the point of the shoulder, and its proximal end should not extend past the incisor teeth. Proper placement insures that the animal is not endobronchially intubated which can cause hypoxemia and one-sided lung collapse. Lining up the connectors on the proximal end of the endotracheal tube may give you a false measurement because endotracheal tubes can be cut shorter to lessen the dead space on smaller patients. Pulling the endotracheal tube cranially without measuring could cause the patient to become extubated, making matters worse. If the endotracheal tube connector is past the incisors, it doesn't necessarily mean that it in too far. The tube might have been cut shorter for a previous patient to lessen dead space and may not be long enough for another patient. The distal end might be perfectly placed.

When handling a raptor, what is the anatomic structure that can cause the most damage to a handler? Beaks Tails Wings Talons

Talons In the birds of prey, the talons are very sharp and dangerous and need to be secured. While the beak and wings are also "weapons", the mouth is soft except the point of the beak, and the jaw isn't very strong. In the raptorial species, gloves are often used and needed as part of the restraint method.

What is the name of the reflective layer behind the retina that allows animals to have improved night vision? Cornea Optic nerve Tapetum Lens

Tapetum Domestic animals have a tapetum to help them see in dim light. Pigs do not have a tapetum. The tapetum reflects light back through the retina, increasing the light available to photoreceptors. This is a photo of a normal canine fundus. Note the reflective green tapetum.

A healthy 1-year old Labradoodle presents for a wellness exam. You are asked to evaluate the dog's fecal float; you find the structures seen in the image below (shown from 40X magnification, each is about 40 um in diameter). What are they? Roundworm eggs Tapeworm eggs Giardia trophozoites Hookworm eggs Giardia cysts

Tapeworm eggs These are Taenia eggs, although it is frequently not possible to distinguish them visually from Spirometra. Adult cestodes in the intestine of dogs and cats rarely cause serious disease but potential signs include malaise, increased appetite, colic, or mild diarrhea.

What does bog spavin describe? Inflammation of the superficial digital flexor tendon Rotation of the coffin joint Tarsocrural effusion Abscessation of the hoof wall

Tarsocrural effusion Bog spavin is a term used in the equine field. It describes the accumulation of synovial fluid in the tarsocrural joint. Rotation of the coffin joint occurs with laminitis. "Bowed tendon" and tendonitis are the descriptive terms for inflammation of a tendon. If in the correct location the abscessed hoof wall may be termed a subsolar abscess. These result in extreme pain and lameness and must be distinguished from laminitis.

The "hock joint" of a horse is more appropriately identified as what structure? Metatarsophalangeal joint Tarsometatarsal joint Distal interphalangeal joint Tarsocrural joint

Tarsocrural joint The hock joint, more specifically called the tarsocrurual joint in the horse, is a high-motion joint composed of numerous bones.

Which essential amino acid is critical for cats? Lysine Arginine Tyrosine Taurine

Taurine Taurine deficiency in cats is associated with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) and retinal degeneration (think taurine Deficiency = DCM).

Telazol is commonly used in veterinary anesthetic immobilizations. Telazol is a combination of which two drugs? Acepromazine and butorphanol Teletamine and zolazepam Ketamine and xylazine Ketamine and diazepam

Teletamine and zolazepam Telazol is an injectable anesthetic/tranquilizer used for restraint or anesthesia. It is a controlled substance made of teletamine and zolazepam. Teletamine is a classified as a dissociative while zolazepam is a benzodiazepine.

Anesthetic monitoring is extremely important in the operating room. If you are in surgery with a cat, which of the following parameters would you consider abnormal? Temperature of 93.7F End-tidal CO2 of 45 Systolic blood pressure of 132 mmHg PCV of 39

Temperature of 93.7F Of the parameters listed, the low temperature is most alarming. Heat support is extremely important in the anesthetized patient. Draping of the patient, using a warm air system or heat blanket, placing a towel between the patient and the operating table are all measures to help maintain a normal temperature. It is not abnormal for that recovering patient to be hypothermic, but every effort should be made to minimize that. A systolic blood pressure above 90 and below 160 mmHg is ideal for a cat or dog. An end-tidal CO2 level in the range of 35-45 is considered normal. Any acute drop in PCV should be relayed to the surgeon. The PCV measurement in this question falls within the normal range.

What are hoof testers used for in horses? Test if wide enough to support weight Test thickness Test hardness Test for pain

Test for pain The hoof tester is use to apply pressure over parts of the hoof, to see if a pain response results.

If a horse gets a cut on loose barbed wire or steps on a rusty nail, which disease would be the biggest risk? Leptospirosis Blackleg Tetanus Rhodococcus

Tetanus Places where horses are kept (pastures, barns, etc.) should be free of loose nails, barbed wire, or other things that may penetrate the skin and cause infection with Clostridium tetani. Horses should be vaccinated against tetanus. Rhodococcus is a gram-positive bacterium and is often found in dry and dusty soil and is most commonly transmitted via inhalation. Clostridium chauvoei is the cause of blackleg in cattle and is a soil-borne bacterium spreading through food, water, and wounds. Horses are not usually susceptible to blackleg bacteria and are protected by natural resistance. Leptospirosis may be transmitted to horses through ingestion of contaminated water or soil. The environment becomes contaminated through infected urine and is found most often in damp ground where the bacteria can most easily survive.

Which of the following conditions causes muscle rigidity and a "saw horse"-like stance? Myasthenia gravis Cushing's disease Tetanus Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP)

Tetanus Tetanus, also known as "lock-jaw", causes muscle rigidity. Animals with tetanus are light-sensitive and have a "saw horse" stance. Tetanus is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani and can be present in the soil, gaining access to the body through an open or penetrating wound. Horses should be vaccinated against tetanus.

Which of the following drugs can cause discoloration of puppy teeth? Enrofloxacin Metronidazole Amoxicillin Tetracycline

Tetracycline Tetracyclines can cause a discoloration of puppy teeth. Tetracycline binds to calcified tissues (bone, cementum, dentin), gets incorporated into the hydroxyapatite crystals with the calcium, and causes the discoloration. This occurs with puppy teeth because the teeth are still being actively formed. After the adult teeth are present, this should no longer occur.

A dog under anesthesia is hypoventilating. This means which of the following is true? The CO2 level is high The CO2 level is low The oxygen level is high The oxygen and the CO2 levels are high

The CO2 level is high Hypoventilation (inadequate respirations) causes an increase in carbon dioxide levels (hypercapnia) and respiratory acidosis. If the end tidal CO2 is climbing, the patient should be given a breath or may need to be placed on a ventilator (especially if the ETCO2 climbs over 50).

NAVTA stands for which of the following? The National American Veterinary Technicians Association The Northern Association of Veterinary Technicians in America The North American Veterinary Technicians Association The National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America

The National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America This is the correct name of the organization that represents veterinary technicians and assistants in the United States.

Meningoencephalomyelitis is an inflammatory neurologic condition that affects the central nervous system. What comprises the central nervous system? The peripheral nerves The lower motor neurons The vagus nerve The cerebellum alone The brain and spinal cord

The brain and spinal cord The central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. In most cases, when a neurologic disease is said to be a "central" problem, it is suspected to involve the brain.

A woman adopts a pet from the humane society and you are reading through the record from the shelter. The record says the cat presented with a history of pyrexia. What does this mean? The cat was extremely painful The cat was severely dehydrated The cat had a dropped jaw The cat had a fever

The cat had a fever Pyrexia is an elevated temperature above the normal range.

A 2-year old cat presents 15 minutes after being attacked by a dog. The cat is in cardiac arrest. The owner wants CPR to be undertaken, and the veterinarian is not currently on the premises. What course of action should be taken? The cat may be intubated but chest compressions should not occur. The cat should receive no medical care without the supervision of a veterinarian. The cat should be transferred to the closest emergency facility. The owner should be told the cat is beyond saving. The cat should be immediately intubated and CPR should commence.

The cat should be immediately intubated and CPR should commence. In the event of a life-threatening emergency, a licensed veterinary technician is allowed to intervene with life saving care. However, a veterinarian should be immediately notified of the situation. If the cat is in full cardiac arrest, transferring the cat to even the closest emergency facility would take too long to result in effective aid. If the owner requests that life-saving measures be taken, they should be initiated at that time.

What is a sarcolemma? The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber A contractile cell in the muscle A calcium storage unit in the muscle Connective tissue putting muscle fibers into groups

The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber A sarcolemma is a thin membrane enclosing a striated muscle fiber, or simply the cell wall of a muscle cell. A sarcomere is the contractile unit of a myofibril, or muscle cell. Sarcomeres are repeating units and are located between Z lines of the muscle cells. Perimysium is connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers into bunches or groups.

You are taking indirect blood pressure readings on a cat with hyperthyroidism. Which is true when choosing a cuff for the patient? The cuff diameter should be about 75% the circumference of the limb The cuff diameter should be about 40% the circumference of the limb Indirect blood pressure measurements do not involve using a cuff The size of the cuff is not significant if placed tightly enough

The cuff diameter should be about 40% the circumference of the limb Oscillometric and Doppler readings are indirect blood pressure measurements and are most commonly used in the clinical setting. A blood pressure cuff is used, and the general rule is that the cuff diameter should be about 40% of the limb circumference. It is important that the cuff be proportional to patient size. If the cuff is too large, the reading will be inaccurately low. If the cuff is too small, the reading will be inaccurately too high. It is best to take an average of several readings for the most accurate measurement.

Alligator forceps The alligator forceps is a two-bladed instrument with a handle for compressing or grasping tissues. It works really well for grasping foreign bodies from the ear canal.

The doctor is trying to retrieve a foreign body out of a dog's ear and is using this tool (see image). What instrument is this? Crile clamp Alligator forceps Allis tissue forceps Mosquito hemostat

When performing an epidural using the hanging drop technique, which of the following is the indication you have correct placement of the needle in the epidural space? The patient's tail drops between its legs when they are hanging over the edge of the table. When a drop of saline is placed in the hub of the needle and does not suck in, instead it is "hanging out" or forms a meniscus. The drop of saline placed in the hub of the needle is sucked in. The hanging drop is not a technique used during the placement of an epidural.

The drop of saline placed in the hub of the needle is sucked in. When using the hanging drop technique while placing an epidural, the patient is placed in sternal recumbency; the spinal needle is placed through the skin, and a drop of saline is put in the hub of the needle. When the needle is in the correct place, the drop of saline should be sucked in through the needle.

Which of the following statements is LEAST correct regarding dystocias and Cesarean sections? The gravid female may have difficulty breathing when anesthetized The fetuses are not affected by the anesthetics delivered, as they do not cross the placenta Metabolic alterations such as hypocalcemia should be corrected Not all dystocias can be treated medically

The fetuses are not affected by the anesthetics delivered, as they do not cross the placenta When performing anesthesia for a cesarean delivery, it is of absolute importance to consider the anesthetic protocol since the fetuses will be affected by the anesthetics delivered to the female. It is best to keep anesthesia time to a minimum to reduce anesthetic exposure to the fetuses. Any gravid female placed on her back may have additional difficulty fully expanding her lungs when anesthetized; it is therefore recommended to monitor respiration carefully to ensure adequate ventilation is achieved. She may need to be intermittently bagged or placed on a ventilator. It is very important to determine the cause of a dystocia prior to administration of medications such as oxytocin, which can bring about uterine contraction. For example, if the birth canal is obviously obstructed, giving oxytocin will only cause additional contraction and predispose the animal to uterine rupture or hypocalcemia.

What is the carnassial tooth? The largest shearing tooth of each dental arcade This is another term for a missing tooth The tooth with the deepest root in each dental arcade This is another term for a supernumerary tooth This is another name for the canine tooth

The largest shearing tooth of each dental arcade "Carnassial" literally means tearing of flesh but is used in veterinary dentistry to describe the largest shearing tooth of the mandible and maxilla in carnivores. This is the tooth that does the most work during mastication. In dogs and cats, the carnassial teeth are the maxillary fourth premolar and the mandibular first molar.

A patient has sustained a burn to the skin corresponding to the area where the electrocautery ground plate had been placed. What is the most likely reason this occurred? The ground plate had poor contact with the patient's skin The power level was too high The electrocautery unit was inadvertently switched to bipolar mode The surgeon used the cut mode for over 30 seconds

The ground plate had poor contact with the patient's skin Poor contact between the ground plate and the skin can result in a burn to the patient. To reduce this risk, conductive gel is spread along the ground plate to help improve the level of contact with the patient's skin. Switching to bipolar mode by accident will result in an inability to use the monopolar hand piece but should not cause a burn. Setting the power level too high may cause excessive tissue trauma to the region where the electrocautery is being used, but this will not affect the interface between the skin and the ground plate. Keeping the cut mode activated for more than the given period of time has no impact on the ground plate-skin interface.

Which of the following is true regarding dentition in dogs? The dog has a total of 6 incisors The lower first molars in the dog are triple-rooted The incisors on the mandible should be palatal to the incisors on the maxilla The incisors on the maxilla should rest caudal to the incisors on the mandible

The incisors on the mandible should be palatal to the incisors on the maxilla The incisors on the mandible (lower jaw) rest palatal (or behind facing up toward the palate) to the maxilla (upper jaw). If it were opposite, the animal would have an underbite. Also, the mandibular (lower) canine teeth should rest distal to the upper third incisor and mesial to the maxillary (upper) canine tooth. The dog has 6 upper and 6 lower incisors (12 total incisors). The lower first molars (309 and 409) in the dog are double-rooted.

Which of the following is true regarding Dirofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworm? The mosquito is the definitive host The dog is the paratenic host The mosquito is the intermediate host The dog is the intermediate host The mosquito is the paratenic host The dog is the reservoir host

The mosquito is the intermediate host The dog is the definitive host of D. immitis, and the mosquito is the intermediate host. The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A paratenic host (also known as a transport host) indicates a type of intermediate host where a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals. For this parasite, the mosquito is the intermediate host but not a paratenic host because the first, second, and third larval stages are found within the mosquito.

Regarding blood draws, which of the following is true? The bevel may face in any direction when drawing blood The needle should be held parallel to the vein at a slight angle with the bevel facing up A small amount of air should be placed in the syringe before inserting the needle into the vein The needle is directed straight into the vein in a perpendicular fashion with the bevel facing down

The needle should be held parallel to the vein at a slight angle with the bevel facing up There should be no air in the syringe before drawing blood. The bevel is held facing upward and the syringe held parallel to the vein at a slight angle, depending on how superficial the vein is.

Ancylostoma caninum and Cystoisospora are parasites that have a direct life cycle. What does this mean? -The parasite does not require an intermediate host -The parasite does not have a larval or oocyst form -The parasite does not undergo migration outside of the intestinal tract -The adult of the parasite is the infective form of the parasite

The parasite does not require an intermediate host A direct life cycle indicates that the parasite does not require an intermediate host and can undergo its entire life cycle within a single species. This is true for both Cystoisospora and Ancylostoma caninum, the canine hookworm.

What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite? The parasite does not undergo development on the animal The parasite's adult or sexual stage lives on the animal The animal is another vertebrate that serves as a source of infection for humans or domestic animals The animal is where the parasite develops from nymph to adult form The animal is where the parasite develops from larval to nymph form

The parasite does not undergo development on the animal A paratenic host is also known as a transport host. This indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.

How can you differentiate a male tortoise from a female? The plastron is concave in males The female's carapace is concave The plastron is convex in males The eyes are darker in males The hemipenes are evident in males The females are smaller in size

The plastron is concave in males In order for the males to be able to mount the females, their plastron is concave. This allow for a good fit over the convex shape of the female's shell.

Where would you give a sub Q injection in a snake? Visually divide the snake in half, inject into the distal 1/2 Near the vent, proximal to the opening Distal 1/3 of the body, along the lateral edge of the ventral scales The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales

The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales Due to the portal system of reptiles, it is important to give injections towards the head. The drug will distribute much more slowly and evenly. The dorsal and ventral scales meet along the lateral sides. This is where the drug can be injected.

A client has called your hospital to schedule a castration to be performed on her rabbit. The owner says she remembers that she had to fast her dog when he got neutered and asks if she should do the same for the rabbit. What is the correct response? The rabbit should not be fasted. The rabbit should be fasted for 6 hours prior to being dropped off at the hospital. The rabbit should be fasted for 12 hours prior to being dropped off at the hospital. The rabbit should fasted for 24 hours prior to being dropped off at the hospital.

The rabbit should not be fasted. Small rodents and rabbits do not vomit, therefore, there is generally no reason to withhold food or water prior to anesthesia. Withholding food from rabbits can trigger digestive disturbances that can be fatal.

Which of the following best describes the therapeutic index of a drug? The ratio between the effective dose and the toxic dose The amount of variability in the response of a population to a drug The number of milligrams of a drug that is needed to be effective divided by 100 The range of microbial species that a drug is effective against The ratio between the maximum effective dose and the minimum effective dose

The ratio between the effective dose and the toxic dose The therapeutic index is a measure of a drug's safety margin. It is defined as the ratio between the effective dose (ED50) and the lethal dose (LD50) to a population.

What is the "chief complaint" of a client? Another term for signalment The most severe problem the animal has The medical bill The reason why they brought the pet

The reason why they brought the pet The chief complaint is the reason why the pet was brought in for exam. The chief complaint is not always the most severe problem. If an animal is currently being treated for congestive heart failure and is doing well but comes in for eye discharge, then the chief complaint is eye discharge (even though the heart problem is a more severe problem). Signalment is the description of the animal which includes age, breed, sex, and if they are spayed/neutered.

What maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells? Chloride anions The sodium-potassium pump Neurons Calcium channel pump

The sodium-potassium pump The principal ions involved in an action potential are sodium and potassium cations. During depolarization ion channels allow sodium to enter the cell, and potassium to leave the cell. The sodium-potassium pump then helps to restore the normal resting membrane potential. The sodium-potassium pump maintains the normal ratio of ion concentrations across the membrane. Calcium cations and chloride anions are involved in a few types of action potentials, such as the cardiac action potential.

The autonomic nervous system refers to what? The limbic nervous system The central nervous system (CNS) The peripheral nervous system (PNS) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems The cranial nerves

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems direct many of the body's homeostatic functions and is made up of nerves that innervate internal organs and blood vessels. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is composed of cranial and spinal nerves. There is actually some overlap between these two arbitrary divisions. The limbic nervous system is actually within the brain and is thought to be associated with emotional responses in humans and other animals.

You are assisting the emergency veterinarian with a dog who has a GDV. The doctor is ready to place an orogastric tube and the patient is awake on the exam table. Which of the following is true regarding this procedure? The tube should be held above the patient to help prevent aspiration The tube should only be placed while the patient is anesthetized The tube should only be placed after the stomach is trocharized The tube should be held lower than the patient to aid in removal of gastric contents

The tube should be held lower than the patient to aid in removal of gastric contents The patient does not always have to be anesthetized for placement of the tube, however, many patients require some sedation. The tube is measured prior to placement (to just the last rib) and when inserted into the esophagus and into the stomach, the other end is held downward (lower than the patient) so that gravity will help to allow removal of stomach contents. If the tube cannot be placed, the stomach may be trocharized to relieve pressure.

Hematuria The red tinge to the urine demonstrates that there are a high number of erythrocytes in the sample. You would need to check the urine specific gravity to know if there is isosthenuria. You would need to do a dipstick to check for ketones.

The urine in this collection set is demonstrating: Isosthenuria Hematuria Pollakiuria Ketonuria

Approximately 5ccs of an inhalant anesthetic is spilled while the vaporizer on an anesthetic machine is being filled. What course of action should be taken? The vaporizer should be closed and the room well ventilated The spill should be cleaned up using paper towels and bleach Dilute the spill 1:1 with water and then wipe up with a towel The hospital should be evacuated The fire department should be called Nothing, continue filling the vaporizer

The vaporizer should be closed and the room well ventilated The fire department should only be summoned if a significant amount of inhalant (gas) anesthetic is spilled, such as an entire bottle being dropped or broken. The hospital does not need to be evacauated unless there is no way to seal off the area where the spill occurred. Bleach is very reactive with a great number of chemicals and should never be used to clean up any chemical spill. Continuing to fill the vaporizer will expose staff to inhalant as the anesthetic evaporates. The best course of action would be to close the vaporizer, leave the room/area for 5-10 minutes and allow the air in the room to circulate either by opening an external door or increasing the air flow into the room using a fan or air conditioning unit.

A pet-sitter is holding a 4-year old male intact Bichon while the veterinarian examines a rash on the dog's abdomen; you are assisting with a skin scraping. The dog reaches back and bites the pet-sitter on the arm. She had insisted on holding the dog for examination despite the posted sign (see image). This dog has been known to be aggressive in the past. If the pet-sitter seeks compensation for being bit, who is most likely to be found liable for her injury? The dog's owner This would be considered an accident and fault of both parties, therefore no one is liable. The pet-sitter is liable and therefore no damages can be claimed You, the technician The veterinarian

The veterinarian Even though the owner insisted on holding the dog for the exam, the veterinarian could still be liable for the owner's injury. While most clients would not pursue damages for an incident such as this, courts have ruled that veterinarians are liable if a pet hurts its owner while the two are located on the premises of a veterinary hospital. The best solution to prevent this is to have a technician or assistant trained to restrain animals hold the patients for examination. It is a good idea for a veterinary practice to post a sign in each exam room stating that owners please not ask to restrain pets during exam and this rule should be enforced. In animals that are known to be aggressive, a muzzle should be placed prior to the exam for the safety of all involved.

Which of the following statements is NOT included in NAVTA's Code of Ethics for the Profession of Veterinary Technology? Safeguard the public and the profession against individuals deficient in professional competence or ethics. Aid society and animals through providing excellent care and services for animals. Veterinary technicians shall represent their credentials or identify themselves with specialty organizations only if the designation has been awarded or earned. Assist with efforts to ensure conditions of employment consistent with the excellent care for animals. The veterinarian must assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgements of the veterinary technician.

The veterinarian must assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgements of the veterinary technician. The statement that the veterinarian must assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgements of the veterinary technician is not represented in the NAVTA Code of Ethics. The correct statement is as follows: Assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgments.

You are working in a laboratory where the rats are getting "ringtail." Which of the following may be contributing to this condition? Too much nesting material in the cages The temperature is too low in the housing unit The humidity in the cage is too high The wire-bottom cages

The wire-bottom cages The correct answer is the wire-bottom cages in which the rats are housed. Ringtail is an annular constriction of the tail found in weanling rats and rats kept in wire-bottom cages. The condition causes the tail to constrict, undergo dry gangrene, and fall off. Factors contributing to ringtail include increased environmental temperatures, low humidity, impaired blood supply to the tail, and possibly drafts. The tail stumps usually heal with no complications. Increased humidity, low temperature and too much nesting material would not typically contribute to the development of ringtail.

Why are guinea pig sows prone to C-section if they are bred for the first time after 6 months of age? The older the sow is, the greater number of young they produce in one litter. Their pelvic bones fuse between 4 and 6 months. Guinea pigs are known to have low blood calcium. The babies are too big to be born naturally. You can't do a c-section on a guinea pig. The brachycephalic skull of the babies will get stuck.

Their pelvic bones fuse between 4 and 6 months. Guinea pigs must be bred for the first time prior to 6 months of age because their pelvis must be flexible enough to allow the the fetus to pass through the birth canal. Their pelvic bones fuse at 4 - 6 months. If this occurs and the sow is bred, dystocia will occur.

What is the primary toxic principle in chocolate? Sucrose Arginine Theobromine Cholinesterase inhibitors Serotonin

Theobromine Methylxanthines are the primary toxic principles in chocolate. Specifically, these are theobromine and caffeine.

Asepsis implies which of the following? There are only symbiotic bacteria present There is no living organism present There are less than 100 colonies of bacteria present There are less than 1000 colonies of bacteria present

There is no living organism present Asepsis means absolutely no living organisms present. The concept of aseptic technique is very important, and technicians should be very aware of sterility in the operating room. This includes walking within the room, passing instruments, prepping the patient, and working within the operating room. Adhering to strict aseptic principles decreases the likelihood a patient will develop a post-operative infection.

A Bearded Collie is to receive an injection of maropitant (Cerenia). If the dose prescribed is 1 mg/kg and the concentration of maropitant is 10 mg/ml, how many milliliters should the patient receive? 3.5 1.8 There is not enough information to complete this problem 0.5 2.1 6

There is not enough information to complete this problem Without the weight of the dog, an appropriate dose cannot be calculated.

Why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term (> 7 days) use in horses? They are the largest They are rigid They are the least thrombogenic They do not require maintenance

They are the least thrombogenic Polyurethane catheters (such as those made by Mila) are the least reactive and thrombogenic and, if placed correctly, can be left in place for more than a week. Polyurethane is a flexible material. All IV catheters require maintenance and monitoring.

What is true regarding chelonians? They don't have a diaphragm They don't have eyelids They don't have a urinary bladder They don't have a spleen

They don't have a diaphragm Chelonians are turtles and tortoises. They do not have a diaphragm. They have eyelids, and also have a nictitating membrane. They have a spleen. They have a bladder, and bladder stones are not uncommon in pet tortoises.

Phenothiazine tranquilizers such as acepromazine are frequently used as preanesthetic agents. All of the following are true statements regarding these drugs EXCEPT for which? They frequently cause vomiting They are synergistic with opioids They are not analgesics They frequently cause hypotension

They frequently cause vomiting Phenothiazines are frequently used with opioids because they act synergistically to improve their sedative effects. They have anti-emetic properties which can reduce the vomiting that can be caused by opioids. They cause relaxation of vascular smooth muscle which leads to hypotension. Phenothiazines do not have analgesic properties.

Regarding controlled substances, which is true? When they expire, they should be thrown in the trash They are currently controlled by the Environmental Protection Agency They have a high abuse potential, and a written log must be kept on these drugs Should never be prescribed for home use and should only be used in-hospital

They have a high abuse potential, and a written log must be kept on these drugs A written log must be kept on all controlled substances, and they should be kept in a locked drawer or cabinet due to their high abuse potential. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is responsible for regulating controlled substances. Many controlled substances are prescribed for home use, such as phenobarbital for seizures, butorphanol or hydrocodone for coughing, etc. Expired drugs should not be thrown in the regular trash. Contact the local DEA to find out how to dispose of drugs properly in your area.

Which is true regarding umbilical hernias? They usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life-threatening They usually progress until a loop of bowel is strangulated through the defect and should be repaired as an emergency procedure The best treatment for all umbilical hernias is benign neglect They should not be repaired at the same time as a spay or neuter procedure

They usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life-threatening MOST umbilical hernias are stable and consist of a small piece of fat protruding through a body wall defect. Many small dogs with stable hernias do not require repair since they are not life-threatening. Larger dogs with hernias require repair more often since the weight of their abdominal contents on the defect can enlarge it and increase the risk that abdominal contents (such as intestine) could protrude through. The best time to repair these is when they are already under anesthesia for their spay or neuter. The course of action for repair or monitoring depends upon the risk factors (size of hernia, size of dog, etc.).

Which of these drugs should not be used in Greyhounds? Ivermectin Propofol Thiopental Morphine

Thiopental The correct answer is thiopental. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.

A multi-lumen jugular catheter must be placed in a canine with renal disease for CVP monitoring. To what anatomical landmark should the catheter be inserted to? Caudal vena cava Aorta The heart Third thoracic vertebrae Thoracic inlet

Third thoracic vertebrae Central venous pressure, or CVP, monitoring must be performed according to specific guidelines to reduce the possibility of inappropriate readings. The third thoracic vertebra is the anatomical landmark that the normal values are based on.

The fetus does most of its growing during which time period? Second trimester First trimester It grows at the same rate throughout gestation Third trimester

Third trimester Most of the development of the fetus occurs in the first trimester; most of the growth occurs in the third trimester.

Generally, how much time do you have before cardiac arrest causes irreversible brain damage? Seven minutes Three minutes Ten minutes Thirteen minutes

Three minutes That is why it is imperative that cardiac arrest is identified quickly, CPR status is clear for each patient, and that high-risk cases should be discussed at the time of admission.

The dog's abdominal region may also be referred to as which of the following? Dorsal region Proximal region Anterior region Ventral region

Ventral region

A dog with which condition should not have blood drawn from the jugular vein? Thrombocytopenia Congestive heart failure Hypertension Renal failure Hyperadrenocorticism

Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia is the term for decreased platelets. Dogs that have low platelets have problems clotting and could potentially have a serious bleed from the site of venipuncture.

You are new on the ICU floor and are taking time to look through the crash cart so you will be prepared when emergency arises. You find a 60 cc syringe attached to a 3-way stopcock and extension set with a 22-gauge needle attached. What might this setup be used for? Decreasing intracranial pressure Tracheal drug administration Jugular catheter placement Thoracocentesis

Thoracocentesis This is commonly used for removing fluid from the pleural space (pleural effusion).

An animal with pleural effusion may require which procedure for stabilization? Orogastric tube Abdominocentesis Thoracocentesis Radiographs

Thoracocentesis A large amount of fluid in the pleural space (around the outside of the lungs) will prevent the lungs from fully expanding. A chest tap (thoracocentesis) will allow the fluid to be drained from the pleural space and allow the patient to expand the lungs and breath easier. While radiographs may be needed, an unstable patient in respiratory distress should not have radiographs. The chest tap should occur first to stabilize the patient.

When performing anesthesia in the horse, which of the following should always be done prior to induction and intubation? Insert a tube into the esophagus so that you are able to place the endotracheal tube properly Float the molars Apply a small amount of lidocaine to the larynx Throughly rinse the oral cavity

Throughly rinse the oral cavity The oral cavity should always be rinsed to remove food particles to prevent introducing foreign material into the trachea.

For which of the following procedures would an epidural be of most benefit? Pericardial window Forelimb amputation Splenectomy Tibial Plateau Leveling Osteotomy (TPLO)

Tibial Plateau Leveling Osteotomy (TPLO) Epidural anesthesia provides analgesia and is of great benefit in orthopedic surgeries involving the hindlimbs in dogs. These are routinely performed in TPLO procedures, hip replacement surgeries, etc. and are also often used in cesarean sections.

How is tularemia transmitted (what is the vector)? Mosquitoes Ticks Leeches Lice

Ticks Ticks are the usual vector, although flies and fleas may be able to transmit Francisella tularensis as well.

What is the best method for handling tissues during abdominal surgery when they must be placed outside of the peritoneal cavity? Tissues and organs outside the abdomen should be covered with saline-moistened sponges Tissues and organs outside the abdomen should be covered in an antibiotic-impregnated solution and sponges Tissues and organs should never be exteriorized from the abdomen Tissues and organs outside the abdomen should be wrapped in a dry gauze or sponge

Tissues and organs outside the abdomen should be covered with saline-moistened sponges Tissues and organs should always be handled with exceptional care. To avoid desiccation, all tissues/organs should be intermittently moistened with sterile saline or wrapped in saline-impregnated gauze or lap sponges. Antibiotic-impregnated solutions are not necessary, can be irritating, and may select for resistant organisms. Allowing the tissues/organs to dry will cause damage to their surfaces and result in subsequent inflammation.

What is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope? -To adjust the wavelength of light -To focus light on the object - To adjust light intensity -To raise and lower the light source relative to the stage

To adjust light intensity The rheostat controls the intensity of the light source on a microscope. The condenser focuses light on the object and can be raised and lowered relative to the stage. The wavelength of light is not usually manipulated in a routine veterinary lab, but filters can be used to allow a certain wavelength of light through in particular applications such as immunofluorescence.

Which parasite has the feline as its only definitive host? Ancylostoma caninum Toxoplasma gondii Giardia lamblia Dirofilaria immitis Trichuris vulpis

Toxoplasma gondii The definitive host of T. gondii is the cat, but the parasite can be carried by many warm-blooded animals. D. immitis, A. caninum, and Giardia lamblia can have multiple hosts. T. vulpis is canine specific.

Pre-anesthetic drugs are used for all of the following reasons except which of the following? To decrease the blood pressure Provide analgesia Reduce anxiety Smoother anesthetic induction and recovery period Less induction drugs are needed

To decrease the blood pressure Decreasing blood pressure is not a goal of a pre-anesthetic drug. Pre-meds help to reduce anxiety in the patient which allows for a smoother induction with fewer drugs and a smoother post-operative recovery. Many pre-anesthetic agents also provide analgesic effects.

In regards to rabbit anesthesia, which of the following best explains why the use of sedative premedications should be given prior to inducing anesthesia using a mask or induction chamber to deliver gas agents such as Isoflurane? To cause an increase in heart rate Allows intubation prior to induction To help prevent breath holding Anesthesia in rabbits can not be achieved by gas agents alone

To help prevent breath holding Because rabbits often hold their breath and struggle when exposed to gas anesthetics, premedications such as dexmeditomidine, diazepam, or midazolam will facilitate smoother inductions.

When giving an intramuscular injection, why do you pull back suction on the syringe before injecting? To make sure the needle is securely on the syringe and no air leaks through To make sure there is no air bubble in the needle tip To prime the needle before injecting To make sure you are not inadvertently in a blood vessel

To make sure you are not inadvertently in a blood vessel When giving an intramuscular injection, you should pull back suction on the syringe to make sure that you are not accidentally in a blood vessel. Certain medications, if inadvertently given IV instead of IM, could cause serious concerns.

Why is a small amount of heparin frequently added to saline syringes that will be used for flushing catheters? To prevent blood clots from forming To prevent irritation caused by injection of saline To prevent degradation of the sodium and chloride in saline To prevent growth of bacteria in the saline

To prevent blood clots from forming Heparin is an anticoagulant and is frequently used in saline flush for catheters to prevent clots from forming in the catheter.

Why do you use a heparin flush to flush an IV catheter? To reduce pain associated with flushing the catheter To prevent infection associated with the catheter To prevent phlebitis To prevent clot formation in the catheter

To prevent clot formation in the catheter Heparin is an anticoagulant and helps to prevent clot formation in the IV catheter. A catheter should be flushed prior to and after giving IV medications to make sure it is functioning properly, and then flushed every 4 hours when not in use to help prevent clot formation. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein; heparin does not prevent this.

Why should pigs be fed from a bin or trough and not on the ground? They cannot swallow well unless their food is elevated from the floor To prevent development of trichobezoars It causes gastroesophageal reflux It causes them to swallow excessive amounts of air

To prevent development of trichobezoars A trichobezoar is a ball of swallowed hair that collects in the stomach and can fail to pass through the intestines. Pigs are constantly shedding hair, so it accumulates on the ground; when eating food off that ground, pigs will ingest enough over time to put them at risk for formation of a trichobezoar

A tablet may have enteric coating to serve what purpose? It increases transit time so the drug can make it to the colon more quickly for absorption It prevents gastric ulceration To protect the medication from being destroyed by the acids of the stomach It slows transit time so that the drug will be absorbed mostly through the stomach wall

To protect the medication from being destroyed by the acids of the stomach Enteric coatings are used to protect the medication from the acidic stomach environment so that more of the active drug can make it and be absorbed in the small intestine. The enteric coating does not increase or decrease transit time. Drugs are mostly absorbed in the small intestine, not the colon.

What is the purpose of polishing the teeth after a dental cleaning? To remove any remaining calculus on the teeth To prevent cavity formation To smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface To strengthen the enamel

To smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface Scratches or pits on the tooth that can be created by the scaling procedure or from mastication increase the surface area on the tooth, allowing plaque/calculus to build up more quickly. Polishing helps to smooth out any defects. All surfaces of the tooth crown should be polished on slow rotational speed. The polisher should be kept in constant motion to prevent thermal damage to the tooth.

What device or instrument is typically used to help diagnose glaucoma? Ophthalmoscope Tonometer Schirmer Tear Test Slit lamp

Tonometer The tonometer (Tonopen) is used to measure intraocular pressures. Glaucoma is the condition of raised intraocular pressures. Normal eye pressures for dogs is typically between 10-20 and for cats 10-25 but these must be interpreted in light of clinical symptoms. Eye pressures lower than 10 can be caused by uveitis (inflammation in the eye).

Which of the following is a chelonian? Rabbit Tortoise Bird Goat

Tortoise Turtles and tortoises are from the order Chelonia, and are often referred to as chelonians.

Which parasite is commonly transmitted transplacentally to puppies? Trichuris Toxocara Cystoisospora Dipylidium

Toxocara Toxocara canis (roundworms) commonly infect puppies via the transplacental route.

It is recommended that all puppies be treated for which of the following parasites? Toxocara canis Ctenocephalides felis Dirofilaria immitis Toxascaris leonina

Toxocara canis The correct answer is Toxocara canis. The most common method of transmission of Toxocara canis is transplacentally. Larvae in the somatic tissue of a pregnant bitch are mobilized during pregnancy and infect the fetuses transplacentally.

It is recommended that all puppies be treated for which of the following parasites? Toxocara canis Dirofilaria immitis Ctenocephalides felis Toxascaris leonina

Toxocara canis The correct answer is Toxocara canis. The most common method of transmission of Toxocara canis is transplacentally. Larvae in the somatic tissue of a pregnant bitch are mobilized during pregnancy and infect the fetuses transplacentally.

Ocular larval migrans is a zoonotic disease caused by which parasite? Taenia taeniaformis Toxocara canis Dipylidium caninum Ancylostoma caninum Uncinaria stenocephala

Toxocara canis Toxocara canis (a roundworm) is the cause of Ocular and Visceral larva migrans. It is transmitted fecal-oral. Backyards, sandboxes, parks, and beaches accessible to dogs are often contaminated with Toxocara ova, which can remain infective for years. These areas can be exposure sites for people (especially children) who accidentally ingest the infective eggs.

A direct life cycle is seen in which of the following parasites? Dipylidium caninum Dirofilaria immitis Fasciola hepatica Toxocara canis

Toxocara canis Toxocara canis (roundworm) has a direct life cycle. In a direct life cycle, the immature parasite can infect the same host from which it came (i.e., this worm lives in the intestine, eggs are passed in feces, and the eggs are passed to the next host directly).

A 9-year old male neutered German Shepherd is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma at the distal radius. The owner has chosen palliative care and wants to keep him comfortable as long as possible. He is already on carprofen (Rimadyl) for pain. What other medication could he take for additional analgesia for his bone pain? Glucosamine Tramadol Prednisone Meloxicam

Tramadol Tramadol is a synthetic drug that acts on the opiate receptor and is often effective against bone pain in dogs. It is safe to give with anti-inflammatory medications. Since this dog is already on Rimadyl, he cannot receive any other NSAIDS or any steroids. Anti-inflammatories (steroids or NSAIDS) cannot be mixed or given concurrently due to the high risk of gastrointestinal ulceration and other complications such as renal damage. Glucosamine, while it would not cause harm, would not provide any analgesia for this dog.

The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which cell type? -Squamous cell -Columnar cell -Parietal cell -Transitional cell

Transitional cell Transitional cells are unique in that they allow the bladder to stretch as well as decrease in size.

If a disease is zoonotic, what does this imply? Transmissible from animals to people Not contagious Host-specific Transmissible between animals but not to people

Transmissible from animals to people A zoonotic disease is an infectious disease in animals that can be transmitted to people.

Which of the following is another term for the type of parasite known as a fluke? Trematode Nematode Ascarid Cestode Protozoan

Trematode Trematodes, or flukes, are leaf-shaped flatworms with unsegmented bodies. Adults are hermaphrodites. They primarily are found in the intestinal tract, liver, and lungs. Examples include the liver fluke of cattle (Fasciola hepatica) and the lungworm of cats (Paragonimus kellicotti). Nematodes are roundworms, ascarids are a type of nematode (roundworm), cestodes are tapeworms, and protozoans are single-celled organisms that may be parasitic.

The clinician has been unsuccessfully treating a chronic cough. A culture of the lower airways is needed. What is the best method for this? Nebulize the dog and culture the mist in the mask after 10 minutes Nasal swab culture Culture of the back of the throat with a sterile swab after coughing episode Transtracheal wash

Transtracheal wash Transtracheal wash is used when a culture of the lower respiratory tract is needed. It is typically done under general anesthesia for small dogs or cats or under a local in larger dogs. It is a method of collecting bronchial exudate for culture and cytology. The procedure entails inserting a catheter into the trachea in the ventral neck region between two tracheal rings, and infusing and aspirating sterile saline in order to get a sample.

When collecting an arterial blood sample, the best location to obtain arterial blood in the standing adult horse is where? Carotid Artery Transverse facial artery Jugular Artery Femoral Artery Dorsal Metatarsal Artery

Transverse facial artery The transverse facial artery is the easiest and most commonly used artery to collect arterial blood in a standing adult horse. It is typically located caudal and ventral to the eye and is easily detected. The dorsal metatarsal and carotid arteries are possible sites to collect arterial blood, but an adult horse typically will not stand still to collect blood from the extremity (hind limb). The carotid is also possible to collect arterial blood but is a deeper structure and is obviously a very large vessel; damage to this vessel during collection can be problematic.

Ivermectin would not be used when treating which parasite? Mites Trematodes Ticks Nematodes

Trematodes The correct answer is trematodes (flukes). Ivermectin is ineffective against flukes. Ivermectin has activity against ticks, mites, nematodes, and even lice. Ivermectin works by stimulating GABA which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

Rabbits are prone to hairballs. What is the medical term for a hairball? Piloerection Phytobezoar Trichobezoar Dermatophyte

Trichobezoar Tricho refers to hair, bezoar is the compaction, "ball" that can result from different substances. Phytobezoar is a "plant - ball". Piloerection is used to describe when hair stands up. Like when a cat or dog is fearfull. Dermatophyte is the general term for skin fungus.

Regarding lice parasites, the biting louse found in canines is known as which of the following? Hematopinus Trichodectes Damalinia Felicola

Trichodectes Trichodectes canis is the chewing or biting louse in dogs. Hematopinus asini is the sucking louse in cattle. Damalinia bovis is the chewing louse in cattle (also called Bovicola). Felicola subrostratus is the chewing or biting louse in cats. Lice are ectoparasites; infestation with lice is known as pediculosis. Trichodectes canis can also serve as an intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum (although more commonly, the intermediate host is a flea).

A chihuahua is diagnosed with pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism. Which of the following medications may be used for treating Cushing's disease in this patient? DOCP Trilostane Prednisone Pimobendan

Trilostane Trilostane (Vetoryl) is a steroid inhibitor used in the treatment of Cushing's disease. This medication works by stopping the production of cortisol in the adrenal glands. In Cushing's disease (hyperadrenocorticism), the adrenal glands are over-producing cortisol due to either a tumor on the pituitary gland stimulating the adrenal glands, or due to a tumor on an adrenal glad itself. This medication is reversible (it doesn't actually destroy the adrenal gland as does mitotane (Lysodren). Trilostane is also sometimes used to treat Alopecia X. Prednisone is a steroid, and you would not want to give a steroid to a dog who is already over-producing steroids. DOCP (desoxycorticosterone pivalate) or Percorten-V is also a steroid injectable used in treating hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease). Pimobendan is an inodilator heart medication, most often used in treating congestive heart faliure.

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye) can result from the use of which medication? Prednisone Enalapril Cyclosporine Enrofloxacin Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS)

Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS) The sulfa drugs can cause dry eye in some patients and therefore overuse should be avoided. If a patient is started on a sulfa drug, tear production should be monitored.

When applying a bone plate to fix a fracture, which of the following instruments would be least useful? Drill guide Screw driver Point-to-point forceps Trocar Tap

Trocar Trocars are typically used for penetrating into a space for arthroscopy, thoracoscopy, or laparoscopy. Once the trocar has been inserted, it is replaced by a cannula, which allows for insertion of an instrument or scoping device into the desired space, such as the knee joint. A drill with the appropriately sized drill bit is used to drill holes into bone. A drill guide is used to help protect the surrounding soft tissues and assist in aiming. A tap is then used to put a thread into the hole so that the screw can be placed securely. The screw is inserted with the aid of a screwdriver. Point-to-point forceps will help keep the fracture properly reduced while the bone plate is being applied.

A dog presents with Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus (GDV), and you have tried multiple times to pass an orogastric tube to no avail. If this is not working what else can be done? Trocharize the stomach ventrally Flip the patient over Prep the dog for surgery and not decompress the stomach Trocharize the stomach on the right side

Trocharize the stomach on the right side Decompression should be performed; the best place for the trocharization is on the right side. Trocharization involves passing a large sterile needle or catheter through the abdominal wall into the stomach to relieve the gas within the stomach. This is necessary in order to make the patient more stable prior to surgery.

Which disease does an intradermal caudal skin fold test check for in cattle? Dermatophytosis Tuberculosis Moraxella bovis Anthrax

Tuberculosis The skin fold test checks for tuberculosis, an infectious granulomatous disease caused by bacteria from the genus Mycobacterium. A small amount of tuberculin is injected into a caudal fold at the base of the tail in cattle. A diffuse swelling at the site within 48-96 hours constitutes a positive reaction.

You are in the clinic parking lot when you are approached by 2 large dogs who are about to attack you. They are about 25 yards away. You should immediately do which of the following? Stand completely still Run towards them and yell in a loud voice Flail your arms and hit at them when they approach Run as fast as you can Tuck yourself into a ball on the ground and protect your face and neck

Tuck yourself into a ball on the ground and protect your face and neck If you do not have a way of defending yourself and cannot get away, the best thing to do is to crouch into a ball and protect your face and neck. By taking this stance, you are not a threat to them and they are most likely to back away or not be as aggressive. If you run, the dogs are likely to chase you and will likely catch up to you causing more bodily harm. They will likely be more aggressive if you are standing there or hitting at them because they may view you as a threat.

You are monitoring a 2 kg kitten being spayed at the humane society; she is intubated and is on isoflurane gas for maintenance. She is on IV fluids at 10 mL/hr. Her blood pressure starts to drop during the procedure. You have already given her a bolus of fluids. Which of the following should you do first to try to increase her blood pressure? Turn off the heat support to prevent peripheral vasodilation, which decreases blood pressure Give a dose of atropine Give a 90 ml/kg bolus of a crystalloid fluid intravenously Turn down the anesthetic gas

Turn down the anesthetic gas Anesthetic gas is a potent vasodilator and causes profound hypotension, especially in small patients. Decreasing the vaporizer setting in addition to crystalloids and colloids can help to facilitate raising the blood pressure. If the pressure cannot be managed by these simple measures, drugs such as dobutamine may be needed to help with blood pressure during the procedure. A dose of atropine will not increase blood pressure directly; it will only increase the heart rate. Good heat support actually helps to keep blood pressure more stable and is especially important in small patients to prevent hypothermia. A 90 ml/kg bolus would be a "shock dose" of fluids for a dog but is too much for a cat, and this cat is hypotensive for other reasons.

Torsion of an organ means that what has happened to it? Filled with air Been pushed to a different location by another organ Twisted on itself Become necrotic

Twisted on itself Examples of torsions are testicular torsion (twisting of the spermatic cords), gastric torsion (gastric-dilatation volvulus), mesenteric torsion (twisting of the mesentery and cutting off of blood supply to the intestines), lung-lobe torsion, etc.

What is the most common blood type in cats in the United States?

Type A

When a tortoise is kept in an indoor enclosure, what is the most important light in that enclosure? Heat Lamp UVB UVA Basking bulb Incandescent lightbulb

UVB A UVB light is needed to properly process and absorb calcium from the diet. Sunlight is the natural way to process calcium. Other lighting is also needed for proper digestion. A basking bulb and heat lamp help regulate temperature, and UVA light helps regulate activity.

The placenta supplies the fetus with oxygen via which structure? Umbilical vein Foramen ovale Ductus venosus Umbilical arteries Left portal vein

Umbilical vein The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the growing fetus. The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. The foramen ovale is an opening in the septum between the atria in the heart of the fetus with allows blood to bypass the lungs. The ductus venosus shunts a large portion of blood flow in the fetus from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava such that oxygenated blood from the placenta can bypass the liver. The left portal vein connects umbilical circulation with portal (liver) circulation.

Where would you find a Cuterebra parasite? In the nasal cavity In the intestines In the anterior chamber of the eye Protruding from the anus Under the skin

Under the skin Cuterebra are flies whose larvae infest the skin of rodents, squirrels, rabbits, dogs, and cats. Typically a lump is seen with a small hole under the skin from with the larva breathes.

In a non-rebreathing anesthesia circuit, which of the following is NOT used? Scavenger Reservoir bag Unidirectional valve Oxygen

Unidirectional valve Non-rebreathing systems utilize high flow rates of fresh gas. They do not use unidirectional valves or soda lime since fresh gas is constantly flushing the system. The non-rebreathing circuit requires oxygen, a vaporizer, a scavenger, and typically has its own reservoir bag.

The word "idiopathic" is commonly used in veterinary medicine. What does this word imply? Inflicted by another Self-inflicted Unknown cause Acquired in the hospital

Unknown cause Idiopathic means that the cause or mechanism for a disease is unknown.

Which of these forms of chocolate contains the highest concentration of theobromine? White chocolate Unsweetened baking chocolate Milk chocolate Semi-sweet chocolate

Unsweetened baking chocolate The correct answer is unsweetened baking chocolate. This contains about 7 times more theobromine than milk chocolate. White chocolate has very little methylxanthines. Semi-sweet chocolate rates in between. Theobromine per oz. of milk chocolate= 44-60 mg/oz Baker's chocolate has 390-450 mg/oz, Semi-sweet chocolate has about half as much as Baker's or dark chocolate.

Which of the following are triple rooted teeth in dogs? Upper 1st premolars Upper 4th premolars Lower 1st molars Lower 2nd premolars

Upper 4th premolars In the dog, the upper 4th premolars (also known as carnassial teeth), have three roots. The upper 1st and 2nd molars also have 3 roots. A dog has 3 incisors, 1 canine, 4 premolars and 2 molars on one side of the upper jaw and 3 incisors, 1 canine, 4 premolars and 3 molars on one side of the lower jaw, so the dental formula for the dog is: 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

What is the dental formula for the adult horse (i.e. incisor-canine-premolar-molar)? Upper: 3-1-4-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 Upper: 3-1-2-3 Lower: 3-1-2-3 Upper: 4-1-3-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 Upper: 4-1-2-3 Lower: 4-1-2-3

Upper: 3-1-4-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 The upper quadrant of the horse's dental arcade has 3 incisors, 1 canine (primarily male horses), 4 premolars (including "wolf" tooth) and 3 molars; the lower arcade has 3 incisions, 1 canine, 3 premolars and 3 molars. Not all horses have the 1st upper premolar, the so-called wolf tooth. Generally, females do not have canine teeth.

What structure connects the kidneys to the bladder? Urethra Trigone Ureter Loop of Henle

Ureter The kidneys connect to the bladder via the ureters. The bladder excretes urine to the outside via the urethra. The trigone is the smooth triagular region inside the bladder that is formed by the area where the ureters and urethra attach to the bladder. The Loop of Henle is part of the nephron in the kidney.

Which of the following may be a cause of post-renal azotemia? Primary loss of nephrons Urethral obstruction Infection in the kidney Severe dehydration

Urethral obstruction Post-renal azotemia is an elevation in BUN and creatinine due to pathology located after the kidney (in the ureters, bladder, or urethra). A urethral obstruction means that the outflow from the bladder is obstructed. This could be from severe inflammation, uroliths, or neoplasia. This puts ascending pressure on the kidneys because the urine has no way of being voided. This may cause an elevation of renal values (BUN and creatinine) and is referred to as azotemia. Treatment of post-renal azotemia depends on relieving the obstruction and subsequent IV fluid diuresis. Pre-renal causes of azotemia include dehydration and lack of perfusion (as could occur in shock from hypotension). Renal azotemia is caused by a primary problem with the kidneys (acute or chronic renal failure).

Gout is an accumulation of which of the following? Bilirubin Urea Albumin Uric acid Cholesterol

Uric acid Gout occurs when uric acid accumulates, usually due to poor nitrogen metabolism and excretion.

Which of the following must be sterile before use? Otoscope Cotton-tipped swab use to collect sample for ear cytology Urinary catheter Thermometer

Urinary catheter Urinary catheters must be sterile so that bacteria are not introduced into the bladder. The other things listed should be clean but don't have to be sterile. If you were planning on doing a culture of the ears, a sterile swab would be warranted but not needed for cytology.

Micturition is a medical term for which of the following? Straining Urinating Vomiting Coughing

Urinating Micturition is the act of voiding urine, or urinating. Emesis is another term for vomiting. Stranguria is the term for straining to urinate.

A 7-year old female spayed domestic short hair previously diagnosed with diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic dull and unresponsive. In addition to obtaining a blood glucose, what other laboratory test would be important for determining the cat's diabetic status? Total protein Hematocrit Blood lactate Urine ketones BUN

Urine ketones A patient with ketones in the urine is likely to be in a diabetic ketoacidotic state. An elevated BUN would be an indication of renal disease. A low hematocrit level would cause a patient to be dull, but this value does not relate directly to diabetes. Blood lactate levels directly correspond to shock. A total protein level would help in determining the patient's hydration and protein status.

What does isosthenuria indicate? Urine that has a greater specific gravity than the plasma Urine that has the same specific gravity as the plasma Urine that has significantly elevated protein concentration Urine that has a lesser specific gravity than the plasma

Urine that has the same specific gravity as the plasma Isosthenuria describes urine that has the same concentration (specific gravity) as the plasma. Urine-specific gravity describes the concentration of a fluid as compared to water (specific gravity of water = 1.000). Isosthenuria may be observed during renal failure, as the kidney cannot concentrate the urine.

Which condition occurs least commonly in the horse? Laminitis Intestinal incarceration Enterolithiasis Urolithiasis

Urolithiasis As compared to small animals, urolithiasis is uncommon in horses. If they do develop stones in their bladder, it is usually secondary to formation of calcium oxalate crystals.

The dog enters the clinic having an allergic reaction to an unknown allergen. The correct term for the skin condition shown in the photograph is: Erythema Pemphigus Dermatophytosis Urticaria

Urticaria Urticaria is also known as "hives" or "wheals". It is frequently a symptom of an allergic reaction to vaccines or other allergens. Erythema is redness of the skin, which can be seen in allergic reactions, but is not demonstrated in the photo. Pemphigus is the shortened name for a number of different auto-immune skin diseases which usually show up as crusting or ulceration of the skin, particularly on the nose and paw pads. Dermatophytosis is another term for ringworm, which is a fungal infection of the skin that causes alopecia and red, circular, itchy plaques.

Which of the following is NOT a good recommendation to make to an owner after having had a declaw performed on their cat? Monitor the bandages for slippage Restrict his activity as much as possible Use clay based litter in the litter box Discourage licking or chewing of the toes

Use clay based litter in the litter box Typical "gravel-type" clay litter will stick to the incisions and may perpetuate complications with healing and subsequent osteomyelitis. Therefore, it is important to confirm that owners are using approved litter such as torn paper towels or newspaper to help prevent small particles from embedding into the healing incisions. The other answer choices are good recommendations to make.

Which of the following is NOT considered good surgical instrument care? Using an ultrasonic cleaner Using tap water Using a brush to scrub the instruments Using cleaning agents at a pH of approximately 10

Using tap water The use of tap water for cleaning surgical instruments is not recommended since it carries a high likelihood of leaving mineral deposits on the instruments; distilled water is preferred. Cleaning agents that have a higher pH (between approximately 9 and 11) are used because these do not promote corrosion. An ultrasonic cleaner is highly recommended as it is much more effective than manual cleaning alone. The use of a brush to scrub the instruments is common practice and facilitates the removal of dry blood or residue.

What is the proper way to restrain a rat for routine procedures? Scruff the rat and hold the back legs. Cup the rat in the palm of your hand. Hold the rat from the tip of tail and grasp the thorax. Using two hands, one around the thorax and under the front legs, and one hand grasping the base of the tail. Place the rat in a squeeze cage. Scruff the rat at the nape of the neck.

Using two hands, one around the thorax and under the front legs, and one hand grasping the base of the tail. The proper restraint for a rat involves both hands. One hand grasps around the thorax under the front legs, and the other hand keeps downward pressure on the base of the tail. This handhold prevents the rat from being able to turn in it's skin and bite you. It is very important that the grasp of the tail is at the base, as the tail will deglove if pulled on any more distal than the base.

What is the "antidote" or treatment for Flagyl toxicity in animals? Valium Phenobarbital Sucralfate Metoclopramide

Valium Flagyl (metronidazole) can cause neurologic side effects. The treatment of these side effects is Valium (diazepam) and supportive care. The treatment using Valium is related to modulating GABA receptors in the cerebellar and vestibular systems.

Which of the following is an example of an analytical variable that may adversely affect the accuracy of a laboratory result? -Genetic variation within a breed or population - Obtaining a blood sample from a non-fasted patient - Variation in temperature at which an assay is performed -A mislabeled tube

Variation in temperature at which an assay is performed Analytical variables are things that affect the way a test might vary between laboratories, usually depending on the type of instrumentation or the conditions under which an assay is run. Of these choices, only the temperature at which the assay is performed meets this definition. Genetic variation and the condition of a patient having a sample drawn are both preanalytical variables. A mislabeled tube could be a preanalytical or a postanalytical variable.

An incision made from xyphoid to pubis would be found where? Over the dorsal hip region Ventral midline Ventral chest over the sternum Ventral cervical region

Ventral midline The xyphoid is the lowest part of the sternum. The pubis is one of the bones that makes up the hip. An incision from xyphoid to pubis implies a ventral midline incision as is customarily performed during abdominal exploratories.

In a horse, what is the most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity? Ventral midline incision Flank incision Transverse incision Parasaggital incision

Ventral midline incision Similar to small animals, the most common approach performed is a ventral midline incision. This provides excellent exposure of abdominal organs. A flank incision may be preferred in special circumstances but is not performed as routinely. A parasaggital incision is not ideal as it results in trauma to the abdominal musculature. A transverse incision would not provide good visualization as compared to a ventral midline incision.

During which cardiac status would a defibrillator most likely be used and effective? Asystole Ventricular tachycardia with a pulse Normal sinus arrhythmia Ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation usually occurs just prior to asystole, when there is uncoordinated contraction of the ventricular muscles (uncontrolled quivering of the muscle fibers). It is during the ventricular fibrillation that a defibrillator is most often used to try to induce a normal rhythm to the heart. Defibrillation delivers a dose of electrical energy to the heart. This depolarizes the heart muscle, stops the arrhythmia, and allows normal sinus rhythm to be reestablished in the sinoatrial node (the "pacemaker" of the heart). The heart will generally not respond to defibrillation in asystole because it is already depolarized. Defibrillation only works if electrical activity is occurring. If a pulse is present, defibrillation for ventricular tachycardia is not indicated. Normal sinus arrhythmia is a normal rhythm in which there is mild acceleration and slowing of the heart rate that occurs during inhalation and exhalation; many normal pets have this rhythm.

A dog presenting with a head tilt and loss of balance most likely has disease associated with which nerve? Optic Vestibulocochlear Vagus Trigeminal

Vestibulocochlear Head tilt and loss of balance are symptoms of vestibular syndrome, which is most often assoiated with damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII). Other symptoms may include nausea and nystagmus.

The designation of VTS in someone's credentials stands for which of the following? Veterinary Technician Scientist Veterinary Technical Surgeon Veterinary Technician Specialist Veterinarian of Technical Surgeries

Veterinary Technician Specialist VTS is a designation given to a credentialed technician in their field of expertise after spending 3 years full time in that specific field and passing a rigorous board examination. There are several different specialities that can be achieved by credentialed veterinary technicians looking to go beyond their state credentials.

The Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics contains which of the following statements? Veterinary technicians should care for all animals equally. Veterinary technicians must never put a client's needs above an animal's needs. Veterinary technicians shall keep the health of the animals they treat their priority. Veterinary technicians shall protect confidential information provided by clients.

Veterinary technicians shall protect confidential information provided by clients. The veterinary technician oath includes these following points: Veterinary technicians shall aid society and animals through providing excellent care and services for animals. Veterinary technicians shall prevent and relieve the suffering of animals. Veterinary technicians shall promote public health by assisting with the control of zoonotic diseases and informing the public about these diseases. Veterinary technicians shall assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgments. Veterinary technicians shall protect confidential information provided by clients. Veterinary technicians shall safeguard the public and the professional against individuals deficient in professional competence or ethics. Veterinary technicians shall assist with efforts to ensure conditions of employment consistent with the excellent care for animals. Veterinary technicians shall remain competent in veterinary technology through commitment to life-long learning. Veterinary technicians shall collaborate with members of the veterinary medical profession in efforts to ensure quality health care services for all animals.

Which of the following is not a nutrient that provides energy? Proteins Carbohydrates Fats Vitamins

Vitamins There are six categories of nutrients. Proteins, fats, and carbohydrates provide energy. Water, vitamins, and minerals do not.

Which of the following vitamins are fat-soluble? Vitamin C, folate Vitamins A, D, E, and K Vitamin B12, Vitamin K Vitamin C, Vitamin K

Vitamins A, D, E, and K The fat-soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) and the B-complex vitamins are water-soluble.

Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by which of the following? Toxicity of eating the fruit of mulberry plants Vitamin E deficiency Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Strict confinement

Vitamin E deficiency Mulberry heart disease is a common form of Vitamin E and selenium deficiency in pigs. It typically occurs due to a lack of these vitamins in the feed. It can cause sudden death and difficulty breathing due to fluid accumulation around the muscles, including the heart, in which the pericardial sac becomes grossly distended. It also causes cardiac muscle necrosis.

How is toxicity from the rodenticide, brodifacoum, treated? Potassium bromide Vitamin K1 Vitamin D3 Methylene blue Atropine

Vitamin K1 The correct answer is vitamin K1. Brodifacoum is a vitamin K antagonist (anticoagulant) commonly used in rodenticides. Ingestion of this compound causes hemorrhaging. Treatment for this condition requires vitamin K1 administration for 4-6 weeks.

The somatic nervous system is responsible for which of the following functions? Secretion of saliva Regulation of heart rate Voluntary motor movement Contraction of the intestines

Voluntary motor movement Secretion of saliva, contraction of the intestines, and regulation of the heart rate falls under the responsibility of the autonomic nervous system. More specifically, the heart rate is influenced by the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems, both of which are branches of the autonomic nervous system.

Which of the following is not a complication associated with the placement of an epidural in a dog that is under anesthesia? Urinary retention Hypotension Vomiting Respiratory depression

Vomiting Vomiting is generally not observed after placement of an epidural in the anesthetized patient. Dogs may however experience respiratory depression, urinary retention, and hypotension as a result of using epidural anesthetics such as opioids and alpha-2 agonists.

What should be done when administering nitroglycerin paste to a patient? Wear gloves Have the patient on oxygen Apply it directly to the mucous membranes Have the patient hooked up to IV fluids to prevent hypotension

Wear gloves Nitroglycerine is a potent vasodilator used in cases of heart failure. It is critical to always wear gloves when handling this medication as it is absorbed through the skin. Mostly, it is applied to the skin inside the pinna of the ear. The ear should be marked with tape so that others know not to touch the area after the medication has been applied.

Hamsters are susceptible to proliferative ileitis. What is the common name for this debilitating disease? Tyzzer's disease Wet tail Snuffles Tularemia

Wet tail Wet tail is the common name given to the disease that plagues hamsters in stressful situations. It is called "wet tail" because of the diarrhea that soils the rear of the hamster. Caused by a mulitude of issues (stress being one of the most common), this condition is contagious and debilitating. An overgrowth of bacteria causes profound diarrhea.

Which of the following pieces of information should the technician be most aware of prior to inducing a patient for anesthesia? When the patient urinated last When the patient last had an anesthetic procedure When the patient defecated last When the patient ate last

When the patient ate last Patients that are anesthetized with a full stomach have a higher incidence of vomiting or regurgitating at the time of anesthesia. Therefore, it is very important to have patients fasted prior to anesthesia. Depending on the species, some patients may be fasted anywhere between just a few hours to over 12 hours.

Which area of the horse is generally referred to as the withers? The male genitalia Where the dorsal neck joins the thorax The area ventral to the neck and extending between the forelimbs The region between the tuber coxae

Where the dorsal neck joins the thorax The withers is the ridge between the shoulder blades. It is the standard place to measure the height of a horse. It is formed by the dorsal spinal processes around the third to eleventh thoracic vertebrae.

Pyuria indicates which of the following? Protein in the urine White blood cells in the urine Red blood cells in the urine Bilirubin in the urine Bacteria in the urine

White blood cells in the urine Pyuria indicates white blood cells in the urine (Py=Pus, uria=urine). Pus is an accumulation of white blood cells. Hematuria is red blood cells in the urine. Proteinuria is protein in the urine. Bilirubinuria is bilirubin in the urine. Bacteriuria is bacteria in the urine.

You are asked to run an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip on a pet. There are three leads on your machine. One is white, one is black, and one is red. Where should these be placed? White: left hindlimb, black: right forelimb, red: left forelimb White: left forelimb, black: right forelimb, red: right hindlimb White: right hindlimb, black: left forelimb, red: right forelimb White: right forelimb, black: left forelimb, red: left hindlimb

White= right front Black= left front Red= left hind Green (if present)= right hind The easy ways to remember these: You read your newspaper in the morning (black and white towards front of pet), Christmas comes at the end of the year (red and green towards the rear of pet). In right lateral recumbency: snow (white) and grass (green) are on the ground so are on the right side down towards the table. White also rhymes with right.

Performing an abdominocentesis involves which of the following? Withdrawing fluid from the abdomen Removing an organ from the abdomen Obtaining a urine sample from the abdomen Making an incision into the abdomen

Withdrawing fluid from the abdomen "Centesis" is the act of puncturing a body cavity or hollow organ in order to remove fluid; therefore, abdominocentesis implies the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity. Similarly thoracocentesis would be removal of fluid from the chest cavity. A cystocentesis describes the removal of fluid from the urinary bladder. Terms that involve the removal of an organ usually end with "-ectomy". Examples of terms would include splenectomy, nephrectomy, and lung lobectomy.

A horse is presented for a surgical procedure. What is the best time to administer perioperative antibiotics to the patient? 1 hour post-operatively When the incision is being closed Within 1 hour of cut time When the surgeon makes the first cut

Within 1 hour of cut time The best time to administer antibiotics for a surgical patient is within 1 hour of cut time. Antibiotics are most effective and can provide therapeutic levels to the patient when they are given within 60 minutes of cut time (when the incision is made). Subsequent doses may be needed if the surgical procedure is more than 1-2 times the half-life of the chosen antibiotic.

When are needle teeth in piglets usually clipped? At 3 months of age At 3 days of age At 3 weeks of age Within 24 hours of birth

Within 24 hours of birth Piglets are born with 8 sharp needle or milk teeth. The teeth can lacerate the sow during nursing, and playing or fighting behavior with other piglets may cause trauma. The teeth are most often clipped within the first 24 hours after birth.

A pet Guinea Pig is presented to your hospital for emergency treatment after sustaining a crushing injury. Which of the following is not considered part of the initial emergency assessment of the patient? Wound stabilization Control of hemorrhage Assessment of airway, respiratory, and cardiovascular systems Ruptured organs Heat support Fluid or air accumulations

Wound stabilization Just as in other species, assessment of 'ABC's, control of hemorrhage, treatment of hypothermia, diagnosis of ruptured organs, and fluid or air accumulations are part of initial triage. Stabilization of the most critical conditions are performed first and then wound and supportive care is addressed.

Which of the following drugs is NOT approved for the use in cattle? Xylazine Diazepam Butorphanol Albendazole

Xylazine Ruminants are highly sensitive to xylazine when compared with horses, dogs, and cats. They generally require only one-tenth of the dosage required for horses to exhibit the same effect. It is not approved for the use in ruminants but is sometimes used off-label. It is important to know how sensitive ruminants are to this drug. Albendazole is a broad spectrum de-wormer commonly used in cattle. Diazepam or Butorphanol can be used as a sedative or tranquilizer in cattle.

Which of the following drugs should be used with extreme caution in ruminants? Lidocaine Acepromazine Xylazine Atropine

Xylazine Xylazine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and is classified as a sedative/analgesic with muscle relaxant properties. It is not approved for any species to be consumed for food purposes. Ruminants are very sensitive to xylazine and it is not used much in these animals. In fact, ruminants generally require only 1/10 of the dosage required for horses to exhibit the same effect. Due to the unique GI system of the ruminant, much care must be taken when administering drugs so as not to interfere with proper digestion, and xylazine inreases risk of ileus.

Icterus is a term that means which of the following? Yellow discoloration of the skin, eyes, and mucous membranes Straining to urinate Small hemorrhages on the mucus membranes Blood in the stool

Yellow discoloration of the skin, eyes, and mucous membranes Icterus, or jaundice, means yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera. It is most often associated with liver disease from a poor flow of bile or biliary obstruction in the liver. It can also be caused by hepatitis or from red blood cell destruction. Small hemorrhages on the mucus membranes are petechiae. Straining to urinate is termed stranguria. Blood in the stool is hematochezia (bright red blood suggests large intestine bleeding) or melena (black/digested blood suggests small intestine bleeding)

An owner presents her puppy for severe itching. The veterinarian diagnoses Sarcoptes mites with a superficial skin scraping. The owner wants to know if this mite is contagious to her and her children. What should you tell her? No, these mites are only contagious between dogs and cats Yes, but the infections are transient, and her dog does not need treatment Yes, there can be a temporary transmission from her dog to those with direct contact, but the mites are host-specific and the infection is temporary Yes, these are highly contagious and can be easily passed between all species

Yes, there can be a temporary transmission from her dog to those with direct contact, but the mites are host-specific and the infection is temporary Sarcoptic mites (scabies) from the dog can transfer to humans and cause skin irritation. However, since humans cannot host the canine sarcoptic mite, it dies off without treatment being required for the human, just the dog. Humans have their own sarcoptic mite that is contagious between humans. Notoedres cati causes feline scabies and is host-specific to the cat. It can also temporarily infect humans.

Which of these drugs can be used to reverse anesthesia induced by xylazine in a cat? Naloxone Medetomidine Yohimbine Flumazenil

Yohimbine The correct answer is yohimbine. Xylazine is an alpha-2 agonist. Yohimbine is an alpha-2 antagonist. The alpha-2 agonists are xylazine, clonidine, detomidine, romifidine, and medetomidine. Alpha-2 antagonists are yohimbine, tolazoline, and atipamezole. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines such as midazolam. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist (which would reverse morphine and hydromorphone).

Whipworm eggs The bipolar plugs on the eggs are typical of Trichuris vulpis (whipworm).

You are doing a fecal flotation and observe these eggs under the microscope. They have bipolar plugs; one plug on each end (see image). What are these? -Tapeworm eggs -Hookworm eggs -Roundworm eggs -Whipworm eggs

You are attempting to give an intra-jugular injection to a horse and insert the needle to the hub. Blood is forcefully pulsating and ejecting from the needle. What is the most likely explanation? The horse has hypertension The vein is spasming, and this is normal; it is okay to give the medication This is normal when injecting medication into the jugular of a horse You are in the carotid artery

You are in the carotid artery This is typical of insertion into an artery. If this occurs, the needle should be removed immediately and pressure placed on the site for several minutes to assure hemostasis.

Hematopinus, a louse This is a blood-sucking genus of louse and can cause severe anemia. You can tell this is a louse and not a tick or a mite because lice are insects with 6 legs, and ticks and mites are arachnids with 8 legs.

You are looking at a skin scraping from a calf and find the 6-legged parasite shown below. What is this organism? -Hematopinus, a louse -Sarcoptes, a mite -Boophilus, a tick -Demodex, a mite

Trichuris The eggs shown are Whipworm eggs (Trichuris vulpis). Note the bipolar plugs (the plugs on each end of the eggs).

You are performing a fecal examination on feces from a sick dog and find the following under the microscope (see image). You inform the veterinarian of your finding, which is what parasite? -Cystoisospora -Taenia -Trichuris -Ancylostoma

Which of the following solutions used for fecal flotation floats protozoal organisms with the least distortion? -Sodium nitrate -Zinc sulfate -Formalin -Saturated sodium chloride

Zinc sulfate Zinc sulfate solutions are generally used in diagnostic laboratories because they cause the least distortion of organisms. Other solutions, particularly sodium nitrate, are commonly used in veterinary practices because of cost and/or convenience. It is particularly important with sodium nitrate solutions to avoid letting them sit too long, as they cause distortion and form crystals, particularly after sitting longer than 20 minutes. Saturated sodium chloride is rarely used because it distorts organisms, creates crystals, and corrodes laboratory equipment. Formalin solutions alone are not used for flotation.

Four patients present to your emergency clinic at the same time: a) 2-year old male domestic short hair with a urethral obstruction b) 5-year old female Labrador with a tracheal foreign body and cyanosis c) 10-year old male standard poodle with a laceration on its forelimb d) 4-year old male hamster with elongated teeth In what order should these patients be triaged? a, b, c, d c, d, a, b a, c, b, d a, d, b, c b, a, c, d

b, a, c, d A patient with an airway obstruction is in immediate danger of respiratory arrest and therefore takes priority over all other patients. A cat with urethral obstruction would be the next priority due to the possibility of a bladder rupture. A laceration needs care within a few hours. Elongated or overgrown teeth in a hamster, while needing treatment, would have the lowest priority in this group of emergency patients.