Windstream CCNA Training practice

What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.) A. Standard B. IEEE C. Extended D. Specialized

A, C (Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router. See Chapter 12 for more information.)

How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 12

A. (By default, switches break up collision domains on a per-port basis but are one large broadcast domain. See Chapter 1 for more information.)

You need to troubleshoot an adjacency between two EIGRP configured routers? What should you look for? (Choose four.) A. Verify the AS numbers. B. Verify that you have the proper interfaces enabled for EIGRP. C. Make sure there are no mismatched K-values. D. Check your passive interface settings. E. Make sure your remote routers are not connected to the Internet. F. If authentication is configured, make sure all routers use different passwords.

A, B, C, D (Cisco has documented steps, according to the objectives, that you must go through when troubleshooting an adjacency. See Chapter 19 for more information.)

You reload a router with a configuration register setting of 0x2101. What will the router do when it reloads? A. The router enters setup mode. B. The router enters ROM monitor mode. C. The router boots the mini-IOS in ROM. D. The router expands the first IOS in flash memory into RAM.

C (2100 boots the router into ROM monitor mode, 2101 loads the mini-IOS from ROM, and 2102 is the default and loads the IOS from flash. See Chapter 16 for more information.)

Which of the following is considered to be the inside host's address after translation? A. Inside local B. Outside local C. Inside global D. Outside global

C (An inside global address is considered to be the IP address of the host on the private network after translation. See Chapter 13 for more information.)

Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts? A. TCP B. ARP C. ICMP D. BootP

C (ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router. See Chapter 3 for more information.)

1000Base-T is which IEEE standard? A. 802.3f B. 802.3z C. 802.3ab D. 802.3ae

C (IEEE 802.3ab is the standard for 1 Gbps on twisted-pair. See Chapter 2 for more information.)

Which of the following is the best summarization of the following networks: 192.168.128.0 through 192.168.159.0? A. 192.168.0.0/24 B. 192.168.128.0/16 C. 192.168.128.0/19 D. 192.168.128.0/20

C (If you start at 192.168.128.0 and go through 192.168.159.0, you can see that this is a block of 32 in the third octet. Since the network address is always the first one in the range, the summary address is 192.168.128.0. What mask provides a block of 32 in the third octet? The answer is 255.255.224.0, or /19. See Chapter 5 for more information.)

Which of the following will you use to collect details about network traffic patterns on your network, including protocols used. A. SNMPv3 B. Syslogv2 C. NetFlow 9 D. logging host ip_address

C (NetFlow allows the collection of flows of traffic on the network, including address and protocols in use. A recent version of NetFlow is version 9, referred to as Flexible NetFlow. See Chapter 17 for more information.)

Which type of LSAs are generated by ABRs and referred to summary link advertisements (SLAs)? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 E. Type 5

C (Referred to as summary link advertisements (SLAs), Type 3 LSAs are generated by area border routers. These ABRs send Type 3 LSAs toward the area external to the one where they were generated. See Chapter 20 for more information.)

On which interface do you configure an IP address for a switch? A. int fa0/0 B. int vty 0 15 C. int vlan 1 D. int s/0/0

C (The IP address is configured under a logical interface, called a management domain or VLAN 1, by default. See Chapter 10 for more information.)

The protocol data unit (PDU) encapsulation is completed in which order? A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data

C (The PDU encapsulation method defines how data is encoded as it goes through each layer of the TCP/IP model. Data is segmented at the Transport later, packets created at the Network layer, frames at the Data Link layer, and finally, the Physical layer encodes the 1s and 0s into a digital signal. See Chapter 2 for more information.)

What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next? A. Set the Telnet password. B. Shut down the router. C. Set your console password. D. Disable console connections.

C (The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console user-mode password. See Chapter 6 for more information.)

Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router? A. line telnet 0 4 B. line aux 0 4 C. line vty 0 4 D. line con 0

C (The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your Telnet password. See Chapter 6 for more information.)

Which command is used to determine if an access list is enabled on a particular interface? A. show access-lists B. show interface C. show ip interface D. show interface access-lists

C (The show ip interface command will show you if any interfaces have an outbound or inbound access list set. See Chapter 12 for more information.)

Serial0/1 goes down. How will EIGRP send packets to the 10.1.1.0 network? A. EIGRP will put the 10.1.1.0 network into active mode. B. EIGRP will drop all packets destined for 10.1.1.0. C. EIGRP will just keep sending packets out s0/0. E. EIGRP will use s0/2 as the successor and keep routing to 10.1.1.0.

C (There are two successor routes, so by default, EIGRP was load-balancing out s0/0 and s0/1. When s0/1 goes down, EIGRP will just keep forwarding traffic out the second link s0/0. s0/1 will be removed from the routing table. See Chapter 19 for more information.)

Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q? A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control information. B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary. C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information. D. ISL is a standard.

C (Unlike ISL, which encapsulates the frame with control information, 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information. See Chapter 11 for more information.)

Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer? A. IP B. TCP C. UDP D. ARP

C (User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this connectionless service. See Chapter 3 for more information.)

What does a VLAN do? A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

C (VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2. See Chapter 11 for more information.)

What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.) A. VLAN Trunking Protocol B. VLAN C. 802.1q D. ISL

C, D (VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information across a trunk link. 802.1q and ISL encapsulations are used to configure trunking on a port. See Chapter 11 for more information.)

If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, choose the best answer for the Cisco objectives. A. erase startup B. delete running C. erase flash D. erase running

A (The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM. See Chapter 6 for more information.)

Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists? A. show all access-lists B. show access-lists C. show ip interface D. show interface

B (To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command. See Chapter 12 for more information.)

Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides? A. 192.168.168.129-190 B. 192.168.168.129-191 C. 192.168.168.128-190 D. 192.168.168.128-192

A (256 - 192 = 64, so 64 is our block size. Just count in increments of 64 to find our subnet: 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190. See Chapter 4 for more information.)

You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use? A. EtherChannel B. PortFast C. BPDU Channel D. VLANs E. EtherBundle

A (Cisco's EtherChannel can bundle up to eight ports between switches to provide resiliency and more bandwidth between switches. See Chapter 15 for more information)

Which class of IP address provides 15 bits for subnetting? A. A B. B C. C D. D

A (Class A addressing provides 22 bits for host subnetting. Class B provides 16 bits, but only 14 are available for subnetting. Class C provides only 6 bits for subnetting. See Chapter 3 for more information.)

An IPv6 ARP entry is listed as with a status of REACH. What can you conclude about the IPv6-to-MAC-address mapping? A. The interface has communicated with the neighbor address and the mapping is current. B. The interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame. C. The ARP entry has timed out. D. IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not yet been resolved.

A (If the state is STALE when the interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame. The next time the neighbor communicates, the state will be REACH. See Chapter 18 for more information.)

A host sends a type of NDP message providing the MAC address that was requested. Which type of NDP was sent? A. NA B. RS C. RA D. NS

A (The NDP neighbor advertisement (NA) contains the MAC address. A neighbor solicitation (NS) was initially sent asking for the MAC address. See Chapter 14 for more information.)

When do two adjacent routers-enter the 2WAY state? A. After both routers have received Hello information B. After they have exchanged topology databases C. When they connect only to a DR or BDR D. When they need to exchange RID information

A (The process starts by sending out Hello packets. Every listening router will then add the originating router to the neighbor database. The responding routers will reply with all of their Hello information so that the originating router can add them to its own neighbor table. At this point, we will have reached the 2WAY state—only certain routers will advance beyond to this. See Chapter 20 for more information.)

To enable OSPFv3, which of the following would you use? A. Router(config-if)#ipv6 ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 router rip 1 C. Router(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 10 D. Router(config-rtr)#no shutdown E. Router(config-if)#ospf ipv6 10 area 0

A (To enable OSPFv3, you enable the protocol at the interface level, as with RIPng. The command string is area-id. It's important to understand that area 0 and area 0.0.0.0 both describe area 0. See Chapter 14 for more information.)

Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true? A. This is a multilayer switch. B. The two VLANs are in the same subnet. C. Encapsulation must be configured. D. VLAN 10 is the management VLAN.

A (With a multilayer switch, enable IP routing and create one logical interface for each VLAN using the interface vlan number command and you're now doing inter-VLAN routing on the backplane of the switch! See Chapter 11 for more information.)

What configuration parameters must be configured the same between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three.) A. Virtual MAC address B. Port speeds C. Duplex D. PortFast enabled E. Allowed VLAN information

B, C, E (All the ports on both sides of every link must be configured exactly the same between switches or it will not work. Speed, duplex, and allowed VLANs must match. See Chapter 15 for more information.)

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface? A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface B. The highest IP address of any physical interface C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface D. The highest IP address of any logical interface

B (At the moment of OSPF process startup, the highest IP address on any active interface will be the router ID (RID) of the router. If you have a loopback interface configured (logical interface), then that will override the interface IP address and become the RID of the router automatically. See Chapter 9 for more information.)

Which of the following is not provided by the AH portion of IPsec? A. Integrity B. Confidentiality C. Authenticity D. Anti-reply

B (Authentication Header (AH) provides authentication of either all or part of the IP packet through the addition of a header that is calculated based on the values in the packet, but it doesn't offer any encryption services. See Chapter 21 for more information.)

Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long? A. 4 B. 16 C. 32 D. 128

B (Each field in an IPv6 address is 16 bits long. An IPv6 address is a total of 128 bits. See Chapter 14 for more information.)

Which statement about GRE is not true? A. GRE is stateless and has no flow control. B. GRE has security. C. GRE has additional overhead for tunneled packets, at least 24 bytes. D. GRE uses a protocol-type field in the GRE header so any layer 3 protocol can be used through the tunnel.

B (Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) has no built-in security mechanisms. See Chapter 21 for more information.)

Where is a hub specified in the OSI model? A. Session layer B. Physical layer C. Data Link layer D. Application layer

B (Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer. See Chapter 1 for more information.)

Your inside locals are not being translated to the inside global addresses. Which of the following commands will show you if your inside globals are allowed to use the NAT pool? A. debug ip nat B. show access-list C. show ip nat translation D. show ip nat statistics

B (Once you create your pool, the command ip nat inside source must be used to say which inside locals are allowed to use the pool. In this question, we need to see if access list 100 is configured correctly, if at all, so show access-list is the best answer. See Chapter 13 for more information.)

There are three possible routes for a router to reach a destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPv2 with a metric of 4. The third is from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route will be installed by the router in its routing table? A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. All three

B (Only the EIGRP route will be placed in the routing table because EIGRP has the lowest administrative distance (AD), and that is always used before metrics. See Chapter 8 for more information.)

When is the AVR router used in GLBP? A. When HSRP preempts GLBP B. When a client needs the virtual MAC C. When it's set to passive mode and load balancing D. When it's load-balancing between VLANs with VVRP E. When there is a redundancy failure

B (The active virtual router (AVR) responds with the virtual MAC addresses to the clients. See Chapter 17 for more information.)

What command is used to create a backup configuration? A. copy running backup B. copy running-config startup-config C. config mem D. wr net

B (The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-config. See Chapter 7 for more information.)

Which command allows you to view the technology options and licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables? A. show license B. show license feature C. show license udi D. show version

B (The show license feature command allows you to view the technology package licenses and feature licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables related to software activation and licensing, both licensed and unlicensed features. See Chapter 16 for more information.)

You want to send a console message to a syslog server, but you only want to send status messages of 3 and lower. Which of the following commands will you use? A. logging trap emergencies B. logging trap errors C. logging trap debugging D. logging trap notifications E. logging trap critical F. logging trap warnings

B (There are eight different trap levels. If you choose, for example level 3, level 0 through level 3 messages will be displayed. See Chapter 17 for more information.)

You need to connect to a remote IPv6 server in your virtual server farm. You can connect to the IPv4 servers, but not the critical IPv6 server you desperately need. Based on the following output, what could your problem be? A. The global address is in the wrong subnet. B. The IPv6 default gateway has not been configured or received from the router. C. The link-local address has not been resolved so the host cannot communicate to the router. D. There are two IPv6 global addresses configured. One must be removed from the configuration.

B (There is no IPv6 default gateway listed in the output, which will be the link-local address of the router interface, sent to the host as a router advertisement. Until this host receives the router address, the host will communicate with IPv6 only on the local subnet. See Chapter 18 for more information.)

IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the following addresses would show up with the show ipv6 int brief command? A. FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 C. FE80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 D. FE80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bfe:0d80

B (This can be a hard question if you don't remember to invert the 7th bit of the first octet in the MAC address! Always look for the 7th bit when studying for the Cisco R/S, and when using eui-64, invert it. The eui-64 autoconfiguration then inserts an FF:FE in the middle of the 48-bit MAC address to create a unique IPv6 address. See Chapter 14 for more information.)

What is the sys-id-ext field in a BPDU used for? A. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define trunking information between switches. B. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define VLANs in an STP instance. C. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an non-Ethernet frame to define EtherChannel options. D. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define STP root bridges.

B (To allow for the PVST+ to operate, there's a field inserted into the BPDU to accommodate the extended system ID so that PVST+ can have a root bridge configured on a per-STP instance. The extended system ID (VLAN ID) is a 12-bit field, and we can even see what this field is carrying via show spanning-tree command output. See Chapter 15 for more information.)

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.) A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0. D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. E. The network is not subnetted.

B, D (The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256-254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254. See Chapter 4 for more information.)

You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose three.) A. Process ID B. Hello and dead timers C. Link cost D. Area E. IP address/subnet mask

B, D, E (In order for two OSPF routers to create an adjacency, the Hello and dead timers must match, and they must both be configured into the same area, as well as being in the same subnet. See Chapter 20 for more information.)

Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0? (Choose two.) A. router eigrp 10 B. router ospf 10 C. router rip D. network 10.0.0.0 E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0 G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B, G (To enable OSPF, you must first start OSPF using a process ID. The number is irrelevant; just choose a number from 1 to 65,535 and you're good to go. After you start the OSPF process, you must configure interfaces on which to activate OSPF using the network command with wildcards and specification of an area. Option F is wrong because there must be a space after the parameter area and before you list the area number. See Chapter 9 for more information.)

How should a router that is being used in a frame relay network be configured to keep split horizon issues from preventing routing updates? A. Configure a single subinterface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces. B. Combine multiple frame relay circuits as a point-to-point line to support multicast and broadcast traffic. C. Configure many subinterfaces in the same subnet. D. Configure a separate subinterface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the subinterface.

D (If you have a serial port configured with multiple DLCIs connected to multiple remote sites, split horizon rules stop route updates received on an interface from being sent out the same interface. By creating subinterfaces for each PVC, you can avoid the split horizon issues when using Frame Relay. See Chapter 21 for more information.)

How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 12

D (Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains per port. See Chapter 1 for more information.)

What is a stub network? A. A network with more than one exit point B. A network with more than one exit and entry point C. A network with only one entry and no exit point D. A network that has only one entry and exit point

D (Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Default routes should be set on a stub network or network loops may occur; however, there are exceptions to this rule. See Chapter 8 for more information.)

Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs? A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches. B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No offbrand switches are allowed. C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain. D. You need to have a trunk link configured between switches in order to send information about more than one VLAN down the link.

D (Switches send information about only one VLAN down a link unless it is configured as a trunk link. See Chapter 11 for more information.)

What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution table on a Cisco router? A. show ip arp B. show ipv6 arp C. show ip neighbors D. show ipv6 neighbors E. show arp

D (The command show ipv6 neighbors provides the ARP cache for on a router. See Chapter 18 for more information.)

Which of the following commands provides the product ID and serial number of a router? A. show license B. show license feature C. show version D. show license udi

D (The show license udi command displays the unique device identifier (UDI) of the router, which comprises the product ID (PID) and serial number of the router. See Chapter 16 for more information.)

If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000 bps serial link? A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64 B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000 C. RouterA(config)#clockrate 64000 D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64 E. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

E (The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bits per second (bps). See Chapter 6 for more information.)

What command produced the following output? A. show ip protocols B. show ipv6 protocols C. show ip eigrp neighbors D. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors E. show ip eigrp topology F. show ipv6 eigrp topology

F (There isn't a lot to go on from with the output, but the only commands that provide the FD and AD are show ip eigrp topology and show ipv6 eigrp topology. The addresses in the output are link-local IPv6 addresses, so our answer is the latter. See Chapter 19 for more information)