10/07 QUIZ

You (the nurse) are reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation. What is an important fact you should point out (Select all that apply)? a. "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure." b. "This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won't be able to get pregnant." c. "Sterilization offers some form of protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)." d. "Sterilization offers no protection against STIs." e. "Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."

a. "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure." d. "Sterilization offers no protection against STIs." A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation, although it is not 100% effective. Sterilization offers no protection against STIs. The menstrual cycle typically remains the same after a tubal ligation.

A physician prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid, Serophene) for a woman experiencing infertility. She is very concerned about the risk of multiple births. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins?" b. "No one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid." c. "Ovulation will be monitored with ultrasound so that this will not happen." d. "Ten percent is a very low risk, so you don't need to worry too much."

a. "This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins?" The incidence of multiple pregnancies with the use of these medications is significantly increased. The patient's concern is legitimate and should be discussed so that she can make an informed decision. Stating that no one has ever had "more than triplets" is inaccurate and negates the patient's concerns. Ultrasound cannot ensure that a multiple pregnancy will not occur. The percentage quoted in this statement is inaccurate. The comment "don't worry" discredits the patient's concern.

The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed. This should be interpreted as: a. A normal finding. b. A questionable finding—the infant should be rechecked in 1 month. c. An abnormal finding—indicates the need for immediate referral to a practitioner. d. An abnormal finding—indicates the need for developmental assessment.

a. A normal finding. Because the anterior fontanel normally closes between ages 12 and 18 months, this is a normal finding, and no further intervention is required.

Which toy is the most developmentally appropriate for an 18- to 24-month-old child? a. A push-pull toy b. Nesting blocks c. A bicycle with training wheels d. A computer

a. A push-pull toy Push-pull toys encourage large muscle activity and are appropriate for toddlers. Nesting blocks are more appropriate for a 12- to 15-month-old child. A bicycle with training wheels is appropriate for a preschool or young school-age child. A computer can be appropriate as early as the preschool years.

Steven, 16 months old, falls down a few stairs. He gets up and "scolds" the stairs as if they caused him to fall. This is an example of which of the following? a. Animism b. Ritualism c. Irreversibility d. Delayed cognitive development

a. Animism Animism is the attribution of lifelike qualities to inanimate objects. By scolding the stairs, the toddler is attributing human characteristics to them. Ritualism is the need to maintain sameness and reliability. It provides a sense of comfort to the toddler. Irreversibility is the inability to reverse or undo actions initiated physically. Steven is acting in an age-appropriate manner.

Clinical manifestations of failure to thrive caused by behavioral problems resulting in inadequate intake of calories include: a. Avoidance of eye contact. b. An associated malabsorption defect. c. Weight that falls below the 15th percentile. d. Normal achievement of developmental landmarks.

a. Avoidance of eye contact One of the clinical manifestations of nonorganic failure to thrive is the child's avoidance of eye contact with the health professional. A malabsorption defect would result in a physiologic problem, not behavioral. Weight (but not height) below the 5th percentile is indicative of failure to thrive. Developmental delays, including social, motor, adaptive, and language, exist.

A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is called: a. Ductal ectasia. b. Intraductal papilloma. c. Chronic cystic disease. d. Fibroadenoma.

a. Ductal ectasia Generally occurring in women approaching menopause, ductal ectasia results in a firm irregular mass in the breast, enlarged axillary nodes, and nipple discharge. Intraductal papillomas develop in the epithelium of the ducts of the breasts; as the mass grows, it causes trauma or erosion within the ducts. Chronic cystic disease causes pain and tenderness. The cysts that form are multiple, smooth, and well delineated. Fibroadenoma is evidenced by fibrous and glandular tissues. They are felt as firm, rubbery, and freely mobile nodules.

Which is an important nursing consideration when caring for an infant with failure to thrive? a. Establish a structured routine and follow it consistently. b. Maintain a nondistracting environment by not speaking to the infant during feeding. c. Place the infant in an infant seat during feedings to prevent overstimulation. d. Limit sensory stimulation and play activities to alleviate fatigue.

a. Establish a structured routine and follow it consistently. The infant with failure to thrive should have a structured routine that is followed consistently. Disruptions in other activities of daily living can have a great impact on feeding behaviors. Bathing, sleeping, dressing, playing, and feeding are structured. The nurse should talk to the infant by giving directions about eating. This will help the infant maintain focus. Young children should be held while being fed, and older children can sit at a feeding table. The infant should be fed in the same manner at each meal. The infant can engage in sensory and play activities at times other than mealtime.

A nurse places some x-ray contrast the toddler is to drink in a small cup instead of a large cup. Which concept of a toddler's preoperational thinking is the nurse using? a. Inability to conserve b. Magical thinking c. Centration d. Irreversibility

a. Inability to conserve The nurse is using the toddler's inability to conserve. This is when the toddler is unable to understand the idea that a mass can be changed in size, shape, volume, or length without losing or adding to the original mass. Instead, toddlers judge what they see by the immediate perceptual clues given to them. A small glass means less amount of contrast. Magical thinking is believing that thoughts are all-powerful and can cause events. Centration is focusing on one aspect rather than considering all possible alternatives. Irreversibility is the inability to undo or reverse the actions initiated, such as being unable to stop doing an action when told.

Which gross motor milestones should the nurse assess in an 18-month-old child (select all that apply)? a. Jumps in place with both feet b. Takes a few steps on tiptoe c. Throws ball overhand without falling d. Pulls and pushes toys e. Stands on one foot momentarily

a. Jumps in place with both feet c. Throws ball overhand without falling d. Pulls and pushes toys An 18-month-old child can jump in place with both feet, throw a ball overhand without falling, and pull and push toys. Taking a few steps on tiptoe and standing on one foot momentarily are not acquired until 30 months of age.

A patient has been prescribed adjuvant tamoxifen therapy. What common side effect might she experience? a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding b. Vomiting, weight loss, and hair loss c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea d. Hot flashes, weight gain, and headaches

a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding Common side effects of tamoxifen therapy include hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, vaginal bleeding, menstrual irregularities, and rash. Weight loss, hair loss, diarrhea, weight gain, and headaches are not common side effects of tamoxifen.

With the goal of preventing plagiocephaly, the nurse should teach new parents to: a. Place the infant prone for 30 to 60 minutes per day. b. Buy a soft mattress. c. Allow the infant to nap in the car safety seat. d. Have the infant sleep with the parents.

a. Place the infant prone for 30 to 60 minutes per day. Prevention of positional plagiocephaly may begin shortly after birth by implementing prone positioning or "tummy time" for approximately 30 to 60 minutes per day when the infant is awake. Soft mattresses or sleeping with parents (co-sleeping) are not recommended because they put the infant at a higher risk for a sudden infant death incident. To prevent plagiocephaly, prolonged placement in car safety seats should be avoided.

In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do (select all that apply)? a. Roll from abdomen to back. b. Put feet in mouth when supine. c. Roll from back to abdomen. d. Sit erect without support. e. Move from prone to sitting position.

a. Roll from abdomen to back. b. Put feet in mouth when supine. Rolling from abdomen to back and placing the feet in the mouth when supine are developmentally appropriate for a 5-month-old infant. Rolling from back to abdomen is developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. An 8-month-old infant should be able to sit erect without support. A 10-month-old infant can usually move from a prone to a sitting position.

What important, immediate postoperative care practice should the nurse remember when caring for a woman who has had a mastectomy? a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. b. Venipuncture for blood work should be performed on the affected arm. c. The affected arm should be used for intravenous (IV) therapy. d. The affected arm should be held down close to the woman's side.

a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. The affected arm should not be used for BP readings, IV therapy, or venipuncture. The affected arm should be elevated with pillows above the level of the right atrium.

Kimberly's parents have been using a rearward-facing, convertible car seat since she was born. The parents should be taught that most car seats can be safely switched to the forward-facing position when the child reaches which age? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

b. 2 years It is now recommended that all infants and toddlers ride in rear-facing car safety seats until they reach the age of 2 years or the height or weight recommended by the car seat manufacturer. Children 2 years old and older who have outgrown the rear-facing height or weight limit for their car safety seat should use a forward-facing car safety seat with a harness up to the maximum height or weight recommended by the manufacturer. One year is too young to switch to a forward-facing position.

Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. Periodic abstinence b. Barrier methods c. Hormonal methods d. They all offer about the same protection.

b. Barrier methods Barrier methods such as condoms best protect against STIs and HIV. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods ("the pill") offer no protection against STIs or HIV.

A nurse is planning care for a hospitalized toddler in the preoperational thinking stage. Which characteristics should the nurse expect in this stage (select all that apply)? a. Concrete thinking b. Egocentrism c. Animism d. Magical thinking e. Ability to reason

b. Egocentrism c. Animism d. Magical thinking The characteristics of preoperational thinking that occur for the toddler include egocentrism (views everything in relation to self), animism (believes that inert objects are alive), and magical thinking (believes that thinking something causes that event). Concrete thinking is seen in school-age children and ability to reason is seen with adolescents.

Which of the following statements about the various forms of hepatitis is accurate? a. A vaccine exists for hepatitis C but not for hepatitis B. b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water. c. Hepatitis B is less contagious than human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. The incidence of hepatitis C is decreasing.

b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water. Contaminated milk and shellfish are common sources of infection with hepatitis A. A vaccine exists for hepatitis B but not for hepatitis C. Hepatitis B is more contagious than HIV. The incidence of hepatitis C is increasing.

With regard to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs), nurses should be aware that: a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed. b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. c. IUDs offer the same protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as the diaphragm. d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.

b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. The woman has up to 8 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. Return to fertility is immediate after removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection for STIs. A consent form is required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test.

A nurse is conducting education classes for parents of infants. The nurse plans to discuss sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which risk factors should the nurse include as increasing an infant's risk of a SIDS incident (select all that apply)? a. Breastfeeding b. Low Apgar scores c. Male sex d. Birth weight in the 50th or higher percentile e. Recent viral illness

b. Low Apgar scores c. Male sex e. Recent viral illness Certain groups of infants are at increased risk for SIDS: those with low birth weight, low Apgar scores, or recent viral illness, and those of male sex. Breastfed infants and infants of average or above-average weight are not at higher risk for SIDS.

Which are characteristic of the physical development of a 30-month-old child (select all that apply)? a. Birth weight has doubled. b. Primary dentition is complete. c. Sphincter control is achieved. d. Anterior fontanel is open. e. Length from birth is doubled.

b. Primary dentition is complete. c. Sphincter control is achieved. Usually by age 30 months, the primary dentition of 20 teeth is completed, and the child has sphincter control in preparation for bowel and bladder control. A doubling of birth weight, opening of the anterior fontanel, and doubling of length are not characteristic of the physical development of a 30-month-old child.

The clinic is lending a federally approved car seat to an infant's family. The nurse should explain that the safest place to put the car seat is: a. Front facing in back seat. b. Rear facing in back seat. c. Front facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side. d. Rear facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side.

b. Rear facing in back seat. The rear-facing car seat provides the best protection for an infant's disproportionately heavy head and weak neck. Infants should face the rear from birth to 20 pounds and as close to 1 year of age as possible. The middle of the back seat provides the safest position. Severe injuries and deaths in children have occurred from air bags deploying on impact in the front passenger seat.

A nurse is preparing to administer routine immunizations to a 4-month-old infant. The infant is currently up to date on all previously recommended immunizations. Which immunizations will the nurse prepare to administer (select all that apply)? a. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) b. Rotavirus (RV) c. Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) d. Varicella e. Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) f. Inactivated poliovirus (IPV)

b. Rotavirus (RV) c. Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) e. Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) f. Inactivated poliovirus (IPV) The recommended immunization schedule for a 4-month-old, up to date on immunizations, would be to administer the RV, DTaP, HIB, and IPV vaccinations. The MMR and varicella vaccinations would not be administered until the child is at least 1 year of age.

The nurse should teach parents that which age is safe to give infants whole milk instead of commercial infant formula? a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 12 months d. 18 months

c. 12 months The American Academy of Pediatrics does not recommend the use of cow's milk for children younger than 12 months. At 6 and 9 months, the infant should be receiving commercial infant formula or breast milk. At age 18 months, milk and formula are supplemented with solid foods, water, and some fruit juices.

At which age can most infants sit steadily unsupported? a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 8 months d. 10 months

c. 8 months Sitting erect without support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. At age 4 months, an infant can sit with support. At age 6 months, the infant will maintain a sitting position if propped. By 10 months, the infant can maneuver from a prone to a sitting position.

Which patient is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast? a. A 38-year-old woman b. A 50-year-old woman c. A 16-year-old girl d. A 27-year-old woman

c. A 16-year-old girl Although it may occur at any age, fibroadenoma is most common in the teenage years. Ductal ectasia and intraductal papilloma become more common as a woman approaches menopause. Fibrocystic breast changes are more common during the reproductive years.

The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is: a. Penicillin G. b. Tetracycline. c. Ceftriaxone. d. Acyclovir.

c. Ceftriaxone. Ceftriaxone is effective for treatment of all gonococcal infections. Penicillin is used to treat syphilis. Tetracycline is prescribed for chlamydial infections. Acyclovir is used to treat herpes genitalis.

Parent guidelines for relieving colic in an infant include: a. Avoiding touching the abdomen. b. Avoiding using a pacifier. c. Changing the infant's position frequently. d. Placing the infant where the family cannot hear the crying.

c. Changing the infant's position frequently. Changing the infant's position frequently may be beneficial. The parent can walk holding the infant face down and with the infant's chest across the parent's arm. The parent's hand can support the infant's abdomen, applying gentle pressure. Gently massaging the abdomen is effective in some infants. Pacifiers can be used for meeting additional sucking needs. The infant should not be placed where monitoring cannot be done. The infant can be placed in the crib and allowed to cry. Periodically, the infant should be picked up and comforted.

Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a suspected diagnosis of breast cancer? a. Mammogram b. Ultrasound c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) d. CA 15.3

c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) When a suspicious mammogram is noted or a lump is detected, diagnosis is confirmed by FNA, core needle biopsy, or needle localization biopsy. Mammography is a clinical screening tool that may aid early detection of breast cancers. Transillumination, thermography, and ultrasound breast imaging are being explored as methods of detecting early breast carcinoma. CA 15.3 is a serum tumor marker that is used to test for residual disease.

A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable, immobile, and nontender. This is most likely: a. Fibroadenoma. b. Lipoma. c. Intraductal papilloma. d. Mammary duct ectasia.

c. Intraductal papilloma. Intraductal papilloma is the only benign breast mass that is nonpalpable. Fibroadenoma is well delineated, palpable, and movable. Lipoma is palpable and movable. Mammary duct ectasia is not well delineated and is immobile, but it is palpable and painful.

What is the primary purpose of a transitional object? a. It helps the parents deal with the guilt they feel when they leave the child. b. It keeps the child quiet at bedtime. c. It is effective in decreasing anxiety in the toddler. d. It decreases negativism and tantrums in the toddler.

c. It is effective in decreasing anxiety in the toddler. Decreasing anxiety, particularly separation anxiety, is the function of a transitional object; it provides comfort to the toddler in stressful situations and helps make the transition from dependence to autonomy. A decrease in parental guilt (distress) is an indirect benefit of a transitional object. A transitional object may be part of a bedtime ritual, but it may not keep the child quiet at bedtime. A transitional object does not significantly affect negativity and tantrums, but it can comfort a child after tantrums.

The nurse providing education regarding breast care should explain to the woman that fibrocystic changes in breasts are: a. A disease of the milk ducts and glands in the breasts. b. A premalignant disorder characterized by lumps found in the breast tissue. c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles. d. Lumpiness accompanied by tenderness after menses.

c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles. Fibrocystic changes are palpable thickenings in the breast usually associated with pain and tenderness. The pain and tenderness fluctuate with the menstrual cycle. Fibrocystic changes are not premalignant changes.

After a mastectomy a woman should be instructed to perform all of the following except: a. Emptying surgical drains twice a day and as needed. b. Avoiding lifting more than 4.5 kg (10 lb) or reaching above her head until given permission by her surgeon. c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side. d. Reporting immediately if inflammation develops at the incision site or in the affected arm.

c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side. The woman should not be advised to wear snug clothing. Rather, she should be advised to avoid tight clothing, tight jewelry, and other causes of decreased circulation in the affected arm. As part of the teaching plan, the woman should be instructed to empty surgical drains, to avoid lifting more than 10 lb or reaching above her head, and to report the development of incision site inflammation.

The nurse providing care in a women's health care setting must be aware regarding which sexually transmitted infection that can be successfully treated and cured? a. Herpes b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Venereal warts d. Chlamydia

d. Chlamydia The usual treatment for infection by the bacterium Chlamydia is doxycycline or azithromycin. Concurrent treatment of all sexual partners is needed to prevent recurrence. There is no known cure for herpes, and treatment focuses on pain relief and preventing secondary infections. Because there is no known cure for AIDS, prevention and early detection are the primary focus of care management. Condylomata acuminata are caused by human papillomavirus. No treatment eradicates the virus.

Austin, age 6 months, has six teeth. The nurse should recognize that this is: a. Normal tooth eruption. b. Delayed tooth eruption. c. Unusual and dangerous. d. Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption.

d. Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption. This is earlier than expected. Most infants at age 6 months have two teeth. Six teeth at 6 months is not delayed; it is early tooth eruption. Although unusual, it is not dangerous.

Which is the most appropriate action when an infant becomes apneic? a. Shake vigorously. b. Roll head side to side. c. Hold by feet upside down with head supported. d. Gently stimulate trunk by patting or rubbing.

d. Gently stimulate trunk by patting or rubbing. If the infant is apneic, the infant's trunk should be gently stimulated by patting or rubbing. If the infant is prone, turn onto the back. The infant should not be shaken vigorously, have the head rolled side to side, or be held by the feet upside down with the head supported. These actions can cause injury.

Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important because some of the methods: a. Are invasive procedures that require hospitalization b. Require a surgical procedure to insert c. May not be reliable d. Have potentially dangerous side effects

d. Have potentially dangerous side effects To make an informed decision about the use of contraceptives, it is important for couples to be aware of potential side effects. The only contraceptive method that is a surgical procedure and requires hospitalization is sterilization. Some methods have greater efficacy than others, and this should be included in the teaching.

An important nursing responsibility when dealing with a family experiencing the loss of an infant from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is to: a. Explain how SIDS could have been predicted and prevented. b. Interview parents in depth concerning the circumstances surrounding the infant's death. c. Discourage parents from making a last visit with the infant. d. Make a follow-up home visit to parents as soon as possible after the infant's death.

d. Make a follow-up home visit to parents as soon as possible after the infant's death. A competent, qualified professional should visit the family at home as soon as possible after the death and provide the family with printed information about SIDS. An explanation of how SIDS could have been predicted and prevented is inappropriate. SIDS cannot be prevented or predicted. Discussions about the cause will only increase parental guilt. The parents should be asked only factual questions to determine the cause of death. Parents should be allowed and encouraged to make a last visit with their infant.

A parent asks the nurse whether her infant is susceptible to pertussis. The nurse's response should be based on which statement concerning susceptibility to pertussis? a. Neonates will be immune the first few months. b. If the mother has had the disease, the infant will receive passive immunity. c. Children younger than 1 year seldom contract this disease. d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth.

d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth. The acellular pertussis vaccine is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 6 weeks. Infants are at greater risk for complications of pertussis. The vaccine is not given after age 7 years, when the risks of the vaccine become greater than those of pertussis. The infant is highly susceptible to pertussis, which can be a life-threatening illness in this age-group.

With regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs), nurses should be aware that: a. COCs can cause toxic shock syndrome if the prescription is wrong. b. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is a bit more profuse than in normal menstruation and lasts a week. c. COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer. d. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements.

d. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. Toxic shock syndrome can occur in some diaphragm users, but it is not a consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers.

The nurse who is teaching a group of women about breast cancer would tell the women that: a. Risk factors identify more than 50% of women who will develop breast cancer. b. Nearly 90% of lumps found by women are malignant. c. One in 10 women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime. d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown.

d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown. Risk factors help to identify less than 30% of women in whom breast cancer eventually will develop. Women detect about 90% of all breast lumps. Of this 90%, only 20% to 25% are malignant. One in eight women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime.

Which of the following statements is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions? a. They are performed only for maternal health. b. They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs. c. They are mostly performed in the second trimester. d. They can be either elective or therapeutic.

d. They can be either elective or therapeutic. Medical abortions are performed through the use of medications (rather than surgical procedures). They are mostly done in the first trimester, and they can be either elective (the woman's choice) or therapeutic (for reasons of maternal or fetal health).

Parents tell the nurse that their 1-year-old son often sleeps with them. They seem unconcerned about this. The nurse's response should be based on the knowledge that: a. Children should not sleep with their parents. b. Separation from parents should be completed by this age. c. Daytime attention should be increased. d. This is a common and accepted practice, especially in some cultural groups.

d. This is a common and accepted practice, especially in some cultural groups. Co-sleeping or sharing the family bed, in which the parents allow the children to sleep with them, is a common and accepted practice in many cultures. Parents should evaluate the options available and avoid conditions that place the infant at risk. Population-based studies are currently underway; no evidence at this time supports or abandons the practice for safety reasons. This is the age at which children are just beginning to individuate. Increased daytime activity may help decrease sleep problems in general, but co-sleeping is a culturally determined phenomenon.

In vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET) is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts. A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview. The husband asks the nurse to explain what the procedure entails. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wife's ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus." b. "A donor embryo will be transferred into your wife's uterus." c. "Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife." d. "Don't worry about the technical stuff; that's what we are here for."

a. "IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wife's ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus." A woman's eggs are collected from her ovaries, fertilized in the laboratory with sperm, and transferred to her uterus after normal embryonic development has occurred. The statement, "A donor embryo will be transferred into your wife's uterus" describes therapeutic donor insemination. "Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife" describes the procedure for a donor embryo. "Don't worry about the technical stuff; that's what we are here for" discredits the client's need for teaching and is an inappropriate response.

By what age does the posterior fontanel usually close? a. 6 to 8 weeks b. 10 to 12 weeks c. 4 to 6 months d. 8 to 10 months

a. 6 to 8 weeks The bones surrounding the posterior fontanel fuse and close by age 6 to 8 weeks. Ten weeks or longer is too late.

An appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation is: a. Playing peek-a-boo. b. Playing pat-a-cake. c. Imitating animal sounds. d. Showing how to clap hands.

a. Playing peek-a-boo. Because object permanence is a new achievement, peek-a-boo is an excellent activity to practice this new skill for visual stimulation. Playing pat-a-cake and showing how to clap hands will help with kinesthetic stimulation. Imitating animal sounds will help with auditory stimulation.

Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%? a. Standard days b. Periodic abstinence c. Postovulation d. Coitus interruptus

a. Standard days The standard days variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12%. The periodic abstinence method has a failure rate of 25% or greater. The postovulation method has a failure rate of 25% or greater. The coitus interruptus method has a failure rate of 27% or greater.

To detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), most laboratory tests focus on the: a. virus. b. HIV antibodies. c. CD4 counts. d. CD8 counts.

b. HIV antibodies. The screening tool used to detect HIV is the enzyme immunoassay, which tests for the presence of antibodies to the virus. CD4 counts are associated with the incidence of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in HIV-infected individuals.

An appropriate recommendation in preventing tooth decay in young children is to: a. Substitute raisins for candy. b. Serve sweets after a meal. c. Use honey or molasses instead of refined sugar. d. Serve sweets between meals.

b. Serve sweets after a meal. Sweets should be consumed with meals so the teeth can be cleaned afterward. This decreases the amount of time that the sugar is in contact with the teeth. Raisins, honey, and molasses are highly cariogenic and should be avoided.

When assessing a patient for amenorrhea, the nurse should be aware that this is unlikely to be caused by: a. Anatomic abnormalities. b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus. c. Lack of exercise. d. Hysterectomy.

c. Lack of exercise. Lack of exercise is not a cause of amenorrhea. Strenuous exercise may cause amenorrhea. Anatomic abnormalities, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and hysterectomy all are possible causes of amenorrhea.

The viral sexually transmitted infection (STI) that affects most people in the United States today is: a. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). b. Human papillomavirus (HPV). c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

b. Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV infection is the most prevalent viral STI seen in ambulatory health care settings. HSV-2, HIV, and CMV all are viral STIs but are not the most prevalent viral STIs.

Developmentally, most children at age 12 months: a. Use a spoon adeptly. b. Relinquish the bottle voluntarily. c. Eat the same food as the rest of the family. d. Reject all solid food in preference to the bottle.

c. Eat the same food as the rest of the family. By age 12 months, most children are eating the same food that is prepared for the rest of the family. Using a spoon usually is not mastered until age 18 months. The parents should be engaged in weaning a child from a bottle if that is the source of liquid. Toddlers should be encouraged to drink from a cup at the first birthday and weaned totally by 14 months. The child should be weaned from a milk/formula-based diet to a balanced diet that includes iron-rich sources of food.

Injectable progestins (DMPA, Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who: a. Want menstrual regularity and predictability. b. Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d. Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.

c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. Advantages of DMPA include a contraceptive effectiveness comparable to that of combined oral contraceptives with the requirement of only four injections a year. Disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. Use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications.

In their role of implementing a plan of care for infertile couples, nurses should: a. Be comfortable with their sexuality and nonjudgmental about others to counsel their clients effectively. b. Know about such nonmedical remedies as diet, exercise, and stress management. c. Be able to direct clients to sources of information about what herbs to take that might help and which ones to avoid. d. Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical remedies.

d. Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical remedies. Nurses should be open to and ready to help with a variety of medical and nonmedical approaches.

The two primary areas of risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are: a. Sexual orientation and socioeconomic status. b. Age and educational level. c. Large number of sexual partners and race. d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors.

d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors put a person at risk for acquiring or transmitting an STI. Although low socioeconomic status may be a factor in avoiding purchasing barrier protection, sexual orientation does not put one at higher risk. Younger individuals and individuals with less education may be unaware of proper prevention techniques; however, these are not the primary areas of risk for STIs. Having a large number of sexual partners is a risk-taking behavior, but race does not increase the risk for STIs.

The parent of 16-month-old Chris asks, "What is the best way to keep Chris from getting into our medicines at home?" The nurse should advise that: a. "All medicines should be locked securely away." b. "The medicines should be placed in high cabinets." c. "Chris just needs to be taught not to touch medicines." d. "Medicines should not be kept in the homes of small children."

a. "All medicines should be locked securely away." The major reason for poisoning in the home is improper storage. Toddlers can climb, unlatch cabinets, and obtain access to high-security places. For medications, only a locked cabinet is safe. Toddlers can climb by using furniture. High places are not a deterrent to an exploring toddler. Toddlers are not able to generalize as dangerous all of the different forms of medications that may be available in the home. Teaching them not to touch medicines is not feasible. Many parents require medications for chronic illnesses. They must be taught safe storage for their home and when they visit other homes.

Which symptom described by a patient is characteristic of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? a. "I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start." b. "I have lower abdominal pain beginning the third day of my menstrual period." c. "I have nausea and headaches after my period starts, and they last 2 to 3 days." d. "I have abdominal bloating and breast pain after a couple days of my period."

a. "I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start." PMS is a cluster of physical, psychologic, and behavioral symptoms that begin in the luteal phase of thebmenstrual cycle and resolve within a couple of days of the onset of menses. Complaints of lower abdominal pain, nausea and headaches, and abdominal bloating all are associated with PMS. However, the timing reflected is inaccurate.

A nurse has completed a teaching session for parents about "baby-proofing" the home. Which statements made by the parents indicate an understanding of the teaching (select all that apply)? a. "We will put plastic fillers in all electrical plugs." b. "We will place poisonous substances in a high cupboard." c. "We will place a gate at the top and bottom of stairways." d. "We will keep our household hot water heater at 130 degrees." e. "We will remove front knobs from the stove."

a. "We will put plastic fillers in all electrical plugs." c. "We will place a gate at the top and bottom of stairways." e. "We will remove front knobs from the stove." By the time babies reach 6 months of age, they begin to become much more active, curious, and mobile. Putting plastic fillers on all electrical plugs can prevent an electrical shock. Putting gates at the top and bottom of stairways will prevent falls. Removing front knobs from the stove can prevent burns. Poisonous substances should be stored in a locked cabinet, not in a cabinet that children can reach when they begin to climb. The household hot water heater should be turned down to 120 degrees or less.

Which interventions should the nurse implement when caring for a family of a sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) infant (select all that apply)? a. Allow parents to say goodbye to their infant. b. Once parents leave the hospital, no further follow-up is required. c. Arrange for someone to take the parents home from the hospital. d. Avoid requesting an autopsy of the deceased infant. e. Conduct a debriefing session with the parents before they leave the hospital.

a. Allow parents to say goodbye to their infant. c. Arrange for someone to take the parents home from the hospital. e. Conduct a debriefing session with the parents before they leave the hospital. An important aspect of compassionate care for parents experiencing a SIDS incident is allowing them to say good-bye to their infant. These are the parents' last moments with their infant, and they should be as quiet, meaningful, peaceful, and undisturbed as possible. Because the parents leave the hospital without their infant, it is helpful to accompany them to the car or arrange for someone else to take them home. A debriefing session may help health care workers who dealt with the family and deceased infant to cope with emotions that are often engendered when a SIDS victim is brought into the acute care facility. An autopsy may clear up possible misconceptions regarding the death. When the parents return home, a competent, qualified professional should visit them after the death as soon as possible.

The best play activity to provide tactile stimulation for a 6-month-old infant is to: a. Allow to splash in bath. b. Give various colored blocks. c. Play music box, tapes, or CDs. d. Use infant swing or stroller.

a. Allow to splash in bath. The feel of the water while the infant is splashing provides tactile stimulation. Various colored blocks provide visual stimulation for a 4- to 6-month-old infant. A music box, tapes, and CDs provide auditory stimulation. Swings and strollers provide kinesthetic stimulation.

On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish white vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor; complaint of pruritus. On the basis of these findings, the nurse suspects that this woman has: a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). b. Candidiasis. c. Trichomoniasis. d. Gonorrhea.

a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). Most women with BV complain of a characteristic "fishy" odor. The discharge usually is profuse; thin; and white, gray, or milky in color. Some women also may have mild irritation or pruritus. The discharge associated with candidiasis is thick, white, and lumpy and resembles cottage cheese. Trichomoniasis may be asymptomatic, but women commonly have a characteristic yellowish-to-greenish, frothy, mucopurulent, copious, and malodorous discharge. Women with gonorrhea are often asymptomatic. They may have a purulent endocervical discharge, but discharge usually is minimal or absent.

A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid? a. Cervical cap b. Condom c. Vaginal film d. Vaginal sheath

a. Cervical cap Women with a history of TSS should not use a cervical cap. Condoms, vaginal films, and vaginal sheaths are not contraindicated for a woman with a history of TSS.

A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is: a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E). b. Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity. c. Intravenous administration of Pitocin. d. Vacuum aspiration.

a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E). The most common technique for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is D&E. It is usually performed between 13 and 16 weeks. Hypertonic solutions injected directly into the uterus account for less than 1% of all abortions because other methods are safer and easier to use. Intravenous administration of Pitocin is used to induce labor in a woman with a third-trimester fetal demise. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester.

Fibrocystic changes in the breast most often appear in women in their 20s and 30s. The etiology is unknown, but it may be an imbalance of estrogen and progesterone. The nurse who cares for this client should be aware that treatment modalities are conservative. One proven modality that may provide relief is: a. Diuretic administration. b. Including caffeine daily in the diet. c. Increased vitamin C supplementation. d. Application of cold packs to the breast as necessary.

a. Diuretic administration. Diuretic administration plus a decrease in sodium and fluid intake are recommended. Although not supported by research, some advocate eliminating dimethylxanthines (caffeine) from the diet. Smoking should also be avoided, and alcohol consumption should be reduced. Vitamin E supplements are recommended; however, the client should avoid megadoses because this is a fat-soluble vitamin. Pain relief measures include applying heat to the breast, wearing a supportive bra, and taking nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.

Pacifiers can be extremely dangerous because of the frequency of use and the intensity of the infant's suck. In teaching parents about appropriate pacifier selection, the nurse should explain that a pacifier should have which characteristics (select all that apply)? a. Easily grasped handle b. One-piece construction c. Ribbon or string to secure to clothing d. Soft, pliable material e. Sturdy, flexible material

a. Easily grasped handle b. One-piece construction e. Sturdy, flexible material A good pacifier should be easily grasped by the infant. One-piece construction is necessary to avoid having the nipple and guard separate. The material should be sturdy and flexible. An attached ribbon or string and soft, pliable material are not characteristics of a good pacifier.

A parent of an infant with colic tells the nurse, "All this baby does is scream at me; it is a constant worry." The nurse's best action is: a. Encourage parent to verbalize feelings. b. Encourage parent not to worry so much. c. Assess parent for other signs of inadequate parenting. d. Reassure parent that colic rarely lasts past age 9 months.

a. Encourage parent to verbalize feelings. Colic is multifactorial, and no single treatment is effective for all infants. The parent is verbalizing concern and worry. The nurse should allow the parent to put these feelings into words. An empathic, gentle, and reassuring attitude, in addition to suggestions about remedies, will help alleviate the parent's anxieties. The nurse should reassure the parent that he or she is not doing anything wrong. The infant with colic is experiencing spasmodic pain that is manifested by loud crying, in some cases up to 3 hours each day. Telling the parent that it will eventually go away does not help him or her through the current situation.

A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to: a. Endometriosis. b. PMS. c. Primary dysmenorrhea. d. Secondary dysmenorrhea.

a. Endometriosis Symptoms of endometriosis can change over time and may not reflect the extent of the disease. Major symptoms include dysmenorrhea and deep pelvic dyspareunia (painful intercourse). Impaired fertility may result from adhesions caused by endometriosis. Although endometriosis may be associated with secondary dysmenorrhea, it is not a cause of primary dysmenorrhea or PMS. In addition, this woman is complaining of dyspareunia and infertility, which are associated with endometriosis, not with PMS or primary or secondary dysmenorrhea.

The exact cause of breast cancer remains undetermined. Researchers have found that there are many common risk factors that increase a woman's chance of developing a malignancy. It is essential for the nurse who provides care to women of any age to be aware of which of the following risk factors (Select all that apply)? a. Family history b. Late menarche c. Early menopause d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30

a. Family history d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30 Family history, race, and nulliparity are known risk factors for the development of breast cancer. Other risk factors include age, personal history of cancer, high socioeconomic status, sedentary lifestyle, hormone replacement therapy, recent use of oral contraceptives, never having breastfed a child, and drinking more than one alcoholic beverage per day. Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors for breast malignancy, not late menarche and early menopause.

Examples of sexual risk behaviors associated with exposure to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) include (Select all that apply): a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners. d. Dry kissing. e. Abstinence.

a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners. Engaging in these sexual activities increases the exposure risk and the possibility of acquiring an STI. Dry kissing and abstinence are considered "safe" sexual practices.

The most fatal type of burn in the toddler age-group is: a. Flame burn from playing with matches. b. Scald burn from high-temperature tap water. c. Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons. d. Electric burn from electrical outlets.

a. Flame burn from playing with matches. Flame burns from matches and lighters represent one of the most fatal types of burns in the toddler age- group. Scald burns from water, hot object burns from cigarettes or irons, and electric burns from outlets are all significant causes of burn injury. The child should be protected from these causes by reducing the temperature of the hot water in the home, keeping objects such as cigarettes and irons away from children, and placing protective guards over electrical outlets when not in use.

A woman has a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheese-like discharge, with patches on her labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. The nurse practitioner would order which preparation for treatment? a. Fluconazole b. Tetracycline c. Clindamycin d. Acyclovir

a. Fluconazole Fluconazole, metronidazole, and clotrimazole are the drugs of choice to treat candidiasis. Tetracycline is used to treat syphilis. Clindamycin is used to treat bacterial vaginosis. Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes.

Parents tell the nurse that their toddler daughter eats little at mealtimes, only sits at the table with the family briefly, and wants snacks "all the time." The nurse should recommend that the parents: a. Give her planned, frequent, and nutritious snacks. b. Offer rewards for eating at mealtimes. c. Avoid snacks so she is hungry at mealtimes. d. Explain to her in a firm manner what is expected of her.

a. Give her planned, frequent, and nutritious snacks. Most toddlers exhibit a physiologic anorexia in response to the decreased nutritional requirement associated with the slower growth rate. Parents should assist the child to develop healthy eating habits. The toddler is often unable to sit through a meal. Frequent nutritious snacks are a good way to ensure proper nutrition. To help with developing healthy eating habits, food should not be used as positive or negative reinforcement for behavior. The child may develop habits of overeating or eat nonnutritious foods in response.

Which information could be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities for this age? a. Give large push-pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. b. Place cradle gym across crib to facilitate fine motor skills. c. Provide child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills. d. Provide stick horse to develop gross motor coordination.

a. Give large push-pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. The 12-month-old child is able to pull to a stand and walk holding on or independently. Appropriate toys for a child of this age include large push-pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. A cradle gym should not be placed across the crib. Finger paints are appropriate for older children. A 12-month-old child does not have the stability to use a stick horse.

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes? a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 The initial HSV genital infection is characterized by multiple painful lesions, fever, chills, malaise, and severe dysuria; it may last 2 to 3 weeks. Recurrent episodes of HSV infection commonly have only local symptoms that usually are less severe than the symptoms of the initial infection. With HPV infection, lesions are a chronic problem. HIV is a retrovirus. Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 12 weeks after the virus has entered the body. Severe depression of the cellular immune system associated with HIV infection characterizes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS has no cure. In most adults, the onset of CMV infection is uncertain and asymptomatic. However, the disease may become a chronic, persistent infection.

The parents of a 2-year-old tell the nurse that they are concerned because the toddler has started to use "baby talk" since the arrival of their new baby. The nurse should recommend that the parents: a. Ignore the "baby talk." b. Explain to the toddler that "baby talk" is for babies. c. Tell the toddler frequently, "You are a big kid now." d. Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.

a. Ignore the "baby talk." The baby talk is a sign of regression in the toddler. It should be ignored, while praising the child for developmentally appropriate behaviors. Regression is children's way of saying that they are expressing stress. The parents should not introduce new expectations and should allow the child to master the developmental tasks without criticism.

Sara, age 4 months, was born at 35 weeks' gestation. She seems to be developing normally, but her parents are concerned because she is a "more difficult" baby than their other child, who was term. The nurse should explain that: a. Infants' temperaments are part of their unique characteristics. b. Infants become less difficult if they are not kept on scheduled feedings and structured routines. c. Sara's behavior is suggestive of failure to bond completely with her parents. d. Sara's difficult temperament is the result of painful experiences in the neonatal period.

a. Infants' temperaments are part of their unique characteristics. Infant temperament has a strong biologic component. Together with interactions with the environment, primarily the family, the biologic component contributes to the infant's unique temperament. Children perceived as difficult may respond better to scheduled feedings and structured caregiving routines than to demand feedings and frequent changes in routines. Sara's temperament has been created by both biologic and environmental factors. The nurse should provide guidance in parenting techniques that are best suited to Sara's temperament.

The leading cause of death during the toddler period is: a. Injuries. b. Infectious diseases. c. Congenital disorders. d. Childhood diseases.

a. Injuries Injuries are the single most common cause of death in children ages 1 through 4 years. It is the period of highest death rate from injuries of any childhood age-group except adolescence. Infectious and childhood diseases are less common cause of deaths in this age-group. Congenital disorders are the second leading cause of death in this age-group.

The nurse is interviewing the father of 10-month-old Megan. She is playing on the floor when she notices an electrical outlet and reaches up to touch it. Her father says "No" firmly and removes her from near the outlet. The nurse should use this opportunity to teach the father that Megan: a. Is old enough to understand the word "No." b. Is too young to understand the word "No." c. Should already know that electrical outlets are dangerous. d. Will learn safety issues better if she is spanked.

a. Is old enough to understand the word "No." By age 10 months, children are able to associate meaning with words. The child should be old enough to understand the word "No." The 10-month-old is too young to understand the purpose of an electrical outlet. The father is using both verbal and physical cues to teach safety measures and alert the child to dangerous situations. Physical discipline should be avoided.

Nurses should be aware that infertility: a. Is perceived differently by women and men. b. Has a relatively stable prevalence among the overall population and throughout a woman's potential reproductive years. c. Is more likely the result of a physical flaw in the woman than in her male partner. d. Is the same thing as sterility.

a. Is perceived differently by women and men. Women tend to be more stressed about infertility tests and to place more importance on having children. The prevalence of infertility is stable among the overall population, but it increases with a woman's age, especially after age 40. Of cases with an identifiable cause, about 40% are related to female factors, 40% to male factors, and 20% to both partners. Sterility is the inability to conceive. Infertility, or subfertility, is a state of requiring a prolonged time to conceive.

As relates to dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), the nurse should be aware that: a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation. b. It most often occurs in middle age. c. The diagnosis of DUB should be the first considered for abnormal menstrual bleeding. d. The most effective medical treatment is steroids.

a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation. Anovulation may occur because of hypothalamic dysfunction or polycystic ovary syndrome. DUB most often occurs when the menstrual cycle is being established or when it draws to a close at menopause. A diagnosis of DUB is made only after all other causes of abnormal menstrual bleeding have been ruled out. The most effective medical treatment is oral or intravenous estrogen.

The parents of a 4-month-old infant tell the nurse that they are getting a microwave oven and will be able to heat the baby's formula faster. The nurse should recommend: a. Never heating a bottle in a microwave oven. b. Heating only 10 ounces or more. c. Always leaving the bottle top uncovered to allow heat to escape. d. Shaking the bottle vigorously for at least 30 seconds after heating.

a. Never heating a bottle in a microwave oven. Neither infant formula nor breast milk should be warmed in a microwave oven as this may cause oral burns as a result of uneven heating in the container. The bottle may remain cool while hot spots develop in the milk. Warming expressed milk in a microwave decreases the availability of anti-infective properties and causes separation of the fat content. Milk should be warmed in a lukewarm water bath.

A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands; however, she will not voluntarily grasp it. The nurse should interpret this as: a. Normal development. b. Significant developmental lag. c. Slightly delayed development caused by prematurity. d. Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy.

a. Normal development. This indicates normal development. Reflexive grasping occurs during the first 2 to 3 months and then gradually becomes voluntary. No evidence of developmental lag, delayed development, or neurologic dysfunction is present.

A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. During the assessment process, it is most important that the nurse: a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. b. Determine the client's weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year. c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes. d. Explore the client's previous experiences with conception control.

a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle, counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on use of the calendar method. Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but it is not the most important aspect to assess for discussion of the calendar method.

There is little consensus on the management of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). However, nurses can advise women on several self-help modalities that often improve symptoms. The nurse knows that health teaching has been effective when the client reports that she has adopted a number of lifestyle changes, including (Select all that apply): a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition. c. A daily glass of wine. d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose.

a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition. d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose. These modalities may provide significant symptom relief in 1 to 2 months. If there is no improvement after these changes have been made, the patient may need to begin pharmacologic therapy. Women should decrease both their alcohol and caffeinated beverage consumption if they have PMDD.

Postcoital contraception with Ovral: a. Requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. b. Requires that the woman take second and third doses at 24 and 36 hours after the first dose. c. Must be taken in conjunction with an IUD insertion. d. Is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia.

a. Requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. Emergency contraception is most effective when used within 72 hours of intercourse; however, it may be used with lessened effectiveness 120 hours later. Insertion of the copper IUD within 5 days of intercourse may also be used and is up to 99% effective. The most common side effect of postcoital contraception is nausea.

In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? a. Roll from abdomen to back. b. Roll from back to abdomen. c. Sit erect without support. d. Move from prone to sitting position.

a. Roll from abdomen to back. Rolling from abdomen to back is developmentally appropriate for a 5-month-old infant. The ability to roll from back to abdomen usually occurs at 6 months old. Sitting erect without support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. The 10-month-old infant can usually move from a prone to a sitting position.

Motor vehicle injuries are a significant threat to young children. Knowing this, the nurse plans a teaching session with a toddler's parents on car safety. Which will she teach (select all that apply)? a. Secure in a rear-facing, upright, car safety seat. b. Place the car safety seat in the rear seat, behind the driver's seat. c. Harness safety straps should be fit snugly. d. Place the car safety seat in the front passenger seat equipped with an air bag. e. After the age of 2 years, toddlers can be placed in a forward-facing car seat.

a. Secure in a rear-facing, upright, car safety seat. c. Harness safety straps should be fit snugly. e. After the age of 2 years, toddlers can be placed in a forward-facing car seat. Toddlers younger than 2 years should be secured in a rear-facing, upright, approved car safety seat. After the age of 2 years, a forward-facing car seat can be used. Harness straps should be adjusted to provide a snug fit. The car safety seat should be placed in the middle of the rear seat. Children younger than 13 years should not ride in a front passenger seat that is equipped with an air bag.

The nurse notices that a 10-month-old infant being seen in the clinic is wearing expensive, inflexible, high-top shoes. The nurse should explain that: a. Soft and flexible shoes are generally better. b. High-top shoes are necessary for support. c. Inflexible shoes are necessary to prevent in-toeing and out-toeing. d. This type of shoe will encourage the infant to walk sooner.

a. Soft and flexible shoes are generally better. The main purpose of the shoe is protection. Soft, well-constructed, athletic-type shoes are best for infants and children. High-top shoes are not necessary for support but may be helpful keeping the child's foot in the shoe. Inflexible shoes can delay walking, aggravate in-toeing and out-toeing, and impede development of the supportive foot muscles.

An essential component of counseling women regarding safe sex practices includes discussion regarding avoiding the exchange of body fluids. The physical barrier promoted for the prevention of sexually transmitted infections and human immunodeficiency virus is the condom. Nurses can help motivate clients to use condoms by initiating a discussion related to a number of aspects of condom use. The most important of these is: a. Strategies to enhance condom use. b. Choice of colors and special features. c. Leaving the decision up to the male partner. d. Places to carry condoms safely.

a. Strategies to enhance condom use. When the nurse opens discussion on safe sex practices, it gives the woman permission to clear up any concerns or misapprehensions that she may have regarding condom use. The nurse can also suggest ways that the woman can enhance her condom negotiation and communications skills. These include role-playing, rehearsal, cultural barriers, and situations that put the client at risk. Although women can be taught the differences among condoms, such as size ranges, where to purchase, and price, this is not as important as negotiating the use of safe sex practices. Women must address the issue of condom use with every sexual contact. Some men need time to think about this. If they appear reluctant, the woman may want to reconsider the relationship. Although not ideal, women may safely choose to carry condoms in shoes, wallets, or inside their bra. They should be taught to keep the condom away from heat. This information is important; however, it is not germane if the woman cannot even discuss strategies on how to enhance condom use.

The nurse is assessing parental knowledge of temper tantrums. Which are true statements regarding temper tantrums (select all that apply)? a. Temper tantrums are a common response to anger and frustration in toddlers. b. Temper tantrums often include screaming, kicking, throwing things, and head banging. c. Parents can effectively manage temper tantrums by giving in to the child's demands. d. Children having temper tantrums should be safely isolated and ignored. e. Parents can learn to anticipate times when tantrums are more likely to occur.

a. Temper tantrums are a common response to anger and frustration in toddlers. b. Temper tantrums often include screaming, kicking, throwing things, and head banging. d. Children having temper tantrums should be safely isolated and ignored. e. Parents can learn to anticipate times when tantrums are more likely to occur. Temper tantrums are a common response to anger and frustration in toddlers. They occur more often when toddlers are tired, hungry, bored, or excessively stimulated. A nap prior to fatigue or a snack if mealtime is delayed will be helpful in alleviated the times when tantrums are most likely to occur. Tantrums may include screaming, kicking, throwing things, biting themselves, or banging their head. Effective management of tantrums includes safely isolating and ignoring the child. The child should learn that nothing is gained by having a temper tantrum. Giving in to the child's demands only increases the behavior.

A parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held. The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is that: a. This is normal behavior for his age. b. This is unusual behavior for his age. c. He is not effectively coping with stress. d. He is showing he needs more attention.

a. This is normal behavior for his age. Toddlers use distinct behaviors in the quest for autonomy. They express their will with continued negativity and the use of the word "no." Children at this age also have rapid mood swings. The nurse should reassure the parents that their child is engaged in expected behavior for an 18-month-old.

In terms of fine motor development, the infant of 7 months should be able to: a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other. b. Use thumb and index finger in a crude pincer grasp. c. Hold a crayon and make a mark on paper. d. Release cubes into a cup.

a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other. By age 7 months, infants can transfer objects from one hand to the other, crossing the midline. The crude pincer grasp is apparent at about age 9 months. The infant can scribble spontaneously at age 15 months. At age 12 months, the infant can release cubes into a cup.

A 25-year-old single woman comes to the gynecologist's office for a follow-up visit related to her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The test revealed that the patient has human papillomavirus (HPV). The client asks, "What is that? Can you get rid of it?" Your best response is: a. "It's just a little lump on your cervix. We can freeze it off." b. "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer." c. "HPV is a type of early human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). You will die from this." d. "You probably caught this from your current boyfriend. He should get tested for this."

b. "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer." It is important to inform the patient about STIs and the risks involved with HPV. The health care team has a duty to provide proper information to the patient, including information related to STIs. HPV and HIV are both viruses that can be transmitted sexually, but they are not the same virus. The onset of HPV can be insidious. Often STIs go unnoticed. Abnormal bleeding frequently is the initial symptom. The client may have had HPV before her current boyfriend. You cannot make any deductions from this limited information.

The mother of a 14-month-old child is concerned because the child's appetite has decreased. The best response for the nurse to make to the mother is: a. "It is important for your toddler to eat three meals a day and nothing in between." b. "It is not unusual for toddlers to eat less." c. "Be sure to increase your child's milk consumption, which will improve nutrition." d. "Giving your child a multivitamin supplement daily will increase your toddler's appetite."

b. "It is not unusual for toddlers to eat less." Toddlers need small, frequent meals. Nutritious selection throughout the day, rather than quantity, is more important with this age-group. Physiologically, growth slows and appetite decreases during the toddler period. Milk consumption should not exceed 16 to 24 oz daily. Juice should be limited to 4 to 6 oz per day. Increasing the amount of milk will only further decrease solid food intake. Supplemental vitamins are important for all children, but they do not increase appetite.

A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation." b. "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions." c. "The additional lubrication improves sex." d. "Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."

b. "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions." The statement "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions" is true. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on penile sensitivity.

An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "The IUD does not interfere with sex." b. "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you." c. "The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections (STIs)." d. "Pregnancy rates are high with IUDs."

b. "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you." Disadvantages of IUDs include an increased risk of PID in the first 20 days after insertion and the risks of bacterial vaginosis and uterine perforation. The IUD offers no protection against STIs or human immunodeficiency virus. Because this woman has multiple sex partners, she is at higher risk of developing a STI. The IUD does not protect against infection, as does a barrier method. Although the statement "The IUD does not interfere with sex" may be correct, it is not the most appropriate response. The IUD offers no protection from STIs. The typical failure rate of the IUD in the first year of use is 0.8%.

A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse's most appropriate reply is: a. "They're not very effective, and it's very likely you'll get pregnant." b. "They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation." c. "These methods have a few advantages and several health risks." d. "You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."

b. "They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation." FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and adherence to coitus intervals. They are effective if used correctly by a woman with a regular menstrual cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 25% during the first year of use. FAMs have no associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking a pill daily requires compliance on the client's part.

A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate when instructing the client in which herbal preparations to avoid while trying to conceive? a. "You should avoid nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E while you are trying to get pregnant." b. "You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive." c. "You should not take anything with vitamin E, calcium, or magnesium. They will make you infertile." d. "Herbs have no bearing on fertility."

b. "You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive." Herbs that a woman should avoid while trying to conceive include licorice root, yarrow, wormwood, ephedra, fennel, golden seal, lavender, juniper, flaxseed, pennyroyal, passionflower, wild cherry, cascara, sage, thyme, and periwinkle. Nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E all promote fertility. Vitamin E, calcium, and magnesium may promote fertility and conception. All supplements and herbs should be purchased from trusted sources.

A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse's most appropriate response would be: a. "This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects." b. "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." c. "The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication." d. "This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history."

b. "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are taken simultaneously with anticonvulsants. The statement "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill" is true, but it is not the most appropriate response. The anticonvulsant will reduce the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. The statement "This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history" does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy.

The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 7 pounds at birth. The nurse should expect the infant to now weigh approximately: a. 10 pounds. b. 15 pounds. c. 20 pounds. d. 25 pounds.

b. 15 pounds. Birth weight doubles at about age 5 to 6 months. At 6 months, an infant who weighed 7 pounds at birth would weigh approximately 15 pounds. Ten pounds is too little; the infant would have gone from the 50th percentile at birth to below the 5th percentile. Twenty pounds or more is too much; the infant would have tripled the birth weight at 6 months.

At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months

b. 2 months At age 2 months, the infant has a social, responsive smile. A reflex smile is usually present at age 1 month. The 3-month-old can recognize familiar faces. At age 4 months, the infant can enjoy social interactions.

When is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet? a. 2 to 3 months b. 4 to 6 months c. When birth weight has tripled d. When tooth eruption has started

b. 4 to 6 months Physiologically and developmentally, the 4- to 6-month-old is in a transition period. The extrusion reflex has disappeared, and swallowing is a more coordinated process. In addition, the gastrointestinal tract has matured sufficiently to handle more complex nutrients and is less sensitive to potentially allergenic food. Infants of this age will try to help during feeding. Two to 3 months is too young. The extrusion reflex is strong, and the infant will push food out with the tongue. No research base indicates that the addition of solid food to bottle-feeding has any benefit. Tooth eruption can facilitate biting and chewing; most infant foods do not require this ability.

Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include: a. Oral antiviral therapy. b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. c. Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside. d. Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing.

b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. A woman with acute PID should be on bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are used. Antibiotics must be taken as prescribed, even if symptoms subside. Few pelvic examinations should be conducted during the acute phase of the disease.

Nurses, certified nurse-midwives, and other advanced practice nurses have the knowledge and expertise to assist women in making informed choices regarding contraception. A multidisciplinary approach should ensure that the woman's social, cultural, and interpersonal needs are met. Which action should the nurse take first when meeting with a new client to discuss contraception? a. Obtain data about the frequency of coitus. b. Determine the woman's level of knowledge about contraception and commitment to any particular method. c. Assess the woman's willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus. d. Evaluate the woman's contraceptive life plan.

b. Determine the woman's level of knowledge about contraception and commitment to any particular method. This is the primary step of this nursing assessment and necessary before completing the process and moving on to a nursing diagnosis. Once the client's level of knowledge is determined, the nurse can interact with the woman to compare options, reliability, cost, comfort level, protection from sexually transmitted infections, and a partner's willingness to participate. Although important, obtaining data about the frequency of coitus is not the first action that the nurse should undertake when completing an assessment. Data should include not only the frequency of coitus but also the number of sexual partners, level of contraceptive involvement, and partner's objections. Assessing the woman's willingness to touch herself is a key factor for the nurse to discuss should the client express interest in using one of the fertility awareness methods of contraception. The nurse must be aware of the client's plan regarding whether she is attempting to prevent conception, delay conception, or conceive.

Which should the nurse teach to parents of toddlers about accidental poison prevention (select all that apply)? a. Keep toxic substances in the garage. b. Discard empty poison containers. c. Know the number of the nearest poison control center. d. Remove colorful labels from containers of toxic substances. e. Caution child against eating non-edible items, such as plants.

b. Discard empty poison containers. c. Know the number of the nearest poison control center. e. Caution child against eating non-edible items, such as plants. To prevent accidental poisoning, parents should be taught to promptly discard empty poison containers, to know the number of the nearest poison control center, and to caution the child against eating non-edible items, such as plants. Parents should place all potentially toxic agents, including cosmetics, personal care items, cleaning products, pesticides, and medications, in a locked cabinet, not in the garage. Parents should be taught to never remove labels from containers of toxic substances.

During her gynecologic checkup, a 17-year-old girl states that recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual periods. The nurse would document this complaint as: a. Amenorrhea. b. Dysmenorrhea. c. Dyspareunia. d. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS).

b. Dysmenorrhea. Dysmenorrhea is pain during or shortly before menstruation. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual flow. Dyspareunia is pain during intercourse. PMS is a cluster of physical, psychologic, and behavioral symptoms that begin in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolve within a couple of days of the onset of menses.

A nurse is teaching parents about prevention and treatment of colic. Which should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Avoid use of pacifiers. b. Eliminate all secondhand smoke contact. c. Lay infant flat after feeding. d. Avoid swaddling the infant.

b. Eliminate all secondhand smoke contact. To prevent and treat colic, teach parents that if household members smoke, they should avoid smoking near the infant; smoking activity should preferably be confined to outside of the home. A pacifier can be introduced for added sucking. The infant should be swaddled tightly with a soft, stretchy blanket and placed in an upright seat after feedings.

Which test used to diagnose the basis of infertility is done during the luteal or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle? a. Hysterosalpingogram b. Endometrial biopsy c. Laparoscopy d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level

b. Endometrial biopsy Endometrial biopsy is scheduled after ovulation, during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. A hysterosalpingogram is scheduled 2 to 5 days after menstruation to avoid flushing potentially fertilized ovum out through a uterine tube into the peritoneal cavity. Laparoscopy usually is scheduled early in the menstrual cycle. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular.

Which should the nurse expect for a toddler's language development at age 18 months? a. Vocabulary of 25 words b. Increasing level of comprehension c. Use of phrases d. Approximately one third of speech understandable

b. Increasing level of comprehension During the second year of life, level of comprehension and understanding of speech increases and is far greater than the child's vocabulary. This is also true for bilingual children, who are able to achieve this linguistic milestone in both languages. The 18-month-old child has a vocabulary of 10 or more words. At this age, the child does not use one-word sentences or phrases. The child has a limited vocabulary of single words that are comprehensible.

The most effective way to clean a toddler's teeth is for the: a. Child to brush regularly with toothpaste of his or her choice. b. Parent to stabilize the chin with one hand and brush with the other. c. Parent to brush the mandibular occlusive surfaces, leaving the rest for the child. d. Parent to brush the front labial surfaces, leaving the rest for the child.

b. Parent to stabilize the chin with one hand and brush with the other. For young children, the most effective cleaning of teeth is done by the parents. Different positions can be used if the child's back is to the adult. The adult should use one hand to stabilize the chin and the other to brush the child's teeth. The child can participate in brushing, but for a thorough cleaning adult intervention is necessary.

What describes a toddler's cognitive development at age 20 months? a. Searches for an object only if he or she sees it being hidden b. Realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach c. Puts objects into a container but cannot take them out d. Understands the passage of time such as "just a minute" and "in an hour"

b. Realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach At this age the child is in the final sensorimotor stage. Children will now search for an object in several potential places, even though they saw only the original hiding place. Children have a more developed sense of objective permanence. They will search for objects even if they have not seen them hidden. Putting an object in a container but being unable to take it out indicates tertiary circular reactions. An embryonic sense of time exists; although toddlers may behave appropriately to time-oriented phrases, their sense of timing is exaggerated.

Which play item should the nurse bring from the playroom to a hospitalized toddler in isolation? a. Small plastic Legos b. Set of large plastic building blocks c. Brightly colored balloon d. Coloring book and crayons

b. Set of large plastic building blocks Large plastic blocks are appropriate for a toddler in isolation. Play objects for toddlers must still be chosen with an awareness of danger from small parts. Large, sturdy toys without sharp edges or removable parts are safest. Small plastic toys such as Legos can cause choking or can be aspirated. Balloons can cause significant harm if swallowed or aspirated. Coloring book and crayons would be too advanced for a toddler.

While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination, the nurse collects data about the client's recent menstrual cycles. The nurse should collect additional information with which statement? a. The woman says her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days. b. She describes her flow as very heavy. c. She reports that she has had a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for the past 2 months. d. She says the length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 to 29 days.

b. She describes her flow as very heavy. Menorrhagia is defined as excessive menstrual bleeding, in either duration or amount. Heavy bleeding can have many causes. The amount of bleeding and its effect on daily activities should be evaluated. A menstrual flow lasting 5 to 6 days is a normal finding. Mittlestaining, a small amount of bleeding or spotting that occurs at the time of ovulation (14 days before onset of the next menses), is considered normal. During her reproductive years, a woman may have physiologic variations in her menstrual cycle. Variations in the length of a menstrual cycle are considered normal.

With regard to the assessment of female, male, and couple infertility, nurses should be aware that: a. The couple's religious, cultural, and ethnic backgrounds provide emotional clutter that does not affect the clinical scientific diagnosis. b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment. c. The woman is assessed first; if she is not the problem, the male partner is analyzed. d. Semen analysis is for men; the postcoital test is for women.

b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment. Fertility assessment and diagnosis take time, money, and commitment from the couple. Religious, cultural, and ethnic-bred attitudes about fertility and related issues always have an impact on diagnosis and assessment. Both partners are assessed systematically and simultaneously, as individuals and as a couple. Semen analysis is for men, but the postcoital test is for the couple.

Two toddlers are playing in a sandbox when one child suddenly grabs a toy from the other child. The best interpretation of this behavior is that: a. This is typical behavior because toddlers are aggressive. b. This is typical behavior because toddlers are egocentric. c. Toddlers should know that sharing toys is expected of them. d. Toddlers should have the cognitive ability to know right from wrong.

b. This is typical behavior because toddlers are egocentric. Play develops from the solitary play of infancy to the parallel play of toddlers. The toddler plays alongside other children, not with them. This typical behavior of the toddler is not intentionally aggressive. Shared play is not within their cognitive development. Toddlers do not conceptualize shared play. Because the toddler cannot view the situation from the perspective of the other child, it is okay to take the toy. Therefore, no right or wrong is associated with taking a toy.

The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that HPV be treated with client-applied: a. Miconazole ointment. b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel. c. Penicillin given intramuscularly for two doses. d. Metronidazole by mouth.

b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel. Available treatments are imiquimod, podophyllin, and podofilox. Miconazole ointment is used to treat athlete's foot. Intramuscular penicillin is used to treat syphilis. Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis.

Which statement about toilet training is correct? a. Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training. b. Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet. c. Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child. d. Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.

b. Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet. Voluntary control of the anal and urethral sphincters is achieved sometime after the child is walking. The child must be able to recognize the urge to let go and to hold on. The child must want to please the parent by holding on rather than pleasing self by letting go. Bowel training precedes bladder training. Watching older siblings provides role modeling and facilitates imitation for the toddler. The child should be introduced to the potty chair or toilet in a nonthreatening manner.

A couple is trying to cope with an infertility problem. They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "Tell your friends and family so they can help you." b. "Talk only to other friends who are infertile because only they can help." c. "Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names." d. "Start adoption proceedings immediately because it is very difficult to obtain an infant."

c. "Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names." Venting negative feelings may unburden the couple. A support group may provide a safe haven for the couple to share their experiences and gain insight from others' experiences. Although talking about their feelings may unburden them of negative feelings, infertility can be a major stressor that affects the couple's relationships with family and friends. Limiting their interactions to other infertile couples may be a beginning point for addressing psychosocial needs, but depending on where the other couple is in their own recovery process, this may or may not help them. The statement about adoption proceedings is not supportive of the psychosocial needs of this couple and may be detrimental to their well-being.

Which comments indicate that the mother of a toddler needs further teaching about dental care? a. "We use well water so I give my toddler fluoride supplements." b. "My toddler brushes his teeth with my help." c. "My child will not need a dental checkup until his permanent teeth come in." d. "I use a small nylon bristle brush for my toddler's teeth."

c. "My child will not need a dental checkup until his permanent teeth come in." Children should first see the dentist 6 months after the first primary tooth erupts and no later than age 30 months. Toddlers need fluoride supplements when they use a water supply that is not fluorinated. Toddlers also require supervision with dental care. The parent should finish brushing areas not reached by the child. A small nylon bristle brush works best for cleaning toddlers' teeth.

The parent of 2-week-old Sarah asks the nurse if Sarah needs fluoride supplements because she is exclusively breastfed. The nurse's best response is: a. "She needs to begin taking them now." b. "They are not needed if you drink fluoridated water." c. "She may need to begin taking them at age 6 months." d. "She can have infant cereal mixed with fluoridated water instead of supplements."

c. "She may need to begin taking them at age 6 months." Fluoride supplementation is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 6 months if the child is not drinking adequate amounts of fluoridated water. The recommendation is to begin supplementation at 6 months, not at 2 weeks. The amount of water that is ingested and the amount of fluoride in the water are evaluated when supplementation is being considered.

An infant experienced an apparent life-threatening event and is being placed on home apnea monitoring. The parents have understood the instructions for use of a home apnea monitor when they state: a. "We can adjust the monitor to eliminate false alarms." b. "We should sleep in the same bed as our monitored infant." c. "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working." d. "We will place the monitor in the crib with our infant."

c. "We will check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working." The parents should check the monitor several times a day to be sure the alarm is working and that it can be heard from room to room. The parents should not adjust the monitor to eliminate false alarms. Adjustments could compromise the monitor's effectiveness. The monitor should be placed on a firm surface away from the crib and drapes. The parents should not sleep in the same bed as the monitored infant.

Parents need further teaching about the use of car safety seats if they make which statement? a. "Even if our toddler helps buckle the straps, we will double-check the fastenings." b. "We won't start the car until everyone is properly restrained." c. "We won't need to use the car seat on short trips to the store." d. "We will anchor the car seat to the car's anchoring system."

c. "We won't need to use the car seat on short trips to the store." Parents need to be taught to always use the restraint even for short trips. Further teaching is needed if they make this statement. Parents have understood the teaching if they encourage the child to help attach buckles, straps, and shields but always double-check fastenings; do not start the car until everyone is properly restrained; and anchor the car safety seat securely to the car's anchoring system and apply the harness snugly to the child.

An infant has been pronounced dead from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in the emergency department. Which is an appropriate question to ask the parents? a. "Did you hear the infant cry out?" b. "Why didn't you check on the infant earlier?" c. "What time did you find the infant?" d. "Was the head buried in a blanket?"

c. "What time did you find the infant?" During a SIDS incident, if the infant is not pronounced dead at the scene, he or she may be transported to the emergency department to be pronounced dead by a physician. While they are in the emergency department, the parents are asked only factual questions, such as when they found the infant, how he or she looked, and whom they called for help. The nurse avoids any remarks that may suggest responsibility, such as "Why didn't you go in earlier?" "Didn't you hear the infant cry out?" or "Was the head buried in a blanket?"

A parent asks the nurse "At what age do most babies begin to fear strangers?" The nurse responds that most infants begin to fear strangers at age: a. 2 months. b. 4 months. c. 6 months. d. 12 months.

c. 6 months. Between ages 6 and 8 months, fear of strangers and stranger anxiety become prominent and are related to the infant's ability to discriminate between familiar and nonfamiliar people. At age 2 months, the infant is just beginning to respond differentially to the mother. At age 4 months, the infant is beginning the process of separation individuation when the infant begins to recognize self and mother as separate beings. Twelve months is too late and requires referral for evaluation if the infant does not fear strangers at this age.

The nurse should know that once human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body, seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within: a. 6 to 10 days. b. 2 to 4 weeks. c. 6 to 8 weeks. d. 6 months.

c. 6 to 8 weeks. Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 8 weeks after the virus has entered the body.

By what age should the nurse expect that an infant will be able to pull to a standing position? a. 6 months b. 8 months c. 9 months d. 11 to 12 months

c. 9 months Most infants can pull themselves to a standing position at age 9 months. Any infant who cannot pull to a standing position by age 11 to 12 months should be referred for further evaluation for developmental dysplasia of the hip. At 6 months, the infant has just obtained coordination of arms and legs. By age 8 months, infants can bear full weight on their legs.

Which behavior indicates that an infant has developed object permanence? a. Recognizes familiar face such as the mother b. Recognizes familiar object such as a bottle c. Actively searches for a hidden object d. Secures objects by pulling on a string

c. Actively searches for a hidden object During the first 6 months of life, infants believe that objects exist only as long as they can see them. When infants search for an object that is out of sight, this signals the attainment of object permanence, whereby an infant knows that an object exists even when it is not visible. Between ages 8 and 12 weeks, infants begin to respond differentially to their mothers. They cry, smile, vocalize, and show distinct preference for their mothers. This preference is one of the stages that influence the attachment process, but it is too early for object permanence. Recognizing familiar objects is an important transition for the infant, but it does not signal object permanence. The ability to understand cause and effect, such as pulling on a string to secure an object, is part of secondary schema development.

A woman had unprotected intercourse 36 hours ago and is concerned that she may become pregnant because it is her "fertile" time. She asks the nurse about emergency contraception. The nurse tells her that: a. It is too late; she needed to begin treatment within 24 hours after intercourse. b. Preven, an emergency contraceptive method, is 98% effective at preventing pregnancy. c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose to prevent nausea and vomiting. d. The most effective approach is to use a progestin-only preparation.

c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose to prevent nausea and vomiting. To minimize the side effect of nausea that occurs with high doses of estrogen and progestin, the woman can take an over-the-counter antiemetic 1 hour before each dose. Emergency contraception is used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. Postcoital contraceptive use is 74% to 90% effective at preventing pregnancy. Oral emergency contraceptive regimens may include progestin-only and estrogen-progestin pills. Women with contraindications to estrogen use should use progestin-only pills.

Which statement best describes the infant's physical development? a. Anterior fontanel closes by age 6 to 10 months. b. Binocularity is well established by age 8 months. c. Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year. d. Maternal iron stores persist during the first 12 months of life.

c. Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year. Growth is very rapid during the first year of life. The birth weight approximately doubles by age 5 to 6 months and triples by age 1 year. The anterior fontanel closes at age 12 to 18 months. Binocularity is not established until age 15 months. Maternal iron stores are usually depleted by age 6 months.

When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is: a. Gonorrhea. b. Syphilis. c. Chlamydia. d. Candidiasis.

c. Chlamydia. Chlamydia is the most common and fastest spreading STI among American women, with an estimated 3 million new cases each year. Gonorrhea and syphilis are bacterial STIs, but they are not the most common ones among American women. Candidiasis is caused by a fungus, not by bacteria.

A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant. The nurse should recommend that the infant be given: a. Skim milk. b. Whole cow's milk. c. Commercial iron-fortified formula. d. Commercial formula without iron.

c. Commercial iron-fortified formula. For children younger than 1 year, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use of breast milk. If breastfeeding has been discontinued, iron-fortified commercial formula should be used. Cow's milk should not be used in children younger than 12 months. Maternal iron stores are almost depleted by this age; the iron-fortified formula will help prevent the development of iron deficiency anemia.

A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional test is needed? a. Testicular biopsy b. Antisperm antibodies c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level d. Examination for testicular infection

c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level The woman has irregular menstrual cycles. The scenario does not indicate that she has had any testing related to this irregularity. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular. Determination of blood levels of prolactin, FSH, luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol, progesterone, and thyroid hormones may be necessary to diagnose the cause of irregular menstrual cycles. A testicular biopsy would be indicated only in cases of azoospermia (no sperm cells) or severe oligospermia (low number of sperm cells). Antisperm antibodies are produced by a man against his own sperm. This is unlikely to be the case here because the man has already produced children. Examination for testicular infection would be done before semen analysis. Infection would affect spermatogenesis.

A toddler's parent asks the nurse for suggestions on dealing with temper tantrums. The most appropriate recommendation is to: a. Punish the child. b. Leave the child alone until the tantrum is over. c. Ignore the behavior, provided that it is not injurious. d. Explain to child that this is wrong.

c. Ignore the behavior, provided that it is not injurious. The parent should be told that the best way to deal with temper tantrums is to ignore the behaviors, provided that the actions are not dangerous to the child. Tantrums are common during this age-group as the child becomes more independent and increasingly complex tasks overwhelm him or her. The parents and caregivers need to have consistent and developmentally appropriate expectations. Punishment and explanations will not be beneficial.

While instructing a couple regarding birth control, the nurse should be aware that the method called natural family planning: a. Is the same as coitus interruptus, or "pulling out." b. Uses the calendar method to align the woman's cycle with the natural phases of the moon. c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. d. Relies on barrier methods during fertility phases.

c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers. Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. "Pulling out" is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method.

With regard to endometriosis, nurses should be aware that: a. It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus. b. It is found more often in African-American women than in white or Asian women. c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause. d. It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility.

c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause. Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. With endometriosis, the endometrial tissue is outside the uterus. Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. Endometriosis is found equally in white and African-American women and is slightly more prevalent in Asian women. Women can experience painful intercourse and impaired fertility.

A 36-year-old woman has been given a diagnosis of uterine fibroids. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should know that: a. Fibroids are malignant tumors of the uterus that require radiation or chemotherapy. b. Fibroids increase in size during the perimenopausal period. c. Menorrhagia is a common finding. d. The woman is unlikely to become pregnant as long as the fibroids are in her uterus.

c. Menorrhagia is a common finding. The major symptoms associated with fibroids are menorrhagia and the physical effects produced by large myomas. Fibroids are benign tumors of the smooth muscle of the uterus, and their etiology is unknown. Fibroids are estrogen sensitive and shrink as levels of estrogen decline. Fibroids occur in 25% of women of reproductive age and are seen in 2% of pregnant women.

Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is: a. Acetaminophen. b. Oral contraceptives (OCPs). c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. Aspirin.

c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are prostaglandin inhibitors and show the strongest research results for pain relief. Often if one NSAID is not effective, another one can provide relief. Approximately 80% of women find relief from NSAIDs. Preparations containing acetaminophen are less effective for dysmenorrhea because they lack the antiprostaglandin properties of NSAIDs. OCPs are a reasonable choice for women who also want birth control. The benefit of OCPs is the reduction of menstrual flow and irregularities. OCPs may be contraindicated for some women and have numerous potential side effects. NSAIDs are the drug of choice. If a woman is taking a NSAID, she should avoid taking aspirin.

When evaluating a patient whose primary complaint is amenorrhea, the nurse must be aware that lack of menstruation is most often the result of: a. Stress. b. Excessive exercise. c. Pregnancy. d. Eating disorders.

c. Pregnancy. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual flow, is most often a result of pregnancy. Although stress, excessive exercise, and eating disorders all may be contributing factors, none is the most common factor associated with amenorrhea.

Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate? a. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a milder form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and more common in younger women. b. Secondary dysmenorrhea is more intense and medically significant than primary dysmenorrhea. c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. d. The causes of PMS have been well established.

c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. PMS may manifest with one or more of a hundred or so physical and psychologic symptoms. PMDD is a more severe variant of PMS. Secondary dysmenorrhea is characterized by more muted pain than that seen in primary dysmenorrhea; the medical treatment is much the same. The cause of PMS is unknown. It may be a collection of different problems.

Latasha is a breastfed infant being seen in the clinic for her 6-month checkup. Her mother tells the nurse that Latasha recently began to suck her thumb. The best nursing intervention is to: a. Recommend that the mother substitute a pacifier for Latasha's thumb. b. Assess Latasha for other signs of sensory deprivation. c. Reassure the mother that this is very normal at this age. d. Suggest that the mother breastfeed Latasha more often to satisfy sucking needs.

c. Reassure the mother that this is very normal at this age. Sucking is an infant's chief pleasure, and she may not be satisfied by bottle-feeding or breastfeeding alone. During infancy and early childhood, there is no need to restrict nonnutritive sucking. Dental damage does not appear to occur unless the use of the pacifier or finger persists after age 4 to 6 years. The nurse should explore with the mother her feelings about pacifier vs. thumb. This is a normal behavior to meet nonnutritive sucking needs. No data support that Latasha has sensory deprivation.

According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant would be in what stage of the sensorimotor phase? a. Use of reflexes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Coordination of secondary schemata

c. Secondary circular reactions Infants are usually in the secondary circular reaction stage from age 4 months to 8 months. This stage is characterized by a continuation of the primary circular reaction for the response that results. For example, shaking of a rattle is performed to hear the noise of the rattle, not just for shaking. The use of reflexes is primarily during the first month of life. The primary circular reaction stage marks the replacement of reflexes with voluntary acts. The infant is in this stage from age 1 month to 4 months. The fourth sensorimotor stage is coordination of secondary schemata. This is a transitional stage in which increasing motor skills enable greater exploration of the environment.

A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. The nurse should advise this woman to protect against pregnancy by: a. Limiting sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill. b. Using condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as she takes an antibiotic. c. Taking one pill at the same time every day. d. Throwing away the pack and using a backup method if she misses two pills during week 1 of her cycle.

c. Taking one pill at the same time every day. To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or abortion, another method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and altered hormone levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client misses two pills during week 1, she should take two pills a day for 2 days, finish the package, and use a backup method the next 7 consecutive days.

Although a 14-month-old girl received a shock from an electrical outlet recently, her parents find her about to place a paper clip in another outlet. The best interpretation of this behavior is that: a. Her cognitive development is delayed. b. This is typical behavior because toddlers are not very developed. c. This is typical behavior because of inability to transfer knowledge to new situations. d. This is not typical behavior because toddlers should know better than to repeat an act that caused pain.

c. This is typical behavior because of inability to transfer knowledge to new situations. During the tertiary circular reactions stage, children have only a rudimentary sense of the classification of objects. The appearance of an object denotes its function for these children. The slot of an outlet is for putting things into. Her cognitive development is appropriate for her age and represents typical behavior for a toddler. Only some awareness exists of a causal relation between events.

In the clinic waiting room, a nurse observes a parent showing an 18-month-old child how to make a tower out of blocks. In this situation the nurse should recognize that: a. Blocks at this age are used primarily for throwing. b. Toddlers are too young to imitate the behavior of others. c. Toddlers are capable of building a tower of blocks. d. Toddlers are too young to build a tower of blocks.

c. Toddlers are capable of building a tower of blocks. This is a good parent-child interaction. The 18-month-old is capable of building a tower of 3 or 4 blocks. The ability to build towers of blocks usually begins at age 15 months. With ongoing development, the child is able to build taller towers. At this age, children imitate others around them and no longer throw blocks.

A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis." b. "Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count." c. "Smoking can give you lung cancer, even though it has no effect on sperm." d. "Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm."

d. "Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm." Use of tobacco, alcohol, and marijuana may affect sperm counts. "Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis" is inaccurate. Sperm counts vary from day to day and depend on emotional and physical status and sexual activity. A single analysis may be inconclusive. A minimum of two analyses must be performed several weeks apart to assess male fertility.

The parents of a newborn say that their toddler "hates the baby . . . he suggested that we put him in the trash can so the trash truck could take him away." The nurse's best reply is: a. "Let's see if we can figure out why he hates the new baby." b. "That's a strong statement to come from such a small boy." c. "Let's refer him to counseling to work this hatred out. It's not a normal response." d. "That is a normal response to the birth of a sibling. Let's look at ways to deal with this."

d. "That is a normal response to the birth of a sibling. Let's look at ways to deal with this." The arrival of a new infant represents a crisis for even the best-prepared toddler. Toddlers have their entire schedule and routines disrupted because of the new family member. The nurse should work with parents on ways to involve the toddler in the newborn's care and help focus attention on the toddler. The toddler does not hate the infant. This is an expected response to the changes in routines and attention that affect the toddler. This is a normal response. The toddler can be provided with a doll to tend to its needs when the parent is performing similar care for the newborn.

A woman currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse what the major differences are between the cervical cap and diaphragm. The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it's less messy." b. "The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse." c. "Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient." d. "The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later."

d. "The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later." The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. No additional spermicide is required for repeated acts of intercourse. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed.

A healthy 60-year-old African-American woman regularly receives her health care at the clinic in her neighborhood. She is due for a mammogram. At her previous clinic visit, her physician, concerned about the 3-week wait at the neighborhood clinic, made an appointment for her to have a mammogram at a teaching hospital across town. She did not keep her appointment and returned to the clinic today to have the nurse check her blood pressure. What would be the most appropriate statement for the nurse to make to this patient? a. "Do you have transportation to the teaching hospital so that you can get your mammogram?" b. "I'm concerned that you missed your appointment; let me make another one for you." c. "It's very dangerous to skip your mammograms; your breasts need to be checked." d. "Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here?"

d. "Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here?" This statement is nonjudgmental and gives the patient options as to where she may have her mammogram. Furthermore, it is an innocuous way to investigate the reasons the patient missed her previous appointment. African-American women often have the perception that they are treated with prejudice by health care providers. Questioning the potential lack of transportation may promote this perception. African-American women report not participating in early breast cancer screening because breast cancer comes by chance and getting it is determined by a higher power. Expressing concern and offering to schedule another appointment is a reflection of the nurse's beliefs, not those of the client. Suggesting that it is dangerous to skip a mammogram can be perceived as judgmental and derogatory. It may alienate and embarrass the patient.

A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, "My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up." The nurse's most appropriate response is: a. "This probably means that you're pregnant." b. "Don't worry; it's probably nothing." c. "Have you been sick this month?" d. "You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle."

d. "You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle." The absence of a temperature decrease most likely is the result of lack of ovulation. Pregnancy cannot occur without ovulation (which is being measured using the BBT method). A comment such as "Don't worry; it's probably nothing" discredits the client's concerns. Illness would most likely cause an increase in BBT.

A nurse practitioner performs a clinical breast examination on a woman diagnosed with fibroadenoma. The nurse knows that fibroadenoma is characterized by: a. Inflammation of the milk ducts and glands behind the nipples. b. Thick, sticky discharge from the nipple of the affected breast. c. Lumpiness in both breasts that develops 1 week before menstruation. d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages.

d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages. Fibroadenomas are characterized by discrete, usually solitary lumps smaller than 3 cm in diameter. Fibroadenomas increase in size during pregnancy and shrink as the woman ages. Inflammation of the milk ducts is associated with mammary duct ectasia, not fibroadenoma. A thick, sticky discharge is associated with galactorrhea, not fibroadenoma. Lumpiness before menstruation is associated with fibrocystic changes of the breast.

A mother tells the nurse that she doesn't want her infant immunized because of the discomfort associated with injections. The nurse should explain that: a. This cannot be prevented. b. Infants do not feel pain as adults do. c. This is not a good reason for refusing immunizations. d. A topical anesthetic, eutectic mixture of local anesthetic (EMLA), can be applied before injections are given.

d. A topical anesthetic, eutectic mixture of local anesthetic (EMLA), can be applied before injections are given. Several topical anesthetic agents can be used to minimize the discomfort associated with immunization injections. These include EMLA and vapor coolant sprays. Pain associated with many procedures can be prevented or minimized by using the principles of atraumatic care. With preparation, the injection site can be properly anesthetized to decrease the amount of pain felt by the infant. Infants have the neural pathways to sense pain. Numerous research studies have indicated that infants perceive and react to pain in the same manner as do children and adults. The mother should be allowed to discuss her concerns and the alternatives available. This is part of the informed consent process.

The psychosocial developmental tasks of toddlerhood include: a. Development of a conscience. b. Recognition of sex differences. c. Ability to get along with age mates. d. Ability to withstand delayed gratification.

d. Ability to withstand delayed gratification. If the need for basic trust has been satisfied, toddlers can give up dependence for control, independence, and autonomy. One of the tasks that the toddler is concerned with is the ability to withstand delayed gratification. Development of a conscience occurs during the preschool years. The recognition of sex differences occurs during the preschool years. The ability to get along with age mates develops during the preschool and school-age years.

The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often prone (face down) while awake. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that this is: a. Unacceptable because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). b. Unacceptable because it does not encourage achievement of developmental milestones. c. Unacceptable to encourage fine motor development. d. Acceptable to encourage head control and turning over.

d. Acceptable to encourage head control and turning over. These parents are implementing the guidelines to reduce the risk of SIDS. Infants should sleep on their backs and then be placed on their abdomens when awake to enhance development of milestones such as head control. The face-down position while awake and positioning on the back for sleep are acceptable because they reduce risk of SIDS and allow achievement of developmental milestones. These position changes encourage gross motor, not fine motor, development.

Nafarelin is currently used as a treatment for mild-to-severe endometriosis. The nurse should tell a woman taking this medication that the drug: a. Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby stimulating ovarian activity. b. Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day. c. Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue BID. d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness.

d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist, and its side effects are similar to effects of menopause. The hypoestrogenism effect results in hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist that suppresses the secretion of GnRH and is administered twice daily by nasal spray.

The nurse must watch for what common complications in a patient who has undergone a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap? a. Axillary edema and tissue necrosis b. Delayed wound healing and muscle contractions c. Delayed wound healing and axillary edema d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma

d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma Postoperative care focuses on monitoring the skin flap for signs of decreased capillary refill, hematoma, infection, and necrosis. Axillary edema and muscle contractions are not common complications of TRAM flaps.

The nurse is discussing with a parent group the importance of fluoride for healthy teeth. The nurse should recommend that the parents: a. Use fluoridated mouth rinses in children older than 1 year. b. Have children brush teeth with fluoridated toothpaste unless fluoride content of water supply is adequate. c. Give fluoride supplements to breastfed infants beginning at age 1 month. d. Determine whether water supply is fluoridated.

d. Determine whether water supply is fluoridated. The decision about fluoride supplementation cannot be made until it is known whether the water supply contains fluoride and the amount. It is difficult to teach this age-group to spit out the mouthwash. Swallowing fluoridated mouthwashes can contribute to fluorosis. Fluoridated toothpaste is still indicated, but very small amounts are used. Fluoride supplementation is not recommended until after age 6 months.

Although remarkable developments have occurred in reproductive medicine, assisted reproductive therapies are associated with numerous legal and ethical issues. Nurses can provide accurate information about the risks and benefits of treatment alternatives so couples can make informed decisions about their choice of treatment. Which issue would not need to be addressed by an infertile couple before treatment? a. Risks of multiple gestation b. Whether or how to disclose the facts of conception to offspring c. Freezing embryos for later use d. Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment

d. Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment Although the method of payment is important, obtaining this information is not the responsibility of the nurse. Many states have mandated some form of insurance to assist couples with coverage for infertility. Risk of multiple gestation is a risk of treatment of which the couple needs to be aware. To minimize the chance of multiple gestation, generally only three or fewer embryos are transferred. The couple should be informed that there may be a need for multifetal reduction. Nurses can provide anticipatory guidance on this matter. Depending on the therapy chosen, there may be a need for donor oocytes, sperm, embryos, or a surrogate mother. Couples who have excess embryos frozen for later transfer must be fully informed before consenting to the procedure. A decision must be made regarding the disposal of embryos in the event of death or divorce or if the couple no longer wants the embryos at a future time.

The parents of a 12-month-old child ask the nurse if the child can eat hot dogs. The nurse's reply should be based on knowing that: a. The child is too young to digest hot dogs. b. The child is too young to eat hot dogs safely. c. Hot dogs must be sliced into sections to prevent aspiration. d. Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration.

d. Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration. Hot dogs are of a consistency, diameter, and round shape that may cause complete obstruction of the child's airway. If given to young children, the hot dog should be cut into small irregular pieces rather than served whole or in slices. The child's digestive system is mature enough to digest hot dogs. To eat the hot dog safely, the child should be sitting down, and the hot dog should be appropriately cut into irregularly shaped pieces.

Which statement is true about the term contraceptive failure rate? a. It refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span. b. It refers to the minimum level that must be achieved to receive a government license. c. It increases over time as couples become more careless. d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.

d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users. Contraceptive effectiveness varies from couple to couple, depending on how well a contraceptive method is used and how well it suits the couple. The contraceptive failure rate measures the likelihood of accidental pregnancy in the first year only. Failure rates decline over time because users gain experience.

One of the alterations in cyclic bleeding that occurs between periods is called: a. Oligomenorrhea. b. Menorrhagia. c. Leiomyoma. d. Metrorrhagia.

d. Metrorrhagia Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. It can be caused by progestin injections and implants. Oligomenorrhea is infrequent or scanty menstruation. Menorrhagia is excessive menstruation. Leiomyoma is a common cause of excessive bleeding.

With regard to dysmenorrhea, nurses should be aware that: a. It is more common in older women. b. It is more common in leaner women who exercise strenuously. c. Symptoms can begin at any point in the ovulatory cycle. d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen.

d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen Pain is described as sharp and cramping or sometimes as a dull ache. It may radiate to the lower back or upper thighs. Dysmenorrhea is more common in women 17 to 24 years old, women who smoke, and women who are obese. Symptoms begin with menstruation or sometimes a few hours before the onset of flow.

A parent asks the nurse about how to respond to negativism in toddlers. The most appropriate recommendation is to: a. Punish the child. b. Provide more attention. c. Ask child not always to say "no." d. Reduce the opportunities for a "no" answer.

d. Reduce the opportunities for a "no" answer. The nurse should suggest to the parent that questions should be phrased with realistic choices rather than "yes" or "no" answers. This provides a sense of control for the toddler and reduces the opportunity for negativism. Negativism is not an indication of stubbornness or insolence and should not be punished. The negativism is not a function of attention; the child is testing limits to gain an understanding of the world. The toddler is too young to be asked to not always say "no."

A father tells the nurse that his daughter wants the same plate and cup used at every meal, even if they go to a restaurant. The nurse should explain that this is: a. A sign that the child is spoiled. b. A way to exert unhealthy control. c. Regression, common at this age. d. Ritualism, common at this age.

d. Ritualism, common at this age. The child is exhibiting the ritualism that is characteristic at this age. Ritualism is the need to maintain sameness and reliability. It provides a sense of comfort to the toddler. It will dictate certain principles in feeding practices, including rejecting a favorite food because it is served in a different container. This does not indicate a child who has unreasonable expectations or a need to exert control, but rather normal development. Toddlers use ritualistic behaviors to maintain necessary structure in their lives. This is not regression, which is a retreat from a present pattern of functioning.

Which factor is most important in predisposing toddlers to frequent infections such as otitis media, tonsillitis, and upper respiratory tract infections? a. Respirations are abdominal. b. Pulse and respiratory rates are slower than those in infancy. c. Defense mechanisms are less efficient than those during infancy. d. Short, straight internal ear/throat structures and large tonsil/adenoid lymph tissue are present.

d. Short, straight internal ear/throat structures and large tonsil/adenoid lymph tissue are present. Toddlers continue to have the short, straight internal ear canal of infants. The lymphoid tissue of the tonsils and adenoids continues to be relatively large. These two anatomic conditions combine to predispose the toddler to frequent infections. The abdominal respirations and lowered pulse and respiratory rate of toddlers do not affect their susceptibility to infection. The defense mechanisms are more efficient compared with those of infancy.

The nurse is planning care for a 17-month-old child. According to Piaget, in what stage would the nurse expect the child to be? a. Trust b. Preoperations c. Secondary circular reaction d. Tertiary circular reaction

d. Tertiary circular reaction The 17-month-old is in the fifth stage of the sensorimotor phase: tertiary circular reactions. The child uses active experimentation to achieve previously unattainable goals. Trust is Erikson's first stage. Preoperations is the stage of cognitive development, usually present in older toddlers and preschoolers. Secondary circular reactions last from about ages 4 to 8 months.

The nurse recommends to parents that peanuts are not a good snack food for toddlers. The nurse's rationale for this action is that: a. They are low in nutritive value. b. They are very high in sodium. c. They cannot be entirely digested. d. They can be easily aspirated.

d. They can be easily aspirated. Foreign-body aspiration is common during the second year of life. Although they chew well, children at this age may have difficulty with large pieces of food such as meat and whole hot dogs and with hard foods such as nuts or dried beans. Peanuts have many beneficial nutrients but should be avoided because of the risk of aspiration in this age-group. The sodium level may be a concern, but the risk of aspiration is more important. Many foods pass through the gastrointestinal tract incompletely digested. This is not necessarily detrimental to the child.

The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they have noticed foods such as peas and corn are not completely digested and can be seen in their infant's stool. The nurse bases her explanation on knowing that: a. Children should not be given fibrous foods until the digestive tract matures at age 4 years. b. The infant should not be given any solid foods until this digestive problem is resolved. c. This is abnormal and requires further investigation. d. This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age.

d. This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age. The immaturity of the digestive tract is evident in the appearance of the stools. Solid foods are passed incompletely broken down in the feces. An excess quantity of fiber predisposes the child to large, bulky stools. This is a normal part of the maturational process, and no further investigation is necessary.

What is helpful to tell a mother who is concerned about preventing sleep problems in her 2-year-old child? a. Have the child always sleep in a quiet, darkened room. b. Provide high-carbohydrate snacks before bedtime. c. Communicate with the child's daytime caregiver about eliminating the afternoon nap. d. Use a night-light in the child's room.

d. Use a night-light in the child's room. The preschooler has a great imagination. Sounds and shadows can have a negative effect on sleeping behavior. Night-lights provide the child with the ability to visualize the environment and decrease the fear felt in a dark room. A dark, quiet room may be scary to a preschooler. High-carbohydrate snacks increase energy and do not promote relaxation. Most 2-year-olds take one nap each day. Many give up the habit by age 3. Insufficient rest during the day can lead to irritability and difficulty sleeping at night.

When a nurse is counseling a woman for primary dysmenorrhea, which nonpharmacologic intervention might be recommended? a. Increasing the intake of red meat and simple carbohydrates b. Reducing the intake of diuretic foods such as peaches and asparagus c. Temporarily substituting physical activity for a sedentary lifestyle d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping

d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping Heat minimizes cramping by increasing vasodilation and muscle relaxation and minimizing uterine ischemia. Dietary changes such as eating less red meat may be recommended for women experiencing dysmenorrhea. Increasing the intake of diuretics, including natural diuretics such as asparagus, cranberry juice, peaches, parsley, and watermelon, may help ease the symptoms associated with dysmenorrhea. Exercise has been found to help relieve menstrual discomfort through increased vasodilation and subsequent decreased ischemia.

Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 24-month-old child? a. Skips b. Rides tricycle c. Broad jumps d. Walks up and down stairs

d. Walks up and down stairs The 24-month-old child can go up and down stairs alone with two feet on each step. Skipping and the ability to broad jump are skills acquired at age 3. Tricycle riding is achieved at age 4.

The recommended treatment for the prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission to the fetus during pregnancy is: a. Acyclovir. b. Ofloxacin. c. Podophyllin. d. Zidovudine.

d. Zidovudine. Perinatal transmission of HIV has decreased significantly in the past decade as a result of prophylactic administration of the antiretroviral drug zidovudine to pregnant women in the prenatal and perinatal periods. Acyclovir is an antiviral treatment for HSV. Ofloxacin is an antibacterial treatment for gonorrhea. Podophyllin is a solution used in the treatment of human papillomavirus.