126 air law

(71) Two aircraft are on approach to land, the aircraft at the higher altitude shall AIM RAC 1.10 and CARs 602.19(7) (1) Have the right of way. (2) Overtake the lower aircraft on the left. (3) Give way. (4) Complete a 360° turn to the right.

3

(1) A Location Sign (Operational Guidance Sign) has. AIM AGA 5.8.2 Airside Guidance Signs (a) Yellow inscriptions on a black background. (b) Black inscriptions on a yellow background (c) Red inscriptions on a white background. (d) White inscriptions on a red background

a

(10) "Critical surfaces" means? AIM AIR 2.12.2(b). See also CARs 602.11(1) (a) The wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers (b) Only the wings, control surfaces and horizontal stabilizer (c) Only the wings, control surfaces, rotors and horizontal stabilizer. (d) Only the wings.

a

(100) The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and/or imminent Danger requiring immediate assistance is AIM COM 5 (a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. (b) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN. (c) SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY. (d) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.

a

(102) The northeast end of a runway is numbered 20. The southwest end would be numbered AIM AGA 5.4 (a) 02 (b) 04 (c) 18 (d) 14

a

(108) In an emergency requiring the use of an ELT, it should be turned on AIM SAR 3.5 (a) Immediately and left on. (b) At the ETA in the flight plan. (c) For the first five minutes of each hour UTC. (d) During daylight hours only to conserve the battery.

a

(113) NOTAMs are AIM MAP 5.2 (a) Available at all FSS. (b) Mailed to all pilots. (c) Issued for airport facility closures only. (d) Valid for 24 hours.

a

(116) The International VHF Emergency Frequency is CARs 602.143 (a) 121.5 MHz. (b) 121.9 MHz. (c) 122.2 MHz. (d) 126.7 MHz.

a

(117) The takeoff thrust blast danger area includes at least that area extending back from the tail of a medium size jet transport aeroplane for AIM AIR 1.7 (a) 1,200 feet. (b) 900 feet. (c) 500 feet. (d) 450 feet.

a

(120) The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of an executive jet aeroplane for AIM AIR 1.7 (a) 200 feet. (b) 450 feet. (c) 600 feet. (d) 750 feet.

a

(121) A 45 kt blast area can be expected ..... behind the propellers of a large turboprop aeroplane during taxi. AIM AIR 1.7 (a) 60 feet. (b) 80 feet. (c) 100 feet. (d) 120 feet.

a

(101) The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is AIM COM 5 (a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. (b) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN. (c) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY. (d) URGENCY,URGENCY, URGENCY.

b

(109) An aircraft's ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime AIM SAR 3.8 (a) Following a hard landing. (b) During the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC. (c) Following a component or battery change. (d) Prior to flight and listening on 121.5 MHz.

b

(110) Before shutting down you can verify that the aircraft's ELT is not transmitting by AIM SAR 3.4 (a) Checking that the ELT switch is in the off position. (b) Listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal. (c) Ensuring that the master switch is off. (d) Checking the ELT visual warning light.

b

(112) Many common drugs such as cold tablets, cough mixtures, antihistamines and other overthecounter remedies may seriously impair the judgement and coordination needed while flying. The safest rule is to AIM AIR 3.12 (a) Read the manufacturer's warning to ensure that you are aware of possible reactions To such drugs. (b) Take no medicine when you plan to fly, except on the advice of an Aviation Medical Examiner. (c) Allow at least 12 hours between taking any medicine or drugs and flying. (d) Allow at least 8 hours between taking any medicine or drugs and flying.

b

(119) The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a medium size jet aeroplane for at least AIM AIR 1.7 (a) 200 feet. (b) 450 feet. (c) 600 feet. (d) 750 feet.

b

(125) Special Certificates of Airworthiness are issued for aircraft that fit aircraft in one of the following classifications CARs 605.03 507 Standards AIM LRA 5.3 (a) Amateur-built, limited or utility (b) Restricted, amateur-built, limited or owner-maintenance (c) amateur-built, limited or normal (d) Restricted, amateur-built, limited or utility

b

(13) Any pilot who has had a local anesthetic for extensive dental procedures should not act as a flight crew member during the next. AIM AIR 3.11 (a) 12 hrs. (b) 24 hrs. (c) 36 hrs. (d) 48 hrs

b

(16) A UNICOM is? AIM RAC 1.2.1 (a) An air-to-ground communications agency operated by Transport Canada (b) Universal Communications (UNICOM) is an air-to-ground communications facility operated by a private agency to provide Private Advisory Station (PAS) service at uncontrolled aerodromes. (c) Is part of an FSS providing flight planning and altering services (d) Is the common air-to-ground communications frequency for emergencies.

b

(2) A standard windsock will be perfectly horizontal in a. AIM AGA 5.9 (a) 10 knots or more (b) 15 knots or above (c) 20 knots or more (d) 30 knots or more

b

(20) You are within 10 nautical miles and on a descent to an airport with a control zone. Your speed and altitude are 250 kts and 2500 feet respectively. Your speed should be reduced by a further_____ kts to comply with speed limited regulations. AIM RAC 2.5.2. See also CARs 602.32(1)(a)&(b) (a)25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d)100.

b

(28) Which of the following is true with regard to turbulent waivers. AIM RAC 4.1.1 (a) Turbulent waivers are controller initiated (b) Turbulent waivers are pilot initiated (c) Wavers are given to a light or medium aircraft departing after a heavy aircraft makes a low or missed approach in the same direction on the same runway. (d) None of the above

b

(34) No person shall operate a land aeroplane, gyroplane, helicopter or airship at more than _____ from shore unless a life preserver is carried for each person on board. CARs 602.62(2) (a) 25 NM (b) 50 NM (c) The gliding distance from shore (d) 5 NM

b

(35) The minimum fuel requirement for day VFR is? CARs 602.88(3)(a)(i) (a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 45 minutes (d) 60 minutes

b

(40) A pilot-in-command of an aircraft who terminates a flight in respect of which a flight plan has been filed shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio station as soon as practicable after landing but not later than (a) Immediately after landing. CARs 602.77 AIM RAC 3.12 (b) Within 60 minutes after the last reported estimated time of arrival. (c) Within 30 minutes after the last reported estimated time of arrival. (d) Within 45minutes after the last reported estimated time of arrival .

b

(49) Unless conducting a take-off, approach or landing, no person shall fly an aeroplane over a built-up area unless the aeroplane is operated at an altitude that is not lower than . . . . .above the highest obstacle within a radius of . . . . . from the aircraft. CARs 602.14(2)(a)(i) (a) 500 ft, 500 ft (b) 1,000 ft, 2,000 ft (c) 2,000 ft, 1,000 ft (d) 3,000 ft, 1 mile

b

(53) Unless otherwise specified, a control zone is AIM RAC 2.7.3 (a) The same as a control area. (b) Controlled airspace around an aerodrome that extends vertically from the surface to 3,000 feet AGL. (c) Always Class D airspace. (d) Controlled airspace along airways above 2,200 feet ASL.

b

(62) The pass mark for the private licence is AIM LRA 2.3.4 (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 75%

b

(63) How long does an aircraft owner have to notify Transport Canada of the location of an aircraft? CARs 202.46 (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 30 days

b

(64) How long does an aircraft owner have to notify Transport Canada of a Change of address? CARs 202.51 (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 30 days

b

(65) How long does an aircraft owner have to notify Transport Canada of no Longer being qualified as a registered owner? CARs 202.52 (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 30 days

b

(66) How long does an aircraft owner have to notify Transport Canada of an aircraft being destroyed? CARs 202.58 (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 30 days

b

(67) How long does an aircraft owner have to notify Transport Canada of an aircraft's marks being removed? CARs 202.61 (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 30 days

b

(72) Yellow and black strips painted on pylons or on the roof of a building identifies AIM RAC 1.14.1 (a) An area where explosives are in use. (b) A fur farm. (c) An artillery range. (d) An open pit mine.

b

(73) Avoid overflying fur farms below _______. AIM RAC 1.14.1 (a) 1,000 feet (b) 2,000 feet (c) 3,000 feet (d) 4,000 feet

b

(74) Pilots should not overfly reindeer or caribou at an altitude of less than AIM RAC 1.14.3 (a) 2,500 feet AGL. (b) 2,000 feet AGL. (c) 1,500 feet AGL. (d) 1,000 feet AGL

b

(75) To preserve the natural environment of parks, reserves and refuges and to minimize the disturbance to the natural habitat, over flights should not be conducted below ______ feet AGL. AIM RAC 1.14.5 (a) 1,000 feet (b) 2,000 feet (c) 3,000 feet (d) 4,000 feet

b

(76) An approach slope indicator is designed to provide visual indications of the desired approach to a runway at an angle of, AIM AGA 7.6.1.1 (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50

b

(77) If you were on an approach to an airport at night and the two bar vasis indicated two white lights you are, AIM AGA 7.6.1 (a) Too low on the approach (b) Too high on the approach (c) On the correct approach slope (d) Slightly below the correct slope

b

(80) Within Class G airspace. AIM RAC 2.8.7 (a) Low level air rotes exist with wider lateral dimensions than low level airways (b) ATS units provide flight information and alerting services. (c) ATC provides an air traffic control service. (d) Low level air routes start at 2,200 feet AGL.

b

(90) An arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower CARs 601.08 (a) Upon entering an Aerodrome Traffic Zone. (b) Prior to entering a Control Zone. (c) Immediately prior to joining the circuit. (d) Immediately after entering a Control Zone.

b

(98) ATIS is normally provided AIM RAC 1.3 (a) To replace the FSS. (b) To relieve frequency congestion. (c) For the rapid updating of weather forecasts. (d) Only when VFR conditions exist at airports.

b

(39) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft flying through an MF area shall report. AIM RAC 4.7.5(a)(vi) See also CARs 602.103(a)(b) (a) At least three minutes before entering the area and when clear of the MF area. (b) At least five minutes before entering the area and passing overhead the airport. (c) At least ten minutes before entering the area and passing overhead the airport. (d) At least five minutes before entering the area and when clear of the MF area.

d

(4) Which of the following is not a reportable aviation incident? AIM GEN 3.2 Definitions "reportable aviation accidents" See also "reportable aviation incidents" (a) Engine failure, smoke or fire occurs, a malfunction of an aircraft system occurs (b) Fuel shortage or depressurization (c) There is loss of separation, a risk of collision (d) The aircraft sustains substantial damage or is destroyed

d

(41) In Southern Domestic Airspace, runway 27 at an aerodrome would have a bearing (a) 0270T (b) 2700T (c) 0270M (d) 2700M

d

(45) An ATC clearance authorizing SVFR? CARs 602.117(d) (a) Relieves the pilot of the responsibility for avoiding weather conditions beyond the pilot's own flying capabilities. (b) Relieves the pilot of the responsibility of avoiding other aircraft. (c) Relieves the pilot of the responsibility of complying with the CARs. (d) Permits a pilot to fly in below VFR weather conditions without complying with instrument flight rules.

d

(50) Pilots are responsible for taking action as necessary to avoid a collision CARs 602.19 (a) Unless flying in accordance with an ATC clearance (b) Only when flying in VFR conditions. (c) Except when within visual range of the control tower. (d) At all times.

d

(56) A person may activate an ELT during the first ____ minutes of any hour UTC for a duration of not more than ____ seconds for the purpose of testing it. (a) 10, 10 (b) 5, 10 (c) 10, 5 (d) 5, 5

d

(57) The time and point of entry criteria for entering an ADIZ are within plus or minus ____ minutes and within ____ miles of the estimated point of ADIZ entry or the center line of the route of flight indicated in the flight plan or flight Itinerary. (a) 20, 5 (b) 10, 5 (c) 5, 10 (d) 5 , 20

d

(59) When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way, except as follows: AIM RAC 1.110 and CARs 602.19 (a) Balloons shall give to helicopters (b) Gliders shall give way to power driven aircraft (c) Balloons shall give way to airships (d) A power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are seen to be towing gliders or other objects or carrying a slung load.

d

(6) The definition of nighttime is? AIM GEN 5.1 Glossary of Aeronautical Terms (a) Sunset to sunrise. (b) The period of time during any day that starts at the end of morning civil twilight and ends at the start of evening civil twilight. (c) One hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise. (d) The period of time during any day that starts at the end of evening civil twilight and ends at the start of morning civil twilight.

d

(60) Pilots flying through or within an ADIZ. CARs 602.145 (a) Require a mandatory IFR flight plan. (b) Requires military permission. (c) Must be made in daylight hours. (d) Must file a Defense Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary

d

(68) When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way, except as follows: AIM RAC 1.10 and CARs 602.19(2) (a) Balloons shall give to helicopters (b) Gliders shall give way to power driven aircraft (c) Balloons shall give way to airships (d) A power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are seen to be towing gliders or other objects or carrying a slung load.

d

(79) Conflict resolution in Class C airspace is provided only to, AIM RAC 2.8.3 (a) CVFR/VFR and IFR/VFR aircraft in communication with ATC and radar identified (b) IFR/CVFR and IFR/IFR aircraft in communication with ATC and radar identified (c) IFR/IFR and VFR/VFR aircraft in communication with ATC and radar identified (d) IFR/VFR and VFR/VFR aircraft in communication with ATC and radar identified

d

(83) No person shall operate an aircraft other than a balloon unless it is equipped with a _________on board the aircraft other than an infant. CARs 605.22 (a) A restraint system (b) A safety belt for each person (c) A seat belt for each person (d) A seat and safety belt for each person

d

(85) Every owner of an aircraft shall keep the following technical records in respect of the aircraft: CARs 605.92 (a) Journey log and each installed engine (b) Journey log, weight and balance and each installed engine (c) Journey log, weight and balance and each variable pitch propeller (d) Journey log, weight and balance, airframe, each installed engine and each variable pitch propeller

d

(88) "Controlled Airspace" means all airspace of defined dimensions within which CARs 101.01 (a) Control Zone regulations are in force. (b) Security regulations are in force. (c) Special VFR flight only is permitted. (d) an ATC service is provided.

d

(91) VFR flight within Class B airspace is permitted CARs 601.07 (a) Only when the flight visibility is 5 miles or better. (b) For all aircraft except gliders and balloons. (c) If the pilot holds a Class B Airspace Endorsement. (d) In accordance with an ATC clearance.

d

(92) The primary objective of an aviation safety investigation into an aircraft Accident or aircraft incident is to AIM GEN 3.1 (a) Apportion blame and liability. (b) Determine the adequacy of insurance regulations. (c) Enforce regulations. (d) Prevent recurrences.

d

(94) When an aircraft accident occurs, the pilot or operator of the aircraft involved shall ensure that the particulars of the accident are reported to the TSB AIM GEN 3.3.1 (a) Within 7 days by registered mail. (b) Within 24 hours by telephone. (c) Within 48 hours by facsimile. (d) As soon as possible and by the quickest means available.

d

(95) TSB shall be notified of a reportable aviation accident when AIM GEN 3.2 (a) A person sustains serious or fatal injury as a result of being in or coming into direct contact with any part of an aircraft. (b) An aircraft sustains damage or structural failure adversely affecting performance or flight characteristics and requiring major repair or replacement. (c) An aircraft is missing or completely inaccessible. (d) Any of the above conditions exist.

d

(96) What circumstance(s) permit an aircraft to be moved without approval of the Minister after it has been involved in an accident which caused serious injury or death? When it becomes necessary to AIM GEN 3.4.1(1) (a) Rescue survivors. (b) Avoid danger to persons or property. (c) Prevent destruction by fire. (d) Implement (1), (2) or (3) above.

d

(97) The TSB considers missing aircraft to be AIM GEN 3.2 (a) A reportable aviation incident. (b) An occurrence which need not be reported. (c) An aviation incident which need not be reported. (d) A reportable aviation accident.

d

9) The medical validity period for a Private licence holder under 40 years of age with either a class 1 or 3 is ____months and for a licence holder 40 years of age and over is _____ months CARs 404.04(6) See Table. See also AIM LRA 1.7.2 (a) 60 months; 12 months (b) 36 months; 6 months (c) 24 months; 6 months (d) 60 months; 24 months

d

(104) Pilots with NORDO or RONLY should make arrangements with control Towers AIM RAC 4.4.5 & RAC 4.4.6 (a) For aircraft departures only ahead of time. (b) For aircraft arrivals only ahead of time. (c) Ahead of time before aircraft departures and arrivals. (d) Ahead of time RONLY only.

c

(105) Where there is a two-way radio communication failure and the aircraft is equipped with a transponder, set the transponder to Code to AIM RAC 4.4.8 (a) 7200 (b) 7500 (c) 7600 (d) 7700

c

(114) A new or replacing NOTAM without the term "APRX" is valid AIM MAP 5.6.2 (a) For 48 hours only. (b) For the day it was issued. (c) Until the time quoted in the NOTAM. (d) Until a cancelling NOTAM is issued.

c

(118) The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a jumbo jet aeroplane for at least AIM AIR 1.7 (a) 200 feet. (b) 450 feet. (c) 600 feet. (d) 750 feet.

c

(122) The Canadian nationality marks are the capital letters, CARs 202.03 AIM LRA 4.3 (a) G, CF and IF (b) C, CF and FI (c) C, CF and I (d) C, FC and I

c

(123) Air Operators such as Air Canada and holders of a flight training unit operator certificates has subscribed for liability insurance in the amount of, CARs 606.02 AIM LRA 4.8 (a) $3,000 times the number of passengers on board the aircraft (b) $30,000 times the number of passengers on board the aircraft (c) $300,000 times the number of passengers on board the aircraft (d) $3,000,000 times the number of passengers on board the aircraft

c

(14) No person operating an aircraft shall conduct aerobatic maneuvers. AIM RAC 1.11. See also CARs 602.27 (a) When flight visibility is less than two miles (b) Over a non-built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons (c) When flight visibility is less than three miles (d) Below 1000 feet AGL

c

(18) The pilot of a VFR aircraft operating at or below 12,500 feet (Low Level Airspace) has not been assigned a transponder code by ATC; he/she should squawk. AIM RAC 1.9.4 VFR Operation (a) 1400 (b) 3000 (c) 1200 (d) "STANDBY" until directed by ATC to squawk a given code

c

(19) Cruising altitudes are based on _______ in the Southern Domestic Airspace, and apply to all aircraft operating at heights of more than ________. AIM RAC 2.3.1. See also CARs 602.34 and Table (a) Magnetic tracks, 3,000 feet ASL. (a) True tracks, 3000 feet AGL. (c) Magnetic tracks, 3000 feet AGL. (d) True heading, 3,500 feet AGL.

c

(21) Within uncontrolled airspace, the minimum flight visibility at night above 1000 feet AGL is? AIM RAC 2.7.3 Table 2.7 VFR Weather Minima (a) Not less than 1 mile (b) Not less than 2 miles (c) Not less than 3 miles (d) Not less than 4 miles

c

(31) Would the regulations would be violated, if a pilot voluntarily landed an aeroplane in bright moonlight at an aerodrome where the length of the landing area was indicated by a single row of white lights? AGA 7.8, See also CARS 301.07(1) (a) There would be no violation, provided the lights were on the right side of the landing area. (b) There would be no violation, provided the aeroplane was equipped with a functioning landing light. (c) Yes, the regulations for aerodrome minimum lighting would have been violated. (d) There would be no violation, provided the lights were on the left side of the landing area.

c

(36) The minimum fuel requirement for night VFR is? CARs 602.88(3)(a)(ii) (a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 45 minutes (d) 60 minutes

c

(37) What is the appropriate flight authority that allows a flight for an aircraft which does not conform to applicable airworthiness standards, but is capable of safe flight? AIM LRA 5.3.4(3) See also CARs STANDARD 507.04(2) (a) Specific Purpose Flight Permit. (b) Scientific Research Flight Permit. (c) Flight Permit - Experimental. (d) Special Certificate of Airworthiness.

c

(38) Which instrument(s) is needed at night if flying beyond the immediate vicinity of the airport? AIM RAC ANNEX 2.0 "Power Driven Aircraft Night VFR" (f) See also CARs 605.16(f) (a) Two turn co-ordinators. (b) Backup generator warning light. (c) A stabilized magnetic direction indicator or a gyroscopic direction indicator (d) A second pressure sensitive altimeter.

c

(43)The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight in a control area is CARs 602.114 (a) 1 mile (b) 2 miles (c) 3 miles (d) 4 miles

c

(44) In Southern Domestic Airspace, the selection of a cruising altitude above 3,000 feet AGL shall be based on the? CARs 602.34 TABLE (a) True track (b) True heading (c) Magnetic track (d) Magnetic heading

c

(46) If your Private Pilot Licence is endorsed for night flying you may carry passengers at night provided you have completed at least . . . . . take-offs and landings by night in the same category and class of aircraft during the . . . . . months immediately preceding the flight. CARs401.05(2)(b)(i)(B) (a) 2, 3 (b) 3, 4 (c) 5, 6 (d) 10, 12

c

(47) Any person holding a licence, permit or certificate issued under the authority of the CARs shall produce such document for inspection, upon demand by CARs 103.02(2) (a) An airport owner or operator. (b) Any pilot holding a senior licence. (c) A peace officer, or immigration officer. (d) A pilot holding a valid instructor rating.

c

(51) No person shall fly or attempt to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if that person CARs 602.02 (a) Is less than 18 years of age. (b) Has consumed alcohol or drugs 48 hours prior to take-off. (c) Is suffering or is likely to suffer from fatigue. (d) Is over 60 years of age.

c

(54) Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes above 10,000 feet ASL but not exceeding 13,000 feet ASL, each crew member shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than ___ minutes in duration. (a) 15 minutes. (b) 20 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 45 minutes.

c

86)The owner of an aircraft shall retain every entry in a journey log for a period of not less than ...CARs 605.94 (a) One year (b) Two years (c) Three years (d) Four years

a

(15) No person operating an aircraft with a passenger on board shall conduct aerobatic maneuvers unless the pilot-in-command of the aircraft has engaged in AIM RAC 1.11 & CARs See also 602.28 (a) At least 10 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting of aerobatic manoeuvres or 20 hours conducting aerobatic manoeuvres; and at least one hour of conducting aerobatic manoeuvres in the preceding six months. (b) 15 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting of aerobatic manoeuvres. (c) 20 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting of aerobatic manoeuvres (d) At least 25 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting of aerobatic manoeuvres or 10 hours conducting aerobatic manoeuvres; and at least five hour of conducting aerobatic manoeuvres in the preceding six months.

a

(17) ATIS is the continuous broadcasting of recorded information for arriving and departing aircraft on a discrete VHF/UHF frequency. AIM RAC 1.3 (a) VOT/VOR or a discrete VHF/UHF frequency. (b) 126.7mhz only. (c) Tower frequency (d) Ground frequency.

a

(23) Airspace is indicated on a chart as "CYA 113(A). From this code, you know that. AIM RAC 2.8.6(c) (a) The airspace area is in British Columbia. (b) The airspace is restricted and you must not enter without user agency permission (c) The airspace is Class E and you may enter provided you are alert for traffic (d) The airspace is in Saskatchewan.

a

(25) A VFR flight plan or VFR flight itinerary is mandatory for all flights, except. AIM RAC 3.6.1. See also CARs 602.73 (a) Where the flight is conducted within 25 NM of the departure aerodrome (b) Where the flight is conducted within 20 NM of the departure aerodrome. (c) Where the flight is conducted within 25 NM of the departure aerodrome and for flight to the U.S. (d) Where the pilot in command has filed a flight itinerary with a responsible person.

a

(27) With regard to wake turbulence and pilot waivers. AIM RAC 4.1.1 Pilot Waivers (a)(b)&(c) (a) Waiver are not given to a light or medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft and takeoff is started from an intersection or a point significantly further along the runway, in the direction of takeoff. (b) Wavers are given to a light or medium aircraft departing after a heavy aircraft takes off or makes a low or missed approach in the opposite direction on the same runway. (c) Wavers are given to a light or medium aircraft departing after a heavy aircraft makes a low or missed approach in the same direction on the same runway. (d) None of the above

a

(3) 3-BAR VASIS intended to serve wide-bodied aircraft with an. EWH AGA 7.6.2.2 (a) EWH up to 7.5 m (25 ft). (b) EWH up to 15 m (45 ft). (c) EWH up to three metres (ten feet). (d) EWH up to 14 m (45 ft).

a

(30) The procedure for simultaneous operations on intersecting runways apply only between: AIM RAC 4.4.9 (a) Two airplanes that are both arriving, or one is arriving and the other is departing. (b) Two airplanes that have the same approach speed. (c) Two airplanes that have the same climb speed. (d) Two airplanes that are both departing.

a

(42) When in VFR flight within the altimeter setting region, the altimeter should be set to? CARs 602.35(b) (a) The current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight. (b) 29.92 in. Hg. or 1013.2 mb. (c) The station pressure of the nearest weather reporting station. (d) The standard altimeter setting.

a

(48) The signal to an aircraft in flight which means "give way to other aircraft and continue circling" is AIM RAC 4.2.11 (a) A steady red light. (b) A series of green flashes. (c) An intermittent white light. (d) A succession of pyrotechnics showing red and green stars on bursting.

a

(5) The movement area includes. AIM GEN 5.1 Glossary of Aeronautical Terms See also Apron and maneuvering area (a) The maneuvering areas and apron. (b) The maneuvering areas only. (c) The apron only. (d) Areas reserved for wide turning aircraft.

a

(52) No person shall walk, drive or park a vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled aerodrome used for the movement of aircraft except in accordance with permission given by CARs 301.08 (a) The operator of the aerodrome. (b) A qualified representative of a commercial air service being operated from the aerodrome. (c) A Federal Peace Officer. (d) The aerodrome UNICOM operator.

a

(58) When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall, AIM RAC 1.10 and CARs 602.19 (a) Alter heading to the right. (b) Alter heading to the left. (c) Avoid the other by changing altitude. (d) Turn on the anti-collision lights.

a

(69) When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall, AIM RAC 1.10 and CARs 602.19(5) (a) Alter heading to the right. (b) Alter heading to the left. (c) Avoid the other by changing altitude. (d) Turn on the anti-collision lights.

a

(7) CANPASS is designed for a? AIM FAL 2.3.3 (a) Private Aircraft Program (b) An airline getting around customs (c) Military Operation (d) Canadian registered aircraft only

a

(78)The authorization for SVFR is normally obtained through? AIM RAC 2.7.3 (a) A local tower or a FSS. (b) A local tower only. (c) Only control towers in Class C control zones. (d) A local tower for day flight.

a

(81) A Mandatory Frequency (MF)? AIM RAC 4.5.1 (a) Area is 5 miles in radius that extend up to 3,000 ft AAE. (b) Is associated with an area that is 10 miles in radius. (c) Is an area that extend up to 2,200 ft AGL. (d) MF are at airports with no instrument approaches or Flight Service Stations.

a

(84) Where the pilot-in-command or the in-charge flight attendant directs that safety belts be fastened, and there are infants, CARs 605.26 (a) No passenger shall be responsible for more than one infant. (b) No passenger shall be responsible for more than two infants. (c) No passenger shall be responsible for more than three infants. (d) Only cabin staff have responsibility for infants

a

(89) When in VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least, CARs 602.114 (a) 500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally. (b) 500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally. (c) 1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally. (d) 1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.

a

(93) Details on civil aviation accident reporting procedures can be found in the AIM GEN 3.3 (a) TC AIM (b) Canadian Aviation Regulations. (c) Canada Flight Supplement. (d) Aviation Safety Manual.

a

(55) A pilot-in-command of an aircraft who terminates a flight in respect of which a flight itinerary has been filed shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio station as soon as practicable after landing but not later than the search and rescue action initiation time specified in the flight itinerary; or CARs 602.77 AIM RAC 3.12 (a) Immediately after landing. (b) Within 60 minutes after the last reported estimated time of arrival. (c) Where no search and rescue action initiation time is specified in the flight itinerary, 24 hours after the last reported estimated time of arrival. (d) Within 45minutes after the last reported estimated time of arrival .

c

(61) Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight entering Class C airspace Must AIM RAC 2.8.3 (a) Request a clearance from the appropriate ATC unit immediately after entering. (b) Establish radio contact with the appropriate ATC unit only when transiting the associated control zone. (c) Receive a clearance from the appropriate ATC unit prior to entering. (d) Contact radar service only when taking off or landing at the associated airport.

c

(70) When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o'clock position, at your altitude, you should AIM RAC 1.10 and CARs 602.19(6) (a) Climb. (b) Descend. (c) Alter heading to the right. (d) Alter heading to the left.

c

(8) What is the appropriate flight authority for an aircraft used in aeronautical research or showing compliance with airworthiness standards? AIM LRA 5.3.4(2) See also CARs STANDARD 507.04(1)(a)&(2) (a) Specific Purpose Flight Permit. (b) Scientific Research Flight Permit. (c) Flight Permit - Experimental. (d) Special Certificate of Airworthiness.

c

(82) The common mandatory frequency is? AIM RAC 4.5.1 (a) 132.3 (b) 123.3 (c) 123.2 (d) 133.2

c

(87) A person may conduct a take-off in an aircraft without carrying the journey log on board where CARs 605.95 (a) The flight will last only one hour (b) A flight itinerary is filed (c) It is not planned that the aircraft will land and shut down at any location other than the point of departure. (d) The flight will last only a half hour

c

(99) Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of AIM RAC 4.5.5 (a) 121.5 MHz. (b) 122.2 MHz. (c) 123.2 MHz. (d) 126.7 MHz.

c

(103) Which of the following would require a CIRVIS report AIM RAC 1.12.1 (a) A bad landing (b) Turning the wrong way after take-off (c) Using the wrong call sign (d) An unauthorized person on an airport ramp

d

(106) VExcept for ultra-light aeroplanes and balloons, which documents shall be carried on board when flying a radio equipped Canadian privately registered aircraft? Items A, B and AIM LRA 1.1 A. Certificate of Airworthiness or Flight Permit. B. Certificate of Registration. C. Technical log. D. Crew licences. E. Radiotelephone Operator's Restricted Certificate. F. Type certificate. G. Aircraft journey log book, unless otherwise authorized by the Minister. H. Proof of liability insurance. (a) C, D, E, G. (b) C, D, F, H. (c) D, E, F, G. (d) D, E, G, H.

d

(107) Using the above information below, what time should be entered in the "Elapsed Time" box of a VFR flight plan? CARs 602.77 Estimated elapsed time A to B 1 hour 10 minutes Estimated stop over time B 20 minutes Estimated elapsed time B to C 1 hour 20 minutes (a) 2 hours 30 minutes (b) 2 hours 20 minutes (c) 2 hours (d) 2 hours 50 minutes

d

(11) Flight crew members who require decompression stops on the way to the surface when scuba diving should not fly for? AIM AIR 3.4 (a) 4 hours. (b) 8 hours. (c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours.

d

(111) All accidental ELT activations should be reported to the AIM SAR 3.7 (a) Airport manager. (b) R.C.M.P. (c) Minister. (d) Nearest ATS unit.

d

(115) The term "APRX" when contained in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid AIM MAP 5.2 (a) For approximately 24 hours. (b) For approximately 48 hours. (c) Until the time quoted in the NOTAM. (d) Until a cancelling or replacing NOTAM is issued.

d

(12) Any pilot who has had a general anesthetic should not act as a flight crew member AIM AIR 3.11 (a) During the next 12 hrs. (b) During the next 36 hrs (c) During the next 48 hrs. (d) Unless advised it is safe to do so by a doctor.

d

(124) Certificates of Airworthiness are issued for aircraft that fit the categories of CARs 605.03 507 Standards AIM LRA 5.3 (a) Aeroplane in utility, aerobatics, commuter and transport (b) Aeroplanes in aerobatics, commuter and transport (c) Aeroplanes in the normal, utility, aerobatics and commuter (d) Aeroplanes in the normal, utility, aerobatics, commuter and transport

d

(126) Importation or exportation flights are related to CARs 605.03 507 Standards AIM LRA 5.3 (a) Flight Permit—Experimental (b) Special Certificates of Airworthiness (c) Certificates of Airworthiness (d) Flight Permit—Specific Purpose

d

(22) What are the special VFR requirements for RONLY aircraft? AIM RAC 2.7.3 . See also CARs 602.117(2)(c) (a) 1 mile visibility, clear of cloud, minimum height 500 feet AGL. (b) Ceiling 800 feet, visibility 1 sm. (c) Ceiling 800 feet, visibility 2 sm (d) Special VFR is not authorized for RONLY aircraft.

d

(24) No person shall operate an aircraft over a forest fire area, or over any area that is located within ____ nautical miles of a forest fire area, at an altitude of less than _______ feet AGL? AIM RAC 2.9.2. See also CARs 601 15,16, 17 (a) 5: 5,000 (b) 3; 3,000 (c) 3; 5,000 (d) 5; 3,000

d

(26) When should ATC or FSS be notified when a pilot makes an in flight deviation in route or altitude from that indicated on the VFR flight plan. AIM RAC 3.7. See also CARs 602.76(3)&(4) (a) Immediately after landing. (b) Within 60 minutes of landing. (c) As soon as possible (d) As soon as practicable

d

(29) A land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance is based on an airport having Simultaneous Operations and that? AIM RAC 4.4.9 (a) Only a partial read back is required for a LASO to save time. (b) A pilot can disregard a LASO clearance if he so wishes. (c) Is based on the landing as close to the threshold as possible (d) One of the aircraft has accepted a clearance to land and hold short of the intersecting runways

d

(32) "High-performance aeroplane", with respect to a rating, means CARs 400.01(1) definition -"high-performance aeroplane". See also CARs Standards 507 Appendix - F (a) An aeroplane that is specified in the minimum flight crew document as requiring only one pilot and that has a maximum speed (Vne) of 210 KIAS or greater or a stall speed (Vso) of 90 KIAS or greater, (b) An aeroplane that is specified in the minimum flight crew document as requiring only one pilot and that has a maximum speed (Vne) of 240 KIAS or greater or stall speed (Vso) of 80 KIAS or greater, (c) An aeroplane that is specified in the minimum flight crew document as requiring only one pilot and that has a maximum speed (Vne) of 250 KIAS or greater or a stall speed (Vso) of 90 KIAS or greater, (d) An aeroplane that is specified in the minimum flight crew document as requiring only one pilot and that has a maximum speed (Vne) of 250 KIAS or greater or a stall speed (Vso) of 80 KIAS or greater,

d

(33) No person shall operate an aircraft in formation with other aircraft except by pre-arrangement between CARs 602.24(a)(b) (a) The team leader and written permission from Transport Canada (b) The pilots-in-command of the aircraft in any airspace. (c) Where the flight is conducted within a control zone, the pilots-in-command and the appropriate air traffic control unit. (d) Both (b) and (c)

d