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15) If all of the glial cells of the nervous system were destroyed, which of the following would occur? A) Less than 20 percent of the cells of the nervous system would remain. B) Only the PNS would be adversely affected. C) The mass of the nervous system would be reduced by about 25 percent. D) The rate of neuronal replacement would decline significantly. E) The choroid plexus could not generate CSF.

A

21) If the point of an extremely small probe were passed into a satellite cell, it would be located in which region of the nervous system? A) near a cell body in a ganglion of the PNS B) near the axon of a neuron in the CNS C) near the lining of the ventricles of the brain D) at a neuromuscular synapse E) None of the answers are correct.

A

29) Axons extending from a peripheral ganglion to an effector are called A) postganglionic fibers. B) ganglionic fibers. C) preganglionic fibers. D) efferent fibers. E) afferent fibers.

A

35) The functional classifications of neurons includes ________, which carry information toward the CNS. A) sensory neurons B) interneurons C) motor neurons D) axoplasmic neurons E) All of the answers are correct.

A

38) Because a neuron loses its centrioles, A) it is rendered incapable of dividing. B) it cannot grow as quickly as neurons that retain their centrioles. C) it loses its normal ability to produce a myelin sheath. D) it is probably located in the PNS. E) All of the answers are correct.

A

40) Injured neurons can recover their functional capabilities if A) the oxygen and nutrient supplies are restored. B) the cause of the damage is removed within a period of weeks. C) the cells can divide enough times to replace those that are lost. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

51) At a vesicular synapse the neurons communicate by A) neurotransmitters. B) communicating junctions. C) terminal arborizations. D) nodes. E) internodes.

A

52) The effects of a neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic membrane include which of the following? A) Excitatory or inhibitory responses. B) Neurotransmitter molecules are absorbed by the postsynaptic cell. C) The neurotransmitter floats around in the synaptic cleft. D) Upon stimulation, the membrane releases more neurotransmitter molecules. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

55) A neuron might be temporarily unable to transmit an impulse to another if A) its supply of neurotransmitters is exhausted. B) the neurons are of different types. C) the levels of microglia are too low. D) there are too many astrocytes present. E) you are asleep.

A

61) Which of the following is gray matter? A) neural cortex B) columns C) tracts D) ganglia E) nerves

A

Loss of sensation and motor control of the lower limbs is called A) paraplegia. B) quadriplegia. C) hemiplegia. D) aplegia. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

The middle layer of the meninges is (the) A) arachnoid mater. B) pia mater. C) periosteum. D) dura mater. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

The narrow space just inside the dura mater that is seen in histological preparations is called the A) subdural space. B) supradural space. C) epidural space. D) subarachnoid space. E) peridural space.

A

The nerve most active during sexual activity is (the) A) pudendal nerve. B) lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. C) genitofemoral nerve. D) superior gluteal nerve. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

The pia mater is the A) innermost of the meninges. B) outermost covering over the brain, but not the spinal cord. C) toughest and thickest of the meninges. D) menix that appears "webby" and contains cerebrospinal fluid. E) All of the answers are correct.

A

Which of the following conditions may produce spinal shock? A) injuries to the spinal cord B) over exercising of the skeletal muscles C) abrasion of the epidermis of an extremity D) a moderately severe blow to the head E) None of the answers are correct.

A

Which of the following connective tissue wrappings contains the entire nerve? A) epineurium B) endoneurium C) perineurium D) neurilemma E) fascicle

A

3) The anatomical subdivisions of the nervous system are (the) A) central and peripheral nervous systems. B) dorsal and ventral nervous systems. C) appendicular and axial nervous systems. D) autonomic and somatic nervous systems. E) None of the answers are correct.

A) the central and peripheral nervous systems

12) Neuroglia in the nervous system function to A) carry nerve impulses. B) support the neurons. C) process information in the nervous system. D) transfer nerve impulses from the brain to the spinal cord. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

18) Microglia are (the) A) most numerous neuroglial cell. B) smallest neuroglial cell. C) not a neuroglial cell. D) least numerous neuroglial cell. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

19) Which of the following neuroglia produce cerebrospinal fluid? A) astrocytes B) ependymal cells C) microglia D) oligodendrocytes E) satellite cells

B

23) Myelin is (a) A) cell body. B) mostly lipid. C) special cell that protects neurons. D) special area of the brain. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

24) Areas of a myelinated axon that are not covered by myelin are called A) internodes. B) nodes. C) gray matter. D) white matter. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

25) The outermost covering of a myelinated axon is called (the) A) axolemma. B) neurolemma. C) sarcolemma. D) internode. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

32) Action potentials result from A) closing of ion channels. B) abrupt changing of the transmembrane potential. C) opening of calcium gates. D) neurons transporting neurotransmitters. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

37) Movement of nutrients, wastes, and organelles between the cell body and axon terminals is called A) axonal transport. B) axoplasmic transport. C) osmosis. D) diffusion. E) neurofibular contraction.

B

41) In the process known as Wallerian degeneration, A) the axon proximal to the injury degenerates. B) macrophages remove the debris of damaged axons. C) Schwann cells completely degenerate. D) no trace is left of the path taken by a previous axon. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

43) The rate of conduction of a nerve impulse depends upon A) properties of the soma of the neuron. B) the presence or absence of a myelin sheath. C) the number of cell dendrites. D) the type of neurotransmitter present. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

44) Nerve impulse transmission between cells of the CNS without any delay can be attributed to A) the presence of a neuromuscular synapse between the cells. B) communicating junctions that permit the passage of ions between the cells. C) the activity of Schwann cells. D) the number of neurons in the chain. E) drinking an energy drink.

B

46) In the case of most neurons, the arrival of a nerve impulse at the terminal bouton immediately triggers A) a change in the permeability of the postsynaptic plasmalemma. B) release of ACh at the presynaptic membrane. C) generation of an action potential in the axon. D) long-lived effects at the synaptic membrane. E) an action potential.

B

50) A nerve impulse triggers events at a synapse or junction that A) usually connect the cell bodies of two neurons directly. B) transfer information either to another neuron or to an effector cell. C) continue to respond only if it is myelinated. D) are always inhibitory unless followed by similar impulses. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

53) Neurotransmitters are A) produced on command. B) stored in synaptic vesicles. C) never recycled. D) released only at nonvesicular synapses. E) produced by astrocytes.

B

56) What is the correct sequence of events at a synapse? (1) neurotransmitter release/diffusion (2) generation of action potential in the postsynaptic cell axon (3) arrival of nerve impulse at synaptic knob in presynaptic cell (4) removal of neurotransmitter molecules from receptors (5) binding of neurotransmitter to receptors A) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 C) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 E) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3

B

58) An inhibitory response A) makes an action potential more likely. B) makes an action potential less likely. C) directly causes an action potential. D) causes ACh release. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

59) When a neural pathway splits to involve many areas of the nervous system, the type of processing is known as A) parallel. B) diverging. C) converging. D) serial. E) reverberating.

B

6) Receptors may be classified as A) effectors and muscles. B) somatic and visceral. C) glands and muscles. D) voluntary and involuntary. E) subconscious and conscious.

B

62) The surface of the brain is called the A) higher center. B) neural cortex. C) neuronal nuclei. D) white matter. E) basal nuclei.

B

64) Areas of gray matter in the interior of the CNS form larger groups called A) spinal nerves. B) nuclei. C) cranial nerves. D) columns. E) reverberating neurons.

B

A bundle of nerve fibers is surrounded by A) epineurium. B) perineurium. C) endoneurium. D) neurilemma. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

Activation of a motor neuron during the processing of a reflex action A) occurs instantaneously, with the start of the stimulation. B) carries the nerve impulse to the peripheral effector organs. C) typically enhances the original stimulus that triggered the reflex. D) sends a response to peripheral structures by way of the dorsal root of a spinal nerve. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

Axons crossing over in the cord pass through the A) anterior white commissure. B) gray commissure. C) posterior white commissure. D) anterior gray horns. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

Caudal extensions of the dura and pia mater that connect to the sacrum and coccyx make up (the) A) denticulate ligaments. B) coccygeal ligament. C) cordosacral ligament. D) inferior ligament of the spinal cord. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

Components of the central nervous system (CNS) include A) peripheral nerves and ganglia. B) the spinal cord and brain. C) autonomic components only. D) efferent components only. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

Gluteus maximus is innervated by (the) A) superior gluteal nerve. B) inferior gluteal nerve. C) sciatic nerve. D) pudendal nerve. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

How do higher centers in the brain influence reflexive motor activities? A) They don't; reflexes are unaffected by activity in higher centers. B) They can enhance or suppress spinal reflexes via descending tracts. C) They influence only the lowest, most stereotyped, levels of motor control. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

Striking of the medial epicondyle of the humerus often compresses the ________ nerve. A) median B) ulnar C) radial D) axillary E) None of the answers are correct.

B

Testing of a tendon reflex often permits the diagnostician to determine the specific site of nerve damage. A poor biceps tendon response would indicate injury or damage to which spinal segment(s)? A) C4 B) C5- C7 C) C8 and T1 D) C6—C9 E) C3—C6

B

The H-shaped mass in the center of the spinal cord is mostly A) white matter. B) gray matter. C) axons. D) black matter. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

The cervical spinal cord A) contains a smaller amount of gray matter than in other areas of the spinal cord. B) supplies the shoulder girdle and upper limb. C) is smaller in diameter than other regions of the spinal cord. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

The median nerve A) arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus. B) arises from both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus. C) arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. D) innervates the pronators of the forearm. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

The meninges include A) different layers for the brain and the spinal cord. B) pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater from the inside outward. C) pia mater, dura mater, and venous sinuses from the outside inward. D) two layers of transverse collagen fibers. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

The only nerve of the brachial plexus that forms without the mixing of nerve trunks is the ________ nerve. A) long thoracic B) dorsal scapular C) subclavius D) suprascapular E) subscapular

B

The spinal nerves enter and exit the vertebral canal through the A) dorsal root. B) intervertebral foramen. C) ventral root. D) vertebral foramen. E) transverse foramen.

B

The stretch reflex A) is activated anytime a limb or other body segment is extended. B) is exemplified by the knee jerk, or patellar, reflex. C) if functioning normally, indicates that spinal segments T12—L1 are intact. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

B

The stretch reflex innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve is the A) patellar reflex. B) biceps reflex. C) triceps reflex. D) ankle jerk reflex. E) abdominal reflex.

B

The ulnar nerve receives sensory information from the A) pollex. B) fifth digit of the hand. C) hallux. D) upper arm. E) lateral forearm.

B

Which of the following is a nerve of the cervical plexus? A) median nerve B) lesser occipital nerve C) nerve to subclavius D) axillary nerve E) All of the answers are correct.

B

Which of the following regions of the spinal cord follows typical segmenting without mixing roots? A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) All of the answers are correct.

B

28) Demyelination A) is the addition of myelin to the axon. B) is the thickening of the myelin sheath. C) is the gradual reduction in myelin. D) only affects Schwann cells. E) only affects oligodendrocytes.

C

30) The portion of a neuron that carries information in the form of a nerve impulse is called the A) soma. B) Nissl body. C) axon. D) dendrite. E) myelin.

C

34) The structural classification of a neuron is based upon A) the size of the dendrites. B) the number of axons. C) the number of processes that project from the cell body. D) the type of chemical neurotransmitter it secretes. E) the overall size of the cell.

C

57) A neuron pool is A) a group of identical nerve cells. B) a group of neurons linked by communicating junctions. C) a group of interconnected neurons with specific functions. D) the group of neurons available to regenerate a damaged nerve. E) a group of neurons linked by electrical synapses.

C

60) The process of reverberation involves A) a negative feedback loop through nerve circuits. B) a single repeat of a stimulus prior to extinction. C) extension of collateral axons back toward the source of an impulse and further stimulation of the presynaptic neurons. D) several neuronal pools processing information at one time. E) All of the answers are correct.

C

63) Organized masses of axons and neuron cell bodies in both the CNS and the PNS A) are usually demyelinated. B) are called neuroglia. C) have distinct anatomical boundaries. D) compose the neural cortex. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

7) A group of neuron cell bodies in the CNS that has a descrete boundary is called a A) soma. B) ganglion. C) nucleus. D) column. E) center.

C

8) Muscles, glands, and special cells that respond to neural stimuli are called A) receptors. B) reflexes. C) effectors. D) axons. E) dendrites.

C

A needle used in a spinal tap must be inserted until its tip is in the A) arachnoid mater. B) epidural space. C) subarachnoid space. D) subdural space. E) peridural space.

C

Extensors of the thigh are controlled by the A) tibial nerve. B) fibular nerve. C) femoral nerve. D) obturator nerve. E) iliohypogastric nerve.

C

Higher brain centers are able to A) have no effect on reflexes. B) act only to suppress spinal reflexes. C) influence spinal reflexes in a series of interactive levels. D) take part after the individual chooses to permit the reflex to proceed. E) train the spinal cord.

C

In the correct order, the steps involved in a neural reflex are: (1) information processing (2) activation of a sensory neuron (3) arrival of a stimulus and activation of a receptor (4) activation of a motor neuron (5) response of a peripheral effector A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 D) 1, 4, 5, 3, 2 E) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

C

In the simplest reflex arc, A) a sensory neuron contacts few interneurons before synapsing on a motor neuron. B) the response is produced by a polysynaptic chain of at least ten neurons. C) the sensory neuron synapses directly with on a motor neuron. D) transmission of the impulse from one cell in the arc to another is electrical. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

Motor fibers travel in the ________ of the spinal cord. A) ascending tract B) medial tract C) descending tract D) posterior tract E) None of the answers are correct.

C

Polysynaptic reflexes can produce far more complicated responses than monosynaptic reflexes because A) the response time is quicker. B) the response is initiated by highly sensitive receptors. C) the interneurons involved can trigger many muscle groups. D) motor neurons carry impulses at a faster rate than do sensory neurons. E) interneurons speed up processing.

C

Posterior upper limb muscles are innervated by the A) musculocutaneous nerve. B) ulnar nerve. C) radial nerve. D) median nerve. E) axillary nerve.

C

Spinal nerves extending distal to the conus medullaris are collectively referred to as the A) filum terminale. B) denticulate ligaments. C) cauda equina. D) spinal meninges. E) motor neurons.

C

Splanchnic nerves A) innervate glands and smooth muscles in the body wall. B) are unmyelinated. C) control abdominopelvic viscera. D) rejoin the spinal nerves. E) form part of the rami communicantes.

C

The biceps femoris and the tibialis anterior are innervated by the ________ nerve. A) iliohypogastric B) pudential C) fibular D) inferior gluteal E) lateral femoral cutaneous

C

The body surface region monitored by a specific pair of spinal nerves is called (a) A) ramus communicans. B) ventral ramus. C) dermatome. D) perineurium. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

The largest nerve in the body that is formed from L4-S3 is the A) tibial. B) brachial. C) sciatic. D) radial. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

The levator scapulae, scalenes, and sternocleidomastoid are innervated by the ________ plexus. A) brachial B) lumbar C) cervical D) neck E) axillary

C

The meshwork of elastic fibers that make the arachnoid mater look "webby" are (the) A) arachnoid granulations. B) arachnoid extensions. C) arachnoid trabeculae. D) subarachnoid spaces. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

The nuclei in the spinal cord that contain the cell bodies of the visceral motor neurons are located in (the) A) posterior gray horn. B) anterior gray horn. C) lateral gray horn. D) gray commissures. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

The pia mater is connected to the dura mater to anchor the spinal cord in place at paired structures called A) coccygeal ligaments. B) the conus medullaris. C) denticulate ligaments. D) the filum terminale. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

The reason the lumbar plexus and sacral plexus are sometimes referred to as the lumbosacral plexus is because A) they have a very large connection between them. B) they are so close together. C) they innervate the same area of the body. D) they both carry only sensory information. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains A) axons of sensory neurons. B) ventral rami. C) axons of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of motor neurons. E) interneurons.

C

What is the correct order of passage for visceral motor fibers on their way to a spinal nerve? (1) autonomic ganglion (2) ventral root (3) gray ramus (4) lateral gray horn (5) white ramus A) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 B) 1, 4, 5, 2, 3 C) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 E) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

C

Which is the correct order of mixing in the brachial plexus? A) root, cord, trunk, peripheral nerves, division B) division, peripheral nerves, cord, trunk, root C) root, trunk, division, cord, peripheral nerves D) trunk, peripheral nerves, cord, division, root E) None of the answers are correct.

C

Which of the following is true of receptors? A) They are present in the peripheral parts of the body only. B) Structurally, they are similar to glandular tissue. C) They monitor conditions inside the body or in the external environment. D) All types are capable of responding to all types of stimuli. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

11) Cells responsible for information processing and transfer are A) astrocytes. B) neuroglia. C) Schwann cells. D) neurons. E) All of the answers are correct.

D

13) Which of the following selections lists only types of glial cells? A) astrocytes and parenchymal cells B) apocrine and exocrine cells C) merocrine, platelet, and ependymal cells D) microglia, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells E) None of the answers are correct.

D

16) Which type of cell can only be found in the central nervous system? A) neurons B) satellite cells C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes E) None of the answers are correct.

D

17) Satellite cells surround the cell bodies of peripheral neurons, which can be found in (the) A) nuclei. B) peripheral centers. C) roots. D) ganglia. E) All of the answers are correct.

D

20) If the CNS was susceptible to a drug that should not affect it, this might indicate damage to which of the following cells? A) microglia B) Schwann cells C) satellite cells D) astrocytes E) ependymal cells

D

22) A biopsy of infected or injured tissue from the CNS will most likely show an elevated number of A) ependymal cells. B) oligodendrocytes. C) satellite cells. D) microglia. E) interneurons.

D

26) Areas of the nervous system that are dense in myelinated axons are referred to as A) arachnoid mater. B) gray matter. C) dura mater. D) white matter. E) pia matter.

D

27) To contact a Schwann cell, where would a microprobe have to be inserted in the nervous system? A) anywhere in the CNS B) near or at a neuron cell body C) alongside an unmyelinated axon in the CNS D) along any axon in the PNS, myelinated or not E) None of the answers are correct.

D

31) Which of the following structures do not contribute to the coarse grainy appearance of the perikaryon of a neuron? A) mitochondria B) free and fixed ribosomes C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) All of the answers are correct.

D

36) Involuntary cardiac muscle fibers on the heart are innervated by A) sensoriganglionic fibers. B) preganglionic fibers. C) somatic motor fibers. D) visceral motor fibers. E) All of the answers are correct.

D

42) Generation of an action potential at an axon of a neuron may be caused by A) stimulation of any portion of the dendrites of the neuron. B) input from various presynaptic cells. C) a change in the number of Schwann cells surrounding the axon. D) stimulation of any portion of the dendrites of the neuron and/or input from various presynaptic cells. E) All of the answers are correct.

D

45) Over 50 different neurotransmitters have been identified, but the best known is A) norepinephrine. B) epinephrine. C) glutamate. D) acetylcholine. E) GABA.

D

47) Nonvesicular synapses are unique because they have A) two interacting neurons. B) neurotransmitter release. C) a postsynaptic membrane. D) a communicating junction. E) receptor proteins.

D

49) A communicating junction acts to facilitate A) the passage of neurotransmitters between cells. B) growth of Schwann cells. C) a change in the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane. D) the passage of ions between the cells. E) All of the answers are correct.

D

65) Pathways that connect the CNS with effectors are A) motor pathways. B) descending pathways. C) efferent pathways. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

D

A motor neuron going out to smooth muscles of the stomach will pass through the A) gray ramus. B) ventral ramus. C) dorsal ramus. D) white ramus. E) All of the answers are correct.

D

All of the following are true of fiber tracts in the spinal cord except A) all axons within a tract relay information in the same direction. B) each tract carries sensory or motor information, but not both. C) axons of a single tract are relatively uniform in diameter, myelination, and conduction speed. D) the tracts are randomly located with respect to the type of information carried. E) None of the answers are correct.

D

Select the association that is most closely matched. A) anterior—sensory B) anterior—integrative C) posterior—motor D) posterior—sensory E) None of the answers are correct.

D

Spinal reflexes A) include monosynaptic reflexes only. B) involve only a single segment of the spinal cord. C) always transmit information to the brain for processing. D) include both monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes. E) are monosynaptic and involve only one segment of the cord.

D

The innermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds each axon is the A) fascicle. B) fasciculus. C) epineurium. D) endoneurium. E) perineurium.

D

The large connection between the lumbar and sacral plexuses is called (the) A) sciatic nerve. B) tibial nerve. C) pelvic plexus. D) lumbosacral trunk. E) None of the answers are correct.

D

The medial muscles of the thigh are innervated by the A) iliohypogastric nerve. B) genitofemoral nerve. C) femoral nerve. D) obturator nerve. E) saphenous nerve.

D

The subarachnoid space is A) between the arachnoid mater and the underlying dura mater. B) filled with fat. C) between the arachnoid mater and the periosteum. D) filled with cerebrospinal fluid. E) a potential space only.

D

The ulnar nerve is found in the ________ plexus. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) brachial E) sacral

D

The ventral root of a spinal nerve transmits ________ information ________ the spinal cord. A) sensory; toward B) sensory; away from C) motor; toward D) motor; away from E) visceral; toward

D

2) The central nervous system (CNS) includes the A) brain. B) spinal cord. C) nerves. D) brain and spinal cord. E) nerves and muscles.

D) the brain and spinal cord

10) Pathways leading from the receptors to the CNS are called A) afferent pathways. B) efferent pathways. C) sensory pathways. D) motor pathways. E) both afferent and sensory pathways.

E

14) The activity of the nervous system is dependent upon A) large amounts of energy. B) cellular connections. C) a proper extracellular environment. D) a proper intracellular environment. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

33) The area that connects the cell body to the axon is called the A) neurofibril. B) Nissl body. C) axoplasm. D) initial segment. E) axon hillock.

E

39) Which of the following are most closely involved with somatic sensory neurons? A) visceral sensory neurons B) bipolar neurons C) interoceptors D) proprioceptors E) exteroceptors

E

48) Which of the following are examples of neuroeffector synapses? A) neuromuscular synapse B) neuroglandular synapse C) neuroneural synapse D) neuroaxonic synapses E) both neuromuscular synapse and neuroglandular synapse

E

5) Functions of the peripheral nervous system include A) providing sensory information to the CNS only. B) making higher order decisions to interpret sensory inputs. C) carrying motor commands to the peripheral tissues and systems only. D) carrying information up and down the spinal cord. E) providing sensory information to the CNS and carrying motor commands to the peripheral tissues and systems.

E

54) Types of synapses include which of the following? A) axoaxonic B) axodendritic C) axosomatic D) neuroeffector synapses E) All of the answers are correct.

E

9) Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands are under the control of the A) somatic nervous system. B) parasympathetic division. C) sympathetic division. D) central nervous system. E) autonomic nervous system.

E

Generally speaking, the nerves of the lumbar plexus control the A) anterior thigh. B) medial thigh. C) abdominal muscles. D) skin of the medial side of the knee. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

The blood vessels that directly supply the spinal cord are found in the A) dura mater. B) epidural space. C) subarachnoid space. D) arachnoid mater. E) pia mater.

E

The cervical plexus A) consists of the ventral rami of spinal nerves C1—C4, and some fibers from C5. B) gives rise to motor branches that innervate the muscles of the neck. C) gives rise to the phrenic nerve, which provides the sole motor supply to the diaphragm. D) gives rise to branches that supply the skin of the neck, shoulder, and upper chest region. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

The epidural space contains A) cerebrospinal fluid. B) lymph. C) denticulate ligaments. D) gray matter. E) connective tissue and blood vessels.

E

The nerve immediately inferior to the 12th rib is the A) sciatic nerve. B) phrenic nerve. C) abdominal nerve. D) ilioinguinal nerve. E) 12th intercostal or thoracic nerve

E

The spinal meninges function to A) protect the spinal cord. B) stabilize the spinal cord. C) absorb shocks to the spinal cord. D) assist in delivering nutrients and oxygen to the spinal cord. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Which of the following are nerves of the posterior division of the brachial plexus? A) radial nerve B) axillary nerve C) musculocutaneous nerve D) ulnar nerve E) both radial and axillary nerves

E

Which of the following arises from the lumbar portion of the lumbosacral plexus? A) superior gluteal nerve B) peroneal nerve C) tibial nerve D) pudendal nerve E) saphenous nerve

E

Which of the following is (are) true of a motor response triggered by a reflex stimulus? A) It can be simple or complex, depending upon the reflex arc involved. B) It may involve responses from interactions between multiple interneuron pools. C) It may cause a strong action, because the effector organ acts in an unopposed manner. D) It may be damped by mediation from the centers in the brain. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Which of the following nerves innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle? A) subscapular nerves B) suprascapular nerves C) musculocutaneous nerve D) axillary nerve E) thoracodorsal nerve

E

Which spinal segments have been damaged if a person has difficulty typing? A) C1 and C2 B) C3 and C4 C) C5—C6 D) C5—C7 E) C8—T1

E

Which stretch reflex is the most appropriate to test when attempting to diagnose damage to the radial nerve? A) the knee jerk B) the ankle jerk C) the biceps tendon jerk D) the brachioradialis tendon jerk E) the triceps jerk

E

While sliding into second base a baseball player fractures his fibula. Which nerve and its branches need to be assessed for damage? A) superior gluteal nerve B) genitofemoral nerve C) saphenous nerve D) sciatic nerve E) common fibular nerve

E

4) Subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) include A) the somatic nervous system. B) the autonomic nervous system. C) the special sensory receptors. D) the visceral sensory receptors. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) all of the answers are correct

1) Functions of the nervous system include which of the following? A) controlling and adjusting the activities of the other systems B) receiving input from the senses C) stimulating muscles and glands to contract D) integrating and processing data E) All of the answers are correct.

E. All of the answers are correct


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