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A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?

1022

You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal?

1030.0.0/19

What is the fastest Ethernet standard that can possibly be used on twisted-pair cabling?

10GBase-T

In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B?

128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y

How many clusters of root servers exist?​

13

Near-field communication devices send data at what fixed frequency?

13.56 MHz

Near-field communication devices send data at what fixed frequency? 13.56 MHz 47.1 MHz 8.65 MHz 21.39 MHz

13.56 MHz

The 1000Base-LX utilizes light with what wavelength?

1300 nanometers

On a network with an IP address of 140.133.28.72 (or 10001100.10000101.00011100.01001000) and a subnet mask of 255.248.0.0 (or 11111111.11111000.00000000.00000000), what is the network ID?

140.128.0.0 (or 10001100 10000000 00000000 0000000)

When using the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), what is the maximum number of hops a message can take between its source and its destination before the destination is considered unreachable?

15

When using the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), what is the maximum number of hops a message can take between its source and its destination before the destination is considered unreachable?

15 hops

By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network?

1500 bytes

If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size?

1522 bytes

Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host?

172.16.0.0

What is the network ID with CIDR notation for the IP address 172.16.32.108 whose subnet mask is 255.255.255.0

172.16.32.108/24

Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement?

19 inches

An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID?

192.168.18.64

Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement?

19inchs

A-802.11ac provides an advantage over 802.11n by incorporating increased channel bonding capabilities. What size bonded channels does 802.11ac support?

20, 40, 80, 160 MHz channels

Which of the following IPv6 addresses represents a global unicast address?

2000::/3

802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput? 6.93 Gbps 3.47 Gbps 600 Mbps 1.3 Gbps

3.47 Gbps

When terminating an Ethernet cable, about how far should the cable sheath extend into the plug?

3/8 inch

How many cable pairs are needed for 1000Base-T transmission over CAT5e cable?​

4

How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs?

4 bytes

How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices?

4 data streams

How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices? 2 data streams 8 data streams 3 data streams 4 data streams

4 data streams

WDM divides a beam of light into how many different wavelengths or colors?

40

Both 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW have what maximum distance limitation on a segment of single mode fiber?

40km

What is the maximum distance for 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW on a segment of single mode fiber?​

40km

A-Which Wi-Fi frequency band offers 24 unlicensed communications channels in the United States?

5 GHZ

What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header?

53 bytes

Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks? a. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 b. 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 c. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 d. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255

A) 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255

What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate?

A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.

Which of the following is NOT a task that a VPN concentrator is responsible for?

A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections with malicious traffic occurs.

What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines?

A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data.

What scenario describes an evil twin attack?

A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point.

A-Which kind of antenna is used in a point-to-point link, especially over long distances?

A unidirectional antenna

What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?

Differentiated Services (DiffServ)

​What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?

Differentiated Services (DiffServ)

What makes up the first 6 bits of the 8-bit DiffServ field?

Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)

No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced? ​No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. ​ No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. ​Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn't get caught in the jack. ​ Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk.

No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced? ​No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. ​No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. ​Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn't get caught in the jack. ​Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk.

Phone companies make use of what type of multiplexing in order to allow for phone services and DSL services over the same line?​

FDM

Select the IPv6 address below that indicates a global unicast address:

FE80::10

An open electrical circuit as a result of a failed circuit breaker is considered to be what type of failure system?

Fail-Close

A Type 2 hypervisor installs on a computer before any OS, and is therefore called a bare-metal hypervisor.

False

A native VLAN mismatch occurs when two access ports that are connected to each other are both tagging traffic with different VLAN IDs.

False

A serial cable with an RJ-45 connector is capable of being used through an RJ-45 Ethernet port.

False

A serial cable with an RJ-45 connector is capable of being used through an RJ-45 Ethernet port. T/F?

False

After L2TP establishing a VPN tunnel, GRE is used to transmit L2TP data frames through the tunnel.

False

An unmanaged switch can still support the creation of VLANs, provided there is an interface for configuration.

False

Cable that is coated with flame-resistant polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is acceptable for use in plenum areas. True False

False

F5 Networks set the standard for the diagram symbols used to represent routers, switches, firewalls, and other devices. True False

False

FTPS (FTP Security or FTP Secure) and SFTP (Secure FTP) are two names for the same protocol.

False

ICANN is responsible for restrictions on use of the .com, .org, and .net TLDs. True False

False

In a rack setup, a device called a KVM allows multiple consoles to connect to a single device on the rack. True False

False

Infrared technology utilizes an LED that emits light with shorter wavelengths than red light.

False

Infrared technology utilizes an LED that emits light with shorter wavelengths than red light. T/F?

False

NFC tags are very expensive and cannot be purchased blank, requiring them to be pre-loaded.

False

NFC tags are very expensive and cannot be purchased blank, requiring them to be pre-loaded. T/F?

False

Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network.

False

Only Class B and Class C networks can be subnetted.

False

RG-59 is more expensive than RG-6, but has better resistance to attenuation. T/F?

False

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an interior gateway protocol that uses a link-state algorithm.

False

Servers that have a NOS installed require less memory, processing power, and storage capacity than clients because servers are called on to handle only light processing loads and requests from multiple clients. True False

False

Static electricity is an electrical charge in motion. True False

False

The 1024 - 65535 range of ports is also known as the "well-known" range. True False

False

The Data Link layer attaches a trailer to the end of a packet, and does not include a header. True False

False

The FTP protocol utilizes UDP, while TFTP uses TCP for data transmission. True False

False

The HTTPS (HTTP Secure) protocol utilizes the same TCP port as HTTP, port 80.

False

The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is considered to be a connectionless, or best-effort delivery protocol. True False

False

The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a MAC address. True False

False

The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data. True False

False

True of False: UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing.

False

True or False: As a network support technician, you only need to know how to support IPv6.

False

True or False: IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format.

False

UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing.

False

Z-Wave transmissions have a range of up to 50m per hop, and can tolerate up to 8 hops through repeaters.

False

Z-Wave transmissions have a range of up to 50m per hop, and can tolerate up to 8 hops through repeaters. T/F?

False

The LLC sublayer is primarily concerned with managing MAC addresses in message frames.

False (primarily concerned with multiplexing)

The HTTPS (HTTP Secure) protocol utilizes the same TCP port as HTTP, port 80.

False, HTTPS utilizes port 443.

Due to many vulnerabilities and a short key length, the WPA security standard was replaced with WEP. T/F?

False?

In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to?

Flow label

What is the name for the protocol data unit (PDU) ​of the Data Link layer?

Frame

What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol?

Framing

What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol

Framing. Three characteristics: Connection-oriented protocol, Sequencing and Checksums, Flow Control.

What protocol replaces ARP, IGMP, and ICMPv4 on IPv6 based networks? ICMPv6 BGPv6 IGMPv6 ARPng

ICMPv6

What IPv4 protocol handles multicasting for tasks such as videoconferencing or teleconferencing? ARP TCP IGMP ICMP

IGMP

What IPv4 protocol handles multicasting for tasks such as videoconferencing or teleconferencing?​

IGMP

Which statement regarding the IKEv2 tunneling protocol is accurate?

IKEv2 offers fast throughput and good stability when moving between wireless hotspots.

Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers?

IaaS

Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device?

It provides poor authentication and no encryption.

What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do?

It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate.

In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and get access to resources is managed by what service? a. Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) b. Windows Named Resource Services (WN RS) c. Automated Directory Network Services (AD NS) d. Active Directory Federated Users (AD FU)

A) Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

What is the most popular web server application? a. Apache b. Microsoft Internet Information Services c. NGINX d. Lighttpd

A) Apache

Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company? a. master license agreement b. master service agreement c. memorandum of understanding d. service-level agreement

A) master license agreement

If your network consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch, what type of topology is being used? a. star topology b. star bus topology c. mesh topology d. bus topology

A) star topology

What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs? a. vertical cross connect b. diagonal cabling c. horizontal cross connect d. patch cable

A) vertical cross connect

What command can be used to check a domain computer's time source from a Command Prompt window? a. w32tm /query /source b. time --source c. ntpd show source d. date /source

A) w32tm /query /source

IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets. A. True B. False

A. True

In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling. A. True B. False

A. True

The Border Gateway Protocol is considered to be a hybrid routing protocol. A. True B. False

A. True

The cost of upgrading infrastructure has been a major factor in the slow adoption of IPv6. A. True B. False

A. True

In a DNS zone, what type of record holds the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses?

AAAA record

Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today?

ADSL

A-Which IoT wireless standard is used to sync data from a smartwatch, bike computer, and smart phone to a single user account?

ANT+

When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate?

Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close

When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate?

Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.

When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate? A WPA key can be used to associate with a WEP configured access point. Access point power levels should always be configured to output as much power as possible. Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close. Simultaneous wired and wireless network connections do not affect the ability to communicate on the network.

Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.

In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and get access to resources is managed by what service?

Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded? a. No more than two times the diameter of the cable. b. No more than four times the diameter of the cable. c. No more than ten times the diameter of the cable. d. Twisted pair cable has a near infinite bend radius.

B)

When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used? a. 1,000 feet b. 100 meters c. 100 feet d. 300 meters

B) 100 meters

Which of the following IPv6 addresses represents a global unicast address? a. FD00::/8 b. 2000::/3 c. FE80::10 d. FC00::/7

B) 2000::/3

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router? a. An icon that resembles a brick wall. b. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. c. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. d. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

B) An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network firewall? a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. b. An icon that resembles a brick wall. c. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. d. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front.

B) An icon that resembles a brick wall.

An open electrical circuit as a result of a failed circuit breaker is considered to be what type of failure system? a. fail-close b. fail-open c. fail-tolerant d. fail-dynamic

B) Fail-Close

What is assigned to each node on a network, which is then used by the Network layer to uniquely identify the node? a. MAC address b. IP address c. autonomous system address d. port address

B) IP address

What does a statement of work document do? a. It is a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer, such as the service provided by an ISP. b. It documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular object, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline. c. It documents the intentions of two or more parties to enter into a binding agreement, or contract, and is sometimes used between an informal handshake and the legally binding signatures on contracts. d. It is a contract that defines the terms of future contracts between parties, such as payment terms or arbitration arrangements.

B) It documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular object, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline.

What statement regarding the Server Message Block protocol is accurate? a. It is a protocol used for accessing network-based LDAP directories. b. It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files. c. It is a simple protocol used to synchronize block messages written to iSCSI drives on a network. d. It is a signaling protocol used to make a connection between hosts prior to data transfer.

B) It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files.

HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 6 b. Layer 7 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 5

B) Layer 7

What Application layer protocol can be used to monitor and gather information about network traffic and can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention? a. POP3 b. SNMP c. SMTP d. HTTP

B) SNMP

Encrypted control of remote computers using the RDP protocol is accomplished using what port number? a. UDP 10000 b. TCP 3389 c. TCP 22 d. UDP 161

B) TCP 3389

What standard describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system? a. ISO 9001 b. TIA/EIA-568 c. IEEE 802.3 d. ITU 922

B) TIA/EIA-568

What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network? a. An ICMP error is generated, and the application must reformat the data for transmission. b. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP). c. The message is sent anyway, and is received by the destination as garbage data. d. The message is discarded and must be sent again.

B) The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).

In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting? a. at least 6 feet b. at least 3 feet c. at least 12 feet d. at least 3 inches

B) at least 3 feet

What component of enterprise level structured cabling serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling? a. intermediate distribution frame b. entrance facility c. network interface device d. main distribution frame

B) entrance facility

A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of policy? a. fail-tolerant b. fail-open c. fail-close d. fail-oriented

B) fail-open

The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)? a. bit b. frame c. packet d. data

B) frame

What type of tool would you utilize to terminate twisted pair wire on a 66 or 110 block? a. wire cinching tool b. punchdown tool c. block trimmer tool d. wire crimper tool

B) punchdown tool

Which of the following is a document that is sent as a request to vendors to submit a proposal for a product or service that your company wants to purchase? a. request for quote b. request for proposal c. memorandum of understanding d. statement of work

B) request for proposal

What kind of document serves as a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer? a. memorandum of understanding b. service-level agreement c. statement of work d. master service agreement

B) service-level agreement

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an interior gateway protocol that uses a link-state algorithm. A. True B. False

B. False

TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection A. True B. False

B. False

The CTRL + S key combination can be used to stop an actively running command A. True B. False

B. False

The pathping utility sends 10 pings per hop by default. A. True B. False

B. False

UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing. A. True B. False

B. False

Which network routing protocol is a path vector protocol that sends updates between routers using TCP? BGP OSPF RIP IS-IS

BGP

​Which network routing protocol is a path vector protocol that sends updates between routers using TCP?

BGP

Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate?

BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.

Select the name of the free, open source software that is by far the most popular DNS server software:

BIND

In order to prevent ports that are serving network hosts from being considered as best paths, what should be enabled to block BPDUs?

BPDU guard

What special signal is issued periodically from an AP and contains the network transmission rate and service set identifier (SSID), as well as other information needed for a computer to associate with the AP?

Beacon frame

Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean?

Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.

At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host? a. domain names b. MAC addresses c. port numbers d. IP addresses

C) port numbers

Originally codified by ISO, what does the "intermediate system" in IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) stand for?

An IS-IS capable network router

Which of the following scenarios represents a phishing attempt?

An e-mail was sent to a manager at your company that appeared to be from the company's CTO, asking for access.

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router?

An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch?

An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network firewall?

An icon that resembles a brick wall.

Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate? a. BGP is limited to a single autonomous system. b. BGP is exclusively a distance-vector protocol. C. BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates. d. BGP is a more advanced version of OSPF.

C. BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.

What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay? a. theoretical bandwidth b. MTU C. latency d. load

C. latency

The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below?

CSU/DSU

Which type of multiplexing is defined by wavelength instead of frequency?​

CWDM

Which statement regarding the use of cable modems is NOT accurate?

Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model.

Which of the following is NOT a best practice when performing cable management?

Cable ties should be pulled tightly to keep cables from moving around in a bundle.

Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of?

Captive portal

In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol?

Carrier Ethernet Transport

The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions?

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

Which of the following virtualization products is an example of a bare-metal hypervisor?

Citrix XenServer

Which Bluetooth power class allows for a maximum power output of 100 mW and a range of up to 100 m?

Class 1

Which Bluetooth power class allows for a maximum power output of 100 mW and a range of up to 100 m? Class 2 Class A Class X Class 1

Class 1

At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?

Layer 2

​A standard network switch operates at what layer of the OSI model?

Layer 2

At what layer of the OSI model would a TCP or UDP header be added to a payload? Layer 4 Layer 1 Layer 7 Layer 2

Layer 4

​At what layer of the OSI model would a TCP or UDP header be added to a payload?

Layer 4

HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?

Layer 7

HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?​

Layer 7

Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate? -Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass. -The maximum length for a fiber segment is 20km. -Fiber-optic cable is cheaper than shielded twisted pair cabling. -Fiber-optic cabling has a low resistance to signal noise.

Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.

Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols?

Link-State protocols

What RFC outlines recommendations for private IP addresses?​

RFC 1918

The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options?

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

Which legacy authentication protocol requires mutual authentication?

Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)

What is the name for a client-server model with one server and many clients, such as when an application is used to watch a live sports event?​

Multicast Distribution

Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable?

RG-6

Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable? -RG-59 -LRG-50 -RG-20 -RG-6

RG-6

What is NOT a TIA/EIA recognized cabling type that can be used for horizontal cabling

RG-6 Coaxial

What optional protocol can be used in 802.11 to reserve the medium for one node's use? RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send) RT/FT (Request Time/Fair Time) RAR/CTU (Reserve Airtime Request/Clear to Use) HA/RA (Hold Airtime/Reserved Airtime)

RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send)

What protocol is commonly used to request configuration files from another computer?​

TFTP

You have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. What twisted-pair wiring standard must you use?

TIA/EIA 568A

What standard describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system?

TIA/EIA-568

Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service, but rather traverses multiple ISP networks, connecting these networks to the Internet backbone?

SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)

When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate?

Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.

entrance facility

Select the component of enterprise level structured cabling that serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling: ​network interface device ​main distribution frame ​intermediate distribution frame ​entrance facility

​entrance facility

Select the component of enterprise level structured cabling that serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling: ​network interface device ​main distribution frame ​intermediate distribution frame ​entrance facility

On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined?

Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission.

All wireless signals are carried through the air by electromagnetic waves.

T

The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard.

T

The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data? ARP UDP ICMP TCP

TCP

​The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?

TCP

Encrypted control of remote computers using the RDP protocol is accomplished using what port number?

TCP 3389

In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate?

The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination

In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate?

The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.

Which of the following statements regarding IPv6 subnetting is NOT accurate?

The largest IPv6 subnet capable of being created is /64

Which of the following statements regarding IPv6 subnetting is NOT accurate?

The largest IPv6 subnet capable of being created is a /64.

If the EUI-64 standard is used, what part of an IPv6 address is affected?

The last four blocks of the address.

When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate?

The message is an emergency situation on the system.

What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network?

The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).

What occurs if a network layer protocol is aware that a packet is larger than the maximum size for its network?

The packet will be divided into smaller packets using fragmentation.

Considering that multiple users occupy the same channel when using CDMA, how are various calls using this technology kept separate?

The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished.

What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?

The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host

What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?​

The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host

6. You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal?

a. 10.3.0.0/19

17. Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host?

a. 172.16.0.0

14. Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement?

a. 19 inches

18. How many /64 subnets can be created within a /56 prefix?

a. 256

7. How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs?

a. 4 bytes

18. What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)?

a. 8 degrees

4. PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard?

a. 802.3at

4. What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines?

a. A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data.

13. What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?

a. A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

1. Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?

a. A router forwards broadcasts over the network.

7. What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch?

a. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.

10. When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router?

a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.

2. Which of the following virtualization products is an example of a bare-metal hypervisor?

a. Citrix XenServer

12. What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?

a. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)

4. What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels?

a. Dynamic Multipoint VPN

20. Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers?

a. IaaS

3. What does a statement of work document do?

a. It documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular object, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline.

17. What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?

a. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.

11. Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is?

a. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

13. During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced?

a. No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

24. What is NOT a TIA/EIA recognized cabling type that can be used for horizontal cabling?

a. RG-6 Coaxial

14. You have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. What twisted-pair wiring standard must you use?

a. TIA/EIA 568A

6. What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?

a. The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.

1. Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?

a. The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.

21. Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?

a. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

23. What utility is the equivalent to the pathping command on a Linux system?

a. mtr

3. What term is used to describe a space that is rented at a data center facility by a service provider?

a. point of presence (PoP)

1. A change coordinator functions as what type of manager?

a. project manager

5. Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN configuration in which one router connects to a switch that supports multiple VLANs?

a. router-on-a-stick

21. What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic?

a. tcpdump port 22

What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic? a. tcpdump port 22 b. tcpdump -p 22 c. tcpdump only ssh d. tcpdump -f +ssh

a. tcpdump port 22

Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use?

Trivial FTP (TFTP

Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use?

Trivial FTP (TFTP)

A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.

True

A community cloud is a service shared between multiple organizations, but not available publicly.

True

A continuity tester should not be used on a live network segment.

True

A hexadecimal number is a number written in the base 16 number system. True False

True

A master service agreement (MSA) is a contract that defines the terms of future contracts between parties, such as payment terms or arbitration arrangements. True False

True

A wavelength mismatch occurs when transmissions are optimized for one type of cable but sent over a different type of cable.

True

After a problem and its symptoms have been identified, a theory regarding a probable cause should be established. True False

True

All wireless signals are carried through the air by electromagnetic waves.

True

An 802.11 data frame contains four address fields, in contrast to the two address fields in 802.3 Ethernet.

True

An enterprise-wide VPN can include elements of both the client-to-site and site-to-site models.

True

At the root level of the DNS hierarchical structure, 13 clusters of root servers hold information used to locate TLD servers. True False

True

IPv6 addressing does not utilize classful addressing; therefore every IPv6 address is classless.

True

In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling.

True

In general, an API (application programming interface) call is the method an application uses when it makes a request of the OS. True False

True

In order to identify the transmissions that belong to each VLAN, a switch will add a tag to Ethernet frames that identifies the port through which they arrive at the switch.

True

Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT).

True

Multimode fiber contains a core that is larger than a single mode fiber core. T/F?

True

Network segmentation at Layer 2 of the OSI model is accomplished using VLANs.

True

Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model.

True

PPP can support several types of Network layer protocols that might use the connection.

True

The Border Gateway Protocol is considered to be a hybrid routing protocol.

True

The TIA/EIA standard for wall jacks in a work area require that at least one outlet be provided for data and one for voice. True False

True

The Virtual Network Computing (VNC) application uses the cross-platform remote frame buffer (RFB) protocol.

True

The Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack

True

The Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack. T/F?

True

The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard.

True

The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more local networks. True False

True

The industry standard height for a rack in rack units is 42U. True False

True

The most secure Wi-Fi communication is made possible by combining a RADIUS server with WPA or WPA2, known as WPA-Enterprise or WPA2-Enterprise, respectively.

True

The process of designing, implementing, and maintaining an entire network is called the system life cycle. True False

True

The term firmware refers to programs embedded into hardware devices. This software only changes when a firmware upgrade is performed. True False

True

True of False: On IPv4 networks, IGMP operates at the Network layer of the OSI model to manage multicasting.

True

True or False: IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol.

True

UDP port 123 is utilized by the Network Time Protocol service. True False

True

When using IPv6, two or more nodes on the same link are said to be neighbors. True False

True

You have been tasked with maintaining a network that is jumbo frame enabled. What does this mean? a. the MTU for the network can be as high as 9198 bytes. b. The network is not based on the Ethernet standard. c. Fragmented frames will be consolidated into whole frames before being sent. d. the MTU for the network is set at 65,535 bytes.

a. the MTU for the network can be as hih as 9198 bytes.

17. Bidirectional transceivers utilize what technology to separate the data in each direction?

a. wavelength division multiplexing

Where would restrictions regarding what users can and cannot do while accessing a network's resources be found?

acceptable use policy document

7. The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field?

b. FCS

The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data? a. UDP b. ICMP c. TCP d. ARP

b. ICMP

11. When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect?

b. In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is.

In IEEE terminology, stations that share an access point are said to be part of which of the following? modified service set extended service set generic service set basic service set

basic service set

What special signal is issued periodically from an AP and contains the network transmission rate and service set identifier (SSID), as well as other information needed for a computer to associate with the AP?

beacon frame

What special signal is issued periodically from an AP and contains the network transmission rate and service set identifier (SSID), as well as other information needed for a computer to associate with the AP? beacon frame announcement packet broadcast frame alert message

beacon frame

Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame?

between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header

What is NOT one of the ways in which networks are commonly segmented?

by device manufacturer

24. A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation?

c. /21

20. A Fast Ethernet connection utilizes what pins on an RJ-45 plug?

c. 1, 2, 3, 6

8. What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable?

c. 10 Gbps

3. On a Cisco switch, what would the security association identifier be for VLAN 13?

c. 100013

15. By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address?

c. 24

20. Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate?

c. BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.

11. Which of the following is NOT a best practice when performing cable management?

c. Cable ties should be pulled tightly to keep cables from moving around in a bundle.

25. What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds?

c. Cat 5e

10. You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate?

c. EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers.

In ____ addressing, the network information portion of an IPv4 address is limited to the first 8 bits in a Class A address.

classful

The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term?

clustering

What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?

coarse wavelength division multiplexing

Which 802.11 frame type is related to medium access and data delivery, and includes ACK and RTS/CTS frames? control frames extended frames data frames management frames

control frames

What routing protocol criteria is defined as the time it takes to recognize a best path change in the event of a network outage?

convergence time

What routing protocol criteria is defined as the time it takes to recognize a best path change in the event of a network outage? administrative distance detection overhead calculation convergence time downed path detection

convergence time

What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch? a. A software patch is a major change to a software package that enhances the functionality and features of the software, while also correcting bugs and vulnerabilities. b. A software patch involves the process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to upgrade it. c. A software patch is a container for new software, and must be installed on relevant devices and incorporated with network resources. d. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.

d) A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.

20. When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used?

d. 100 meters

22. If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size?

d. 1522 bytes

If the VLAN tag is present in an Ethernet frame, what is the maximum frame size? a. 1492 bytes b. 1500 bytes c. 1519 bytes d. 1522 bytes

d. 1522 bytes

10. Both 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW have what maximum distance limitation on a segment of single mode fiber?

d. 40km

21. What is the maximum number of host IP addresses that can exist in a Class B network?

d. 65,534

10. When using IPv6, what would a /64 network likely be assigned to?

d. A smaller organization or business.

24. Originally codified by ISO, what does the "intermediate system" in IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) stand for?

d. An IS-IS capable network router.

Originally codified by ISO, what does the "intermediate system" in IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) stand for? a. The autonomous systems used by an organization. b. An entire network consisting of various network devices. C. The administrative boundaries of an organization. d. An IS-IS capable network router.

d. An IS-IS capable network router.

9. When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch?

d. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

22. Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments?

d. Citrix Xen

11. Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols?

d. EIGRP

13. What occurs when a collision happens on a network?

d. Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.

13. Which statement regarding the IKEv2 tunneling protocol is accurate?

d. IKEv2 offers fast throughput and good stability when moving between wireless hotspots.

10. Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device?

d. It provides poor authentication and no encryption.

16. Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol?

d. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.

Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol? a. OSPF maintains a database of other routers' links. b. OSPF has no hop limits on a transmission path. c. OSPF provides low network overhead. d. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.

d. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.

23. What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked?

d. OpenVPN

25. Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT accurate?

d. PPP can support strong encryption, such as AH or ESP.

3. In a coaxial cabling, what does the RG rating measure?

d. The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.

19. Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use?

d. Trivial FTP (TFTP)

15. When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites?

d. VPN gateway

17. What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization?

d. Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult.

22. What component of enterprise level structured cabling serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling?

d. entrance facility

23. On certain Cisco products, what command can be used to create and send helper messages that support several types of UDP traffic, including DHCP, TFTP, DNS, and TACACS+?

d. ip helper-address

24. You've been handed a fiber with a 1.25-mm ferrule that requires a connector. What is the most commonly used connector for this ferrule size?

d. local connector (LC)

15. Which of the following is a document that is sent as a request to vendors to submit a proposal for a product or service that your company wants to purchase?

d. request for proposal

13. What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port?

d. set native-vlan-id

12. Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal?

d. simplex

18. Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?

d. traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com

Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit?

decibels

The device where a telecommunications service provider network ends and an organization's network begins is referred to as what option below?​

demarc

Utilized by China's so-called "Great Firewall", what type of attack can prevent user access to web pages, or even redirect them to illegitimate web pages?

denial-of-service attack

​In Linux systems, what file contains the settings for the DHCP service?

dhcpd.conf

What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?

hop limit

What command on Linux will display TCP/IP information associated with every interface on the device?​

ifconfig -a

What 802.11 frame type is involved in association and reassociation, including probe and beacon frames? extended frames management frames data frames control frames

management frames

Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company?

master license agreement

Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair?

mean time to repair (MTTR)

Select the protocol below that is used to synchronize clocks on computers on a network:

neighbors

What command will list only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers?

netstat -n

Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type?

netstat -s

What do well-chosen subnets accomplish?

network documentation is easier to manage

Which of the following is a document that is sent as a request to vendors to submit a proposal for a product or service that your company wants to purchase?

request for proposal

Because the octets equal to 0 and 255 are ____, only the numbers 1 through 254 can be used for host information in an IPv4 address.

reserved

The receiving host de-encapsulates the message at each layer in _______ order and then presents the payload to the receiving application.

reverse

What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal? -spectrum analyzer -frequency hopper -Wi-Fi analyzer -channel scanner

spectrum analyzer

What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal? channel scanner frequency hopper Wi-Fi analyzer spectrum analyzer

spectrum analyzer

On which networking device do you configure VLANs?

switch or manages switch

What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete?

switched virtual circuit (SVC)

A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this?

tailgating

What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic?

tcpdump port 22

What command can be used to check a domain computer's time source from a Command Prompt window?

w32tm /query /source

The number of times that a wave's amplitude cycles from its starting point, through its highest amplitude and its lowest amplitude, and back to its starting point over a fixed period of time, is known as ​what term below?

wavelength

What netstat command option lists only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers?

-n

802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput?

1.3 Gbps

When using SNMP with TLS, what port do agents receive requests on?

10161

A loopback IP address begins with what ​number?

127

An IPv6 address consists of how many bits?​

128

Subnetting a Class C network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 will create 16 subnets on the network. How many hosts per subnet can be created?

14

In an 802.11 data frame, what is the maximum amount of data that can be sent?

2312 bytes

Which formulas can be used to calculate the magic number? Choose two.

256- the interesting octet, 2^h

What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network?

2^h - 2 = Z

A modern ASN consists of how many bits?

32

In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?

6 bytes

In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field? 6 bytes 2 bytes 8 bytes 4 bytes

6 bytes

A network with 6 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?

62

A fractional T1's bandwidth can be leased multiples of what data rate?

64 Kbps

In an ISDN connection, what amount of throughput did a single B channel provide?

64 Kbps

Which of the following is NOT a task that a VPN concentrator is responsible for?

A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections when malicious traffic occurs

What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?

A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

What statement regarding denial-of-service (DoS) attacks is accurate?

A denial-of-service attack prevents legitimate users from accessing normal network resources.

What type of scenario would be best served by using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model?

A group of developers needs access to multiple operating systems and the runtime libraries that the OS provides.

R-You're setting up a home network for your neighbor, who is a music teacher. She has students visiting her home regularly for lessons and wants to provide Internet access for their parents while they're waiting on the children. However, she's concerned about keeping her own data private. What wireless feature can you configure on her AP to meet her requests?

A guest network, while also making a captive portal page, while also installing DD-WRT on her home router.

Which of the following statements describes a worm?

A program that runs independently of other software and travels between computers and across networks.

Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?

A router forwards broadcasts over the network

Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?

A router forwards broadcasts over the network.

When using IPv6, what would a /64 network likely be assigned to?

A smaller organization or business.

What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch?

A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software

IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format A. True B. False

B. False

In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel?

Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

In what network topology are devices daisy-chained together in a single line?​

Bus Topology

Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments?

Citrix Xen

While designing your network's VLAN topology, your team has decided to use a centrally managed DHCP server rather than creating a separate DHCP server for each VLAN. What software will you need in order to make the central DHCP server accessible across VLANs?

DHCP relay agent

Which of the following suggestions can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks on a network?

Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs.

What are the last two parts of a host name known as?​

Domain Name

​Layer 2

Ethernet exists at what layer of the OSI model?​ ​Layer 1 ​Layer 2 ​Layer 3 ​Layer 4

The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field?

FCS

A 66 block is more suitable for data connections than the older 110 block. True False

False

An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons. True False

False

DNS follows a centralized database model, allowing for easier management of DNS records. True False

False

IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format.

False

TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection.

False

If a Network layer protocol is aware that a packet is larger than the maximum size for its network, it will divide the packet into smaller packets in a process known as:​

Fragmentation

When using a Windows domain, what is the domain-level account for each user known as?

Global Account

What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?

Hop limit

What protocol replaces ARP, IGMP, and ICMPv4 on IPv6 based networks?

ICMPv6

What is assigned to each node on a network, which is then used by the Network layer to uniquely identify the node?

IP address

What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission?

IPsec

When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect?

In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is

When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect?

In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is.

​KVM switch

In order to simplify console access to computers in a rack, what device is typically used to provide a central portal for all devices on the rack?​ ​KVM switch ​AVR switch terminal server ​multi-monitor breakout cable

What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do?

It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.

What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field?

It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.

When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)? -It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission. -It is a tag that can be read remotely up to a distance of 50 m, but requires a powerful active reader. -It is a tag that requires an active reader, but still contains a battery in the tag. -It is a battery-powered tag actively transmits its credentials at regular time intervals, which can be read remotely.

It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.

When using Kerberos, what is the purpose of a ticket?

It is a temporary set of credentials that a client uses to prove to other servers that its identity has been validated.

In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters?

Iwconfig

What statement correctly describes "jitter"?

Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order.

The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below?

Key Pair

What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay?

Latency

A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?

Layer 2

Which of the following utilities performs sophisticated vulnerability scans, and can identify unencrypted data such as credit card numbers?

Nessus

At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?

Network

At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate?

Network layer

Any computer or device on a network that can be addressed on the local network is referred to as a:

Node

What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises?

OC-48

Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol?

OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources

Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol?

OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.

What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked?

OpenVPN

What do the first 24 bits of a MAC address represent?​

Organizationally Unique Identifier

Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT

PPP can support strong encryption, such as AH or ESP

Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT accurate?

PPP can support strong encryption, such as AH or ESP.

What statement regarding the Power Over Ethernet standards is inaccurate? -Electric current may run over a pair of wires used for data transmission. -A device that supplies power for PoE is known as power sourcing equipment. -The amount of power provided is 15.4 watts for standard PoE devices. -Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable.

Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable.

Select the layer of the OSI model that is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read:​

Presentation

By far the most popular AAA service, what open-source service runs in the Application layer and can use UDP or TCP in the Transport layer?

RADIUS

What optional protocol can be used in 802.11 to reserve the medium for one node's use?

RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send)

In a software defined network, what is responsible for controlling the flow of data?

SDN controller

What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?

SMTP

When using Spanning Tree Protocol, what is the first step in selecting paths through a network?

STP must first select the root bridge, or master bridge.

What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application?​

Session Layer

Which of the following is an example of encapsulation?

The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

In the typical social engineering attack cycle, what occurs at Phase 3?

The attacker exploits an action undertaken by the victim in order to gain access.

In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team?

The blue team is charged with the defense of the network.

Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination?

The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires.

How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address?

The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

What is NOT a variable that an network access control list can filter traffic with?

The operating system used by the source or destination device.

In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent?

The site prefix or global routing prefix.

Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?

The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN

A variant of BYOD, what does CYOD allow employees or students to do?

They can choose a device from a limited number of options.

Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?

They centralize user account logins

The TCP ___________________ is performed before TCP transmits the actual data

Three-way handshake

A port number, which identifies an application on a host, exists at what level of the OSI model?​

Transport

The segment or datagram protocol data unit exists at what layer of the OSI model?

Trasnport Layer

By default, the native VLAN is the same as the default VLAN.

True

Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA).

True

Each organization that provides host services on the public Internet is responsible for providing and maintaining DNS authoritative servers for public access. True False

True

Each type of cable has a prescribed bend radius, which is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission. True False

True

Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF). True False

True

IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets.

True

which IP addressing technique subnets a subnet to create subnets of various sizes

VLSM

Regarding VNC (Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection), what statement is accurate?

VNC is open source, allowing companies to develop their own software based on VNC.

What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization?

Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult.

A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term?

VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)

transformer

What type of power converter changes the voltage of an AC current, such as when power over the main line from an electric company is changed before being delivered to a home?​ inverter​ ​rectifier ​transformer ​voltage regulator

If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use? -protocol analyzer -air scanner -Wi-Fi analyzer -spectrum analyzer

Wi-Fi analyzer

Which of the following scenarios would necessitate the use of a non-disclosure agreement?

Your company needs to prevent a new contractor from sharing information with a potential competitor.

Healing messages are a feature of what smart home protocol?

Z-Wave

Healing messages are a feature of what smart home protocol? Bluetooth Z-Wave ZigBee ANT+

Z-Wave

18. What type of scenario would be best served by using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model?

a. A group of developers needs access to multiple operating systems and the runtime libraries that the OS provides.

22. Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type?

a. A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.

In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received? a. urgent pointer b. sliding-window C. URG flag d. PSH flag

b. sliding-window

2. In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate?

c. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.

15. What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?

c. coarse wavelength division multiplexing

24. What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate?

d. SSH supports port forwarding.

18. What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate?

d. The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN.

7. A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue?

d. The cable must be a rollover cable.

19. Which of the following statements regarding IPv6 subnetting is NOT accurate?

d. The largest IPv6 subnet capable of being created is a /64.

You are troubleshooting a DNS issue on a Linux system, and need to test the resolution of your domain mycompany.com MX record using Google's DNS server with the IP address of 8.8.8.8. What dig command will accomplish this?

dig @8.8.8.8 mycompany.com MX

What is the least number of bits you would need to borrow from the network portion of a Class B subnet mask to get at least 130 hosts per subnet?

eight

An attacker configures a VLAN frame with two tags instead of just one. The first tag directs the frame to the authorized VLAN. After the frame enters the first VLAN, the switch appropriately removes the tag, then discovers the next tag, and sends the frame along to a protected VLAN, which the attacker is not authorized to access. What kind of attack is this?

either Vlan hopping or double tagging

How often should you require users to change their passwords?

every 60 days

In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to? traffic exchange flow label group ID traffic class

flow label

The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)?

frame

A-To exchange information, two antennas must be tuned to the same __________.

frequency

On certain Cisco products, what command can be used to create and send helper messages that support several types of UDP traffic, including DHCP, TFTP, DNS, and TACACS+?

ip helper-address

What type of IPv6 address is fe80::8cf1:2c42:ffde:da1c?

link local address

Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols?

link-state protocols

You've been handed a fiber with a 1.25-mm ferrule that requires a connector. What is the most commonly used connector for this ferrule size?

local connector (LC)

An attack that relies on redirected and captured secure transmissions as they occur is known as what type of attack?

man-in-the-middle attack

What kind of tool can you use to measure voltage on a cable length?

multimeter

The use of multiple antennas on an access point to issue a signal to one or more receivers is enabled by what 802.11 innovation?

multiple input-multiple output (MIMO)

The use of multiple antennas on an access point to issue a signal to one or more receivers is enabled by what 802.11 innovation? channel bonding frame aggregation spread spectrum frequency hopping multiple input-multiple output (MIMO)

multiple input-multiple output (MIMO)

With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name?

mycompany.com

What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network?​

ping

What term is used to describe a space that is rented at a data center facility by a service provider?

point of presence (PoP)

A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame in order to find available access points?

probe frame

A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame to find available access points? association request beacon frame probe frame ping frame

probe frame

A change coordinator functions as what type of manager?

project manager

The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term?

public-key infrastructure

What type of tool would you utilize to terminate twisted pair wire on a 66 or 110 block?

punchdown tool

Telephone connections follow what registered jack standard?

registered jack 11 (RJ-11)

A _______ joins two or more networks and passes packets from one network to another.

router

What command can be used on a Cisco router to view the routing table? route print netstat -r route show ip route

show ip route

Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines?

statistical time division multiplexing

Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines? -wavelength division multiplexing -time division multiplexing -frequency division multiplexing -statistical time division multiplexing

statistical time division multiplexing

Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?

traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com

Subnet masks are NOT used in IPv6 addressing.

true

Which port mode on a switch enables that port to manage traffic for multiple VLANs?

trunk

1. An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term?

trunk port

An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term?

trunk port

What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?

vertical cross connect

802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput?

3.47 Gbps

What parameter can be combined with the traceroute command to instruct it to use ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams? -I -d -p -n

-I

What parameter can be combined with the traceroute command to instruct it to use ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams?​

-I

What top level domain is used for the air-transport industry?​

.aero

A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation?

/21

When using classful IPv4 addressing, a network ID always ends with an octet of ____.

0

​What range of ports is referred to as the "well-known" range of ports?

0-1023

What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable?​

10 Gbps

Your workstation's IP address is 10.35.88.12, and your supervisor's workstation's IP address is 10.35.91.4. When you send data from your workstation to your supervisor's workstation, what is the most likely IP address of the first default gateway that will accept and interpret your transmission?

10.35.88.1

By default, the pathping command sends how many pings per hop?​

100

When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used?

100 meters

The result from ANDing 11001111 with 10010001 is ____.

10000001

On a Cisco switch, what would the security association identifier be for VLAN 13?

100013

In an 802.11 data frame, what is the maximum amount of data that can be sent? 1500 bytes 9000 bytes 2312 bytes 4582 bytes

2312 bytes

By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address?

24

How many bits of a Class A IP address are used for host information?

24 bits

If you subdivide your Class B network into 256 subnets, what is the maximum number of hosts you can assign to any single subnet?

254

What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet?

255.255.224.0

Convert the following subnet mask into its dotted-decimal equivalent: 11111111 11111111 11111000 00000000.

255.255.248.0

You have decided to create 256 subnets on your Class B network. What subnet mask will you use to accomplish this?

255.255.255.0

A network with a CIDR notation of /26 would have what subnet mask?

255.255.255.192

How many IPv4 addresses are available on a Class B network that does NOT use subnetting?

65,534

What is the maximum number of host IP addresses that can exist in a Class B network?

65,534

How many subnets can a /48 site prefix support?

65,536 subnets

​Which option below reflects the standard impedance of an RG-6 cable?

75 ohms

What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)?

8 degrees

What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)? -12 degrees -14 degrees -8 degrees -16 degrees

8 degrees

If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day?

8 seconds

Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate?

802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.

Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate? 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch. 802.11ac access points can handle multiple transmissions at one time over the same frequency. 802.11ac operates on the 5-GHz band. The standard was officially approved in early 2014.

802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.

What IEEE standard includes an encryption key generation and management scheme known as TKIP?

802.11i

What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?

802.1Q

Which IEEE standard determines how VLANs work on a network?

802.1q

PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard?

802.3at

The wireless spectrum, as defined by the FCC, spans between which two frequencies?

9 kHz and 300 GHz

The wireless spectrum, as defined by the FCC, spans between which two frequencies? 3 kHz and 500 GHz 3 MHz and 300 GHz 9 kHz and 300 GHz 125 kHz and 150 GHz

9 kHz and 300 GHz

A highly available server is available what percentage of the time?

99.999%

What scenario describes an evil twin attack? A hacker is utilizing a protocol analyzer on a public Wi-Fi network to discover packet contents. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point. An attacker is actively attempting to brute force the PIN of a WPS-enabled access point. A hacker is actively sending wireless probes to discover available wireless networks.

A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point.

Which of the following is not a task handled by a router? A router can connect dissimilar networks. A router can reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down but a second path is available. A router forwards broadcasts over the network. A router can interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing.

A router forwards broadcasts over the network.

What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch?

A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.

What statement correctly describes a stateless firewall?

A stateless firewall manages each incoming packet as a stand-alone entity, without regard to currently active connections.

A single switch can manage traffic belonging to several VLANs on a single interface, by configuring which option on the interface?

A trunk port

Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean? a. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network. b. The router serving the network will have a redundant spare. c. Two different IPv4 address spaces will exist on the same network segment. d. The network will exist on two separate segments, separated by a proxy.

A) Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.

What is a defining characteristic of a bus topology based network? a. Devices are daisy-chained together in a single line. b. Devices are connected to two adjacent devices, and communication priority is granted by a token. c. Devices are connected directly to a centralized networking device, known as a network switch. d. Devices are directly attached to a network router, which forwards data to intended destinations.

A) Devices are daisy-chained together in a single line.

If a host's IPv6 address contains the network adapter's MAC address within the last 64 bits of the IPv6 address, what standard is being used? a. EUI-64 b. UUID-128 c. MACin6 d. IEEE 802.36

A) EUI-64

What is the ARPA domain suffix utilized for? a. It is used for reverse DNS queries, and holds PTR records. b. It is used to announce records for other TLDs such as .com and .net. c. It is a specialized government restricted TLD. d. It is a private TLD used for synchronization of zones between servers.

A) It is used for reverse DNS queries, and holds PTR records.

The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options? a. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) b. Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS) c. Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS) d. Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP)

A) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate? a. Network b. Transport c. Session d. Application

A) Network

What federal agency is charged with safety and health in the workplace? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Hazardous Materials and Safety Management (HMSM) c. Office Safety and Standards Department (OSSD) d. Workplace Safety and Hazard Administration (WSHA)

A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held? a. On the DNS root servers. b. On DNS caching-only servers. c. In the organization's forward lookup zone. d. In the hosts file on the local machine.

A) On the DNS root servers.

Which of the following protocols is used as a signaling protocol for the initial connection between hosts, but does not participate in data transfer during the session? a. SIP b. LDAP c. TFTP d. NTP

A) SIP

What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server? a. SMTP b. POP3 c. IMAP4 d. HTTPS

A) SMTP

You are setting up a DNS zone and have been asked to create SPF and DKIM records. What type of DNS record will hold this information? a. TXT record b. PTR record c. SRV record d. CNAME record

A) TXT record

What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate? a. The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN. b. The MDF provides intermediate connection between the IDF and end-user equipment on each floor. c. The MDF refers to the racks holding network equipment in an organization. d. The MDF and entrance facility are always in separate rooms.

A) The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN.

In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer? a. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read. b. The Presentation layer is responsible for describing how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application. c. The Presentation layer describes the interface between two applications, each on separate computers. d. The Presentation layer is responsible for transporting Application layer payloads from one application to another.

A) The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read.

You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean? a. The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address. b. The computer has been assigned a routed public IP address. c. The network card is set up for multicast communication. d. The network card has been erroneously assigned a loopback address.

A) The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address.

What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID? a. The last 24 bits of the MAC address. b. The last 12 bits of the MAC address. c. The first 12 bits of the MAC address. d. The first 24 bits of the MAC address.

A) The last 24 bits of the MAC address.

Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks? a. They centralize user account logins. b. They lack scalability. c. They are not necessarily secure. d. They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers.

A) They centralize user account logins.

In a fire suppression system, what term is used to describe what is typically a foaming chemical, gas, or water that is sprayed everywhere to put out a fire? a. fire suppression agent b. fire extinction agent c. extinguishing medium d. eliminating factor

A) fire suppression agent

A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem? a. ipconfig /flushdns b. ipconfig /refresh c. ipconfig /renew d. ipconfig /release

A) ipconfig /flushdns

What type of IPv6 address is fe80::8cf1:2c42:ffde:da1c? a. global address b. anycast address c. link local address d. multicast address

C) link local address

With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name? a. ftp1.dallas b. ftp1 c. mycompany.com d. ftp1.dallas.mycompany.

C) mycompany.com

What is the most popular web server application?

Apache

What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS traceroute utility is accurate?

By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages

What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS traceroute utility is accurate?

By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages.

Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address? a. 192.168.1.1 b. 169.254.0.1 c. 127.0.0.1 d. 224.0.0.1

C) 127.0.0.1

In a DNS zone, what type of record holds the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses? a. PTR record b. A record c. AAAA record d. TXT record

C) AAAA record

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch? a. An icon that resembles a brick wall. b. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. c. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. d. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front.

C) An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.

In the TCP/IP model, what layer combines the responsibilities of the Application, Presentation, and Session layers from the OSI model? a. Internet b. Transport c. Application d. Link

C) Application

What does the MX record do in a forward DNS zone? a. It holds the alternative names for a host. b. It identifies the authoritative name server for a domain. c. It identifies the e-mail server to be used for e-mail traffic for the domain. d. It identifies the hostname and port of a computer that hosts a specific network service, such as FTP or SIP.

C) It identifies the e-mail server to be used for e-mail traffic for the domain.

At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate? a. Layer 3 b. Layer 4 c. Layer 2 d. Layer 5

C) Layer 2

In the TCP/IP model, what layer is considered so simple that it is ignored entirely? a. Network b. Application c. Physical d. Data Link

C) Physical

What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application? a. Transport Layer b. Application Layer c. Session Layer d. Presentation Layer

C) Session Layer

In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level? a. The Federal Bureau of Investigation b. Local law enforcement c. The President d. Any U.S. state or territory

C) The President

Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination? a. The cable will lose its conductive properties. b. The termination will fail over time due to oxidation. c. The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires. d. Exposing more cable than necessary can cause corrosion of the copper wire.

C) The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires.

How do routers create a broadcast domain boundary? a. They listen to and direct broadcast traffic. b. They forward broadcasts only to necessary segments. c. They do not forward broadcast traffic. d. They only forward broadcasts that are intended for multiple subnets.

C) They do not forward broadcast traffic.

The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model? a. Presentation b. Network c. Transport d. Application

C) Transport

On a Linux-based system, what command can be used to display TCP/IP information associated with every interface on the system? a. if status b. ipconfig /all c. ifconfig -a d. ip show

C) ifconfig -a

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment? a. in the work area b. between the MDF and the IDF c. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF) d. at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

C) in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique to minimize the potential for collisions? Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) Carrier Sense Single Access with Collision Adaptation (CSSA/CA) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Mitigation (CMSA/CM)

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds?

Cat 5e

What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds?​

Cat 5e

When Comcast was found to be interfering with BitTorrent traffic, what method was being used?

Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set.

Which 802.11 frame type is related to medium access and data delivery, and includes ACK and RTS/CTS frames?

Control frames

Using the same network to deliver multiple types of communications services, such as video, voice, and fax, is known as:

Convergence

What is the minimal amount of voltage required to damage an electrical component? a. 100 volts b. 5 volts c. 1500 volts d. 10 volts

D) 10 volts

In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B? a. 192.0.0.x to 223.255.255.x b. 1.x.y.z to 126.x.y.z c. 224.x.y.z to 255.x.y.z d. 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y

D) 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y

Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement? a. 20 inches b. 30 inches c. 25 inches d. 19 inches

D) 19 inches

What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines? a. A cable bend radius determines the total number of bends that can exist in an overall cable before data is impaired. b. A cable bend radius is the radius of the minimum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data. c. A cable bend radius defines the twist rate of the cable inside of the insulation. d. A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data.

D) A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data.

What is by far the most popular DNS server software available? a. Oracle Resolver b. Microsoft DNS c. Dnsmasq d. BIND

D) BIND

Which of the following is NOT a best practice when performing cable management? a. A cable tester should be used to verify that each segment of cable is transmitting reliably. b. Cable should not be placed across a floor where they might be damaged by traffic. c. Grounding requirements should be followed when running cables. d. Cable ties should be pulled tightly to keep cables from moving around in a bundle.

D) Cable ties should be pulled tightly to keep cables from moving around in a bundle.

The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address? a. DAC (Data Access Control) address b. DAC (Digital Access Control) address c. PAC (Packet Access Control) address d. MAC (Media Access Control) address

D) MAC (Media Access Control) address

During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced? a. Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn't get caught in the jack. b. No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. c. Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk. d. No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

D) No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

What is NOT a TIA/EIA recognized cabling type that can be used for horizontal cabling? a. shielded twisted pair (STP) b. unshielded twisted pair (UTP) c. fiber-optic d. RG-6 Coaxial

D) RG-6 Coaxial

The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions? a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) b. Secure Shell (SSH) c. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) d. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

D) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Which of the following is an example of encapsulation? a. The subtraction of a header from data inherited from the layer below in the OSI model. b. The modification of headers from a higher layer in the OSI model. c. The addition of a trailer to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model. d. The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

D) The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

What does backbone cabling consist of? a. It is cabling that connects workstations to the closest data room and to switches housed in the room. b. Short length cables with connectors at both ends. c. The shielded cables that are used for high data transmission rates between an organization and an ISP. d. The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs.

D) The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs.

How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address? a. The first 12 bits and last 12 bits combined are known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier. b. The last 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer. c. The middle 24 bits, known as the Organization Universal Identifier, identify the manufacturer. d. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

D) The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

What occurs if a network layer protocol is aware that a packet is larger than the maximum size for its network? a. The protocol will notify a network router capable of receiving the packet, and a new path will be used to the destination. b. The protocol will send an ICMP message to the destination, requesting a larger packet size be allowed. c. The packet will be dropped silently, requiring the communicating application try again. d. The packet will be divided into smaller packets using fragmentation.

D) The packet will be divided into smaller packets using fragmentation.

A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term? a. VoIP router b. VoIP ATB (analog telephone branch) c. VoIP LEC (local exchange carrier) d. VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)

D) VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)

In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines? a. VoIP MTA b. VoIP translator c. VoIP PBX d. VoIP gateway

D) VoIP gateway

What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility? a. iMap b. VizMap c. GUINmap d. Zenmap

D) Zenmap

You are troubleshooting a DNS issue on a Linux system, and need to test the resolution of your domain mycompany.com MX record using Google's DNS server with the IP address of 8.8.8.8. What dig command will accomplish this? a. dig --server 8.8.8.8 --type=mx mycompany.com b. dig -s 8.8.8.8 -t mx mycompany.com c. dig query 8.8.8.8 domain mycompany.com type mx d. dig @8.8.8.8 mycompany.com MX

D) dig @8.8.8.8 mycompany.com MX

What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed? a. ipconfig /show b. ipconfig /full c. ipconfig /list d. ipconfig /all

D) ipconfig /all

What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network? a. ifconfig b. route c. traceroute d. ping

D) ping

When using DHCP for IPv6 (i.e. DHCPv6), what port do clients receive responses on? a. port 546 b. port 67 c. port 68 d. port 547

D) port 547

A change coordinator functions as what type of manager? a. human resources manager b. time manager c. inventory manager d. project manager

D) project manager

When dealing with static electricity, what kind of failure caused by static discharge shortens the life of a component, and can cause intermittent errors? a. catastrophic failure b. interrupting failure c. temporary failure d. upset failure

D) upset failure

What text editor can be used on Linux to view and edit the contents of a configuration file? a. Notepad b. edit c. Microsoft Word d. vim

D) vim

What type of documentation tool is a website that can be edited by users, allowing them to add files and photos and links between pages? a. spreadsheet b. workgroup c. co-op d. wiki

D) wiki

What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure? a. topology map b. network diagram c. system diagram d. wiring schematic

D) wiring schematic

What area of a network can provide less stringent security so a web server is more accessible from the open Internet

DMZ

What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels?

Dynamic Multipoint VPN

Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols?

EIGRP

You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate?

EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers

What occurs when a collision happens on a network?

Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission

What occurs when a collision happens on a network?

Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.

The process of adding a header to the data inherited from the layer above is called what option below?

Encapsulation

How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission?

It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.

At what point is a packet considered to be a giant?

It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size.

How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission?

It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium

How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission? -It splits the signal into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. -It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium. -It causes the signal to be absorbed by the refracting material. -It causes the signal to be returned back towards the source of the origin.

It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.

How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission? It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium. It causes the signal to be returned back toward the source of the origin. It causes the signal to be absorbed by the refracting material. It splits the signal into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.

It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.

What does a statement of work document do?

It documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular object, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline.

How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment?

It filters line noise from incoming power.

What does the MX record do in a forward DNS zone?

It identifies the e-mail server to be used for e-mail traffic for the domain.

A differential backup covers what data on a system?

It includes data that has changed since the last full backup.

What is the Nmap utility used for?

It is a port scanning utility that can identify open ports on a host.

What is a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system utilized for?

It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts.

When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)?

It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.

When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)? It is a tag that requires an active reader, but still contains a battery in the tag. It is a battery-powered tag that actively transmits its credentials at regular time intervals, which can be read remotely. It is a tag that can be read remotely up to a distance of 50 m, but requires a powerful active reader. It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.

It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.

When an 802.1Q tag is added to an Ethernet frame, where is it placed?

It is inserted between the source address and the Ethernet type field.

What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?

It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change

What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?

It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.

What statement regarding the Server Message Block protocol is accurate?

It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files.

What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for?

It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network.

What is the ARPA domain suffix utilized for?

It is used for reverse DNS queries, and holds PTR records.

What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer?

It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer? -It is used to manage MAC addresses in message frames. -It is used to manage low-level encryption on a network. -It performs management of the physical layer's modulation techniques. -It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer? It is used to manage low-level encryption on a network. It performs management of the physical layer's modulation techniques. It is used to manage MAC addresses in message frames. It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

Which of the following connectors is the most common for multimode fiber?​

MT-RJ

which VLAN is designed to suport administrative access to networking devices

Management VLAN

What utility is the equivalent to the pathping command on a Linux system?

Mtr

By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM?

NAT mode

Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is?

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is? -NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source. -NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal. -NEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius. -NEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source.

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?​

Network

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a _______ layer core protocol that reports on the success or failure of data delivery.

Network

During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced?

No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded?

No more than four times the diameter of the cable.

What federal agency is charged with safety and health in the workplace?

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

With VTP, where is the VLAN database stored?

On the switch that is known as the stack master.

In the TCP/IP model, what layer is considered so simple that it is ignored entirely?

Physical

At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary?

Physical layer

At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary? -Transport layer -Data link layer -Physical layer -Network layer

Physical layer

At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary? Transport layer Physical layer Network layer Data Link layer

Physical layer

What 3-bit field in a 802.1Q tag is modified to set a frame's Class of Service (CoS)?

Priority Code Point (PCP)

A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame in order to find available access points?

Probe frame

Which adaptation of EAP utilizes EAP-MSCHAPv2 inside of an encrypted TLS tunnel?

Protected EAP (PEAP)

The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions?

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps?

SDSL

Which of the following statements correctly describes the SFP+ transceiver?

SFP+ is the same size as SFP, and supports a theoretical maximum transmission speed of 16 Gbps.

What statement regarding the different versions of the SHA hashing algorithm is accurate?

SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths.

Which of the following protocols is used as a signaling protocol for the initial connection between hosts, but does not participate in data transfer during the session?

SIP

​Which protocol below is used to make an initial connection between hosts for transferring multimedia data, relying on other protocols once a connection is established?

SIP

What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?​

SMTP

What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate?

SSH supports port forwarding.

What cloud service model involves providing applications through an online user interface, providing for compatibility with a multitude of different operating systems and devices?

SaaS

Which protocol designed to replace STP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model?

Shortest Path Bridging (SPB)

In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver while acknowledgement for the segment is outstanding?​

Sliding Window

In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received?

Sliding-window

What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal?

Spectrum analyzer

Which of the following is an example of proxy server software?

Squid

In order to generate a public and private key for use with SSH, what command line utility should you use?

Ssh-keygen

​What physical network topology consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch?

Star Topology

You are setting up a DNS zone and have been asked to create SPF and DKIM records. What type of DNS record will hold this information?

TXT record

If multiple honeypots are connected to form a larger network, what term is used to describe the network?

honeynet

What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate?

The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN.

You have been tasked with maintaining a network that is jumbo frame enabled. What does this mean?

The MTU for the network can be as high as 9198 bytes

You have been tasked with maintaining a network that is jumbo frame enabled. What does this mean?

The MTU for the network can be as high as 9198 bytes.

What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command?

The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.

In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer?

The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read.

A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue?

The cable must be a rollover cable.

What does backbone cabling consist of?

The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs.

In Open System Authentication, how does authentication occur?

The client "authenticates" using only the SSID name. In other words, no real authentication occurs.

You are troubleshooting a client's wireless networking issue. Which of the following will prevent the client from connecting to the network? The client is using an 802.11n wireless adapter, but the access point only supports up to 802.11g. The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID. The client is using a network adapter with outdated firmware. The client is only able to get line of sight with an omnidirectional antenna.

The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID.

You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean?

The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address.

What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0? The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop. The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host. The router resets the TTL to 128.

The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.

How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be fragmented?

The sequence control field indicates how packets will be subdivided.

How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be fragmented? The sequence control field indicates how packets will be subdivided. It uses the preamble header to estimate the ideal packet size. The frame check sequence dictates the calculated packet size. The duration field determines how long the station can transmit a packet, which then determines how it is divided.

The sequence control field indicates how packets will be subdivided.

Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation?

The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split

Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation?

The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.

Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation? -The signal is redirected into multiple directions. -The signal is completely absorbed by the diffracting material. -The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. -The signal is returned back towards the source of the original signal.

The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.

Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?

The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.

R-When a wireless signal encounters a large obstacle, what happens to the signal?

The wave may pass through the object if possible, or the signal may experience fading, attenuation, interference, refraction, reflection, scattering or diffraction depending on the situation.

​Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?

They centralize user account logins. They do have scalability, are secure, and are practical for connecting large computers.

In a cellular network, where does each wireless base station connect to?

They connect to a mobile switching center.

How do routers create a broadcast domain boundary?

They do not forward broadcast traffic.

VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor?

Type 2 hypervisor

When viewing the routing table on a UNIX system, what flag indicates if a route is a usable route? H U G I

U

___'s lack of sophistication makes it more efficient than TCP.

UDP

​The Network Time Protocol service uses what port number?

UDP 123

You have been asked by your superior to configure all Cisco network switches to allow only acceptable MAC addresses through switch access ports. How is this accomplished?

Use the switchport port-security command to enable MAC filtering.

When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs?

VLAN 1001

Switches can create ____ by grouping a number of ports into a broadcast domain.

VLANs

When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites?

VPN gateway

In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines?

VoIP gateway

1522 bytes

What is the maximum frame size ​for Ethernet II frames on a VLAN? ​1500 bytes ​1518 bytes ​1522 bytes ​1496 bytes

​110 block

When selecting a punch down block, what block type is more suitable for data connections?​ ​10 block ​22 block ​66 block ​110 block

When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?

Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes.

​in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?​ ​in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF) ​at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) at ​the entrance facility ​between the MDF and the IDF

full-duplex

Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously?​ ​half duplex ​simplex ​full-duplex ​multiplex

If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use?

Wi-Fi analyzer

If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use? protocol analyzer air scanner Wi-Fi analyzer spectrum analyzer

Wi-Fi analyzer

R-Why do wireless networks experience a greater reduction in throughput compared with wired networks?

Wireless networks operate at half duplex, while wired networks can operate in full duplex which causes throughput to be lower in wireless connections then what is advertised for them. Also in the 802.11 data frame the Sequence Control field that handles packet fragmentation is error checked and handled at the data link layer rather than the networking layer which slows down transmission.

Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit?

You pay only for the bandwidth you require.

What scenario might be ideal for the use of root guard in configuring a switch?

You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP.

What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility?

Zenmap

An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term?

aggregation port

Since each port on a switch is essentially its own collision domain, what results when switch ports from different switches are grouped together?

all of these are correct

​A measure of a signal's strength at any given time is known as which term below?

amplitude

An RFID label on a box is an example of what type of physical security detection method?

asset tracking tagging

In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting?

at least 3 feet

What aspect of AAA is responsible for determining what a user can and cannot do with network resources?

authorization

25. A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?

b. 1022

4. When using the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), what is the maximum number of hops a message can take between its source and its destination before the destination is considered unreachable?

b. 15

7. By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network?

b. 1500 bytes

12. An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID?

b. 192.168.18.64

20. What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?

b. 802.1Q

15. What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS traceroute utility is accurate?

b. By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages.

What statement regarding the differences between the Windows tracert utility and the Linux/UNIX/macOS traceroute utility is accurate? a. Only tracert can send UDP messages for tracing a path. b. By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages. c. The Windows tracert utility does not place limits on the TTL of repeated trial messages. d. The tracert utility expects an ICMP port unreachable error message as the final reply to a trace.

b. By default, the tracert utility uses ICMP echo requests, while traceroute uses UDP datagrams or TCP SYN messages.

4. Which of the following suggestions can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks on a network?

b. Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs.

What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field? a. It specifies special options, such as the maximum segment size a network can handle. b. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission. c. It identifies the data segment's position in the stream of data segments being sent. d. It confirms receipt of data via a return message to the sender.

b. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.

21. A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?

b. Layer 2

2. Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate?

b. Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.

12. At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate?

b. Network layer

19. In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded?

b. No more than four times the diameter of the cable.

16. With VTP, where is the VLAN database stored?

b. On the switch that is known as the stack master.

21. What statement regarding the Power Over Ethernet standards is inaccurate?

b. Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable.

23. Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable?

b. RG-6

16. What cloud service model involves providing applications through an online user interface, providing for compatibility with a multitude of different operating systems and devices?

b. SaaS

6. Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination?

b. The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires.

22. If the EUI-64 standard is used, what part of an IPv6 address is affected?

b. The last four blocks of the address.

14. In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent?

b. The site prefix or global routing prefix.

2. When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs?

b. VLAN 1001

5. Regarding VNC (Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection), what statement is accurate?

b. VNC is open source, allowing companies to develop their own software based on VNC.

17. A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term?

b. VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)

14. When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?

b. Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes.

12. What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility?

b. Zenmap

16. In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting?

b. at least 3 feet

2. Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company?

b. master license agreement

1. What kind of tool can you use to measure voltage on a cable length?

b. multimeter

3. Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type?

b. netstat -s

Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type? a. ipconfig -s b. netstat -s c. ipstat -a d. netstat -an

b. netstat -s

8. You are connected to your network's Cisco router, and need to verify the route table. What command should you enter?

b. show ip route

9. You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch?

b. show vlan

19. In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received?

b. sliding-window

6. Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines?

b. statistical time division multiplexing

5. What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure?

b. wiring schematic

Ethernet is an example of what type of technology?​

baseband

In IEEE terminology, a group of stations that share an access point are said to be part of which of the following?

basic service set

You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate? a. EIGRP will increase CPU utilization on core routers. b. Increased traffic will result from the switch to EIGRP. c. EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers. d. Convergence time will be increased with EIGRP.

c. EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers.

9. What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission?

c. IPsec

8. When an 802.1Q tag is added to an Ethernet frame, where is it placed?

c. It is inserted between the source address and the Ethernet type field.

8. By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM?

c. NAT mode

16. Which of the following statements correctly describes the SFP+ transceiver?

c. SFP+ is the same size as SFP, and supports a theoretical maximum transmission speed of 16 Gbps.

14. The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?

c. TCP

23. In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines?

c. VoIP gateway

19. Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit?

c. decibels

5. A typical fiber termination kit should include what tool for cutting a clean slice through fiber strands?

c. fiber cleaver

5. In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to?

c. flow label

In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to? a. traffic class b. group ID c. flow label d. traffic exchange

c. flow label

9. What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?

c. hop limit

25. What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay?

c. latency

11. Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number?

c. magic number

6. The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term?

c. public-key infrastructure

25. What kind of document serves as a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer?

c. service-level agreement

In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate? a. The hosts that share the same MAC addresses will be completely unable to communicate with any other devices. b. The hosts will generate new MAC addresses until the conflict is resolved. c. the host will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination. d. the network switch will eventually crash due to being unable to properly forward traffic.

c. the host will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.

8. What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?

c. vertical cross connect

9. When viewing the pinout for T568B, what is the correct order of wire colors, starting at pin 1?

c. white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of? -WPA2-Enterprise -browser hijacking -guest network profile -captive portal

captive portal

Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of? browser hijacking captive portal WPA2-Enterprise guest network profile

captive portal

What TCP field below allows the receiving node to determine whether a TCP segment is corrupted during transmission? checksum TCP header length sliding window acknowledgement number

checksum

What TCP field below allows the receiving node to determine whether a TCP segment is corrupted during transmission?​

checksum

What type of door access control is a physical or electronic lock that requires a code in order to open the door?

cipher lock

What term below is used to describe the outer-most layer of protective covering of a coaxial cable?

heath

What component of enterprise level structured cabling serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling?

entrance facility

An open electrical circuit as a result of a failed circuit breaker is considered to be what type of failure system?

fail-close

A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of policy?

fail-open

All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent.

false

A typical fiber termination kit should include what tool for cutting a clean slice through fiber strands?

fiber cleaver

A typical fiber termination kit should include what tool for cutting a clean slice through fiber strands? -fiber cleaver -fiber stripper -fiber saw -fiber snipper

fiber cleaver

When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change?

file integrity monitoring (FIM)

In classful addressing, the Class B IPv4 address network ID is located in the ____.

first 16 bits

In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to?

flow label

Enforcing a virtual security perimeter using a client's geographic location is known by what term?

geofencing

The Group Policy utility can be opened by typing what name into a Run box?

gpedit.msc

A-What feature of a site survey maps the Wi-Fi signals and other noise in your location?

heat maps and dead zones

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?

in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme?

incremental backup

Which type of backup scheme only covers data that has changed since the last backup?

incremental backup

What command below can be used to display ​a complete summary of all network interfaces in a Windows computer?

ipconfig /all

A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem?

ipconfig /flushdns

On a Linux system, which command allows you to modify settings used by the built-in packet filtering firewall?

iptables

In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters?

iwconfig

In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters? iwconfig wlanconf wifid ifconfig

iwconfig

When a device handles electrical signals improperly, usually resulting from a bad NIC, it is referred to by what term below?

jabber

The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below?

key pair

What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay?

latency

What type of routing protocol enables routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to create a map of an entire network? link state distance vector map extension exterior gateway

link state

What 802.11 frame type is involved in association and reassociation, including probe and beacon frames?

management frames

What document addresses the specific concerns related to special access given to administrators and certain support staff?

privileged user agreement

Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery?

online UPS

What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked?

openVPN

When using DHCP for IPv6 (i.e. DHCPv6), what port do clients receive responses on?

port 547

At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host?

port numbers

The concept of giving employees and contractors only enough access and privileges to do their jobs is known by what term?

principle of least privilege

In an IPv6 address, the first 64 bits of the address are known as what?

routing prefix

Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below?

runts

What kind of document serves as a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided to a customer?

service-level agreement

What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port?

set native-vlan-id

​What command can be used on a Cisco router to view the routing table?

show ip route

You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch?

show vlan

Signals traveling through areas in which many wireless communications systems are in use will exhibit a lower______________ due to the higher proportion of noise.

signal to noise ratio

Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal?

simplex

Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal? -duplex -half-duplex -simplex -full-duplex

simplex

In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver while acknowledgement for the segment is outstanding? urgent pointer URG flag sliding window sequence number

sliding window

Which hexadecimal block in an IPv6 address is used for the Subnet ID?

the fourth one

Which VLAN on a switch manages untagged frames

the native Vlan

The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) utilizes what technology to create timeslots on a channel?

time division multiple access (TDMA)

Which of the following is not a good reason to segment a network?

to increase the number of networking devices in a network

What switching technique allows you to funnel traffic belonging to more than one VLAN through a single switch interface?

trunking

When dealing with static electricity, what kind of failure caused by static discharge shortens the life of a component, and can cause intermittent errors?

upset failure

When viewing the pinout for T568B, what is the correct order of wire colors, starting at pin 1?

white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

When viewing the pinout for T568B, what is the correct order of wire colors, starting at pin 1? -white/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown -blue, white/blue, green, white/green, orange, white/orange, brown, white/brown -white/brown, brown, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, orange, white/orange -white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

What type of documentation tool is a website that can be edited by users, allowing them to add files and photos and links between pages?

wiki

What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure?

wiring schematic

What Ethernet standard below is also referred to as "thinnet"?​

​10Base2

Standard PoE devices ​must be provided with how much power in order to function?

​15.4 watts

A device that is responsible for modulating digital signals into analog signals, and demodulating analog signals into digital signals at the receiving end, is known as?​

​A modem

The most common multiplexing technology used in conjunction with fiber optics is which option below

​DWDM

​iSCSI

​If the use of a pre-existing Ethernet infrastructure is desired for a SAN, what Transport Layer protocol should be utilized? ​Fibre Channel ​iSCSI ​SAS ​PATA

​Fiber optic

​What cable type comes in two different modes, single mode and multimode? ​UTP ​STP ​Fiber optic ​Coaxial

​vertical cross connect

​What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs? ​horizontal cross connect ​patch cable ​vertical cross connect ​diagonal cabling

​half duplex

​Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium but in only one direction at a time? ​full duplex ​half duplex ​simplex ​multiplex

Since cable TV and cable ​Internet can share the same coaxial cable, they are considered to be what type of technology?

​broadband

In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to?​

​flow label

What type of routing protocol enables routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to create a map of an entire network?​

​link state

Using a form of transmission that allows multiple signals to travel simultaneously over one medium is known as which of the following options?​

​multiplexing

What type of cross-talk occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal? ​

​near end cross talk


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