4 Federal Aviation Regulations

115. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A. Glider. B. Airship. C. Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: If aircraft of different categories are converging, the right-of-way depends upon who has the least maneuverability. A glider has right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft. Answer (B) is incorrect. An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft but not a glider. Answer (C) is incorrect. Aircraft refueling other aircraft have right-of-way over all engine- driven aircraft. A glider has no engine.

50. To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in A. the same category and class of aircraft to be used. B. the same type of aircraft to be used. C. any aircraft.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: No one may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night (i.e., the period from 1 hr. after sunset to 1 hr. before sunrise) unless (s)he has made three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days, at night, in the category and class of aircraft to be used. Answer (B) is incorrect. Unless a type-rating is required, it does not have to be the same type of aircraft. ("Type" refers to a specific make and general model, e.g., Cessna 152/172.) Answer (C) is incorrect. It must be the same category and class (not any) of aircraft to be used.

100. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed that person within the preceding by A. 8 hours. B. 12 hours. C. 24 hours.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding 8 hours. Answer (B) is incorrect. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours (not 12 hours) after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage. Answer (C) is incorrect. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours (not 24 hours) after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage.

123. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A. 200 knots. B. 230 knots. C. 250 knots.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may operate an airplane in the airspace underlying Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH). Answer (B) is incorrect. The maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace is 230 MPH, not 230 knots. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the maximum indicated airspeed when operating an airplane below 10,000 ft. MSL, not in the airspace underlying Class B airspace.

127. Except when for takeoff or landing, necessary an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? A. 500 feet. B. 700 feet. C. 1,000 feet.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: Over uncongested areas, an altitude of 500 ft. above the surface is required. Over open water and sparsely populated areas, a distance of 500 ft. from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure must be maintained. Answer (B) is incorrect. An aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 (not 700) ft. from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. Answer (C) is incorrect. An aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 (not 1,000) ft. from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

53. Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three aircraft within the preceding landings in your A. 90 days. B. 60 days. C. 30 days.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: To carry passengers, you must have made three landings and three takeoffs within the preceding 90 days. All three landings must be made in aircraft of the same category, class, and, if a type rating is required, type as the one in which passengers are to be carried. Answer (B) is incorrect. To carry passengers, a pilot is required to have made at least three landings and three takeoffs within the preceding 90 days, not 60 days. Answer (C) is incorrect. According to 14 CFR 61.57, to carry passengers, a pilot must have made at least three landings and three takeoffs within the preceding 90 days, not 30 days.

124. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is A. 200 knots. B. 230 knots. C. 250 knots.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which an airplane may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is 200 knots (230 MPH). Answer (B) is incorrect. The figure of 230 MPH, not 230 knots, is the maximum indicated airspeed at which an airplane may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area. Answer (C) is incorrect. The figure of 250 knots is the maximum indicated airspeed at which an airplane may be flown below 10,000 feet MSL or in Class B airspace, not when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area.

13. After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time? A. Vy. B. Vx. C. VA.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: Vy means the airspeed for the best rate of climb (i.e., the airspeed that you use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time). Answer (B) is incorrect. Vx is the airspeed for the best angle (not rate) of climb. Answer (C) is incorrect. VA is the design maneuvering airspeed, not the best rate of climb airspeed.

21. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A. Servicing landing gear wheel bearings. B. Alteration of main seat support brackets. C. Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Appendix A to Part 43 provides a list of work that is considered preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing, is considered preventive maintenance. Answer (B) is incorrect. The alteration of main seat support brackets is considered an airframe major repair, not preventive maintenance. Answer (C) is incorrect. Engine adjustments to to be used is considered a powerplant allow automotive gas major alteration, not preventive maintenance.

106. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during safety A. takeoffs and landings. B. all flight conditions. C. flight in turbulent air.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: During takeoff and landing and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his or her safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. If shoulder harnesses are available, they must be used by crewmembers during takeoff and landing. Answer (B) is incorrect. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their shoulder harnesses fastened only during takeoffs and landings, not during all flight conditions. Answer (C) is incorrect. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their shoulder harnesses fastened only during takeoffs and landings, not during flight in turbulent air.

109. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during A. taxi, takeoffs, and landings. B. all flight conditions. C. flight in turbulent air.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: During the taxi, takeoff, and landing of U.S.- registered civil aircraft, each person on board that aircraft must occupy a seat or berth with a safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, properly secured about him or her. However, a person who has not reached his or her second birthday may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat (but is still required to use approved safety belts for takeoff). Answer (B) is incorrect. Safety belts are required to be landings, not during all flight conditions. Answer (C) is incorrect. secured about passengers only during taxi, takeoffs, and required to be secured about passengers during Safety belts are taxi, takeoffs, and landings, not during flight in turbulent air.

28. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA's Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office? A. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. B. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. C. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Each person holding a certificate under Part 61 shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action involving alcohol or drugs to the FAA's Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Answer (B) is incorrect. 14 CFR 61.15 allows a person 60 days after the motor vehicle action, not 30 days. Answer (C) is incorrect. A person must notify the FAA's Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office no later than 60 days after a motor vehicle action involving drugs or alcohol.

111. You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should A. explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing. B. allow him to use his seat belt for the entire trip without the shoulder harness. C. allow him to use his seat belt for takeoff and landing and the shoulder harness while en route.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat with a safety belt and, if installed, a shoulder harness, properly secured during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. Answer (B) is incorrect. Use of the shoulder harness is not required en route, but it is required during taxi, takeoff, and both seat belts and shoulder harnesses during taxi, takeoff, and landing. Answer (C) is incorrect. Passengers are required to wear landing; neither is required while en route.

43. Each recreational or private pilot is required to have A. a biennial flight review. B. an annual flight review. C. a semiannual flight review.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a biennial (every 2 years) flight review. Answer (B) is incorrect. Each pilot is required to have a biennial, not annual, flight review. Answer (C) is incorrect. Each pilot is required to have a biennial, not semiannual, flight review.

125. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? A. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing. an aircraft should always be operated at an altitude high enough to permit an emergency landing without endangering people or property on the ground. Answer (B) is incorrect. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface is the minimum safe altitude over uncongested areas and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure is the minimum safe altitude over open water or sparsely populated areas. Answer (C) is incorrect. The minimum safe altitude anywhere is an altitude that allows an emergency landing to be made without undue hazards to persons or property on the surface, not 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

54. If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only A. 30 days after the date of the move. B. 60 days after the date of the move. C. 90 days after the date of the move.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: If you have changed your permanent mailing address, you may not exercise the privileges of your pilot certificate after 30 days from the date of the address change unless you have notified the FAA in writing of the change. You are required to notify the Airmen Certification Branch at PO Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. You may also use the airmen services system on the FAA website. NOTE: While you must notify the FAA if your address changes, you are not required to carry a certificate that shows your current address. The FAA will not issue a new certificate upon receipt of your new address unless you send a written request and $2 to the address shown above. Answer (B) is incorrect. If you change your permanent mailing address, you may exercise the privileges of your pilot certificate for a period of only 30 (not 60) days after the date you move unless you notify the FAA in writing of the change. Answer (C) is incorrect. If you change your permanent mailing address, you may exercise the privileges of your pilot certificate for a period of only 30 (not 90) days after the date you move unless you notify the FAA in writing of the change.

98. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? A. In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. B. Only if the person does not have access to the flight deck or pilot's compartment. C. Under no condition.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs to be carried in that aircraft, except in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. Answer (B) is incorrect. No pilot may allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft except in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care, not if that person does not have access to the flight deck or pilot's compartment. Answer (C) is incorrect. A pilot may allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

46. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding A. 90 days. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: To act as pilot in command of an airplane with passengers aboard, you must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings (to a full stop if in a tailwheel airplane) in an airplane of the same category, class, and, if a type rating is required, of the same type within the preceding 90 days. Category refers to airplane, rotorcraft, etc.; class refers to single- or multi-engine, land or sea. Answer (B) is incorrect. A flight review, not recency experience, is required every 24, not 12, calendar months. Answer (C) is incorrect. A flight review, not recency experience, is normally required of all pilots every 24 months.

7. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed? A. VFE B. VLOF C. VFC

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: VFE means the maximum flap extended speed. Answer (B) is incorrect. VLOF means liftoff (not maximum flap extended) speed. Answer (C) is incorrect. VFC means maximum speed for stability characteristics, not maximum flap extended speed.

12. Vs0 is defined as the A. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. B. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration. C. stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Vs0 is defined as the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. Answer (B) is incorrect. Vs1 (not Vs0) is the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration. Answer (C) is incorrect. Vs (not Vs0) is the stalling speed, and V2 min. (not Vs0) is the minimum takeoff safety speed.

10. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? A. VA B. VLO C. VNE

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: VẠ means design maneuvering speed. Answer (B) is incorrect. VLO is the maximum landing gear operating, not the maneuvering, speed. Answer (C) is incorrect. VNE is the never-exceed, not the maneuvering, speed.

113. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? A. The airship. B. The airplane. C. Each pilot should alter course to the right.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When aircraft of different categories are converging, the less maneuverable aircraft has the right-of-way. Thus, the airship has the right-of-way in this question. Answer (B) is incorrect. When converging, the airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. Each pilot would alter course to the right if the airship and airplane were approaching head-on, or nearly so, not converging.

99. You attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is A. below .04%. B. below .08%. C. 0.0%.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: 14 CFR Part 91 requires that the blood alcohol level be less than .04% and that 8 hr. pass between drinking alcohol and piloting an aircraft. A pilot with a blood alcohol level of .04% or greater after 8 hr. cannot fly until the blood alcohol falls below that amount. Even though blood alcohol may be well below .04%, a pilot cannot fly sooner than 8 hr. after drinking alcohol. Answer (B) is incorrect. The legal limit for motor vehicle operation in many states is 0.08%. However, to operate an aircraft, a pilot's blood alcohol level must be below .04% and 8 hr. must have passed since consuming the last drink. Answer (C) is incorrect. The legal limit to operate an aircraft is 04%. With a blood alcohol level of 0.0%, a pilot would be legal to fly as long as it has been greater than 8 hr. since drinking the last alcoholic beverage.

4. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? A. Normal, utility, acrobatic. B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider. C. Landplane, seaplane.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Category of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping of aircraft based use or operating limitations. Examples include upon intended transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted, and provisional. Answer (B) is incorrect. Airplane, rotorcraft, and glider are categories of aircraft used with respect to the certification of airmen, not aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. Landplane and seaplane are classes, not categories, of aircraft used with respect to the certification of aircraft.

5. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which a class of aircraft? A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. B. Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited. C. Transport, restricted, provisional.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Class of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a broad grouping of aircraft having similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing. Examples include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, landplane, and seaplane. Answer (B) is incorrect. Normal, utility, acrobatic, and limited are categories, not classes, of aircraft used with respect to the certification of aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. Transport, restricted, and provisional are categories, not classes, of aircraft used with respect to the certification of aircraft.

95. Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate? A. Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate. B. In the current, FAA-approved flight manual. C. In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The operating limitations for experimental aircraft and aircraft issued a special light-sport airworthiness certificate are a permanent part of the aircraft's airworthiness certificate and must remain in the aircraft during operation. Answer (B) is incorrect. Aircraft that are issued standard airworthiness certificates contain operating limitations in their FAA-approved flight manuals, but the operating limitations for experimental aircraft and aircraft issued a special light- sport airworthiness certificate are attached to the airworthiness certificate itself. Answer (C) is incorrect. The operating limitations for experimental aircraft and aircraft issued a special light- sport airworthiness certificate are attached to the airworthiness certificate itself. They are not found in the aircraft's airframe and engine logbooks.

8. Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? A. VLE B. VLO C. VFE

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: VLE means the maximum landing gear extended speed. Answer (B) is incorrect. VLO is the maximum landing gear operating (not extended) speed. Answer (C) is incorrect. VE is the maximum flap (not landing gear) extended speed.

61. If you are operating under BasicMed, what is the maximum speed at which you may fly? A. 250 KIAS. B. 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet, and 230 KIAS above 10,000 feet. C. 200 KIAS below 10,000 feet, and 230 KIAS above 10,000 feet.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: If you are operating under BasicMed, you may fly an aircraft at a maximum speed of 250 KIAS. Answer (B) is incorrect. If you are operating under BasicMed, you may fly an aircraft at a maximum speed of 250 KIAS, whether you are above or below 10,000 ft. Answer (C) is incorrect. If you are operating under BasicMed, you may fly an aircraft at a maximum speed of 250 KIAS, whether you are above or below 10,000 ft.

18. Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? A. Student or Recreational pilot. B. Private or Commercial pilot. C. None of the answers are correct.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: A person who holds a pilot certificate issued under Part 61 may perform preventive maintenance on any airplane owned or operated by that pilot that is not used in air carrier service. To approve the airplane for return to service after preventive maintenance is performed by a pilot, the pilot must hold at least a private pilot certificate. Answer (A) is incorrect. While a student or recreational pilot may perform preventive maintenance on any airplane owned or operated by that pilot, the pilot must hold at least a private pilot certificate to approve the airplane's return to service. Answer (C) is incorrect. Any pilot may perform preventive maintenance on an at least a private pilot certificate to approve the airplane's return eairplane owned or operated by that pilot, but the pilot must hold to service.

60. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? A. If the passengers pay all the operating expenses. B. If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. C. There is no exception.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: A private pilot may act as pilot in command of an airplane used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization for which passengers make donations to the organization, provided the following requirements are met: the responsible Flight Standards office is notified at least 7 days before the flight, the flight is conducted from an adequate public airport, the pilot has logged at least 500 hr., no aerobatic or formation flights are performed, the 100-hr. inspection of the airplane requirement is complied with, and the flight is day-VFR. Answer (A) is incorrect. A private pilot may only share the operating costs, not have the passengers pay for all the operating costs. Answer (C) is incorrect. The exception is a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization.

58. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A. act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment. B. not pay less than the pro rata share of the of operating expenses a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. C. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: A private pilot may not pay less than an equal (pro rata) share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers. These expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures (e.g., landing fees, tie-down fees, etc.), or rental fees. Answer (A) is incorrect. A private pilot cannot act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation. Answer (C) is incorrect. A private pilot may equally share operating expenses of a flight with his or her passengers.

59. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A. be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days. B. not less than the pay pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. C. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: A private pilot may not pay less than an equal (pro rata) share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers. These expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures (e.g., landing fees, tie-down fees, etc.), or rental fees. Answer (A) is incorrect. A private pilot may be paid for the operating expenses of a flight in connection with any business or employment if the flight is only incidental to that business or employment and no passengers or property are carried for or hire, not if the pilot has made three takeoffs compensation 8IA private pilot may equally share the operating expenses and landings in the preceding 90 days. Answer (C) is incorrect. of a flight with his or her passengers.

55. A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of A. 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider. B. 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. C. 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: As a private pilot, you may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless you have had, and entered in your logbook, at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that you are using to tow a glider. Answer (A) is incorrect. You must have logged at least 100 hours as pilot in command in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that you are using to tow a glider, not just any aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. You must have logged at least 100 hours, not 200 hours, as pilot in command.

103. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? A. Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. B. Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. C. Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Each pilot in command will, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. Answer (A) is incorrect. During preflight action, the pilot is required to become familiar with all available information concerning the flight, not just to check the aircraft logbook for appropriate entries. Answer (C) is incorrect. During preflight action, the pilot is required to become familiar with all available information concerning the flight, not simply review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

49. The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done the time period from during A. sunset to sunrise. B. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C. the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: No one may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night (i.e., the period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise as published in the American Air Almanac) unless (s)he has made three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days, at night, in the category and class of aircraft to be used. Answer (A) is incorrect. The period from sunset to sunrise is the time that aircraft lights are required to be on, not the time period for night recency experience. Answer (C) is incorrect. The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight is the definition of night, not the time period for night recency experience.

121. When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A. 180 knots. B. 200 knots. C. 250 knots.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may operate an airplane in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH). Answer (A) is incorrect. When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is 200 (not 180) knots. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the maximum speed authorized below 10,000 ft. MSL, not when flying in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace.

37. In order to act as pilot in command of a high- performance airplane, a pilot must have A. made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane. B. received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. C. passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Prior to acting as pilot in command of an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane from an authorized flight instructor who has certified in the pilot's logbook that the individual is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane. Answer (A) is incorrect. In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, you must have received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor, not have made three solo takeoffs and landings. Answer (C) is incorrect. You must have received and logged ground and flight training, and a logbook endorsement from an authorized flight instructor, not a flight test, is required prior to acting as a pilot in command of a high-performance airplane.

108. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? A. The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight. B. The pilot in command must brief the the use of safety belts and passengers on notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. C. The pilot in command has no obligation in use of safety belts. regard to passengers'

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: The pilot in command is required to brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. Answer (A) is incorrect. The pilot in command is only required to notify the passengers to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing, not during the entire flight. Answer (C) is incorrect. The pilot in command has the obligation require their use during taxi, takeoffs, and landings. both to instruct passengers on the use of safety belts and to

120. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way? A. The motorboat. B. The seaplane. C. Both should alter course to the right.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel (e.g., a motorboat), are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way. Since the seaplane is to the motorboat's right, the seaplane has the right-of-way. Answer (A) is incorrect. On crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way. Since the seaplane is to the right of the motorboat, the seaplane (not the motorboat) has the right-of-way. Answer (C) is incorrect. Both would alter course to the right only if they were approaching head-on, or nearly so.

23. Is it legal to fly on the dealer's registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer? A. Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 30 days. B. No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered. C. Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 120 days.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate is another form of registration. It is valid only for flights within the United States by the manufacturer or a dealer for flight testing or demonstration for sale and must be removed by the dealer when the aircraft is sold. The back side of the registration is filled out with the appropriate information from the sale as well as the new owner's name. The certificate must then be mailed back to the FAA registry in Oklahoma City. Doing so protects the buyer and seller. This requirement is law under 14 CFR 47.41(b), which became effective March 31, 2008. Answer (A) is incorrect. Once the airplane changes ownership, the seller's aircraft registration certificate is removed. Answer (C) is incorrect. Once the airplane changes ownership, the aircraft's registration is removed, the form on the back is filled out, and the certificate is then sent to the FAA.

30. A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A. August 10, 3 years later. B. August 31, 5 years later. C. August 31, 3 years later.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A pilot may exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate under a third-class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month 5 years after it was issued, for pilots less than 40 years old on the date of the medical examination. A third-class medical certificate issued to a 36-year-old pilot on Aug. 10 will be valid until midnight on Aug. 31, 5 years later. Answer (A) is incorrect. Medical certificates expire at the last day of the month. Thus, a medical certificate issued on Aug. 10 will expire on Aug. 31, not Aug. 10. Additionally, since the pilot is less than 40 years old, the third-class medical certificate is valid for 5 years, not 3 years. Answer (C) is incorrect. A pilot may exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate under a third- class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month 5 years later if the pilot was less than 40 years old on the date of the medical examination.

33. A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on A. August 10, 2 years later. B. August 31, 5 years later. C. August 31, 2 years later.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A pilot may exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate under a third-class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month 5 years after it was issued, for pilots less than 40 years old at the time of the medical examination. A third-class medical certificate issued to a 19-year-old pilot on Aug. 10 will be valid until midnight on Aug. 31, 5 years later. Answer (A) is incorrect. Medical certificates expire at the end of the month. A medical certificate issued on Aug. 10 will expire at midnight on Aug. 31, not Aug. 10. Additionally, since the pilot is less than 40 years old, the third-class medical certificate is valid for 5 years, not 3 years. Answer (C) is incorrect. A pilot may exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate under a third-class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month 2 years later if the pilot was 40 years old or older, not less than 40 years old, on the date of the medical examination.

15. What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)? A. For informational purposes only. B. They are mandatory. C. They are voluntary.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: ADs are issued under 14 CFR Part 39 by the FAA to require correction of unsafe conditions found in an airplane, an airplane engine, a propeller, or an appliance when such conditions exist and are likely to exist or develop in other products of the same design. Since ADs are issued under 14 CFR Part 39, they are regulatory and must be complied with, unless a specific exemption is granted. Answer (A) is incorrect. ADs outline required maintenance; they are not for informational purposes only. Answer (C) is incorrect. ADs are mandatory, not voluntary.

116. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? A. A balloon. B. An aircraft in distress. C. An aircraft on final approach to land.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect. An aircraft in distress (not a balloon) has the right-of-way over all other air traffic. Answer (C) is incorrect. An aircraft in distress (not an aircraft on final approach to land) has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

119. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A. Airship. B. Aircraft towing other aircraft. C. Gyroplane.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all engine-driven aircraft. An airship is an engine-driven, lighter-than-air aircraft that can be steered. Answer (A) is incorrect. An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft, but not an aircraft towing other aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. A gyroplane (which is a rotorcraft) must give way to both an airship and aircraft towing other aircraft.

94. Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found? A. On the Airworthiness Certificate. B. In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. C. In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. Answer (A) is incorrect. The airworthiness certificate only indicates the airplane was in an airworthy condition when delivered from the factory, not its operating limitations. Answer (C) is incorrect. The airframe and engine logbooks contain the airplane's maintenance record, not its operating limitations.

1. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft? A. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. C. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Category of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a broad classification of aircraft. Examples include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. Answer (A) is incorrect. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and free balloon are classes (not categories) used with respect to the certification of airmen. Answer (C) is incorrect. Single-engine land and sea and multiengine land and sea are classes (not categories) used with respect to the certification of airmen.

2. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. B. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea. C. Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Class of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics. Examples include single engine, multiengine, land, water, gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and free balloon. Answer (A) is incorrect. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air are categories, not classes, used with respect to the certification of airmen. Answer (C) is incorrect. Lighter-than- air is a category, not class, of aircraft used with respect to the certification of airmen.

25. A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current A. logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished. B. medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate. C. endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Current and appropriate pilot and medical certificates must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when you act as pilot in command (PIC) or as a required pilot flight crewmember. Answer (A) is incorrect. As a private pilot, you need not have your logbook in your possession or readily accessible aboard the airplane. A recreational pilot must carry a logbook to show evidence of an endorsement that permits certain flights, not to show completion of a flight review. Answer (C) is incorrect. The endorsement after satisfactorily completing a flight review is made in your pilot logbook, not on your pilot certificate.

29. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which department should this be reported to? A. Within 60 days to the Airmen Certification Branch. B. Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office. C. Within 60 days to the Regulatory Support Division.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Each person holding a certificate under Part 61 shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action involving alcohol or drugs to the FAA's Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Answer (A) is incorrect. The Airmen Certification Branch handles the certification of airmen, not alcohol and/or drug convictions. Answer (C) is incorrect. The Regulatory Support Division is involved in airmen testing, designee standardization, and the management of aviation data systems.

57. If you are operating under BasicMed, you may fly an aircraft with A. an actual takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb. B. a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb. C. any weight, as long as you do not exceed the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: If you are operating under BasicMed, you may fly an aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb. Answer (A) is incorrect. To operate under BasicMed, you must fly aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight, not an actual takeoff weight, of no more than 6,000 lb. Answer (C) is incorrect. To operate under BasicMed, you must fly aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb.

96. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? A. Only in an emergency. B. If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. C. If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property. Answer (A) is incorrect. Objects may be dropped from an aircraft if precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface, not only in an emergency. Answer (C) is incorrect. Objects may be dropped from an aircraft if precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. Prior permission from the FAA is not required.

17. What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance? A. 14 CFR Part 91.403. B. 14 CFR Part 43.3. C. 14 CFR Part 61.113.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Appendix A to Part 43 provides a list of work that is considered preventive maintenance. Part 43 allows a person who holds a pilot certificate to perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft owned or operated by that pilot that is not used in air carrier service. Answer (A) is incorrect. 14 CFR 91.403 provides the general operating rules relating to maintenance, not those relating to who can perform preventive maintenance. Answer (C) is incorrect. 14 CFR 61.113 provides the limitations and privileges of a private pilot as pilot in command.

110. Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? A. Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings. B. Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. C. Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Regulations require that safety belts in an airplane be properly secured about all passengers during taxi, takeoffs, and landings. Answer (A) is incorrect. Regulations require passengers as well as crewmembers to wear safety belts during takeoffs and landings. Answer (C) is incorrect. Although it is a good procedure, safety belts are required only for passengers during taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

91. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the A. Federal Aviation Administration. B. pilot in command. C. aircraft manufacturer.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the pilot in command. Answer (A) is incorrect. The final authority as to the hoperation of an aircraft is the pilot in command, not the FAA. Answer (C) is incorrect. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the pilot in command, not the aircraft manufacturer.

93. You are PlC of a flight. During your preflight, you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible for this determination? A. A certificated aircraft mechanic. B. The pilot-in-command. C. The owner or operator.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring the aircraft is in an airworthy condition before each flight. Answer (A) is incorrect. A certified mechanic should perform maintenance or repairs on an aircraft but is not responsible for ensuring the aircraft is in an airworthy condition before each flight. Answer (C) is incorrect. The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, but the pilot in command is responsible for determining the aircraft remains airworthy before each flight.

92. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? A. A certificated aircraft mechanic. B. The pilot in command. C. The owner or operator.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority for, determining whether the airplane is in condition for safe flight. Answer (A) is incorrect. The pilot in command (not a certificated aircraft mechanic) is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight. Answer (C) is incorrect. The pilot in command (not the owner or operator) is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight.

122. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 200 knots. B. 250 knots. C. 288 knots.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 MPH). Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the maximum indicated airspeed when at or below 2,500 feet above the surface and within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area, not the maximum indicated airspeed for operations below 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. The maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL is 288 MPH, not 288 knots.

90. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from A. 700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. to and B. 1,200 feet above the surface, up including 17,999 feet MSL. C. the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending from 1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet. Answer (A) is incorrect. Federal Airways extend from 1,200 (not 700) feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Federal Airways extend from 1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL, not 18,000 feet MSL. The airspace that extends upward from 18,000 feet MSL is Class A airspace.

41. As pilot in command with a recreational certificate, you must have in your personal possession while exercising the privileges of that certificate A. a current logbook endorsement for an accomplished flight review. B. a current pilot and medical certificate. C. a pilot logbook documenting recent experience requirements.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When acting as a pilot in command or as a crew member, you must have a valid pilot certificate and a current and appropriate medical certificate (or driver's license, if appropriate) in your personal possession or readily accessible in the airplane. Answer (A) is incorrect. A recreational pilot must carry a logbook to show evidence of an endorsement that permits certain flights, not to show completion of a flight review. (S)he must carry his or her logbook with the required authorized instructor endorsements on all solo flights (1) that exceed 50 NM from the airport at which training was received, (2) within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control, (3) conducted between sunset and sunrise, or (4) in an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating. Answer (C) is incorrect. A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the required authorized instructor endorsements when on solo flights that exceed 50 NM.

118. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? A. The faster aircraft shall give way. B. The aircraft on the left shall give way. C. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When two aircraft of the same category converge (but not head-on), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. Thus, an airplane on the left gives way to the airplane on the right. Answer (A) is incorrect. When two aircraft of the same category converge (but not head-on), the aircraft on the left (not the faster aircraft) shall give way. Answer (C) is incorrect. The required action when two aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly so is for each aircraft to give way to the right.

40. The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? A. Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator. B. Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. C. Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: A person may not act as pilot in command of any of the following aircraft unless (s)he holds a type rating for that aircraft: (1) A large aircraft (except lighter-than-air), i.e., over 12,500 pounds gross weight (2) A turbojet-powered airplane (3) Other aircraft specified by the FAA through aircraft type certificate procedures Answer (A) is incorrect. All aircraft, not only those requiring type ratings, are operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator of the FAA. Answer (C) is incorrect. Any type of test aircraft can be involved in ferry flights, training flights, or a type rating (e.g., your single-engine not require flights and may trainer airplane on a training flight).

22. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A. Repair of landing gear brace struts. B. Replenishing hydraulic fluid. C. Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Appendix A to Part 43 provides a list of work that is considered preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. An example of preventive maintenance is replenishing hydraulic fluid. Answer (A) is incorrect. The repair of landing gear brace struts is considered an airframe major repair, not preventive maintenance. Answer (C) is incorrect. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams is considered an airframe major repair, not preventive maintenance.

3. The definition of nighttime is A. sunset to sunrise. B. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C. the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: "Night" means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight (as published in The Air Almanac) converted to local time. Answer (A) is incorrect. "Sunset to sunrise" is the time during which navigation lights must be used. Answer (B) is incorrect. The definition for nighttime recency of experience requirements is 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

38. What is the definition of a high-performance airplane? A. An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed- pitch propeller. B. An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots. C. An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: A high-performance airplane is defined as an of more than 200 horsepower. airplane with an engine Answer (A) is incorrect. A high-performance airplane is an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower, not an airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller. Answer (B) is incorrect. A high- performance airplane is an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower, not an airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.

44. If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? A. August 8, next year. B. August 31, 1 year later. C. August 31, 2 years later.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: A pilot is required to have a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months before the month in which the pilot acts as pilot in command. Thus, a recreational or private pilot who had a flight review on Aug. 8 of this year must later. have a flight review completed by Aug. 31, 2 years Answer (A) is incorrect. Flight reviews expire at the end of the month. Thus, a flight review on Aug. 8 will expire on Aug. 31, not Aug. 8. Answer (B) is incorrect. A flight review is valid for 2 years, not 1 year.

27. Each person who holds pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any A. authorized representative of the Department of Transportation. B. person in a position of authority. C. local law enforcement officer.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Each person who holds a pilot certificate, authorization, or flight instructor certificate, medical certificate, license required by Federal Aviation Regulations shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator of the FAA, an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. Answer (A) is incorrect. An authorized representative of the Department of Transportation is not an example of someone permitted to inspect pilot and medical certificates. Answer (B) is incorrect. Not just any person with any kind of authority, such as foreman, can inspect your pilot certificate or medical certificate.

48. To act as carrying pilot in command of an aircraft passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same A. make and model. B. category and class, but not type. C. category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: No one may act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers unless within the preceding 90 days (s)he has made three takeoffs and three landings as sole manipulator of the controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, the same type. If the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been to a full stop. Answer (A) is incorrect. It must be the same category and class (not make and model) and, if a type rating is required, the same type. Answer (B) is incorrect. It must be the same type aircraft if a type rating is required for that aircraft.

52. You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings in multi-engine land airplanes in the previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this meets the PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes? A. Multi- or single-engine land. B. Single-engine land airplane. C. Multi-engine land airplane.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers unless that person has made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days takeoffs and landings were performed in an and the required aircraft of the same category (airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.). class (single-engine, multi-engine, land, water, gyroplane, etc.), and type (if a type rating is required). Therefore, this meets PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in mult- engine land airplanes. Answer (A) is incorrect. The required takeoffs and landings must be performed in an aircraft of the same category (airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.), class (single-engine, multi-engine, land, water, gyroplane, etc.), and type (if a type rating is required). aTherefore, this meets PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in multi-engine land airplanes, not multi- or single-engine land. Answer (B) is incorrect. The required takeoffs and landings must be performed in an aircraft of the same category (airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.), class (single- engine, multi-engine, land, water, gyroplane, etc.), and type (1f a type rating is required). Therefore, this meets PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in multi-engine land airplanes, not single-engine land airplanes.

97. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with A. .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. or more alcohol in the B. .004 percent by weight blood. C. .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft while having a .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood. Answer (A) is incorrect. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with .04% (not .008%) by weight or more alcohol in the blood. Answer (B) is incorrect. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of civil aircraft with .04% e(not .004%) by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

112. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight A. over a densely populated area. B. in Class D airspace under special VFR. C. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may operate in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in formation. Answer (A) is incorrect. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. There are no restrictions about formation flights over a densely populated area. Answer (B) is incorrect. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. There are no restrictions about formation flight in Class D airspace under special VFR.

45. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft (whether carrying passengers or not), a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding 24 calendar months. Answer (A) is incorrect. A pilot must have satisfactorily completed a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding 24 (not 6) calendar months. Answer (B) is incorrect. A pilot must have satisfactorily completed a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding 24 (not 12) calendar months.

56. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months A. at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft. B. at least three flights in a powered glider. C. at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, you are required to have made, in the preceding 24 months, (1) At least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot or (2) At least three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect. You are required to have made within the preceding 24 months at least three flights as pilot in command, not as an observer, of a glider being towed by an aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect. You are required to have made within the preceding 24 months at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft, not three flights in a powered glider.

51. The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane A. may be touch and go or full stop. B. must be touch and go. C. must be to a full stop.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: To comply with recency requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane, one must have made three takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the past 90 days. Answer (A) is incorrect. In a tailwheel airplane, the takeoffs and landings must be to a full stop only, not touch and go. Answer (B) is incorrect. In a tailwheel airplane, the takeoffs and landings must be to a full stop, not touch and go.

9. VNO is defined as the A. normal operating range. B. never-exceed speed. C. maximum structural cruising speed.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: VNO is defined as the maximum structural cruising speed. Answer (A) is incorrect. The normal airspeed operating range is indicated by the green arc on the airspeed indicator. There is no V-speed for this range. Answer (B) is incorrect. VNE (not VNO) is the never-exceed speed.

117. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? A. The airplane pilot should give way to the left. B. The glider pilot should give way to the right. C. Both pilots should give way to the right.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: When aircraft are approaching head-on, or nearly so (regardless of category), each aircraft shall alter course to the right. Answer (A) is incorrect. The glider has the right-of-way unless the two aircraft are approaching head-on, in which case both pilots should give way by turning to the right. Answer (B) is incorrect. Both pilots of a glider and an airplane should give way to the right, not only the glider pilot.

114. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A. that has the other to its right. B. that is the least maneuverable. C. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or overtake another aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect. WWhen two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of- way belongs to the aircraft at the lower altitude, not the aircraft that has the other to the right. Answer (B) is incorrect. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft at the lower altitude, not the aircraft that is the least maneuverable.

6. An ATC clearance provides A. priority over all other traffic. B. adequate separation from all traffic. C. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A clearance issued by ATC is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions. An ATC clearance means an authorization by ATC, for the purpose of preventing collision between known airplanes, for an airplane to proceed under specified conditions within controlled airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. An ATC clearance does not over other traffic (although it might in necessarily give priority some instances). Answer (B) is incorrect. An ATC clearance only provides separation from other participating traffic.

42. If recreational or private pilot had a flight review on October 30, this year, when is the next flight review required? A. October 30, 2 years later. B. October 31, next year. C. October 31, 2 years later.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A pilot is required to have a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months before the month in which the pilot acts as pilot in command. Thus, a pilot who had a flight review on October 30 of this year must have a flight review completed by October 31, 2 years later. Answer (A) is incorrect. Flight reviews expire at the end of the month. Thus, a flight review on October 30 will expire on October 31. Answer (B) is incorrect. A flight review is valid for 2 years, not 1 year.

20. What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft? A. Pilot performed maintenance does not need be documented. B. Only major repairs and alterations need to be documented. C. The pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft's maintenance records.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A pilot who performs preventive maintenance must make an entry in the maintenance record containing the pilot's signature, certificate number, kind of certificate held, date of completion, and a description of the work performed. Answer (A) is incorrect. A maintenance record entry must be made for any maintenance done on an aircraft, including preventive maintenance by a pilot. Answer (B) is incorrect. In addition to major repairs and alterations, maintenance record entries must also be made for preventive maintenance performed by a pilot.

36. Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have A. passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector. B. an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command. C. received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A private pilot may not act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower) unless (s)he has received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor who has certified in his or her logbook that (s)he is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane. Answer (A) is incorrect. No FAA flight test is required, only ground and flight training and an endorsement from an authorized flight instructor. Answer (B) is incorrect. The ground and flight training and endorsement must be by an authorized flight instructor.

105. You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel of your aircraft. range As part of your preflight planning you must A. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. B. list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C. obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A required preflight action by the pilot in command of a flight not in the vicinity of an airport or a flight under IFR is to become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, including weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements. Additional preflight information for the flight includes alternatives available, runway length at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance information. Answer (A) is incorrect. Under VFR, it is not necessary to be familiar with instrument approaches at the destination airport. Answer (B) is incorrect. It is important that information for requirement to alternate airports is analyzed, however, it is not a list an alternate on a VFR flight plan.

19. When preventive maintenance is performed on an aircraft, what paperwork is required? A. A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook. B. The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook. C. The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: After preventive maintenance has been performed, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. Answer (A) is incorrect. The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate, in addition to the description of work performed, must be entered into the maintenance records. Answer (B) is incorrect. A description of work completed, signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work (if different than the who did person the work), in addition to the date the work was completed, must be entered into the maintenance records.

16. May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? A. Yes, under VFR conditions only. B. Yes, ADs are only voluntary. C. Yes, if allowed by the AD.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: An AD is used to notify aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribe the conditions under which the product (e.g., an aircraft) may continue to be operated. An AD may be one of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance upon receipt or one of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a relatively longer period of time. You may operate an airplane that is not in compliance with an AD, if such operation is allowed by the AD. Answer (A) is incorrect. An AD, not the operating conditions, allow an aircraft to be operated before compliance with the may AD. Answer (B) is incorrect. ADs are mandatory, not voluntary.

24. When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible the aircraft? A. When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery. B. Only when passengers are carried. C. Any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Current and appropriate pilot and medical certificates must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when you act as pilot in command (PIC) or as a required pilot flight crewmember. Answer (A) is incorrect. A current pilot certificate must be in your personal possession when acting as a PIC or as a required crewmember of an aircraft, not when acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery of an airship. Answer (B) is incorrect. Any time you fly as PIC or as a required crewmember, you must have a current pilot certificate in your personal possession regardless of whether passengers are carried or not.

26. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? A. Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review. B. A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and of experience. a pilot logbook showing recency C. An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Current and appropriate pilot and medical certificates must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when you act as pilot in command (PIC) or as a required pilot flight crewmember. Answer (A) is incorrect. Flight reviews and checkouts in aircraft are documented in your logbook rather than on separate certificates and need not be in your personal possession. Answer (B) is incorrect. The endorsement after satisfactorily completing a flight review is made in your logbook, not on your your pilot certificate. You are not required to have pilot logbook in your personal possession while acting as pilot in command.

107. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? A. Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. B. Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route. C. Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: During takeoff and landing and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his or her safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. If shoulder harnesses are available, they must be used by crewmembers during takeoff and landing. Answer (A) incorrect. Safety belts must be worn while en route. Answer (B) is incorrect. Safety belts (not shoulder harnesses) are required to be fastened while en route.

34. For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on A. October 21, 2 years later. B. October 31, next year. C. October 31, 5 years later.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: For private pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate will expire at the end of the last day of the 60th calendar month (5 years) after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate for pilots less than 40 years old on the date of the medical examination. Thus, a first-class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21 will be valid until midnight on October 31, 60 calendar months (5 years) after the month of the date of examination. Answer (A) is incorrect. Medical certificates expire on the last day of the calendar month, meaning a medical certificate issued on October 21 will expire on October 31. Additionally, for private end of the last day of the 60th calendar month after the month of pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate will expire at the the date of examination shown on the medical certificate. Thus, the medical certificate is valid for 5 years, not 2 years, for a pilot less than 40 years old on the date of the medical examination. Answer (B) is incorrect. A first-class medical certificate is valid for 1 year for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate.

32. For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on A. July 15, 2 years later. B. July 31, 1 year later. C. July 31, 2 years later.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: For private pilot operations, a second- class medical certificate will expire at the end of the last day of the month, 2 years after it was issued, for pilots 40 years old or older on the date of the medical examination. For private pilot operations, a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15 will be valid until midnight on July 31, 2 years later. Answer (A) is incorrect. A medical certificate expires on the last day of the month. Thus, a medical certificate issued on July 15 will expire on July 31, not July 15. Answer (B) is incorrect. A second-class medical certificate is valid for 1 year for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate.

62. You own an aircraft which is certificated to carry 8 occupants and has a total of 8 seats installed, including the pilot's seat. You have recently elected to fly under BasicMed. May you continue to fly the aircraft? A. Yes, if you remove two of the seats. B. Yes, as long as you carry no more than 5 passengers. C. No.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: If you are operating under BasicMed, you may only fly aircraft that are certificated to carry no more than 6 occupants. Answer (A) is incorrect. If you are operating under BasicMed, you are limited to flying aircraft that are certificated to carry no more than 6 occupants. Removing 2 of the seats will not than 6 occupants. change the fact that the aircraft is certificated to carry more Answer (B) is incorrect. If you are operating under BasicMed, you are limited to carrying no more than 5 passengers and to flying aircraft that are certificated to carry no more than 6 occupants. However, carrying 5 passengers will not change the fact that the aircraft is certificated to carry more than 6 occupants.

35. In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from: A. An FAA-designated Aviation Medical Examiner within the previous 60 months. B. A state-licensed physician within the previous 24 months. C. A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from a state- licensed physician within the previous 48 months. Answer (A) is incorrect. You are required to have received the examination from a state-licensed physician, not an FAA- designated Aviation Medical Examiner, and must have you received the examination within the previous 48 months, not the previous 60 months. Answer (B) is incorrect. You must have received the examination from a state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months, not the previous 24 months.

102. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A. review traffic control light signal procedures. B. check the accuracy of the navigation locator equipment and the emergency transmitter (ELT). C. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport specifically require the pilot in command to determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. Answer (A) is incorrect. Preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of an airport require the pilot in command to determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and takeoff and landing distance data, not to review traffic control light signal procedures. Answer (B) is incorrect. Preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of an airport require the pilot in command to determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and takeoff and landing distance data, not to check navigation equipment accuracy and the ELT.

101. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include A. the designation of an alternate airport. B. a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use. C. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Preflight actions for flights not in the vicinity of an airport include checking weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays. Answer (A) is incorrect. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned, not just the designation of an alternate airport. Answer (B) is incorrect. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned, not simply a study of arrival procedures at airports of intended use.

104. For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must A. file a VFR flight plan with the nearest flight service. B. obtain and squawk a discrete transponder code. C. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Preflight actions for flights not in the vicinity of an airport include checking weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays. In addition, for any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use and certain takeoff and landing distance information is also required. Answer (A) is incorrect. Preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of an airport do not require the pilot in command to file a VFR flight plan. Answer (B) is incorrect. Preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of an airport do not require the pilot in command to obtain and squawk a discrete transponder code.

14. How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid? A. As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate. B. Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage. C. As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The airworthiness certificate of an airplane remains valid as long as the airplane is in an airworthy condition, i.e., operated and maintained as required by Federal Aviation Regulations. Answer (A) is incorrect. The registration certificate is the document evidencing ownership. A changed registration has no effect on the airworthiness certificate. Answer (B) is incorrect. The airplane must be maintained and operated according to Federal Aviation Regulations, not indefinitely. Even if the aircraft suffers major damage, as long as all required repairs are made, the Airworthiness Certificate remains valid.

11. Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff? A. Vy. B. VA. C. Vx

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Vx means the best angle of climb airspeed (i.e., the airspeed which will provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance). Answer (A) is incorrect. Vy is the airspeed for the best rate (not angle) of climb. Answer (B) is incorrect. VA is the design maneuvering airspeed, not the best angle of climb airspeed.

126. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? A. An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. B. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft. C. An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When operating an aircraft over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over an open- air assembly of persons, a pilot must remain at an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect. The minimum safe altitude to operate an aircraft over a congested area is an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle (not above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure) within a horizontal distance of 2,000 feet. Answer (B) is incorrect. The minimum safe altitude to operate an aircraft over a congested area is an altitude of 1,000 (not 500) feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 (not 1,000) feet of the aircraft.

47. If recency of experience requirements for night fight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest be carried is time passengers may A. 1829. B. 1859. C. 1929.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČUSSION: For the purpose of night recency experience flight time, night is defined as the period beginning 1 hr. after have not met the sunset and ending 1 hr. before sunrise. If you night experience requirements and official sunset is 1830, a landing must be accomplished at or before 1929 if passengers are carried. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the time that night begins on aircraft position (navigation) lights. for the purpose of turning Answer (B) is incorrect. There is no regulation concerning the time 30 min. after official sunset.

31. A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A. May 3, 1 year later. B. May 31, 1 year later. C. May 31, 2 years later.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: A pilot may exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate under a third-class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month 2 after years it was issued, for pilots 40 years old or older on the date of the medical examination. A third-class medical certificate issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3 will be valid until midnight on May 31, 2 years later. Answer (A) is incorrect. Medical certificates expire on the last day of the month. Thus, a medical certificate issued on May 3 will expire on May 31, not May 3. Additionally, a third-class medical certificate is valid for 2 years, not 1 if the pilot is year, over 40 years old. Answer (B) is incorrect. A pilot may exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate under a third-class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month, 2 years, not 1 year, later if the pilot was 40 years old or older on the date of the examination.

39. To act as PIC of a high-performance airplane. which training or experience would meet the additional requirements? A. Logged at least five hours as SIC in a high- performance or turbine-powered airplane in the last 12 calendar months. B. Received and logged ground and flight training in an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller. C. Received and logged ground and flight training in a high-performance airplane and a received a logbook endorsement.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: To act as a PIC of a high-performance aircraft, the pilot must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane (an aircraft with more than 200 horsepower) or in a flight simulator or training device that is representative of a high- performance airplane. In addition, that pilot must also receive a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a high- performance airplane. Answer (A) is incorrect. There is no specific hourly flight time nor recency requirements necessary to act as a PIC of a high- performance airplane. However, it is required to receive and log ground and flight training and receive a logbook endorsement to act as a PIC of a high-performance airplane. Answer (B) is incorrect. This answer selection defines a complex airplane rather than a high-performance airplane; a high-performance airplane is one with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. To act as a PIC of a high-performance airplane, the pilot must have received and logged ground and flight training in a high-performance airplane and received a one-time logbook endorsement of proficiency.