4. Gia LabCE MLT Adaptive Test
What is the increase in the risk percentage for developing antibodies against red cell antigens (RBC alloimmunization) for patients who are characterized as chronically transfused patient? 1% - 4% 2% - 8% 5% - 10% 20% - 50%
2% - 8%
What changes in potassium and sodium serum results may occur with diuretic use? Decrease in both increase in both Increased in potassium and decrease in sodium Decrease in potassium and increase in sodium
Decrease in both
Disorders affecting the thyroid, pituitary, ad adrenal glands can all lead to anemia (mild to moderate). This is most often associated to which of the following? Increase in direct effector hormones Increase in tropic hormones Decrease in erythropoietin (EPO) Decrease in tropic hormones
Decrease in erythropoietin (EPO)
What is the Kleihauer-Betke test used for? Screen for sickle cell anemia Screen for fetal hemoglobin Differential between maternal and fetal red cells Screen for hemoglobin A1c
Differential between maternal and fetal red cells
Which of the following therapeutic drugs increases the force of myocardial muscle contraction? Primidone Cyclosporine Digoxin Disopyramide
Digoxin
When an automated or semi-automated method is used to read urine reagent strips, quality control testing must be performed at least: Once a week Once per month With each new instrument operator Every day of patient testing and when a new bottle is opened
Every day of patient testing and when a new bottle is opened
Which of the following ABO blood groups has the highest numer of H antigen sites on the RBC membrane? Group A cells Group B cells Group O cells Bombay phenotype
Group O cells (Bombay phenotype has no A, B, or H antigens)
All of the following descriptions about Pasteurella species are true, EXCEPT? Forms large amounts of indole Grows well on MacConkey agar Many infections are caused by domestic animals P. multocida is the species most frequently isolated from humans
Grows well on MacConkey agar
Current CDC (2014) recommendations for initial HIV screening include FDA approved immunoassays for detection of: HIV-1 p31 antigen HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody, HIV-1 p14 antigen HIV-1 antibody and HIV-1 gp41 antigen HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody
HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody, HIV-1 p14 antigen
Which of the following antigens is classified as a Major Histocpmpatibility Complex Class II antigens (MHCII)? HLA-A HLA-B HLA-C HLA-DR
HLA-DR
With the exception of beta thalassemia minima, which hemoglobin is decreased in beta thalassemia? Hb A Hb A2 Hb F Hb S
Hb A
The L/S ratio determination of amniotic fluid is useful in assessing the probability of: Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Respiratory distress syndrome Chromosomal abnormalities
Respiratory distress syndrome
What is a typical finding for determining the endpoint for the initial or iron-depletion phase of treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis? The serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and 50 ng/mL The hepatic iron index returns to normal The transferrin saturaction drops below 20% The serum iron falls to below 35 ug/dL
The serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and 50 ng/mL
With most light microscopes, what is the total magneifcation if using the objective lens that is closest to the specimen along with the ocular lens? 100x 200x 400x 1000x
1000x
Which of the following conditions can be associated with the red blood cell morphologies shown in this image? Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Iron deficiency Beta thalassemia Megaloblastic anemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A patient's serum reacts with all reagent red cell samples. The autocontrol is negative; an alloantibody to a high incidence antigen is suspected. Which of the following would most likely be a compatible donor? Patient's parents Patient's siblings Patient's children Autologous donation
Autologous donation
Which one of the following test BEST correlates with the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? Color Doppler ultrasonography An antibody screen of mother's blood Amniotic fluid bilirubin Antibody titer of mother's blood
Color Doppler ultrasonography
Which blood component is the most commonly used component for the replacement of multiple coagulation factor deficiencies in bleeding patients? Fresh Frozen Plasma Red Blood Cells Cryoprecipitate Whole Blood
Fresh Frozen Plasma
Which of the following methods for long term diabetic monitoring is recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia? Fructosamine Hemoglobin A1c Both methods are acceptable Neither method is acceptable
Fructosamine
Which of the following genotypes are known to be resistant to P. vivax (malaria) merozoites? Fy(a+b+) Fy(a-b-) Jk(a-b-) Jk(a+b+)
Fy(a-b-)
When considering therapeutic drug monitoring, which two organ systems are associated with drug elimination? Cardiac and pulmonary Hepatic and renal Renal and cardiac Hepatic and res[iratory
Hepatic and renal
Which of the following conditions would be associated with an increased osmotic fragility test result? Hereditary spherocytosis Iron deficiency anemia Sickle cell anemia Thalassemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Which hematologic condition could be associated with the findings shown in this image? Disseminated intravascular coagulation Hereditory spherocytosis Hereditary elliptocytosis Sickle cell anemia
Hereditory spherocytosis
All of the following agents can be handled using biosafety level 2 practices EXCEPT: Marburg virus MRSA Herpes simplex virus Candida albicans
Marburg virus
CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte population? Mature T cells Normal B cells Both mature T cells and normal B cells None of the above, CD5 is not a lymphoid marker
Mature T cells
This image is of a peripheral blood smear a patient with what conditions? Toxic granulation caused by bacterial infection Pelger Huet anomaly Acute myeloid leukemia with an Auer rod May-Hegglin anomaly
May-Hegglin anomaly
Which is the purpose of the Total Complement Activity (CH50) assay? Measures classic or terminal complement pathways Detects a deficiency in factor D, factor B, factor D, or properdin Detects a Lectin pathway component deficiency Measures the alternative complement pathway
Measures classic or terminal complement pathways
When three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are received in the laboratory they should be distributed to the various laboratory sections as follows: #1 hematology, #2 chemistry, #3 microbiology #1 chemistry, #2 microbiology, #3 hematology #1 microbiology, #2 hematology, #3 chemistry #1 chemistry, #2 hematology, #3 microbiology
#1 chemistry, #2 microbiology, #3 hematology
What is the formula for calculating transferrin saturation (TS)? (Serum iron/TIBC) x 100 (Serum ferritin/TIBC) X 100 TIBC/serum iron Serum iron/serum ferritin
(Serum iron/TIBC) x 100
How many large hemacytometer squares contain a total volume of 1 ul of fluid? 5 10 15 18
10
A 200 mg/dL solution was diluted 1:10. This dilution solution was then additionally diluted 1:5. What is the concentration of the final solution? 2 mg/dL 4 mg/dL 20 mg/dL 40 mg/dL
4 mg/dL
Given the following information, calculate the results in mg/24 hrs for a 24 urine protein [Urine protien = 2.7 mg/dL; total volume 24 hrs = 2400 mL] 64.8 mg/24 hrs 10.87 mg/24 hrs 57.5 mg/24 hrs 5.89 mg/24 hrs
64.8 mg/24 hrs [2.7 mg/dL x 2400 mL/24hr x 1 dL/100 mL = (2.7 mg x 2400)/100 = 64.8 mg/24 hrs]
What blood alcohol concentration has been established as the statutory limit for operation of a motor vehicle in the United States? 0.8 mg/dL 8 mg/dL 80 mg/dL 800 mg/dL
80 mg/dL
If the unit is going to be transfused within the collection facility, autologous blood always be tested for which of the following before transfusion? ABO, Rh ABO, Rh, HBsAg ABO, Rh, HIV ABO, Rh, HBsAg, HIV
ABO, Rh
In the antibody screening test, at what phase of reactivity is it most important to read the reactions for detection clinically signification antibodies? 4C Immediate spin 37C AHG
AHG
Which of the following best describes the direct antiglobulin (DAT) test principle? AHG detects antibody already sensitized to red cell AHG prevents antibody from sensitizing red cells AHG is directed against cell antigens AHG is directed against plasma antibodies
AHG detects antibody already sensitized to red cell
What is the MOST likely cause of a patient who developed a severe hemolytic episode after taking anti-malarial drug, and red cell inclusions caused by denatured hemoglobin were seen on the differential smear? G-6-PD deficiency Thalassemia major Pyruvate kinase deficiency Paraoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
G-6-PD deficiency
What transferrin saturation level would be indicative to investigate further for hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? 40% 45% 35% 25%
45%
Which of the following are markers currently used to differentiate heart failures from lund disease? TnI and TnT BNP and NT-proBNP Myoglobin and LD hs-CRP and homocysteine
BNP and NT-proBNP
Which bacterial species is most likely represented by the spreading, gray-white, beta-hemolytic colonies with a frosted glass appearance as illustrated in the photograph? Burkholderia pseudomallei Listeria monocytogenes Bacillus cereus Streptomyces anulatus
Bacillus cereus
Which of the following blood components would be the MOST appropriate for a 9 year old girl who is suspected of having idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), including a low platelet count and bleeding gums? Packed red blood cells Cryoprecipitate Platelets Fresh frozen plasma
Platelets
All of the following are associated with RBC macrocytosis, EXCEPT? Alcoholism Hypothyroidism B12 deficiency Thalassemia
Thalassemia
The predominant cells seen in this CSF are from a 12 year old female exhibiting fever, lethargy and a stiff neck. The WBC count on the sample was 2,000/ microliter. The findings most likely indicate: Normal cytocentrifuged smear Viral meningitis Bacterial meningitis Alzheimer's disease
Viral meningitis
A reaction is in _______ kinetics when the reaction rate depends only on enzyme concentration. Zero order First order Second order Mixed order
Zero order
Which organism is MOST likely responsible for septic reactions associated with red blood cell transfusions? Yersinia enterocolitica Escherichia coli Enterobacter species Streptococcus species
Yersinia enterocolitica
This photograph is of an isolate from a stool culture on a 4 year old child with gastroenteritis. The medium contains cefsulodin, irgasan, novobiocin, bile salts, mannitol, neutral red, and crystal violet. Further identification tests will most likely identify this isolate as: Salmonella spp. Shigella spp. Campylobacter jejuni Yersinia enterocolytica
Yersinia enterocolytica
The photograph on the right illustrates the Rosco Diagnostica IMI/EDTA disk and the bioMerieux MBL E test (zones of sensitity seen with both tests). Both tests are used to detect metallo beta-lactamse production. After viewing the results of these tests, does this organism produce metallo-beta-lactamase? Yes No Indeterminate Further testing is required
Yes
The organism pictured below was a gram positive rod isolated from a sore on the hand of a fish market employee. Its shown on triple iron agar. It is catalase negative and non spore forming. The most likely identification is: Listeria monocyogenes Bacillus antracis Corynebacterium diphtheriae Erysipelothrix rhuziopathiae
Erysipelothrix rhuziopathiae
All of the following are indicators of sepsis, EXCEPT? Erythrocytosis Increased heart rate Leukocytosis Increased body temperature
Erythrocytosis
A patient has a prolonged non-therapeutic PT and a normal aPTT. The physician orders a PT mixing study. The results are as follows: original PT = 32 sec; 1:1 Mix RT immediate = 22 sec; 1:1 Mix 90 min incubation = 23 sec; Which factor may be present in abnormally low levels and causing the prolongation? Factor XI Factor VII Factor IX Factor VIII
Factor VII
What additional fraction would be seen if plasma rather than serum was subjected to electrophoresis? Alpha-1 antitrypsin Alpha-2 macroglobulin Fibrinogen Gamma globulins
Fibrinogen
Which of the following is considered a macrocytic anemia? Cooley's anemia Iron deficiency anemia Pernicious anemia Polycythemia vera
Pernicious anemia
Which of the following viral families contains DNA as its nucleic acid? Paramyxoviridae Rhabdoviridae Poxyviridae Orthomyxoviridae
Poxyviridae
This medium is used for the cultivation and identification of Corynebacterium diphtheria. It contains serum and egg which stimulates growth and the production of metachromatic granules in the cells. Select this media from the following: CIN medium TCBS medium Modified Tinsdale medium Loeffler medium
Loeffler medium
All of the following are causes of hypernatremia, EXCEPT: Excess water loss Low aldosterone production Decreased water intake Increased sodium intake or retention
Low aldosterone production
If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients? Anti-M Anti-N Anti-Leb Anti-Fya
Anti-Leb
Which of the following is NOT required for a diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? >50% transferrin saturation in females or >60% saturation in males Presence of HFE mutations or other genetic mutation associated with iron metabolis Increased ferritin Biopsy of liver and/or bone marrow
Biopsy of liver and/or bone marrow
A cancer patient was admitted to the hopital with fever, tachycardia, and a drop in blood pressure. Due to the patient being treated for cancer, her chemotherapy had been administrated through an intravenous catheter. To ruleout a catheter-related infection, the physician ordered two sets of blood cultures with one set being collected from the catheter site and the second set being collected by venipuncture. After 48 hours, the patient had positive blood cultures that grew Staphylococcus epidermidis. How will the physician know if the Staphylococcus epidermidis present is due to an infected catheter or is a contaminant? Both blood culture sets must have no growth The blood culture collected by venipuncture will be positive while the blood culture collected by catheter will be negative The blood culture collected by the venipuncture must always be negative Both blood culture sets will be positive
Both blood culture sets will be positive
Homogentisic acid in urine will cause urine to be which of the following colors? Green Pink Port-wine Brown/Black
Brown/Black
Which of the following is MOST responsible for increasing the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? Fibrinogen Albumin Alpha-2-globulins and beta-globulins Gamma-globulins
Fibrinogen
All of the following are standard methods for measuring the specific gravity of urine, EXCEPT? Urine reagent strips Freezing point depression Refractometry Harmonic oscillation densitometry
Freezing point depression
Which of the following formulas will provide the value that reflects the average cell volume in a blood sample? Hgb x 10/RBC count Hct x 10/RBC count Hgb x 100/Hct Hgb x 3
Hct x 10/RBC count
Which of the following statements about the test for C-reactive protein (CRP) is TRUE? It correlates with neutrophil phagocytic function It is an indicator of an inflammatory condition It is diagnostic for rheumatic fever It is part of the complement cascade
It is an indicator of an inflammatory condition
Which of the following blood group antigen-antibody reactions is enhanced by using enzymes? Fya Fyb M Jka
Jka
Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal lung maturity? Alpha Fetoprotein Bilirubin L/S ratio Fetal hemoglobin
L/S ratio
Which term describes the dose of the drug in which 50% of the individuals will result in mortality? ED50 LD50 TD50 MD50
LD50
Which of the following sources of error will give a false negative result in antihuman globulin testing? Low pH of saline Dirty glassware Samples collected in gel separator tubes Refrigerated specimen
Low pH of saline
Which of the following may be seen in a CSF sample of a patient that has a subarachnoid (intracranial) hemorrhage (SAH)? Macrophages containing hemosiderin Uneven distribution of blood in CSF tubes collected Clot is present in CSF sample Supernatant of CSF samples does not have xanthochromia
Macrophages containing hemosiderin
Identify the cell indicated in the Wright-Giemsa stained bone marrow. Metamyelocyte Myelocyte Myeloblast Promyelocyte
Myeloblast
Which is the incorrect statement about sample labeling requirements? Prelabeled tubed should be used The label should have the patient's first and last name The label should have a unique identification number The date of collection should be included
Prelabeled tubes should be used
Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the excitation light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design? Prevent loss of emitted light Prevent loss of the excitation light Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector Prevent incident light from striking the detector
Prevent incident light from striking the detector
What bacterial species is rarely part of normal microbiota of healthy humans? Pseudomonas aeruginosa Burkholderia cepacia Burkholderia mallei Pseudomonas fluorescens
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (none listed are normal microbiota)
A 27 year old man with Down syndrom has the following CBC results which are MOST suggestive of what condition? [WBC = 27, HGB = 8.5, HCT = 25%, PLT = 30, Diff results: 8% seg neutropils, 25% lymphs, 67% TdT positive blasts] Acute myelogenous leukemia Myeloproliferative disorder Leukemoid reaction Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is often used as a bacterial species for the quality control of Kligler Iron Agar (KIA). The expected reaction is: Acid slant/acid deep Alkaline slant/acid deep Alkaline slant/ acid deep/H2S Alkaline slant/alkaline deep
Alkaline slant/alkaline deep
Which of the following statements about diagnosing gestational diabetes is true? Gestational diabetes is diagnosed with the same testing and criteria used for the diagnosis of diabetes for a non pregnant adult All non diabetic pregnant women should be screened at 24 to 28 weeks of gestation Only diabetic pregnant women should be screened at 24 to 28 weeks of gestation All pregnant women (diabetic or not) should be screened at 24 to 28 weeks gestation
All non diabetic pregnant women should be screened at 24 to 28 weeks of gestation
Which of the following is considered a normal skin flora organism? Bacillus subtilis Salmonella typhi Bacillus anthracis Pseudomonas ageruginosa
Bacillus subtilis
Which of the following statements is correct regarding total laboratory automation (TIA)? Back-end systems may include removal of specimens from the analyzer Front-end systems may include removal of specimens from the analyzer with transport to storage Front-end systems may include retrieval from storage Back-end systems may include identification of specimens
Back-end systems may include removal of specimens from the analyzer
Which of the following D variants has the best likelihood to receive D positive RBCs without any adverse effects? Del Partial D Partial weak D C in Trans to RHD
C in Trans to RHD
Which of the following is most likely to interact with arterial walls, leading to deposition of cholesterol, and initiating or worsening atherosclerosis? Large buoyant LDL Small dense LDL LDL phenotype A VLDL
Small dense LDL
After suspecting that his patient may have lung disease, the physician sends a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) to the laboratory for examination. What is the cell type in the image? Lymphocytes Mesothelial cells Macrophages Bronchial lining cells
Bronchial lining cells
Identify the nuclearted blood cell: Lymphocyte Neutrophil Basophil Monocyte
Neutrophil
Which of the following apolipoproteins contributes the greatest mass to the structure of HDL? Apo A Apo B Apo C Apo G
Apo A
That patient of an enzyme which when separated from its cofactor is called a: Hloenzyme Isoenzyme Coenzyme Apoenzyme
Apoenzyme
Approximately what percent of the Caucasian population is Rh negative? 10% 15% 25% 35%
15%
If the spinal fluid is slightly hazy, what is the best dilution? 1:200 1:10 1:20 1:100
1:10
All of the following are included in a standard ova and parasite examination EXCEPT: Visual examination Direct wet mount examination Permanent stained smear examination A parasite culture
A parasite culture
Which of the following coagulation test results would be prolonged in deficiency of Factor X? PT only aPTT only Both PT and aPTT Neither PT nor aPTT
Both PT and aPTT
Which of the following fresh plasma ABO types would be suitable for transfusion to an AB negative patient? AB negative only O negative only AB negative and AB positive only O negative an O positive only
AB negative and AB positive
Oliguria is usually correlated with: Acute glomerulonephritis Diabetes mellitus Hepatitis Tubular damage
Acute glomerulonephritis
An 8 year old boy presents with a 2 week history of high fevers and lethargy. He has shown petechiae and bleeding gums for approximately 3 weeks. Upon physical examination, the following was noted: enlarged cervical lymph nodes, pale and febrile, enlarged spleen, Hgb = 6.3; Hct = 18.9%; RBC = 2.89; WBC = 96; platele count = 23, differential: 90% blasts, 5% bands, 5% neutrophils; BM aspirate > 90% blast; What is this patientmost likely suffering from? Polycythemia vera Chronic leukemia Acute leukemia Infectious mononucleosis
Acute leukemia
Which type of antibody can cause HDFN in any pregnancy (first or subsequent) but is usually limited to less severe symptoms? Anti-A,B Anti-D Anti-E Anti-K
Anti-A,B
A 70 year old man who three days previously had incurred a cerebral vascular accident was semi-comatose and having difficulty breathing. He developed a sudden fever overnight and was found to have pneumonia. The gram stain shown in this photomicrograph was obtained from purulent material obtained through the intubation tube. What is the most likely type of pneumonia? Lobar pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Community acquired pneumonia Bronchitis secondary to Moraxella catarrhalis
Aspiration pneumonia
Which disease/condition is associated with a deficiency in thiamine? Night blindness Beriberi Rickets Scurvy
Beriberi
Which of the following is a genetic platelet disorder characterized by giant platelets, abnormal screening tests for platelet function and moderate to severe thrombocytopenia? Glanzmaann's thromasthenia Gray platelet syndrome Delta storage pool disease Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Which culture medium is specifically formulated to recover Salmonella typhi from stool specimen? Selenite broth Bismuth sulfite agar Salmonella/Shigella (SS) agar Deoxycholate citrate agar
Bismuth sulfite agar
All of the following are types of acid-fast stains, EXCEPT: Ziehle-Neelsen Fluorochrom Kinyoun Calcofluor white
Calcofluor white
Which of the following stains is commonly used to stain chitin in fungal cell walls? Modified acid-fast stain Calcoflur-white stain Giemsa stain Gram stain
Calcoflur-white stain
All of the following are learning domains that must be considered in a medical laboratory science program, EXCEPT? Cognitive domain Affective domain Pyschomotor domain Comprehension domain
Comprehension domain
What is the cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia? Destruction of a neonate's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the mother Destruction of a neonate's platelets by an antibody that is produced by the neonate's own immune system Decreased platelet production in the neonate Destruction of a mother's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the neonate
Destruction of a neonate's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the mother
Hemoglobin A1c percent can be used as an assay to diagnose which of the following conditions? Diabetes Cirrhosis Myocardial infarction Leukemia
Diabetes
The hyaline mold illustrated in the photomicrograph can be identified as: Trichoderma species Acremonium species Fusarium species Gliocladium species
Gliocladium species
All of the following diseases are associated with autoantibodies, EXCEPT? Wegener's disease Rheumatoid arthritis SLE Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
What type of anticoagulant is generally suitable for TDM analysis? Heparin EDTA Citrate Oxalate
Heparin
Which antibody class is best described with that characteristic that is the only one capable of residing in mucosal linings? IgA IgM IgG IgE
IgA
To assess drug concentrations during the trough phase, blood should be drawn: About 15 minutes after the administration of an oral dose of the drug Immediately before the next dose is given About three hours after the administration of an oral dose of the drug About an hour before the administration of an oral dose of the drug
Immediately before the next dose is given
If CSF tubes numbered 1, 2, and 3 cannot be analyzed within one hour, the correct procedure for the microbiology sample tube is to: Refrigerate it Freeze it Leave it at room temperature Incubate in a 56 degree water bath
Leave it at room temperature
A 34 year old female was seen in the dermatology clinic for some lesions on her fingers that had not responded to topical antimicrobial therapy. A tissue biopsy was sent for histological examination, routine culture, acid-fast bacilli (AFB) culture, and fungal culture. There was no growth on any culture, but AFB were seen in the histological preparations. The tissue culture for AFB had been incubated at both 35C and 32C, in liquid media and on media with hemoglobin added for several weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis of her skin lesions? Buruli's ulcer Swimming pool granuloma Leprosy AIDS
Leprosy
Which of the following Mycobacterium species is closely associated with infections in HIV positive patients? M. ulcerans M. avium-intracellulare complex M. simiae M. bovis
M. avium-intracellulare complex
Several patients developed subcutaneous abscesses at the sites of injection of a preparation that was administered as part of a weight loss regimen. Pale-staining, filamentous acid-fast bacilli were seen in the material aspirated from the lesions and the colonies shown in the lower photograph grew out after 3 days incubation at 35C in CO2. The most likely identification is: Mycobacterium marinum Mycobacterium abscessus Mycobacterium otitidiscaviarum (caviae) Streptomyces somaliensis
Mycobacterium abscessus
The image show presentations associated with Mycobacterium species infections. Which organism correlates to the disease in presentation in seen in the lower right image? Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium marinum Mycobacterium scrofulaceum Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
Which Pseudomonas species will have yellow colony pigmentation on blood agar? P.fluorescens P. aeruginosa P. mosselii P. fulva
P. fulva
By utilizing a Prussian Blue stain, which of the following red blood cell inclusion would be identifiable if present? Cabot rings Pappenheimer (siderotic) bodies Howell Jolly bodies Malarial parasites
Pappenheimer (siderotic) bodies
There are several different types of media that can be used in electrophoresis. Most methods today use a gel cellulose acetate, or polyacrylamide gel. Which one of the following statements is true regarding these gels? The compounds used to make cellulose acetate gels are carcinogenic Polyacrylamide gels are composed of polysaccahrides and acrylamides Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes Cellulose acetat and agarose gels are the more commonly used gels
Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes
Interpret the auramine fluorochrome stain image to the right: Positive for Gram negative bacilli Positive for acid-fast bacilli Negative for acid-fast bacilli Positive for fungal elements
Positive for acid-fast bacilli
Which of the following laboratory results would be seen in a patient with acute Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)? Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, elevated platelet count, increased FDP Normal PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, decreased FDP Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, increased FDP Normal PT, increased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, decreased FDP
Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, increased FDP
A specimen drawn from an indwelling catheter that was contaminated by heparin would be indicated by: Normal PT and aPTT results Prolonged PT and normal aPTT results Prolonged aPTT and prolonged reptilase time test Prolonged aPTT and normal reptilase time test
Prolonged aPTT and normal reptilase time test
Which of the following stages of neutrophilic granulocyte cellular development is of the second stage from the least mature stage? Band neutrophil Promyelocyte Metamyelocyte Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
All of the following formed elements may be present in urine sedimentand can be idnentified microscopically, EXCEPT: Cells Casts Crystals Protein
Protein
Which one of the Rh genotypes listed below is heterozygous for the C antigen? R1r R1R1 R2r" r"r
R1r
Which one of the following statements about lead poisoning is false? While lead distributes to all tissues, the central nervous system, kidney, and bone marrow are particularly susceptible to lead toxicity Whole blood lead measurement is the best test for detecting lead toxicity Serum lead level is a good inecpensive screening test for lead toxicity Lead levels below 5 ug/dL in children do not prompt ongoing monitoring
Serum lead level is a good inecpensive screening test for lead toxicity
Observed on the surface of blood agar are smooth, white, 48 hour old colonies incubated at 37C, demonstrating a positive catalase reaction and a negative coagulase reaction. The sample was taken from an intravenous catheter. In the photograph are gram positive cocci distinctyl arranged in loose clusters and in tetrad formation. From these observations, select the presumptive identification of this isolate. Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus epidemidis Micrococcus luteus Rothia mucilaginosa
Staphylococcus epidemidis
Which statement about densitometric patterns for the five zone protein electrophoresis is correct? The albumin band is the last peak and the smallest The gamma band is the last peak and the largest The gamma band is the first peak and the largest The albumin band is the first peak and the largest
The albumin band is the first peak and the largest
The American Diabetes Association (ADA) guidelines recommend screening all asymptomatic individuals age 45 and older for diabetes. If the screen is negative: This patient will never requirs another screening The screening should be repeated every 3 years The screening should be repeated every 3 months The screening should be repeated every year
The screening should be repeated every 3 years
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Gram-stained smear that is represented by this image? The smear is underdecolorized and shows precipitated and crystallized stain Many long, needle-shaped bacteria are present This smear is appropriate for reading Many gram positive cocci are present
The smear is underdecolorized and shows precipitated and crystallized stain
Serum TSH levels five times the upper limit of normal in the presence of a low T4 and low T3 uptake could mean which of the following: The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism The thyroid is ruled out as the cause of hypothyroidism The pituitary has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism The diagnosis is consistent with secondary hyperthyroidism
The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperkalemia in hospitalized patients? Cellular injury Therapeutic potassium replacement Chemotherapy Leukemia
Therapeutic potassium replacement
Which of the following characteristics will produce the most desirable smear to be examined using a gram stain? A single drop of cerebrospinal fluid on a slide Thick, opaque material from an abscess on a slide Thin, monolayer of material from an abscess on a slide Six drops of blood from an EDTA tube on a slide
Thin, monolayer of material from an abscess on a slide
Nephelometry is based on the principle of: Turbidity resulting from specific antigen-coated latex particles aggluinated by corresponding antibody Agglutination resulting from physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens on an erythrocyte membrane Agglutination of host antibody to antigenic determinants on a bacterial agent Precipitation of immune-related proteins in agarose gel
Turbidity resulting from specific antigen-coated latex particles aggluinated by corresponding antibody
The type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammation is: Type 1 Anaphylactic (immediate hypersensitivity) Type 2 Cytotoxic (antibody mediated and antibody dependent, complement mediated hypersensitivity) Type 3 Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity Type 4 Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T cell dependent)
Type 4 Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T cell dependent)
Acetest can be used to test for ketones in: Urine Urine and serum Urine, serum, and whole blood Urine, serum, whole blood, and CSF
Urine, serum, and whole blood
If patients have the blood group genotypes AA and BO, what is the possibility of having a child with a blood type of A? 25% 50% 75% 100%
50%
A clean catch urine was streaked to a sheep blood agar plate and a MacConkey plate (non lactose fermentor) with a one microliter loop. The image to the right demonstrates the observed growth. How would you report the colony count and growth? 10^4 CFU/mL of a gram positive bacillus 10^3 CFU/mL of a gram negative bacillus 10^5 CFU/mL of a gram positive coccus 10^5 CFU/mL of a gram negative bacillus
10^3 CFU/mL of a gram negative bacillus
In which of the following sections of CFR Title 21, Good manufacturing practices, would you find requirements for quality control testing of donor units of platelets? 21 CFR 211.22 Responsibilities of a Quality Control Unit 21 CFR 211.80 Control of Components, Drug Product Containers and Closures 21 CFR 606.140 Laboratory Controls 21 CFR 640.25 Platelets - General Requirements
21 CFR 640.25 Platelets - General Requirements
How soon must granulocyte concentrates be administered after donation? 12 hours 24 hours 3 days 30 days
24 hours
What is the corrected WBC count if the original WBC count is 14,460 and there were 47 NRBCs per 100 W BCs noted on the differential count? 6,796 9,837 10,165 21,256
9,837 [corrected WBC count = uncorrected WBC count x (100/(NRBCs + 100))]
The statistics for a specific laboratory test method are stated below. What is the sensitivity of the test? [FN = 10; TN = 40; FP = 20; TP = 150] 33% 65% 88% 94%
94%
Which best describes an A1 individual? A antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in serum, which may also contain anti-A1 antibodies A, A1, and B antigens on RBCs and no antibodies in serum B antigens on RBCs and anti-A antibodies in serum A and A1 antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in serum
A and A1 antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in serum
The fungal colonies illustrated on the left image grew to maturity in 4 days. The isolate was recovered from the expectorated sputum of an elderly immunecompromised patient. The image on the right is the microscopic appearance of a lactophenol cotton blue stained mount prepared from a small sample from the surface of the colony. Note that microscopically the entire surface of a smooth spherical vesicle is surrounded by a row of phialides giving rise to small conidia. Which Aspergillus species is represented by these observations? A. fumigatus A. flavus A. niger A. terreus
A. flavus
Which of the following statements regarding the ABO phenotype A2 is true? A2 cells contain more antigens per RBC than A1 cells A2 antigens are linear while A1 antigens are branched A1 RBCs will agglutinate with anti-A1 lectin (Dolichos biflorus) A2 cells will not agglutinate anti-A antisera used for ABO blood typing
A2 antigens are linear while A1 antigens are branched
Which analyte measurement is used to detect early nephropathy in a diabetic patient? Lactic acid Albumin Ketones HbA1c
Albumin
When preparing platelet concentrates from whole blood, after the second spin and excess plasma has been expressed from the platelets, what is the next step in platelet preparation? Allow the platelets to rest for 1-2 hours at 20-24C Agitate the platelets vigorously for 1-2 hours at 20-24C Pool several platelet concentrates together immediately and irradiate Freeze the platelet concentrate immediately at <18C
Allow the platelets to rest for 1-2 hours at 20-24C
All of the following have an impact on electrophoresis techniques in the clinical laboratory EXCEPT? Amount of light present in electrophoresis box Support medium pH Voltage
Amount of light present in electrophoresis box
All of the following are applications of real-time PCR, EXCEPT? Microbe identification Genotyping HLA components Identification of DNA sequences Amplification of DNA for northern blot
Amplification of DNA for northern blot
The enzymatic process in each PCR cycle consists of the following steps EXCEPT: DNA denaturation Primer annealing Extension of primed DNA sequence Analysis of PCR product
Analysis of PCR product
If an Rh negative patient is administered a unit of R1R1 packed red cells, which one of the following antibodies would be most likely to develop: An'ti-c Anti-E Anti-e Anti-D
Anti-D
Twelve weeks after onset of the disease, patient with uncomplicated acute hepatitis B usually will demonstrate which of the following in the serum? HbsAg Anti-EBNA Anti-HBe Anti-HIV
Anti-HBe
All of the following are the reacting substances that may be in the Coombs sera (antihuman globulin) EXCEPT? Monoclonal antibody sources Polyclonal antibody sources Complement antibodies (e.g. anti-C3b) Anti-IgM sources
Anti-IgM sources
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)? Patient population: children and young adults Pathogenesis: following viral infection Site of hemolysis: intravascular Autoantibody class: IgM
Autoantibody class: IgM
Detention of a fruity odor in a fresh urine sample may be indicative of all of the following EXCEPT? Starvation Malabsorption Bacterial infection Diabetes mellitus
Bacterial infection
Which of the following pathogenic anaerobic bacteria is MOST frequently isolated in clinical laboratories? Bacteroides fragilis Prevotella melaninogenica Clostridium ramosum Peptostreptococcus anerobius
Bacteroides fragilis
All of the following factors would cause an increase erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) values EXCEPT? Severe anemia Abnormal proteins (Rouleaux) Blood drawn into sodium citrate anticoagulant A slanted tube
Blood drawn into sodium citrate anticoagulant
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is derived from all of the following organs EXCEPT? Bone Intestine Placenta Brain
Brain
Which of the following conditions is associated with the Epstein Barr Virus? Measles Burkitt's lymphoma Mumps Chicken pox
Burkitt's lymphoma
Which of the following biomarkers are not specific to cardiac muscle and may be elevated in patients with injury to muscle other than cardiac muscle? cTnI and cTnT CK-MB and myoglobin cTnT and CK-MB Myoglobin and cTnI
CK-MB and myoglobin
The historical medium of choice for isolation of Francisella is: Chocolate agar Cysteine blood glucose agar Modified Thayer-Martin agar MacConkey agar
Cysteine blood glucose agar
This species of Candida accounts for around 20 percent of urinary yeast isolates: C. albicans C. globrata C. krusei C. tropicalis
C. globrata
Which of the following genotypes is fount with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population? CDe/cDe cDE/ce cDE/cE CDe/ce
CDe/ce
Which tumor marker is used for colorectal cancer? CA-125 AFP CEA PSA
CEA
Which of the following organisms causes thrush? Cryoticiccus neoformans Aspergillus spp. Candida albicans Nocardia neoformans
Candida albicans
A manual white blood cell count was performed by the hematology technologist. The cell counts for both sides were 99 and 164 respectively. All nine large squres were counted on each side. The dilution for this kit was pre measured at 1:100. What should the technologist report as the white cell count? 14.61 x 10^9/L 1.46 x 10^9/L 4.61 x 10^9/L Cannot report
Cannot report [difference between counts is greater then 10%]
CSF lymphocytosis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: Cerebral abscess Viral meningitis Chronic fungal meningitis Chronic tuberculous meningitis
Cerebral abscess
Traditional coagulation assays are based almost solely on this technique: Chromogenic assays Clot-based assays RIA assays ELISA assay
Clot-based assays
Which nitrogen base would bind with a guanine nucleotide in forming double-standed DNA? Cytosine Uracil Thymine Adenine
Cytosine
Which of the following sets of results is indicative of stage 3 iron deficiency (iron deficiency anemia)? Decreased ferritin, normal soluble trasferrin receptor (sTfR), slightly increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC) Decreased ferritin, increased sTfR, increased TIBC Decreased ferritin, increased sTfR, decreased TIBC Increased ferritin, normal sTfR, increased TIBC
Decreased ferritin, increased sTfR, increased TIBC
Which bacterial species is a common agent of neonatal bacteremia? Streptococcus pyogenes Listeria monocytogenes Staphylococcus aureus Enterococcus faecium
Listeria monocytogenes
The light blue gray inclusions observed in the cytoplasm of many of the bands and segmented nuetrophils of a burn patient are most likely? Auer rods Dohle bodies Toxic granules May-Hegglin bodies
Dohle bodies
Which of the following red blood cell morphologies, commonly seen as an artifact, is predominant in the photograph? Acanthocytes Echinocytes Stomatocytes Codocytes
Echinocytes
A patient who is suspected of having diabetes, has orders for a three hour glucose tolerance test. The test includes how many specimens? Two specimens: a fasting blood glucose and a specimen drawn after three hours after finishing the glucose drink Three specimens: a fasting glucose specimen, and then specimens collected at one hour and three hours after finishing the glucose drink Four specimens: a fasting glucose specimen, then specimens collected at one hour, two hours, and three hours after finishing the glucose drink Five specimens: a fasting glucose specimen, then specimens taken at thirty minutes, one hour, two hours, and three hours after finishing the glucose drink
Five specimens: a fasting glucose specimen, then specimens taken at thirty minutes, one hour, two hours, and three hours after finishing the glucose drink
VDRL and RPR are examples of which of the following types of test methodologies? ELISA Immunofluorescence Flocculation Hemagglutination
Flocculation
What is a potentially negative aspect to molecular testing for mutations of the HFE gene, the gene found in the majority of patients diagnosed with HH? Genetic discrimination based on knowledge of test results Interference from preanalytical and physiologic variables Inaccuracy of test results Insensitivity of test methods
Genetic discrimination based on knowledge of test results
All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT? Measles (rubeola) vaccine German measles (rubella) vaccine Mumps vaccine Polio vaccine
German measles (rubella) vaccine
A quick mathematical check which can be applied to verify that the hemoglobin and hematocrit value on a complete blood count correspond with each other would be: Hematocrit x 3 = hemoglobin Hemoglobin x 3 = hematocrit Hemoglobin/hematocrit = 3 Hemoglobin + hematocrit = 3
Hemoglobin x 3 = hematocrit
In the heterozygous state of HbS, referred to as sickle cell trait, which of the following hemoglobins appear in combination with HbS? HbE HbA HbC HbD
HbA
An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: A normal LD isoenzyme pattern Hemolysis Pancreatitis Hepatic injury
Hemolysis
A known sickle cell trait patient has a hemoglobin electrophoresis test performed. Which of the following hemoglobin percentage set would most closely match this patient's diagnostic state? Hgb A = 90%, S = 8%, A2 = 2%, F = 0% Hgb A = 60%, S = 38%, A2 = 2%, F = 0% Hgb A = 40%, S = 58%, A2 = 2%, F = 0% Hgb A = 25%, S = 70%, A2 = 2%, F = 3%
Hgb A = 60%, S = 38%, A2 = 2%, F = 0%
From the fungi listed below, which is considered to be a true pathogen that also infects immunocompromised patients? Scopulariopsis spp. Penicillium spp. Histoplasma capsulatum Fusarium spp
Histoplasma capsulatum
Necator americanus is a parasite associated with which of the following conditions? Beef tapeworm infection Hookworm infection Whipworm infection Fish tapeworm infection
Hookworm infection
This suspicious form, found in stool, measures 54 um by 32 um. What is the identification? Taenia egg Echinococcus egg Hymenolepis egg Pseudoparasite
Hymenolepis egg
In the lower left photograph is a short, thin, thread-like adult worm. In the upper right photograph is showing the scolex of this worm, with a protruding armed scolex and a row of hooklets. Also known as the dwarf tapeworm, what us this cestode that commonly infects children? Taenia saginata Hymenolepis nana Taenia solium Diphyliobothrium latum
Hymenolepis nana
A drug that is administered through which of the following routes will reach peak level the quickest? Oral Intravenous (IV) Intramuscular (IM) Subcutaneous (SC)
Intravenous (IV)
When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's Disease diagnosis, low values of plasma ceruloplasmin would be expected along with: Decreased urine copper Increased urine copper Normal urine copper Increased serum copper
Increased urine copper
Which one of the following combinations of organisms would be appropriate positive and negative controls to verify the specific test functions listed? Beta hemolysis: Escherichia coli and Streptococcus pyogenes Catalase: Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis Hydrogen sulfide production: Proteus mirabilis and Salmonella typhi Indole: Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumonia
Indole: Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumonia
Which of the following methods would be employed to collect sweat for chloride analysis? Electrophoresis Counter electrophoresis Iontophoresis Isoelectric focusing
Iontophoresis
Which of the following criteria for donor RBC should be used for an exchange transfusion related to both HDFN due to anti-D and ADO HDFN? Reconstitued with group O fresh frozen plasma Negative for hemoglobin F Reconstituted with cryoprecipitate Irradiated
Irradiated
You are working to validate a new method for the detection of CRP in serum, To assess precision, you run a medium level control 30 times and determine the mean to be 4.0 mg/dL with a standard deviation of 0.4 mg/dL. What could be said about the precision of this run assuming a CV less than 3% is acceptable? Its not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 100% Its not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 10% Its acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 0.1% Its acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%
Its acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%
Donor red blood cells (RBCs) were collected on July 12th of this year. The RBCs were then frozen on glycerol on July 17th (5 days later) and stored at -65C. July 12th; 1 year from cellection date July 17th; 1 year from freezing date July 17th; 10 years from freezing date July 12th; 10 years from collection date
July 12th; 10 years from collection date
Which of the following antigens are well developed on fetal cells? Lewis ABO Kell I
Kell
Nitric oxide is associated with the prevention of the prevention of vaso-occlusion by decreasing cellular adherence to endothelium. Which amino acid is decreased in patients with sickle cell disease and is needed as a substrate to produce nitric oxide? L-arginine L-glutamine L-lysine L-tyrosine
L-arginine
Laser light can be described by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: Intensity and ceocentration Used in flow cytometry for cell sorting and identification of cells LASER is an acronym for light amplified by stimulated energy readiation Monochromaticity
LASER is an acronym for light amplified by stimulated energy readiation
A defective clot retraction might be caused by which one of the these? Lack of or defect of platelet receptor glycoprotein Ib/IX/V Lack of or defect of platelet receptor IIb/IIIa Insufficient storage of ADP in platelet granules Absence or defect of von Willebrand's Factor
Lack of or defect of platelet receptor IIb/IIIa
Which one of the following procedures is used for the proper preparation of platelet concentrate from random whole blood donors? Light spin followed by a hard spin Light spin followed by two hard spins Two light spins Hard spin followed by a light spin
Light spin followed by a hard spin
Which of the following is characteristic of Alder-Reilly anomaly? Giant, dysfunctional lysosomal cytoplasmic granules Dohle body like inclusions composed of precipitated myosin heavy chains Large, darkly staining cytoplasmic granules composed of partially digested mucopolysaccharides Decreased nuclear segmentation and coarse chromatin in leukocytes
Large, darkly staining cytoplasmic granules composed of partially digested mucopolysaccharides
A phlebotomist must be perform a skin puncture to obtain capillary specimens for a CBC, a plasma-based chemistry test. and a serum-based immunology test. The microcollection containers that will be used are a lavender top containing EDTA, a green top containing heparin, and a gold top containing no anticoagulant. Which microcollection container should be collected first? Lavender top Green top Gold top Red top
Lavender top
Identify a characteristic of an organ-non specific disorder that distinguishes it from an organ specific disorder. Lesions caused by deposition of antigen-antibody immune complexes Anitgens only available to lymphoid system in low concentrations Lymphois incasion, parenchymal destruction by questionable cell-medicated hypersensitivity or antibodies Tendency to develop cancer in a specific location of the body
Lesions caused by deposition of antigen-antibody immune complexes
Dracunculus medinensis belongs to this category of parasites? Cestode Nematode Filaria Trematode
Nematode
Which of the following statements is FALSE? White blood cell counts increase more in bacterial septicemia than in viral meningitis Nucleated red blood cells can cause a falsely decreased white blood count An acceptable blood smear (i.e. peripheral smear) will have a feathered edge Normal cell count values often differ amount age groups
Nucleated red blood cells can cause a falsely decreased white blood coun
The stage of Ixodes tick most likely to transmit Lyme disease is: Nymph Larva Adult Egg
Nymph
Which lab result is the most critical in recognizing heparin induced thrombocytopenia? Fibrinogen level Prothrombin time D-dimer Platelet count
Platelet count
Which of the following tests is expected to have a normal results in a patient with type 1 von Willebrand disease? Bleeding time APTT Platelet count VWF antigen levels
Platelet count
Why is Rh immune globulin administered within 72 hours of delivery to an Rh negative mother if the newborn is found to be D positive or weak D? Prevent future children from producing antibodies Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother Prevent antibody response in a previously sensitized mother Neutralize any natural maternal antibodies present
Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother
All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing, EXCEPT? Prevent recipient alloimmunization Verify ABO andRh Select proper blood products Detect antibodies against donor cells
Prevent recipient alloimmunization
Which one of the following are normal genes that induce DNA synthesis, promote cell division, and inhibit cell death? Tumor suppressor genes Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Mismatch repair genes
Proto-oncogenes
All of the following are included in a quality control program, EXCEPT? Protocol to identify problems in equipment Protocol to correct problems in equipment Protocol to monitor problems in equipment Protocol to prove patient results are correct
Protocol to prove patient results are correct
What type of cast is shown in the illustration? WBC cast RBC cast Waxy cast Granular cast
RBC cast
Which of the following cells is indicative of Hodgkin's disease? Niemann-Pick cells Reactive lymphocytes Flame cells Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells
Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells
All of the following are characteristics of type 2 diabetes mellitus EXCEPT? Insulin levels may or may NOT be abnormal More common than type 1 diabetes Requires insulin therapy to control hyperglycemia It commonly occurs in adults
Requires insulin therapy to control hyperglycemia
The prozone effect can be described by all of the following EXCEPT: Results in a false negative reaction The result of antibody excess Dilution of antibody can help prevent its occurrence Results in a false positive reaction
Results in a false positive reaction
Which of the following is considered the major tranport protein for vitamin A? Transthyretin Retinol-binding protein Transferrin Haptoglobin
Retinol-binding protein
What are the cells that are indicated by the arrows in this peripheral blood smear image? Echinocytes Elliptocytes Spherocytes Stomatocytes
Spherocytes
A left arm abscess collected from a 8 year old male patient grew small white colonies on 5% sheep blood agar after 24 hours incubation at 35C in 5-10% CO2. The Gram stain of the organism showed small tightly grouped gram positive cocci. Which of the following organisms is most likely identification? Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus milleri Corynebacterium xerosis Enterococcus faecium
Staphylococcus epidermidis
When an unpreserved urine specimen cannot be cultured immediately, which storage method is most appropriate? Stored at room temperature for up to 8 hours Stored in freezer for up to 24 hours Stored in the incubator for up to 8 hours Stored in the refrigerator at 4C for up to 24 hours
Stored in the refrigerator at 4C for up to 24 hours
Contact dermatitis is mediated by: B lymphocytes Mast cells Polymorphonuclear cells T lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
A mother's serologic results are shown above [O positive, antibody screen negative]. Her newborn types as group A Rh positive with a 1+ positive DAT. Which of the following investigative tests would be most useful to resolve the cause of the positive DAT and should be done FIRST? Test an eluate prepared from newborn's red cells against an antibody identification panel by IAT Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT Test newborn's plasma against mother's red cells by IAT Test newborn's plasma against father's red cells by IAT
Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT
When a speckled nuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is observed, what follow-up test for antibodies related to Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is not beneficial? Testing for antibodies to Smith (Sm) Testing for all antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA) Testing for antibodies to SS-A/SS-B+ Testing for antibodies to U1RNP+ and dcSSc
Testing for anatibodies to U1RNP+ and dcSSc
When is testing for weak D optional? Testing for weak D on potential transfusion recipient samples Testing on donor red blood cells Testing for prenatal evaluations Testing for Rh immune globulin workups
Testing for weak D on potential transfusion recipient samples
Alpha thalassemia is defined as: The production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin due to the substitution of an amino acid in the alpha chain The decrease in the rate of production of Hb A due to a substitution of an amino acid in the alpha chain The decrease in the rate of production of alpha chains due to a partial or total deletion of the genetic code The decrease in the rate of production of alpha chains due to a mutation on chromosome 11
The decrease in the rate of production of alpha chains due to a partial or total deletion of the genetic code
The qualitative differences between A1 and A2 phenotype includes all of the following, EXCEPT? The formation of anti-A1 in A subgroups The amount of transferase enzymes The length of the precursor oligosaccharide The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent
The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent
A tech is performing an antibody screen; the reaction is negative when reading at the AHG phase so the test then adds Coomb's control cells. Agglutination is now observed, what does this indicate? The negative reaction at AHG phase is valid The patient's RBCs were not washed thoroughly Coombs' control cells are contaminated Coombs' control cells were not added
The negative reaction at AHG phase is valid
If a disease or disorder causes serum binding proteins (like albumin) to decrease, what may occur if the dose of a highly protein bound drug with a narrow therapeutic window is not adjusted? The patient may not realize a therapeutic benefit (low free drug fraction) The patient may experience toxic effects (high free drug fraction) The serum level of the drug will most likely remain in the therapeutic range Not enough information is provided to determine the effect of the drug on the patient
The patient may experience toxic effects (high free drug fraction)
The following results were obtained on an SPE scan. What can you infer about the specimen from these results? The specimen is good quality and the results can be given to the patient's nurse There is an interfering substance present in the specimen such as hemoglobin due to hemolysis There is an interfering substance in the specimen, but the results are fine to release The specimen is good quality, the patient has multiple myeloma
There is an interfering substance present in the specimen such as hemoglobin due to hemolysis
Which antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is seen in the image on the right, which represents the result of an ANA test viewed using fluorescent microscopy? There is no discernable pattern Homogeneous Centromere Nucleolar
There is no discernable pattern
A mother and young child arrive at the outpatient laboratory with a physician's order for a lead test on the child. The phlebotomist decides to perform a dermal puncture (fingerstick). What procedures is important to implement when a test for lead is collected by finger puncture that would NOT be necessary prior to an antecubital venipuncture? Asking the patient or child's parent to state his/her name and date of birth Thoroughly washing patient's hands with soap and water Cleansing the puncture site with alcohol and letting the alcohol air dry Labeling the specimen with at least two patient identifiers
Thoroughly washing patient's hands with soap and water
All of the following affect the relative centrifugal force of a centrifuge, EXCEPT? Revolutions per minute (RPM) Time Radius of centrifuge A constant of 1.12 x10^-5
Time
The Lean approach seeks to streamline the process. What is the major measurement for Lean? Cost Inventory Time Distribution
Time
In what section of the safety data sheet (SDS) manual would you find information on which chemical might affect you health? Physical hazards section Toxicological information section Reactivity hazards section General contents sections
Toxicological information section
Which of the following morphological features would correspond to Phialophora verrucosum? Polar germ tubes Transverse and longitudinal septations Urn or vase shaped phialides Black yeast colony
Urn or vase shaped phialides
Which of the following statements concerning Vitamin D is correct? Vitamin D deficiency is a cause of scurvy Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation Vitamin D functions in part to aid in optic nerve transmission One form of Vitamin D is referred to as pyridoxal phosphate
Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation
If Jka is showing dosage, how might reactions on an antibody panel appear? Weaker if homozygous for Jka Stronger if heterozygous for Jka and Jkb Weaker if heterozygous for Jka and Jkb Both heterozygous and homozygous reactions would always be equal strength
Weaker if heterozygous for Jka and Jkb
Which of the following casts is characteristically associated with acute pyelonephritis? Red cell White cell Fatty Waxy
White cell
What stain is most commonly used in the hematology laboratory? Wright stain Gram stain New methylene blue stain Sternheimer Malbin stain
Wright stain
Which cardiac biomarkers is a regulator of myocyte contraction? Myoglobin cTnT CK-MB CK-MB isoforms
cTnT
A patient has the following serum results: Na = 130 mEq/L, K = 4.9 mEq/L, Cl = 107 mEq/L, Glucose = 300 mg/dL, BUN = 18 mg/dL, Creatinine = 1.1 mg/dL; Which osmoloality result is consistent with these results? 240 mosmol/kg 277 mosmol/kg 281 mosmol/kg 293 mosmol/kg
281 mosmol/kg Osmo = 2 x Na + (Glucose/20) + (BUN/3)
What is the standard deviation of the following data set, rounded to the nearest whole number? [15,16,18,16,14,10,20,12,14] 3 4 5 6
3
A CSF glucose value is 62 mg/dL. What would you estimate the serum glucose? 65 mg/dL 93 mg/dL 120 mg/dL 180 mg/dL
93 mg/dL [2/3 of CSF glucose]
The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements are apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? Accurately identifies the presence of disease Accurately identifies the absence of disease Has many false-positive Has any false-negatives
Accurately identifies the absence of disease
Which of the following conditions is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi? Malaria Chagas' Disease Tapemworms Sleeping Sickness
Chagas' Disease
Illustrated in this photomicrograph is a close-in view of colonies growing on the surface of xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar. The bacteril species most likely producing the colonies shown here is: Proteus mirabilis Citrobacter koseri Edwardsiella tarda Shigella sonnei
Edwardsiella tarda
The number of patients correctly diagnosed for the disease or not having the disease is defined as: Positive predictive value Negative predictive value Efficiency Sensitivity
Efficiency
An alpha-hemolytic, catalase negative, Gram-positive coccus from a wound culture gave these additional results: Bacitracin resistant, Bile esculin hydrolysis positive, CAMP negative, Na hippurate hydrolysis negative, PYR positive. Which of the following would be the MOST probable identification? Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus agalactiae Enterococcus species Streptococcus group D
Enterococcus species
A patient had a transfusion reaction to the red blood cells and the remains from the unit of blood were sent to the microbiology laboratory for culture. The organism that grew was a gram-negative bacilli that was catalase and oxidase positive and was negative for gelatin hydrolysis. The organism was inoculated on a Pseudo F agar slant and incubated for 24 hours. Fluorescence was observed when using a UV light as seen in the image. This organism is most likely: Pseudomonas putida Pseudomonas stutzeri Burkholderia cepacia Pseudomonas alcaligenes
Pseudomonas putida
Identify the urine sediments present in the image observed using brightfield microscopy? White blood cells Red blood cells Squamous epithelial cells Yeast
Red blood cells
Identify the anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) pattern in the microscopic image. Homogeneous Speckled Anticentromere antibody Anti-Ro (SS-A) (alcohol fixation)
Speckled
This antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is characterized by granular staining in the nuclei of the interphase cells. There is also an absence of staining in the chromosomal area of the metaphase mitotic cells. The slide is viewed using fluorescent microscopy. Which pattern is this? Homogeneous Speckled Nucleolar Centromere
Speckled
When transporting donated platelet units, what is the maximum amount of time that agitation of platelets can be stopped for? 1 hour 12 hours 24 hours 3 days
24 hours
Calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin content (MCHC) when Hgb = 15, RBC count = 4.50, Hct = 47% 34.7 g/dL 10.4 g/dL 31.9 g/dL 33.9 g/dL
31.9 g/dL [(Hgb/Hct) x 100 = MCHC]
A laboratory professional is going to perform a mixing study to differentiate between a factor deficiency and a coagulation inhilbitor as the cause of a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test results. The mixing study should be performed within what time frame following collection of the specimen? 4 hours 8 hours 24 hours 48 hours
4 hours
Within what period of time after performance of the tuberculin skin test (TST) should the result be read? Immediately 12-24 hours 48-72 hours 5-7 days
48-72 hours
The recommended storage temperature for the preservation of activity for MOST enzyme is: 0C 4C 25C 37C
4C
The following statements are true regarding the Lewis blood group EXCEPT? Antigen expression is influenced by secretor status Antigens are adsorbed onto the red cells from the plasma Antigens are a structural component of the red cell membrane ABO group affects antigen expression
Antigens are a structural component of the red cell membrane
An abdominal wound culture grows E. coli on te aerobic culture. The anaerobic culture has growtttt of two, gram negative rods, one of which is anerobic. The other gram negative rod has 2+ growth on BBE plate and is resistant to kanamycin, colistin, and vancomycin disc. What is this organism's identification? Veillonella Prevotella intermedia Bacteroides fragilis group Fusobacterium necrophorium
Bacteroides fragilis group
All of the following statements are characteristic of the role of C-reactive protein (CRP) EXCEPT? Activates complement Binds with factor H to initate alternate complement pathway Exhibits pro-inflammatory characteristics Initiates opsonization
Binds with factor H to initate alternate complement pathway
Bacterial contamination of a urine specimen from a normal healthy individual could originate from all of the following except? Contaminated urine container Vagina Bladder Vulva
Bladder
Illustrated in the top image is a 10 day old colony growing on the surface of Sabouraud Dextrose with Brain Infusion (SABHI) agar, incubated at 30C, recovered from an induced sputum sample obtained from a 42 year old Mid-western farmer. The colonies are not genus/species specific, and appear as a mold with a delicate, silky, cob-wed like yellow-white mycelium. The species identification is made by observing the Lactophenol blue stained tease mount preparation illustrated in the bottom image. With these observations, select the presumptive identigication of this isolate from the choices shown below. Blastomyces dermatitidis Coccidioides immitis Histoplasma capsulatum Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Which is the correct order from the lowest concentration of H antigen to the highest concentration of H antigens? Bombay, A1B, A1, A2B, B, A2, O A1, O, B, A2, Bombay, A1B, A2B Bombay, O, A1B, A2, A1, B, A2B A1B, A2B, A2, O, B, A1, Bombay
Bombay, A1B, A1, A2B, B, A2, O
Which tests will be abnormal in a patient with Fibrin Stabilizing factor deficiency? aPTT 5 M urea clot solubility test Factor XIII assay Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay
Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay
Suppose a patient with stiffness in her fingers has a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test with a centromere pattern at a 1:1280 titer. What is the most likely diagnosis? Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Rheumatoid arthritis Skogren's syndrome CREST syndrome
CREST syndrome
Which of the following specimen types should be centrifuged prior to performing the gram stain and culture? CSF Clean catch urine Wound swab Blood
CSF
Beta hemolytic colonies grew from the blood culture bottle after 18 hours incubation . If the gram stain shows gram positive cocci, which of the following tests would be helpful with making a preliminary identification? Catalase Regrow on CNA plate Serological testing Vancomycin susceptibility
Catalase
Which of the procedures listed below will increase the platelet concentration in the preparation of platelets? Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a low speed Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed Centrifuge the blood at a high speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed Decrease the duration of rotation of the initial spin
Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed
Central Tolerance in the human immune defense system operates by: Clonal deletion of T cells and clonal edition of B cells Cellular inactivation by weak signaling without a co-stimulus Clearance of apototic bodies Antigen segregation
Clonal deletion of T cells and clonal edition of B cells
Illustrated in the upper photograph is an adult trematode fluke that in human infections is most commonly found in the distant bile ducts of the liver. The fluke is relatively small, averaging 12 - 20 mm. The lower image is a close in view of this fluke to better illustrate its internal structures. Symptoms during infection may be minimal, but liver enlargement and jaundice may be experienced in heavy infections. Human infections are endemic in southern China. What is considered the appropriate identification? Clonorchis sinensis Fasciola hepatica Fasciolopsis buski Paragonimus westernani
Clonorchis sinensis
What are the functions of platelets? Clotting and plug formation Maintain vascular integrity Release serotonin Clotting, plug formation, release of serotonin, and repair of the injured tissues
Clotting, plug formation, release of serotonin, and repair of the injured tissues
Beta thalassemia major is also known as: Cooley's anemia Sickle cell anemia Milk anemia Pernicious anemia
Cooley's anemia
Which of the following blood components will provide the best sources of fibrinogen for a patient with hypofibrinogenemia? Whole blood Fresh frozen plasma Platelets Cryoprecipitate
Cryoprecipitate
Which is the best component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency? Red Blood Cells Platelet Concentrate Fresh Whole Blood Cryoprecipitated AHF
Cryoprecipitated AHF
The ingredient added to culture media to enhance the recovery of the dimorphic fungi by preventing the overgrowth of more rapidly growing, saprophytic molds is: Brain heart infusion base Chloramphenical Thiamine Cycloheximide
Cycloheximide
The infective stage for all of the intestinal amebas is the: Trophozoite Cyst Larvae Egg
Cyst
The measurement of sodium and chloride in sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease? Steatorrhea Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas Cystic fibrosis Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
What drug may be used to decrease iron levels in patients with iron overload? Desferrioxamine Cobalamin Antibiotics Eculizumab
Desferrioxamine
A nasopharyngeal specimen is processed and fixed onto a microscope slide. Next, fluorescein conjugated antibody is added to the slide. The specimen is incubated with the labeled antibody, washed, and then observed for fluorescence. Which of the following techniques best describes this process? Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) Latex agglutination Indirect immunofluorescence Direct immunofluorescence
Direct immunofluorescence
What is the only nematode egg that is characteristically flattened on one side? Enterobius vermicularis Paragonimus westermani Schistosoma japonicurn Trichuris trichiura
Enterobius vermicularis
Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category? Glycoproteins Immunoglobulins Lipoproteins Microglobulins
Glycoproteins
What is the element indicated by the arrow in this image? Hyaline cast Waxy cast Granular cast Red blood cell cast
Granular cast
Asaccharolytic use of glucose would be indicated by which of the following reactions in OF glucose tubes? Yellow at the top of the open tube and green in the closed tube Green in both tubes with a little blue at the top of the open tube Yellow in both tubes Green at the top of the open tube, yellow in the bottom of the open tube and yellow in the closed tube
Green in both tubes with a little blue at the top of the open tube
Which of the following tests would be most affected by microclots in an EDTA tube drawn for a CBC? RBC Hematocrit Hemoglobin Platelet count
Platelet count
Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue? Inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease Increased synthesis and secretion of PAI-1 in metabolic syndrome contributes to cardiovascular disease by increasing blood pressure Obesity in metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis and secretion of adiponectin There is no correlation between the amount of adipse tissue and cardiovascular disease
Inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease
All of the following are true about RT-PCR, EXCEPT? It is the most sensitive method for evaluating RNA It requires the least amount of initial product It does not require the use of reverse transciptase Can detect infection before antibodies appear
It does not require the use of reverse transciptase
Which one of the following statements about serum ferritin is true? Its a sensitive indicator of iron deficiency Elevation of serum ferritin is specific for hemochromatosis Its synonymous with transferrin Its a better test for bone marrow iron stores than a Prussian blue stain of marrow particles
Its a sensitive indicator of iron deficiency
Which of the following represents a diagram of a spectrophotometer? Hollow cathode, cuvette, monochromator, detector, readout Cuvette, ligh source, monochromator, detector, readout Monochromator, ligh source, cuvette, detector, readout Light source, monochromator, cuvette, detector, readout
Light source, monochromator, cuvette, detector, readout
Which medication is primarily used in the treatment of bipolar disorder? Lithium Imipramine Amitripyyline Doxepin
Lithium
When measuring enzyme activity, if the instrument is operating 5C lower than the temperature prescribed for the method, how will the results be affected? Lower than actual Higher than actual Varied, showing no particular pattern No effect
Lower than actual
Which of the following cells would e increased if the cerebrospinal fluid of a patient suspected of having multipke sclerosis? Neutrophils Lymphocytes Macrophages Monocytes
Lymphocytes
A 45 year old African American female has been diagnosed and treated for type 2 diebetes for the past five years. She maintains good control of her blood glucose with medication but does not exercise and has gained 12 pounds over the past year.At her next appointment, her physician orders hs-CRP along with blood assays to monitor her diabetes. [hs-CRP = 2.8] At no risk for cardiovascular disease Low risk for cardiovascular disease Moderate risk of cardiovascular disease High risk for cardiovascular disease
Moderate risk of cardiovascular disease
All of the following are a measure of central tendency, EXCEPT? Mean Molarity Median Mode
Molarity
Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDLR tests? Diagnostic of active syphilis Diagnostic of latent syphilis Dignostic of neuro syphilis Monitoring course of treatment
Monitoring course of treatment
Which of the following BEST describes the relation of nephelometry to turbidmetry? Nephelmetry measures the amount of light absorbed by particles in solution, and turbidmetry measures the amount of light transmitted through a solution Nephelometry directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the decrease in incident-light intensity Nephelometry measures the amount of light emitted by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the amount of light reflected by particles in solution Nephelometry measures the amount of light absorbed, and Turbidimetry measures the amount of light scattered
Nephelometry directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the decrease in incident-light intensity
Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of: Ketone body Oval fat body Bacteria Neutrophil
Neutrophil
A 21 year old visited her doctor. She mentioned dysuria, frequency and urgency of urination to her doctor. Which of the following urinalysis reagent strips tests would you expect to be positive for this patient based on her symptoms? Ketones Blood Bilirubin Nitrites
Nitrites
On this alkaline electrophoresis gel, which patient most likely has alpha thalassemia? Patient 1 Patient 2 Patient 3 Patient 4
Patient 3
Bacterial contamination is MOST likely in which of the following blood products? Packed red blood cells Frozen red blood cells Platelets Fresh frozen plasma
Platelets
How should the production of a blue or purple color on the test pad of an Ictotest be interpreted? Positive for bilirubin Positive for ketones Negative for bilirubin Negative for ketones
Positive for bilirubin
An electrolyte panel (lytes, chem-4) consists of: Potassium, Sodium, Carbon dioxide (in the form of bicarbonate) Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, Glucose Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, Creatinine Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, BUN
Potassium, Sodium, Carbon dioxide (in the form of bicarbonate)
Which testing method is appropriate for identifying specific allergens? Complement fixation C-reactive proteins Radioimmunoassay (RIA) Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
The following BEST described serum hCG levels during pregnancy: Rise in levels throughout pregnancy Highest levels found at end of pregnancy Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level off throughout remainder of pregnancy Slow rise in levels during first trimester; rapid rise during seconds trimester; slow decline during the third trimester
Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level off throughout remainder of pregnancy
In the hookworm life cycle, which of the following is considered the noninfective larval form? Rhabditiform Filariform Proglottids Cercariae
Rhabditiform
The slide coagulase test is a rapid method for identifying which of the following organisms? S. hominis S. pneumoniae S. aureus N. gonorrhoeae
S. aureus
Important applications of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) include the following with the general exception of: Search for mutations with large deletions Amplification of DNA Identification of a target sequence Synthesis of an anti-sense probe
Search for mutations with large deletions
Which of the following procedures should be followed when storing supplies or reagents that do not have a manufacturer-assigned expiration date? It doesn't matter how they are stored because there is no assigned expiration date Mark each containeer of supply or reagent with the date of receipt before putting it into the storage area Store supplies in a manner that ensures the oldest will be used first Store supplies in a manner that ensures the newest will be used first
Store supplies in a manner that ensures the oldest will be used first
The detection of a distinct odor is often helpful in the presumptive identification of bacterial culture isolates. Which bacterial species may produce a distiinctive odor of butterscotch or honeysuckle? Streptococcus anginosus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Proteus mirabilis Eikenella corrodens
Streptococcus anginosus
Illustrated in the photograph are colonies on blood agar after 48 hours at 37C. The colonies are non hemolytic, small, entire, smooth, and gray white. Small gram positive cocci arranged in chains are seen. Key to the identification is the rapid production of esculin and don't grow in 6.5% NaCl broth. What is the identification of this orgiansm? Enterococcus spp. Streptococcus agalactiae Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus equinus
Streptococcus equinus
Which of the following conditions/findings is most likely associated with the peripheral blood picture in the photomicrograph? Hereditary spherocytosis Lead poisoning Transfusion dimorphism Folic acid deficiency
Transfusion dimorphism
Lipemia in a fasting serum sample is most likely caused by an increase in serum levels of: Cholesterol Triglycerides Protein Phospholipids
Triglycerides
The motile, active feeding stage of the ameba is known as the: Oocyst Trophozoite Cyst Encysted larva
Trophozoite
Which troponin protein binds the troponin complex to tropomyosin? Troponin I (TnI) Troponin C (TnC) Troponin T (TnT) Troponin P (TnP)
Troponin T (TnT)
What condition is indicated by the following arterial blood gas results? [Bicarb = 32, pCO2 = 65, pH = 7.28] Healthy condition Uncompensated metabolic acidosis Compensated metabolic acidosis Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal thrombin time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear. Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant? Factor VIII assay Mixing studies with factor-deficient plasmas Antinuclear antibody test Platelet neutralization test
Platelet neutralization test
Why is hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) thought to be underdiagnosed? Its early symptoms are nonspecific and vague, and generally do not get serious until later in life It is an extremely rare disease It appears shortly after birth but then symptoms rapidly subside It is a mild disorder and has no severe implications for one's health
Its early symptoms are nonspecific and vague, and generally do not get serious until later in life
Which symptoms of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? Anemia Increased retiulocyte count Jaundice Cardiac failure
Jaundice
Most common methods for measuring bilirubin are based on the reaction of bilirubin with: Methyl alcohol Neural salts Bilirubin oxidase Diazo reagent
Diazo reagent
Bioavaliability of an oral drug refers to the: Availability of therapeutic administration Ratio of protein-bound to free drug Amount of drug transformation Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into systemic circulation
Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into systemic circulation
How does hydroxyurea aid in the treatment of sickle cell disease? Acts as an amalgesic in pain management Prevents sickle cells from clumping together induces increased production of HbF Reduces the number of sickle cells that form
Induces increased production of HbF
The liver fluke, Fasciola hepatica can be identified by its relatively small size, the cone-shaped anterior extension. How do humans become infected with this organism? Ingestion of poorly cooked meat Ingestion of poorly cooked water plants Bite of infected fly or insect Direct skin contact with contaminated soil
Ingestion of poorly cooked water plants
Which one of the following statements about urea is false? It accounts for 75% of nonprotein nitrogen excreted It is elevated in a variety of glomerular, tubular, interstitial, and vascular renal diseases It is decreased in dehydration The reference range for normal individuals is 7 to 18 mg/dL when expressed as blood urea nitrogen
It is decreased in dehydration
The distinctly large, spreading, muciod, colonies seen on blood agar and the display of lactose fermentation on MacConkey agar provide for a presumptive organism identification. This species is most commonly recovered from respiratory specimens of patients with pneumonia. Observing absence of motility, a weak reaction for urea, and strong reactions for citrate and VP confirm the presumptive identification. What is the pathogen's identification? Proteus mirabilis Edwardsiella tarda Citrobacter freundii Klebsiella pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Which of the following organisms has been isolated from nasal secretions and caused atrophic rhinitis, a tissue-destructive disorder in the nose? Cronobacter sakazakii Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. ozaenae Yersinia pseudotuberculosis Morganella morganii
Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. orzaenae
All of the following crystals are found in normal urine, EXCEPT? Triple phosphate Ammonium biurate Calcium oxalate Leucine
Leucine
What is one of the BIGGEST challenges with isolating Francisella? The production of wide zones of hemolysis Organism growth is slow The overgrowth of other organisms The production of greenish colonies like Pseudomonas
Organism growth is slow
Which of the following statements characterize a reticulocyte? Reticulum visible with a supravital stain, such as new methylene blue Reticulum visible with Wright stain Contains some organelles used for hemoglobin production Pyknotic nucleus still present in the cell
Reticulum visible with a supravital stain, such as new methylene blue
To prevent Rh alloimmunization in pregnancy between mother and fetus, it is recommended to initiate RhIG prophylaxis when? Rh-positive pregnant females, postpartum Rh-negative pregnant female, antenatal in the first trimester Rh-negative pregnant females, antenatal in the third trimester Rh-positive pregnant females after delivery of an Rh-positive infant
Rh-negative pregnant females, antenatal in the third trimester
In the evaluation of a positive DAT result, all of the below techniques can be used to dissociate the antibody from the RBCs, EXCEPT? EDTA-glycine Saline replacement Chloroquine diphosphate Murine monoclonal antibodies
Saline replacement
Purulent material is obtained from a carbuncle and submitted for bacterial culture. Many Gram-positive cocci and white blood cells were seen on direct smear. Colonies on blood agar are, smooth and gold/yellow surrounded by a narrow zone of beta hemolysis. The slide coagulase test is negative but the tube coagulase test is positive. The probable presumptive identification? Micrococcus luteus Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Staphylococcus aureus (only S. aureus and S.intermedius, and S. hyicus are cogulase positive)
Which subset of effector lymphocytes is predominantly responsible for regulation of antibody production? TH1 TH2 TH17 CD8+
TH2
Which of the following statements is TRUE for specific gravitiy measured by the urine chemical reagent strip method? High concentrations of protein in urine do not increase the readings when using the urine chemical reagent strip An alkaline pH would not affect the specific gravity result using a reagent strip method The urine chemical reagent strip method is not affected by the presence of x-ray contrast media in the urine specimen The urine chemical reagent strip method is based on the fact that light is refreacted in proportion to the amount of total solids dissoloved in the urine
The urine chemical strip method is not affected by the presence of x-ray contrast media in the urine specimen
Which of the following conditions is caused by the Human Papilloma Virus? Mononucleosis Venereal Warts Common Cold Gastroenteritis in infants
Venereal Warts
A CSF specimen was sent to the laboratory for analysis. A glucose, protein, and cell count were performed. Based the following results, what would be the probable cause? (Glucose = 50, Protein = 100, Leukocytes = 80 cells/mm3 mononuclear) Normal CSF Viral infection Purulent infection Tuberculosis or fungi infection
Viral infeciton
Which of the following best describes the size and staining characteristics of yeast cells on a gram stain? About the same size as red blood cells and stain purple-blue About the same size as red blood cells and stain pink About the same size as white blood cells and stain purple-blue About the same size as bacteria and stain pink
About the same size as red blood cells and stain purple-blue
A gram negative coccobacillus produces small gray colonies surrounded by a zine of hemolysis on potato blood glycerol agar. The organism also grew on chocolate agar but NOT on sheep blood agar. This is MOST likely to be which organism? Alcaliqenes fecalis Bordetella pertussis Franciscella tularensis Hemophilus influenzae
Bordetella pertussis
This autosomal recessive disorder is associated with recurrent bacterial infections and cells consistent with the cell in the image. Alder-Reilly anomaly May-Hegglin anomaly Chediak-Higashi syndrome Pelger-Huet anomaly
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
The image to the right presents protozoan organisms in the cyst stage of development. Identify the protozoan cyst in Image D. Chilomastix mesnili cyst Giardia lamblia cyst Acanthamoeba species cyst Entamoeba coli cyst
Chilomastix mesnili cyst
What is a correct characteristic of Alpha Thalassemia? Decreased or absent alpha chain production results in excess gamma chain production during and shortly after birth, followed by excess beta chains later The typical haplotype for alpha thalassemaia is (+a/+a) Alpha thalassemia does not manifest in utero, it is acquired later in life increased alpha chain production results in decreased or absent gamma and beta chain production
Decreased or absent alpha chain production results in excess gamma chain production during and shortly after birth, followed by excess beta chains later
The hemoglobin electrophorsis pattern for patient #2 shows an increase in Hb F and a decrease in both Hb A and HbA2. These results correlate best with which of these thalassemias? Beta thalassemia minor Beta thalassemia major Delta-beta thalassemia minor Alpha thalassemia major
Delta-beta thalassemia minor
A patient experiences a mild allergic reaction to a transfusion, including urticaria, erythema (skin redness), and itching. What is the most likely source of the allergen? IgA on mast cells Drugs or food consumed by the blood donor Insoluble allergens Donor red blood cells
Drugs or food consumed by the blood donor
Corneal tissue transplantation has an extremely high success rate for a variety of reason, including all of the following with the exception of: Avascularity Reasonably low concentration of class 1 antigens An essential absence of class 2 antigens Eccentrically place grafts
Eccentrically place grafts
Illustrated in this photograph are colonies growing on the surface of a chocolate agar plate. The colonies were recovered from a subcutaneous infection of the forearm and had a bleach odor. The most likely identification is: Moraxella lacunata Haemophilus aphrophilus Eikenella corrodens Capnocytophaga canimorsus
Eikenella corrodens
Which of the following would you find in a primary hyperparathyroidism case? Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus Elevated serum calcium and elevated serum phosphorus Decreased serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus Decreased serum calcium and increased serum phosphorus
Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus
The 20 um in diameter cyst illustrated in the photograph had been observed microscopically in a trichrome stained mount prepared from a stool specimen of a patient with low grade, intermittent diarrhea. What is the presumptive identification? Entamoeba histolytica Entamoeba coli Entamoeba hartmanni Iodamoeba butschii
Entamoeba coli
All of the following statements about fluorometry are true, EXCEPT? Fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured Fluorometers typically utilize monochromators or optical filters
Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured
Which type of toxicology is primarily concerned with medical and legal consequences of exposure to chemicals and drugs? Forensic toxicology Clinical toxicology Environmental toxicology Descriptive toxicology
Forensic toxicology
When parasites are observed in clinical stool specimens, antigen detection is the preferred method for identification, providing increased sensitivity over more common microscopy techniques. The H & E stained tissue section of duodenum illustrates the presence of an intra-luminal intestinal trophozoite in which an antigen assay might be helpful in making a definitive identification. Select the presumptive identification from the choices listed. Chilmastix mesnili Giardia duodenalis Dientamoeba fragilis Trichomonas hominis
Giardia duodenalis
Cells that stain positive with acid phosphatase, and are NOT inhibited with tartrate, are characteristically seen in: Infectious mononucleosis Infectious lymphocytosis Hairy cell leukemia T cell ALL
Hairy cell leukemia
Based on the evaluation of hematocrit (Hct), blood pressure (BP), pulse, age, and gender, which of the following individuals represents an acceptable allogeneic donor? Hct = 39%, BP = 160/105, temp = 99.8, pulse = 75, age = 40, sex = female Hct = 37%, BP = 135/85, temp = 98.6, pulse = 80, age = 15, sex = male Hct = 41%, BP = 110/80, temp = 99.4, pulse = 65, age = 65, sex = male Hct = 32%, BP 120/80, temp = 98.9, pulse = 70, age = 22, sex = female
Hct = 41%, BP = 110/80, temp = 99.4, pulse = 65, age = 65, sex = male
From the multiple choices below, select the most appropriate culture medium for optimum recovery and differentiation of Salmonella and/or Shigella Columbia colistin nalidixic acid (CNA) agar Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS ) agar Hektoen enteric (HE) agar Sabouraud dextrose agar
Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from: Hematopoietic stem cells Macrophages or monocytes Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT)
Hematopoietic stem cells
Calcium and phosphorus levels were determined for a 4 year old patient as follows: Ca = 14; Phosphorus = 1; These results are MOST compatible with: Hyperparathyroidism Renal failure Rickets Hypervitaminosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following terms could be used to describe the red blood cells in the field? Hypochromic Hyperchromic Normochromic Polychromatophilic
Hypochromic
The chief purpose of performing a serologic crossmatch is to: Identify antibodies in donor blood Identify antibodies in recipient red blood cells Identify recipient antibodies against donor cells Identify donor antibodies against recipient cells
Identify recipient antibodies against donor cells
All of the following conditions are associated with a polyclonal increase in gamma globulins except? Liver disease Chronic inflammation Immune reaction Immunodeficiency
Immunodeficiency
Lymphocyte pleocytosis refers to a_______ in a CSF when compared to a normal sample Increased number of lymphocytes Decreased number of lymphocytes Normal number of lymphocytes Absence of lymphocyte
Increased number of lymphocytes
Enterobius vermicularis infection is acquired by: Skin penetration of larvae Inset bite Ingestion or inhalation of eggs Ingestion of infected fish
Ingestion or inhalation of eggs
Skin and mucous membranes are important components of what part of the immune system? Cell mediated immunity Adaptive immunity Innate immunity Acquired immunity
Innate immunity
All of the following hormones stimulate gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose noncarbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol, and fattyacids, EXCEPT? Insulin Thyroxine (T4) Cortisol Glucagon
Insulin
Which of the following hormones is mainly responsible for the entry of glucose into the cell for energy production? Epinephrine Glucagon Cortisol Insulin
Insulin
A 56 year old female as taken to the emergency room in a coma by her employer's nurse. She has lost 35 pounds in 3 months, was always thirsty, drinking a lot of water and was running to the bathroom. Given the following lab results, what is the MOST likely cause of this patient's symptoms? [pH = 7.11, pCO2 = 21, Glucose = 950, Serum osmo = 365, Urine ketone = strong positive, Urine glucose = strong positive] Gestational diabetes Diabetes insipidus Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
Which of the following is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B12? Intrinsic factor Folic acid Gastrin Insulin
Intrinsic factor
The trophozite indicated by the arrow and the 10 um oval cyst in the middle of the photograph was observed in a stool specimen from a person with mild intermittent diarrhea. What is the presumptive identification of this organism? Iodamoeba butschlii Chilomastix mesnili Entamoeba hartmanni Endolimax nana
Iodamoeba butschlii
A laboratory is in the process of implementing Lean techniques to become more efficient in its processes. A team is performing a waster walk to determine where there is waste in the laboratory, Which question below would help the team identify if the Lean waste form known as 'waiting' is present in this laboratory? Are you fixing errors in paperwork Does the laboratory have unnecessary levels of authorization and approval Is there too much dependency on others to complete a task before you can begin a task Are you regularly hand carrying paperwork from one laboratory area to another or one department to another
Is there too much dependency on others to complete a task before you can begin a task
Which of the following is correct regarding C reactive protein? Is a highly specific test Corresponds to serum complement levels Is usually elevated in pediatric bacterial infections Does not react with pneumoncoccal C polysaccharide
Is usually elevated in pediatric bacterial infections
A culture from a sputum specimen grew a mucoid, lactose fermenting organism. Biochemical testing on this isolate gave the following key reaction: VP positive, Indole negative, Urea 1+, Motility nonmotile, Citrate positive. What is the most likely organism given the site of isolation and biochemical reaction? Klebsiella pneumoniae Escherichia coli Klebsiella oxytoca Klebsiella aerogenes
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Select from the choices below the best report that reflects this pleural fluid cytospin image from a patient with refractory Non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Lymphoma cells, mesothelial cellsm macrophaes, neutrophils Lymphocytes, lymphoma cells, neutrophils, macrophages, hemophagocytosis Mesothelial cells, neutrophils, macrophages, hemophagocytosis Neutrophils, hemophagocytosis, mesothelial cells, lymphoma cells, macrophages
Lymphocytes, lymphoma cells, neutrophils, macrophages, hemophagocytosis
What information can you find on the label affixed to the primary container of a hazardous chemical? Date of discovery Physical description of contents Emergency personnel contact information Manufacturer's name and contact information
Manufacturer's name and contact information
All of the following statements are true regarding the hepatic system and drug metabolism, EXCEPT? Changes in hepatic statue will affect the concentration of circulating drugs eliminated Hepatic disease states characterized by a loss of functional tissue may result in slower rates of clearance Hepatic disease states characterized by a loss of functional tissue may result in a longer drug half-life Metabolism of acetaminophen by the MFO systems is altered by alcohol and makes it less toxic
Metabolism of acetaminophen by the MFO systems is altered by alcohol and makes it less toxic
A patient presents with the following measured parameters on the CBC [WBC count = 5.6, RBC count = 3.6, Hgb = 9.2, Hct = 27%, MCV = 75, RDW-CV = 17%] Which statement represents the patient's condition? No anemia present Microcytic, heterogenous anemia Microcytic, homogenous anemia Normocytic, heterogenous anemia
Microcytic, heterogenous anemia
A patient has the following hematology test results. Classify the anemia present by choosing one of the options below: [Hgb = 8.1, Hct = 31%, RBC = 4.0] Macrocytic, hypochromic Normocytic, normochromic Microcytic, normochromic Microcytic, hypochromic
Microcytic, hypochromic
Characteristics of Type 1 cryoglobulins include the following characteristics: Contains two classed of immunoglobulins, at least one of which is monoclonal Mixed, no monoclonal protein found Monoclonal IgG, IgA, or IgM Contains five classes of immunoglobulins
Monoclonal IgG, IgA, or IgM
Identify the nucleated blood cell: Lymphocyte Neutrophil Basophil Monocyte
Monocyte
What type of cell is indicated in this photograph? Monocyte Blast Macrophage Tumor cell
Monocyte
All of the organisms below are known to cause gastroenteritis, EXCEPT? Moraxella catarrhalis Campylobacter jejuni Vibrio cholerae Aeromonas hydrophila
Moraxella catarrhalis
Which of the following has been compared to a hockey puck when discussing its morphology on chocolate agar? Neisseria subflava Moraxella catarrhalis Neisseria lactomica Neisseria sicca
Moraxella catarrhalis
The following diagram demonstrates two Serum Protein Electrophoresis (SPEP) patterns from different patients. The pattern on the left appears to be from a normal, healthy patient. The pattern on the right is from a patient with a particular disorder. What disorder is suggested by the pattern on the right? Nephrotic Syndrome Acute inflammation Malnutrition Multiple Myeloma
Multiple Myeloma
Observation of each of the following characteristics is helpful in differentiating between Nocardia spp. and Mycobacterium spp EXCEPT? Partial acid fast staining Filamentous rods that branch Musty basement smell of the colonies
Musty basement smell of the colonies
A 3 year old female was seen by a local ear, nose and throat specialist for chronic ear pain. She had been treated several times for otitis media by her pediatrician with no resolution. Drainage from her ear grew an acid fast bacillus that gave the following biochemical reactions: [iron uptake = positive, nitrate reduction = positive, arylsulfatase = positive, MacConkey agar growth after 5 days = positive] It should be identified as: Mycobacterium avium complex Mycobacterium fortuitum Mycobacterium chelonae Mycobacterium kansasii
Mycobacterium fortuitum
On occasion in cases of heavy infection, rhabditiform nematode larvae, measuring up to 1.5 cm long, may be observed in mounts prepared from stool specimens. A presumptive species identification can be made by microscopically observing the buccal cavity as illustrated in the photograph. What is the most likely species of this nematode? Strongyloides stercoralis Enterobius vermicularis Necator americanus Ascaris lumbricoides
Necator americanus
A gram negative diplococci grows on MTM, is oxidase positive and superoxol positive. The carbohydrate utilization reaction seen in the QuadFerm system shown in the image shown provides an identification of which of the following organisms? Neisseria meningitidis Neisseria gonorrhoeae Neisseria lactomica Moraxella catarrhalis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
What is the appropriate deferral period from donating blood for a 34 year old woman who miscarried in her first trimester? 8 weeks 6 weeks 2 weeks No deferral
No deferral
What are the possible ABO genotypes of offspring of parents whose genotype is AO and BO? OO, AO, BO, AB AO and BO OO and AB AB, AO, and BO
OO, AO, BO, AB
A semen sample for semen analysis should generally be received of the testing site within what period of time? One hour Two hours Three hours Four hours
One hour
All of the following are methods employed for measuring the specific gravity of urine, EXCEPT? Refractometry Hydrometry Osmolality Urine reagent strips
Osmolality
All of the following statements about peptide mucleic acid-fluorescence in situ hybridization (PNA-FISH) are true for Staphylococcus EXCEPT? PNA probes are built with a pseudopeptide, rather than a sugar PNA-FISH assays provide differentiation between MRSA and MSSA PNA-FISH assays provide differentiation between S. aureus and coagulase negative species PNA-FISH assays offer the possibility of earlier adjustment of antomicrobial therapy
PNA-FISH assays provide differentiation between MRSA and MSSA
Infections of the bone marrow are not only caused by bacteria and fungi, they can be caused by viruses as well. Which of the following viruses can often be isolated from bone marrow specimens? Varicella-Zoster virus Herpes Simplex virus Parvovirus B19 Respiratory Syncytial virus
Parvovirus B19
Which of the following is considered an indication for Rh immune globulin administration in postpartum women? Long term protection Antibody blocking Passive protection Active immunity
Passive protection
Which of the following conditions would produce the results listed below in an anemic patient? MVC = 115; MCH = 30; MCHC = 34 Sickle cell anemia Aplastic anemia Iron deficiency anemia Pernicious anemia
Pernicious anemia
Which analyte shows no difference between capillary and venous values? Glucose Phosphorus Bilirubin Calcium
Phosphorus
On MacConkey agar, an isolate from a stool sample produced clear, colorless colonies. On HE agar, colonies were green with black centers, indicative of H2S production. Additional biochemical tests were positive, for methyl red, and negative for indole, VP, citrate, and PAD. From the choices listed, which species best matched the characteristics described? Salmonella Typhi Proteus mirabilis Shigella sonnei Escherichia coli
Salmonella Typhi
All of the following could explain why screening cell #2 has a stronger reaction than screening cell #1 EXCEPT: The patient has more than one antibody and all corresponding antigens are on screen cell #2 but not on screen cell #1 The patient has an antibody other than anti-D and screen cell #2 has a double dose of the antigen, whereas screen cell #1 has only a single dose Operator variability - When dislodging the cell buttons during reading, the technologist shook screen cell #1's test more vigorously than cell #2 test Screening cell #1 has homozygous antigen for the reacting antibody whereas screening cell #2 is heterozygous
Screening cell #1 has homozygous antigen for the reacting antibody whereas screening cell #2 is heterozygous
A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with 122,000 WBCs which are predominantly neutrophils, and a decreased glucose, would be classified as: Noninflammatory Inflammatory Septic Crystal-induced
Septic
The positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction seen in the right tube (green pigmentation in the slant compared to the negative control on the left) may be produced by each of the following bacterial species EXCEPT: Proteus vulgaris Serratia marcescens Morganella morganii Providencia stuartii
Serratia marcescens
A 2 month old infant presented with a history of chronic diarrhea and failure to thrive. The child's mother also revealed that the baby has suffered from thrush since birth. Preliminary findings showed lymphopenia, hypogammaglobulinemia, and physical findings showed a small thymus, no tonsils or lymph nodes. Which of the following immune deficiencies does the patient present with? T cell activation deficiency MCH deficiency Deficiency in immunoglobulin production Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
All of the following are true of lab results of patients with Glanzmann thrombasthenia EXCEPT? Deficient GPIIb/IIIa Severe thrombocytopenia Increased bleeding time Abnormal platelet aggregation with ADP, collagen, and epinephrine
Severe thrombocytopenia
This member of the Enterobacteriaceae is shown on triple sugar iron agar, lysine iron agar, urea agar, citrate agar, phenylalanine deamiase agar, and motility indole ornithine agar. The most likely identification would be: Echerichia coli Salmonella spp. Shigella sonnei Providencia spp.
Shigella sonnei
What is the characteristic RBC that is uniquely associated with HbSS? Target cell (codocyte) Sickle cell (drepanocyte) Polychromatophilic cell Spherocyte
Sickle cell (drepanocyte)
Which statement best describes small dense LDL particles that can occur in atherogenic dyslipidemia? Small dense LDL molecules are less atherogenic than larger, less dense or buoyant LDL particles because they are metabolized faster Small dense LDL molecules transport more cholesterol and thus are more atherogenic Small dense LDL molecules are more atherogenic because they can more easily move into the endothelium and vessel wall Small dense LDL molecules are just atherogenic as the larger ones
Small dense LDL molecules are more atherogenic because they can more easily move into the endothelium and vessel wall
A presumptiive identification of a bacterial species can often be made by observing the type of hemolysis when grown on 5% sheep blood agar. Which of the following organisms is nearly always alpha hemolytic? Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus pneumoniae Enterococcus spp. Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Antibodies are ruled out using panel cells that are homozygous for the corresponding antigen because: Multiple antibodies will not react with heterozygous cells Stronger reactions are seen with homozygous cells Heterozygous cells are usually negative Heterozygous cells cannot be used at all for rule outs
Stronger reactions are seen with homozygous cells
Four tubes of CSF on the same patient were received in the laboratory. It was noted on the report that all four tubes contained visible blood. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding? Traumatic tap Subarachnoid hemorrhage Meningitis WAHA
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
T lymphocytes are characterized by all of the following functions EXCEPT? Secrete cytokines Synthesize antibody Comprise majority of cells in blood lymphocyte pool Help regulate immune response
Synthesize antibody
All of the following regarding Anti-A and Anti-B reagents used in forward typing for ABO typing are true EXCEPT? They contain monoclonal antibodies The antibodies are highly specific The antibodies are IgG They produce an expected 3+ or 4+ reaction with the corresponding antigens
The antibodies are IgG
After irradiating a unit of packed red blood cells, how is the expiration date affected? The expiration date is changed to 28 days from the date of irradiation regardless of the original expiration date The expiration date shortens to 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original expiration date, whichever is first The expiration date is shortened to 24 hours from time of irradiation The expiration date is not affected
The expiration date shortens to 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original expiration date, whichever is first
In an emergency release, why do blood bankers seldom encounter patients who have experienced hemolytic transfusion reaction (HTR) from transfusion of uncrossmatched packed RBCs? The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low They usually receive group O Rh-negative red blood cells; a hemolytic transfusion reaction will never occur if O Rh-negative red blood cells are transfused They hemorrhage so severely that incompatible donor red blood cells bleed out before a reaction occurs Some patients have cold-reactive antibodies that will not react at body temperature
The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low
A patient suffering from Celiac disease and Crohn disease (both inflammatory conditions of the GI tract) is given a new oral medication that has a narrow therapeutic window. Which of the following would be true? An oral medication is never effective for a patient that has these diseases. The drug must be given through IV Toxicity in this patient is not likely since most of the drig won't be absorbed Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed Serum drug levels obtained 15 minutes after the oral dose should confirm the drug was absorded
Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed
What is the recommended treatment if the patient is passing both cysts and trophozoites with an Entamoeba histolytica infection? Either a luminal amebicide or a tissue amebicide Tissue amebicide followed by a luminal amebicide Luminal amebricide Tissue amebicide
Tissue amebicide followed by a luminal amebicide
Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of: Hemoglobin Transferrin Ferritin Ceruloplasmin
Transferrin