502 Final (New PQ)

In a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome, what is the best way to detect fluid retention? a. Weigh the child daily. b. Test the urine for hematuria. c. Measure the abdominal girth weekly. d. Count the number of wet diapers.

A A daily weight taken at the same time every day, with the child wearing the same clothing, is the most accurate way to determine fluid gains and losses. The presence or absence of blood in the urine will not help with the determination of fluid retention. The abdominal girth will reflect edema, but weekly measurements are too infrequent. The number of wet diapers reflects how often the diapers have been changed. The diapers should be weighed to reflect the fluid balance.

What is a nursing priority when caring for a patient with hypothyroidism? a. Patient teaching related to levothyroxine b. Providing a dark, low-stimulation environment c. Closely monitoring the patient's intake and output d. Initiating precautions related to radioactive iodine therapy

A A euthyroid state is most often achieved in patients with hypothyroidism by the administration of levothyroxine. It is not necessary to closely monitor intake and output. Low stimulation and radioactive iodine therapy are used to treat hyperthyroidism.

When admitting a patient with acute glomerulonephritis, it is most important that the nurse ask the patient about a. recent sore throat and fever. b. history of high blood pressure. c. frequency of bladder infections. d. family history of kidney stones.

A Acute glomerulonephritis frequently occurs after a streptococcal infection such as strep throat. It is not caused by hypertension, urinary tract infection (UTI), or kidney stones

Which finding for a patient who has hypothyroidism and hypertension indicates that the nurse should contact the health care provider before administering levothyroxine (Synthroid)? a. Increased thyroxine (T4) level b. Blood pressure 112/62 mm Hg c. Distant and difficult to hear heart sounds d. Elevated thyroid stimulating hormone level

A An increased thyroxine level indicates the levothyroxine dose needs to be decreased. The other data are consistent with hypothyroidism and the nurse should administer the levothyroxine.

Following rectal surgery, a patient voids about 50 mL of urine every 30 to 60 minutes. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Use an ultrasound scanner to check the postvoiding residual. b. Monitor the patients intake and output over the next few hours. c. Have the patient take small amounts of fluid frequently throughout the day. d. Reassure the patient that this is normal after rectal surgery because of anesthesia.

A An ultrasound scanner can be used to check for residual urine after the patient voids. Because the patients history and clinical manifestations are consistent with overflow incontinence, it is not appropriate to have the patient drink small amounts. Although overflow incontinence is not unusual after surgery, the nurse should intervene to correct the physiologic problem, not just reassure the patient. The patient may develop reflux into the renal pelvis as well as discomfort from a full bladder if the nurse waits to address the problem for several hours.

A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft? a. A fistula is much less likely to clot. b. A fistula increases patient mobility. c. A fistula can be used sooner after surgery. d. A fistula can accommodate larger needles.

A Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact on needle size or patient mobility.

The nurse is caring for a patient who had kidney transplantation several years ago. Which assessment finding may indicate that the patient is experiencing adverse effects to the prescribed corticosteroid? a. Joint pain b. Tachycardia c. Postural hypotension d. Increase in creatinine level

A Aseptic necrosis of the weight-bearing joints can occur when patients take corticosteroids over a prolonged period. Increased creatinine level, orthostatic dizziness, and tachycardia are not caused by corticosteroid use.

Which question during the assessment of a patient who has diabetes will help the nurse identify autonomic neuropathy? a. "Do you feel bloated after eating?" b. "Have you seen any skin changes?" c. "Do you need to increase your insulin dosage when you are stressed?" d. "Have you noticed any painful new ulcerations or sores on your feet?"

A Autonomic neuropathy can cause delayed gastric emptying, which results in a bloated feeling for the patient. The other questions are also appropriate to ask but would not help in identifying autonomic neuropathy.

Which nursing action is most important in assisting an older patient who has diabetes to engage in moderate daily exercise? a. Determine what types of activities the patient enjoys. b. Remind the patient that exercise improves self-esteem. c. Teach the patient about the effects of exercise on glucose level. d. Give the patient a list of activities that are moderate in intensity.

A Because consistency with exercise is important, assessment for the types of exercise that the patient finds enjoyable is the most important action by the nurse in ensuring adherence to an exercise program. The other actions may be helpful but are not the most important in improving compliance.

Which is instituted for the therapeutic management of minimal change nephrotic syndrome? a. Corticosteroids b. Antihypertensive agents c. Long-term diuretics d. Increased fluids to promote diuresis

A Corticosteroids are the first line of therapy for minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Response is usually seen within 7 to 21 days. Antihypertensive agents and long-term diuretic therapy are usually not necessary. A diet that has fluid and salt restrictions may be indicated.

Which should the nurse recommend to prevent urinary tract infections in young girls? a. Wear cotton underpants. b. Limit bathing as much as possible. c. Increase fluids; decrease salt intake. d. Cleanse perineum with water after voiding.

A Cotton underpants are preferable to nylon underpants. No evidence exists that limiting bathing, increasing fluids/decreasing salt intake, or cleansing the perineum with water after voiding decrease urinary tract infections in young girls.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results for the clinic patients to be seen today. Which patient meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes? a. A 48-yr-old woman with a hemoglobin A1C of 8.4% b. A 58-yr-old man with a fasting blood glucose of 111 mg/dL c. A 68-yr-old woman with a random plasma glucose of 190 mg/dL d. A 78-yr-old man with a 2-hour glucose tolerance plasma glucose of 184 mg/dL

A Criteria for a diagnosis of diabetes include a hemoglobin A1C of 6.5% or greater, fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dL or greater, 2-hour plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dL or greater during an oral glucose tolerance test, or classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis with a random plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or greater.

What name is given to inflammation of the bladder? a. Cystitis b. Urethritis c. Urosepsis d. Bacteriuria

A Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder. Urethritis is an inflammation of the urethra. Urosepsis is a febrile urinary tract infection with systemic signs of bacterial infection. Bacteriuria is the presence of bacteria in the urine.

When the nurse is taking a history for a patient who is a possible candidate for a kidney transplant, which information about the patient indicates that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for transplantation? a. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. b. The patient has poorly controlled type 1 diabetes. c. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. d. The patient is infected with the human immunodeficiency virus.

A Disseminated malignancies are a contraindication to transplantation. The conditions of the other patients are not contraindications for kidney transplant.

What is the most important nursing consideration related to congenital hypothyroidism? a. Early identification of the disorder b. Facilitation of parent-infant attachment c. Initiation of referrals for cognitive impairment d. Help for parents in dealing with the child's future prospects

A Early diagnosis of congenital hypothyroidism is imperative. Because brain growth is complete by 2 to 3 years of age, the thyroid hormone deficiency must be detected and replacement therapy begun as soon as possible to prevent long-term or life-threatening complications. The promotion of parent-infant attachment is important with all infants. With appropriate intervention, the child may not have any developmental deficit.

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. In formulating a teaching plan that encourages the patient to actively participate in managing diabetes, what should be the nurse's initial intervention? a. Assess patient's perception of what it means to have diabetes. b. Ask the patient to write down current knowledge about diabetes. c. Set goals for the patient to actively participate in managing his diabetes. d. Assume responsibility for all of the patient's care to decrease stress level.

A For teaching to be effective, the first step is to assess the patient. Teaching can be individualized after the nurse is aware of what a diagnosis of diabetes means to the patient. After the initial assessment, current knowledge can be assessed, and goals should be set with the patient. Assuming responsibility for all of the patient's care will not facilitate the patient's health.

The nurse is caring for a child with a urinary tract infection who is on trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What side effects of this medication should the nurse teach to the parents and the child? (Select all that apply.) a. Rash b. Urticaria c. Pneumonitis d. Renal toxicity e. Photosensitivity

A, B, E Side effects of Bactrim are rash, urticaria, and photosensitivity. Pneumonitis and renal toxicity are not side effects of Bactrim.

A hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is receiving high doses of prednisone. Which is an appropriate nursing goal related to this? a. Prevent infection b. Stimulate appetite c. Detect evidence of edema d. Ensure compliance with prophylactic antibiotic therapy

A High-dose steroid therapy has an immunosuppressant effect. These children are particularly vulnerable to upper respiratory tract infections. A priority nursing goal is to minimize the risk of infection by protecting the child from contact with infectious individuals. Appetite is increased with prednisone therapy. The amount of edema should be monitored as part of the disease process, not necessarily related to the administration of prednisone. Antibiotics would not be used as prophylaxis.

Test results reveal elevated growth hormone levels in an adolescent male. Based on this finding, the nurse suspects that the child may have a. pituitary adenoma. b. gigantism. c. Diabetes Insipidus. d. Diabetes Mellitus.

A Hypersecretion of growth hormone after s\epiphyseal plate closure places the individual at risk to develop acromegaly. Typically, this condition is due to the presence of a pituitary adenoma. Gigantism occurs when there is excessive growth hormone secretion prior to epiphyseal plate closure. Diabetes insipidus occurs due to a decrease in anti-diuretic hormone and diabetes mellitus occurs in response to alterations in pancreatic function.

Which patient action indicates an accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about the use of an insulin pump? a. The patient programs the pump for an insulin bolus after eating. b. The patient changes the location of the insertion site every week. c. The patient takes the pump off at bedtime and starts it again each morning. d. The patient plans a diet with more calories than usual when using the pump.

A In addition to the basal rate of insulin infusion, the patient will adjust the pump to administer a bolus after each meal, with the dosage depending on the oral intake. The insertion site should be changed every 2 or 3 days. There is more flexibility in diet and exercise when an insulin pump is used, but it does not provide for consuming a higher calorie diet. The pump will deliver a basal insulin rate 24 hours a day.

A child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency is receiving GH therapy. When is the best time for the GH to be administered? a. At bedtime b. After meals c. Before meals d. On arising in the morning

A Injections are best given at bedtime to more closely approximate the physiologic release of GH. After or before meals and on arising in the morning do not mimic the physiologic release of the hormone.

The nurse teaches a patient recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes about insulin administration. Which statement by the patient requires an intervention by the nurse? a. "I will discard any insulin bottle that is cloudy in appearance." b. "The best injection site for insulin administration is in my abdomen." c. "I can wash the site with soap and water before insulin administration." d. "I may keep my insulin at room temperature (75° F) for up to 1 month."

A Intermediate-acting insulin and combination-premixed insulin will be cloudy in appearance. Routine hygiene such as washing with soap and rinsing with water is adequate for skin preparation for the patient during self-injections. Insulin vials that the patient is currently using may be left at room temperature for up to 4 weeks unless the room temperature is higher than 86° F (30° C) or below freezing (<32°F [0°C]). Rotating sites to different anatomic sites is no longer recommended. Patients should rotate the injection within one particular site, such as the abdomen.

A male patient in the hospital has a history of functional urinary incontinence. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Place a bedside commode near the patients bed. b. Demonstrate the use of the Cred maneuver to the patient. c. Use an ultrasound scanner to check postvoiding residuals. d. Teach the use of Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor.

A Modifications in the environment make it easier to avoid functional incontinence. Checking for residual urine and performing the Cred maneuver are interventions for overflow incontinence. Kegel exercises are useful for stress incontinence.

A female patient is scheduled for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Which information from the patient's health history is important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider regarding this test? a. The patient uses oral contraceptives. b. The patient runs several days a week. c. The patient has been pregnant three times. d. The patient has a family history of diabetes.

A Oral contraceptive use may falsely elevate oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) values. Exercise and a family history of diabetes both can affect blood glucose but will not lead to misleading information from the OGTT. History of previous pregnancies may provide informational about gestational glucose tolerance but will not lead to misleading information from the OGTT.

A patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. Glargine (Lantus) c. Detemir (Levemir) d. NPH (Humulin N)

A Rapid- or short-acting insulin is used for mealtime coverage for patients receiving intensive insulin therapy. NPH, glargine, or detemir will be used as the basal insulin.

The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about appropriate dietary choices. Which menu choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been successful? a. Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and apple juice b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Split-pea soup, whole-wheat toast, and nonfat milk d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

A Scrambled eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate.

Which nursing action will be most helpful in decreasing the risk for hospital-acquired infection (HAI) of the urinary tract in patients admitted to the hospital? a. Avoid unnecessary catheterizations. b. Encourage adequate oral fluid intake. c. Test urine with a dipstick daily for nitrites. d. Provide thorough perineal hygiene to patients.

A Since catheterization bypasses many of the protective mechanisms that prevent urinary tract infection (UTI), avoidance of catheterization is the most effective means of reducing HAI. The other actions will also be helpful, but are not as useful as decreasing urinary catheter use.

The nurse has administered 4 oz of orange juice to an alert patient whose blood glucose was 62 mg/dL. Fifteen minutes later, the blood glucose is 67 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. b. Administer the PRN glucagon (Glucagon) 1 mg IM. c. Have the patient eat some peanut butter with crackers. d. Notify the health care provider about the hypoglycemia.

A The "rule of 15" indicates that administration of quickly acting carbohydrates should be done two or three times for a conscious patient whose glucose remains less than 70 mg/dL before notifying the health care provider. More complex carbohydrates and fats may be used after the glucose has stabilized. Glucagon should be used if the patient's level of consciousness decreases so that oral carbohydrates can no longer be given.

The nurse is assessing a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which symptom reported by the patient correlates with the diagnosis? a. Excessive thirst b. Gradual weight gain c. Overwhelming fatigue d. Recurrent blurred vision

A The classic symptoms of diabetes are polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyuria, (excessive urine output), and polyphagia (increased hunger). Weight gain, fatigue, and blurred vision may all occur with type 2 diabetes, but are not classic manifestations.

The nurse is assessing a 55-yr-old female patient with type 2 diabetes who has a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m2.Which goal in the plan of care is most important for this patient? a. The patient will reach a HbA1c of less than 7%. b. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss. c. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day. d. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.

A The complications of diabetes are related to elevated blood glucose and the most important patient outcome is the reduction of glucose to near-normal levels. A BMI of 30.9/kg/m2 or above is considered obese, so the other outcomes are appropriate but are not as high in priority.

What urine test result is considered abnormal? a. pH 4.0 b. WBC 1 or 2 cells/ml c. Protein level absent d. Specific gravity 1.020

A The expected pH ranges from 4.8 to 7.8. A pH of 4.0 can be indicative of urinary tract infection or metabolic alkalosis or acidosis. Less than 1 or 2 white blood cells per milliliter is the expected range. The absence of protein is expected. The presence of protein can be indicative of glomerular disease. A specific gravity of 1.020 is within the anticipated range of 1.001 to 1.030. Specific gravity reflects level of hydration in addition to renal disorders and hormonal control such as antidiuretic hormone.

A patient who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has 3+ ankle and leg edema and ascites. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient? a. Excess fluid volume related to low serum protein levels b. Activity intolerance related to increased weight and fatigue c. Disturbed body image related to peripheral edema and ascites d. Altered nutrition: less than required related to protein restriction

A The patient has massive edema, so the priority problem at this time is the excess fluid volume. The other nursing diagnoses also are appropriate, but the focus of nursing care should be resolution of the edema and ascites.

Which information will the nurse include in teaching a female patient who has peripheral arterial disease, type 2 diabetes, and sensory neuropathy of the feet and legs? a. Choose flat-soled leather shoes. b. Set heating pads on a low temperature. c. Use a callus remover for corns or calluses. d. Soak feet in warm water for an hour each day.

A The patient is taught to avoid high heels and that leather shoes are preferred. The feet should be washed, but not soaked, in warm water daily. Heating pad use should be avoided. Commercial callus and corn removers should be avoided. The patient should see a specialist to treat these problems.

In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who requires hemodialysis, a temporary vascular access is obtained by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Place the patient on bed rest. b. Start continuous pulse oximetry. c. Discontinue the retention catheter. d. Restrict the patients oral protein intake.

A The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

An 88-year-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) has a markedly distended bladder and is agitated and confused. Which of the following interventions prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Schedule an intravenous pyelogram. c. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg PO. d. Draw blood for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine testing.

A The patients history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute urinary retention, and the priority action is to relieve the retention by catheterization. The BUN and creatinine measurements can be obtained after the catheter is inserted. The patients agitation may resolve once the bladder distention is corrected, and sedative drugs should be used cautiously in older patients. The IVP is an appropriate test, but does not need to be done urgently.

The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what? a. 2 to 3 years b. 4 to 5 years c. 6 to 7 years d. 8 to 9 years

A The peak age at onset for minimal change nephrotic syndrome is 2 to 3 years of age.

When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Check the fistula site for a bruit and thrill. b. Assess the rate and quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

A The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the neonatal period (birth to 1 month)? (Select all that apply.) a. Persistent Diaper Rash b. Vomiting c. Frequent urination d. Poor urinary stream e. Failure to gain weight

ALL Signs and symptoms of a urinary tract disorder in the neonatal period are persistent diaper rash, vomiting, frequent urination, poor urinary stream, and failure to gain weight.

The nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a school-age child with acute renal failure. Which are the primary clinical manifestations the nurse expects to find with this condition? a. Oliguria and hypertension b. Hematuria and pallor c. Proteinuria and muscle cramps d. Bacteriuria and facial edema

A The principal feature of acute renal failure is oliguria; hypertension is a nonspecific clinical manifestation. Hematuria and pallor, proteinuria and muscle cramps, and bacteriuria and facial edema are not principal features of acute renal failure.

A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. At which time would the nurse anticipate the highest risk for hypoglycemia? a. 10:00 AM b. 12:00 AM c. 2:00 PM d. 4:00 PM

A The rapid-acting insulins peak in 1 to 3 hours. The patient is not at a high risk for hypoglycemia at the other listed times, although hypoglycemia may occur.

What diagnostic test allows visualization of renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes? a. Renal ultrasonography b. Computed tomography c. Intravenous pyelography d. Voiding cystourethrography

A The transmission of ultrasonic waves through the renal parenchyma allows visualization of the renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes. Computed tomography uses external radiation, and sometimes contrast media are used. Intravenous pyelography uses contrast medium and external radiation for radiography. Contrast medium is injected into the bladder through the urethral opening. External radiation for radiography is used before, during, and after voiding in voiding cystourethrography.

When a child has chronic renal failure, the progressive deterioration produces a variety of clinical and biochemical disturbances that eventually are manifested in the clinical syndrome known as: a. uremia. b. oliguria. c. proteinuria. d. pyelonephritis.

A Uremia is the retention of nitrogenous products, producing toxic symptoms. Oliguria is diminished urinary output. Proteinuria is the presence of protein, usually albumin, in the urine. Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis.

A patient is admitted with diabetes, malnutrition, cellulitis, and a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. The nurse understands that what could be contributing factors for this laboratory result? (Select all that apply.) a. The level is consistent with renal insufficiency from renal nephropathy. b. The level may be high because of dehydration that accompanies hyperglycemia. c. The level may be raised due to metabolic ketoacidosis caused by hyperglycemia. d. The patient may be excreting sodium and retaining potassium from malnutrition. e. This level shows adequate treatment of the cellulitis and acceptable glucose control.

A, B, C The additional stress of cellulitis may lead to an increase in the patient's serum glucose levels. Dehydration may cause hemoconcentration, resulting in elevated serum readings. The kidneys may have difficulty excreting potassium if renal insufficiency exists. Finally, the nurse must consider the potential for metabolic ketoacidosis because potassium will leave the cell when hydrogen enters in an attempt to compensate for a low pH. Malnutrition does not cause sodium excretion accompanied by potassium retention. Thus, it is not a contributing factor to this patient's potassium level. The increased potassium level does not show adequate treatment of cellulitis or acceptable glucose control.

The clinic nurse is assessing a child with central precocious puberty. What conditions can cause central precocious puberty?(Select all that apply.) a. Trauma b. Neoplasms c. Radiotherapy d. Exogenous sex hormones e. Primary hypothyroidism

A, B, C Trauma, neoplasms, and radiotherapy can be the cause of central precocious puberty. Exogenous sex hormones and primary hypothyroidism can cause peripheral precocious puberty.

The nurse is caring for a child with acute renal failure. What laboratory findings should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level e. Decreased plasma creatinine level

A, B, D A child with acute renal failure would have hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen levels. The child would have metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis, and the plasma creatinine levels would be increased, not decreased.

The nurse is planning to admit a 12-year-old with Graves disease (GD). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Insomnia b. Irritability c. Tonic rigidity d. Hyperactivity e. Muscle cramps

A, B, D Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism develop gradually, with an interval between onset and diagnosis of approximately 6 to 12 months. Clinical features include irritability, hyperactivity, short attention span, tremors, insomnia, and emotional lability. Tonic rigidity and muscle cramps are signs of hypoparathyroidism.

What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the infancy period (124 months)? (Select all that apply.) a. Pallor b. Poor feeding c. Hypothermia d. Excessive thirst e. Frequent urination

A, B, D, E Signs and symptoms of a urinary tract disorder in the infancy period are pallor, poor feeding, excessive thirst, and frequent urination. Hyperthermia is seen, not hypothermia.

Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid commercial salt substitutes. b. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL daily. c. Take phosphate binders with each meal. d. Choose high-protein foods for most meals. e. Have several servings of dairy products daily.

A, C, D Patients who are receiving peritoneal dialysis should have a high-protein diet. Phosphate binders are taken with meals to help control serum phosphate and calcium levels. Commercial salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Fluid intake is not limited unless weight and blood pressure are not controlled. Dairy products are high in phosphate and usually are limited.

A nurse is planning interventions for a toddler with juvenile hypothyroidism. Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement for this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Moisturizer for dry skin b. Antidiarrheal medications c. Medications to help with insomnia d. Implementation of thyroxine therapy

A, D The presenting symptoms of juvenile hypothyroidism are myxedematous skin changes (dry skin, puffiness around the eyes, sparse hair), constipation, lethargy, and mental decline. The nurse should plan interventions for the dry skin and for the implementation of thyroxine therapy. The child is prone to constipation and sleepiness so antidiarrheal medication and medications to help with insomnia would not be appropriate.

A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis and oliguria. Which dietary menu items should be allowed for this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Apples b. Bananas c. Cheese d. Carrot sticks e. Strawberries

A, D, E Moderate sodium restriction and even fluid restriction may be instituted for children with acute glomerulonephritis. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium are generally restricted during the period of oliguria. Apples, carrot sticks, and strawberries would be items low in sodium and allowed. Bananas are high in potassium, and cheese is high in sodium. Those items would be restricted.

What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the childhood period (2 to 14 years)? (Select all that apply.) a. Fatigue b. Dehydration c. Hypotension d. Growth failure e. Blood in the urine

A, D, E Signs and symptoms of a urinary tract disorder in the childhood period are fatigue, growth failure, and blood in the urine. Edema is noted, not dehydration, and hypertension is present, not hypotension.

The nurse is teaching an adolescent, newly diagnosed with type I diabetes, ways to minimize discomfort with insulin injections. Which interventions are helpful in minimizing injection discomfort? Select all that apply. a. Do not reuse needles b. Inject insulin when it is cold c. Flex or tense the muscle during injection d. Remove all bubbles from the syringe prior to injection e. Do not move the direction of the needle-syringe during insertion or withdrawal

A, D, E The reuse of needles leads to more discomfort on injection from decreased sharpness of the needle and being an infection control problem. Removing bubbles from the syringe will minimize discomfort. Keeping the direction of the syringe constant during the insertion and withdrawal minimizes discomfort. Insulin should be injected at room temperature to minimize discomfort. Flexing or tensing muscles during injections causes more discomfort.

In which order will the nurse take these steps to prepare NPH 20 units and regular insulin 2 units using the same syringe? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E]). a. Rotate NPH vial. b. Withdraw regular insulin. c. Withdraw 20 units of NPH. d. Inject 20 units of air into NPH vial e. Inject 2 units of air into regular insulin vial.

A, D, E, B, C When mixing regular insulin with NPH, it is important to avoid contact between the regular insulin and the additives in the NPH that slow the onset, peak, and duration of activity in the long-acting insulin.

Which information noted by the nurse when caring for a patient with a bladder infection is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Left-sided flank pain d. Temperature 100.1 F

C Flank pain indicates that the patient may have developed pyelonephritis as a complication of the bladder infection. The other clinical manifestations are consistent with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI).

What measure of fluid balance status is most useful in a child with acute glomerulonephritis? a. Proteinuria b. Daily weight c. Specific gravity d. Intake and output

B A record of daily weight is the most useful means to assess fluid balance and should be kept for children treated at home or in the hospital. Proteinuria does not provide information about fluid balance. Specific gravity does not accurately reflect fluid balance in acute glomerulonephritis. If fluid is being retained, the excess fluid will not be included. Also proteinuria and hematuria affect specific gravity. Intake and output can be useful but are not considered as accurate as daily weights. In children who are not toilet trained, measuring output is more difficult.

Which best describes acute glomerulonephritis? a. Occurs after a urinary tract infection b. Occurs after a streptococcal infection c. Associated with renal vascular disorders d. Associated with structural anomalies of genitourinary tract

B Acute glomerulonephritis is an immune-complex disease that occurs after a streptococcal infection with certain strains of the group A â-hemolytic streptococcus. Acute glomerulonephritis usually follows streptococcal pharyngitis and is not associated with renal vascular disorders or genitourinary tract structural anomalies.

What pathologic process is believed to be responsible for the development of postinfectious glomerulonephritis? a. Infarction of renal vessels b. Immune complex formation and glomerular deposition c. Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli d. Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation

B After a streptococcal infection, antibodies are formed, and immune-complex reaction occurs. The immune complexes are trapped in the glomerular capillary loop. Infarction of renal vessels occurs in renal involvement in sickle cell disease. Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli is not a mechanism for postinfectious glomerulonephritis. Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation is the pathology of renal involvement with bacterial endocarditis.

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 19-yr-old patient with type 1 diabetes who has a hemoglobin A1C of 12% b. A 23-yr-old patient with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL c. A 50-yr-old patient who uses exenatide (Byetta) and is reporting acute abdominal pain d. A 40-yr-old patient who is pregnant and whose oral glucose tolerance test is 202 mg/dL

B Because the brain requires glucose to function, untreated hypoglycemia can cause unconsciousness, seizures, and death. The nurse will rapidly assess and treat the patient with low blood glucose. The other patients also have symptoms that require assessments or interventions, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications.

A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) with mild obstruction tells the nurse, My symptoms have gotten a lot worse this week. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. I will talk to the doctor about ordering a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test. b. Have you been taking any over-the-counter (OTC) medications recently? c. Have you talked to the doctor about surgical procedures such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)? d. The prostate gland changes slightly in size from day to day, and this may be making your symptoms worse.

B Because the patients increase in symptoms has occurred abruptly, the nurse should ask about OTC medications that might cause contraction of the smooth muscle in the prostate and worsen obstruction. The prostate gland does not vary in size from day to day. A TURP may be needed, but more assessment about possible reasons for the sudden symptom change is a more appropriate first response by the nurse. PSA testing is done to differentiate BPH from prostatic cancer

Which patient information will the nurse plan to obtain in order to determine the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure b. Phosphate level c. Neurologic status d. Creatinine clearance

B Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphorus and prevent mineral and bone disease in patients with CKD. The other data will not be helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of calcium carbonate.

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching with the parent of a 7-year-old child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS). What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. My child needs to stay home from school for at least 1 more month. b. I should not add additional salt to any of my childs meals. c. My child will not be able to participate in contact sports while receiving corticosteroid therapy. d. I should measure my childs urine after each void and report the 24-hour amount to the health care provider.

B Children with MCNS can be treated at home after the initial phase with appropriate discharge instructions, including a salt restriction of no additional salt to the childs meals. The child may return to school but should avoid exposure to infected playmates. Participation in contact sports is not affected by corticosteroid therapy. The parent does not need to measure the childs urine on a daily basis but may be instructed to test for albumin.

Which patient action indicates accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about administration of aspart (NovoLog) insulin? a. The patient avoids injecting the insulin into the upper abdominal area. b. The patient cleans the skin with soap and water before insulin administration. c. The patient stores the insulin in the freezer after administering the prescribed dose. d. The patient pushes the plunger down while removing the syringe from the injection site.

B Cleaning the skin with soap and water is acceptable. Insulin should not be frozen. The patient should leave the syringe in place for about 5 seconds after injection to be sure that all the insulin has been injected. The upper abdominal area is one of the preferred areas for insulin injection.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2 L inflows. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patients peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient complains of feeling bloated after the inflow.

B Cloudy appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

Which nursing action for a patient who has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Educate patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for reasons for increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

B Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

The nurse teaches a patient with diabetes about a healthy eating plan. Which statement made by the patient indicates that teaching was successful? a. "I plan to lose 25 pounds this year by following a high-protein diet." b. "I may have a hypoglycemic reaction if I drink alcohol on an empty stomach." c. "I should include more fiber in my diet than a person who does not have diabetes." d. "If I use an insulin pump, I will not need to limit foods with saturated fat in my diet."

B Eating carbohydrates when drinking alcohol reduces the risk for alcohol-induced hypoglycemia. Intensified insulin therapy, such as the use of an insulin pump, allows considerable flexibility in food selection and can be adjusted for alterations from usual eating and exercise habits. However, saturated fat intake should still be limited to less than 7% of total daily calories. Daily fiber intake of 14 g/1000 kcal is recommended for the general population and for patients with diabetes. High-protein diets are not recommended for weight loss.

An adolescent is being seen in the clinic for evaluation of acromegaly. The nurse understands that which occurs with acromegaly? a. There is a lack of growth hormone (GH) being produced. b. There is excess growth hormone (GH) after closure of the epiphyseal plates. c. There is an excess of growth hormone (GH) before the closure of the epiphyseal plates. d. There is a lack of thyroid hormone being produced.

B Excess GH after closure of the epiphyseal plates results in acromegaly. A lack of growth hormone results in delayed growth or even dwarfism. Gigantism occurs when there is hypersecretion of GH before the closure of the epiphyseal plates. Cretinism is associated with hypothyroidism.

What condition may cause exophthalmos (protruding eyeballs) in children? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism

B Exophthalmos is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, and hyperparathyroidism are not associated with exophthalmos.

A patient with nephrotic syndrome develops flank pain. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about treatment with a. antibiotics. b. anticoagulants. c. corticosteroids. d. antihypertensives.

B Flank pain in a patient with nephrosis suggests a renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is needed. Antibiotics are used to treat a patient with flank pain caused by pyelonephritis. Antihypertensives are used if the patient has high blood pressure. Corticosteroids may be used to treat nephrotic syndrome but will not resolve a thrombosis.

A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient? a. Fasting blood glucose b. Hemoglobin A1c c. Oral glucose tolerance test d. Urine dipstick for glucose and ketones

B HbA1c test shows the overall control of glucose over 90 to 120 days. A fasting blood level indicates only the glucose level at one time. Urine glucose testing is not an accurate reflection of blood glucose level and does not reflect the glucose over a prolonged time. Oral glucose tolerance testing is done to diagnose diabetes but is not used for monitoring glucose control after diabetes has been diagnosed.

Which patient with type 1 diabetes would be at the highest risk for developing hypoglycemic unawareness? a. A 58-yr-old patient with diabetic retinopathy b. A 73-yr-old patient who takes propranolol (Inderal) c. A 19-yr-old patient who is on the school track team d. A 24-yr-old patient with a hemoglobin A1C of 8.9%

B Hypoglycemic unawareness is a condition in which a person does not have the warning signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia until the person becomes incoherent and combative or loses consciousness. Hypoglycemic awareness is related to autonomic neuropathy of diabetes that interferes with the secretion of counterregulatory hormones that produce these symptoms. Older patients and patients who use β-adrenergic blockers (e.g., propranolol) are at risk for hypoglycemic unawareness.

Which nursing assessment of a 70-year-old patient is most important to make during initiation of thyroid replacement with levothyroxine (Synthroid)? a. Fluid balance b. Apical pulse rate c. Nutritional intake d. Orientation and alertness

B In older patients, initiation of levothyroxine therapy can increase myocardial oxygen demand and cause angina or dysrhythmias. The medication also is expected to improve mental status and fluid balance and will increase metabolic rate and nutritional needs, but these changes will not result in potentially life-threatening complications.

After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 31-year-old female patient with Cushing Syndrome and blood glucose levels of 244 b. A 70-year-old female patient taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) who has an irregular pulse of 134 c. A 53-year-old male patient who has Addison's disease and is due for a prescribed dose of hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef). d. A 22-year-old male patient admitted with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) who has a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L

B Initiation of thyroid replacement in older adults may cause angina and cardiac dysrhythmias. The patient's high pulse rate needs rapid investigation by the nurse to assess for and intervene with any cardiac problems. The other patients also require nursing assessment and/or actions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

The nurse is caring for a patient recently started on levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What information reported by the patient requires immediate action? a. Weight gain or weight loss b. Chest pain and palpitations c. Muscle weakness and fatigue d. Decreased appetite and constipation

B Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism. With replacement, the patient can be overmedicated, causing hyperthyroidism. Any chest pain, heart palpitations, or heart rate greater than 100 beats/min experienced by a patient starting thyroid replacement should be reported immediately, and electrocardiography and serum cardiac enzyme tests should be performed.

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) brings all home medications to the clinic to be reviewed by the nurse. Which medication being used by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Multivitamin with iron b. Milk of magnesia 30 mL c. Calcium phosphate (PhosLo) d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg

B Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD.

Which question will the nurse in the endocrine clinic ask to help determine a patient's risk factors for goiter? a. "How much milk do you drink?" b. "What medications are you taking?" c. "Have you had a recent neck injury?" d. "Are your immunizations up to date?"

B Medications that contain thyroid-inhibiting substances can cause goiter. Milk intake, neck injury, and immunization history are not risk factors for goiter.

Which statement by the patient who has newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes indicates a need for additional instruction from the nurse? a. "I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin." b. "I can choose any foods, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories." c. "I can have an occasional beverage with alcohol if I include it in my meal plan." d. "I will eat something at meal times to prevent hypoglycemia, even if I am not hungry."

B Most patients with type 1 diabetes need to plan diet choices very carefully. Patients who are using intensified insulin therapy have considerable flexibility in diet choices but still should restrict dietary intake of items such as fat, protein, and alcohol. The other patient statements are correct and indicate good understanding of the diet instruction.

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has cloudy urine after bladder reconstruction. b. Patient with a urethral stricture who has not voided for 12 hours. c. Patient who voided bright red urine after returning from lithotripsy. d. Patient with polycystic kidney disease whose blood pressure is 186/98 mm Hg.

B Not voiding for 12 hours suggests acute urinary retention, which is a medical emergency. The nurse will need to assess the patient and consider whether to insert a retention catheter. The other patients will be assessed, but their findings are consistent with their diagnoses and do not require immediate assessment or intervention.

Calcium carbonate is given with meals to a child with chronic renal disease. What is the purpose of administering calcium carbonate? a. Prevent vomiting b. Bind phosphorus c. Stimulate appetite d. Increase absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

B Oral calcium carbonate preparations combine with phosphorus to decrease gastrointestinal absorption and the serum levels of phosphate. Serum calcium levels are increased by the calcium carbonate, and vitamin D administration is necessary to increase calcium absorption. Calcium carbonate does not prevent vomiting, stimulate appetite, or increase the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

The nurse is taking a health history from a 29-yr-old patient at the first prenatal visit. The patient reports that she has no personal history of diabetes, but her mother has diabetes. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Teach the patient about administering regular insulin. b. Schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level. c. Teach about an increased risk for fetal problems with gestational diabetes. d. Schedule an oral glucose tolerance test for the twenty-fourth week of pregnancy.

B Patients at high risk for gestational diabetes should be screened for diabetes on the initial prenatal visit. An oral glucose tolerance test may also be used to check for diabetes, but it would be done before the twenty-fourth week. Teaching plans would depend on the outcome of a fasting blood glucose test and other tests.

The nurse has taught a patient admitted with diabetes principles of foot care. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands the instructions if the patient makes what statement? a. "I should only walk barefoot in nice dry weather." b. "I should look at the condition of my feet every day." c. "I will need to cut back the number of times I shower per week." d. "My shoes should fit nice and tight because they will give me firm support."

B Patients with diabetes need to inspect their feet daily for broken areas that are at risk for infection and delayed wound healing. Properly fitted (not tight) shoes should be worn at all times. Routine care includes regular bathing.

The nurse is teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes how to prevent diabetic nephropathy. Which statement made by the patient indicates that teaching has been successful? a. "Smokeless tobacco products decrease the risk of kidney damage." b. "I can help control my blood pressure by avoiding foods high in salt." c. "I should have yearly dilated eye examinations by an ophthalmologist." d. "I will avoid hypoglycemia by keeping my blood sugar above 180 mg/dL."

B Patients with type 2 diabetes to have a dilated eye examination by an ophthalmologist or a specially trained optometrist at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter for early detection and treatment. Diabetic nephropathy is a microvascular complication associated with damage to the small blood vessels that supply the glomeruli of the kidney. Risk factors for the development of diabetic nephropathy include hypertension, genetic predisposition, smoking, and chronic hyperglycemia. Patients with type 2 diabetes need to have a dilated eye examination by an ophthalmologist or a specially trained optometrist at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter for early detection and treatment of retinopathy.

Which action should the nurse take after a patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness? a. Assess the patient for symptoms of hyperglycemia. b. Give the patient a snack of peanut butter and crackers. c. Have the patient drink a glass of orange juice or nonfat milk. d. Administer a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose for 24 hours.

B Rebound hypoglycemia can occur after glucagon administration, but having a meal containing complex carbohydrates plus protein and fat will help prevent hypoglycemia. Orange juice and nonfat milk will elevate blood glucose rapidly, but the cheese and crackers will stabilize blood glucose. Administration of IV glucose might be used in patients who were unable to take in nutrition orally. The patient should be assessed for symptoms of hypoglycemia after glucagon administration.

Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction in administering insulin? a. "I can buy the 0.5-mL syringes because the line markings are easier to see." b. "I need to rotate injection sites among my arms, legs, and abdomen each day." c. "I do not need to aspirate the plunger to check for blood before injecting insulin." d. "I should draw up the regular insulin first, after injecting air into the NPH bottle."

B Rotating sites is no longer recommended because there is more consistent insulin absorption when the same site is used consistently. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no additional instruction is needed.

Following discharge teaching for a patient who has had a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient says, a. I will avoid driving until I get approval from my doctor. b. I should call the doctor if I have any incontinence at home. c. I will increase fiber and fluids in my diet to prevent constipation. d. I should continue to schedule yearly appointments for prostate exams.

B Since incontinence is common for several weeks after a TURP, the patient does not need to call the health care provider if this occurs. The other patient statements indicate that the patient has a good understanding of post-TURP instructions.

A patient returns to the clinic with recurrent dysuria after being treated with trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 3 days. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Remind the patient about the need to drink 1000 mL of fluids daily. b. Obtain a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. c. Teach the patient to take the prescribed Bactrim for at least 3 more days. d. Suggest that the patient use acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the symptoms.

B Since uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) are usually successfully treated with 3 days of antibiotic therapy, this patient will need a urine culture and sensitivity to determine appropriate antibiotic therapy. Tylenol would not be as effective as other over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium) in treating dysuria. The fluid intake should be increased to at least 1800 mL/day. Since the UTI has persisted after treatment with Bactrim, the patient is likely to need a different antibiotic.

A few weeks after an 82-yr-old patient with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been placed on metformin (Glucophage) therapy, the home health nurse makes a visit. Which finding should the nurse promptly discuss with the health care provider? a. Hemoglobin A1C level is 7.9%. b. Glomerular filtration rate is decreased. c. Last eye examination was 18 months ago. d. Patient has questions about the prescribed diet.

B The decrease in renal function may indicate a need to adjust the dose of metformin or change to a different medication. In older patients, the goal for A1C may be higher in order to avoid complications associated with hypoglycemia. The nurse will plan on scheduling the patient for an eye examination and addressing the questions about diet, but the area for prompt intervention is the patient's decreased renal function.

A 62-yr-old female patient has been hospitalized for 4 days with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. b. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. c. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 mL/min/1.73

B The high urine output indicates a need to increase fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia. The other information is typical of AKI and will not require a change in therapy.

The nurse is conducting teaching for an adolescent being discharged to home after a renal transplant. The adolescent needs further teaching if which statement is made? a. "I will report any fever to my primary health care provider." b. "I am glad I only have to take the immunosuppressant medication for two weeks." c. "I will observe my incision for any redness or swelling." d. "I won't miss doing kidney dialysis every week."

B The immunosuppressant medications are taken indefinitely after a renal transplant, so they should not be discontinued after two weeks. Reporting a fever and observing an incision for redness and swelling are accurate statements. The adolescent is correct in indicating dialysis will not need to be done after the transplant.

A patient has just arrived in the postanesthesia recovery unit (PACU) after a thyroidectomy. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the surgeon? a. Difficult to awaken. b. Increasing neck swelling. c. Reports 7/10 incisional pain. d. Cardiac rate 112 beats/min.

B The neck swelling may lead to respiratory difficulty, and rapid intervention is needed to prevent airway obstruction. The incisional pain should be treated but is not unusual after surgery. A heart rate of 112 beats/min is not unusual in a patient who has been hyperthyroid and has just arrived in the PACU from surgery. Sleepiness in the immediate postoperative period is expected.

Which laboratory value reported by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates an urgent need for the nurse to assess the patient? a. Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL b. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL c. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL d. 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL

B The nurse should assess the patient with a blood glucose level of 52 mg/dL for symptoms of hypoglycemia and give the patient a carbohydrate-containing beverage such as orange juice. The other values are within an acceptable range or not immediately dangerous for a patient with diabetes.

A 74-yr-old patient who is progressing to stage 5 chronic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Do you think I should go on dialysis?" Which initial response by the nurse is best? a. "It depends on which type of dialysis you are considering." b. "Tell me more about what you are thinking regarding dialysis." c. "You are the only one who can make the decision about dialysis." d. "Many people your age use dialysis and have a good quality of life."

B The nurse should initially clarify the patient's concerns and questions about dialysis. The patient is the one responsible for the decision, and many people using dialysis do have good quality of life, but these responses block further assessment of the patient's concerns. Referring to which type of dialysis the patient might use only indirectly responds to the patient's question.

A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted to the hospital with urinary retention and new onset elevations in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Which of these prescribed therapies should the nurse implement first? a. Schedule an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan. b. Insert a urinary retention catheter. c. Draw blood for a complete blood count. d. Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hr.

B The patient data indicate that the patient may have acute renal failure caused by the BPH. The initial therapy will be to insert a catheter. The other actions also are appropriate, but they can be implemented after the acute urinary retention is resolved.

Which action by the patient who is self-monitoring blood glucose indicates a need for additional teaching? a. Washes the puncture site using warm water and soap. b. Chooses a puncture site in the center of the finger pad. c. Hangs the arm down for a minute before puncturing the site. d. Says the result of 120 mg indicates good blood sugar control.

B The patient is taught to choose a puncture site at the side of the finger pad because there are fewer nerve endings along the side of the finger pad. The other patient actions indicate that teaching has been effective.

Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for a patient with Graves' disease who has exophthalmos? a. Place cold packs on the eyes to relieve pain and swelling. b. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to reduce periorbital fluid. c. Apply alternating eye patches to protect the corneas from irritation. d. Teach the patient to blink every few seconds to lubricate the corneas.

B The patient should sit upright as much as possible to promote fluid drainage from the periorbital area. With exophthalmos, the patient is unable to close the eyes completely to blink. Lubrication of the eyes, rather than eye patches, will protect the eyes from developing corneal scarring. The swelling of the eye is not caused by excessive blood flow to the eye, so cold packs will not be helpful.

A patient who had a subtotal thyroidectomy earlier today develops laryngeal stridor and a cramp in the right hand upon returning to the surgical nursing unit. Which collaborative action will the nurse anticipate next? a. Plan for emergency tracheostomy. b. Administer IV calcium gluconate. c. Prepare for endotracheal intubation. d. Begin thyroid hormone replacement.

B The patient's clinical manifestations of stridor and cramping are consistent with tetany caused by hypocalcemia resulting from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery. Endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy may be needed if the calcium does not resolve the stridor. Thyroid hormone replacement may be needed eventually but will not improve the symptoms of hypocalcemia.

After the insertion of an arteriovenous fistula in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Elevate the patients arm above the level of the heart. b. Report the patients symptoms to the health care provider. c. Remind the patient about the need to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. d. Educate the patient about the normal vascular response after AVG insertion.

B The patients complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts

The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what? a. 2 to 4 years b. 5 to 7 years c. 8 to 10 years d. 11 to 13 years

B The peak age at onset for acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is 5 to 7 years of age.

A child with acute glomerulonephritis is in the playroom and experiences blurred vision and a headache. What action should the nurse take? a. Check the urine to see if hematuria has increased. b. Obtain the childs blood pressure and notify the health care provider. c. Obtain serum electrolytes and send urinalysis to the laboratory. d. Reassure the child and encourage bed rest until the headache improves.

B The premonitory signs of encephalopathy are headache, dizziness, abdominal discomfort, and vomiting. If the condition progresses, there may be transient loss of vision or hemiparesis, disorientation, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The health care provider should be notified of these symptoms.

The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What will be the primary treatment goal in the plan? a. Augmenting fluid volume b. Maintaining cardiac output c. Diluting nephrotoxic substances d. Preventing systemic hypertension

B The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses could be correct.

The nurse is teaching parents about prevention of urinary tract infections in children. Which factor predisposes the urinary tract to infection? a. Increased fluid intake b. Short urethra in young girls c. Prostatic secretions in males d. Frequent emptying of the bladder

B The short urethra in females provides a ready pathway for invasion of organisms. Increased fluid intake and frequent emptying of the bladder offer protective measures against urinary tract infections. Prostatic secretions have antibacterial properties that inhibit bacteria.

The nurse notes that a child has lost 3.6 kg (8 lb) after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely cause of this weight loss? a. Poor appetite b. Reduction of edema c. Restriction to bed rest d. Increased potassium intake

B This amount of weight loss in this period is a result of the improvement of renal function and mobilization of edema fluid. Poor appetite and bed rest would not result in a weight loss of 8 lb in 4 days. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium are avoided until renal function is normalized.

A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show? a. Bacteriuria and hematuria b. Hematuria and proteinuria c. Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity d. Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity

B Urinalysis during the acute phase characteristically shows hematuria, proteinuria, and increased specific gravity. Proteinuria generally parallels the hematuria but is not usually the massive proteinuria seen in nephrotic syndrome. Gross discoloration of urine reflects its red blood cell and hemoglobin content. Microscopic examination of the sediment shows many red blood cells, leukocytes, epithelial cells, and granular and red blood cell casts. Bacteria are not seen, and urine culture results are negative.

A patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis. c. Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis. d. Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis.

B When the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.

A patient who was admitted with myxedema coma and diagnosed with hypothyroidism is improving. Discharge is expected to occur in 2 days. Which teaching strategy is likely to result in effective patient self-management at home? a. Delay teaching until closer to discharge date. b. Provide written reminders of information taught. c. Offer multiple options for management of therapies. d. Ensure privacy for teaching by asking the family to leave.

B Written instructions will be helpful to the patient because initially the hypothyroid patient may be unable to remember to take medications and other aspects of self-care. Because the treatment regimen is complex, teaching should be started well before discharge. Family members or friends should be included in teaching because the hypothyroid patient is likely to forget some aspects of the treatment plan. A simpler regimen will be easier to understand until the patient is euthyroid.

A child is hospitalized in acute renal failure and has a serum potassium greater than 7 mEq/L. What temporary measures that will produce a rapid but transient effect to reduce the potassium should the nurse expect to be prescribed? (Select all that apply.) a. Dialysis b. Calcium gluconate c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Glucose 50% and insulin e. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

B, C, D Several measures are available to reduce the serum potassium concentration, and the priority of implementation is usually based on the rapidity with which the measures are effective. Temporary measures that produce a rapid but transient effect are calcium gluconate, sodium bicarbonate, and glucose 50%, and insulin. Definitive but slower-acting measures are then implemented which include administration of a cation exchange resin such as sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), 1 g/kg, administered orally or rectally, and/or dialysis.

To monitor for complications in a patient with type 2 diabetes, which tests will the nurse in the diabetic clinic schedule at least annually? (Select all that apply.) a. Chest x-ray b. Blood pressure c. Serum creatinine d. Urine for microalbuminuria e. Complete blood count (CBC) f. Monofilament testing of the foot

B, C, D, F Blood pressure, serum creatinine, urine testing for microalbuminuria, and monofilament testing of the foot are recommended at least annually to screen for possible microvascular and macrovascular complications of diabetes. Chest x-ray and CBC might be ordered if the patient with diabetes presents with symptoms of respiratory or infectious problems but are not routinely included in screening.

A school-age child has been admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of nephrotic syndrome. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight loss b. Facial edema c. Cloudy smoky brown-colored urine d. Fatigue e. Frothy-appearing urine

B, D, E A child with nephrotic syndrome will present with facial edema, fatigue, and frothy-appearing urine (proteinuria). Weight gain, not loss, is expected because of the fluid retention. Cloudy smoky brown-colored urine is seen with acute glomerulonephritis but not with nephrotic syndrome because there is no gross hematuria associated with nephrotic syndrome.

What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child undergoing chronic hemodialysis? (Select all that apply.) a. High protein b. Fluid restriction c. High phosphorus d. Sodium restriction e. Potassium restriction

B, D, E Dietary limitations are necessary in patients undergoing chronic dialysis to avoid biochemical complications. Fluid and sodium are restricted to prevent fluid overload and its associated symptoms of hypertension, cerebral manifestations, and congestive heart failure. Potassium is restricted to prevent complications related to hyperkalemia; phosphorus restriction helps prevent parathyroid hyperactivity and its attendant risk of abnormal calcification in soft tissues. Adequate protein, not high intake, is necessary to maximize growth potential. Fluid limitations are determined by residual urinary output and the need to limit intradialytic weight gain.

The parents of a child who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes ask about exercise. Which should the nurse explain about exercise in type 1 diabetes? a. Exercise will increase blood glucose. b. Exercise should be restricted. c. Extra snacks are needed before exercise. d. Extra insulin is required during exercise.

C Exercise lowers blood glucose levels, which can be compensated for by extra snacks. Exercise lowers blood glucose and is encouraged and not restricted, unless indicated by other health conditions. Extra insulin is contraindicated because exercise decreases blood glucose levels.

A child with hypopituitarism is being started on growth hormone (GH) therapy. Nursing considerations should be based on which knowledge? a. Treatment is most successful if it is started during adolescence. b. Treatment is considered successful if children attain full stature by adulthood. c. Replacement therapy requires daily subcutaneous injections. d. Replacement therapy will be required throughout the child's lifetime.

C Additional support is required for children who require hormone replacement therapy, such as preparation for daily subcutaneous injections and education for self-management during the school-age years. Young children, obese children, and those who are severely GH deficient have the best response to therapy. When therapy is successful, children can attain their actual or near-final adult height at a slower rate than their peers. Replacement therapy is not needed after attaining final height. They are no longer GH deficient.

A patient has just arrived on the unit after a thyroidectomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Observe the dressing for bleeding. b. Check the blood pressure and pulse. c. Assess the patient's respiratory effort. d. Support the patient's head with pillows.

C Airway obstruction is a possible complication after thyroidectomy because of swelling or bleeding at the site or tetany. The priority nursing action is to assess the airway. The other actions are also part of the standard nursing care postthyroidectomy but are not as high of a priority.

Urinary tract anomalies are frequently associated with what irregularities in fetal development? a. Myelomeningocele b. Cardiovascular anomalies c. Malformed or low-set ears d. Defects in lower extremities

C Although unexplained, there is a frequent association between malformed or low-set ears and urinary tract anomalies. During the newborn examination, the nurse should have a high suspicion about urinary tract structure and function if ear anomalies are present. Children who have myelomeningocele may have impaired urinary tract function secondary to the neural defect. When other congenital defects are present, there is an increased likelihood of other issues with other body systems. Cardiac and extremity defects do not have a strong association with renal anomalies.

A 30-yr-old patient has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. When should the nurse recommend the patient schedule a dilated eye examination? a. Every 2 years b. Every 6 months c. As soon as available d. At the age of 39 years

C Because many patients have some diabetic retinopathy when they are first diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, a dilated eye examination is recommended at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter.

A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes. The nurse should base the explanation on which knowledge? a. It is a less expensive method of testing. b. It is not as accurate as laboratory testing. c. Children are better able to manage the diabetes. d. Parents are better able to manage the disease.

C Blood glucose self-management has improved diabetes management and can be used successfully by children from the time of diagnosis. Insulin dosages can be adjusted based on blood glucose results. Blood glucose monitoring is more expensive but provides improved management. It is as accurate as equivalent testing done in laboratories. The ability to self-test allows the child to balance diet, exercise, and insulin. The parents are partners in the process, but the child should be taught how to manage the disease.

The parent of a child hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why blood pressure readings are being taken so often. What knowledge should influence the nurses reply? a. The antibiotic therapy contributes to labile blood pressure values. b. Hypotension leading to sudden shock can develop at any time. c. Acute hypertension is a concern that requires monitoring. d. Blood pressure fluctuations indicate that the condition has become chronic.

C Blood pressure monitoring is essential to identify acute hypertension, which is treated aggressively. Antibiotic therapy is usually not indicated for glomerulonephritis. Hypertension, not hypotension, is a concern in glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure control is essential to prevent further renal damage. Blood pressure fluctuations do not provide information about the chronicity of the disease.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a child who is receiving methimazole (Tapazole) for the treatment of hyperthyroidism (Graves disease). Which statement made by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I would expect my child to gain weight while taking this medication." b. "I would expect my child to experience episodes of ear pain while taking this medication." c. "If my child develops a sore throat and fever, I should contact the physician immediately." d. "If my child develops the stomach flu, my child will need to be hospitalized."

C Children being treated with Tapazole must be carefully monitored for the side effects of the medication. Parents must be alerted that sore throat and fever accompany the grave complication of leukopenia. These symptoms should be immediately reported. Weight gain, episodes of ear pain, and concern for hospitalization with the stomach flu are not concerns related to taking Tapazole.

What major complication is associated with a child with chronic renal failure? a. Hypokalemia b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Water and sodium retention d. Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen

C Chronic renal failure leads to water and sodium retention, which contributes to edema and vascular congestion. Hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and retention of blood urea nitrogen are complications of chronic renal failure.

A hospitalized patient who is diabetic received 38 U of NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. At 1:00 PM, he patient has been away from the nursing unit for 2 hours, missing the lunch delivery while awaiting a chest x-ray. What is the best action by the nurse to prevent hypoglycemia? a. Plan to discontinue the evening dose of insulin. b. Save the lunch tray for the patient's later return. c. Request that if testing is further delayed, the patient will eat lunch first. d. Send a glass of orange juice to the patient in the diagnostic testing area.

C Consistency for mealtimes assists with regulation of blood glucose, so the best option is for the patient to have lunch at the usual time. Waiting to eat until after the procedure is likely to cause hypoglycemia. Holding the insulin dose later will not prevent hypoglycemia form the peak of the NPH dose. A glass of juice will keep the patient from becoming hypoglycemic but will cause a rapid rise in blood glucose because of the rapid absorption of the simple carbohydrate in these items.

What statement should the nurse include when discussing a child's precocious puberty with the parents? a. The child is not yet fertile. b. Sexual interest is usually advanced. c. Dress and activities should be appropriate to the chronologic age. d. The appearance of secondary sex characteristics does not proceed in the usual order.

C Development of the secondary sex characteristics proceeds in the usual order. Functioning sperm or ova may be produced, making the child fertile. Heterosexual interest is usually appropriate to the chronologic age. Because of the child's early sexual maturation, both the family and child require extensive teaching. Included in this teaching is the information that the child should be engaged in activities according to his or her chronologic age.

What diet is most appropriate for the child with chronic renal failure (CRF)? a. Low in protein b. Low in vitamin D c. Low in phosphorus d. Supplemented with vitamins A, E, and K

C Dietary phosphorus may need to be restricted by limiting protein and milk intake. Substances that bind phosphorus are given with meals to prevent its absorption, which enables a more liberal intake of phosphorus-containing protein. Protein is limited to the recommended daily allowance for the childs age. Further restriction is thought to negatively affect growth and neurodevelopment. Vitamin D therapy is administered in children with CRF to increase calcium absorption. Supplementation of vitamins A, E, and K, beyond normal dietary intake, is not advised in children with CRF. These fat-soluble vitamins can accumulate.

The nurse is admitting a toddler with the diagnosis of juvenile hypothyroidism. Which is a common clinical manifestation of this disorder? a. Insomnia b. Diarrhea c. Dry skin d. Accelerated growth

C Dry skin, mental decline, and myxedematous skin changes are associated with juvenile hypothyroidism. Children with hypothyroidism are usually sleepy. Constipation is associated with hypothyroidism. Decelerated growth is common in juvenile hypothyroidism.

The nurse is teaching a child experiencing severe edema associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome about his diet. The nurse should discuss what dietary need? a. Consuming a regular diet b. Increasing protein c. Restricting fluids d. Decreasing calories

C During the edematous stage of active nephrosis, the child has restricted fluid and sodium intake. As the edema subsides, the child is placed on a diet with increased salt and fluids. A regular diet is not indicated. There is no evidence that a diet high in protein is beneficial or has an effect on the course of the disease. Calories sufficient for growth and tissue healing are essential. With the child having little appetite and the fluid and salt restrictions, achieving adequate nutrition is difficult.

Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider when titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation? a. Heart rate b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level c. Urine output d. Creatinine clearance

C Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. The other data will be monitored but are not the most important determinants of fluid infusion rate.

Which statement by a nurse to a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is accurate? a. Insulin is not used to control blood glucose in patients with type 2 diabetes. b. Complications of type 2 diabetes are less serious than those of type 1 diabetes. c. Changes in diet and exercise may control blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes. d. Type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed when a patient is admitted in hyperglycemic coma.

C For some patients with type 2 diabetes, changes in lifestyle are sufficient to achieve blood glucose control. Insulin is frequently used for type 2 diabetes, complications are equally severe as for type 1 diabetes, and type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed with routine laboratory testing or after a patient develops complications such as frequent yeast infections.

A girl, age 5 1/2 years, has been sent to the school nurse for urinary incontinence three times in the past 2 days. The nurse should recommend to her parent that the first action is to have the child evaluated for what condition? a. School phobia b. Glomerulonephritis c. Urinary tract infection (UTI) d. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

C Girls between the ages of 2 and 6 years are considered high risk for UTIs. This child is showing signs of a UTI, including incontinence in a toilet-trained child and possible urinary frequency or urgency. A physiologic cause should be ruled out before psychosocial factors are investigated. Glomerulonephritis usually manifests with decreased urinary output and fluid retention. ADHD can contribute to urinary incontinence because the child is distracted, but the first manifestation was incontinence, not distractibility.

Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis? a. Risk for Injury related to malignant process and treatment b. Fluid Volume Deficit related to excessive losses c. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration d. Fluid Volume Excess related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces

C Glomerulonephritis has a decreased filtration of plasma, which results in an excessive accumulation of water and sodium that expands plasma and interstitial fluid volumes, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. No malignant process is involved in acute glomerulonephritis. A fluid volume excess is found. The fluid accumulation is secondary to the decreased plasma filtration.

When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the health care provider prescribes prednisone. What should the nurse anticipate? a. The patient may need a diet higher in calories while receiving prednisone. b. The patient may develop acute hypoglycemia while taking the prednisone. c. The patient may require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. d. The patient may have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions.

C Glucose levels increase when patients are taking corticosteroids, and insulin may be required to control blood glucose. Hypoglycemia is not a side effect of prednisone. Rashes are not an adverse effect caused by taking metformin and prednisone simultaneously. The patient may have an increased appetite when taking prednisone but will not need a diet that is higher in calories.

A hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is receiving high doses of prednisone. What nursing goal is appropriate for this child? a. Stimulate appetite. b. Detect evidence of edema. c. Minimize risk of infection. d. Promote adherence to the antibiotic regimen.

C High-dose steroid therapy has an immunosuppressant effect. These children are particularly vulnerable to upper respiratory tract infections. A priority nursing goal is to minimize the risk of infection by protecting the child from contact with infectious individuals. Appetite is increased with prednisone therapy. The amount of edema should be monitored as part of the disease process, not necessarily related to the administration of prednisone. Antibiotics would not be used as prophylaxis.

The health care provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-yr-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take? a. Avoid snacking right before bedtime. b. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose. c. Check the blood glucose during the night. d. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.

C If the Somogyi effect is causing the patient's increased morning glucose level, the patient will experience hypoglycemia between 2:00 and 4:00 AM. The dose of insulin will be reduced, rather than increased. A bedtime snack is used to prevent hypoglycemic episodes during the night.

A child is admitted in acute renal failure (ARF). Therapeutic management to rapidly provoke a flow of urine includes the administration of what medication? a. Propranolol (Inderal) b. Calcium gluconate c. Mannitol (Osmitrol) or furosemide (Lasix) (or both) d. Sodium, chloride, and potassium

C In ARF, if hydration is adequate, mannitol or furosemide (or both) is administered to provoke a flow of urine. If glomerular function is intact, an osmotic diuresis will occur. Propranolol is a beta-blocker; it will not produce a rapid flow of urine in ARF. Calcium gluconate is administered for its protective cardiac effect when hyperkalemia exists. It does not affect diuresis. Electrolyte measurements must be done before administration of sodium, chloride, or potassium. These substances are not given unless there are other large, ongoing losses. In the absence of urine production, potassium levels may be elevated, and additional potassium can cause cardiac dysrhythmias.

What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) who has scrotal edema? a. Place an ice pack on the scrotal area. b. Place the child in an upright sitting position. c. Elevate the scrotum with a rolled washcloth. d. Place a warm moist pack to the scrotal area.

C In children hospitalized with MCNS, elevating edematous parts may be helpful to shift fluid to more comfortable distributions. Areas that are particularly edematous, such as the scrotum, abdomen, and legs, may require support. The scrotum can be elevated with a rolled washcloth. Ice or heat should not be used. Sitting the child in an upright position will not decrease the scrotal edema.

A patient, admitted with diabetes, has a glucose level of 580 mg/dL and a moderate level of ketones in the urine. As the nurse assesses for signs of ketoacidosis, which respiratory pattern would the nurse expect to find? a. Central apnea b. Hypoventilation c. Kussmaul respirations d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

C In diabetic ketoacidosis, the lungs try to compensate for the acidosis by blowing off volatile acids and carbon dioxide. This leads to a pattern of Kussmaul respirations, which are deep and nonlabored. Central apnea occurs because the brain temporarily stops sending signals to the muscles that control breathing, which is unrelated to ketoacidosis. Hypoventilation and Cheyne-Stokes respirations do not occur with ketoacidosis.

A 26-yr-old female who has type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and reports a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. What should the nurse advise the patient to do? a. Use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved. b. Limit intake of calories until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL. c. Monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and contact the clinic if it rises. d. Decrease carbohydrates until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%

C Infection and other stressors increase blood glucose levels and the patient will need to test blood glucose frequently, treat elevations appropriately with lispro insulin, and call the health care provider if glucose levels continue to be elevated. Discontinuing the glargine will contribute to hyperglycemia and may lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Decreasing carbohydrate or caloric intake is not appropriate because the patient will need more calories when ill. Glycosylated hemoglobin testing is not used to evaluate short-term alterations in blood glucose.

Which action by a patient indicates that the home health nurse's teaching about glargine and regular insulin has been successful? a. The patient administers the glargine 30 minutes before each meal. b. The patient's family prefills the syringes with the mix of insulins weekly. c. The patient discards the open vials of glargine and regular insulin after 4 weeks. d. The patient draws up the regular insulin and then the glargine in the same syringe.

C Insulin can be stored at room temperature for 4 weeks. Glargine should not be mixed with other insulins or prefilled and stored. Short-acting regular insulin is administered before meals, and glargine is given once daily.

When a patient with type 2 diabetes is admitted for a cholecystectomy, which nursing action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN)? a. Communicate the blood glucose level and insulin dose to the circulating nurse in surgery. b. Discuss the reason for the use of insulin therapy during the immediate postoperative period. c. Administer the prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery. d. Plan strategies to minimize the risk for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia during the postoperative period.

C LPN/LVN education and scope of practice includes administration of insulin. Communication about patient status with other departments, planning, and patient teaching are skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

Which information will the nurse teach a patient who has been newly diagnosed with Graves' disease? a. Exercise is contraindicated to avoid increasing metabolic rate. b. Restriction of iodine intake is needed to reduce thyroid activity. c. Antithyroid medications may take several months for full effect. d. Surgery will eventually be required to remove the thyroid gland.

C Medications used to block the synthesis of thyroid hormones may take 2 to 3 months before the full effect is seen. Large doses of iodine are used to inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Exercise using large muscle groups is encouraged to decrease the irritability and hyperactivity associated with high levels of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine is the most common treatment for Graves' disease, although surgery may be used.

The newly diagnosed patient with type 2 diabetes has been prescribed metformin. What should the nurse teach the patient to explain how this medication works? a. Increases insulin production from the pancreas. b. Slows the absorption of carbohydrate in the small intestine. c. Reduces glucose production by the liver and enhances insulin sensitivity. d. Increases insulin release from the pancreas and inhibits glucagon secretion.

C Metformin is a biguanide that reduces glucose production by the liver and enhances the tissue's insulin sensitivity. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides increase insulin production from the pancreas. α-Glucosidase inhibitors slow the absorption of carbohydrate in the intestine. Glucagon-like peptide receptor agonists increase insulin synthesis and release from the pancreas, inhibit glucagon secretion, and decrease gastric emptying.

The nurse is teaching a patient who has diabetes about vascular complications of diabetes. What information is appropriate for the nurse to include? a. Macroangiopathy only occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes who have severe disease. b. Microangiopathy most often affects the capillary membranes of the eyes, kidneys, and skin. c. Macroangiopathy causes slowed gastric emptying and the sexual impotency experienced by most patients with diabetes. d. Renal damage resulting from changes in large- and medium-sized blood vessels can be prevented by careful glucose control.

C Microangiopathy occurs in diabetes. When it affects the eyes, it is called diabetic retinopathy. When the kidneys are affected, the patient has nephropathy. When the skin is affected, it can lead to diabetic foot ulcers. Macroangiopathy can occur in either type 1 or type 2 diabetes and contributes to cerebrovascular, cardiovascular, and peripheral vascular disease. Sexual impotency and slowed gastric emptying result from microangiopathy and neuropathy.

When a patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years is started on hemodialysis, which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. Unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis. c. More protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine by dialysis. d. Dietary sodium and potassium are unrestricted because these levels are normalized by dialysis.

C Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes

The RN observes an LPN/LVN carrying out all of the following actions while caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which action requires the RN to intervene? a. The LPN/LVN administers erythropoietin subcutaneously. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN gives the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch. d. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patients room.

C Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency.

Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. b. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. c. The patient cleans the catheter while in the bathtub each day. d. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain

C Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis.

A patient with diabetes rides a bicycle to and from work every day. Which site should the nurse teach the patient to use to administer the morning insulin? a. Thigh b. Buttock c. Abdomen d. Upper arm

C Patients should be taught not to administer insulin into a site that will be exercised because exercise will increase the rate of absorption. The thigh, buttock, and arm are all exercised by riding a bicycle.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about the use of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? a. Take the medication for at least 7 days. b. Use sunscreen while taking the Pyridium. c. The urine may turn a reddish-orange color. d. Use the Pyridium before sexual intercourse.

C Patients should be taught that Pyridium will color the urine deep orange. Urinary analgesics should only be needed for a few days until the prescribed antibiotics decrease the bacterial count. Taking Pyridium before intercourse will not be helpful in reducing the risk for UTI. Pyridium does not cause photosensitivity.

What statement is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis compared with hemodialysis? a. Protein loss is less extensive. b. Dietary limitations are not necessary. c. It is easy to learn and safe to perform. d. It is needed less frequently than hemodialysis.

C Peritoneal dialysis is the preferred form of dialysis for parents, infants, and children who wish to remain independent. Parents and older children can perform the treatments themselves. Protein loss is not significantly different. The dietary limitations are necessary, but they are not as stringent as those for hemodialysis. Treatments are needed more frequently but can be done at home.

The patient received regular insulin 10 units subcutaneously at 8:30 PM for a blood glucose level of 253 mg/dL. The nurse plans to monitor this patient for signs of hypoglycemia at which time related to the insulin's peak action? a. 8:40 PM to 9:00 PM b. 9:00 PM to 11:30 PM c. 10:30 PM to 1:30 AM d. 12:30 AM to 8:30 AM

C Regular insulin exerts peak action in 2 to 5 hours, making the patient most at risk for hypoglycemia between 10:30 PM and 1:30 AM. Rapid-acting insulin's onset is between 10 and 30 minutes with peak action and hypoglycemia most likely to occur between 9:00 PM and 11:30 PM. With intermediate acting insulin, hypoglycemia may occur from 12:30 AM to 8:30 AM.

What statement is descriptive of renal transplantation in children? a. It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years. b. Children can receive kidneys only from other children. c. It is the preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children. d. The decision for transplantation is difficult because a relatively normal lifestyle is not possible.

C Renal transplantation offers the opportunity for a relatively normal life and is the preferred means of renal replacement therapy in end-stage renal disease. It can be done in children as young as age 6 months. Both children and adults can serve as donors for renal transplant purposes. Renal transplantation affords the child a more normal lifestyle than dependence on dialysis.

Which finding by the nurse for a patient admitted with glomerulonephritis indicates that treatment has been effective? a. The patient denies pain with voiding. b. The urine dipstick is negative for nitrites. c. Peripheral and periorbital edema is resolved. d. The antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titer is decreased.

C Since edema is a common clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis, resolution of the edema indicates that the prescribed therapies have been effective. Antibodies to streptococcus will persist after a streptococcal infection. Nitrites will be negative and the patient will not experience dysuria since the patient does not have a urinary tract infection

A 6-year-old child with acute renal failure (ARF) is being transferred out of the intensive care unit. Which children, considering their diagnoses, would be the most appropriate roommate for this child? a. 6-year-old child with pneumonia b. 4-year-old child with gastroenteritis c. 5-year-old child who has a fractured femur d. 7-year-old child who had surgery for a ruptured appendix

C The 5-year-old orthopedic patient would be the best choice for a roommate. This child does not have an illness of viral or bacterial origin. A child with pneumonia has an illness of viral or bacterial origin and should not be placed in the same room as a child with ARF. A child with gastroenteritis has an illness of viral or bacterial origin and should not be placed in the same room as a child with ARF. A child who has had surgery for a ruptured appendix may have an illness of viral or bacterial origin and should not be placed in the same room as a child with ARF.

The nurse is performing a pH dipstick test on a urine specimen. Which is the average pH expected for this test? a. 9 b. 12 c. 6 d. 3

C The average pH for urine is 6. The normal range is 4.8 to 7.8. Abnormal pH levels are associated with urinary infection and metabolic alkalosis or acidosis.

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse obtain to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine output b. Calcium level c. Cardiac rhythm d. Neurologic status

C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate

A patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of these orders for the patient will the nurse question? a. NPO for 6 hours before IVP procedure b. Normal saline 500 mL IV before procedure c. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain d. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before IVP procedure

C The contrast dye used in IVPs is potentially nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the NSAIDs should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure.

A neonate with a goiter has just been admitted to the newborn nursery. A priority nursing intervention is to a. position the neonate on the left side. b. explain to the parents how to place the dressing on the goiter. c. have a tracheostomy set at bedside. d. suction at least every 5 to 10 minutes.

C The goiter puts the infant at risk for respiratory failure. Preparations are made for emergency ventilation, including having a tracheostomy set at the bedside. Placing the neonate in a side-lying position is not indicated. Hyperextension of the child's neck may facilitate breathing. No dressing is indicated in a neonate who has a goiter. There is no indication for suctioning in a neonate with goiter.

Which information about a patient who was admitted 10 days previously with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. b. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. c. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is <30 mL/min/1.73m2.

C The high urine output indicates a need to increase fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia. The other information is typical of AKI and will not require a change in therapy.

Which assessment finding for a patient who has just been admitted with acute pyelonephritis is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Foul-smelling urine b. Complaint of flank pain c. Blood pressure 88/45 mm Hg d. Temperature 100.1 F (57.8 C)

C The low blood pressure indicates that urosepsis and septic shock may be occurring and should be immediately reported. The other findings are typical of pyelonephritis

A patient who smokes reports having significant stress and has some eye problems. On assessment, the nurse notes exophthalmos. What additional abnormal findings should the nurse assess for? a. Muscle weakness and slow movements b. Puffy face, decreased sweating, and dry hair c. Systolic hypertension and increased heart rate d. Decreased appetite, increased thirst, and pallor

C The manifestations are consistent with Graves' disease or hyperthyroidism. Systolic hypertension, increased heart rate, and increased thirst are associated with hyperthyroidism. Cigarette smoking places the patient at increased risk for Graves' disease. The inhaled cigarette toxins may absorb via the eye orbits, causing exophthalmos. A puffy face; decreased sweating; dry, coarse hair; muscle weakness and slow movements; decreased appetite; and pallor are all manifestations of hypothyroidism.

What condition is the most common cause of acute renal failure in children? a. Pyelonephritis b. Tubular destruction c.Severe dehydration d.Upper tract obstruction

C The most common cause of acute renal failure in children is dehydration or other causes of poor perfusion that may respond to restoration of fluid volume. Pyelonephritis and tubular destruction are not common causes of acute renal failure. Obstructive uropathy may cause acute renal failure, but it is not the most common cause.

The nurse is admitting a school-age child in acute renal failure with reduced glomerular filtration rate. Which urine test is the most useful clinical indication of glomerular filtration rate? a. pH b. Osmolality c. Creatinine d. Protein level

C The most useful clinical indication of glomerular filtration is the clearance of creatinine. It is a substance that is freely filtered by the glomerulus and secreted by the renal tubule cells. The pH and osmolality are not estimates of glomerular filtration. Although protein in the urine demonstrates abnormal glomerular permeability, it is not a measure of filtration rate.

A 17-year-old with type 1 diabetes mellitus tells the school nurse about recently starting to drink alcohol with friends on weekends. The most appropriate intervention by the nurse is to a. tell the adolescent not to drink alcohol. b. ask the adolescent about the reasons for drinking alcohol. c. teach the adolescent about the effects of alcohol on type 1 diabetes mellitus and how to prevent problems associated with alcohol intake. d. recommend counseling so that the adolescent understands the serious consequences of alcohol consumption.

C The nurse is taking a proactive approach. The adolescent is provided with information to facilitate the management of the illness. Telling someone not to drink will not help should the person choose to continue drinking. Asking the adolescent why the drinking is occurring will provide information to the nurse but will not address the information that the adolescent needs to have about managing the disease. Counseling can be included in the teaching plan.

What is the primary objective of care for the child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)? a. Reduce blood pressure. b. Lower serum protein levels. c. Minimize excretion of urinary protein. d. Increase the ability of tissue to retain fluid.

C The objectives of therapy for the child with MCNS include reducing the excretion of urinary protein, reducing fluid retention, preventing infection, and minimizing complications associated with therapy. Blood pressure is usually not elevated in minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Serum protein levels are already reduced as part of the disease process. This needs to be reversed. The tissue is already retaining fluid as part of the edema. The goal of therapy is to reduce edema.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with new onset nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment data will the nurse expect to find related to this illness? a. Poor skin turgor b. High urine ketones c. Recent weight gain d. Low blood pressure

C The patient with a nephrotic syndrome will have weight gain associated with edema. Hypertension is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Skin turgor is normal because of the edema. Urine protein is high.

Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurses teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. I need to try to get more protein from dairy products. b. I will try to increase my intake of fruits and vegetables. c. I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink. d. I need to take the erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection.

C The patient with end-stage renal disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD

A patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). What should the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Self-monitoring of blood glucose b. Using low doses of regular insulin c. Lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose d. Effects of oral hypoglycemic medications

C The patient's impaired fasting glucose indicates prediabetes, and the patient should be counseled about lifestyle changes to prevent the development of type 2 diabetes. The patient with prediabetes does not require insulin or oral hypoglycemics for glucose control and does not need to self-monitor blood glucose.

Which assessment finding for an adult admitted with Graves' disease requires the most rapid intervention by the nurse? a. Heart rate 136 beats/min b. Severe bilateral exophthalmos c. Temperature 103.8° F (40.4° C) d. Blood pressure 166/100 mm Hg

C The patient's temperature indicates that the patient may have thyrotoxic crisis and that interventions to lower the temperature are needed immediately. The other findings also require intervention but do not indicate potentially life-threatening complications.

During hemodialysis, a patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Obtain blood to check the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level. c. Check the patients blood pressure. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

C The patients complaints of nausea and dizziness suggest hypotension, so the initial action should be to check the BP. The other actions also may be appropriate, based on the blood pressure obtained

When teaching a patient who is scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) about continuous bladder irrigation, which information will the nurse include? a. Bladder irrigation decreases the risk of postoperative bleeding. b. Hydration and urine output are maintained by bladder irrigation. c. Bladder irrigation prevents obstruction of the catheter after surgery. d. Antibiotics are infused on a continuous basis with bladder irrigation.

C The purpose of bladder irrigation is to remove clots from the bladder and to prevent obstruction of the catheter by clots. The irrigation does not decrease bleeding or improve hydration. Antibiotics are given by the IV route, not through the bladder irrigation.

A patient who has hyperthyroidism is treated with radioactive iodine (RAI). What information should the nurse include in discharge teaching? a. Take radioactive precautions with all body secretions. b. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism should be relieved in about a week. c. Symptoms of hypothyroidism will occur as the RAI therapy takes effect. d. Discontinue the antithyroid medications that were taken before the RAI therapy.

C There is a high incidence of post radiation hypothyroidism after RAI, and the patient should be monitored for symptoms of hypothyroidism. RAI has a delayed response, with the maximum effect not seen for 2 to 3 months, and the patient will continue to take antithyroid medications during this time. The therapeutic dose of radioactive iodine is low enough that no radiation safety precautions are needed.

A patient with type 2 diabetes has a urinary tract infection (UTI), is difficult to arouse, and has a blood glucose of 642 mg/dL. When the nurse assesses the urine, there are no ketones present. What nursing action is appropriate at this time? a. Routine insulin therapy and exercise b. Administer a different antibiotic for the UTI c. Cardiac monitoring to detect potassium changes d. Administer IV fluids rapidly to correct dehydration

C This patient has manifestations of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). Cardiac monitoring will be needed because of the changes in the potassium level related to fluid and insulin therapy and the osmotic diuresis from the elevated serum glucose level. Routine insulin would not be enough, and exercise could be dangerous for this patient. Extra insulin will be needed. The type of antibiotic will not affect HHS. There will be a large amount of IV fluid administered, but it will be given slowly because this patient is older and may have cardiac or renal compromise, requiring hemodynamic monitoring to avoid fluid overload during fluid replacement.

In patients who develop thyroid storm for which medical interventions are not successful may proceed to a. migraine headaches. b. hypothermia. c. coma. d. infertility.

C Thyroid storm is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism which can lead to coma, delirium and death. It is associated with hyperthermia and increased metabolic response.

A patient who has type 2 diabetes is being prepared for an elective coronary angiogram. Which information would the nurse anticipate might lead to rescheduling the test? a. The patient's most recent A1C was 7.5%. b. The patient's blood glucose is 128 mg/dL. c. The patient took the prescribed metformin today. d. The patient took the prescribed enalapril 4 hours ago.

C To avoid lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued a day or 2 before the coronary angiogram and should not be used for 48 hours after IV contrast media are administered. The other patient data will be reported but do not indicate any need to reschedule the procedure.

An active 32-yr-old male who has type 1 diabetes is being seen in the endocrine clinic. Which finding indicates a need for the nurse to discuss a possible a change in therapy with the health care provider? a. Hemoglobin A1C level of 6.2% b. Heart rate at rest of 58 beats/min c. Blood pressure of 140/88 mmHg d. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 65 mg/dL

C To decrease the incidence of macrovascular and microvascular problems in patients with diabetes, the blood pressure should be kept in normal range. An A1C less than 6.5%, a low resting heart rate (consistent with regular aerobic exercise in a young adult), and an HDL level of 65 mg/dL all indicate that the patient's diabetes and risk factors for vascular disease are well controlled.

The nurse is teaching a client to prevent future urinary tract infections (UTIs). What factor is most important to emphasize as the potential cause? a. Poor hygiene b. Constipation c. Urinary stasis d. Congenital anomalies

C Urinary stasis is the single most important host factor that influences the development of UTIs. Urine is usually sterile but at body temperature provides an excellent growth medium for bacteria. Poor hygiene can be a contributing cause, especially in females because their short urethras predispose them to UTIs. Urinary stasis then provides a growth medium for the bacteria. Intermittent constipation contributes to urinary stasis. A full rectum displaces the bladder and posterior urethra in the fixed and limited space of the bony pelvis, causing obstruction, incomplete micturition, and urinary stasis. Congenital anomalies can contribute to UTIs, but urinary stasis is the primary factor in many cases.

A patient is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and reports a headache, changes in vision, and being anxious but does not have a portable blood glucose monitor present. Which action should the nurse advise the patient to take? a. Eat a piece of pizza. b. Drink some diet pop. c. Eat 15 g of simple carbohydrates. d. Take an extra dose of rapid-acting insulin.

C When a patient with type 1 diabetes is unsure about the meaning of the symptoms they are experiencing, they should treat for hypoglycemia to prevent seizures and coma from occurring. Have the patient check the blood glucose as soon as possible. The fat in the pizza and the diet pop would not allow the blood glucose to increase to eliminate the symptoms. The extra dose of rapid-acting insulin would further decrease the blood glucose.

The nurse is caring for a school-age child with hyperthyroidism (Graves disease). Which clinical manifestations should the nurse monitor that may indicate a thyroid storm? (Select all that apply.) a. Constipation b. Hypotension c. Hyperthermia d. Tachycardia e. Vomiting

C, D, E A child with a thyroid storm will have severe irritability and restlessness, vomiting, diarrhea, hyperthermia, hypertension, severe tachycardia, and prostration.

Which clinical manifestation may occur in the child who is receiving too much methimazole (Tapazole) for the treatment of hyperthyroidism (Graves disease)? a. Seizures b. Enlargement of all lymph glands c. Pancreatitis or cholecystitis d. Lethargy and somnolence

D Parents should be aware of the signs of hypothyroidism that can occur from overdosage of the drug. The most common manifestations are lethargy and somnolence. Seizures and pancreatitis are not associated with the administration of Tapazole. Enlargement of the salivary and cervical lymph glands occurs.

Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing pain. b. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. c. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. d. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath every day.

D Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis

A child is admitted for minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS). The nurse recognizes that the childs prognosis is related to what factor? a. Admission blood pressure b. Creatinine clearance c. Amount of protein in urine d. Response to steroid therapy

D Corticosteroids are the drugs of choice for MCNS. If the child has not responded to therapy within 28 days of daily steroid administration, the likelihood of subsequent response decreases. Blood pressure is normal or low in MCNS. It is not correlated with prognosis. Creatinine clearance is not correlated with prognosis. The presence of significant proteinuria is used for diagnosis. It is not predictive of prognosis.

A 72-year-old who has benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the hospital with chills, fever, and vomiting. Which finding by the nurse will be most helpful in determining whether the patient has an upper urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Suprapubic pain b. Bladder distention c. Foul-smelling urine d. Costovertebral tenderness

D Costovertebral tenderness is characteristic of pyelonephritis. The other symptoms are characteristic of lower UTI and are likely to be present if the patient also has an upper UTI.

Hyperglycemia associated with diabetic ketoacidosis is defined as a blood glucose measurement equal to or greater than _____ mg/dl. a. 100 b. 120 c. 180 d. 200

D Diabetic ketoacidosis is a state of relative insulin insufficiency and may include the presence of hyperglycemia, a blood glucose level greater than or equal to 200 mg/dl. The values 100 mg/dl, 120 mg/dl, and 180 mg/dl are too low for the definition of ketoacidosis.

Which clinical manifestation would be seen in a child with chronic renal failure? a. Hypotension b. Massive hematuria c. Hypokalemia d. Unpleasant "uremic" breath odor

D Children with chronic renal failure have a characteristic breath odor resulting from the retention of waste products. Hypertension may be a complication of chronic renal failure. With chronic renal failure, little or no urinary output occurs. Hyperkalemia is a concern in chronic renal failure.

The nurse caring for a patient hospitalized with diabetes would look for which laboratory test result to obtain information on the patient's past glucose control? a. Prealbumin level b. Urine ketone level c. Fasting glucose level d. Hemoglobin A1c

D A glycosylated hemoglobin level detects the amount of glucose that is bound to red blood cells (RBCs). When circulating glucose levels are high, glucose attaches to the RBCs and remains there for the life of the blood cell, which is approximately 120 days. Thus, the test can give an indication of glycemic control over approximately 2 to 3 months. The prealbumin level is used to establish nutritional status and is unrelated to past glucose control. The urine ketone level will only show that hyperglycemia or starvation is probably currently occurring. The fasting glucose level only indicates current glucose control.

What recommendation should the nurse make to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in young girls? a. Avoid public toilet facilities. b. Limit long baths as much as possible. c. Cleanse the perineum with water after voiding. d. Ensure clear liquid intake of 2 L/day.

D Adequate fluid intake minimizes urinary stasis. The recommended fluid intake is 50 ml/kg or 100 ml/lb per day. The average 5- to 6-year-old weighs approximately 18 kg (40 lb), so she should drink 2 L/day of fluid. There is no evidence that using public toilet facilities increases UTIs. Long baths are not associated with increased UTIs. Proper hand washing and perineal cleansing are important, but no evidence exists that these decrease UTIs in young girls.

Which prescribed medication should the nurse expect will have rapid effects on a patient admitted to the emergency department in thyroid storm? a. Iodine b. Methimazole c. Propylthiouracil d. Propranolol (Inderal)

D B-Adrenergic blockers work rapidly to decrease the cardiovascular manifestations of thyroid storm. The other medications take days to weeks to have an impact on thyroid function.

A child in renal failure has hyperkalemia. Which foods should be avoided? a. Cold cuts, chips, and canned foods b. Hamburger on a bun and lime Jell-O c. Spaghetti with meat sauce and breadsticks d. Bananas, carrots, and green leafy vegetables

D Bananas, carrots, and green leafy vegetables are high in potassium. Cold cuts, chips, and canned foods are high in sodium but not necessarily in potassium. A hamburger on a bun and lime Jell-O is an acceptable choice for a low-potassium diet. Spaghetti with meat sauce and breadsticks is an acceptable choice for a low-potassium diet.

A patient who has been recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tells the nurse that he does not want to have a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) because he is afraid it might affect his ability to have intercourse. Which action should the nurse take? a. Offer reassurance that sperm production is not affected by TURP. b. Discuss alternative methods of sexual expression besides intercourse. c. Provide education about the use of medications for erectile dysfunction (ED) occurring after TURP. d. Teach that ED is not a common complication following a TURP.

D ED is not a concern with TURP, although retrograde ejaculation is likely and the nurse should discuss this with the patient. Erectile function is not usually affected by a TURP, so the patient will not need information about penile implants or reassurance that other forms of sexual expression may be used. Because the patient has not asked about fertility, reassurance about sperm production does not address his concerns.

A 62-year-old asks the nurse for a perineal pad, stating that laughing or coughing causes leakage of urine. Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan? a. Assist the patient to the bathroom q3hr. b. Place a commode at the patients bedside. c. Demonstrate how to perform the Cred maneuver. d. Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises.

D Exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles will help reduce stress incontinence. The Cred maneuver is used to help empty the bladder for patients with overflow incontinence. Placing the commode close to the bedside and assisting the patient to the bathroom are helpful for functional incontinence

Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function for a patient who is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI)? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level b. Urine output c. Creatinine level d. Calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

D GFR is the preferred method for evaluating kidney function. BUN levels can fluctuate based on factors such as fluid volume status. Urine output can be normal or high in patients with AKI and does not accurately reflect kidney function. Creatinine alone is not an accurate reflection of renal function.

A 12-year-old child is injured in a bicycle accident. When considering the possibility of renal trauma, the nurse should consider what factor? a. Flank pain rarely occurs in children with renal injuries. b. Few nonpenetrating injuries cause renal trauma in children. c. Kidneys are immobile, well protected, and rarely injured in children. d. The amount of hematuria is not a reliable indicator of the seriousness of renal injury.

D Hematuria is consistently present with renal trauma. It does not provide a reliable indicator of the seriousness of the renal injury. Flank pain results from bleeding around the kidney. Most injuries that cause renal trauma in children are of the nonpenetrating or blunt type and usually involve falls, athletic injuries, and motor vehicle accidents. In children, the kidneys are more mobile, and the outer borders are less protected than in adults.

The nurse is caring for a child with acute renal failure. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse recognize as a sign of hyperkalemia? a. Dyspnea b. Seizure c. Oliguria d. Cardiac arrhythmia

D Hyperkalemia is the most common threat to the life of the child. Signs of hyperkalemia include electrocardiograph anomalies such as prolonged QRS complex, depressed ST segments, peaked T waves, bradycardia, or heart block. Dyspnea, seizure, and oliguria are not manifestations of hyperkalemia.

A 78-year-old who has been admitted to the hospital with dehydration is confused and incontinent of urine. Which nursing action will be best to include in the plan of care? a. Apply absorbent incontinent pads. b. Restrict fluids after the evening meal. c. Insert an indwelling catheter until the symptoms have resolved. d. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours during the day.

D In older or confused patients, incontinence may be avoided by using scheduled toileting times. Indwelling catheters increase the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). Incontinent pads increase the risk for skin breakdown. Restricting fluids is not appropriate in a patient with dehydration.

What do the clinical manifestations of minimal change nephrotic syndrome include? a. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain b. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever c. Hypertension, weight loss, and proteinuria d. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema

D Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema are clinical manifestations of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria and bacteriuria are not seen, and there is usually weight loss, not gain. The blood pressure is normal or hypotensive.

A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should first a. reposition the patient. b. massage the patients legs. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

D Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps.

In the diagnostic work up of a child for central precocious puberty, one of the etiologies associated with this disease is a. albright syndrome. b. primary hypothyroidism. c. preterm menarche. d. neoplasm.

D Neoplasms can be a cause for central precocious puberty. Albright syndrome and primary hypothyroidism can be a cause for peripheral precocious puberty. Preterm menarche can be a cause for idiopathic precocious puberty.

The nurse is caring for an adolescent who has just started dialysis. The child always seems angry, hostile, or depressed. The nurse should recognize that this is most likely related to what underlying cause? a. Physiologic manifestations of renal disease b. The fact that adolescents have few coping mechanisms c. Neurologic manifestations that occur with dialysis d. Resentment of the control and enforced dependence imposed by dialysis

D Older children and adolescents need to feel in control. Dialysis forces the adolescent into a dependent relationship, which results in these behaviors. Being angry, hostile, or depressed are functions of the age of the child, not neurologic or physiologic manifestations of the dialysis.

When assessing an adult patient who has a lower urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse will initially ask about a. nausea. b. flank pain. c. poor urine output. d. pain with urination.

D Pain with urination is a common symptom of a lower UTI. Urine output does not decrease, but frequency may be experienced. Flank pain and nausea are associated with an upper UTI.

Which assessment data reported by a patient is consistent with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Low urine output b. Bilateral flank pain c. Nausea and vomiting d. Burning on urination

D Pain with urination is a common symptom of a lower UTI. Urine output does not decrease, but frequency may occur. Flank pain and nausea are associated with an upper UTI.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for a. vasodilation. b. poor skin turgor. c. bounding pulses. d. rapid respirations.

D Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.

What is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis? a. Treatments are done in hospitals. b. Protein loss is less extensive. c. Dietary limitations are not necessary. d. Parents and older children can perform treatments.

D Peritoneal dialysis is the preferred form of dialysis for parents, infants, and children who wish to remain independent. Parents and older children can perform the treatments themselves. Treatments can be done at home. Protein loss is not significantly different. The dietary limitations are necessary, but they are not as stringent as those for hemodialysis.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is suspected in an adolescent. Which clinical manifestation may be present? a. Moist skin b. Weight gain c. Fluid overload d. Poor wound healing

D Poor wound healing may be present in an individual with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Dry skin, weight loss, and dehydration are clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus.

A child will start treatment for precocious puberty. The nurse recognizes that this will involve the injection of which synthetic medication? a. Thyrotropin b. Gonadotropins c. Somatotropic hormone d. Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone

D Precocious puberty of central origin is treated with monthly subcutaneous injections of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone. Thyrotropin, gonadotropins, and somatotropic hormone are not the appropriate therapies for precocious puberty.

Which is a common side effect of short-term corticosteroid therapy? a. Fever b. Hypertension c. Weight loss d. Increased appetite

D Side effects of short-term corticosteroid therapy include an increased appetite. Fever is not a side effect of therapy. It may be an indication of infection. Hypertension is not usually associated with initial corticosteroid therapy. Weight gain, not weight loss, is associated with corticosteroid therapy.

What nursing consideration is most important when caring for a child with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)? a. Children with ESRD usually adapt well to minor inconveniences of treatment. b. Children with ESRD require extensive support until they outgrow the condition. c. Multiple stresses are placed on children with ESRD and their families until the illness is cured. d. Multiple stresses are placed on children with ESRD and their families because childrens lives are maintained by drugs and artificial means.

D Stressors on the family are often overwhelming because of the progressive deterioration. The child progresses from renal insufficiency to uremia to dialysis and transplantation, each of which requires intensive therapy and supportive care. The treatment of ESRD is intense and requires multiple examinations, dietary restrictions, and medications. Adherence to the regimen is often difficult for children and families because of the progressive nature of the renal failure. ESRD has an unrelenting course that has no known cure. Children do not outgrow the renal failure.

For minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS), prednisone is effective when what occurs? a. Appetite increases and blood pressure is normal b. Urinary tract infection is gone and edema subsides c. Generalized edema subsides and blood pressure is normal d. Diuresis occurs as urinary protein excretion diminishes

D Studies suggest that the duration of steroid treatment for the initial episode should be at least 3 months. In most patients, diuresis occurs as the urinary protein excretion diminishes within 7 to 21 days after the initiation of steroid therapy. The blood pressure is normal with MCNS, so remaining so is not an improvement. There is no urinary tract infection with MCNS.

A child eats some sugar cubes after experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What should follow this rapid-releasing sugar? a. Fat b. Fruit juice c. Several glasses of water d. Complex carbohydrate and protein

D Symptoms of hypoglycemia are treated with a rapid-releasing sugar source followed by a complex carbohydrate and protein. Fat, fruit juice, and several glasses of water do not provide the child with complex carbohydrate and protein necessary to stabilize the blood glucose.

To determine the severity of the symptoms for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) the nurse will ask the patient about a. blood in the urine. b. lower back or hip pain. c. erectile dysfunction (ED). d. strength of the urinary stream.

D The American Urological Association (AUA) Symptom Index for a patient with BPH asks questions about the force and frequency of urination, nocturia, etc. Blood in the urine, ED, and back or hip pain are not typical symptoms of BPH.

The nurse is discussing with a child and family the various sites used for insulin injections. Which site usually has the fastest rate of absorption? a. Arm b. Leg c. Buttock d. Abdomen

D The abdomen has the fastest rate of absorption but the shortest duration. The arm has a fast rate of absorption but short duration. The leg has a slow rate of absorption but a long duration. The buttock has the slowest rate of absorption and the longest duration.

After a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a patient with continuous bladder irrigation complains of painful bladder spasms. The nurse observes a decrease in urine output and clots in the urine. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Increase the flow rate of the bladder irrigation. b. Administer the prescribed IV morphine sulfate. c. Give the patient the prescribed belladonna and opium suppository. d. Manually irrigate and then withdraw 50 mL of saline into the catheter.

D The assessment suggests that obstruction by a clot is causing the bladder spasms, and the nurses first action should be to irrigate the catheter manually and to try to remove the clots. IV morphine will not decrease the spasm, although pain may be reduced. Increasing the flow rate of the irrigation will further distend the bladder and may increase spasms. The belladonna and opium suppository will decrease bladder spasms but will not remove the obstructing blood clot.

What laboratory finding, in conjunction with the presenting symptoms, indicates minimal change nephrotic syndrome? a. Low specific gravity b. Decreased hemoglobin c. Normal platelet count d. Reduced serum albumin

D Total serum protein concentrations are reduced, with the albumin fractions significantly reduced. Specific gravity is high and proportionate to the amount of protein in the urine. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are usually normal or elevated. The platelet count is elevated as a result of hemoconcentration.

The nurse observes nursing assistive personnel (NAP) taking the following actions when caring for a patient with a retention catheter. Which action requires that the nurse intervene? a. Taping the catheter to the skin on the patients upper inner thigh b. Cleaning around the patients urinary meatus with soap and water c. Using an alcohol-based hand cleaner before performing catheter care d. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tube to obtain a specimen

D The catheter should not be disconnected from the drainage tube because this increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). The other actions are appropriate and do not require any intervention

What is an appropriate nursing intervention while the child with nephrotic syndrome is confined to bed? a. Restrain the child as necessary. b. Discourage the parents from holding the child. c. Do passive range-of-motion exercises once a day. d. Adjust activities to the child's tolerance level.

D The child will have a variable level of tolerance for activity. The activity tolerance will also be affected by the labile moods associated with steroid administration. The nurse should assist the family in adjusting activities for the child that are age appropriate. Restraints should not be used to confine children to bed, unless they are a potential threat to themselves or others. Parents should be encouraged to hold the child. The child should be encouraged to move all extremities while in bed to prevent the potential complications of immobility.

A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of teaching regarding care of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) that is in remission after administration of prednisone. The nurse realizes further teaching is required if the parents state what? a. We will keep our child away from anyone who is ill. b. We will be sure to administer the prednisone as ordered. c. We will encourage our child to eat a balanced diet, but we will watch his salt intake. d. We understand our child will not be able to attend school, so we will arrange for home schooling.

D The child with MCNS in remission can attend school. The child needs socialization and will be socially isolated if home schooled. The other statements are accurate for home care for a child with MCNS.

A toddler is hospitalized with acute renal failure (ARF) secondary to severe dehydration. The nurse should assess the child for what possible complications? a. Hypotension b. Hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Water intoxication

D The child with acute renal failure has the tendency to develop water intoxication or hyponatremia. Control of water balance requires careful monitoring of intake, output, body weight, and electrolytes. The child needs to be monitored for hypertension, not hypotension, when hospitalized with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, is a concern in acute renal failure.

A parent asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis was improving. What would be the nurses best response? a. Blood pressure will stabilize. b. Your child will have more energy. c. Urine will be free of protein. d. Urine output will increase.

D The first sign of improvement in acute glomerulonephritis is an increase in urinary output with a corresponding decrease in body weight. With diuresis, the child begins to feel better, the appetite improves, and the blood pressure decreases to normal with the reduction of edema. Gross hematuria diminishes, in part because of dilution of the red blood cells in the more dilute urine. Renal function and hypocomplementemia usually normalize by 8 weeks.

Which finding indicates a need to contact the health care provider before the nurse administers metformin (Glucophage)? a. The patient's blood glucose level is 174 mg/dL. b. The patient is scheduled for a chest x-ray in an hour. c. The patient has gained 2 lb (0.9 kg) in the past 24 hours. d. The patient's estimated glomerular filtration rate is 42 mL/min.

D The glomerular filtration rate indicates possible renal impairment, and metformin should not be used in patients with significant renal impairment. The other findings are not contraindications to the use of metformin.

After noting lengthening QRS intervals in a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the QRS interval. b. Notify the patients health care provider. c. Look at the patients current blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. d. Check the chart for the most recent blood potassium level.

D The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patients health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with AKI, but they would not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG). Documentation of the QRS interval also is appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening bradycardia.

Which is the most common cause of acute renal failure in children? a. Pyelonephritis b. Tubular destruction c. Urinary tract obstruction d. Inadequate perfusion

D The most common cause of acute renal failure in children is poor perfusion that may respond to restoration of fluid volume. Pyelonephritis and tubular destruction are not common causes of acute renal failure. Obstructive uropathy may cause acute renal failure, but it is not the most common cause.

The nurse has been teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about managing blood glucose levels and taking glipizide (Glucotrol). Which patient statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "If I overeat at a meal, I will still take the usual dose of medication." b. "Other medications besides the Glucotrol may affect my blood sugar." c. "When I am ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar." d. "My diabetes won't cause complications because I don't need insulin."

D The patient should understand that type 2 diabetes places the patient at risk for many complications and that good glucose control is as important when taking oral agents as when using insulin. The other statements are accurate and indicate good understanding of the use of glipizide.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange. b. Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level. c. Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L. d. Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis with a heart rate of 110/min.

D The patient who has tachycardia after hemodialysis may be bleeding or excessively hypovolemic and should be assessed immediately for these complications. The other patients also need assessments or interventions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications

A preschool child is being admitted to the hospital with dehydration and a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which urinalysis result should the nurse expect with these conditions? a. WBC <1; specific gravity 1.008 b. WBC <2; specific gravity 1.025 c. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.016 d. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.030

D WBC count in a routine urinalysis should be <1 or 2. Over that amount indicates a urinary tract inflammatory process. The urinalysis specific gravity for children with normal fluid intake is 1.016 to 1.022. When the specific gravity is high, dehydration is indicated. A low specific gravity is seen with excessive fluid intake, distal tubular dysfunction, or insufficient antidiuretic hormone secretion

A 28-yr-old male patient with type 1 diabetes reports how he manages his exercise and glucose control. Which behavior indicates that the nurse should implement additional teaching? a. The patient always carries hard candies when engaging in exercise. b. The patient goes for a vigorous walk when his glucose is 200 mg/dL. c. The patient has a peanut butter sandwich before going for a bicycle ride. d. The patient increases daily exercise when ketones are present in the urine.

D When the patient is ketotic, exercise may result in an increase in blood glucose level. Patients with type 1 diabetes should be taught to avoid exercise when ketosis is present. The other statements are correct.

What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child in the oliguria phase of acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension? (Select all that apply.) a. High fat b. Low protein c. Encouragement of fluids d. Moderate sodium restriction e. Limit foods high in potassium

D, E Dietary restrictions depend on the stage and severity of acute glomerulonephritis, especially the extent of edema. A regular diet is permitted in uncomplicated cases, but sodium intake is usually limited (no salt is added to foods). Moderate sodium restriction is usually instituted for children with hypertension or edema. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium are generally restricted during the period of oliguria. Protein restriction is reserved only for children with severe azotemia resulting from prolonged oliguria. A low-protein, high-fat diet with encouragement of fluids would not be recommended.