9 Navigation: Charts and Publications

67. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 359.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of Area 1? A. 117.1 MHz. B. 118.0 MHz. C. 122.2 MHz.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: On Fig. 21, 1 is on the upper left and the Minot VORTÁC information box is 1 in. below 1. Availability of Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) will be indicated by a circle which contains an "H," found in the upper right corner of a navigation frequency box. Note that the Minot VORTAC information box has such a symbol. Accordingly, a HIWAS can be obtained on the VOR frequency of 117.1. Answer (B) is incorrect. "Ch 118" in the Minot VORTAC information box refers to the TACAN channel (the military equivalent of VOR/DME). Answer (C) is incorrect. The universal frequency for Flight Service is 122.2 MHz.

46. (Refer to Figure 69 on page 339.) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL? A. Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. B. Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. C. Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: On Fig. 69, Area 4 is near the center and Area 1 is in the upper right-hand corner of the chart. A flight from Bishop Airport to McCampbell Airport at 2,000 feet MSL will pass through the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. Two-way radio communications and transponder with encoding altimeter are required when operating within Class C airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. Two-way radio communication is not required in alert areas. Answer (C) is incorrect. Two-way radio communication is not required in alert areas, and a direct flight will not pass through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace.

98. What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)? A. Current NOTAMS (D). B. All current NOTAMS only. C. Current Chart Supplement information and FDC NOTAMS.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: The NTAP contains (D) NOTAMS that are expected to remain in effect for an extended period. Answer (B) is incorrect. Military NOTAMS and FDC NOTAMS are not published in the NTAP. Answer (C) is incorrect. Chart Supplement information and FDC NOTAMS are not published in the NTAP.

38. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 333.) (Refer to Area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport. A. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace -- 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Bryn Airport is located 1.5 in. south of 2 on Fig. 26. There is no specific airspace designation around Bryn. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. The Class G airspace above Bryn Airport ends at 1,200 ft. AGL (the beginning of Class E airspace), not 18,000 ft. MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Class G airspace above Bryn Airport extends to 1,200 ft. AGL, not 700 ft. ÁGL. Class G airspace up to 700 ft. AGL (not MSL) would be indicated by magenta shading surrounding Bryn Airport. Additionally, Class E airspace above Bryn Airport extends to 18,000 ft. MSL, not 14,500 ft. MSL.

49. (Refer to Figure 71 on page 343.) (Refer to Area 1.) Dubey Airport is A. a privately owned airport restricted to use. B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. C. an airport restricted to use by sport pilots only.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Dubey Airport (south of 1) is a private, i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term "(Pvt)" after the airport name. Private airports that are shown on the sectional charts have an emergency or landmark value. The airport symbol with the letter "R" in the center means it is a nonpublic-use airport. Answer (B) is incorrect. Military airfields are labeled as AFB, NAS, AAF, NAAS, NAF, MCÁS, or DND. Answer (C) is incorrect. Dubey is restricted by its use according to its owners and management.

85. (Refer to Figure 52 on page 373.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with A. Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz. B. Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz. C. Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Fig. 52 contains the Chart Supplement excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. Locate the section titled Airspace and note that Lincoln Municipal is located in Class C airspace. The Class C airspace is in effect from 0530-0000 local time (1130-0600Z). You should contact approach control (app con) during that time before entering. Move up two lines to App/Dep Con and note that aircraft arriving from the west of Lincoln (i.e., 180° - 359°) at noon should initially contact Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0. Answer (B) is incorrect. The frequencies shown in the communications section for App/Dep Con do not include 128.75 MHz. Answer (C) is incorrect. When approaching Lincoln initial contact should be with approach Municipal at noon, your control, not the tower.

72. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 363.) (Refer to Area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? A. Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz. B. Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz. C. Circle the airport in left turn prior to entering traffic.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Find Cooperstown Airport, which is at the top of Fig. 26, just north of 2. You should broadcast your intentions when 10 NM out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz. Answer (B) is incorrect. There is no UNICOM indicated at Cooperstown, and the CTAF is 122.9, not 122.8. Answer (C) is incorrect. A left turn is not a communication procedure.

75. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 365.) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport? A. Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and of departure. announcing runway B. Contact Elizabeth City tower on 120.5. C. Radio need not be used.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Find Currituck County Airport, which is northeast of Area 3 in Fig. 20. Currituck County Airport is a non-towered airport with the specified CTAF 122.9. The recommended procedure for departure at a non-towered airport is to self-announce intentions on the CTAF prior to taxi and before taxiing on runway for departure. Answer (B) is incorrect. The recommended communications procedure for departure at a non-towered airport is to broadcast intentions on the CTAF for that airport, not another airport's designated frequency. Answer (C) is incorrect. Although two- radio communications are not required, it is good operating way practice for pilots to transmit their intentions on the specified frequency for the benefit of other traffic in the area.

76. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 365.) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport? A. Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern. B. Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service. C. Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Find the symbol for Currituck County Airport, northeast of Area 3 in Fig. 20. Incoming flights should use MULTICOM, 122.9, as the CTAF, because it is marked with a C. The recommended procedure is to report 10 NM out and then give position reports in the airport traffic pattern. Answer (B) is incorrect. There is no Elizabeth City FSS. Elizabeth City is serviced by the Raleigh FSS, as indicated by "Raleigh" just below the identifier box for Elizabeth City VOR. Answer (C) is incorrect. The controlling FSS is Raleigh, not New Bern, and Raleigh FSS does not monitor 122.9, which is marked as the CTAF at Currituck County Airport.

3. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 311.) (Refer to Area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? A. 47°25'N - 98°06'W. B. 47°25'N - 99°54'W. C. 47°55'N - 98°06'W.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: First locate the Cooperstown Airport on Fig. 26. It is just above 2, middle right of chart. Note that it is to the left (west) of the 98° line of longitude. The line of longitude on the left side of the chart is 99°. Thus, the longitude is a little bit more than 98°W, but not near 99°W. With respect to latitude, note that Cooperstown Airport is just below a line of latitude that is not marked in terms of degrees. However, the next line of latitude below is 47° (see the left side of the chart, northwest of Jamestown Airport). As with longitude, there are two lines of latitude for every degree of latitude; i.e., each line is 30 min. Thus, latitude of the Cooperstown Airport is almost 47°30'N, but not quite. Accordingly, Cooperstown Airport's latitude is 47°25'N and longitude is 98°06'W. Answer (B) is incorrect. Cooperstown is just west of the 98° line of longitude (not just east of 99°). Answer (C) is incorrect. Cooperstown is just south of the 47°30' line of latitude (not the 48°00' line).

18. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 321.) (Refer to Area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? A. IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots. B. VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots. C. Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: In Fig. 21, IR 644 is below Area 3. Military training flights are established to promote proficiency of military pilots in the interest of national defense. Military flight routes below 1,500 ft. are charted with four-digit numbers; those above 1,500 ft. have three-digit numbers. IR means the flights are made in accordance with IFR. (VR would mean they use VFR.) Thus, IR 644, a three-digit number, is above 1,500 ft., and flights will be flown under IFR rules. Answer (B) is incorrect. VFR flights are coded VR (not IR), and the speeds are in excess of (not less than) 250 kt. Answer (C) is incorrect. Military training flights below 1,500 ft. AGL have four-digit (not three-digit) identifier numbers, and the airspeed is in excess of 250 kt. (not 150 kt.).

70. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 361.) (Refer to Area 3.) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? A. 127.25 MHz. B. 122.95 MHz. C. 126.35 MHz.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: In Fig. 25, find the Dallas Executive Airport just above Area 3. When the Dallas Executive tower is not in operation, the CTAF is 127.25 because that frequency is marked with a C, which indicates a CTAF. Answer (B) is incorrect. The UNICOM frequency is 122.95. Answer (C) is incorrect. The ATIS frequency is 126.35.

23. (Refer to Figure 22 on page 323.) (Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are A. 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. B. 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL. C. 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Magee Airport on Fig. 22 is northwest of 3. The question asks for the vertical limits of the Class E airspace over the airport. Class E airspace areas extend upwards but do not include 18,000 ft. MSL (base of Class A airspace). The floor of a Class E airspace designated as an airway is 1,200 ft. AGL, unless otherwise indicated. Answer (B) is incorrect. This airway begins at 1,200 ft. AGL and extends upward to 17,999 ft. MSL, not 12,500 ft. MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway begins at 1,200 ft. AĞL, not 7,500 ft. MSL, unless otherwise indicated.

9. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 319.) (Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport. A. 36°24'N -76°01'W. B. 36°48'N -76°01'W. C. 47°24'N - 75°58'W.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 20, find the Currituck County Airport, which is northeast of Area 3. Note that the airport symbol is just to the west of 76° longitude (find 76° just north of Virginia Beach). There are 60 min. between the 76°W and 77°W lines of longitude, with each tick mark depicting 1 min. The airport is one tick mark to the west of the 76° line, or 76°01'W. The latitude is below the 30-min. latitude line across the center of the chart. See the numbered latitude lines at the top (37°) of the chart. Since each tick mark represents 1 min. of latitude, and the airport is approximately six tick marks south of the 36°30'N latitude, the airport is at 36°24'N latitude. Thus, Currituck County Airport is at approximately 36°24'N - 76°01'W. Answer (B) is incorrect. Currituck County Airport is south of the 36°30'N (not 37°00'N) line of latitude. Answer (C) is incorrect. Currituck County Airport is west (not east) of the 76°W line of longitude and 47°24'N is 11°N of the airport.

66. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 359.) Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel? A. Minot Int'l (Area 1). B. Garrison (Area 2). C. Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3).

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 21, the requirement is to identify the airports having fuel available. Airports having fuel available are designated by small squares extending from the top, bottom, and both sides of the airport symbol. Only Minot Int'I (Area 1) has such a symbol. Answer (B) is incorrect. Garrison (west of Area 2) does not indicate that fuel is available. Answer (C) is incorrect. Mercer County Regional Airport (south of Area 3) does not indicate that fuel is available.

41. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 335.) (Refer to Area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than A. 2,000 feet AGL. B. 2,500 feet AGL. C. 3,000 feet AGL.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 26, Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge is to the west of Area 3. All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface of a national wildlife refuge except if forced to land by emergency, landing at a designated site, or on official government business. Answer (B) is incorrect. This flight altitude has no significance to wildlife refuges. Answer (C) is incorrect. This flight altitude has no significance to wildlife refuges.

4. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 313.) (Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude? A. Fischer. B. Crooked Lake. C. Johnson.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Referring to the chart, (vertical) 101° W line (increases to the west) find the longitude and the latitude (horizontal) 48° line (decreases to the south). The longitude line to the west of 101° is 101° 30 minutes (each additional crossline is 1 minute). Find 101° 36 minutes by moving west six additional crosslines. The latitude line south of 48° is 47° 30 minutes (each additional crossline is 1 minute). Find 47° 41 minutes by moving north an additional 11 crosslines. These two coordinates (101°36'00"W and 47°30'00"N) intersect over Fischer Airfield. Answer (B) is incorrect. It is not shown on the referenced chart. Answer (C) is incorrect. The coordinates for Johnson are approximately 47° 27 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 100° 50 minutes 00 seconds W.

11. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 319.) (Refer to Area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A? A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. B. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. C. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: See Fig. 20. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as military firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Answer (B) is incorrect. A high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity describes an alert area, not a warning area. Answer (C) is incorrect. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers are characteristic of MOAS, not restricted areas.

40. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 335.) (Refer to Area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport. A. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Sprague Airport is the private airport located between Areas 3 and 4 on Fig. 26. There is no specific airspace designation around Sprague. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. The Class G airspace above Sprague Airport ends at 1,200 ft. AGL (the beginning of Class E airspace), not 18,000 ft. MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Class G airspace above Sprague Airport extends to 1,200 ft. AGL, not 700 ft. AGL. Class G airspace up to 700 ft. AGL (not MSL) would be indicated by magenta shading surrounding Sprague Airport. Additionally, Class E airspace above Sprague Airport extends to 18,000 ft. MSL, not 14,500 ft. MSL.

95. (Refer to Legend 16 on page 379.) If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is A. 1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM. B. 1,000 feet to 18,000 feet and 40 NM. C. 1,000 feet up to 60,000 feet and up to 130 NM.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The (T) or Terminal Class VORTAC can be received at 1,000 ft. to 12,000 ft. and 25 NM. Answer (B) is incorrect. The (L) or Low Aititude Class VORTAC can be received at 1,000 ft. to 18,000 ft. and 40 NM. Answer (C) is incorrect. The (H) or High Altitude Class VORTAC can be received at 1,000 ft. up to 18,000 ft. and up to 130 NM.

51. (Refer to Figure 74 on page 345.) (Refer to Area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. B. 10,000 feet MSL. C. 2,100 feet AGL.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The Class C airspace at OAK (Area 6) is shown in solid magenta lines. The surface area over the airport indicates the Class C airspace extends from the surface (SFC) upward to T, which means the ceiling ends at the base of the San Francisco Class B airspace. The base of the Class B airspace changes over OAK. To the left of OAK the base is 2,100 feet MSL and to the right of OAK the base 3,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the ceiling of the Class B, not the Class C, airspace over OAK. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the approximate ceiling of the Class C airspace on the west side of OAK, but the ceiling on the east side is 3,000 feet MSL.

13. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 319.) (Refer to Area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is A. 19 feet. B. 36 feet. C. 360 feet.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The question asks for the elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport (Fig. 20). East of 2, note that the second line of the airport identifier for Chesapeake Regional reads "19 L 55 123.075." The first number, in bold type, is the altitude of the airport above MSL. It is followed by the L for lighted runway(s), 55 for the length of the longest runway (5,500 ft.), and the CTAF frequency (123.075). Answer (B) is incorrect. This is not listed as the elevation of anything near Chesapeake Regional Airport. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the height above ground of the group obstructions approximately 6 NM southeast of Chesapeake Regional Airport, not the elevation of the airport.

61. (Refer to Figure 23 on page 353.) (Refer to Area 3.) The top of the obstruction group approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is A. 454 feet MSL. B. 429 feet AGL. C. 417 feet MSL.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: To determine the height of the lighted stack, first find it on Fig. 23. Locate the compass rose and look along the 010° radial, knowing that the compass rose has a 10-NM radius. Just outside the compass rose is a group obstruction (stacks). Its height is 454 ft. MSL; AGL height is not shown. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the height of an obstruction to the northeast of the group obstruction. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the height of a group obstruction on the 355°, not 010°, radial.

88. (Refer to Figure 52 on page 373.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? A. Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz. B. Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories. C. Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When the Lincoln Municipal tower is closed, you should monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on the CTAF. Fig. 52 contains the Chart Supplement excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. Locate the section titled Communications and note that on that same line the CTAF frequency is 118.5. Answer (B) is incorrect. When the tower is not in operation, you should monitor other traffic and announce your position and intentions on the specified CTAF. At Lincoln Municipal, the CTAF is the tower frequency of 118.5, not the UNICOM frequency of 122.95. Answer (C) is incorrect. When the tower is not in operation, you should monitor other traffic and announce your position and intentions on the specified CTAF. At Lincoln Municipal, the CTAF is the tower frequency of 118.5, not the UNICOM frequency of 122.95.

83. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? A. 60 B. 70 C. 90

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: FAA advisory circulars are numbered based on the numbering system used in the Federal Aviation Regulations: 60 -- Airmen 70 -- Airspace 90 -- Air Traffic and General Operating Rules Answer (B) is incorrect. This subject number relates to Airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. This subject number relates to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules.

91. (Refer to Figure 81 on page 375, and Figure 80 on page 374.) Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' w107°38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25? A. Right hand traffic pattern. B. Left hand traffic pattern. C. It does not matter because it is an uncontrolled airport.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The traffic pattern for runway 25 is a right- hand pattern. It is noted on the sectional chart excerpt (Fig. 80). Under the airport information, near Crawford Airport, the third line displays the letters "RP 25." On the Chart Supplement excerpt in Fig. 81, the section titled RWY 25 has "Rgt tfc" (right traffic) written to give pilots the pattern direction of the west runway. Answer (B) is incorrect. It is a left-hand traffic pattern for Runway 7, not for Runway 25. Answer (C) is incorrect. Standard traffic patterns are left turns, unless otherwise noted. If there is nothing that states which direction the pattern is, it is left patterns.

43. (Refer to Figure 59 on page 337.) (Refer to Area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)? A. A private airport with a grass runway. B. A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface. C. An abandoned paved airport having landmark value.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: According to the Sectional Chart Legend, a magenta circle with nothing indicated on the inside of the circle indicates that airport is not hard-surfaced. Answer (A) is incorrect. There is not a letter "R" inside the magenta circle indicating it is a private airport. Answer (C) is incorrect. There is no "X" inside the magenta circle to indicate it is an abandoned paved airport having landmark value.

47. (Refer to Figure 70 on page 341.) When are two- way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering A. the Class B airspace. B. the Livermore Airport Class D airspace. C. both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Area 4 is in the upper left hand-corner, and Area 5 is in the center of the right-hand side of Fig. 70. A flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) to Livermore Airport (LVK) will pass beneath the sections of Class B airspace extending upward from 4,000 ft. MSL and 6,000 ft. MSL, as indicated by the "100" above the "40" (separated by a line) and the "100" above the "60" (separated by a line), respectively. Livermore Airport is encircled by blue dashed lines, indicating Class D airspace extending upward from the surface to a specified altitude (here 2,900 ft. MSL). Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entry and thereafter maintained while in Class D airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. The flight will pass beneath the Class B airspace, and two-way radio commynication must be establisehd propir to entry and thereafter maintained while in Class D airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. The flight will pass beneath the Class B airspace.

89. (Refer to Figure 52 on page 373.) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city? A. Northwest approximately 4 miles. B. Northwest approximately 1 mile. C. East approximately 7 miles.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Fig. 52 contains the Chart Supplement excerpt for Loup City Municipal. On the first line, the third item listed, 1 NW, means that Loup City Municipal is located approximately 1 NM northwest of the associated city. Answer (A) is incorrect. The approximate location of LNK airport to the associated city is 4 NW. Answer (C) is incorrect. The airport is approximately 1 NM northwest, not 7 NM east, of the associated city.

2. Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. C. The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Lines of longitude are drawn from the north pole to the south pole and cross the equator at right angles. They indicate the number of degrees east and west of the 0° line of longitude, which passes through Greenwich, England. Answer (A) is incorrect. Lines of latitude, not longitude, are parallel to the equator. Answer (C) is incorrect. The 0° line of longitude, not latitude, passes through Greenwich, England.

45. (Refer to Figure 69 on page 339.) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at A. the surface. B. 700 feet AGL. C. 1,200 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: On Fig. 69, Area 5 is 9 NM north of Corpus Christi. The Corpus Christi VORTAC is just inside the magenta-shaded area. This indicates that Class E (controlled) airspace extends upward from 700 feet AGL to the base of the overlying airspace [here Class C airspace at 1,200 feet MSL, as indicated by the magenta solid lines and the "40" above the "12" (separated by a line), 5 NM west of the VORTAC]. Answer (A) is incorrect. A magenta-shaded area indicates that Class E extends upward from 700 feet AGL, not the surface. Answer (C) is incorrect. Although Class C airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet MSL to 4,000 feet MSL is indicated by the magenta solid lines, Class E airspace extends upward from 700 feet AGL, as indicated by the magenta shading.

99. When NOTAMS are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are A. Still a part of a standard weather briefing. B. Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot requests published NOTAMS. C. Canceled and are no longer valid.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Once a NOTAM is published in the NTAP, the NOTAM is not provided during pilot weather briefings unless specifically requested. Answer (A) is incorrect. Published NOTAMS are only available in a pilot weather briefing if the pilot makes a specific request for them. NOTAMS that have not been published are a part of a standard weather briefing. Answer (C) is incorrect. A published NOTAM remains in effect until its expiration date or until an additional NOTAM is issued to cancel it.

71. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 361.) (Refer to Area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is A. 122.95 MHz. B. 126.0 MHz. C. 133.4 MHz.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Addison Airport (Fig. 25, Area 2) control tower frequency is given as the first item in the second line of the airport data to the right of the airport symbol. The control tower (CT) frequency is 126.0 MHz. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the UNICOM, not control tower, frequency for Addison Airport. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the ATIS, not control tower, frequency for Addison Airport.

20. Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has A. filed a IFR flight plan. B. received prior authorization from the controlling agency. C. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Before an aircraft penetrates a restricted area, authorization must be obtained from the controlling agency. Information pertaining to the agency controlling the restricted area may be found at the bottom of the En Route Chart appropriate to navigation. Answer (A) is incorrect. The restriction is to all flight, not just flights without an IFR flight plan. Answer (C) is incorrect. The commanding officer is not necessarily in charge (i.e., controlling agency) of nearby restricted areas.

60. (Refer to Figure 23 on page 353.) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? A. 1,200 feet AGL. B. 1,300 feet MSL. C. 1,700 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Class airspace consists of a surface area and a shelf area. The floor of the shelf area is 1,200 feet above the airport elevation. The Savannah Class C airspace (Fig. 23, Area 3) is depicted by solid magenta circles. For each circle there is a number over a number or SFC. The numbers are in hundreds of feet MSL. The bottom number represents the floor of the airspace. Thus, the floor of the shelf area of the Class C airspace is 1,300 feet MSL (41/13). Answer (A) is incorrect. The floor of the outer circle of Class C airspace does not vary with the ground elevation. The FAA specifies a fixed MSL altitude, rounded to the nearest 100 feet, which is about 1,200 feet above the airport elevation. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the maximum elevation figure (MEF) of the quadrant encompassing Savannah Class C airspace, not the floor of the shelf area.

31. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 329.) (Refer to Area 3.) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is A. at the surface. B. 3,000 feet MSL. C. 3,100 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Dallas Executive Airport (Fig. 25, Area 3) has a segmented blue circle around it depicting Class D airspace. Dallas Executive Airport also underlies Class B airspace as depicted by solid blue lines. The altitudes of the Class B airspace 110/30 are shown as to the southeast of the airport. The bottom number denotes the floor of the Class B airspace to be 3,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. The floor of Class D, not Class B, airspace is at the surface. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is not a defined limit of any airspace over Dallas Executive Airport.

84. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? A. 60 B. 70 C. 90

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: FAA advisory circulars are numbered based on the numbering system used in the Federal Aviation Regulations: 60 -- Airmen 70 -- Airspace 90 -- Air Traffic and General Operating Rules Answer (A) is incorrect. This subject number relates to Airmen. Answer (C) is incorrect. This subject number relates to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules.

86. (Refer to Figure 52 on page 373.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are A. to the right on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35. B. to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35. C. to the right on Runways 14 - 32.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Fig. 52 contains the Chart Supplement excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. For this question, you need to locate the runway end data elements, i.e., Rwy 18, Rwy 14, Rwy 32, Rwy 17, Rwy 35, and Rwy 36. Traffic patterns are to the left unless right traffic is noted by the contraction "Rgt tfc." The only runways with right traffic are Rwy 18 and Rwy 35. Answer (A) is incorrect. Traffic patterns are to the left, not right, for Rwy 14 and Rwy 32. Traffic patterns are to the right, not left, for Rwy 18 and Rwy 35. Answer (C) is incorrect. The traffic pattern for Rwy 14 and Rwy 32 is to the left, not right.

7. (Refer to Figure 77 on page 314, and Figure 76 on page 315.) Refer to the area of Pierre Regional Airport (N44°22.96' W100°17.16"). What frequency can be monitored for Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service in this area? A. 119.025 MHz. B. 112.5 MHz. C. 122.2 MHz.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Fig. 77 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Pierre Regional Airport. Look for the section titled "Weather Data Sources." In that line, you will see "HIWAS." This is the Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service frequency, 112.5 MHz. It is also located on Fig. 76 in the Pierre VOR frequency and identifier box. It is depicted by the "H" within a darkened circle in the top right corner of the box. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the ASOS (Automated Surface Observing System) frequency, not the HIWAS frequency. Answer (C) is incorrect. The RCO (Remote Communications Outlet) frequency is 122.2 MHz.

26. (Refer to Figure 24 on page 327.) (Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? A. 1,010 feet MSL. B. 1,273 feet MSL. C. 1,283 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Find Airpark East, which is near 1 in Fig. 24. Remember to locate the actual airport symbol, not just the name of the airport. It is the third of three airports in a southwesterly line from the 1. The elevation of the top of the obstacle on the northeast side of the airport is marked in bold as 773 feet MSL. Minimum altitude to clear the 773-foot obstacle by 500 feet is 1,273 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. The airport elevation, not the obstacle, is 510 feet. Answer (C) is incorrect. The AGL altitude of a tower 1 in. west of Caddo Mills Airport appears as 283.

74. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 363.) (Refer to Area 5.) What is the CTAF/UÑICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport? A. 122.2 MHz. B. 122.8 MHz. C. 123.6 MHz.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: In Fig. 26, Barnes County Airport is to the west of Area 5. The CTAF at Barnes County Airport is marked as the UNICOM frequency for the airport, i.e., 122.8. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the Flight Service frequency. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is an FSS frequency.

25. Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the A. NOTAMS. B. Chart Supplement. C. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Information concerning parachute jump sites be found in the Chart Supplement. may Answer (A) is incorrect. NOTAMS are only issued for special situations, not routine jump sites. Answer (C) is incorrect. longer published. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data are no

37. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 333.) (Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Military Operations Areas (MOAS), such vertical limits that are as Devils Lake East in Fig. 26 consist of defined lateral and designated for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic. Most training activities necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers, i.e., air combat tactics, aerobatics, and formation training. Therefore, the likelihood of a collision is increased inside an MOA. VFR traffic is permitted, but extra vigilance should be exercised in seeing and avoiding military aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles, are characteristic of restricted areas, not MOAS. Answer (C) is incorrect. A high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity is characteristic of alert areas, not MOAS.

5. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 313.) (Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude? A. Linrud. B. Makeeff. C. Johnson.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 21, you are asked to locate an airport at 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'W longitude. Note that the 101°W longitude line runs down the middle of the figure. Accordingly, the airport you are seeking is 17 min. to the east of that line. Each crossline is 1 min. on the latitude and longitude lines. The 48°N latitude line is approximately two-thirds of the way up the chart. The 47°30'N latitude line is about one-fourth of the way from 47°30'N to 48°N latitude would be 47°39'N. up. One-third up At this spot is Makeeff Airport. Answer (A) is incorrect. Linrud is north of the 48°N latitude line. Answer (C) is incorrect. Johnson is south of the 47°30'N latitude line.

65. (Refer to Figure 24 on page 357.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? A. Commerce (Area 6) and Rockwall (Area 1). B. Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5). C. Commerce (Area 6) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 24, the requirement is to identify the airports having fuel available. Airports having fuel available are designated by small squares extending from the top, bottom, and both sides of the airport symbol. Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5) have such symbols. Answer (A) is incorrect. Commerce does not indicate it has fuel. Answer (C) is incorrect. Commerce does not indicate it has fuel.

80. (Refer to Figure 22 on page 371.) Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2) A. over the VOR frequency 108.8. B. from AWOS 3 135.075. C. from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On the sectional chart excerpt, to the right of the airport, you will find in the information for the airport weather in the third line. It states the type of Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS) and the frequency of 135.075. Answer (A) is incorrect. The nearest HIWAS is available over the VOR frequency 108.8. HIWAS is an additional source of hazardous weather information for an area, not the source of weather information at COE. Answer (C) is incorrect. The UNICOM (CTAF) is the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency.

1. (Refer to Figure 22 on page 309.) (Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport. A. 47°02'N - 116°11'W. B. 47°33'N -116°11'W. C. 47°32'N -116°41'W.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Shoshone County Airport is below 3, just west of the 116° line of longitude. There are 60 min. between the 116° line and the 117° line, depicted in 1-min. tick marks. Shoshone is 11 tick marks (11 min.) past the 116° line. Find the labeled 48° latitude line just northeast of the 116° line. The latitude and longitude lines are presented each 30 min. Since lines of latitude are also divided into 1 min. tick marks, the airport is three tick marks above the 47°30' line or 47°33'N. The correct latitude and longitude is thus 47°33'N - 116°11'W. Answer (A) is incorrect. Shoshone Airport is just north of the 47°30' line of latitude (not the 47°00' line). Answer (C) is incorrect. Shoshone Airport is 11 ticks past the 116°00' line of longitude (not the 116°30' line).

93. (Refer to Legend 14 ob page 377.) What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks? A. GCA. B. AUNICOM. C. UNICOM.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The AUNICOM provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks. Answer (A) is incorrect. A GCÀ is a Ground Control Approach system. Answer (C) is incorrect. A UNICOM is a nongovernment air/ground radio communications facility that may or may not provide airport information.

68. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 359.) (Refer to Area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is A. 122.8 MHz. B. 122.9 MHz. C. 123.0 MHz.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The CTAF for Garrison Municipal Airport (west of Area 2 in Fig. 21) is 122.9, because that frequency is marked with a C. Answer (A) is incorrect. There is no indication of 122.8 at Garrison. Answer (C) is incorrect. There is no indication of 123.0 at Garrison.

33. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 331.) (Refer to Area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive? A. 2,731 feet MSL. B. 3,549 feet MSL. C. 3,349 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The Cedar Hill TV towers (Fig. 25, west of 8) have an elevation of 2,549 feet MSL. The minimum safe altitude over a congested area is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Thus, to vertically clear the towers, the minimum altitude is 3,549 feet MSL (2,549 + 1,000). Answer (A) is incorrect. The figure of 2,731 feet AGL, not MSL, is the minimum height to fly over the shortest, not the tallest of the obstructions in the group. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is only 800 feet, not 1,000 feet, above the tallest structure.

52. (Refer to Figure 74 on page 345.) (Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? A. 2,503 feet MSL. B. 2,901 feet MSL. C. 3,297 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The Class D airspace at Livermore Airport extends from the surface to 2,900 feet MSL, as indicated by the 29 within the blue segmented circle. Thus, the minimum altitude to fly over and avoid the Livermore Airport Class D airspace is 2,901 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. At 2,503 feet MSL, you would be in Class D airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. Although at 3,297 feet MSL you would be above the Class D airspace, it is not the minimum altitude at which you could avoid the airspace.

16. Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than A. 1,000 feet AGL. B. 2,000 feet AGL. C. 3,000 feet AGL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The Fish and Wildlife Service requests that pilots maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 ft. above the terrain of national wildlife refuge areas. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the required distance above obstructions over congested areas. Answer (C) is incorrect. This has no significance to wildlife refuges.

10. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 319.) (Refer to Area 6.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? A. Class C. B. Class E. C. Class G.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is surrounded by a dashed magenta line, indicating Class E airspace from the surface. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class C airspace is surrounded by a solid magenta line. The line surrounding NFE airport is dashed magenta. Answer (C) is incorrect. The dashed magenta line surrounding NFE Airport indicates Class E begins at the surface. A shaded magenta line would be required to indicate Class G airspace from the surface up to 700 ft. AGL.

73. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 363.) (Refer to Area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is A. 122.2 MHz. B. 123.0 MHz. C. 123.6 MHz.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The UNICOM frequency is printed in bold italics in the airport identifier. At Jamestown it is 123.0 MHz. The C next to it indicates it as the CTAF. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the Flight Service frequency, not UNICOM. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is an FSS frequency, not UNICOM.

32. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 329.) (Refer to Area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to A. 700 feet AGL. B. 2,900 feet MSL. C. 2,500 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The airspace overlying Mc Kinney airport (TKI) (Fig. 25, northeast of 7) is Class D airspace as denoted by the segmented blue lines. The upper limit is depicted in a broken box in hundreds of feet MSL to the left of the airport symbol. The box contains the number "29," meaning that the vertical limit of the Class D airspace is 2,900 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is normally the vertical limit of uncontrolled, not controlled, airspace in the vicinity of non- towered airports with an authorized instrument approach. Answer (C) is incorrect. The height of 2,500 feet AGL, not MSL, is normally the upper limit of Class D airspace. This is not the case here, where the upper limit is somewhat lower, at about 2,300 feet AGL [2,900 feet MSL - 586 feet AGL (field elevation) = 2,314 feet AGL].

30. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 329.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized? A. Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks. B. Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field. C. Addison and Dallas Executive.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The first (top) line of the airport data for Dallas-Ft. Worth Int'l. and Dallas Love Field (Fig. 25, Areas 5 and 6) indicates NO SVFR, which means no special VFR permitted for a fixed-wing aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect. Ft. Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks permit special VFR operations since it is not indicated otherwise. Answer (C) is incorrect. Addison and Dallas Executive permit special VFR operations since it is not indicated otherwise.

58. (Refer to Figure 23 on page 350, and Legend 1 on page 351.) (Refer to Area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to A. notes on the border of the chart. B. the Chart Supplement. C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The miniature glider near the Ridgeland Airport (at 3 on Fig. 23) indicates a glider operations area. The Chart Supplement will have information on the glider operations at Ridgeland Airport. Answer (A) is incorrect. The sectional chart legend identifies symbols only. Answer (C) is incorrect. NOTAMS are issued only for hazards to flight.

24. (Refer to Figure 24 on page 324, and Legend 1 on page 325.) (Refer to Area 1.) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to A. notes on the border of the chart. B. the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement. C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The miniature parachute near the Caddo Mills Airport (at 1 on Fig. 24) indicates a parachute jumping area. In Legend 1, the symbol for a parachute jumping area instructs you to see the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement for more information. Answer (A) is incorrect. The sectional chart legend identifies symbols only. Answer (C) is incorrect. NOTAMS are issued only for hazards to flight.

12. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 319.) (Refer to Area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off Norfolk International? A. Mode C transponder and omnireceiver. B. Mode C transponder and two-way radio. C. Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The minimum equipment to land and take off at Norfolk International (Fig. 20) is a Mode C transponder and a two-way radio. Norfolk International is located within Class C airspace. Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot must establish and maintain radio communication with ATC prior to and while operating in the Class C airspace area. Mode C transponders are also required in and above all Class C airspace areas. Answer (A) is incorrect. An omnireceiver (VOR) is not required in Class C airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. Neither an omnireceiver (VOR) nor a DME is required in Class C airspace.

97. You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would find information you regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?" A. Call the Automated Flight Service Station. B. In the Chart Supplements U.S. C. In the NOTAMS during your preflight briefing.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: An "airport surface hot spot" is a runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airport. Information regarding airport surface hot spots can be found in the Chart Supplements U.S. Answer (A) is incorrect. Information regarding airport surface hot spots can be found in the Chart Supplements U.S. Answer (C) is incorrect. Information regarding airport surface hot spots can be found in the Chart Supplements U.S.

56. Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area? A. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance. B. With the controlling agency's authorization. C. Regulations do not allow this.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: An aircraft may not be operated within a restricted area unless permission has been obtained from the controlling agency. Frequently, the ATC within the area acts as the controlling agent's authorization; e.g., an approach control in a military restricted area can permit aircraft to enter it when the restricted area is not active. Answer (A) is incorrect. Airways do not penetrate restricted areas. Answer (C) is incorrect. Restricted areas may be entered with proper authorization.

81. FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by A. distribution from the nearest FAA district office. B. downloading them from the FAA website. C. subscribing to the Federal Register.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: FAA Advisory Circulars are issued with the purpose of informing the public of nonregulatory material of interest. Free advisory circulars can be downloaded from the FAA website at www.faa.gov. Answer (A) is incorrect. FAA offices have their own copies but none for distribution to the public. Answer (C) is incorrect. The Federal Register contains Notices of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) and final rules. It is a federal government publication.

17. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 321.) The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from A. sea level to 2,000 feet MSL. B. 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. C. 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The tan area indicates terrain between 2,000 ft. and 3,000 ft. The elevation contours on sectionals vary by 500 ft. increments. The 2,000 ft. contour line is located where the color changes from light green to light tan. Since there is no other contour line in the light tan area, the terrain elevation is between 2,000 ft. and 2,500 ft. MSL. Also, Poleschook Airport (halfway between 1 and 2) indicates an elevation above MSL of 2,245. Answer (A) is incorrect. The light tan area indicates terrain elevation from 2,000 ft. to 3,000 ft. MSL, not from sea level to 2,000 ft. MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Elevation contours vary by 500 ft., not 700 ft.

28. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 329.) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)? A. 4,000 B. 3,000 C. 1,700

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: To the southwest of Lakeview Airport, there are numbers 110 over 30 in blue color. This indicates the base of Class B airspace between the blue airspace lines is 3,000 ft. MSL and the top is 11,000 ft. MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. The base is indicated at 4,000 ft. MSL beyond the blue line located north of Lakeview Airport. Answer (C) is incorrect. A base of 1,700 ft. would be below the maximum elevation figure in that quadrant.

55. A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace? A. Class B. B. Class C. C. Class D.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts Class D airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class B airspace is depicted on a sectional chart by a solid, not segmented, blue circle. Answer (B) on a sectional chart by is incorrect. Class C airspace is depicted a solid magenta, not a blue segmented, circle.

21. What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area? A. All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation. B. Non-participating may aircraft transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their waiver. C. Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an "A" followed by a number (e.g., A-211) to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. Both pilots of participating aircraft and pilots transiting the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance. Answer (A) is incorrect. It is not necessary to contact any agency when transiting an alert area. However, it is imperative that pilots exercise caution within an alert area. Both pilots of participating aircraft and pilots transiting the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance. Answer (B) is incorrect. Non- participating aircraft do not need a waiver to fly through an alert area.

15. With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, A. 10,000 feet MSL. B. 14,500 feet MSL. C. 18,000 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Beginning at either 700 ft. AGL or 1,200 ft. AGL, Class E airspace extends up to, but not including, the base of the overlying controlled airspace. With the exception of Class B and Class C airspace, Class E airspace extends up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL, i.e., the floor of Class A airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the base of increased VFR visibility and cloud distance requirements and the Mode C requirement. Answer (B) is incorrect. Class G, not Class E, up to, but not including, airspace may extend from the surface 14,500 ft. MŠL.

82. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number? A. 60 B. 70 C. 90

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: FAA advisory circulars are numbered based on the numbering system used in the Federal Aviation Regulations: 60 -- Airmen 70 -- Airspace 90 -- Air Traffic and General Operating Rules Answer (A) is incorrect. This subject number refers to Airmen. Answer (B) is incorrect. This subject number refers to Airspace.

90. (Refer to Figure 80 on Page 374, and Figure 81 on page 375.) Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport? A. Yes, whenever the airport is attended by airport personnel. B. No, as there is no "star" symbol near the airport on the chart, there is no fuel available at this airport. C. Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Look at Fig. 81, the Chart Supplement excerpt for Crawford Airport, located at the given coordinates. Locate the Airport Remarks; you will see on the second line that 100LL fuel is available (avbl) for emergency use only. Answer (A) is incorrect. There are no regular fuel services available. Answer (B) is incorrect. There are no regular fuel services available, but there is 100LL available for emergency use only.

36. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 333.) The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a A. meteorological observation area. B. military observation area. C. military operations area.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Military operations areas are shown on the sectional chart surrounded by magenta hashed lines. Devils Lake East MOA is labeled in the top left of Fig. 26. All the magenta hashed lines around the label are the boundaries of the MOA. Answer (A) is incorrect. There are no meteorological observation areas on the chart. Answer (B) is incorrect. There are no military observation areas on the chart.

19. What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)? A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Military operations areas consist of airspace established for separating military training activities from IFR traffic. VFR traffic should exercise extreme caution when flying within an MOA. Information regarding MOA activity can be obtained from flight service stations (FSSS) within 100 mi. of the MOA. Answer (A) is incorrect. A clearance is not required to enter an MOA. Answer (B) is incorrect. VFR flights may fly anywhere in the MOA.

63. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 355.) (Refer to Area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft? A. Unmarked blimp hangars at 308 feet MSL. B. Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL. C. Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: On Fig. 20, northwest of 5, find "CAUTION: UNMARKED BALLOON ÕN CABLE TO 3,008' MSL." This is self- explanatory. Answer (A) is incorrect. The box clearly says that there is an unmarked balloon, not blimp hangars, to 3,008 feet MSL, not 308 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. The balloon extends to 3,008 feet MSL, not AGL.

14. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta. B. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. C. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: On sectional charts, airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, E, or G airspace are shown in blue. Airports with no control towers are shown in magenta. Answer (A) is incorrect. There are no airports in Class A airspace. Airports with control towers are shown in blue, and all others are in magenta. Answer (B) is incorrect. Airports with control towers are shown in blue, not magenta.

53. (Refer to Figure 75 on page 347.) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class A. B. B. C. C. D.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: The GXF airport is surrounded by a dashed blue line, which indicates it is within Class D airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class B airspace is surrounded by a solid blue line. Answer (B) is incorrect. Class C airspace is surrounded by a solid magenta line.

29. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 329.) (Refer to Area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is A. Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL. B. Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL. C. Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: The airspace overlying Fort Worth Meacham (Fig. 25, southeast of 4) is Class D airspace as denoted by the segmented blue lines. The upper limit is depicted in a broken box in hundreds of feet MSL northeast of the airport. Thus, the Class D airspace extends from the surface to 3,200 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class D, not Class B, airspace extends from the surface of Ft. Worth Meacham. Class B airspace overlies the airport from 4,000 feet MSL to 11,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. Class D, not Class C, airspace directly overlies Ft. Worth Meacham from the surface to 3,200 feet MSL, not 5,000 feet MSL.

54. (Refer to Figure 75 on page 347.) What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3? A. Restricted airspace. B. Military operations area. C. Wilderness area.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: The area just to the west of Area 3 represents an area that is a national park, wildlife refuge, primitive and wilderness area, etc. To the northwest of this area is the name, North Maricopa Mountains Wilderness Area. Answer (A) is incorrect. A restricted area on a sectional chart is outlined with a hashed blue border and labeled with an "R" followed by a number (e.g., R-1234). Answer (B) is incorrect. (MOA) is outlined with a hashed A military operations area magenta border. MOAS are named rather than numbered (e.g., Snowbird MOA) and further defined on the back of sectional charts.

42. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 335.) (Refer to east of Area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: The magenta shading surrounding Barnes County Airport indicates that Class E airspace starts at 700 feet AGL. Therefore, Class G airspace exists from the surface to 700 feet AGL. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class D airspace requires a control tower. The Barnes County Airport does not have a control tower, since the airport identifier is magenta, not blue. Answer (B) is incorrect. An airport located in Class E airspace would be marked by magenta dashed lines, such as the ones surrounding Jamestown Airport to the left. Barnes has no such lines.

44. (Refer to Figure 59 on page 337.) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport? A. C. B. D. C. E.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A magenta dashed line surrounding an airport identifies it as Class E airspace that extends to the surface. The presence of this dashed magenta line indicates that this airport offers a precision instrument approach. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class C airspace is identified by two solid magenta lines surrounding the airport. Answer (B) is incorrect. Class D airspace is surrounded by dashed blue lines.

96. (Refer to Legend 17 on page 380.) According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC? A. VHF navigational facility with omnidirectional course only. B. Collocated VOR navigational facility and UHF standard distance measuring equipment. C. Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: According to the Chart Supplement, a VORTAC has the operational requirements of collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is describing the operational requirement of a VOR. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is describing the operational requirement of a VOR/DME.

69. As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of A. 25 miles. B. 20 miles. C. 10 miles.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: As a standard operating practice, pilots of inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor and communicate, as appropriate, on the designated Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) from 10 mi. to landing. Answer (A) is incorrect. All inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the CTAF All inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should from a distance of 10 mi., not 25 mi. Answer (B) is incorrect. continuously monitor the CTAF from a distance of 10 mi., not 20 mi.

94. (Refer to Legend 15 on page 378.) What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL? A. A dashed blue circle around an airport. B. A solid magenta circle around an airport. C. A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Class E airspace floor begins at 700 feet AGL. It is depicted by a magenta vignette circle or area around an airport. Answer (A) is incorrect. A dashed blue circle around an airport depicts a Class D airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. A solid magenta circle going around an airport depicts Class C airspace.

78. (Refer to Figure 22 on page 368, and Figure 31 on page 369.) (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? A. 122.05 MHz. B. 135.075 MHz. С. 122.8 МНz.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Fig. 31 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Coeur D'Alene Air Terminal. Look for the section titled "Communications." On that same line, it states that the CTAF (and UNICOM) frequency is 122.8. The CTAF can also be found in the airport information on the sectional chart. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the remote communication outlet (RCO) frequency to contact Boise FSS in the vicinity of Coeur D'Alene, not the CTAF. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the AWOS frequency, not the CTAF.

77. (Refer to Figure 22 on page 366, and Figure 31 on page 367.) (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self- announce position and intentions? A. 122.05 MHz. B. 122.1/108.8 MHz. С. 122.8 МНz.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Fig. 31 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Coeur D'Alene Air Terminal. Look for the section titled "Communications." On that same line, it states the CTAF (and UNICOM) frequency is 122.8. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the remote communications outlet (RCO) frequency to contact Boise FSS in the vicinity of Coeur D'Alene, not the CTAF. Answer (B) is incorrect. The COE VOR/DME frequency, not the CTAF, is 108.8.

87. (Refer to Figure 52 on page 373.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? A. Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation. B. Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation. C. Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Fig. 52 contains the Chart Supplement excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. Locate the section titled Airspace to determine that Lincoln Municipal is located in Class C airspace. Once communications and radar contact are established, VFR aircraft are provided the following services: 1. Sequencing to the primary airport 2. Approved separation between IFR and VFR aircraft 3. Basic radar services, i.e., safety alerts, limited vectoring, and traffic advisories The FAA should change "conflict resolution" to "limited vectoring" in the future. Answer (A) is incorrect. In addition to sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation, Class C radar service also includes basic radar services, i.e., traffic advisories and safety alerts. Answer (B) is incorrect. One radar service provided to VFR aircraft in Class C airspace provides for traffic advisories and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 500 ft., not 1,000 ft., vertical separation.

8. (Refer to Figure 79 below, and Figure 78 on page 317.) At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42°24.16' W96°23.06'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self- announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed? A. 122.95 MHz. B. 119.45 MHz. C. 118.7 MHz.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Fig. 79 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Sioux Gateway/Col Day Airport. Look for the section titled "Communications." On that same line, it states that the CTAF frequency is 118.7 MHz. It is also located on Fig. 78 in the Sioux Gateway Airport Data Description, indicated by a "C" surrounded by a shaded blue circle. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the UNICOM frequency, not the CTAF frequency. Answer (B) is incorrect. The ATIŠ (Automatic Terminal Information Service) frequency is 119.45 MHz and is not the CTAF frequency.

34. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 331.) (Refer to Area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is A. at the surface. B. 3,200 feet MSL. C. 4,000 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Hicks Airport (T67) on Fig. 25 is northeast of 4. Class B airspace is depicted by a solid blue line, as shown just west of the airport. Follow the blue line toward the bottom of 110/40 the chart until you find a number over a number in blue, The bottom number denotes the floor of the Class B airspace as 4,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. The floor of the Class B airspace would be at the surface if SFC, not 40, was below the 100, as depicted just south of Dallas-Ft. Worth International Airport. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the upper limit of the Class D airspace for the Ft. Worth/Meacham Airport, not the floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport.

6. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 313.) (Refer to Area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude? A. Underwood. B. Pietsch. C. Washburn.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 21, find the 48° line of latitude (2/3 up Start at the 47°30' line of latitude (the line below the the figure). 48° line) and count down nine tick marks to the 47°21'N tick mark and draw a horizontal line on the chart. Next find the 101° line of longitude and go left one tick mark and draw a vertical line. The closest airport is Washburn. Answer (A) is incorrect. Underwood is a city (not an airport) northwest of Washburn by about 1 in. Answer (B) is incorrect. Pietsch is north of the 48°00' latitude line.

59. (Refer to Figure 23 on page 353.) (Refer to Area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? A. 1,498 feet MSL. B. 1,531 feet AGL. C. 1,548 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 23, find the lighted obstacle noted by its proximity to Savannah International by being outside the surface area of the Class C airspace, which has a 5-NM radius. It is indicated by the obstacle symbol with arrows or lightning flashes extending from the tip. According to the numbers to the northeast of the symbol, the height of the obstacle is 1,548 ft. MSL or 1,534 ft. AGL. Answer (A) is incorrect. The unlighted tower 8 NM, not 6 NM, southwest of the airport has a height of 1,498 ft. MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. An unlighted tower 9 NM, not 6 NM, southwest of the airport has a height of 1,531 ft. AGL.

62. (Refer to Figure 23 on page 353.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are A. outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace. B. airports with special traffic patterns. C. visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 23, note the flag symbols at Claxton- Evans County Airport (1 in. to the left of 2), at Statesboro Bullock County Airport (2 in. above 2), and at Ridgeland Airport (2 in. above 3). These airports are visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering the Savannah Class C airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. They do not indicate outer boundaries of the Class C airspace. The flags are outside the Class C airspace area, the boundaries of which are marked by solid magenta lines. Answer (B) is incorrect. Airports with special traffic patterns are noted in the Chart Supplement and also by markings at the airport around the wind sock or tetrahedron.

35. (Refer to Figure 25 on page 331.) (Refer to Area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a A. VOR. B. VORTAC. C. VOR/DME.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: On Fig. 25, DFW is located at the center of the chart and the navigation facility is 1 NM south of the right set of parallel runways. The symbol is a hexagon with a dot in the center within a square. This is the symbol for a VOR/DME navigation facility. Answer (A) is incorrect. A VOR facility symbol is a hexagon with a dot in the center, but is not located within a square. Answer (B) is incorrect. A VORTAC symbol is a hexagon with a dot in the center and a small rectangle attached to three of the six sides. The Ranger VORTAC is depicted approximately 7 NM to the west of DFW airport.

57. (Refer to Figure 78 on page 349.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? A. 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds. B. 0 statute miles, clear of clouds. C. 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Onawa, IA, (K36) airport is surrounded by Class G airspace. The VFR weather minima in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL (regardless of MSL altitude) is 1 statute mile of visibility and clear of clouds. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class C (day and night), D (day and night), and E (day VFR only and less than 10,000 feet MSL) are all 3 statute miles of visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect. There is no VFR weather minima with visibility of 0 statute miles.

50. (Refer to Figure 71 on page 343.) (Refer to Area 6.) Sky Way Airport is A. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots. B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. C. a nonpublic-use airport.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Sky Way Airport (southeast of 6) is a private, i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term "(Pvt)" after the airport name. Private airports that are shown on the sectional charts have an emergency or landmark value. Answer (A) is incorrect. Sky Way Airport (southeast of 6) is a private, i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term "(Pvt)" after the airport name. This does not mean that only private and recreational pilots may use the airport. Answer (B) is incorrect. Military airfields are labeled as AFB, NAS, AAF, NAAS, NAF, MCAS, or DND.

92. (Refer to Figure 63 on page 376.) According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport? A. 0900 - 0100 hr. local time. B. 1300 - 0500 hr. local time. C. 0800 - 0000 hr. local time

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The Airport Remarks of the Toledo Express (TOL) section of the Chart Supplement lists fuel and services as available from 1300-0500Z±. The t symbol specifies that during daylight saving time, the services are available 1 hr. earlier than shown. During standard time, 5 hr. are subtracted from Zulu time. During daylight saving time, 4 hr. are subtracted from 1200-0400 (1 hr. is already subtracted due to the t symbol). Answer (A) is incorrect. This answer subtracts 4 hr. from 1300-0500Z, neglecting to consider the 1 additional earlier hr. Answer (B) is incorrect. This answer is when services are available expressed as Zulu during standard time. The answers are all given in local time, and the question asks about fuel and services in September, which is during daylight saving time.

22. (Refer to Figure 22 on page 323.) (Refer to Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are A. 1 mile and clear of clouds. B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. C. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The airspace around Sandpoint Airport is Class G airspace from the surface to 700 ft. AGL and Class E airspace from 700 ft. AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, 1,200 ft. AGL is within Class E airspace. The VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements for operations in Class E airspace below 10,000 ft. MSL are 3 miles and a distance of 1,000 ft. above, 500 ft. below, and 2,000 ft. horizontally from each cloud. Answer (A) is incorrect. One mile and clear of clouds are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for VFR operations in Class G, not Class E, airspace at or below 1,200 ft. AGL. Answer (B) is incorrect. One mile and 1,000 ft. above, 500 ft. below, and 2,000 ft. horizontally are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for VFR operations in Člass G, not Class E, airspace at more than, not at, 1,200 ft. AGL but less than 10,000 ft. MSL.

79. (Refer to Figure 31 on page 369, and Figure 22 on page 368.) (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel? A. 135.075 MHz. B. 122.1/108.8 MHz. C. 122.8 MHz.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The correct frequency to request fuel at the Coeur D'Alene Airport is the UNICOM frequency 122.8. It is given in Fig. 22, after "L74" in the airport information on the sectional chart. Radio frequencies are also given in Fig. 31, the Chart Supplement, under "Communications." Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the AWOS frequency for Coeur D'Alene Airport. Answer (B) is incorrect. The COÉ VOR/ DME frequency, not the UNICOM, is 108.8, and 122.1 is not a frequency associated with Coeur D'Alene Airport.

64. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 355.) (Refer to Area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a A. compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace. B. compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport. C. visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The magenta (reddish) flag (west of 2) at Lake Drummond signifies that the lake is a visual check-point that can be used to identify the position for initial callup to the Norfolk approach control. Answer (A) is incorrect. Compulsory reporting points are on IFR, not sectional, charts. They are used on IFR flights. Answer (B) is incorrect. Compulsory reporting points are on IFR, not sectional, charts. They are used on IFR flights.

48. (Refer to Figure 70 on page 341.) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight? A. 6,000 feet MSL. B. 4,200 feet MSL. C. 3,200 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The maximum elevation figure (MEF) is shown in each quadrangle bounded by latitude and longitude tick marks. The MEF in the quadrangle that is just east of Gnoss Airport consists of a large "3" and a somewhat smaller "2," which mean the MEF is 3,200 feet MSL. In the quadrangle that contains Buchanan Airport, the MEF is south of the airport. The large "2" and the somewhat smaller "4" mean the MEF is 2,400 feet MSL. Thus, on a flight from Gnoss Airport to Buchanan Airport, the MEF that would ensure obstacle clearance is 3,200 feet. Answer (A) is incorrect. The shelf of Class B airspace is 6,000 feet MSL. That portion of Class B airspace is from 6,000 feet MSL to 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. This would be the MEF to ensure obstruction clearance on a flight from Gnoss Airport to Livermore Airport (Area 5), not on a flight from Gnoss Airport to Buchanan Airport.

39. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 333.) (Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are A. 1 mile and clear of clouds. B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČUSSION: The airspace over the town of Cooperstown (Fig. 26, north of 2) is Class G airspace up to 700 feet AGL, and Class E airspace from 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for daylight VFR operation over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally. Answer (A) is incorrect. One mile and clear of clouds are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for daylight VFR operation over the town of Cooperstown up to, but not above, 700 feet AGL (i.e., the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL). Answer (B) is incorrect. One mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for daylight VFR operations at or above The airspace above Cooperstown is Class E above 700 feet 1,200 feet AGL, but below 10,000 feet MSL, in Class G airspace. AGL.

27. (Refer to Figure 24 on page 327.) (Refer to Area 2.) What minimum altitude is to necessary vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? A. 823 feet MSL. B. 1,013 feet MSL. C. 1,403 feet MSL.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The first step is to find the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport on Fig. 24, near 2. The elevation numbers to the right of the obstruction symbol indicate that its top is 903 feet MSL or a height of 323 feet AGL. Thus, the clearance altitude is 1,403 feet MSL (903 feet MSL + 500 feet of clearance). Answer (A) is incorrect. Since the obstacle height is 323 feet AGL (number in parentheses), the minimum altitude to clear the obstacle by 500 feet is 823 feet AGL, not 823 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is 500 feet above the airport elevation (513 feet MSL), not 500 feet above the top of the obstacle height of 903 feet.