AAMC MCAT Practice Exam 1

Selye's general adaptation syndrome

predictable way the body responds to stress The first stage is the alarm stage, which provides a burst of energy. In the second stage, known as the resistance stage, the body attempts to resist or adapt to the stressor. The last stage is known as the exhaustion stage because energy is depleted.

role conflict

a situation in which a person is expected to play two incompatible roles

correlational study

determines whether or not two variables are correlated This means to study whether an increase or decrease in one variable corresponds to an increase or decrease in the other variable

An RNA molecule has 1500 bases. What is the maximum number of amino acids it can encode? A) 500 B) 1000 C) 1500 D) 4500

A) 500 The answer to this question is A because each amino acid is encoded by three bases, so 1500/3 is 500, which is the maximum of amino acids the RNA molecule can encode.

Which measure would be most useful if the researchers were interested in the degree of sympathetic arousal experienced in the different conditions of Study 1? A) A measure of electrical conductivity of the skin B) A CT scan of the hindbrain C) A PET scan of the parietal cortex D) A measure of melatonin levels

A) A measure of electrical conductivity of the skin The answer to this question is A because increased electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased sympathetic arousal, which is associated with anxiety.

Which finding would support the validity of the DMQ measure? A) A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores B) A negative correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores C) A positive correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ D) A negative correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ

A) A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores The answer to this question is A because a valid measure is one that actually measures what it is intended to assess. Because both the DMQ (a self-report measure) and the CG (a behavioral measure) were intended to assess risky behavior, a positive correlation between the two measures would support the validity of the DMQ measure.

Which statement does NOT identify an aspect of the concept of assimilation? A) Assimilation is the influence that cultural changes have on an individual's health. B) Assimilation is the process of cultural adaptation that results from geographic mobility. C) Assimilation occurs when individuals adopt the cultural norms of a dominant culture. D) Assimilation occurs when individuals relinquish the cultural norms of their childhood.

A) Assimilation is the influence that cultural changes have on an individual's health. The answer to this question is A. Assimilation is related to the process of social integration and generally refers to when new members adopt the main elements of a culture. The other response options each provide an aspect of the definition of assimilation (cultural adaptation, adopting new norms, and relinquishing old norms). However, the answer does NOT describe assimilation. Instead, it speculates about a possible consequence of assimilation.

Based on the findings in the study, which conclusion about ADHD is most likely? A) Immediate performance feedback reduces impulsive responding in children with ADHD. B) Exposure to a gaming element increases impulsive responding in children with ADHD. C) Gaming elements on working memory tasks place high demands on divided attention and inhibit focus. D) Low levels of intrinsic motivation in children with ADHD are minimally enhanced with external reinforcers.

A) Immediate performance feedback reduces impulsive responding in children with ADHD. The answer to this question is A because the children in the gaming condition received immediate feedback after each response. In addition, they attempted more sequences and made fewer errors than children in the non-gaming condition. Therefore, children in the gaming condition most likely showed less impulsivity in terms of response selection, compared to children in the non-gaming condition.

Based on the study, which extrinsic factor most likely accounts for the motivational differences between groups? A) Rewards and losses tied to memory performance for the gaming group B) The presence of animated characters in the visual display for the gaming group C.The opportunity to stop playing the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups D.The opportunity to state they disliked the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups

A) Rewards and losses tied to memory performance for the gaming group The answer to this question is A. In the gaming task, each correct response increased the player's strength and weakened the opponent. Each incorrect response weakened the player and increased the opponent's strength. The gains and losses of points provided immediate feedback, which shaped subsequent performance. Response B is incorrect because the presence or absence of animated figures was not contingent on the participant's responses.

Compared to the simultaneous condition, the serial condition of the experiment would be more likely to cause: A) a primacy effect B) a state dependency effect C) a misinformation effect D) a dual-coding effect

A) a primacy effect The answer to this question is A because, in the serial condition, the objects are presented to the participants one at a time, which might result in better memory for events at the beginning of the series (a primacy effect).

The process of culturing bacteria often involves inoculation of cells on a noncellular, agar-based medium. Such a methodology would NOT result in growth of animal viruses because animal viruses: A) are obligate parasites B) lack DNA C) assimilate carbon D) require essential vitamin supplements for growth

A) are obligate parasites The answer is A because viruses can only reproduce in a host cell, and are therefore obligate intracellular parasites.

Research findings indicate higher levels of patient trust and physician attention in race-concordant physician-patient relationships because: A) both the physician and patient belong to the same in-group. B) the physician and patient share similar levels of status. C) of racial hostility present in race-discordant relationships. D) of the lack of role strain experienced by the physician.

A) both the physician and patient belong to the same in-group. "The correct answer is A. Members of in-groups share common backgrounds and similar identities, which generally result in high levels of trust among in-group members. Racial/ethnic identity can be an important characteristic of an in-group, resting in a shared culture, language, or community."

Which type of bond is formed by glycogen synthase upon release of UDP? A) α-1,4-Glycosidic bond B) α-1,6-Glycosidic bond C) β-1,4-Glycosidic bond D) β-1,6-Glycosidic bond

A) α-1,4-Glycosidic bond The answer is A because the bond that is formed by glycogen synthase is the main chain linkage of glycogen, which is an α-1,4-glycosidic bond. UDP release means that only glucose was added.

A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing 15N, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division. Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 15N medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? A) 5.4 fg only B) 5.4 fg and 5.45 fg C) 5.4 fg and 5.5 fg D) 5.45 fg only

B) 5.4 fg and 5.45 f The answer to this question is B because DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg (one DNA strand will contain 15N and the other strand 14N). Following the second round of cell division, half of the bacteria will have a genome mass of 5.4 fg (14N exclusively) and the other half a mass genome of 5.45 fg (14N in one DNA strand and 15N in the other).

If adults performed the block tapping task as a measure of working memory capacity, they would most likely replicate sequences of what length correctly? A) 9 plus or minus 1 B) 7 plus or minus 2 C) 10 plus or minus 1 D) 16 plus or minus 2

B) 7 plus or minus 2 The answer to this question is B because early memory research with adults led to the belief that the capacity of working memory was between 5 and 9 items. The so-called "magic number 7 ± 2" was the name George Miller (1956) gave to this estimate.

Which term refers to closed status positions that hinder social mobility? A) Class systems B) Caste systems C) Economic systems D) Financial systems

B) Caste systems The correct answer is B. Caste systems describe closed stratification systems that do not allow for social mobility.

Harlequin ichthyosis, a rare genetic disorder, causes the skin to become thick and scaly. Flaking skin behind the eyelids of individuals with this condition is most likely to damage which structure of the eye? A) Choroid B) Cornea C) Lens D) Retina

B) Cornea The answer to this question is B because the cornea is in direct contact with the eyelid and is thus most susceptible to damage from flaking skin.

According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which group of participants are most likely dealing with the challenges of generativity versus stagnation? I. Adolescents II. Young adults III. Adults A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only

B) III only The answer to this question is B because, in Erikson's theory, the generativity versus self-absorption crisis occurs in mid-adulthood. Thus, the adults compose the only age group that is likely to experience this stage.

Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way? A) Chemically B) Mechanically C) Electrically D) Synaptically

B) Mechanically The answer to this question is B because hair cells of the cochlea are specialized mechanoreceptors.

A student hypothesized that EC growth might be affected by the DNA from circulating erythrocytes. Is this student's hypothesis reasonable? A) No; the DNA in circulating erythrocytes is needed to help transport O2 through the capillaries. B) No; circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA. C) Yes; DNA is responsible for cell division in most cells. D) Yes; circulating erythrocytes carry DNA nutrients through the capillaries.

B) No; circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA. The answer to this question is B because mammalian erythrocytes (red blood cells) lose their nuclei during maturation. Therefore, circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA that could affect endothelial cell growth.

Which type of memory would most likely be activated first during the computer task, before working memory is activated? A) Implicit memory B) Sensory memory C) Short-term memory D) Episodic memory

B) Sensory memory The answer to this question is B because seeing squares light up on the computer screen would register with visual sensors, forming a sensory memory before working memory is activated.

Researchers hypothesize that experiencing a certain scent while viewing paintings of flowers will influence the viewers' ratings of attractiveness of the paintings. Researchers dispensed a floral scent in one room with paintings and no scent in another room with paintings. Which statement is accurate regarding the study? A) The study's design is an observational study since viewers were observing paintings and noting their ratings. B) The independent variable is the presence or absence of scent in the rooms. C) The dependent variable is the amount of time viewers spent observing paintings. D) Informing viewers ahead of time whether a scent was absent or present in the room is important for accurate ratings.

B) The independent variable is the presence or absence of scent in the rooms. The answer to this question is B because the presence or absence of scent in the rooms is the manipulated variable.

Glucose transporter proteins in the liver do not require the presence of insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose. However, insulin does stimulate the first step in the glycolytic pathway within the liver. Therefore, in liver cells, insulin most likely: A) hinders glucose uptake by increasing the cellular concentration of glucose. B) aids glucose uptake by decreasing the cellular concentration of glucose. C) hinders glucose uptake by using the ATP needed by the glucose transporter proteins. D) aids glucose uptake by providing the ATP needed by the glucose transporter proteins.

B) aids glucose uptake by decreasing the cellular concentration of glucose. The answer to this question is B because the stem states that insulin stimulates the first step in the glycolytic pathway in the liver, thus decreasing the cellular concentration of glucose. This results in increased uptake of glucose to maintain the cellular concentration of glucose.

In general, telomeres are NOT important to bacterial cells because most bacterial chromosomes: A) do not replicate B) are circular. C) replicate quickly and efficiently. D) are composed of single-stranded DNA

B) are circular. The answer to this question is B because in most prokaryotes, DNA is circular and therefore does not have the repetitive, non-coding nucleotide sequences called telomeres that occur in eukaryotic DNA.

Normally, a hypothalamic factor stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In a patient with Addison's disease, the secretion of the hypothalamic factor will: "Addison's disease occurs when cells of the adrenal cortex are destroyed, leaving the gland unable to secrete either glucocorticoids or mineralocorticoids." A) be lower than normal B) be higher than normal C) be unchanged D) increase before disease onset and decrease thereafter.

B) be higher than normal The answer to this question is B because ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids. According to the passage, Addison's disease occurs when cells of the adrenal cortex are destroyed, rendering them unable to secrete glucocorticoids. As part of a hormone cascade pathway, ACTH secretion is expected to be higher than normal in a patient with Addison's disease to attempt to stimulate the adrenal cortex.

According to Maintenance Factor 1, mild changes in bodily sensations act as: "Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1)" A) unconditioned stimuli B) conditioned stimuli C) unconditioned responses D) conditioned responses

B) conditioned stimuli The answer to this question is B because, according to Maintenance Factor 1, mild changes in bodily sensations become cues that are associated with excessive panic. Thus, those mild changes in bodily sensations become conditioned stimuli, which elicit the conditioned fear response.

The findings described in the passage suggest that memory for locations: A) is comparable to adults by nine years of age B) is influenced by categorical knowledge C) becomes more accurate with age D) relies solely on recall of distances

B) is influenced by categorical knowledge The answer to this question is B because the nine-year-olds performed differently from adults, suggesting that spatial memory keeps undergoing changes after nine years of age. Because this categorical bias was present in adults, spatial memory does not necessarily become more accurate with age. Because world knowledge about categories affects people's judgments of distance, it is not accurate to say that spatial memory relies solely on the recall of distances.

If a patient with Addison's disease is given too high a replacement dose of glucocorticoids, the effect over time will be an increase in: A) muscle mass B) muscle weakness C) red blood cell count D) heart rate

B) muscle weakness The answer to this question is B because glucocorticoids act on skeletal muscle causing the breakdown of muscle proteins. Therefore, if a patient is given too high a replacement dose of glucocorticoids, this will result in muscle weakness.

What is the advantage of including a specially trained cultural liaison as opposed to training physicians in cultural competency? A) Communicating across racial and cultural lines is difficult and requires a trained specialist to do it effectively. B) Physicians are inherently resistant to cultural training because of their medical biases. C) Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group. D) Larger groups facilitate the transfer of information more effectively than smaller groups.

C) Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group. From the perspective of basic group dynamics in sociology, larger groups are generally considered more stable but less intimate, whereas smaller groups are usually considered less stable but more intimate. Dyads, two-person groups such as the physician-patient group, are unstable because either party can break the single social tie. The triad, three person groups such as the physician-patient-cultural liaison group, is considered relatively more stable because of the additional social ties.

Exercise promotes the insulin-independent uptake of glucose in working skeletal muscles. Given this, regular exercise would most likely reduce blood glucose levels in patients with which type(s) of diabetes? "There are two main types of diabetes. Many cases of Type 1 diabetes, in which the body is unable to produce insulin, are caused by an autoimmune response directed against pancreatic β cells. While the body often produces normal-to-elevated amounts of insulin in Type 2 diabetes, its ability to respond to insulin is compromised." A) Type 1 only B) Type 2 only C) Both Type 1 and Type 2 D) Neither Type 1 nor Type 2

C) Both Type 1 and Type 2 The answer to this question is C because the stem states that exercise promotes the insulin-independent uptake of glucose and thus it will reduce blood glucose levels both in patients with impaired production of insulin (type 1 diabetes), and in patients who do not respond to insulin (type 2 diabetes).

During the production of insulin, the translated polypeptide is cleaved into the mature form and secreted from the cell. The cleavage most likely takes place in which of the following locations? A) Nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Endomembrane system D) Cytoplasm

C) Endomembrane system The answer to this question is C because secreted proteins such as insulin are cleaved into mature form within endomembrane system.

Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample? A) More participants had a BMI over 25 than a BMI under 25. B) The majority of participants had a BMI between 25 and 30. C) Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25. D) More outliers among the participants had a BMI under 25 than a BMI over 30.

C) Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25. The answer to this question is option C because the median splits the sample distribution of values in half. Thus, a median of 25 can be described as half the sample having a BMI over 25 and half having a BMI under 25. The statements in the other options do not correctly describe the sample data in the question.

The aldosterone deficiency associated with Addison's disease will cause a decrease in the serum levels of all of the following ions EXCEPT: "Aldosterone, the primary mineralocorticoid, maintains ionic balance by causing conservation of Na+ and excretion of K+." A) Na+ ions B) Cl- ions C) K+ ions D) HCO3- ions

C) K+ ions The answer to this question is C because the passage states that aldosterone causes excretion of K+. Therefore, aldosterone deficiency will not lead to a decrease in serum levels of K+ ions.

Based on the study, which assessment represents a subjective measure of motivation? A) The number of grid sequences participants attempted to solve on the computer task B) The participants' decision to continue playing the game or stop to read a magazine C) Participants' answers on the exit questionnaire D) Participants' time spent not playing the game using the computer mouse

C) Participants' answers on the exit questionnaire The answer to this question is C because the only subjective measures taken in the study were the participants' responses to the exit questionnaire, in which they provided their personal opinions and degree to which they liked the game. Unlike the other options, which referred to more objective (direct) measures, these subjective responses provided an indirect measure of motivation.

Based on the findings in the passage, engaging in synchronous behaviors is most likely to lead to an increase in: A) egocentrism B) observational learning C) obedience D) social facilitation

C) obedience The answer to this question is C because, based on Study 2's finding that synchrony can increase compliance, it may also increase obedience.

Because cultural liaisons work closely with physicians and are advocates for patients, which phenomenon are cultural liaisons most likely to experience? A) Network redundancy because of the amount of people with whom they come into contact B) Homogeneity because they will see the same patients over and over C) Role strain because of their collegiality with physicians and their responsibility to patients D) Role conflict because of their status as a non-medical professional in a clinic setting

C) Role strain because of their collegiality with physicians and their responsibility to patients The correct answer is C. Role strain is the tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single role. As applied to the question, the tension that the cultural liaison experiences is between different responsibilities within the same occupational role. If the tension existed between different roles that a single individual held, then it would be considered role conflict.

A student is investigating the bystander effect and receives permission to conduct the study in the school cafeteria. What is a potential dependent variable that can be measured by the student? A) The time of day that the experiment is carried out B) The number of people present in the cafeteria C) The amount of time a student takes to assist another student in distress D) The temperature in the cafeteria

C) The amount of time a student takes to assist another student in distress The answer to this question is C because the amount of time a student takes to help another student in the cafeteria is the only option that represents a measurable indication of the helping response, which is the dependent variable in studies of the bystander effect.

Which explanation of the results of Study 1 presents the most appropriate application of the optimal arousal theory? Reminding participants of: A) their membership in a stereotyped group leads to optimal arousal, which results in varying levels of performance depending on ability. B.( their membership in a stereotyped group leads to fluctuating arousal and results in poor performance. C) a negative stereotype associated with their identity increases arousal beyond what is optimal and leads to poor performance. D) a positive stereotype associated with them eliminates arousal completely, which results in optimal performance.

C) a negative stereotype associated with their identity increases arousal beyond what is optimal and leads to poor performance. The answer to this question is C. Optimal arousal theory states that optimal performance requires optimal arousal and that arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance. Option C is compatible with this theory because it suggests that poor performance is a consequence of increased arousal levels resulting from negative stereotype activation.

If the participants in Study 1 differed in the degree to which their ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concept, which outcome would be most likely? Participants whose ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concepts would: A) be more affected by the gender stereotypes regarding their math performance. B) not be affected by the negative stereotype regarding women's math ability. C) be more affected by the positive stereotype regarding Asian Americans' math ability. D) perform the same regardless of which condition they were placed in.

C) be more affected by the positive stereotype regarding Asian Americans' math ability. The answer to this question is C because people whose ethnic identity is a central part of their self-concept would be more prone to the effects of stereotype threat regarding their ethnic identity. This does not mean that they would not be affected by gender stereotypes or affected by the conditions of the experiment.

The researchers collected data on participants' heart rates and electrical skin conductance at different stages of the experiment. Which pattern would verify that the independent variable had the intended effect? Heart rate and skin conductance are higher: A) for all the participants before they participate in the first phase of the experiment compared to after. B) for the participants who chose to share $120 compared to those who chose to walk away with $30. C) for the participants in the stress group than for the participants in the control group. D) for all the participants before they participate in the second phase of the experiment compared to after.

C) for the participants in the stress group than for the participants in the control group. The answer to this question is C because the independent variable in the study was exposure to a stressor. The stress group (who expected to give a presentation) should differ from the control group (who did not expect to give a presentation). The stress response is associated with elevated heart rate and skin conductance. Therefore, the stress condition should lead to higher scores on these variables.

The most rapid rate of gluconeogenesis will most likely occur in the body when: A) blood glucose levels are high B) cortisol release is inhibited C) the body's stores of carbohydrates are low D) the body's stores of proteins are low

C) the body's stores of carbohydrates are low The answer to this question is C, because gluconeogenesis is the pathway for the synthesis of glucose from other metabolic compounds and thus it is activated when the body's stores of carbohydrates are low.

Correct Correct answerYour answer A B C D✓ Time Spent: 2 mins 34 secs Content & Skills CC1CFC1BIOSIRS2 Assume that K and M are two unlinked genes that affect hearing. The dominant K allele is necessary for hearing, and the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present. Given this, what fraction of the offspring of parents with the genotypes KkMm and Kkmm will most likely be deaf? A) 1/4 B) 3/8 C) 1/2 D) 5/8

D) 5/8 The answer to this question is D, because among the offspring of KkMm and Kkmm parents, the ones who lack a dominant K allele (necessary for hearing), or carry a dominant M allele (causes deafness) are deaf. Based on the Punnett square analysis, 10 out of 16 or 5/8 of all offspring are likely to be deaf.

Which of the following best describes the bond that would form between the following two nucleotides if they were located adjacent to each other as shown in a single strand of DNA? 5' thymine & 3' adenine A) A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the phosphate of the adenine B) A bond between an oxygen in the thymine base and a nitrogen in the adenine base C) A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the sugar of the adenine D) A bond between the phosphate of the adenine and the sugar of the thymine

D) A bond between the phosphate of the adenine and the sugar of the thymine The answer to this question is D because nucleotides are linked to one another by phosphodiester bonds between the sugar base of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the adjacent nucleotide in a way that the 5' end bears a phosphate, and the 3' end a hydroxyl group.

Damage to which nervous system structure is most likely to cause problems in the participants' ability to perform the synchronous behaviors in studies 1 and 2? "The participants' task was to tap their fingers to a metronome in two different testing conditions: with an experimenter who tapped her finger to the same metronome (synchronous condition) or with an experimenter who tapped her finger to another metronome (asynchronous condition)." A) Hippocampus B) Hypothalamus C) Cochlea D) Cerebellum

D) Cerebellum The answer to this question is D because the cerebellum is most likely to be involved in the execution of a coordinated motor task.

During an action potential, the movement of sodium ions into a neuron causes the neuronal membrane to do which of the following? A) Inactivate B) Hyperpolarize C) Repolarize D) Depolarize

D) Depolarize The answer to this question is D because the movement of sodium ions into a neuron during an action potential results in opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels, causing further depolarization.

The pericytes used in these experiments were probably in which phase of the cell cycle? "Pericytes, smooth-muscle cells, and fibroblasts were growth-arrested—that is, treated so that they would not divide but other metabolic processes would function normally." A) Telophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Interphase

D) Interphase The question asks the examinee to identify the phase of the cell cycle in which the growth of the pericytes was arrested. According to the passage, the pericytes were treated so that they would not divide but would, from a metabolic perspective, continue to function normally. Three of the listed options (A, B, and C) are phases of mitosis and thus, occur during cell division. Interphase (D) is the phase of the cell cycle between cell divisions and is the phase in which the cell obtains nutrients, grows, reads its DNA, and conducts other "normal" cell functions. Thus, D is the best answer.

A researcher suggests that the effect of the testing condition on the affiliation ratings is caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to performing a repetitive behavior. Is this explanation likely to be supported? A) Yes, because studies show that increased sympathetic nervous system arousal can affect how people feel about others. B) Yes, because the design used in Study 1 allows researchers to establish the effect of sympathetic nervous system arousal on affiliation ratings. C) No, because performing repetitive behaviors is more likely to increase parasympathetic nervous system activity. D) No, because both of the conditions involve repetitive behaviors, but participants' ratings differ under the two conditions.

D) No, because both of the conditions involve repetitive behaviors, but participants' ratings differ under the two conditions. The answer to this question is D because the participants engaged in repetitive activities in both the synchronous and asynchronous testing conditions. Therefore, if sympathetic nervous system arousal had caused the differences in the affiliation ratings, only the synchronous condition would have been affected.

If this study were replicated, which hypothesis would most likely be supported? A) Regular employees with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. B) Workplace supervisors with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. C) Organizational culture is the primary determinant of whether minority populations are excluded from a workplace. D) The interplay between a supervisor's stereotypical views and an organization that fosters those stereotypes would be more detrimental to minority group members.

D) The interplay between a supervisor's stereotypical views and an organization that fosters those stereotypes would be more detrimental to minority group members. The correct answer is D. The study in the passage calls attention to the interplay of individual attitudes and overall organizational culture. Given the results of the study, it is expected that minority group members would be more likely to experience unfair treatment when individual bias is allowed to exist in an organization. The incorrect options do not address the combination of individual factors and organizational culture; only the correct answer brings these aspects of the study together.

No drowsiness was initially felt by the alcoholic because the previous abuse of alcohol had: "cP-450 is inducible. That is, when an organism is challenged by a new toxin or by increased concentrations of a toxin, the organism can increase its concentration of cP-450 and thus metabolize and excrete the toxin more effectively." A) denatured the cP-450. B) inhibited the cP-450. C) reduced the cP-450. D) induced the cP-450.

D) induced the cP-450. The answer to this question is D, because the passage states that cP-450 is inducible and thus previous abuse of alcohol, a cellular toxin, results in an increased concentration of cP-450. This leads to rapid barbiturate metabolism by cP-450 and the absence of initial drowsiness.

Sociologists describe the health benefits of social support as resulting from all of the following EXCEPT: A) friends and family members that help patients adhere to medical treatment. B) friends and family members that help patients to reduce harmful behaviors. C) social relationships that help individuals to cope with stressful events. D) social activities that help individuals to avoid loneliness and boredom.

D) social activities that help individuals to avoid loneliness and boredom. The answer to this question is D. Social support refers to social network ties (friends, family, and other relationships) that provide an individual with various types of assistance, which are associated with improving health or reducing harm. All of the response options except for D address the health benefits of networks. The correct answer identifies activities rather than relationships.

R vs. S stereochemistry*

R = clockwise C = counter-clockwise

According to the developed chromatography plate shown below, what is the approximate Rf value of aspartic acid? aspartic acid = 2 solvent front = 10 A) 0.20 B) 0.50 C) 5 D) 10

The answer to this question is A (0.20) because Rf is the ratio of the distance travelled by the analyte relative to the solvent front during a chromatographic separation. Aspartic acid travelled two units, while the solvent front travelled ten units, giving an Rf of 2/10 = 0.20 for aspartic acid.

classical conditioning

a learning process that occurs when two stimuli are repeatedly paired: a response which is at first elicited by the second stimuli is eventually elicited by the first stimulus alone

social network

a network of individuals (such as friends, acquaintances, and coworkers) connected by interpersonal relationships

self-concept

an idea of the self constructed from the beliefs one holds about oneself and the responses of others

PET scan

an imaging test that allows your doctor to check for diseases in your body

experimental methods

an independent variable (the cause) is manipulated and the dependent variable (the effect) is measured; any extraneous variables are controlled

conditioned response

automatic response established by training to an ordinarily neutral stimulus

extrinsic motivation

behavior that is driven by external rewards

intrinsic motivation

behavior that is driven by internal rewards

short-term memory

capacity for holding, but not manipulating, a small amount of information in mind in an active, readily available state for a short period of time

automatic processing

does not require us to pay attention, nor do we have to deliberately put in effort to control it

social reproduction

emphasis on structures and activities that transmit social inequality from one generation to the next

quantitative methods

emphasize objective measurements and the statistical, mathematical, or numerical analysis of data collected through polls, questionnaires, and surveys, or by manipulating pre-existing statistical data using computational techniques

dishabituation

fast recovery of a response that has undergone habituation, typically as a result of the presentation of a novel, strong, or sometimes noxious stimulus

habituation

form of learning in which an organism decreases or ceases its responses to a stimulus after repeated or prolonged presentations

chunking

group together (connected items or words) so that they can be stored or processed as single concepts

social support

having friends and other people, including family, to turn to in times of need or crisis to give you a broader focus and positive self-image enhances quality of life and provides a buffer against adverse life events

divided attention

higher-level skill where you have to perform two (or more) tasks at the same time, and attention is required for the performance of both (or all) tasks

linguistic relativity

holds that the structure of a language affects its speakers' world view or cognition

affective processes

include all feelings and responses, positive or negative, related to emotion-laden behavior, knowledge, or beliefs

psychodynamic approach

includes all theories in psychology that see human functioning based upon the interaction of drives and forces within the person, particularly unconscious, and between the different structures of the personality

negative punishment

includes taking away a certain reinforcing item after the undesired behavior happens in order to decrease future responses

experimental study

investigator artificially manipulates study factors or subjects

positive punishment

involves adding an aversive consequence after an undesired behavior is emitted to decrease future responses

primacy effect

items at the beginning of a list or string of information are more easily recalled than items in the middle

episodic memory

memory of autobiographical events (times, places, associated emotions, and other contextual who, what, when, where, why knowledge) that can be explicitly stated or conjured.

operant conditioning

method of learning that occurs through rewards and punishments for behavior an individual makes an association between a particular behavior and a consequence

sensory perception

neurophysiological processing of stimuli in the environment

longitudinal study

observational research method in which data is gathered for the same subjects repeatedly over a period of time

negative reinforcement

occurs when a certain stimulus is removed after a particular behavior is exhibited to increase future responses

humanistic approach

perspective that emphasizes looking at the whole individual and stresses concepts such as free will, self-efficacy, and self-actualization

state dependency effect

phenomenon through which memory retrieval is most efficient when an individual is in the same state of consciousness as they were when the memory was formed

gentrification

process of renovating deteriorated urban neighborhoods by means of the influx of more affluent residents

bottom-up processing

refers to processing sensory information as it is coming in data-driven

group polarization

refers to the tendency for a group to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclination of its members

discriminatory stimuli

respond only to the original stimulus, and not to other similar stimuli

role strain

role strain is experienced within one particular role

survey methods

studies the sampling of individual units from a population and associated techniques, such as questionnaire construction and methods for improving the number and accuracy of responses

trait approach

studying personality that places emphasis on the traits of an individual as markers of personality

optimal arousal theory

suggests that people are driven to perform actions in order to maintain an optimum level of physiological arousal

priming

technique whereby exposure to one stimulus influences a response to a subsequent stimulus, without conscious guidance or intention

stimulus generalization

tendency for the conditioned stimulus to evoke similar responses after the response has been conditioned

social facilitation

the audience effect; tendency for people to perform differently when in the presence of others than when alone Compared to their performance when alone, when in the presence of others, they tend to perform better on simple or well-rehearsed tasks and worse on complex or new ones.

choroid

the pigmented vascular layer of the eyeball between the retina and the sclera provides oxygen and nourishment to the outer layers of the retina

assimilation

the process whereby a minority group gradually adapts to the customs and attitudes of the prevailing culture

spreading activation theory

theory of how the brain iterates through a network of associated ideas to retrieve specific information

retina

thin layer of tissue that lines the back of the eye on the inside (located near the optic nerve) receives light that the lens has focused, converts the light into neural signals, and sends these signals on to the brain for visual recognition

cornea

transparent layer forming the front of the eye controls and focuses the entry of light into the eye

How will the rate of a catalyzed reaction be affected if the solid catalyst is finely ground before it is added to the reaction mixture? A) The rate will be faster because a greater mass of catalyst will be present. B) The rate will be faster because a greater surface area of catalyst will be exposed. C) The rate will be slower because the fine catalyst particles will interfere with product formation. D) The rate will remain the same because the mass of catalyst will be the same.

B) The rate will be faster because a greater surface area of catalyst will be exposed. The answer to this question is B because grinding a heterogeneous catalyst increases the amount of catalyst available to the reaction and therefore increases its rate.

CARS: The author's analysis of image-making rests on the assumption that a capitalist society separates: A) advertising from entertainment B) private perception from social order C) diseases that afflict society from their cures D) free political choice from free economic consumption

B) private perception from social order The answer is B. In paragraph 3, the author distinguishes the aesthetic approach from the instrumental approach to image-making. The first is matched up with private perception ("Cameras capture and 'fix' impressions from that mythical space known as private perception"); and the second linked to the social order ("cameras also arm vision in the service of power - of the state. . . ."). In the next paragraph, this dichotomy is described as a capacity to "subjectify" reality and to "objectify it."

What is the total number of fused rings present in a steroid? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6

C) 4 The answer to this question is C because a steroid is defined by its fused 4-ring structure.

A person whose eye has a lens-to-retina distance of 2.0 cm, can only clearly see objects that are closer than 1.0 m away. What is the strength S of the person's eye lens? (Note: Use the thin lens formula 1/O + 1/I = S) A) -50 D B) -10 D C) 51 D D) 55 D

C) 51 D The answer to this question is C because the strength of the eye lens is equal to the inverse of the focal length of the eye lens. Its numerical value is given by (1 m)-1+(0.02 m)-1=1 D+50 D=51 D.

The source of the phosphate groups that are added to rhodopsin is: "Wild-type or variant rhodopsin was reconstituted with 11-cis-retinal and phosphorylated by rhodopsin kinase in the presence of ATP before examining arrestin binding" A) arrestin B) rhodopsin kinase C) ATP D) all-trans-retinol

C) ATP The answer is C because the requirement of ATP for kinase activity implies the phosphate groups come from ATP.

What type of functional group is formed when aspartic acid reacts with another amino acid to form a peptide bond? A) An amine group B) An aldehyde group C) An amide group D) A carboxyl group

C) An amide group The answer to this question is C because the functional group that forms during peptide bond formation is known as an amide group.

Considering the structure of STN, what is the most likely mechanism for its entry into the cell? A) Active transport B) Receptor mediated endocytosis C) Diffusion directly through the membrane D) Passage through an ion channel

C) Diffusion directly through the membrane The answer is C because the structure of STN shows sufficient planarity and hydrophobicity to pass through the membrane by simple diffusion.

Which reaction is catalyzed by LipA? A) ATP hydrolysis B) Peptide bond cleavage C) Hydrolysis of triacylglycerides D) Transfer of carboxyl groups

C) Hydrolysis of triacylglycerides The answer is C because the fact that LipA is a lipase, which means it must hydrolyze fatty acids.

The data in Figure 1 show that: A) the unfolding of LipA proteins is a non-reversible process. B) exposure to high temperature eliminates any variant protein activity. C) variation in the flexible regions of LipA decreases the temperature sensitivity of activity. D) wild-type LipA loses all activity when first heated to 50°C.

C) variation in the flexible regions of LipA decreases the temperature sensitivity of activity. The answer is C because the data show that variation of the flexible regions results in less temperature sensitivity of activity. Activity returns even when variants are exposed to high temperature.

Colchicine is a drug that prevents the formation of microtubules. Which of the following mitotic processes would NOT occur after exposure to this drug? A) Formation of new cell plate B) Replication of DNA during interphase C) Breakdown of the nucleolus during prophase D) Movement of the chromosomes toward opposite poles of the cell during anaphase

D) Movement of the chromosomes toward opposite poles of the cell during anaphase The answer to this question is D because microtubules function in chromosomal movements in cell division.

Based on the information in the passage, a mature AT1 mRNA is most likely to contain a sequence coding for which genetic factor(s)? A) Signal sequence B) Introns C) Promoter D) Nuclear localization signal

A) Signal sequence The answer to this question is A. The passage indicates that AT1 is a transmembrane protein. Transmembrane proteins enter the endomembrane system by docking at the rough ER. This is facilitated by using a signal sequence. Mature mRNAs are not likely to contain introns (B) or promoter sequences (C). A nuclear localization signal permits proteins to enter the nucleus. This is not likely for a transmembrane protein (D).

Gamma decay occurs when a nucleus emits: A) a photon B) a proton C) a neutron D) an electron

A) a photon The answer to this question is A because, by definition, gamma decay means the emission of photons by the nucleus.

If a man with a mutant copy of Ace2 has a child with a woman that is heterozygous for the mutant Ace2 allele, what is the probability that the child will be a female and homozygous for the mutant Ace2 allele? "loss-of-function mutations in the X-linked Ace2 gene" A) 0 B) 0.25 C) 0.75 D) 1

B) 0.25 The answer to this question is B because a cross between an affected male and an unaffected female carrier will produce an affected female approximately 25% of the time.

The production of a variety of opsins functions to: "Additional opsin based receptors are expressed in specialized cone cells" A) increase sensitivity to low light B) enable the detection of different colors C) ensure fast recovery of 11-cis retinal after exposure D) increase refractive index of the eye lens

B) enable the detection of different colors The answer to this question is B. The wavelength of light absorbed by a molecule depends on its structure, and so the production of a variety of structurally related opsins functions to enable the detection of different colors.

When the current in the micro-robot's circuit increases and the resistance of the circuit remains constant, the voltage of the circuit: A) decreases B) increases C) is constant D) is zero

B) increases V = IR The answer to this question is B because according to Ohm's law, current is equal to voltage divided by resistance. If current increases and resistance is constant, then voltage increases as well.

Compared to the wild-type LipA, what is the change in net charge in variant XI at pH 7? R33G K112D M134D Y139C I157M A) +4 B) +3 C) -3 D) -4

D) -4 The answer is D because the amino acid substitutions replace amino acids with charges of +1, +1, 0, 0, and 0 with ones that have charges of 0, −1, −1, 0, and 0 so the net charge goes from +2 to −2.

By what factor is the proton concentration increased in the experiments shown in Figure 1B from those shown in Figure 1A? Figure 1A - pH 7 Figure 1B - pH 4 A) 2 B) 10 C) 200 D) 1000

D) 1000 The answer to this question is D because the pH scale is logarithmic (pH = −log([H+]). A difference of 3 pH units corresponds to a 103 = 1000-fold difference in proton concentrations.

What fraction of a O-15 sample decays in 10 min? "The location of internal organs where changes in the calcium content occur can be found by placing positron-emitting isotopes such as O-15 (with a half-life = 2 min) into the patient's bloodstream) A) 1/8 B) 9/16 C) 3/4 D) 31/32

D) 31/32 The answer to this question is D because the half-life of 15O is 2 minutes; thus, 10 minutes = 5 half-lives. Therefore, only (1/2)5 = 1/32 of the sample will be left after 10 minutes, while 31/32 of the sample will decay.

A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up. It has a potential of 2.0 V. Assume that the resistance in the circuit is negligible compared to that of the lightbulb. Approximately how much current passes through the lightbulb? Resistance = 0.5 ohms A) 0.5 A B) 1.0 A C) 2.0 A D) 4.0 A

D) 4.0 A The answer to this question is D because according to Ohm's law, current is equal to voltage divided by resistance, hence 2.0 V/0.5 Ω = 4.0 A.

What is the energy of the photons emitted by the LED at a frequency of 610 THz? (Note: h = 6.6 × 10-34 J·s) A) 9.2 × 10-12 J B) 1.6 × 10-16 J C) 1.1 × 10-18 J D) 4.0 × 10-19 J

D) 4.0 × 10-19 J The answer to this question is D because the energy of a photon of frequency 610 THz is equal to 6.6 x 10-34 J•s x 610 x 1012 Hz = 4 x 10-19 J.

What volume of a 0.120 M CaI2 solution would contain 0.078 mol of the solute? A) 35.0 mL B) 65.0 mL C) 350 mL D) 650 mL

D) 650 mL The answer to this question is D. In order to obtain the volume of solution necessary to provide a given amount of solute in moles, one needs to take the number of moles and divide by the solution concentration in molarity.

Which amino acid residues were incorporated into Compound 1 to promote the adhesion of cells on the scaffold surfaces? A) Arg and Gly B) Cys and Gly C) Cys and Asp D) Asp and Arg

D) Asp and Arg The answer to this question is D. The residues that were engineered into the peptide for cell adhesion are arginine and aspartate as can be reasoned based on the structure of the peptide provided, and the description of the roles of the various residues provided in the passage.

A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in which X = Pb, Xn+ = Pb2+, Y = Cu, and Ym+ = Cu2+. Will an oxidation-reduction reaction occur spontaneously?* Pb2+(aq) + 2e- → Pb(s) E°red = -0.127 V Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s) E°red = +0.339 V A) No; E°cell = -0.212. B) No; E°cell = +0.212. C) Yes; E°cell = -0.466. D) Yes; E°cell = +0.466.

D) Yes; E°cell = +0.466. The answer to this question is D. A spontaneous reaction occurs when E° is greater than zero, and this occurs if the oxidation of Pb(s) is combined with the reduction of Cu2+(aq), resulting in a net E° of +0.466 V.

Compared to normal glycogen, the amount of what type of bond is decreased in Lafora bodies? "Lafora disease is a fatal progressive epilepsy that is characterized by the formation of deposits of sparsely branched, insoluble glycogen-like polymers called Lafora bodies" A) Phosphomonoester B) Phosphodiester C) a-1,4-glycosidic bond D) a-1,6-glycosidic bond

D) a-1,6-glycosidic bond The answer D because it is stated in the passage that the lack of branching is a characteristic of Lafora bodies. Branching occurs through an α-1,6-glycosidic bond in glycogen.

Enzymes alter the rate of chemical reactions by all of the following methods EXCEPT: A) co-localizing substrates B) altering local pH C) altering substrate shape D) altering substrate primary structure

D) altering substrate primary structure The primary structure of a protein substrate is the amino acid sequence of the protein. Enzymes cannot alter primary structures of protein, but can colocalize substrates, alter local pH, and alter substrate shape.

Which of the following types of orbitals of the central atom is involved in bonding in octahedral compounds? A) sp B) sp3 C) p D) d2 sp3

D) d2 sp3 The answer to this question is D because octahedral compounds have six σ bonds and no lone pairs. According to valence bond theory, the central atom requires the hybridization of six atomic orbitals, d2sp3.

The environment of the retinal binding site is most likely: "Rhodopsin is composed of opsin, a family of seven helix transmembrane proteins, and a covalently attached coenzyme, retinal." A) hydrophilic B) positively charged C) negatively charged D) hydrophobic

D) hydrophobic The answer to this question is D because retinal is composed of mainly carbon and hydrogen, making it largely hydrophobic.

The intensity of the radiation emitted by the oxygen sensor is directly proportional to the: A) propagation speed of the radiation B) wavelength of the radiation C) polarization of photons emitted D) number of photons emitted

D) number of photons emitted The answer to this question is D because the energy of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the number of photons, and the intensity of electromagnetic radiation is defined as energy emitted per unit time. Thus, intensity is directly proportional to the number of photons emitted.

CARS: The passage discussion of local content (paragraph 5) assumes which of the following? A) Students lack the ability to criticize "concrete realizations about observable communities". B) Materials that deal with social sciences should not be part of a rooted education. C) There is an "artificial boundary between the roles of student and citizen". D) Professors have traveled to distant communities more often than have the students they teach.

The answer is C. In paragraph 5, the author advocates a locally-based curriculum that is meant to allow students to do more than study "abstract theories [and] . . . airy generalizations. The author writes that this "rooted education . . . will tend to erase the artificial boundary between the roles of student and citizen." Because the author seeks to erase this boundary, the author must believe that such a boundary has been erected and enforced to begin with.

Which measurement unit CANNOT be used to express power? A) kg x m^2 x s^2 B) J x s^-1 C) ft x lb x s^-1 D) W

A) kg x m^2 x s^2 The answer to this question is A because the measurement unit of power is watt, defined as J/s = ft•lb/s = kg•m2/s3.

A man with a CRC mutation that results in the synthesis of HSP110ΔE9 and a woman that does not carry this mutation in any of her tissues have a child. What is the percent chance that the child will inherit the CRC mutation? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100%

A) 0% The answer to this question is A. According to the passage, HSP110ΔE9 transcripts are not present in noncancerous tissue of people with MSI CRC. This means that the deletion mutation in the HSP110 T17 microsatellite is a somatic, not germ line, mutation. Therefore, the mutation will not be inherited, and the percent chance that the child of a person with this mutation will inherit it is 0%.

Epilepsy may result in motor seizures due to massive synchronous firing of neurons in a small area of the cerebral cortex (the epileptic focus). Excitation spreads from the focus, involving an increasingly larger area of the cortex. A drug for the treatment of epilepsy would be most effective if it caused which of the following changes in the epileptic focus? A) An increase in the neuron-firing threshold B) An increase in extracellular Na+ concentration C) A decrease in axon-membrane permeability negative ions D) A decrease in the length of the depolarization stage

A) An increase in the neuron-firing threshold A drug that would best treat epilepsy, as described, should reduce the activity of the neurons in the epileptic focus, which are excitatory neurons based on their effect throughout the cortex. The answer to this question is A because increasing the threshold required to generate an action potential would decrease the chance that individual neurons would fire, thus reducing the overall amount of excitation that spreads from the epileptic focus throughout the cortex.

Which of the following terms best describes the role of ornithine decarboxylase in the reaction shown in Equation 1? A) Catalyst B) Cofactor C) Substrate D) Activator

A) Catalyst The answer is A because ornithine decarboxylase is an enzyme and enzymes are catalysts.

CARS: Which of the following findings would most weaken the author's explanation of the observed effects of class-size reductions? A) Class-size reductions in the early grades are effective regardless of whether the teachers use methods well suited to small classes. B) Raising teacher salaries produces much greater improvements in student performance than does reducing class sizes at all grade levels. C) When teachers emphasize personal interactions with students, academic achievement typically improves regardless of class size. D) Academic achievement levels are often low even when teachers use methods well suited to small classes.

A) Class-size reductions in the early grades are effective regardless of whether the teachers use methods well suited to small classes. The answer is A, because the author's explanation for improved performance in small classes rests on the fact that "some teachers, who already use methods well suited to smaller classes, do very well when they are actually given small classes." If, however, early grades showed improvements in student performance in smaller classes regardless of teaching techniques, then this would clearly weaken the author's explanation for the effects of class-size reductions.

Which of the following statements gives the most fundamental reason why ornithine is unlikely to be found in proteins synthesized in vivo? "Ornithine is an amino acid that is found in cells, but not incorporated into proteins." A) There is no codon for it in the standard genetic code. B) It cannot form a peptide bond. C) It is not available in the diet. D) It has a net positive charge in aqueous solution.

A) There is no codon for it in the standard genetic code. The answer to this question is A, because without a corresponding codon in the genetic code, an amino acid cannot take part in the process of protein translation from an mRNA transcript.

Which statement best applies the behaviorist theory to explain the association between age and DMQ scores? Compared to younger participants, older participants: A) have had more experiences in which they have been punished for risky behaviors. B) are less prone to the effects of peer pressure. C) have a more mature prefrontal cortex that inhibits impulsive behavior. D) have a more developed superego that inhibits the impulses of the id.

A) have had more experiences in which they have been punished for risky behaviors. The answer to this question is A because behaviorist theory focuses on the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behavior and A is the only option that applies this theory to risk aversion.

The study found that Mexican immigrants reported worse physical and mental health statuses than the other Latino immigrant groups. Based on other results reported in the passage, which statement provides the best explanation of this finding? "Results showed strong associations between bilingualism and both physical and mental self-rated health for Latino and Asian immigrants. These associations are partially explained by SES and family and social support, but the researchers did not find evidence that assimilation, stress and discrimination, or healthcare access and health behaviors affected the language-health relationship." A) Cuban and Puerto Rican immigrants have higher average SES than Mexican immigrants. B) Mexican immigrants have more extensive social support networks than Cuban immigrants. C) Mexican immigrants report greater levels of assimilation than Puerto Rican immigrants. D) Cuban and Puerto Rican immigrants report higher stress levels than Mexican immigrants.

A) Cuban and Puerto Rican immigrants have higher average SES than Mexican immigrants. The answer to this question is A. The results in the passage suggest that the relationship between language and health is partly explained by socioeconomic status (SES), along with family and social support. If the average SES of other Latino immigrant groups is higher than that of Mexican immigrants, then differences in SES by ethnicity could help to explain the observed differences in health. In other words, SES could be an explanatory factor for health status differentials across Latino immigrant groups.

Which effect is LEAST likely to occur with the process of gentrification? A) Development of affordable housing B) Increased neighborhood stratification C) Displacement of lower-income residents D) Expanded tax base for local government

A) Development of affordable housing The answer to this question is A, development of affordable housing. Gentrification is the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups. With the arrival of more affluent residents, housing demand increases and generally results in a decrease of affordable housing for lower income residents. In contrast, the other response options present more likely outcomes of gentrification.

Which statement provides the LEAST likely explanation for why the researchers dropped the highly anxious participants from their sample? A) Ethical committees do not allow research with participants who may have psychological disorders. B) If all the anxious participants get assigned to the stress condition, this may pose a confounding variable. C) Highly anxious participants are not representative of the population and may reduce the generalizibility of the findings. D) If all the anxious participants get assigned to the control condition, this may lead to a false rejection of the experimental hypothesis.

A) Ethical committees do not allow research with participants who may have psychological disorders. The answer to this question is A because it is ethically practicable to conduct research on people who score high on anxiety. However, having outliers accumulate in the experimental or control condition can lead to confounding or to errors in statistical inference. It may also limit the generalizability of the results.

In the chromatography of the reaction mixture, water absorbed on cellulose functioned as the stationary phase. What was the principal factor determining the migration of individual components in the sample? A) Hydrogen bonding B) Solute concentration C) Stationary phase concentration D) Thickness of paper

A) Hydrogen bonding The answer to this question is A because the relative amount of hydrogen bonding to the stationary phase will determine the relative rate of migration of the various components in the sample.

Based on the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to be a symptom of diabetes mellitus? A) Loss of appetite B) Sweet-tasting urine C) Unexplained weight loss D) Feelings of fatigue

A) Loss of appetite The answer to this question is A, because based on the passage, the symptoms of diabetes mellitus are frequent urination and catabolism of fatty acid as well as proteins as alternative energy sources. In diabetic patients, high blood glucose results in excretion of excess sugar into the urine, hence sweet-tasting urine. Similarly, the catabolism of fatty acids and proteins results in weight loss and feelings of fatigue respectively. This leaves loss of appetite as the only correct answer.

Max attends a party and does not make eye contact with, or approach, his acquaintance, Sam. According to the actor-observer bias, which graph best represents how Max and Sam view this behavior? A) Max's self judgment: not feeling well; Sam's judgment of Max: socially awkward B) Max's self judgment: socially awkward; Sam's judgment of Max: not feeling well C) Max's self-judgment: socially awkward; Sam's judgment of Max: socially awkward D) Max's self-judgment: not feeling well; Sam's judgment of Max: not feeling well

A) Max's self judgment: not feeling well; Sam's judgment of Max: socially awkward The answer to this question is A because, according to the actor-observer bias, actors attribute their own behavior to situational factors (not feeling well) whereas observers attribute actors' behavior to dispositional factors (social awkwardness).

The radioactive decay described in the passage results in the formation of which two atoms? "The reaction products were separated by SDS-PAGE and visualized by autoradiography that detects the products of B- decay." C-14 and P-32 A) N and S B) B and Si C) B and S D) N and Si

A) N and S The answer to this question is A because the type of radioactive decay is b-1 so a neutron is converted into a proton, which results in carbon becoming nitrogen and phosphorus becoming sulfur.

In which direction does the Na+K+ ATPase transport ions across the cell membrane upon ATP hydrolysis? A) Na+ is transported out of the cell; K+ is transported into the cell. B) Na+ is transported into the cell; K+ is transported out of the cell. C) Both Na+ and K+ are transported into the cell. D) Both Na+ and K+ are transported out of the cell.

A) Na+ is transported out of the cell; K+ is transported into the cell. The answer is A because the Na+K+ ATPase transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell with each ATP hydrolyzed.

Which amino acid, in addition to tryptophan, is most likely to be transported by AT1? A) Phenylalanine B) Lysine C) Arginine D) Glutamate

A) Phenylalanine The answer is A because phenylalanine is a neutral amino acid just like tryptophan and shares an aromatic structure. This means it is most likely to be recognized by the same transport machinery.

Which amino acid was incorporated into Compound 1 as a future site of covalent attachment to HA prior to mineralization? A) Ser B) Ala C) Tyr D) Thr

A) Ser The answer to this question is A because serine is the residue that was phosphorylated, and phosphorylation enabled the protein to be subsequently attached to hydroxyapatite (HA).

On average, adults are found to be more risk averse than adolescents. Based on group polarization, how would testing condition affect adults' scores on the DMQ? Adults would have: A) lower scores on the DMQ in a group than alone. B) higher scores on the DMQ in a group than alone. C) lower scores on the DMQ in small groups but higher scores on the DMQ in large groups. D) higher scores on the DMQ in small groups but lower scores on the DMQ in large groups.

A) lower scores on the DMQ in a group than alone. The answer to this question is A because group polarization refers to the fact that people's attitudes toward some attitude object become more extreme after interacting with like-minded individuals. Therefore, a group of risk averse individuals would become more risk averse after interacting with each other, which suggests that their risky behavior scores would be lower.

When a 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is added to pulverized blackboard chalk, the following reaction takes place. CaCO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) --> CaSO4(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) At 25°C, the reaction is spontaneous and has: A) negative ΔG° and positive ΔS°. B) negative ΔG° and negative ΔS°. C) positive ΔG° and negative ΔS°. D) positive ΔG° and positive ΔS°.

A) negative ΔG° and positive ΔS°. The answer to this question is A because spontaneous reactions must have a negative ΔG°, and reaction that create gaseous products from solids and liquids must have a positive ΔS°.

The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by: A) passive flow due to a pressure difference B) passive flow resulting from a countercurrent exchange system C) active transport of water, followed by movement of electrolytes along a resulting concentration gradient D) active transport of electrolytes, followed by passive flow of water along the resulting osmolarity gradient

A) passive flow due to a pressure difference The answer to this question is A because the initial filtration in the glomerulus occurs as blood pressure forces the fluid from the glomerulus into the lumen of Bowman's capsule.

Pericytes were growth-arrested in Experiment 1 so that the: A) pericyte growth would not interfere with the measurement of EC growth. B) pericytes would not inhibit EC growth. C) metabolic wastes of the pericytes would not interfere with the measurement of EC growth. D) ECs would not cause the pericytes to grow.

A) pericyte growth would not interfere with the measurement of EC growth. The question asks the examinee to identify the reason for using pericytes that were growth-arrested in Experiment 1. The results of the experiment were expressed in terms of the number of endothelial cells. Had the pericytes been allowed to divide, the observed increase in the number of cells in the culture would have been due to increases in the number of pericytes and in the number of endothelial cells. By inhibiting the division of pericytes, the observed change in cell number is attributable solely to the growth of endothelial cells. The reason for using growth-arrested cells is therefore to simplify the measurement of the number of endothelial cells in the culture. Thus, A is the best answer.

Ethanol may be metabolized to acetic acid, then condensed with a coenzyme to form acetyl coenzyme A. Acetyl coenzyme A may then participate in: A) the Krebs (citric acid) cycle B) glycolysis C) electron transport D) oxidative phosphorylation

A) the Krebs (citric acid) cycle The answer to this question is A, because acetyl coenzyme A is the main input of the citric acid cycle.

CARS: The passage assertion that a dead poet is "owned without opposition" (paragraph 3) probably means that: A) the poet is no longer able to challenge the public's response to the poet's life and work B) other writers will no longer oppose the poet's views C) readers will no longer intrude on the poet's private life. D) the poet's admirers will buy up all the poet's books and relics

A) the poet is no longer able to challenge the public's response to the poet's life and work The answer is A, because, before claiming that a dead poet is "owned without opposition," the author writes, "if you [have] the misfortune to be dead as well as famous, matters are less under your control . . . The dead poet has been ingested by his readers; from now on he will be read, admired, and loved in a different way." "Ingested by his readers" clearly implies that readers have taken over the subjectivity of the dead author. The dead author is unable to determine how he is perceived and represented by fans.

What percentage of standard atmospheric pressure is the pulse pressure of a healthy adult? The maximum and minimum blood pressures of a healthy adult are about Ps = 120 mmHg and Pd = 75 mmHg. Pp = Ps-Pd A) 10% B) 6% C) 2% D) 1%

B) 6% The answer to this question is B because the pulse pressure in a healthy adult is (120 − 75) mmHg = 45 mmHg, and so the percentage is 45 mmHg/760 mmHg = 6%.

Knowing that the speed of light in the vitreous humor is 2.1 × 108 m/s, what is the index of refraction of the vitreous humor? (Note: The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m/s.) A) 0.7 B) 1.4 C) 2.1 D) 3.0

B) 1.4 n = c/v The answer to this question is B because the index of refraction of a medium is equal to the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium, thus it is equal to (3.0 x 108 m/s)/(2.1 x 108 m/s) = 1.4.

The formation of which reaction products is increased in MBCD-treated MDR cells after exposure to 100 µM cholesterol? "ATPase activity" A) AMP + ADP B) ADP + Pi C) ATP + Pi D) ADP + ATP

B) ADP + Pi The answer is B because at 100 µM cholesterol in the depleted MDR cells, ATPase activity, which is ATP hydrolysis activity, is completely restored. ATP hydrolysis produces ADP and inorganic phosphate.

Maintenance Factor 1 is most closely related to which approach to psychological disorders? "Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1)" A) Psychodynamic B) Behaviorist C) Trait D) Humanistic

B) Behaviorist The answer to this question is B because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on the role of classical conditioning, which is most closely related to the behaviorist approach.

According to the information in the passage, HSP110 is most likely which type of protein? A) Adhesion B) Chaperone C) Clathrin D) Enzyme

B) Chaperone The answer to this question is B because the passage states that HSP110 is a heat shock protein, which facilitates proper protein folding and inhibits the formation of nonfunctional protein aggregates. Proteins that perform this function are chaperone proteins.

Pellagra also results from a deficiency of nicotinamide, which is synthesized from tryptophan. Nicotinamide nucleotides are neither oxidized nor reduced during which step of cellular respiration? A) Glycolysis B) Chemiosmosis C) Citric acid cycle D) Electron transport chain

B) Chemiosmosis The answer is B because NAD+ is the oxidized form, and NADH is the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. NAD+ is neither reduced to form NADH, nor is NADH oxidized to form NAD+ specifically during chemiosmosis.

A researcher wants to gain insight into how a social movement organization presents its beliefs to the general public in an effort to attract new members. Which methodological approach would be most appropriate for this study? A) Observing meetings about the organization's marketing budget B) Conducting a content analysis of the organization's website C) Surveying organization members about their beliefs D) Randomly sampling the general population about social movement organizations

B) Conducting a content analysis of the organization's website The answer to this question is B because conducting content analysis of online information would provide data on how the social movement organization frames issues to the broader public. Content analysis is a sociological method that is used to make inferences about communication. As applied to studying a website, content analysis could help determine which beliefs the organization publicly emphasizes. In contrast, the methods in the other response options would not specifically generate data about the public presentation of beliefs.

Based on Figure 1 and the passage, which of the following cells are most important in the exchange of O2 between the blood and the surrounding tissues? A) Pericytes B) Endothelial cells C) Smooth-muscle cells D) Fibroblasts

B) Endothelial cells The question asks the examinee to use the information in the passage and in Figure 1 to determine what cells are most important in the exchange of oxygen between the blood and the surrounding tissues. An examination of Figure 1 shows that endothelial cells separate the blood from the surrounding tissue. Thus, B is the best answer.

Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment? A) Comparative methods B) Ethnographic methods C) Experimental methods D) Survey methods

B) Ethnographic methods Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment.

Which type of design is LEAST appropriate for research on residential segregation? A) Ethnographic methods B) Experimental methods C) Quantitative methods D) Survey methods

B) Experimental methods The answer to this question is B, experimental methods. Due to ethical concerns, as well as practical considerations, experimental research is generally not available for studying residential segregation. Except under special circumstances, it would be unethical and impractical to randomly assign participants to groups in which segregation is manipulated as an independent variable. In contrast, the other response options present more acceptable methods.

Each of the following equations shows the dissociation of an acid in water. Which of the reactions occurs to the LEAST extent? A) HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl− B) HPO42− + H2O → H3O+ + PO43− C) H2SO4 + H2O → H3O+ + HSO4− D) H3PO4 + H2O → H3O+ + H2PO4−

B) HPO42− + H2O → H3O+ + PO43− The answer to this question is B. HPO42− has a high negative charge and so dissociation of it will occur to the least extent.

In a study, each trial involves administering a drop of lemon juice to the participant's tongue and measuring the participant's level of salivation. As more trials are conducted, the researcher finds that the magnitude of salivation declines. After a certain point, the researcher switches to administering lime juice. This researcher is most likely studying which process? A) Sensory perception B) Habituation and dishabituation C) Stimulus generalization in classical conditioning D) Conditioned responses in classical conditioning

B) Habituation and dishabituation The answer to this question is B because the study involves reduced responding to a repeating stimulus, which is best described as habituation. The researcher then changes the stimulus, which will likely lead to dishabituation.

Compared to micellular Compound 1, Compound 2 is structurally more rigid as a result of what type of interaction? A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding B) Intermolecular covalent bonding C) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding D) Intramolecular covalent bonding

B) Intermolecular covalent bonding The answer to this question is B. It can be reasoned that the interaction described is intermolecular in nature, since multiple molecules of micellular Compound 1 come together to form Compound 2, which is a solid. Multiple pieces of information point to the fact that the interaction is disulfide bond formation, including the fact that an oxidant causes the formation of Compound 2, which can be reversed by the addition of a reducing agent.

CARS: Which of the following best describes the author's attitude toward the fact that the original paint of an architectural element has typically been painted over not just once but several times in the course of history? A) It makes much of architectural paint research guesswork. B) It is what makes architectural paint research such a robust source of information. C) It indicates a difference in status between easel/wall painters and house painters. D) It is something that education about architectural paint research might prevent in future.

B) It is what makes architectural paint research such a robust source of information The answer is B, because the author says that "the accumulation of successive paint layers on architectural elements is now regarded as an important archaeological resource" (paragraph 3). The author contends that the repeated application of paint finishes allows researchers to study a progressive history of the use of the "development and use of the building long after the last structural alteration has been completed" (first paragraph).

Which approach does NOT measure the activity of the Na+K+ ATPase? A) Measuring the rate of ATP hydrolysis B) Measuring the free energy of the ion transport C) Measuring the rate of ADP production D) Measuring the change in ion concentration within the liposome

B) Measuring the free energy of the ion transport The answer to this question is B because free energy is a thermodynamic quantity and is NOT a kinetic property. Activity is a kinetic property.

If a solution containing the compounds shown in Figure 4, is injected into a gas-liquid chromatograph, the first peak observed in the gc trace is attributable to which compound? A) Methyl-2-butanol B) Methyl-2-butene C) Chloro-2-methylbutane D) Bromo-2-mehtylbutane

B) Methyl-2-butene The answer to this question is B because 2-methyl-2-butene will exhibit the lowest molecular weight and also the weakest intermolecular forces of attraction. This substance will therefore migrate the fastest and be the first peak in the gas chromatograph (gc) trace.

Which mechanism best describes how P-gp facilitates drug resistance? "P-gp is a plasma membrane ABC transporter that has broad substrate specificity for hydrophobic compounds." A) P-gp binds to antitumor drugs in the presence of ATP and degrades the drugs. B) P-gp serves as a pump and uses active transport to move antitumor drugs outside the cell. C) P-gp prevents the entry of anti-tumor drugs into the cell. D) P-gp causes increased membrane permeability, which causes antitumor drugs to exit the cell.

B) P-gp serves as a pump and uses active transport to move antitumor drugs outside the cell. The answer is B because P-gp is an ABC transporter protein, which uses ATP to actively transport antitumor drugs out of the cell.

Neighborhood-level socioeconomic inequalities are most likely to affect physician-patient interactions through which phenomenon? A) Status hierarchies rely on socioeconomic differences above other master status characteristics. B) Physical boundaries create social boundaries and closed networks which develop their own cultures. C) Socioeconomic inequalities create role conflict in physicians who are trained to treat all patients equally. D) The physician-patient relationship is not subject to the same external forces that govern other relationships.

B) Physical boundaries create social boundaries and closed networks which develop their own cultures. The correct answer is B. Neighborhoods that are segregated by socioeconomic status create increased social distance to the extent that people from different backgrounds have trouble relating to each other's experiences. The correct answer succinctly explains this by referring to closed networks and social boundaries that exist across neighborhoods.

Which conclusion is supported by Figure 1? A) Priming stereotypes always has a negative impact on performance. B) Priming a negative stereotype interferes with performance. C) Priming a positive stereotype does not affect performance. D) Priming stereotypes does not affect performance as much as one's self-concept.

B) Priming a negative stereotype interferes with performance. The answer to this question is B because, according to the figure, the participants performed worse after being reminded of their gender identity.

Based on the passage, which conclusion is best supported? A) Gender discrimination is more likely to occur than racial discrimination. B) Race and gender discrimination manifest in similar ways. C) The incidence of race and gender discrimination is equivalent. D) Minority women are especially subject to discrimination.

B) Race and gender discrimination manifest in similar ways. The correct answer is B. As shown in the table in the passage, both the race and gender discrimination claims were very similar in how they were distributed across the researchers' categories. The conclusions in the other options are not supported by the research findings reported in the table or the passage.

An immigrant teen starts to reject the ethnic customs of his family and instead identifies himself as an American by dressing, speaking, and acting in ways that are associated with American culture. In this scenario, Americans become which type of group for the teenager? A) Assimilated group B) Reference group C) Majority group D) Peer group

B) Reference group The answer to this question is B, reference group. Individuals often emulate the attitudes and behaviors of groups that they admire and would like to join. Sociologists refer to these as reference groups, which are important for self-evaluation and identity formation. The scenario in the question suggests that the immigrant teen constructs an identity, through modifying his behaviors (dressing, speaking, and acting), to match that of the broad cultural group of "American."

Often utilized when studying communicable diseases, which type of analysis maps the series of relationships among a set of individuals? A) Social support analysis B) Social network analysis C) Social stratification analysis D) Social reproduction analysis

B) Social network analysis Used in some epidemiological studies, social network analysis is the method described in the question. It involves the mapping of social relationships among individuals.

The information in the passage best supports the conclusion that Intron 8 of HSP110 most likely contains which of the following? A) Stop codon B) Splice acceptor site C) HSP110 gene promoter D) Partial coding sequence of HSP110

B) Splice acceptor site The answer to this question is B. Deletions in the T17 microsatellite located in Intron 8 of HSP110 cause Exon 9 to be omitted from the final mRNA sequence during pre-mRNA processing. This would occur during alternative splicing, which strongly suggests that the microsatellite contains sequences that influence splicing.

Which conclusion is best supported by the outcome of Study 2? A) Synchronous activity increases group polarization B) Synchronous activity increases conformity C) Asynchronous activity increases cognitive dissonance D) Asynchronous activity increases social loafing

B) Synchronous activity increases conformity The answer to this question is B because the results of Study 2 supported the hypothesis that synchronous actions would make participants more prone to comply with prompts to act aggressively (i.e., conform to the confederate's suggestion to choose the "noise blast").

The children from the experiment in the passage participate in a separate study using Piaget's water conservation task. They are shown two identical beakers, containing equal amounts of water. The water from one of the containers is poured into a thinner and taller beaker. Which prediction is most likely to be confirmed? "7, 9, and 11-year old children and a group of adults were recruited to participate in a study of categorical bias" A) All three age groups will state that the water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity B) The majority of the 11 year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker. C) The majority of the 9 and 11-year olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity. D) The majority of the 7 year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker.

B) The majority of the 11 year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker. The answer to this question is B because, according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, conservation tasks are mastered during the concrete operations stage, which starts at approximately 7 years and ends around 11 to 12 years. The majority of the 11-year-olds will have completed this stage, which will allow them to judge that pouring water into a taller beaker does not change its quantity.

Which of the following most likely will occur if a homogeneous catalyst CANNOT be separated from the products at the end of a reaction? A) The catalyst will become heterogeneous. B) The products will be contaminated. C) The reaction will not occur. D) The reaction rate will speed up.

B) The products will be contaminated. The answer to this question is B. If a homogeneous catalyst cannot be separated from the products at the end of a reaction then the products will be contaminated with the catalyst.

According to the passage, what is most likely correct about the genes that are expressed as a result of the constant activation of the NF-κB pathway? A) They cause disruption of the mitochondria B) They contain a p65/cRel binding site in their promoter region C) They have accumulated mutations that alter function D) They bind to STN in the cytoplasm

B) They contain a p65/cRel binding site in their promoter region The answer is B because the constantly active signaling pathway will result in the overexpression of genes that are under control of the p65/cRel transcription factors. Mitochondrial disruption would occur if the apoptotic machinery was stimulated, but these genes are antiapoptotic. Mutations occur to the NF-kB pathway, which cause the constant activation. The gene products of this signaling pathway do not necessarily have mutations, as their overexpression is sufficient for pathogenesis. Binding to STN is not discussed.

When a strip of Zn is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, H2(g) evolves. If a strip of Al is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, does H2(g) evolve? A) Yes; Al is reduced and H+(aq) is oxidized. B) Yes; Al is oxidized and H+(aq) is reduced. C) No; Al is reduced and Cl-(aq) is oxidized D) No; Al is oxidized and H2O(l) is produced.

B) Yes; Al is oxidized and H+(aq) is reduced. The answer to this question is B. Since a new solid forms when Al(s) is mixed with Zn2+(aq), it is reasonable to assume that Al(s) is more susceptible to oxidation than Zn(s).

The ornithine decarboxylase reaction has been studied extensively by biomedical researchers. The most likely reason for the interest of these researchers is that the reaction is: "In mammals and many other organisms, it can be converted to diaminobutane via the ornithine decarboxylase reaction, an early event in cell division." A) a good source of ornithine B) an early event in cell division C) unique to mammals D) one in which a chiral reactant is converted to an achiral product

B) an early event in cell division The answer to this question is B, because the passage states that in mammals and other organisms ornithine decarboxylase participates in early events in cell division.

Upon activation, p65 and cRel control the level of IL-6 mRNA by: A) binding RNA B) binding DNA C) replicating RNA D) replicating DNA

B) binding DNA The answer is B because both p65 and cRel function as transcription factors, which bind DNA and subsequently recruit RNA polymerase.

In the example of the alcoholic in the passage, the presence of alcohol caused death because the alcohol: "For example, although cP-450 usually metabolizes barbiturates, alcohol acts as a competitive inhibitor of barbiturate metabolism" A) denatured the cP-450 B) inhibited the cP-450 C) decreased the concentration of cP-450 D) increased the concentration of cP-450

B) inhibited the cP-450 The answer to this question is B because the passage states that alcohol acts as a competitive inhibitor of cP-450, thus preventing it from metabolizing barbiturate.

The lung cells of heavy smokers would be expected to have greatly increased concentrations of cP-450 and: A) DNA sequences that code for cP-450. B) mRNA sequences that code for cP-450. C) rRNA that process cP-450. D) tRNA that are specific for cysteine.

B) mRNA sequences that code for cP-450. The answer to this question is B, because protein levels relate most directly to mRNA levels.

The equilibrium BaCrO4(s) --> Ba2+(aq) + CrO42-(aq) exists in a saturated aqueous solution of BaCrO4. Dissolution of Na2CrO4 in a saturated aqueous BaCrO4 solution would: A) have no effect on the position of this equilibrium B) shift this equilibrium left C) shift this equilibrium right D) shift this equilibrium first right and then left

B) shift this equilibrium left The answer to this question is B because dissolution of Na2CrO4 would introduce the common ion, CrO42-, which would reduce the solubility of BaCrO4 due to the common ion effect.

What are the hybridization states of the carbon atoms involved in the conversion of trans to cis retinal? A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d

B) sp2 he answer to this question is B because the reacting carbon atoms are both central to AX3 systems with 3 bonded atoms and no lone pairs. The preferred geometry for such a system is trigonal planar and the hybridization scheme that facilitates this geometry is sp2.

Which interpretation of the research findings is consistent with the conflict theory perspective? Status hierarchies facilitate: A) efficiency in the organization, whereas discrimination is a byproduct of these structures. B) the preservation of structural power while being maintained by practices of discrimination. C) effective social interactions, whereas discrimination is a subjective quality of those interactions. D) the necessary operation of the workplace while removing ineffective members by practices of discrimination

B) the preservation of structural power while being maintained by practices of discrimination. The correct answer is B. Conflict theory emphasizes the competition between groups over the allocation of societal resources. It assumes that power and authority are unequally distributed across a society, and that groups attempt to maintain their advantages. The correct answer captures these basic elements of conflict theory, while the incorrect options are more consistent with other sociological theories (such as functionalism or interactionism).

Assume that a circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in which X = Al, Xn+ = Al3+, Y = Cu, and Ym+ = Cu2+. Which of the following reactions will occur?* A) 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) → 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) B) 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s) → 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) C) 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) D) 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) → 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s)

C) 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) The answer to this question is C because this response depicts the balanced chemical reaction that occurs when the four substances [Al(s), Al3+(aq), Cu(s), and Cu2+(aq)] are mixed.

Which of the following will decrease the percentage ionization of 1.0 M acetic acid, CH3CO2H(aq)?* A) Chlorinating the CH3 group B) Diluting the solution C) Adding concentrated HCl (aq) D) Adding a drop of basic indicator

C) Adding concentrated HCl (aq) The answer to this question is C because HCl is a strong acid that will increase the amount of H+ in solution and thus decrease the percentage of CH3CO2H that ionizes.

What assumption is being made if scientists conclude that aspartic acid was formed by the prebiological synthesis in the passage? A) Aspartic acid is unstable at temperatures below 150 degrees C. B) All of the malic acid underwent the dehydration reaction to form fumaric/maleic acid. C) Compound A and cyanide were available on primitive Earth. D) The reaction between ammonia and fumaric acid was catalyzed by the presence of water.

C) Compound A and cyanide were available on primitive Earth. he answer to this question is C since, in order for the experimental reaction sequence to be relevant to the primordial formation of aspartic acid, the starting materials used (Compound A and cyanide) are assumed to have been available.

The author uses the term "culture as commodity" to characterize which aspect of Haitian voodoo? I. The charging of admission at voodoo sessions II. The molding of voodoo to fit audience expectations III. The sale of voodoo trinkets and other artifacts A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only

C) I and II only The answer is C, because both options I and II are correct, while option III is not. The author explains that the "outsider" to Haiti expects voodoo to be "almost synonymous" with the country itself. According to the author, this powerful "identification" of Haiti with voodoo leads to "culture as commodity"—or the outsiders essentially being able to get what they want from voodoo. In paragraph 3, the author describes a form of voodoo that is staged for outsiders and which the audience pays admission to watch; this supports option I. Also, in paragraph 3, the author contends that the form of voodoo witnessed at Mariani "confirms the popular expectation of 'scary voodoo'"; this supports option II.

Which nucleotide pairing(s) would be recognized by the MMR system during DNA replication? I. dTMP and dCMP II. dGMP and dAMP III. dAMP and dTMP A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) I, II, and III

C) I and II only The MMR system recognizes and repairs nucleotide mismatches during DNA replication. The nucleotide pairs dTMP and dCMP (I) and dGMP and dAMP (II) are mismatches. dAMP and dTMP (III) is a correct pairing.

The term "ideal gas" refers to a gas for which certain assumptions have been made. Which of the following is such an assumption? A) The law PV = nRT^2 is strictly obeyed. B) Intermolecular forces are infinitely large. C) Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible. D) One gram-mole occupies a volume of 22.4 L at 25 degrees C and one atmosphere pressure.

C) Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible. The answer to this question is C since a property of an "ideal" gas is that it is composed of particles that have negligible volume and do not exert intermolecular forces.

CARS: Which of the following underlying assumptions about professors is implied by the passage argument? A) Most of them are generalists, not specialists B) Most of them lack a preference for particular geographic areas. C) Most of them care more about ideas than they do about actual places. D) Most of them in the US attended college or graduate school outside their home states.

C) Most of them care more about ideas than they do about actual places. he author says that rootless professors (deemed to be most professors) "are ignorant of the values of connectedness to place" (paragraph 2), that they should include local content rather than "abstract theories about distant peoples" in their courses (paragraph 4), and that "what is needed is . . . educators willing to take root and cultivate a sense of place" (paragraph 6). All of these suggest that professors care more about ideas than they do about actual places. C is correct.

In addition to glucose, what other monosaccharide is part of the UDP-glucose structure? A) Xylose B) Fructose C) Ribose D) Arabinose

C) Ribose The answer is C because UDP contains uridine, which is a nucleic acid used in RNA. The structure of RNA contains ribose.

Which of the following diagrams does NOT illustrate a function of an automobile catalyst converter? "The catalyst aids in the conversions of carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide, hydrocarbons to carbon dioxide and water, and nitric oxide to nitrogen gas. Unfortunately, catalytic converters also can catalyze the oxidation of SO2 to SO3, which subsequently reacts with moisture to form unwanted sulfuric acid." A) CH4 --> CO2 + H2O B) CO --> CO2 C) SO3 --> SO2 + H2O D) NO --> N2

C) SO3 --> SO2 + H2O The answer to this question is C because this response depicts a chemical transformation that is NOT catalyzed by an automobile's catalytic converter.

Compound 1 was designed to exhibit pH-dependent self-assembly. What feature(s) of the molecule is(are) responsible for the pH dependence of aggregation (Equation 1)? A) Thiol side chains that can hydrogen bond B) Long alkyl chains that exhibit predominantly London forces C) Side chains whose net charge responds to pH D) Covalent linkages that reversibly hydrolyze

C) Side chains whose net charge responds to pH The answer to this question is C because the molecule contains mainly acidic side chains that were deprotonated and negatively charged at high pH. This inhibited aggregation due to electrostatic principles. At low pH these groups are neutral and this allowed aggregation.

Why is the velocity of blood flow slower in capillaries than in arteries? A) Capillary walls are more elastic than arterial walls. B) Capillaries have less resistance to blood flow than arteries. C) The total cross-sectional area of capillaries exceeds that of arteries. D) Blood pressure is higher in the capillaries than in arteries.

C) The total cross-sectional area of capillaries exceeds that of arteries. A1v1 = A2v2 The answer to this question is C because the high number of capillaries in the body means that the total cross-sectional area of these vessels is larger than any other vessel type in the circulatory system. This causes the velocity of the blood to decrease.

CARS: Why does the author quote the letter which states "'Today my chambers painted a fine blue'" (paragraph 5)? A) To return to a point made earlier in the passage about blue paint B) To show that interior decoration has been as important to occupants as exterior decoration C) To illustrate the value of consulting documentary evidence as part of architectural paint research D) To suggest the danger of using one type of evidence without corroboration by another type of evidence

C) To illustrate the value of consulting documentary evidence as part of architectural paint research The answer is C, because the author quotes the letter as part of the argument that good research is holistic, drawing on all available sources. The author uses the example of the letter as an example of a situation in which a document may be more useful that "sophisticated pigment analysis" (when one wishes to date "a significant paint layer").

Addition of laforin to the reaction mixtures used to generate the data in Figure 2 will result in: "LBs contain a much larger amount of covalently-linked phosphate compared to normal glycogen." A) a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 14C decay. B) an increase in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 14C decay. C) a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay. D) an increase in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay.

C) a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay. The answer is C because laforin is an enzyme that removes phosphate from glycogen. Presumably, the removal of phosphate prior to gel electrophoresis will result in a smaller band corresponding to 32P incorporation.

The statement that the ornithine decarboxylase assay is highly specific means that it: A) requires radioactive ornithine of high specific activity. B) generates diaminobutane of high specific activity. C) an distinguish ornithine decarboxylase activity from the many other enzymatic reactions in a cell. D) can measure the small amount of ornithine present in a cell.

C) an distinguish ornithine decarboxylase activity from the many other enzymatic reactions in a cell. The answer to this question is C because enzymes such as ornithine decarboxylase are highly specific both in the reactions that they catalyze and in their choice of substrates and therefore catalyze only a single chemical reaction or occasionally a set of closely related reactions.

CARS: The author would most likely favor a college course that: A) emphasized hands-on experience in a laboratory over textbook learning B) crossed disciplines and combined creative arts with science C) applied classroom concepts to a community garden project D) required a semester of studying and living in another country

C) applied classroom concepts to a community garden project The answer is C, because the passage is an argument for grounding university education in a more "particular," place-based ethos. The author contends that professors "should include local content in their courses." Option C emphasizes participation in a local setting, exemplifies the environmental awareness the author advocates in the last paragraph, and fulfills the author's prescription of "transforming the world immediately outside the classroom into a laboratory" (paragraph 4).

What aspect of Experiment 1 does NOT address whether membrane composition has an effect on Na+K+ ATPase activity? The activity of the Na+K+ ATPase: A) showed less temperature dependence in the 14:1 liposome than the 14:0 liposome B) was highest in the 14:0 liposomes at all temperatures C) increased with temperature in both the 14:1 liposome and the 14:0 liposome D) was greater at all temperatures when cholesterol was present

C) increased with temperature in both the 14:1 liposome and the 14:0 liposome The answer is C because the researchers were not trying to show that protein activity increases with temperature, which is an expected result of all kinetic studies assuming the protein does not thermally denature.

The research in the passage is best described as a: A) qualitative study B) quantitative study C) mixed-methods study D) case study

C) mixed-methods study The correct answer is C, because the study in the passage takes a mixed methods approach. The research design employs both a quantitative component (the statistical analysis of the total claims) and a qualitative component (the in-depth analysis of a subset of cases). Bringing together quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology.

For Patient 2, panic attacks act as: "Patient 2: I am terrified of having a panic attack at a meeting. I dread the thought of others noticing how nervous I am. I'm worried that others will think I am weird. I don't go to meetings anymore." A) discriminatory stimuli B) signaling stimuli C) positive punishers D) negative punishers

C) positive punishers he answer to this question is C because the patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive and mentions that he no longer goes to meetings for fear of a panic attack. Thus, the frequency of the patient's attendance at meetings has decreased as the result of the panic attacks. Therefore, the panic attacks have been positive punishers.

A researcher replicates the experiment with the addition of a physical stressor to the first phase of the experiment. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, this change is: A) necessary, because humans respond differently to different types of stressors. B) necessary, because physical stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict, whereas social stressors cause approach-approach conflict. C) unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. D) unnecessary, because both physical stressors and social stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict.

C) unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. The answer to this question is C because, according to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, people's response to various stressors is similar. Selye's theory does not make claims about avoidance-avoidance or approach-approach conflicts.

During the initiation of muscle contraction, mysosin binds actin after troponin binds to which ion? A) H+ B) K+ C) Na+ D) Ca2+

D) Ca2+ The answer to this question is D because during the initiation of muscle contraction, free Ca2+ in the cytosol binds to troponin, which pulls tropomyosin away from actin's myosin-binding site. This allows myosin to bind to actin. The other ions are not involved in actin-myosin binding.

MBCD is composed of which type of molecule? "MBCD is a cyclic oligosaccharide that binds and removes cholesterol from cell membranes." A) Amino acids B) Fatty acids C) Nucleotides D) Carbohydrates

D) Carbohydrates The answer is D because MBCD is a cyclic oligosaccharide, which means it is composed of carbohydrates.

Suppose squares 1, 2, 3, and 4, moving from left to right at the top of the grid light up and some participants think "top row lights up first," to remember the sequence. Which process is most likely being used to enhance working memory capacity? A) Divided attention B) Priming C) Automatic processing D) Chunking

D) Chunking The answer to this question is D because the participants are organizing single unit squares into larger rows to help them hold more information in working memory. This encoding process, which is referred to as "chunking," requires effortful processing and therefore involves selective attention and conscious effort.

*Which two processes best summarize maintenance factors 1 and 2, respectively? "Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). Another maintenance factor for PD is the misappraisal of bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 2), such as interpreting bodily sensations as signs of imminent death or loss of control." A) Operant conditioning and top-down processing B) Classical conditioning and affective processes C) Operant conditioning and physiological processes D) Classical conditioning and cognitive processes

D) Classical conditioning and cognitive processes The answer to this question is D because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on classical conditioning of a fear response to bodily sensations, whereas Maintenance Factor 2 focuses on cognitive appraisal (interpretation) of bodily sensations.

Data on the role of Maintenance Factor 1 on PD is LEAST likely to come from which type of research? A) Correlational studies B) Case studies C) Longitudinal studies D) Experimental studies

D) Experimental studies The answer to this question is D because experimental methods are not likely to be used in determining on how Maintenance Factor 1 works. The primary obstacle to using experimental methods in such studies is the difficulty of systematically manipulating participants' physiological states and their sensitivity to changes in those states.

CARS: Which of the following approaches to research does the author most support? A) Experimental B) Theoretical C) Statistical D) Holistic

D) Holistic The answer is D, because the author argues for the incorporation of multiple sources of evidence in order to plan and execute good architectural paint research; the author points to "the importance of collating and synthesizing all existing evidence" (paragraph 5). This supports the choice of D, "holistic."

A researcher suggests that the benefits of bilingualism are related to the idea that the structure of language affects the perceptions of its speakers. This researcher is referring to which concept? A) Weber's Law B) The nativist hyopothesis C) Schacter-Singer theory D) Linguistic relativity

D) Linguistic relativity The answer to this question is D because the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, or linguistic relativity, is the only option associated with the claim in the stem.

When concentrated urine is being produced, in which of the following regions of the kidney will the glomerular filtrate reach its highest concentration? A) Proximal convoluted tubule B) Distal convoluted tubule C) Cortical portion of the collecting duct D) Medullary portion of the collecting duct

D) Medullary portion of the collecting duct The answer is D because glomerular filtrate is most concentrated in the medullary portion of the collecting duct, compared to the other kidney structures listed.

Assuming no mutations to the signaling pathway described in the passage, what event directly activates CARD11? A) Proteolytic cleavage B) GTP binding C) Membrane association D) Phosphorylation

D) Phosphorylation The answer is D because the protein that activates CARD11 is PKC, which is a kinase. This implies that phosphorylation is the activating event.

CARS: Recent technological developments like high-resolution satellite imagery and diagnostic positron emission tomography (PET scans) have refined and extended the camera's capacity to provide information. Which passage assertion does this information support most strongly? A) Cameras can illuminate the private, personal lives of individuals. B) Capitalist consumption requires the unlimited production of images. C) Cameras are means of appropriating reality and making it obsolete. D) Photography can be used to both control and benefit society.

D) Photography can be used to both control and benefit society. Satellite images of offenders such as speeding drivers could, for example, be used to both control (by penalizing offenders) and benefit society (by protecting them from offenders); PET scans could be used to benefit society by revealing information about the human anatomy. Option D is the correct answer.

After initially learning to ride a bike, riding a bike becomes easy for an individual. Each time the individual rides a bike thereafter, what type of memory is being used? A) Semantic B) Episodic C) Explicit D) Procedural

D) Procedural The answer to this question is D because procedural memory refers to memory for the performance of particular types of action.

The researchers change the procedure such that instead of placing the objects in a box, the participants have to recall all the objects that they have seen during training. According to the spreading of activation theory, which type of memory error is most likely? A) Making source monitoring errors regarding the location of the training objects. B) Poorer memory for the training objects seen at the later points in the experiment. C) Selective forgetting of the training objects that were placed in the center of the box. D) Recalling objects that were not presented but are from the same category as the training objects

D) Recalling objects that were not presented but are from the same category as the training objects The answer to this question is D because spreading activation suggests that, when a concept is activated, the activation spreads to concepts that are semantically or associatively related to it. Thus, people often retrieve unpresented members of a category when tested on their memory for a series of presented concepts from that category.

Acetic acid and ethanol react to form an ester product as shown below. In determining which reactant loses the -OH group, which of the following isotopic substitutions would be most useful? A) Replace the acidic H of acetic acid with D B) Replace the alcoholic H of ethanol with D. C) Replace the carbonyl oxygen of acetic acid with O-18. D) Replace the hydroxyl oxygen of ethanol with O-18.

D) Replace the hydroxyl oxygen of ethanol with O-18. The answer to this question is D because this experiment involves labeling a group which does not exchange with other groups present prior to reaction and will therefore give information about the true identity of the groups, which are exchanged during the reaction.

A student can most effectively increase the current passing through the circuit in Figure 2 by doing which of the following? A) Using electrical wire with a smaller diameter B) Increasing the temperature of the electrical wire C) Decreasing the concentrations of Xn+(aq) and Ym+(aq) D) Replacing the lightbulb with one that has a resistance of 0.2 Ω

D) Replacing the lightbulb with one that has a resistance of 0.2 Ω The answer to this question is D because according to Ohm's law, current is equal to voltage divided by resistance. In order to increase the current when the voltage fixed, the resistance must be decreased, such as by replacing the light-bulb with one that has a resistance of 0.2 W instead of 0.5 W.

What is the function of the Na+K+ ATPase during a neuronal action potential? A) Stimulation of the action potential B) Depolarization of the membrane C) Hyperpolarization of the membrane D) Restoration of the resting potential

D) Restoration of the resting potential The answer is D because the Na+K+ ATPase functions to restore the resting membrane potential by moving the ions against their concentration gradients.

CARS: Which of the following facts cited in the passage gives the strongest support for the claim that Portuguese liberals were in the minority politically? A) The queen and her son were opposed to them. B) Several important liberals were jailed by John. C) The Inquisition was still active in Portugal. D) The commoners were politically conservative.

D) The commoners were politically conservative. The correct answer is D, because paragraph 2 defines the components of the commoners as a highly inclusive segment of the populace: "peasants, craftspeople, tradespeople, soldiers." The aggregate number of their ranks would, therefore, vastly outnumber the relatively few groups of individuals (including scientists and poets) that comprise the liberal faction alluded to in the passage (paragraph 3).

Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the dehydration of malic acid to fumaric acid and maleic acid? A) The reaction occurs most readily with tertiary alcohols. B) The reaction involves the loss of a water molecule. C) The reaction has a carbocation intermediate. D) The reaction is stereospecific.

D) The reaction is stereospecific. The answer to this question is D because the fact that both fumaric and maleic acid are produced means that the dehydration of malic acid is NOT stereospecific.

What is the most likely location of P-gp within the plasma membrane? "It has been shown that P-gp exhibits AtPase activity and is localized in cholesterol-rich domains within the membrane" A) Associated with lipids on the cytoplasmic side only B) Associated with lipids on the extracellular side only C) Peripheral to the plasma membrane D) Within a lipid raft

D) Within a lipid raft The answer D because the passage states the P-gp is found in cholesterol rich domains, which would indicate lipid rafts.

CARS: The single change to the observed ritual at Mariani that would most weaken the author's distinction between Mariani and Nansoucri voodoo would be a situation in which: A) all possessions were outwardly apparent B) rituals included elements of danger C) audience members were invited to dance with the hounsis D) one or more audience members became possessed

D) one or more audience members became possessed The answer is D, because the author's distinction between the two voodoo forms turns on the fact that the Mariani session is a "theatrical" session, in which the audience essentially watches the action from a "distance . . . that disallows real transformation (inadvertent possession)" (paragraph 3). Thus, if audience members at Mariani did indeed become possessed, the author's distinction between Mariani voodoo and the more participatory, ritual form of voodoo at Nansoucri would break down.

CARS: Consider that some groups are defined as "cults"; members of these extremist sects generally live communally and obey an authoritarian, charismatic leader. Assume that all cults have fewer than 100 members. This information would tend to weaken the passage's assertions about the: A) ability of great orators to sway large groups B) loss of personality and sense of responsibility C) difficulties involved in convening large assemblies D) reasonableness of small groups compared to large groups

D) reasonableness of small groups compared to large groups The answer is D, because the question describes a small group in which people "obey an authoritarian, charismatic leader." In the passage, however, the author claims that a "great multitude" is more likely to succumb to "unreflective enthusiasm . . . than is a small meeting" (paragraph 2). So if the cults that the question describes are small groups of fewer than 100 members, this would weaken passage claims about the more considered behavior of small groups when compared to larger ones.

Which statement correctly describes how enzymes affect chemical reactions? Stabilization of: A) the substrate changes the free energy of the reaction. B) the transition state changes the free energy of the reaction. C) the substrate changes the activation energy of the reaction. D) the transition state changes the activation energy of the reaction.

D) the transition state changes the activation energy of the reaction. The answer is D because the stabilization of the transition state, not the substrate, provides binding energy that is used to lower the activation energy.

If 2-pentanol replaces 1-pentanol in the reaction shown in Figure 3 (SN2), the rate of substitution is less because: A) the C-O bond in 2-pentanol is stronger than the C-O bond in 1-pentanol. B) there is a competing elimination reaction that slows the rate of substitution. C) there is more steric hindrance at the oxygen atom in 2-pentanol than in 1-pentanol, making protonation less likely. D) there is more steric hindrance at the 2-position of 2-pentanol than at the 1-position of 1-pentanol.

D) there is more steric hindrance at the 2-position of 2-pentanol than at the 1-position of 1-pentanol. The answer to this question is D because the rate of substitution of protonated alcohols is subject to steric hindrance. This inhibits the ability of nucleophiles to collide with the reacting electrophilic center and slows the rate of reaction.

Weber's law

quantifying the perception of change in a given stimulus

Semantic memory

refers to a portion of long-term memory that processes ideas and concepts that are not drawn from personal experience.

top-down processing

refers to how our brains make use of information that has already been brought to the brain by one or more of the sensory systems refers to perception that is driven by cognition; conceptually driven

hypothalamus

region of the forebrain below the thalamus which coordinates both the autonomic nervous system and the activity of the pituitary, controlling body temperature, thirst, hunger, and other homeostatic systems, and involved in sleep and emotional activity

positive reinforcement

addition of a reward following a desired behavior to increase future responses

CT scan

an X-ray image made using a form of tomography in which a computer controls the motion of the X-ray source and detectors, processes the data, and produces the image.

hippocampus

belongs to the limbic system plays important roles in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory, and in spatial memory that enables navigation.

nativist hypothesis

biologically based theory, which argues that humans are pre-programmed with the innate ability to develop language

dual-coding effect

both visual and verbal information is used to represent information

cognitive processes

cognitive appraisal or interpretation of surroundings/environment

obedience

compliance with an order, request, or law, or submission to another's authority

behaviorist approach

concerned with how environmental factors (stimuli) affect observable behavior (response) Proposes two main processes whereby people learn from their environment: namely classical conditioning and operant conditioning

physiological processes

functions of living organisms and their parts, and the physical and chemical factors and processes involved

social stratification

kind of social differentiation whereby a society groups people into socioeconomic classes, based upon their occupation and income, wealth and social status, or derived power (social and political)

observational learning

learning that occurs through observing the behavior of others

misinformation effect

occurs when a person's recall of episodic memories become less accurate because of post-event information

Explicit memory

one of the two major subdivisions of long-term memory Explicit memory requires conscious thought

ethnographic methods

research approach that looks at: people in their cultural setting, their language, and the symbols, rituals and shared meanings that populate their world, with the object of producing a narrative account of that particular culture, against a theoretical backdrop

case study

research method in which detailed consideration is given to the development of a particular person, group, or situation over a period of time

comparative methods

researcher collects data about different social groups (eg working-class; middle-class and upper-class) and then compares one group with another to identify what is evident in one group but not another

sensory memory

shortest-term element of memory ability to retain impressions of sensory information after the original stimuli have ended

egocentrism

someone's inability to understand that another person's view or opinion may be different than their own

actor-observer bias

term in social psychology that refers to a tendency to attribute one's own actions to external causes while attributing other people's behaviors to internal causes

cerebellum

the part of the brain at the back of the skull in invertebrates. Its function is to coordinate and regulate muscular activity

cochlea

the spiral cavity of the inner ear containing the organ of Corti, which produces nerve impulses in response to sound vibrations

lens

transparent structure behind the iris, the colored part of the eye bends light rays so that they form a clear image at the back of the eye on the retina

implicit memory

type of long-term memory uses past experiences to remember things without thinking about them

avoidance response

type of negative reinforcement prevents an aversive stimulus from occurring at all

escape response

type of negative reinforcement removes an aversive stimulus that has already occurred