A&P 2 STRAIGHTERLINE FINAL

a. primordial follicle

A primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of granulosa cells is called a ______________. a. primordial follicle b. secondary follicle c. mature follicle d. corpus luteum e. corpus albicans

a. is released in response to elevated atrial pressure.

Atrial natriuretic factor a. is released in response to elevated atrial pressure. b. stimulates the release of ADH. c. decreases urine production. d. stimulates release of aldosterone. e. increases blood volume.

b. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

Arrange the following structures in correct sequence:(1) ureter(2) renal pelvis(3) calyx(4) urinary bladder(5) urethra a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 c. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 d. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 e. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

e. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

Arrange the following structures in the order sperm would pass through them from the seminiferous tubules to the urethra.(1) ductus deferens (vas deferens)(2) efferent ductules(3) epididymis(4) ejaculatory duct(5) rete testis a. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 b. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 c. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 d. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 e. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

e. All of these choices is correct.

Art is 75. He has advanced arteriosclerosis. He is suffering from a number of manifestations, which are consistent with his arteriosclerosis. Over the past several years he has developed hypertension and he is beginning to show signs of renal failure. Which of the following are consistent with his condition? a. increased resistance to blood flow b. increased renin secretion from the kidneys c. increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex d. increased angiotensinogen formation e. All of these choices is correct.

a. increase.

Arteriosclerosis results in decreased compliance, which in turn causes the pulse pressure to a. increase. b. decrease. c. increase, then decrease. d. decrease, then increase. e. remain the same.

d. femoral vein.

As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the a. peroneal vein. b. saphenous vein. c. common iliac vein. d. femoral vein. e. deep femoral vein.

b. decreases.

As the rate of sweat production increases, the amount of sodium lost in the urine a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains the same.

b. ventilation is inadequate to oxygenate blood.

As the result of an asthmatic attack, a. ventilation exceeds the ability of blood to pick up oxygen. b. ventilation is inadequate to oxygenate blood. c. pulmonary blood flow is reduced while ventilation remains normal. d. the surface area available for gas exchange increases. e. bronchioles dilate.

a. free radicals

Atoms or molecules with unpaired electrons that can react with normal cells and cause damage are called ______. a. free radicals b. teratogens c. mutagens d. antioxidants e. vitamins

e. ammonia, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions

Which of the following can play a role in buffering the pH of urine? a. ammonia b. bicarbonate ions c. phosphate ions d. ammonia and bicarbonate ions e. ammonia, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions

b. reticulocyte

Which of the following cell types is an immature red blood cell? a. erythrocyte b. reticulocyte c. thrombocyte d. monocyte e. leukocyte

a. pyelonephritis

Which of the following condition is characterized by inflammation of the renal pelvis? a. pyelonephritis b. acute glomerular nephritis c. chronic glomerular nephritis d. acute renal failure e. chronic renal failure

a. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

Which of the following events is one of the three main stages of coagulation? a. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin b. platelet aggregation c. conversion of thrombin to prothrombin d. platelet plug formation e. calcium is released

d. 3, 4, 5

Which of the following laryngeal cartilages are paired? (1) epiglottis (2) thyroid cartilage (3) corniculate cartilage (4) arytenoid cartilage (5) cuneiform cartilage (6) cricoid cartilage a. 1, 2, 6 b. 3, 5, 6 c. 2, 4, 5 d. 3, 4, 5 e. 2, 3, 4

b. zinc - hemoglobin synthesis

Which of the following minerals is mismatched with its function? a. calcium - bone formation b. zinc - hemoglobin synthesis c. potassium - muscle and nerve function d. cobalt - erythrocyte production e. selenium - component of many enzymes

e. Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway and foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it.

Which of the following most accurately describes how foreign substances can activate complement? a. Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway. b. Foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it. c. Foreign proteins bind to C1 and activate it. d. Foreign proteins are phagocytized by macrophages and directly activate complement. e. Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway and foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it.

a. liver

Which of the following organs does NOT contain lymphatic tissue? a. liver b. spleen c. lingual tonsils d. thymus e. pharyngeal tonsils.

a. broad ligaments - help support the uterus

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? a. broad ligaments - help support the uterus b. cervix - lined with rugae c. basal layer - layer of endometrium closest to uterine cavity d. perimetrium - muscular coat of uterus e. endometrium - connective tissue layer

d. mons pubis - vaginal orifice

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. clitoris - erectile tissue b. labia minora - unite anteriorly to form the prepuce c. vestibular glands - maintain moistness of vestibule d. mons pubis - vaginal orifice e. pudendal cleft - space between labia majora

d. nucleus is centrally located

Which of the following phrases is least likely to be used in describing erythrocytes? a. biconcave cells b. cells can change shape c. cytoplasm contains hemoglobin d. nucleus is centrally located e. main role is transporting blood gases

d. increase the osmolality of body fluids.

Loss of a large volume of sweat will a. decrease the hematocrit. b. decrease ADH production. c. increase the blood pressure. d. increase the osmolality of body fluids. e. decrease the osmolality of body fluids.

a. the resting membrane potential is hyperpolarized.

Lowered extracellular potassium levels will lower the heart rate because a. the resting membrane potential is hyperpolarized. b. ectopic action potentials occur. c. action potential amplitude declines. d. more sodium channels open. e. it blocks calcium channels.

a. chyle.

Lymph containing a high lipid content is called a. chyle. b. chyme. c. lacteal. d. interstitial fluid.

a. the condom.

The contraceptive method that not only prevents fertilization but also provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases is a. the condom. b. oral contraceptives. c. spermicidal agents. d. coitus interruptus. e. the diaphragm.

a. smooth muscle.

The diameter of bronchioles can change because their walls contain a. smooth muscle. b. skeletal muscle. c. fibrous cartilage. d. hyaline cartilage. e. elastic cartilage.

d. pancreatic juice.

The digestive juice that contains enzymes capable of digesting all major food groups is a. gastric juice. b. biliary juice. c. salivary juice. d. pancreatic juice. e. hepatic juice.

b. emotional excitement.

Vasomotor tone can be increased by a. taking a nap. b. emotional excitement. c. soaking in a warm bathtub. d. an increase in body temperature. e. relaxing with a cup of tea.

b. apex of the heart.

Ventricular contraction begins at the a. AV bundle. b. apex of the heart. c. base of the heart. d. superior portion of the interventricular septum. e. top of the ventricles.

c. in the cytoplasm of the cell

Where does glycolysis take place? a. in the inner compartment of the mitochondrion b. on the surface of the mitochondrion c. in the cytoplasm of the cell d. along the cristae of the mitochondrion

a. in the fundus area of the uterus

Where does implantation normally occur? a. in the fundus area of the uterus b. in the isthmus area of the uterine tube c. in the cervix area of the uterus d. in the infundibulum area of the uterine tube

c. thoroughfare channel

Which kind of vessel provides a bypass for a capillary bed? a. sinusoid b. portal vein c. thoroughfare channel d. vasa vasorum e. metarteriole

e. blood supply decreases, more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers and enamel on teeth becomes thinner.

Which of the following are effects of aging on the digestive system? a. blood supply decreases b. more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers c. enamel on teeth becomes thinner d. blood supply decreases and more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers. e. blood supply decreases, more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers and enamel on teeth becomes thinner.

c. blockage of the uterine tubes

Which of the following can cause infertility in females? a. PMS b. heavy, prolonged menses c. blockage of the uterine tubes d. an increased libido e. psychological factors

c. cervical cancer.

A Pap test is used to detect a. pregnancy. b. the time of ovulation. c. cervical cancer. d. a prolapsed uterus. e. ovarian cancer.

d. automatically start to breathe when the CO2 levels in the blood reach a high enough value.

A baby holding its breath will a. be termed a "blue baby". b. have brain cells damaged because of low blood oxygen levels. c. suffer heart damage because of increased pressure in the aorta. d. automatically start to breathe when the CO2 levels in the blood reach a high enough value. e. automatically start to breathe when oxygen levels decrease slightly.

b. megakaryoblast

A deficiency of which of the following stem cells would result in a marked increase in the clotting time of blood? a. lymphoblast b. megakaryoblast c. monoblast d. myeloblast e. proerythroblast

b. arteriovenous anastomosis

A direct connection between an arteriole and a venule without an intervening capillary bed is a(an) a. venous sinus. b. arteriovenous anastomosis. c. metarteriole. d. arterial capillary.

d. anastamosis.

A direct connection between arteries is called a/an a. auricle. b. sulcus. c. sinus. d. anastamosis.

d. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea

A molecule of air enters the nose through the external nares. Which of the following is the correct pathway to the trachea? a. nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea b. oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea c. nasopharynx, nasal cavity, laryngopharynx, trachea d. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea e. nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, pharynx

b. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.

A reduction division is one in which a. the chemical reactions of oxidation and reduction take place. b. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had. c. one daughter cell is substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell. d. the size of chromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.

c. cystic fibrosis.

A respiratory disease characterized by decreased chloride ion diffusion out of cells and dehydrated respiratory secretions is a. bronchitis. b. emphysema. c. cystic fibrosis. d. pulmonary fibrosis. e. lung cancer.

d. passive artificial immunity.

A traditional method of providing temporary immunity for a person who is suspected of being infected (usually be an animal bite) with rabies is classified as a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity. d. passive artificial immunity. e. passive active immunity.

c. Right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm.

A woman has her right breast and right axillary lymph nodes removed. Which of the following might occur? a. Cisterna chyli flow increases. b. The thoracic duct would be severed. c. Right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm. d. Lymph drainage would be affected in her left arm. e. Lymph drainage would be affected in both legs.

c. adequate amounts of vitamin D.

Adequate calcium absorption from the GI tract depends on a. serum K levels. b. serum calcitonin levels. c. adequate amounts of vitamin D. d. the osmolality of the extracellular fluid. e. adequate amounts of vitamin C.

c. 2, 4, 1, 3

Arrange the following in order from largest to smallest: (1) dipeptide (2) protein (3) amino acid (4) polypeptide a. 3, 1, 4, 2 b. 4, 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 4, 1, 3 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 e. 2, 4, 3, 1

d. the level of CO2 decreases below the level necessary to stimulate the inspiratory center.

After hyperventilating for several minutes, a person may develop short periods of apnea because a. blood pH would drop and inhibit inspiration. b. oxygen in the lungs has not had time to diffuse into the blood. c. the level of oxygen has increased and inhibits the inspiratory center. d. the level of CO2 decreases below the level necessary to stimulate the inspiratory center. e. blood pH will rise and stimulate expiration.

c. teratogen.

Alcohol ingestion by a pregnant woman can cause birth defects in her baby; alcohol is a(an) a. carcinogen. b. mutagen. c. teratogen. d. oncogene. e. haptogen.

b. elevated potassium levels.

Aldosterone secretion may be stimulated by a. ADH. b. elevated potassium levels. c. excess water intake. d. elevated sodium levels. e. low potassium levels.

e. skeletal muscle.

All of the following lack lymphatic capillaries, except a. the nervous system. b. the bone marrow. c. the epidermis. d. cartilage. e. skeletal muscle.

c. hypersensitivity.

An abnormal, exaggerated response of the immune system is called a. immunization. b. an innate immune response. c. hypersensitivity. d. excess immunity. e. tolerance.

a. lungs.

An incompetent pulmonary semilunar valve could result in less blood reaching the a. lungs. b. heart muscle. c. right ventricle. d. aorta. e. right atrium.

d. increase, decrease

An increase in blood CO2 levels is followed by a(n) ____ in H+ ions and a(n) ____ in blood pH. a. decrease, decrease b. decrease, increase c. increase, increase d. increase, decrease e. increase, no change

a. the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to various tissues.

An increase in hemoglobin increases a. the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to various tissues. b. the quantity of plasma protein available for blood clotting. c. the leukocyte count. d. the body's immune response. e. the osmotic pressure of the blood.

a. increase; increase

An increase in the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid will trigger a(n) ___________ in the secretion of ADH and a(n) ____________ in thirst. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase

b. prevent clotting process.

An increased amount of heparin in the blood might a. speed up the clotting process. b. prevent clotting process. c. helps to coagulate the blood. d. enhance the clotting process. e. have no effect on the clotting process.

b. four

An infant who has just started cooing and gurgling in response to smiles and attention from its parents is about _____ months old. a. two b. four c. six d. eight e. ten

c. liver.

An organ is described as follows: cords of cells radiating outward from a central vein with sinusoids between the cords of cells. The organ having this histological structure is the a. pancreas. b. spleen. c. liver. d. stomach. e. gall bladder.

a. thirst.

Angiotensin II increases blood volume by stimulating a. thirst. b. vasodilatation. c. water movement into the cells. d. renal excretion of sodium. e. ADH production.

e. have a variable region that binds to a specific antigenic determinant.

Antibodies a. play a large role in cell-mediated immunity. b. are produced by both T and B cells. c. are composed of four light and four heavy polypeptide chains. d. are not specific, but act generally. e. have a variable region that binds to a specific antigenic determinant.

b. 2, 3, 1

Arrange the following events in correct sequence:(1) inflation and rigidity of erectile tissue(2) arteries supplying blood to erectile tissue dilate(3) blood fills erectile tissue sinusoids and compresses veins a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 1 c. 3, 2, 1 d. 2, 1, 3 e. 1, 3, 2

b. 2, 4, 1, 3

Arrange the following in correct sequence:1 Ammonia is converted to urea in the liver.2 Oxidative deamination of an amino acid.3 Urea is eliminated by the kidney.4 Ammonia and keto acids are formed. a. 1, 3, 4, 2 b. 2, 4, 1, 3 c. 3, 1, 4, 2 d. 4, 1, 3, 2 e. 2, 3, 1, 4

c. macrophages

Bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by _____ in the sinuses of lymph nodes. a. trabecular cells b. germinal cells c. macrophages. d. lymphocytes e. plasma cells

a. performed continuously by the liver.

Bile secretion is a. performed continuously by the liver. b. is stimulated by sympathetic nerves. c. is stimulated by decreased amounts of bile salts. d. stimulated by increased vitamin B12 storage. e. controlled by the gallbladder.

e. connective

Blood consists of a matrix of plasma and cells; blood is a subtype of ______ tissue. a. epithelial b. muscle c. nerve d. endothelial e. connective

d. isovolumetric contraction.

Blood does not enter or leave the ventricles during the period called Select one: a. ejection. b. rapid filling. c. atrial systole. d. isovolumetric contraction. e. active and passive filling.

c. connective

Blood is a type of __________tissue. a. epithelial b. glandular c. connective d. areolar

c. measure of force blood exerts against blood vessel walls.

Blood pressure is the a. product of the stroke volume times heart rate. b. number of layers of blood in laminar flow models. c. measure of force blood exerts against blood vessel walls. d. viscosity of the blood and resistance to blood flow. e. measure of the volume of the blood.

c. vestibule.

Both the vagina and the urethra open into a space called the a. urogenital sinus. b. pudendal cleft. c. vestibule. d. prepuce. e. mons pubis.

b. treat tachycardia or other arrhythmias

Calcium channel blockers are frequently used to a. increase the heart rate. b. treat tachycardia or other arrhythmias. c. speed up conduction of impulses through the AV node. d. slow the closing of potassium ion channels. e. treat bradycardia and low blood pressure.

a. carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than is oxygen. Which gas has the higher rate of diffusion? a. carbon dioxide b. oxygen c. Both will have the same rate of diffusion

c. 92/64

Case study: Dale Fremore was back home after spending the day at a picnic where he ate some "spoiled" potato salad. He developed severe abdominal pain and cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea. After about ten to twelve episodes of water diarrhea, Mr. Fremore became so pale and weak he could hardly walk. His wife took him to the hospital where he was diagnosed with severe dehydration (decreased plasma volume). Mr. Fremore was suffering from shock. The body has several mechanisms that can come into play to try to maintain blood pressure and blood flow when a person goes into shock. Compensatory shock is characterized by a narrowed pulse pressure. Which of the following blood pressure readings is an example of a narrowed pulse pressure? Select one: a. 99/40 b. 70/20 c. 92/64 d. 82/40 e. 100/50

b. chemical mediators are released.

During the inflammatory response, a. vasoconstriction occurs. b. chemical mediators are released. c. vascular permeability is decreased. d. neutrophil production is depressed. e. blood flow is reduced.

a. cleft palate.

If the secondary palate does not fuse the result is a a. cleft palate. b. cleft throat. c. facial cleft. d. cleft lip. e. cleft tongue.

b. increased renin secretion.

Case study: Dale Fremore was back home after spending the day at a picnic where he ate some "spoiled" potato salad. He developed severe abdominal pain and cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea. After about ten to twelve episodes of water diarrhea, Mr. Fremore became so pale and weak he could hardly walk. His wife took him to the hospital where he was diagnosed with severe dehydration (decreased plasma volume). Mr. Fremore was suffering from shock. The body has several mechanisms that can come into play to try to maintain blood pressure and blood flow when a person goes into shock. Urine output usually decreases when a person is in shock. This is the result of a. decreased ADH secretion. b. increased renin secretion. c. increased secretion of atrial natriuretic factor. d. decreased vasoconstriction due to the stress relaxation response. e. decreased aldosterone secretion

b. increased renin secretion.

Case study: Dale Fremore was back home after spending the day at a picnic where he ate some "spoiled" potato salad. He developed severe abdominal pain and cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea. After about ten to twelve episodes of water diarrhea, Mr. Fremore became so pale and weak he could hardly walk. His wife took him to the hospital where he was diagnosed with severe dehydration (decreased plasma volume). Mr. Fremore was suffering from shock. The body has several mechanisms that can come into play to try to maintain blood pressure and blood flow when a person goes into shock. Urine output usually decreases when a person is in shock. This is the result of a. decreased ADH secretion. b. increased renin secretion. c. increased secretion of atrial natriuretic factor. d. decreased vasoconstriction due to the stress relaxation response. e. decreased aldosterone secretion

b. carotid arteries.

Chemoreceptors sensitive to blood oxygen levels are primarily located in the a. medulla oblongata. b. carotid arteries. c. right atrium. d. left ventricle. e. jugular veins.

b. can be manufactured by most tissues.

Cholesterol a. must be obtained from plants. b. can be manufactured by most tissues. c. is a hormone. d. is necessary for blood clotting. e. has no constructive function in the body.

a. glomerulus

Choose the term that does not belong. a. glomerulus b. macula densa c. juxtaglomerular cells d. juxtaglomerular apparatus e. afferent arteriole

a. are synthesized in intestinal epithelial cells.

Chylomicrons a. are synthesized in intestinal epithelial cells. b. enter capillaries in the small intestine. c. help emulsify fats. d. are a rich source of carbohydrate. e. are synthesized in the lumen of the small intestines.

c. increased vascular permeability.

Circulatory changes that occur in inflammation include a. increased viscosity of the blood. b. decreased vascular permeability. c. increased vascular permeability. d. decreased blood flow to the area. e. vasoconstriction.

c. starch, glycogen, and cellulose.

Complex carbohydrates include a. glucose and fructose. b. maltose and sucrose. c. starch, glycogen, and cellulose. d. cellulose and glucose. e. glucose and lactose.

e. infarction.

Coronary artery disease can diminish myocardial blood flow resulting in the death of myocardial cells. This condition is known as a myocardial a. attack. b. angina. c. necrosis. d. cirrhosis. e. infarction.

b. renal failure.

Decreased plasma clearance can indicate a. hypertension. b. renal failure. c. decreased ADH secretion. d. decreased aldosterone secretion. e. fluid balance.

b. decreased cardiac output.

Decreased renal filtration that occurs with aging can be the result of a. increased respiratory effort. b. decreased cardiac output. c. increased fluid volume. d. decreased ADH secretion. e. decreased peripheral resistance.

b. the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels and voltage-gated calcium channels

Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a. a decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to sodium. b. the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels and voltage-gated calcium channels. c. the closure of voltage-gated calcium channels. d. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels. e. the closure of the voltage-gated sodium channels.

d. limb movements that stimulate the respiratory center.

During exercise, ventilation initially increases due to a. increased blood carbon dioxide levels stimulating baroreceptors. b. decreased blood oxygen levels stimulating chemoreceptors. c. decreased blood pH levels stimulating baroreceptors. d. limb movements that stimulate the respiratory center. e. abrupt changes in metabolism or blood gases.

a. increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

During hemorrhagic shock in which blood pressure is decreased, which of the regulatory mechanisms is most important is increasing cardiac output to help maintain blood pressure? a. increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart b. increase venous return c. increase in parasympathetic stimulation of the heart d. increase vagal stimulation of the heart e. increase in the amplitude of the heart sounds

e. thromboxane; endothelin

During platelet plug formation, platelets release _____ and endothelial cells release ____ which lead to vasoconstriction. a. endothelin; thromboxane b. erythropoietin; thromboxane c. thromboxane; histamine d. histamine; heparin e. thromboxane; endothelin

a. aorta.

During the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, blood exits the left ventricle through the a. aorta. b. coronary sinus. c. pulmonary vein. d. superior vena cava. e. pulmonary trunk.

a. an increased ability to eliminate uric acid and creatine from the blood.

Effects of aging on the kidneys include all of the following, except a. an increased ability to eliminate uric acid and creatine from the blood. b. a gradual decrease in the size of the kidneys. c. a gradual decrease in blood flow through the kidneys. d. a loss of general function. e. a decline in absorption and secretion.

e. baroreceptors signal the hypothalamus to decrease ADH secretion.

Elevated blood pressure under resting conditions results in increased urinary output because a. baroreceptors signal the hypothalamus to increase ADH secretion. b. elevated blood pressure stimulates renin secretion. c. the amount of angiotensin II formed is increased. d. aldosterone levels increase. e. baroreceptors signal the hypothalamus to decrease ADH secretion.

d. increases surface area for lipid digestion.

Emulsification a. converts small lipid droplets into larger droplets. b. occurs in the gallbladder. c. chemically digests lipids. d. increases surface area for lipid digestion. e. involves enzymes.

c. activates trypsinogen.

Enterokinase a. is a hormone. b. triggers the release of bile from the gallbladder. c. activates trypsinogen. d. increases duodenal motility. e. digests proteins.

d. vitamin K.

Erythropoiesis does not require a. iron. b. vitamin B12. c. folate. d. vitamin K. e. All of these are required.

b. nitroglycerin.

Fred was admitted to the cardiac unit with chest pains. No arrhythmias and no large changes in the heart rate were observable. Blood samples taken over the next few days showed no increase in enzymes such as creatine phosphokinase. A possible treatment of the condition is a. beta adrenergic blocking agents. b. nitroglycerin. c. calcium channel blocking agents. d. aspirin. e. exercise.

c. cause mass movements of the colon when food is present in the stomach.

Gastrocolic reflexes are reflexes that a. empty the stomach. b. release gastric secretions into the stomach. c. cause mass movements of the colon when food is present in the stomach. d. lead to mass movements of the colon in response to food in the duodenum. e. stop movement in the colon.

e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes

Germinal centers are the sites of a. increased blood flow to the lymph nodes. b. fluid production. c. increased flow of lymph from infected tissues. d. entrance of lymph into lymph nodes. e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

Germinal centers are the sites of a. increased blood flow to the lymph nodes. b. fluid production. c. increased flow of lymph from infected tissues. d. entrance of lymph into lymph nodes. e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

b. glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid.

Glycolysis is best defined as the breakdown of a. glucose to carbon dioxide and water. b. glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid. c. pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water. d. glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate. e. glucose to glycogen.

e. give rise to all formed elements in the blood.

Hemocytoblast stem cells a. are specialized cells. b. are found in yellow bone marrow. c. form branches of trees. d. are abundant in the plasma. e. give rise to all formed elements in the blood.

a. basophils and mast cells.

Histamine and leukotrienes are released from a. basophils and mast cells. b. eosinophils and basophils. c. neutrophils and lymphocytes. d. macrophages and microphages. e. phagocytes.

c. estrogen and progesterone

Hot flashes during the climacteric are thought to be the result of decreased _____ levels. a. LH b. FSH c. estrogen and progesterone d. progesterone e. oxytocin

e. All of the choices are ways lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries.

How do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries? a. Lymphatic capillaries do not have a basement membrane. b. Simple squamous epithelial cells of lymphatics overlap with loose attachments. c. Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries. d. Lymphatic capillary epithelium act as one-way valves preventing movement of fluid back into interstitial spaces. e. All of the choices are ways lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries.

b. The hemoglobin within the RBC bind to carbon monoxide.

How does carbon monoxide affect red blood cells (RBCs)? a. It causes them to shrivel. b. The hemoglobin within the RBC bind to carbon monoxide. c. The hemoglobin rejects carbon monoxide. d. The RBCs clump together. e. The carbon monoxide converts to carbon dioxide.

a. Estrogen

Identify the hormone secreted during pregnancy that cause the ducts of the mammary glands to grow and branch when in high levels. a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Growth hormone

d. T-tubules

Identify the structures that contribute to the slow onset of contraction and prolonged contraction phase in cardiac muscle tissue. a. Desmosomes b. Gap junctions c. Intercalated discs d. T-tubules e. Terminal cisternae

a. removing excess hydrogen ions from the plasma.

If the hydrogen ion concentration in the blood increases, bicarbonate ions act as buffers by a. removing excess hydrogen ions from the plasma. b. releasing hydrogen ions into the plasma. c. dissociating into H+ and CO3-. d. combining with chloride ions. e. combining with hemoglobin.

b. will be completely reabsorbed by the tubule cells.

If the tubular maximum for a particular amino acid is 200 mg/100 ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 100 mg/100 ml, the amino acid a. will be actively secreted into the filtrate. b. will be completely reabsorbed by the tubule cells. c. will appear in the urine. d. will not appear in the urine. e. None of these choices is correct.

a. an increase in respiration rate.

If there is an accumulation of acidic products in the plasma, one would expect a. an increase in respiration rate. b. a decrease in respiration rate. c. no influence on respiration rate. d. an increase in residual volume. e. apnea.

e. anaerobic threshold

If you exercise with enough intensity that the blood pH is changed, you have exceeded the _______. a. aerobic threshold b. acidity point c. base point d. pH threshold e. anaerobic threshold

a. a disorder of the clotting process.

If your son is diagnosed with hemophilia, he would have a. a disorder of the clotting process. b. an infection of the blood. c. an increased erythrocyte count. d. a type of cancer affecting white blood cells. e. an antigen-antibody reaction.

c. an erection cannot be achieved or maintained.

Impotence occurs when a. the erectile tissues of the penis fill with blood. b. semen accumulates in the urethra. c. an erection cannot be achieved or maintained. d. semen moves out of the urethra. e. sperm cell production decreases.

a. less lipid.

In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein (LDL), a high density lipoprotein (HDL) contains a. less lipid. b. less protein. c. more cholesterol. d. more carbohydrate. e. more amino acids.

c. clitoris.

In females, the genital tubercle becomes the a. uterus. b. ovary. c. clitoris. d. vagina. e. labia.

d. neuromuscular excitability increases.

In hypocalcemia, a. depolarization is prevented. b. PTH production is reduced. c. blood calcium levels are increased. d. neuromuscular excitability increases. e. neuromuscular excitability decreases.

b. inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur.

In immunodeficiency diseases, a. the immune system fails to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens. b. inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur. c. IgE mediates a localized reaction. d. serum sickness results. e. immune surveillance occurs.

b. urethra.

In males, both urine and male reproductive fluids travel through the a. ureter. b. urethra. c. epididymis. d. spermatic cord. e. ductus deferens.

a. hydrogen ions.

In order to regulate the pH of extracellular fluid, the kidneys are able to adjust the excretion of: a. hydrogen ions. b. calcium. c. sodium. d. magnesium. e. potassium.

b. congenital disorder

In some neonates the foramen ovale does not close to form the fossa ovalis. This would be called a(n) _____. a. mutation b. congenital disorder c. teratogen d. genetic anomaly

d. all four chambers of the heart are in diastole at the same time

In the cardiac cycle, a. the right atrium and the right ventricle contract simultaneously. b. the left atrium contracts before the right atrium. c. all four chambers of the heart contract at the same time. d. all four chambers of the heart are in diastole at the same time.

b. the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract

In the cardiac cycle, a. the right atrium and the right ventricle contract simultaneously. b. the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract. c. the left atrium contracts before the right atrium. d. all four chambers of the heart contract at the same time. e. all four chambers of the heart are in systole at the same time.

b. tip of the loop of Henle

In which of the following locations is filtrate osmolality highest? a. end of proximal convoluted tubule b. tip of the loop of Henle c. end of distal convoluted tubule d. beginning of distal convoluted tubule e. descending loop of Henle

a. atherosclerosis.

Increased lipid deposits in the tunica intima of large arteries is called a. atherosclerosis. b. arteriosclerosis. c. a thrombus. d. an embolus. e. hardening of the arteries.

e. Increased tidal volume, minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation

Indicate the statement that describes respiratory function in a highly trained athlete at maximal exercise. a. Unchanged minute ventilation; increased respiratory rate; decreased vital capacity b. Increased residual volume, respiratory rate; decreased alveolar ventilation c. Increased tidal volume, unchanged minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation d. Increased minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation, unchanged tidal volume e. Increased tidal volume, minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation

d. gingivitis.

Inflammation of the gums is called a. dental carries. b. pyorrhea. c. halitosis. d. gingivitis.

d. gastric ulcer.

Inflammation of the stomach mucosa in the area superior to the pyloric sphincter is most appropriately referred to as a. esophagitis. b. a duodenal ulcer. c. a hiatal hernia. d. gastric ulcer. e. indigestion

e. All of these choices are correct.

Lymph movement is assisted by a. contraction of skeletal muscle. b. contraction of smooth muscle in lymph vessel. c. pressure changes in the thorax during respiration. d. compression of lymphatic vessels. e. All of these choices are correct.

b. capsule.

Lymph nodes are surrounded by a dense connective tissue called a. cortex. b. capsule. c. reticulum. d. trabeculum. e. basement membrane.

e. trap microorganisms

Lymphatic tissue contains an interlaced network of reticular fibers that functions to a. produce lymphocytes. b. produce capsules around lymph nodes. c. attack microorganisms. d. line the walls of lymphatic vessels. e. trap microorganisms.

e. cytotoxic T; helper

Lymphocytes with a CD8 glycoprotein on their surface are called ______ cells and lymphocytes with a CD4 glycoprotein on their surface are called ______ cells. a. cytotoxic T; B b. B; cytotoxic T c. B; helper T d. helper T; cytotoxic T e. cytotoxic T; helper

d. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

MHC class II molecules are found on a. neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages. b. dendritic cells, B cells, and helper T cells. c. monocytes, helper T cells, and neutrophils. d. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells. e. B cells, C cells and D cells.

c. monocytes.

Macrophages are derived from a. neutrophils. b. lymphocytes. c. monocytes. d. basophils. e. eosinophils.

d. remains in the abdominopelvic cavity.

Male infants can be born with an undescended testis. This means that the testis a. lacks hormonal cells. b. covers the top of the scrotum. c. has lost its blood supply. d. remains in the abdominopelvic cavity. e. has not properly formed.

a. in the form of bicarbonate ions.

Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood a. in the form of bicarbonate ions. b. bound to hemoglobin. c. dissolved in the plasma. d. by the leukocytes. e. in the form of carbonic acid.

d. unknown causes.

Most congenital birth defects are caused by a. inherited traits. b. lack of oxygen to the fetus. c. viral infections during pregnancy. d. unknown causes. e. None of these choices is correct.

b. by the seminal vesicles.

Most of the seminal fluid is produced a. by the testes. b. by the seminal vesicles. c. by the prostate gland. d. by the bulbourethral glands. e. by the ejaculatory duct.

a. proximal convoluted tubule.

Most water is reabsorbed from the filtrate in the a. proximal convoluted tubule. b. descending loop of Henle. c. ascending loop of Henle. d. distal convolute tubule. e. collecting duct.

a. an increase in respiration rate

Mr. I.M.A. Wreck's plasma pH is 7.2. Which of the following indicates that the body is attempting to compensate and return the body pH to normal? a. an increase in respiration rate b. a decrease in respiration rate c. no change in respiration rate

d. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

Put the following in the correct order after the blood pressure increases.(1) decreased sympathetic stimulation(2) increase in glomerulus filtration rate(3) increase in arterial blood pressure(4) increase in urine production(5) afferent arterioles dilate a. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 b. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 c. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 d. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 e. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1

d. aggregates of lymphatic tissue scattered throughout the lamina propria of mucous membranes

Mucosal associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) are: a. aggregates of macrophages located in the intestines. b. clusters of splenocytes located in the lamina propria of mucous membranes. c. clumps of mucous lining the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract. d. aggregates of lymphatic tissue scattered throughout the lamina propria of mucous membranes.

c. monounsaturated fats.

Olive and peanut oils are both a. solid fats. b. polyunsaturated fats. c. monounsaturated fats. d. fatty acids. e. hydrogenated.

d. each nephron has at least two capillary networks.

One feature of renal blood circulation that makes it unique is that a. there is a double set of venules. b. blood flows from arterioles into venules. c. blood flows from venules into arterioles. d. each nephron has at least two capillary networks. e. the nephron is only associated with the glomerulus.

d. functioning of T lymphocytes.

One reason for the increased incidence of cancer with aging is a decrease in a. urine output. b. cardiac output. c. red blood cells. d. functioning of T lymphocytes. e. functioning neutrophils.

a. scrotal sac

Optimum temperature for sperm production is 3 degrees cooler than body temperature. In which of the following locations would the testes produce the most sperm? a. scrotal sac b. pelvic cavity c. abdominal cavity d. vas deferens e. inguinal canal

b. increased secretion of potassium by the kidney.

Oversecretion of aldosterone causes a. decreased secretion of calcium by the kidney. b. increased secretion of potassium by the kidney. c. decreased reabsorption of sodium by the kidney. d. increased reabsorption of phosphate ions by the kidney. e. decreased secretion of potassium by the kidney.

c. hypernatremia

Oversecretion of aldosterone causes a. hyperkalemia. b. hypercalcemia. c. hypernatremia. d. increased urine volume. e. hyponatremia.

b. diffusion.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged across the respiratory membrane by the process of a. active transport. b. diffusion. c. filtration. d. osmosis. e. cotransport.

b. bronchial arteries

Oxygenated blood is carried to the tissues of the lungs via the a. pulmonary veins. b. bronchial arteries. c. pulmonary artery. d. abdominal aorta. e. pleural arteries.

d. small intestine and appendix.

Peyer patches are lymphatic nodules found in the a. lymph nodes. b. spleen and tonsils. c. appendix and tonsils. d. small intestine and appendix.

b. is the liquid matrix of the blood.

Plasma a. is one of the formed elements. b. is the liquid matrix of the blood. c. transports waste products but not nutrients. d. accounts for less than half of the blood volume. e. is serum plus formed elements.

b. is the liquid matrix of the blood.

Plasma a. is one of the formed elements. b. is the liquid matrix of the blood. c. transports waste products but not nutrients. d. accounts for less than half of the blood volume. e. is serum plus formed elements.

c. red bone marrow and thymus.

Primary lymphatic organs include the a. tonsils and spleen. b. thymus and lymph nodes. c. red bone marrow and thymus. d. red bone marrow and lymph nodes

b. metabolic alkalosis.

Prolonged vomiting of stomach contents will result in a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis. e. None of these choices is correct.

a. adipose tissue deposition in the breasts and around the hips.

Puberty in a female is characterized by a. adipose tissue deposition in the breasts and around the hips. b. increased muscle mass, especially in the hips. c. growth of facial hair. d. closure of the uterine tubes. e. growth of chest hair.

c. osmoreceptors.

Receptors sensitive to changes in the osmolality of extracellular fluid are the a. baroreceptors. b. chemoreceptors. c. osmoreceptors. d. pressoreceptors. e. proprioreceptors.

b. arterioles

Resistance to blood flow is greatest in a. arteries. b. arterioles. c. venules. d. veins. e. capillaries.

e. Veins have more elastic tissue.

Select the answer that is not true when comparing veins and arteries of the same diameter. a. Veins have thinner walls. b. Veins have valves. c. Veins have fewer smooth muscle fibers. d. Veins have a larger lumen. e. Veins have more elastic tissue.

c. is secreted by the sweat glands.

Sensible perspiration a. contains only water. b. is water lost through simple evaporation. c. is secreted by the sweat glands. d. is invisible on the skin. e. is secreted by salivary glands.

b. active artificial immunity.

Several research groups are working on vaccines that will be effective against the AIDS virus. When a successful vaccine is produced, it is likely to be injected to produce a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity. d. passive artificial immunity. e. active passive immunity.

c. seminiferous tubules.

Sperm are produced in the a. rete testis. b. efferent ductules. c. seminiferous tubules. d. interstitial cells. e. vas deferens.

d. seminiferous tubules; epididymis

Sperm are produced in the _____ and complete maturation in the _____. a. epididymis; testes b. ductus deferens; epididymis c. seminiferous tubules; prostate gland d. seminiferous tubules; epididymis e. seminiferous tubules; vas deferens

e. 144 hours.

Spermatozoa may remain viable in the female reproductive tract for as long as a. 24 hours. b. 48 hours. c. 72 hours. d. 96 hours. e. 144 hours.

a. carbohydrates.

Starches and sugars are examples of a. carbohydrates. b. lipids. c. proteins. d. vitamins. e. minerals.

d. atrial natriuretic hormone.

Stretch receptors in the atria are responsible for the secretion of a. ADH. b. renin. c. aldosterone. d. atrial natriuretic hormone. e. angiotensin.

a. veins.

Structurally, lymph vessels are most similar to a. veins. b. arteries. c. arterioles. d. capillaries. e. venules.

d. extracellular

Synovial fluid is a part of which of the following fluid compartments? a. plasma b. interstitial c. intracellular d. extracellular e. cytoplasm

b. during unprotected sexual intercourse.

The HIV virus can be transmitted a. only from males to other males. b. during unprotected sexual intercourse. c. by coughing or sneezing. d. by contact with people at work. e. by hugging an infected child.

b. during unprotected sexual intercourse.

The HIV virus can be transmitted a. only from males to other males. b. during unprotected sexual intercourse. c. by coughing or sneezing. d. by contact with people at work. e. by hugging an infected child.

d. helper T cells.

The HIV virus infects a. B cells. b. cytotoxic T cells. c. suppressor T cells. d. helper T cells. e. monocytes.

c. allow the immune system to respond to antigens inside cells.

The MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class molecules a. are only found on B cells. b. are found in the nucleus of cells. c. allow the immune system to respond to antigens inside cells. d. are lipoproteins on cell surfaces. e. do not attach to plasma membranes.

a. occurs immediately to about 4 hours after meals.

The absorptive state a. occurs immediately to about 4 hours after meals. b. is when glycogenolysis usually occurs. c. has gluconeogenesis as one of its main events. d. occurs in the large intestine. e. occurs just before breakfast.

c. bulbourethral glands.

The accessory glands located near the membranous urethra are the a. seminal vesicles. b. inguinal glands. c. bulbourethral glands. d. seminal receptacles. e. penal glands.

e. uterus.

The cervix is a portion of the a. vagina. b. external genitalia. c. oviduct. d. uterine tube. e. uterus.

e. medulla oblongata.

The chemosensitive area of the brain is located in the a. pons. b. cerebral peduncles. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. e. medulla oblongata.

d. passes through the inguinal canal and enters the pelvic cavity.

The ductus deferens a. stores sperm until ejaculation. b. travels through the bladder. c. ascends the abdominal cavity along the posterior side of the kidney. d. passes through the inguinal canal and enters the pelvic cavity. e. passes just beneath the skin to the penis.

d. capillaries.

The exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of a. veins. b. arteries. c. arterioles. d. capillaries. e. venules.

b. rapid development of ovarian follicles.

The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by a. ovulation. b. rapid development of ovarian follicles. c. formation of the corpus luteum. d. high progesterone levels. e. maturation of and secretion by uterine glands.

a. hydrolyze fibrin

The function of plasmin is to a. hydrolyze fibrin. b. activate factor XII. c. promote platelet plug formation. d. control osmotic pressure of the blood. e. promote the formation of plasma.

c. common bile duct and pancreatic duct.

The hepatopancreatic ampulla is formed by the union of the a. pancreatic duct with the lacteals. b. greater duodenal papilla with the lesser duodenal papilla. c. common bile duct and pancreatic duct. d. cystic duct and interlobular duct. e. hepatic ducts and cystic ducts.

c. anaerobic threshold.

The highest level of exercise that can be performed without causing a significant change in blood pH is called the a. Hering-Breuer reflex. b. aerobic threshold. c. anaerobic threshold. d. lactic acid tolerance level.

d. keep the corpus luteum from degenerating.

The hormone hCG is necessary to a. form the corpus luteum. b. cause the endometrium to proliferate. c. stimulate primary oocytes to divide. d. keep the corpus luteum from degenerating. e. destroy the corpus luteum.

e. both estrogen and progesterone.

The hormone(s) responsible for preparing the breasts for lactation during pregnancy is (are). a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. oxytocin. d. prolactin. e. both estrogen and progesterone.

d. Folic acid

The inclusion of ______________ in a woman's diet during the early stages of her pregnancy significantly reduces the risk for neural tube defects in her developing embryo. a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin A d. Folic acid e. Calcium

c. delayed hypersensitivity cells.

The intense inflammatory response seen in poison ivy is due to activity of the a. cytotoxic T cells. b. plasma cells. c. delayed hypersensitivity cells. d. macrophages. e. mast cells.

c. renal fat pad.

The kidney is protected from mechanical shock by the a. hilum. b. renal fascia. c. renal fat pad. d. renal capsule. e. renal cortex.

a. peritoneal; abdominal

The kidneys are located behind the ____________ membrane on the posterior side of the _______________ wall. a. peritoneal; abdominal b. peritoneal; pelvic c. renal; abdominal d. renal; pelvic e. pleural; pelvic

e. lobes; segments

The largest division of each lung are _____, which are divided into _____. a. lobules; segments b. segments; lobules c. lobes; lobules d. segments; lobes e. lobes; segments

d. great saphenous vein.

The longest vein in the body is the a. superior vena cava. b. inferior vena cava. c. hepatic portal vein. d. great saphenous vein. e. femoral vein.

a. the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues.

The lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that a. the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues. b. the lymphatic vessels have their own "pump" to assist flow. c. lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid. d. lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries. e. lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not.

a. lipid absorption from the digestive tract.

The lymphatic system is involved in a. lipid absorption from the digestive tract. b. transporting lymph from the intestines to the liver. c. maintenance of pH in the tissues. d. production of erythrocytes. e. protein metabolism.

b. returning interstitial fluid to the plasma.

The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by a. adding lymph to GI tract secretions. b. returning interstitial fluid to the plasma. c. transporting lymph from tissues to the liver. d. carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted. e. actively absorbing fluid from the blood.

c. organ systems are developing in an embryo while all organs are present in a fetus.

The major difference between an embryo and a fetus is that a. a fetus can survive outside the mother's womb but an embryo cannot. b. a fetus is smaller than an embryo. c. organ systems are developing in an embryo while all organs are present in a fetus. d. a fetus is a male child while an embryo is a female child. e. None of these choices is correct.

a. sodium

The most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid is _________________. a. sodium b. potassium c. chloride d. calcium e. magnesium

b. capsular hydrostatic pressure.

The movement of fluid into Bowman's capsule is opposed by a. filtration pressure. b. capsular hydrostatic pressure. c. glomerular capillary pressure. d. osmotic pressure of the medulla of the kidney. e. blood pressure.

b. vascular spasm.

The nervous system and certain chemicals can cause the constriction of a blood vessel. This is known as a. platelet adhesion. b. vascular spasm. c. hemostasis. d. coagulation.

c. leukocytes.

The only formed elements that possess a nucleus when mature are the a. thrombocytes. b. erythrocytes. c. leukocytes. d. platelets. e. RBCs.

c. inguinal canal.

The opening in the abdominal wall through which the testes descend is the a. spermatic cord. b. gubernaculum. c. inguinal canal. d. process vaginalis. e. perineal opening.

d. has boundaries that include the lips, palate and cheeks.

The oral cavity a. opens into the nasopharynx. b. directly connects with the esophagus. c. does not contain parotid salivary glands. d. has boundaries that include the lips, palate and cheeks. e. is lined with cuboidal epithelium.

d. ligaments.

The ovaries and uterus are held in position within the pelvis by bands of tissue called a. follicles. b. muscles. c. endometrium. d. ligaments. e. tendons.

c. ovarian ligament.

The ovary is attached to the superior margin of the uterus by the a. mesovarium. b. broad ligament. c. ovarian ligament. d. suspensory ligament. e. round ligament.

c. structures near the carotids and aortic arch

The peripheral chemoreceptors that respond to oxygen levels of the blood and regulate heart activity are located in _______________. a. the left ventricle b. the infundibulum of the hypothalamus c. structures near the carotids and aortic arch d. the medulla oblongata e. the right ventricle

d. fibrinogen.

The plasma component that forms fibrin, the insoluble protein, in a blood clot is a. sodium. b. albumin. c. globulin. d. fibrinogen. e. fibrinolysis.

d. play a role in switching between inspiration and expiration

The pontine respiratory neurons Select one: a. are located in the medulla oblongata in the brain. b. are active only during inspiration. c. are active only during expiration. d. play a role in switching between inspiration and expiration. e. is essential for respiratory rhythm.

c. glucose.

The primary source of energy for most cells is a. sucrose. b. fructose. c. glucose. d. maltose. e. lactose.

a. angioplasty.

The procedure whereby a small balloon is placed into a partially occluded coronary artery and then inflated to increase blood flow through the artery is called a(n) a. angioplasty. b. coronary bypass. c. urokinase injection. d. tissue plasminogen activation. e. angiogram.

a. gastrulation

The process of forming three germ layers from the embryonic disk is called ______. a. gastrulation b. differentiation c. fertilization d. meiosis e. implantation

b. increased blood flow to the area.

The redness and heat seen in an inflamed area are the result of a. vasoconstriction. b. increased blood flow to the area. c. phagocyte mobilization. d. production of interferon. e. a reddish substance released by erythrocytes.

c. right arm, right chest, and right side of head.

The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the a. abdomen. b. upper part of the body. c. right arm, right chest, and right side of head. d. right side of the body. e. left arm, left chest, and left side of head.

b. it is penetrated by a sperm cell.

The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division when a. the mature follicle ruptures. b. it is penetrated by a sperm cell. c. it is implanted in the uterus. d. it receives both estrogen and progesterone. e. ovulation occurs.

c. pleural membranes.

The serous membranes that surround the lungs are called the a. mucous membranes. b. synovial membranes. c. pleural membranes. d. peritoneal membranes. e. pulmonary membranes.

a. filters damaged red blood cells from the blood.

The spleen a. filters damaged red blood cells from the blood. b. changes undifferentiated lymphocytes into competent lymphocytes. c. is necessary for life. It can't be removed without causing death. d. produces several different hormones with unknown function. e. has additional digestive functions.

c. corpus spongiosum.

The spongy urethra is surrounded by the a. corpus cavernosum. b. prostate gland. c. corpus spongiosum. d. bulbourethral glands.

b. the second stage

The stage of labor in which the fetus is expelled is a. the first stage. b. the second stage. c. the third stage. d. the fourth stage. e. the fifth stage.

c. provide nourishment for development of sperm.

The sustentacular cells a. mature to form sperm cells. b. produce testosterone. c. provide nourishment for development of sperm. d. cover and protect most of the testes. e. produce seminal fluid.

a. pre-T cells

The thymus is where ____ mature and become functional immune cells. a. pre-T cells b. pre-B cells c. macrophages d. null cells e. C cells.

d. 55%

The total blood volume is ____ plasma. a. 50% b. 90% c. 75% d. 55%

c. memory cell.

The type of cell responsible for the secondary response is a a. mast cell. b. macrophage. c. memory cell. d. red blood cell. e. monocyte.

b. are special capillaries that supply nutrients to the walls of arteries and veins.

The vasa vasorum a. are incompetent valves in the large veins. b. are special capillaries that supply nutrients to the walls of arteries and veins. c. are the blood vessels that supply blood to the vas deferens. d. are blood vessels that directly connect arteries to veins. e. supply blood to skeletal muscle.

d. increase surface area for absorption.

The villi, microvilli and plicae circularis function to a. liberate hormones. b. promote peristalsis. c. produce bile. d. increase surface area for absorption. e. stimulate chemical digestion.

e. is part of the filtration membrane and contains podocytes.

The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule a. is part of the filtration membrane. b. is called endothelium. c. contains podocytes. d. is part of the filtration membrane and is called endothelium. e. is part of the filtration membrane and contains podocytes.

c. provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities.

Tonsils a. increase in size in adults. b. are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities. c. provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities. d. contain red pulp and white pulp. e. are not functional in children.

c. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

Trace the path of a red blood cell from the renal artery to the glomerulus:(1) interlobar artery(2) interlobular artery(3) segmental artery(4) arcuate artery(5) afferent arteriole a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 c. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 d. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 e. 1, 4, 3, 2

d. 2, 3, 1, 4

Trace the pathway of an egg as it passes through the uterine tube.(1) ampulla(2) fimbriae(3) infundibulum(4) isthmus a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 4, 1, 3 c. 3, 4, 1, 2 d. 2, 3, 1, 4 e. 3, 1, 2, 4

b. passes through the filtration membrane into the nephron each minute.

Tubular load refers to the amount of a given substance that a. is present in the blood as it enters the afferent arteriole of the nephron. b. passes through the filtration membrane into the nephron each minute. c. can be actively reabsorbed from the filtrate. d. can be secreted into the filtrate. e. None of these choices is correct.

c. has both A and B antigens on the red cells.

Type AB blood a. has no antigens on the red cells. b. has O antigens on the red cells. c. has both A and B antigens on the red cells. d. has both A and B antibodies on the red cells. e. has both A and B antibodies in the plasma.

a. sinus arrhythmia.

Variations in respiratory rate is a symptom of a. sinus arrhythmia. b. ventricular tachycardia. c. SA node block. d. paroxysmal atrial tachycardia

e. sympathetic; parasympathetic

Vasoconstriction is caused by ______ stimulation of vascular smooth muscle; ______ stimulation of vascular smooth muscle causes vasodilation. a. decreased; increased b. parasympathetic; sympathetic c. sympathetic; increased d. parasympathetic; decreased e. sympathetic; parasympathetic

a. movement of K+ through voltage-gated K+ channels

What action is most responsible for the resting membrane potential in cardiac muscle cells? a. movement of K+ through voltage-gated K+ channels b. movement of Na+ through open Na+ channels c. movement of Ca2+ through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels. d. closing of Na+ and K+ voltage-gated channels

e. Blood vessels that nourish the tunica adventitia and tunica media

What are vasa vasorum? a. Blood vessels that connect primary and secondary capillary networks. b. Structures within veins that keep blood flowing in one direction. c. Connective tissue that surrounds large vessels. d. Nerve plexuses surrounding the blood vessel. e. Blood vessels that nourish the tunica adventitia and tunica media.

b. ventricular fibrillation

What cardiac arrhythmia will have no QRS complex as a symptom? a. atrial fibrillation b. ventricular fibrillation c. bradycardia d. premature ventricular contractions

a. Hirschprung disease

What disease is caused by the absence of enteric neurons in the distal large intestine? a. Hirschprung disease b. multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 c. spastic colon d. gastroenteritis

a. The excess accumulation of fluid in the abdomen

What is ascites? a. The excess accumulation of fluid in the abdomen b. The increased absorption of water from the chime in the colon c. The increased secretion of digestive enzymes due to nervous stimulation d. The rapid elimination of feces due to toxin production

c. blood capillaries and a lacteal

What is found in an intestinal villus? a. brush border b. digestive enzymes c. blood capillaries and a lacteal d. Peyer patches and a lacteal

b. The activation of enzymes for action on the surface of the egg

What is the acrosomal reaction? a. The formation of the acrosome in the epididymis b. The activation of enzymes for action on the surface of the egg c. The release of ADP from the mitochondria on the midpiece d. The release of prostatic fluid to produce the semen

b. Menopause

What is the cessation of menstruation referred to as? a. Menarche b. Menopause c. Climacteric d. Pubarche

c. oxygen

What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain? a. water b. NADH c. oxygen d. carbon dioxide

c. pacemaker cells that promote rhythmic contractions of the smooth muscle

What is the function of interstitial cells of the myenteric plexus? a. chemoreceptors that detect the chemical composition of food b. production of mucus for lubrication and protection c. pacemaker cells that promote rhythmic contractions of the smooth muscle d. release of enzymes for chemical digestion

d. maturation of T-cells

What is the function of thymosin? a. destroys damaged red blood cells b. destroys damaged white blood cells c. activates lymphocytes in lymph nodes d. maturation of T-cells

b. diffusion

What is the most important means by which capillary exchange occurs? a. exocytosis b. diffusion c. ATP powered pumps d. facilitated diffusion

b. valves

What structural feature of lymphatic vessels is responsible to forward movement of lymph? a. over-lapping endothelial cells b. valves c. no basement membrane d. thin walls

c. oxidation-reduction reactions

What type of reactions are involved in ATP production? a. single replacement reactions b. combustion reactions c. oxidation-reduction reactions d. neutralization reactions

b. vitamin K

What vitamin is necessary to produce many clotting factors in the liver? a. vitamin C b. vitamin K c. vitamin D d. vitamin B3

b. It would become nonfunctional.

What would happen to a vitamin if its chemical structure is destroyed by catabolism? a. It could be recycled. b. It would become nonfunctional. c. It becomes a provitamin. d. It becomes a coenzyme. e. Nothing; this is normal.

e. vocal folds (cords)

When air passes through the glottis, which structures vibrate to produce sound? a. thyroid folds b. ventricular folds c. epiglottal cords d. cricohyoid folds e. vocal folds (cords)

b. bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin.

When defective erythrocytes are broken down, a. they are removed from the blood by the lungs. b. bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin. c. their heme groups are converted into amino acids. d. their iron is excreted into the small intestine. e. their components cannot be recycled.

c. lactic acid.

When glucose is metabolized in the absence of oxygen, one of the end products is a. pyruvic acid. b. ketone bodies. c. lactic acid. d. citric acid. e. nitric acid.

a. After cleavage of sugar

When is NAD+ reduced to form NADH in glycolysis? a. After cleavage of sugar b. First step of the process c. Right before the cleavage step d. Right before conversion to pyruvic acid

e. when pressure in the brachial artery is greater than in the blood pressure cuff and greater than the diastolic pressure

When measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer, which of the following best describes when blood flow in the brachial artery is turbulent? a. while the left ventricle is contracting b. when pressure in the blood pressure cuff is greater than systolic but less than the diastolic pressure c. when pressure in the blood pressure cuff is greater than the diastolic pressure d. when pressure in the blood pressure cuff is less than the diastolic pressure e. when pressure in the brachial artery is greater than in the blood pressure cuff and greater than the diastolic pressure

c. ammonia.

When the amine (NH2) group is stripped off of an amino acid, this amine group is converted to a. lactic acid. b. glucose. c. ammonia. d. glycerol. e. urea.

a. thoracic volume increases.

When the inspiratory muscles contract, a. thoracic volume increases. b. pleural pressure increases. c. the alveolar pressure increases. d. expiration occurs. e. thoracic volume decreases.

b. hepatopancreatic ampulla

Where does bile enter the duodenum? a. cystic duct b. hepatopancreatic ampulla c. hepatic duct d. duodenal ampulla

c. increased epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla

Which of the following factors would cause an increase in heart rate? a. increased parasympathetic stimulation b. stimulation of baroreceptors in the aorta c. increased epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla d. increased production of atrial natriuretic factor e. vagal stimulation

a. seminal vesicles - provide nutrients for sperm

Which of the following glands is correctly matched with its function? a. seminal vesicles - provide nutrients for sperm b. prostate - lubricates the penis during intercourse c. bulbourethral glands - produce a thin, sweet fluid d. testes - produce most of the semen e. prostate - contributes most of the fluid

a. testosterone

Which of the following hormones is produced by the testis? a. testosterone b. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) d. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) e. luteinizing hormone (LH)

d. testosterone

Which of the following hormones would decrease if an adult male were castrated (testes removed)? a. GnRH b. FSH c. LH d. testosterone e. ADH

c. increased surface area of the respiratory membrane

Which of the following increases the rate of gas exchange across the respiratory membrane? a. increased fluid in the alveoli b. increased thickness of the respiratory membrane c. increased surface area of the respiratory membrane d. increased connective tissue in the alveolar wall e. decreased surface area of the respiratory membrane

d. an elderly homeless man

Which of the following individuals is most likely to be in a negative nitrogen balance? a. a healthy pregnant woman b. a 10-year-old child c. an adult woman with adequate protein intake d. an elderly homeless man e. a healthy adult man who exercises

a. a well-trained athlete (male or female)

Which of the following individuals will have the highest vital capacity? a. a well-trained athlete (male or female) b. a middle-aged, short female c. an 80-year-old male d. a young, obese male e. an adult female

d. ulnar artery

Which of the following is NOT a major point where the pulse can be monitored? a. common carotid artery b. facial artery c. popliteal artery d. ulnar artery

d. buccinator

Which of the following is NOT a muscle of mastication? a. temporalis b. masseter c. medial and lateral pterygoids d. buccinator

d. speech

Which of the following is NOT a necessary function of the tongue? a. swallowing b. chewing c. taste d. speech

c. increased minute ventilation after training

Which of the following is NOT a respiratory adaptation to exercise training? a. vital capacity increases b. tidal volume at maximal exercise will increase c. increased minute ventilation after training d. after training, respiratory rate at rest is lower

d. decline of sperm production until no more sperm are produced

Which of the following is NOT an age-related change in the male reproductive system? a. increase in erectile dysfunction b. prostatic hypertrophy c. size and weight of testes decrease d. decline of sperm production until no more sperm are produced

a. Fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced.

Which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the lymphatic system and immunity? a. Fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced. b. Fewer antibodies are produced. c. Onset of autoimmune diseases is unchanged. d. T cell numbers remain constant but they are less functional.

d. a marked decrease in the ability to maintain homeostasis

Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the kidneys? a. decrease in kidney size b. loss of nephrons c. decreased response to hormonal control of urine volume d. a marked decrease in the ability to maintain homeostasis

d. thick layer of mucus lining the alveolus

Which of the following is NOT part of the respiratory membrane? a. simple squamous epithelium of the alveolus and its basement membrane b. interstitial space c. pulmonary capillary simple squamous epithelium and its basement membrane d. thick layer of mucus lining the alveolus

a. coagulation

Which of the following is a stage of hemostasis? a. coagulation b. erythropoiesis c. platelet formation d. vascular dilation e. agglutination

c. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

Which of the following is administered to the people suffering from myocardial infarction following onset of symptoms? a. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents b. Nitroglycerine c. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) d. Digitalis

b. linoleic acid

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? a. lecithin b. linoleic acid c. stearic acid d. butyric acid e. hydrochloric acid

b. the loop of Henle

Which of the following is between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules? a. the glomerulus b. the loop of Henle c. the distal convoluted tubule d. the proximal convoluted tubule e. collecting duct

b. There is currently only one cure for AIDS - AZT.

Which of the following is false? a. The HIV virus binds to the CD4 molecule of host cells. b. There is currently only one cure for AIDS - AZT. c. Most manifestations of AIDS are explained by the loss of helper T cell functions. d. Once infected by the virus, a person will test positive for HIV antibodies. e. In order for HIV to replicate, viral RNA is used to make viral DNA, which is inserted into the host cell's DNA.

c. mechanical stimulation of the breasts that cause release of oxytocin

Which of the following is involved a. increased estrogen levels b. increased progesterone levels c. mechanical stimulation of the breasts that cause release of oxytocin d. secretion of a small amount of milk e. None of these choices is correct

d. sigmoid colon

Which of the following is located closest to the rectum? a. ascending colon b. descending colon c. transverse colon d. sigmoid colon e. cecum

a. an increase in urine volume

Which of the following is most likely to happen to a group of students who relax by drinking a pitcher of their favorite beverage? a. an increase in urine volume b. an increase in urine osmolality c. an increase in ADH production d. increased aldosterone secretion e. a decrease in urine volume

a. It forms the developing embryo.

Which of the following statements about the syncytiotrophoblast is false? a. It forms the developing embryo. b. It is composed of a non-dividing, multinucleated cell. c. It is nonantigenic, so that it triggers no immune response. d. It invades the maternal tissues that compose the endometrium of the uterus. e. It forms lacunae.

d. Both release histamine when activated.

Which of the following statements concerning neutrophils and macrophages is false? a. They both exhibit chemotaxis. b. They both move by amoeboid motion. c. Both are capable of phagocytosis. d. Both release histamine when activated. e. Both can squeeze between cells.

a. The inferior portion is the cervix.

Which of the following statements concerning the uterus is true? a. The inferior portion is the cervix. b. The isthmus separates the body and the fundus. c. The fundus forms the major portion of this organ. d. The uterine wall is composed of four layers. e. The cervical canal is in the superior portion of the uterus.

a. The seminal vesicles open into the membranous urethra

Which of the following statements is false? a. The seminal vesicles open into the membranous urethra. b. The prostate gland surrounds the prostatic urethra and ejaculatory ducts. c. The bulbourethral glands enter the spongy urethra at the base of the penis. d. The prostate gland contains smooth muscle partitions covered with columnar epithelium. e. The seminal vesicles are sac-shaped glands located next to the ampullae of the ductus deferentia.

b. Anabolic reactions are involved in the production of proteins from amino acids.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Catabolic reactions are synthesis reactions. b. Anabolic reactions are involved in the production of proteins from amino acids. c. The energy derived from anabolism is used to drive catabolism. d. Anabolic reactions release energy. e. Catabolic reactions consume energy.

a. The primary role of carbohydrates is to serve as an energy source.

Which of the following statements is true? a. The primary role of carbohydrates is to serve as an energy source. b. Carbohydrates include sugars, starches, and amino acids. c. Maltose is a complex carbohydrate. d. Sucrose is the primary source of energy for most cells. e. Most carbohydrates come from animal products.

c. Leukocytes are the largest of the formed elements.

Which of the following statements regarding leukocytes is TRUE? a. Leukocytes have no nucleus. b. Leukocytes play a role in oxygen transport. c. Leukocytes are the largest of the formed elements. d. Leukocytes are only fragments of cells. e. There is only one kind of leukocyte.

a. Increased metabolic rate in a tissue increases capillary blood flow into the tissue.

Which of the following statements regarding regulation of local blood flow is true? a. Increased metabolic rate in a tissue increases capillary blood flow into the tissue. b. Blood flow through capillaries is continuous. c. Contraction of precapillary sphincters will increase blood flow to a capillary bed. d. Increased levels of carbon dioxide increase the contraction of precapillary sphincters. e. Tissue need for oxygen and amino acids will cause precapillary sphincters to contract.

c. pancreas

Which of the following structures has both endocrine and exocrine tissue? a. colon b. liver c. pancreas d. gallbladder e. spleen

d. urogenital triangle

Which of the following structures is located within the perineum? a. dartos b. seminal vesicles c. femoral triangle d. urogenital triangle e. navel

d. median cubital vein

Which of the following veins is NOT involved in draining blood from the arm? a. brachial vein b. basilic vein c. cephalic vein d. median cubital vein

c. use of contaminated needles

Which of the following will increase your risk of contracting the HIV virus? a. use of a condom during intercourse b. heat treatment of clotting factors prior to transfusion c. use of contaminated needles d. reduction in the number of sexual partners e. abstinence

a. nasopharynx

Which part of the pharynx is NOT involved with food transport? a. nasopharynx b. oropharynx c. laryngopharynx d. All the the choices are involved with food transport

b. Veins contain valves and arteries do not.

Which statement is CORRECT? a. For an artery and vein of the same diameter, the vein would have a thicker wall. b. Veins contain valves and arteries do not. c. Blood pressure is lower in arteries than in veins. d. When empty, an artery is more likely to be collapsed (flattened) than a vein. e. Both arteries and veins are under pressure.

a. sinusoidal capillaries

Which type of capillaries have large fenestrae and are found in endocrine glands? a. sinusoidal capillaries b. continuous capillaries c. fenestrated capillaries d. sinusoids

d. pulmonary arteries

Which vessels transport blood to the right and left lungs? Select one: a. aorta b. right atrium c. pulmonary trunk d. pulmonary arteries e. pulmonary veins

d. neutrophils and monocytes

Which white blood cells function primarily as phagocytotic cells? a. monocytes and lymphocytes b. basophils and neutrophils c. eosinophils and monocytes d. neutrophils and monocytes

d. Boyles Law

Whose law explains that an increase in volume causes a decrease in pressure? a. Henry's Law b. Dalton's Law c. Charles Law d. Boyles Law

c. The first phase of swallowing is under voluntary control.

Why does the superior part of the esophagus contain skeletal muscle instead of smooth muscle? a. The first phase of swallowing is under involuntary control. b. The second phase of swallowing is under voluntary control. c. The first phase of swallowing is under voluntary control. d. The second phase of swallowing is under involuntary control.

d. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin destroy the cell walls of bacteria which cause a toxin to be released that will destroy cardiac muscle cells.

Why is it important to use an antibiotic other than ampicillin in the treatment of bacterial pneumonia? a. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin destroy the cell walls of cardiac muscle cells. b. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin cause the cells lining blood vessels to endocytose bacteria and deposit them in cardiac muscle tissue. c. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin are not effective in the treatment of bacterial pneumonia. d. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin destroy the cell walls of bacteria which cause a toxin to be released that will destroy cardiac muscle cells.

d. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin destroy the cell walls of bacteria which cause a toxin to be released that will destroy cardiac muscle cells.

Why is it important to use an antibiotic other than ampicillin in the treatment of bacterial pneumonia? a. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin destroy the cell walls of cardiac muscle cells. b. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin cause the cells lining blood vessels to endocytose bacteria and deposit them in cardiac muscle tissue. c. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin are not effective in the treatment of bacterial pneumonia. d. Because antibiotics, such as ampicillin destroy the cell walls of bacteria which cause a toxin to be released that will destroy cardiac muscle cells.

a. an increase in cardiac output and force of left ventricular contraction.

Within normal limits, an increase in preload leads to a. an increase in cardiac output and force of left ventricular contraction. b. a decrease in cardiac output and force of left ventricular contraction. c. an increase in cardiac output and a decrease in force of left ventricular contraction. d. a decrease in cardiac output and an increase in the force of left ventricular contraction. e. a decrease in stroke volume and heart rate.