ACSM Quiz Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

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Ischemia is caused by:

A lack of oxygen.

Ischemia is caused by: a) A lack of oxygen. b) Chest pain. c) Decreased stroke volume. d) Left ventricular dysfunction.

A lack of oxygen. Explanation: Ischemia occurs because oxygen supply cannot meet the oxygen demand for rest or activity. This is usually caused by atherosclerosis, and pain is a commonly reported symptom.

Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest. a) Minor soreness b) Joint tightness c) Moderate soreness d) Transient hypertrophy

"Heaviness" Explanation: "Heaviness" is a common symptom that is reported and is consistent with an ischemic response to exercise or exertion.

Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease? a) "Beating" b) "Heaviness" c) "Light-headed" d) "Pounding"

"Heaviness" Explanation: "Heaviness" is a common symptom that is reported and is consistent with an ischemic response to exercise or exertion.

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? a) 0.79 b) 0.85 c) 0.82 d) 0.88

0.88 Explanation: Health risk with respect to waist-to-hip ratio is considered high when more than 0.86.

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? a) 0.82 b) 0.85 c) 0.88 d) 0.79 Submit your answer

0.88 Explanation: Health risk with respect to waist-to-hip ratio is considered high when more than 0.86.

A 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. You review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. Based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors?

1 Explanation: This individual is considered as having one risk factor because she is on hypertensive medication.

Which of the following fasting blood glucose levels are indicative of prediabetes? a) 124 mg·dL-1 b) 96 mg·dL-1 c) 82 mg·dL-1 d) 145 mg·dL-1

124 mg·dL-1 Explanation: Prediabetes is defined as fasting blood glucose that is between 100 and 126 mg·dL-1

What would be a good target heart rate range for a moderately trained female, age 42, with a resting heart rate of 60?

143 to 154 bpm Explanation: Moderately trained individuals may find that 70% to 80% VO2max provides a sufficient training stimulus.

Health and fitness benefits occur with at least ______ minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity. a) 75 b) 150 c) 180 d) 60

150 Explanation: Moderate-intensity exercise is recommended at least 30 minutes per day, at least 5 days per week, for a total of at least 150 minutes.

In reviewing your client's medical history, you note that she is on lipid lowering medication and her high-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 62 mg·dL-1. Based on her profile, how many total risk factors does she have?

A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL-1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have?

2 Explanation: This client's age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.

A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL-1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have? a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) 2

2 Explanation: This client's age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.

A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL-1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have?

2 Explanation: This client's age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.

Please refer to client profile below: 45-year-old male Mother has hypertension Father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59 Quit smoking 20 years ago Walks dog 1 to 2 times per day, for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mm Hg Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg·dL-1 LDL cholesterol: 138 mg·dL-1 HDL cholesterol: 48 mg·dL-1 Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg·dL-1 Goals: Lose 20 lb; increase muscle strength and cardiorespiratory fitness What is this client's "total score" for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds?

3 Explanation: Risk includes age, sedentary lifestyle, and high LDL levels.

A client with hardly any regular past exercise history plans to work with you for 8 weeks as she is ready to get fit and lose weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goal?

30, shorter multiple bouts

Which of the following best describes the scapular or caption plane?

30° anterior to the frontal plane

Which of the following best describes the scapular or caption plane? a) 30° lateral to the sagittal plane b) 30° anterior to the frontal plane c) In line with the frontal plane d) In line with the sagittal plane

30° anterior to the frontal plane Explanation: The scapula lies in the scapular plane [also known as scaption] that lies 30° anteriorly, relative to the frontal plane.

Which of the following best describes the scapular or scaption plane? a) 30° anterior to the frontal plane b) 30° lateral to the sagittal plane c) In line with the sagittal plane d) In line with the frontal plane

30° anterior to the frontal plane Explanation: The scapula lies in the scapular plane [also known as scaption] that lies 30° anteriorly, relative to the frontal plane.

Approximately 50% of people who start an exercise program will drop out within the first: a) 12 months. b) 9 months. c) 6 months. d) 3 months.

6 months. Explanation: Approximately 50% of people who begin an exercise program will drop out within the first 6 months

What is the ideal frequency and duration of exercise for a child age 10?

60 minutes per day, at least 3 days a week Correct

Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise? a) 35%-40% b) 85%-90% c) 15%-20% d) 55%-60%

85%-90% Explanation: At rest, 15%-20% of cardiac output is distributed to the skeletal muscles; the remainder goes to the visceral organs. However, during exercise, as much as 85%-90% of cardiac ouput is selectively delivered to working muscles and shunted away from the skin and the internal organs. (less)

Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise? a) 55%-60% b) 85%-90% c) 15%-20% d) 35%-40%

Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise? a) 15%-20% b) 85%-90% c) 55%-60% d) 35%-40%

85%-90% Explanation: At rest, 15%-20% of cardiac output is distributed to the skeletal muscles; the remainder goes to the visceral organs. However, during exercise, as much as 85%-90% of cardiac output is selectively delivered to working muscles and shunted away from the skin and the internal organs. (less)

A Personal Trainer may begin immediately training which of the following clients?

A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis Explanation: This client is not at any risk threshold for age or health condition. Thus, training may begin immediately without medical clearance.

According to the 2013 ACSM Guidelines, significant health benefits can be achieved with ________. a) Strength training and cardio respiratory exercise using small and large muscle groups, 20 to 30 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days a week. b) An accumulation of at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity on most days of the week. c) Performing moderate-to-vigorous cardio respiratory exercise using large muscle groups, 10 to 20 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days a week. d) A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.

A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week. Correct Explanation: Through research, ACSM has determined that 3 to 5 days of moderate to vigorous exercise for 30 to 60 minutes per session will improve health.

Ischemia is caused by: a) Left ventricular dysfunction. b) A lack of oxygen. c) Chest pain. d) Decreased stroke volume.

Muscular strength is defined as: a) The amount of motor units recruited in 8 to 12 reps. b) A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group. c) The number of muscle spindles recruited during a maximal contraction. d) The ability to apply a force repeatedly over time.

A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group. Explanation: Understanding that muscle strength is the maximum force a muscle can exert is important so that you choose the right exercise variables to achieve muscular strength.

A physically active 55-year-old female b) A 21-year-old female who has slight scoliosis with tightness on left hip abductors c) A 46-year-old male with cholesterol of 208 mg·dL-1 that desires to begin training for his first marathon. d) A 32-year-old male with family history of heart disease and pre-diabetes Submit your answer

A physically active 55-year-old female Explanation: The age threshold for females is 55 years of age or older.

Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint? a) ATP and creatine phosphate b) Anaerobic glycolysis c) Aerobic oxidation d) ATP

ATP and creatine phosphate Explanation: The predominant energy pathways utilized for sustained power up to 10 seconds is ATP and creatine phosphate.

Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint? a) Aerobic oxidation b) ATP c) Anaerobic glycolysis d) ATP and creatine phosphate

ATP and creatine phosphate Explanation: The predominant energy pathways utilized for sustained power up to 10 seconds is ATP and creatine phosphate.

Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint?

ATP and creatine phosphate Explanation: The predominant energy pathways utilized for sustained power up to 10 seconds is ATP and creatine phosphate.

To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.

Abduction Explanation: The latissimus dorsi is stretched when elongated in a position that is opposite to the muscle action. Since the latissimus dorsi mainly extends and adducts the shoulder joint, a stretch would occur when the shoulder is placed in maximal abduction with lateral flexion to the contralateral side.

To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.

When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refers to:

Activity of the heart and circulatory system.

Which joint movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Flexion b) Extension c) Adduction d) Circumduction

Adduction Explanation: The frontal plane divides the body from the anterior to posterior. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a adduction, occurs in this plane.

To measure progress toward goals, reassessments should be performed: a) On a weekly basis to measure steady progress. b) After approximately 4 to 6 weeks to better reflect a training effect. c) As frequently as possible to elicit intrinsic motivation. d) When the client needs to improve upon exercise adherence.

After approximately 4 to 6 weeks to better reflect a training effect. Explanation: A standard for follow-up may be 4 weeks to 3 months depending on the assessment tool.

Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

An individual who quit smoking 4 months ago

Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage? a) A smoker is considering stopping given her recent health issues b) An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise c) An individual who has just been diagnosed with hypertension begins to research fitness facilities in her neighborhood d) A female with prediabetes is aware of her need to control her blood glucose levels

An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise Explanation: The precontemplation stage is consistent with not being aware of needing to change behavior or the benefits of such change.

Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage? a) An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise b) A female with prediabetes is aware of her need to control her blood glucose levels c) An individual who has just been diagnosed with hypertension begins to research fitness facilities in her neighborhood d) A smoker is considering stopping given her recent health issues

Palpitations are BEST defined as: a) A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute. b) An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats. c) A sudden increase of heart rate during exertion. d) A slowing down of heart rate that occurs during cool down.

An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats. Explanation: Palpitations can vary in sensation but are often described as pounding or racing heartbeats, or that the heart has skipped or stopped beating.

Palpitations are BEST defined as: a) A sudden increase of heart rate during exertion. b) An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats. c) A slowing down of heart rate that occurs during cool down. d) A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute.

What muscles are antagonists to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis? a) Pronator teres b) Pronator quadratus c) Anconeus and triceps brachii d) Anconeus and supinator

Anconeus and triceps brachii Explanation: The triceps and anconeus are prime movers for elbow joint flexion. Thus, they are also antagonists to the elbow joint flexors.

Prior to the first training session scheduled next week, you should provide specific session instructions on: a) Auto-payment options. b) Supplement and hydration preparation. c) Appropriate exercise attire. d) Activities clients can perform on their own.

Appropriate exercise attire. Explanation: Not all clients will be familiar with what is involved in an exercise session. Provide specific instructions with respect to attire, nutrition and hydration preparation, avoiding exertion, and what can be expected. (less)

To demonstrate outstanding customer service during your initial client contact, you should: You selected: Be prepared for the appointment.

Arrive early or on time.

To demonstrate outstanding customer service during your initial client contact, you should:

Arrive early or on time. Explanation: An important behavior that communicates your interest and concern for the client is to arrive early and on time.

Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?

Arteriovenous oxygen difference Explanation: In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood. (less)

Your new client is ready to start training next week. You provide her with a service introduction packet which must include, at a minimum, which of the following forms? a) Health/Medical History Evaluation, liability waiver, and training log b) Medical Clearance Form, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and liability waiver c) PAR-Q, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and training log d) Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent Submit your answer

Which exercise would recruit the most stabilizer muscles during the lift?

Barbell front squat Explanation: A dynamic constant exercise increases the total amount of physiological work the body must do to perform the exercise, as well as providing exercise stimuli to the stabilizing muscles that are very important in a real-world setting or for athletic performance.

When demonstrating a bicep curl for your client using dumbbells, which of the following cues should you give?

Be sure not to swing your arms and throw your back into the exercise. Explanation: During a bicep curl it is important not to swing the weight and use the low back.

Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint?

Biceps femoris Explanation: The bicep femoris is a prime mover for hip joint extension and knee joint flexion and also externally rotates the hip join

Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint? You selected:

Biceps femoris Explanation: The bicep femoris is a prime mover for hip joint extension and knee joint flexion and also externally rotates the hip joint.

Anatomical position of the human body is when the body is in which of the following positions? a) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing backwards, thumbs facing the body, fingers extended b) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing forward of the body, fingers extended c) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended d) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended

Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended Explanation: The anatomical position is an important point reference in describing joint movement and position.

In preparation for the initial consultation, which of the following will demonstrate genuineness toward and provide motivation for the upcoming visit?

Calling the client as a reminder and expressing that you are looking forward to helping the client meet his or her goals Correct Explanation: Training must be personal, as should customer service and hospitality. This will help build rapport within the relationship.

So that clients do not call at the last minute to let you know they will not be able to make a session, the Personal Trainer-Client Agreement must include clear language with respect to the:

Cancellation policy.

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________. a) Diastolic blood pressure b) Cardiac output c) Stroke volume d) Systolic blood pressure

Cardiac output Cardiac output is defined as the product of heart rate and stroke volume.

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________. a) Cardiac output b) Diastolic blood pressure c) Systolic blood pressure d) Stroke volume

Cardiac output Explanation: Cardiac output is defined as the product of heart rate and stroke volume.

Which of the following is/are a resilient, semi-rigid form of connective tissue that reduces the friction and absorbs some of the shock in synovial joints? a) Fascia b) Tendons c) Ligaments d) Cartilage

Cartilage Explanation: Cartilage is an essential connective tissue that is typically found in a synovial joint.

Which of the following is/are a resilient, semi-rigid form of connective tissue that reduces the friction and absorbs some of the shock in synovial joints? a) Tendons b) Fascia c) Cartilage d) Ligaments

Cartilage Explanation: Cartilage is an essential connective tissue that is typically found in a synovial joint.

Increased mitochondrial density is a result of:

Chronic cardiorespiratory activity. Explanation: The mitochondria is the work horse of the cell; therefore, increased mitochondrial density is a result of chronic cardiorespiratory activity.

A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions?

Closed pack Explanation: A joint is in a "closed pack" position when there is both maximal congruency of the joint surfaces and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments. This offers the most stable position for joint. (less)

A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions? a) Flexed b) Closed pack c) Open pack d) Extended

A muscle generates enough force to overcome an external resistance and shorten. This is known as which type of action?

Concentric

A muscle generates enough force to overcome an external resistance and shorten. This is known as which type of action?

Concentric Explanation: If force is sufficient to overcome the external resistance [e.g., dumbbell] and the muscle shortens [e.g., the lifting phase of a biceps curl], the muscle action is called concentric]. (less)

Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following? a) Claudication b) Posterior compartment syndrome c) Anterior compartment syndrome d) Congestive heart failure

Congestive heart failure Chronic venous insufficiency occurs when the veins of the lower leg cannot pump enough blood back to the heart.

Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following? a) Claudication b) Posterior compartment syndrome c) Congestive heart failure d) Anterior compartment syndrome

Congestive heart failure Explanation: Chronic venous insufficiency occurs when the veins of the lower leg cannot pump enough blood back to the heart.

An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change? a) Action b) Precontemplation c) Contemplation d) Preparation

Contemplation Explanation: An individual is in the contemplation stage when he or she considers the consequences of a behavior and begins to consider making changes.

Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of:

Increased capillary density Explanation: Increased capillary density increases blood supply to active muscles thereby increasing muscular endurance.

Which of the following assesses the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and maintaining an activity? a) Process of change b) Self-efficacy c) Operant conditioning d) Decisional balance

Contemplation Explanation: An individual is in the contemplation stage when he or she considers the consequences of a behavior and begins to consider making changes.

Because of recent death in his family, a client begins to consider beginning an exercise program. This is known as: a) Action. b) Contemplation. c) Preparation. d) Pre-contemplation.

Contemplation. Explanation: Contemplation is a stage of change where an individual begins to think about behavior change.

Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a "dull ache" and "slight burn" in his neck towards the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education. Explanation: The Personal Trainer must be alert to any and all feedback to ensure that the program is appropriate. As part of the Informed Consent, the client should be informed what can be expected with respect to "normal" sensations and regular responses during resistance training.

For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________.

Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh

Syncope is defined as:

Loss of consciousness.

Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system? a) 100-meter swim b) 200- to 440-meter dash c) Gymnastics d) Cycling

Cycling Explanation: Exercises that require oxygen and are done over a long period of time, longer than 3 minutes, work primarily in the aerobic-oxidative system.

For a client whot appears to be ready to work with a personal trainer and make other necessary changes, which of the following tools can be utilized to help a client move toward the next stage of change?

Decisional balance Explanation: For clients who appear to be ready to make necessary behavioral changes, the use of decisional balance will allow the client to assess the importance of the pros and cons and work through any challenges.

Your client has been performing cardiovascular exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, 3 times per week. During your 3 month assessment you would expect her submaximal heart rate to: a) Increase by 10% b) Stay the same c) Decrease by 10% d) Decrease by 50%

Decrease by 10% Explanation: Cardiovascular exercise will have a chronic effect of lowering a client's submaximal heart rate over time.

A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort. a) Decrease, increase b) Increase, increase c) Decrease, decrease d) Increase, decrease

Decrease, decrease Explanation: Regular aerobic training results in a lower heart rate response at rest and during exercise.

A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort. a) Increase, increase b) Decrease, increase c) Decrease, decrease d) Increase, decrease

Decrease, decrease Explanation: Regular aerobic training results in a lower heart rate response at rest and during exercise.

Which of the following is not a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise?

Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms

Which of the following is not a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise? a) Increased maximal oxygen uptake resulting from both central and peripheral adaptations b) Increased capillary density in skeletal muscle c) Decreased heart rate and blood pressure at a given submaximal intensity d) Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms

Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms Explanation: Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms is a chronic exercise response.

The most common manifestation of muscle injury is ________. a) Hypertrophy b) Delayed onset muscle soreness c) Hyperplasia d) Dyspnea

Delayed onset muscle soreness Explanation: The most common manifestation of muscle injury is delayed onset muscle soreness [DOMS]. DOMS symptoms are a first sign that the individual has done too much too soon.

The most common manifestation of muscle injury is ________. a) Hypertrophy b) Dyspnea c) Delayed onset muscle soreness d) Hyperplasia

Delayed onset muscle soreness Correct Explanation: The most common manifestation of muscle injury is delayed onset muscle soreness [DOMS]. DOMS symptoms are a first sign that the individual has done too much too soon.

Your potential 37-year-old client is on medication to control her hypertension and wishes to start a moderate-intensity exercise program. She has no other risk factors. You should:

Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity. Explanation: Since the client only has one risk factor of being on antihypertensive medication, a moderate-intensity exercise program with gradual progression would be appropriate, provided that she is monitored for adverse signs and symptoms.

Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST: a) Ask if the client wants to emphasize the upper or lower abs. b) Stretch the erector spinae muscles to minimize lumbar spine stress. c) Determine and establish neutral pelvic position. d) Determine how many full sit-ups can be performed.

Determine and establish neutral pelvic position. Explanation: Proper posture and alignment must be promoted from the very beginning in activities of daily living as well as exercise.

Which of the following strategies will BEST help generate clients? a) Email marketing b) Developing a professional network of allied health professionals c) Passing out business cards to potential clients d) Hosting an open house event

Developing a professional network of allied health professionals Explanation: Personal Trainers should become part of a network of mutually referring allied health professionals. This often fosters a win-win situation with respect to referrals.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular disease? a) Dull pain in the low back while touching the toes b) Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes c) Dizziness after quickly moving from a lying to standing position d) Shortness of breath after climbing several flights of stairs

Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes Explanation: Carrying heavy loads such as suitcases may provoke ischemia and result in discomfort in various areas of the upper extremities.

During gait, you notice that your client tends to put weight on the lateral edge of the feet. This is mostly because the client cannot __________ the foot properly.

Dorsi-flex Explanation: When a person places weight on the outside edge of their foot during gait, they most likely have a limited dorsi-flexion range.

A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration?

Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds

A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration? a) Inverted position for 30 to 40 seconds b) Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds c) Plantarflexed position for 30 to 40 seconds d) Everted position for 2 to 3 minutes

Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds The gastrocnemius is lengthened when placed in a position opposite of the muscle acton. Since the gastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle joint, a stretch would occur when placed in a dorsiflexed position. A 30 to 60 second stretch hold time is recommended for most adults.

Which of the following actions takes place in the sagittal plane? a) Pronation of the forearm b) Dorsiflexion of the ankle c) Depression of the scapulae d) Opposition of the thumb

Dorsiflexion of the ankle Explanation: Dorsiflexion takes place in the sagittal plane.

The foot's most stable position is in __________ due to the overall shape of the __________. a) Plantarflexion; talus b) Dorsiflexion; distal fibula c) Plantarflexion; calcaneus d) Dorsiflexion; talus

Dorsiflexion; talus Explanation: An ankle joint is in a dorsiflexed position which is considered a "closed pack" position since there is maximal congruency of the joint surfaces [talus and calcaneus] and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments. (less)

The best types of stretches to include in a warm-up for walking or cycling are: a) Dynamic b) PNF c) Ballistic d) Static

Dynamic A proper warm-up for long, steady state exercise includes dynamic stretching as you do not want to perform other types of stretching that does not prepare the body for more intense exercise. (less)

The best types of stretches to include in a warm-up for walking or cycling are: a) Ballistic b) Dynamic c) PNF d) Static

Dynamic Explanation: A proper warm-up for long, steady state exercise includes dynamic stretching as you do not want to perform other types of stretching that does not prepare the body for more intense exercise.

When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action? a) Eccentric b) Isometric c) Isokinetic d) Concentric

Eccentric Explanation: When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action [e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl].

Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in promoting client ownership of the exercise program?

Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality. Explanation: The Personal Trainer should help each client come to the conclusion that taking ownership of his or her behavior change is worthwhile.

Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in promoting client ownership of the exercise program? a) Reinforce the client's behavior by teaching how to self-regulate. b) Have the client document their thoughts, experiences, and emotions in a journal. c) Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality. d) Empower the client through education in determining the program outcomes.

Which of the following is considered a hinge joint? a) Humeroradial b) Hip c) Elbow d) Humeroulnar

Elbow Explanation: The elbow joint is a hinge joint and also consists of two other articulations in the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints.

Which movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Flexion at the elbow b) Supination at the wrist c) Extension at the hip d) Elevation of the of the scapula

Elevation of the of the scapula Explanation: With the exception of tilt, all other movements of the scapula occur in the frontal plane. Note that elbow flexion and hip flexion occur in the sagittal plane and supination occurs in the transverse plane. (less)

Which of the following increases functional capacity and may relieve symptoms of coronary artery disease?

Endurance exercise training

Which of the following increases functional capacity and may relieve symptoms of coronary artery disease?

Endurance exercise training Endurance exercise training typically increases myocardial oxygen supply, lowers the demand for oxygen, or both.

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?

Erector spinae

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position? a) Hip flexors b) Hamstrings c) Erector spinae d) Rectus abdominis

Erector spinae The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine. (less)

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position? a) Hip flexors b) Rectus abdominis c) Erector spinae d) Hamstrings

Erector spinae Correct Explanation: The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine. (less)

Respectively, lateral flexion and axial rotation are produced by which of the following muscles during unilateral contraction?

Erector spinae; multifidus Explanation: When contracted unilaterally, the erector spinae performs lateral flexion, and the multifidus performs axial rotation.

Which of the following is a positive risk factor?

Even though the client may not be a cigarette smoker, regular exposure to tobacco smoke is considered a positive risk factor.

In which environmental condition is it MOST important to replace body fluids?? a) Exercising in humidity b) Exercising in the cold c) Exercising in both heat and cold d) Exercising in heat

Exercising in heat Explanation: While fluid loss may occur during cold weather, dehydration must be prevented in hot environmental conditions.

Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to: a) Ensure that the client is properly hydrated. b) Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested. c) Have the client read about the assessment and understand the testing norms. d) Obtain baseline heart rate and respiration.

Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested. Explanation: Familiarity with the assessment will minimize anxiety and confusion, and practice of the assessment movements will enhance assessment results.

Movement resulting in an increase of the joint angle, usually moving posteriorly in the sagittal plane is called __________. a) Extension b) Abduction c) Rotation d) Flexion

Extension Explanation: Extension typically occurs in the sagittal plane but can also occur in other planes, provided that the joint angle is increasing.

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.

Extension; 40° to 60

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.

Extension; 40° to 60°

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.

Extension; 40° to 60° Explanation: The posterior deltoid functions to extend the shoulder joint at approximately 40° to 60° in most people.

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.

Extension; 40° to 60° Explanation: The posterior deltoid functions to extend the shoulder joint at approximately 40° to 60° in most people.

Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane.

Extension; sagittal

Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane. a) Flexion; sagittal b) Extension; frontal c) Flexion; frontal d) Extension; sagittal

Extension; sagittal Explanation: Most flexion movements will usually occur in the sagittal plane. Note that extension also occurs in the sagittal plane.

Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform?

F = ma

Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform? a) Newton's third law b) Newton's first law c) F = ma d) P = mv

F = ma Correct Explanation: The law of acceleration is the 2nd law and states that force is proportional to the product of an object's mass multiplied by its acceleration.

During the concentric phase of a hamstring curl, the hamstrings are __________.

Flexed Explanation: The hamstrings flex the knee joint when a concentric action occurs.

A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________. a) Flexion; flexion b) Extension; flexion c) Extension; extension d) Flexion; extension

Flexion; extension Explanation: A posterior pelvic tilt results in lumbar flexion, in which the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle. With anterior pelvic tilt, the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle. (less)

A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement? a) Transverse b) Horizontal c) Sagittal d) Frontal

Frontal Explanation: The frontal plane divides the body between the front and back. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a lateral lunge, occurs in the frontal plane.

Active listening allows a Personal Trainer to do which of the following effectively? a) Formulate responses and counterpoints to the client's beliefs and concerns b) Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design c) Record detailed notes about the client's exercise history and preferences d) Plan out the client's initial exercise program while expressing genuineness

Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design Explanation: Active listening is a necessary skill that demonstrates unconditional acceptance and unbiased reflection of the client's experiences and emotions.

Active listening allows a Personal Trainer to do which of the following effectively? a) Formulate responses and counterpoints to the client's beliefs and concerns b) Record detailed notes about the client's exercise history and preferences c) Plan out the client's initial exercise program while expressing genuineness d) Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design Submit your answer

Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint?

Glenohumeral Explanation: An enarthodial joint is a multiaxial joints that permit movements in all directions. This includes the hip joint as well as the glenohumeral joint [shoulder joint].

Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint? a) Glenohumeral b) Acromioclavicular c) Carpal-metacarpal d) Radiounlar

Glenohumeral Explanation: An enarthodial joint is a multiaxial joints that permit movements in all directions. This includes the hip joint as well as the glenohumeral joint [shoulder joint].

Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability? a) Knee b) Thoracic spine c) Glenohumeral d) Ankle

Glenohumeral Explanation: The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable.

Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability? a) Thoracic spine b) Glenohumeral c) Knee d) Ankle You Tibe: Joint Function: Mobility and Stability

Glenohumeral Explanation: The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable.

Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability?

Glenohumeral Explanation: The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable.

The posterior muscles of the hip include: a) Quadriceps, Iliopsoas; six deep medial rotators, and gracilis. b) Adductor longus, brevis, magnus, and hamstrings. c) Vastus lateralis, rectus femoris, piriformis, and sartorius. d) Gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus; six deep lateral rotators, and hamstrings. Submit your answer

Gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus; six deep lateral rotators, and hamstrings. Explanation: These are the major muscles and muscle groups of the posterior hip joint.

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint? a) Gluteus medius and hamstrings b) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius c) Piriformis and gluteus maximus d) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings

Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings Explanation: The gluteus maximus and hamstrings function to extend the hip joint. Exercises that recruit these muscles include bridging, squats, leg presses, and lunges.

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint? a) Piriformis and gluteus maximus b) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings c) Gluteus medius and hamstrings d) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding Goal Setting Theory? a) Goals bring focus and energy toward the desired behavior b) Goals provide guidance to trainers on the type of expert guidance required c) Goals become secondary to the process of reaching them d) Goals actually provide little intrinsic and extrinsic motivation

Goals bring focus and energy toward the desired behavior Explanation: Goal setting theory is based on the premise that setting a particular goal will provide the appropriate attention, energy, and effort needed to reach the goal.

Which sport is performed primarily in the ATP (anaerobic) pathway?

Golf Explanation: Exercises that require explosive, short durations such as golf are working primarily in the anaerobic system.

A client who states that he or she can participate confidently in an exercise program: a) Is intrinsically motivated. b) Has very strong self-esteem. c) Is in the contemplation stage of behavior change. d) Has good self-efficacy related to exercise.

Has good self-efficacy related to exercise. Explanation: This is a basic definition of self-efficacy; the client believes in his or her ability to train regularly and meet goals.

A client who states that he or she can participate confidently in an exercise program:

Has good self-efficacy related to exercise. Explanation: This is a basic definition of self-efficacy; the client believes in hisr or her ability to train regularly and meet goals.

In general, behaviors are so difficult to change because the client:

Has maintained this behavior over time and has reinforced it in his or her environment. Correct Explanation: While many factors play a role, it becomes more difficult to change a behavior when it has been reinforced over a long period of time.

Ron is training for leg muscle hypertrophy on the squat. He believes that by utilizing an explosive, rapid repetition speed he will increase the amount of work he is doing and thus "overload his quads better." He wants to know if his rationale is correct. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response? a) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work. b) He should continue to train using a rapid lifting technique to attain his goal, but his rationale is incorrect as he is increasing torque, not work. c) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he is using too much momentum in his training and should maximize acceleration in order to maximize work. d) He is correct in his rationale and should try to increase his repetition speed.

He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work. Explanation: This individual is utilizing plyometric principles and is not using the proper method for increasing muscle hypertrophy.

Which of the following predicts behavior change depending on the perceived threats to one's well-being?

Health belief model Explanation: Clients must perceive a threat to their health before they take action to change their health behavior.

Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Latissimus dorsi and subscapularis b) Posterior deltoid and triceps brachii c) Pectoralis minor and trapezius d) Rhomboids and mid-trapezius

Health belief model Explanation: Clients must perceive a threat to their health before they take action to change their health behavior.

Clients will have an understanding of their risk factors based on what theory of behavior change? a) Theory of planned behavior b) Social cognitive theory c) Health belief model d) Transtheoretical model of change

Health belief model Explanation: Individuals who have greater understanding of their health status and risk factors will take action to improve their health

Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent Explanation: These forms must be completed prior to training.

The products that make up cardiac output are:

Heart rate and stroke volume Cardiac output is the volume of blood [stroke volume] pumped by the heart per minute [heart rate] in liters. The equation is CO = SV x HR and average CO is approximately 4 to 5 L/min. (less)

The products that make up cardiac output are:

Heart rate and stroke volume Explanation: Cardiac output is the volume of blood [stroke volume] pumped by the heart per minute [heart rate] in liters. The equation is CO = SV x HR and average CO is approximately 4 to 5 L/m ..

Your potential client has a history of swollen ankles and reports shortness of breath when walking up the stairs. You would classify this as: a) Moderate risk and require that the client undergo exercise testing under a physician's supervision. b) Moderate risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually. c) High risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually. d) High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance.

High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance. Explanation: Both swollen ankles [ankle edema] and shortness of breath are major signs of a disease state. Thus, the individual should be classified as high risk and would require medical clearance and testing prior to exercise. (less)

Which of the following is a negative risk factor? a) Body mass index >30 b) Women >45 years c) Blood pressure 135/80 mm Hg d) High-density lipoprotein 60 mg·dL-1

High-density lipoprotein 60 mg·dL-1 Explanation: High HDL is considered a negative risk factor.

Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the: a) Saddle joint b) Hip joint c) Carpal-metacarpal joint d) Wrist joint

Hip Joint The hip joint is a multi-axial joint and has 3° of freedom. Thus, it is able to perform action in all planes. Note that circumduction is a combination of adduction, abduction, flexion, and extension.

Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the: a) Wrist joint b) Carpal-metacarpal joint c) Saddle joint d) Hip joint

Hip joint Explanation: The hip joint is a multi-axial joint and has 3° of freedom. Thus, it is able to perform action in all planes. Note that circumduction is a combination of adduction, abduction, flexion, and extension. (less)

Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the: a) Saddle joint b) Hip joint c) Wrist joint d) Carpal-metacarpal joint

Hip joint Correct Explanation: The hip joint is a multi-axial joint and has 3° of freedom. Thus, it is able to perform action in all planes. Note that circumduction is a combination of adduction, abduction, flexion, and extension. (less)

What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly?

Horizontal abduction Explanation: A reverse cable fly and reverse dumbbell fly begins with the hands together at the shoulder level. The arms perform horizontal abduction by moving the arms back in the transverse plane.

What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly? a) Horizontal adduction b) Retraction c) Horizontal abduction d) Protraction Submit your answer

Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term? a) Abduction b) Horizontal adduction c) Horizontal abduction d) Adduction

Horizontal adduction Explanation: Movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane is usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90°

Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise?

Increase in stroke volume

Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise?

Increase in stroke volume Explanation: An increase in stroke volume is an acute [immediate] response to cardiorespiratory exercise.

Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise? a) Increase in resting heart rate b) Decrease in blood pressure c) Increase in stroke volume d) Decrease in cardiac output

Increase in stroke volume Explanation: An increase in stroke volume is an acute [immediate] response to cardiorespiratory exercise.

Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following? a) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps b) Lengthened gastrocnemius and soleus c) Assists in establishing neutral spine d) Minimized patellofemoral joint forces

Increased force requirements of the quadriceps Explanation: A board placed under the heels during a squat increases quadriceps work since a mechanical disadvantage is created.

Which document acknowledges an "assumption of risk" with regard to the participation in physical activity? a) Medical Release b) Liability waiver c) Informed Consent d) Behavioral Contract

Informed Consent Explanation: An assumption of risk, also known as an Informed Consent, is a document that explains the risks of participation in physical activity and indicates that the participant acknowledges the inherent risks involved.

Which of the following form discusses the risk and benefits of performing assessments and exercise? a) Medical Clearance b) Informed Consent c) Personal Trainer-Client Agreement d) Client Intake Form

Informed Consent Explanation: The client must read, acknowledge, and have an opportunity to ask questions regarding potential risk and benefits of assessments and exercise participation.

Which of the following form discusses the risk and benefits of performing assessments and exercise? a) Personal Trainer-Client Agreement b) Client Intake Form c) Informed Consent d) Medical Clearance

Informed Consent Explanation: The client must read, acknowledge, and have an opportunity to ask questions regarding potential risk and benefits of assessments and exercise participation.

Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine?

Internal and external obliques

Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine? a) Rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis b) Erector spinae and multifidus c) Internal and external obliques d) Quadratus lumborum and tensor fascia latae

Internal and external obliques Explanation: The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.

Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine? a) Erector spinae and multifidus b) Quadratus lumborum and tensor fascia latae c) Rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis d) Internal and external obliques

Internal and external obliques Explanation: The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.

Which joint movement occurs in the transverse plane? a) Abduction b) Internal rotation c) Adduction d) Flexion

Internal rotation Explanation: The transverse plane divides the body from the top and bottom. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a rotation, occurs in this plane.

A lumbar vertebrae is an example of a ________ bone. a) Irregular b) Sesamoid c) Flat d) Short

Irregular Explanation: Irregular bones are oddly shaped [e.g., vertebrae, sacrum, and coccyx].

Which of the following should be avoided in hypertensive clients? a) Concentric muscle contractions b) Isometric muscle contractions c) Isokinetic muscle contractions d) Eccentric muscle contractions

Isometric muscle contractions Explanation: Clients with hypertension should primarily engage in aerobic endurance activities and avoid activities that emphasize isometric muscle actions.

Which of the following muscle actions controls the movement and maintains a constant speed throughout the range of motion? a) Isometric b) Eccentric c) Isokinetic d) Concentric

Isometric-speed stays same. Such as holding yoga poses or when sitting in chair pose. You simply hold the pose and do not move.

The study of the mechanics of human movement is called: a) Kinesiology. b) Biomechanics. c) Biology. d) Kinematics.

Kinesiology. Explanation: This is a basic definition of kinesiology.

You observe a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an exaggerated curve. This postural deviation is known as: a) Kyphosis. b) Lordosis. c) Flat back. d) Sway back.

Kyphosis. Explanation: The thoracic spine has a natural kyphotic curve. A postural deviation here of is technically known as "hyper kyphosis."

You observe a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an exaggerated curve. This postural deviation is known as: a) Sway back. b) Flat back. c) Lordosis. d) Kyphosis.

Kyphosis. Explanation: The thoracic spine has a natural kyphotic curve. A postural deviation here of is technically known as "hyper kyphosis."

A proper cool-down allows the body to help remove ________. a) Pyruvate b) Creatine c) Carbon dioxide d) Lactate

Lactate Explanation: Cooling down gradually allows the body to remove metabolic waste such as lactate from the body. This reduces muscle soreness and helps prevent injury.

During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demands for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with: a) VO2max b) Pulmonary ventilation. c) Lactate threshold. d) Aerobic capacity.

Lactate threshold. Explanation: In strenuous exercise, when energy demand is high and ventilation is at its peak, lactate accumulates contributing to fatigue and increases ventilation in a nonlinear fashion.

During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demands for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with:

Scoliosis is defined as:

Lateral deviation of the spine. Scoliosis is seen when the spine deviates laterally from the midline.

Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint? a) Shoulder shrugs, using 85 lb dumbbells, with elbows extended b) Shoulder shrugs, using 50 lb dumbbells, elbows extended c) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows flexed 90° d) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended

Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended This question assesses an understanding of weight, plane, and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm with resistance requires more force production at the shoulder joint. (less)

The _________ is responsible for collecting blood from the lungs and pumping it to the body. a) Left atrium and right ventricle b) Right atrium and left ventricle c) Left atrium and left ventricle d) Right atrium and right ventricle

Left atrium and left ventricle Explanation: The left side of the heart functions to pump oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

An example of an open chain exercise is the: a) Leg extension b) Pull-up c) Squat d) Push-up

Leg extension Explanation: Open chain movements occur when the distal segment of a joint moves in space. An example of this is knee extension [leg extension] on a machine.

Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi?

Levator scapulae

Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi? a) Erector spinae b) Lower trapezius c) Levator scapulae d) External oblique

Levator scapulae

Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi? a) External oblique b) Lower trapezius c) Erector spinae d) Levator scapulae

Levator scapulae Explanation: "Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure. In this instance, the levator scapulae is located above the latissimus dorsi. (less)

The resistance ________ and ________ of training need to be carefully progressed and monitored to limit muscle tissue damage. a) Sets; reps b) Load; volume c) Load; rest d) Intensity; reps

Load; volume Explanation: Clients need to progress their resistance exercise programs appropriately so they avoid getting injured.

Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint?

Long head of the biceps brachii

Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint?

Long head of the biceps brachii Explanation: The long head of the biceps brachii crosses over the shoulder joint and thus assists in shoulder flexion. This occurs via reverse muscle action where the origin moves toward the insertion. (l

Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint? a) Long head of the biceps brachii b) Short head of the biceps brachii c) Brachialis d) Pectoralis minor

Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint?

A muscle that produces a low force and has a high contractile rate is classified as a __________ muscle.

Longitudinal Explanation: Longitudinal muscles produce a low force in comparison to pennate muscles that produce higher forces.

Which of the following would help a Personal Trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial interview? a) Direct, friendly eye contact while always maintaining a smile and enthusiasm throughout the session b) Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands while listening c) Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean d) Speaking in a soft, friendly voice while leaning against the chair armrest with forearms crossed calmly

Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean Explanation: These positions and body language are powerful non-verbal behaviors that demonstrate attentiveness and interest

Higher levels of cardiovascular fitness are associated with: a) Lower MET capacity b) Increased HR and SBP at maximal work rates c) Increased HR and SBP at submaximal work rates d) Lower mortality rates

Lower mortality rates Explanation: Higher levels of aerobic fitness are associated with lower mortality from heart disease, even after statistical adjustments for age, coronary risk factors, and family history of heart disease. (less)

The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the:

Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor

What is a potential outcome of maintaining a professional presence and disposition when training clients? a) Earnings may increase as clients and managers see the value of your skills. b) Maintaining a professional presence may also help generate clients, as this is also a form of advertising. c) Staff will be more willing to refer potential clients to you. d) Staff will be more willing to ask for feedback regarding training.

Maintaining a professional presence may also help generate clients, as this is also a form of advertising. Explanation: Being approachable by clients and other staff may lead to more interest as it relates to training inquiries.

A potential client has been walking two miles, several times a week, for the past few months and would like to continue progress toward her goals. You suggest that she train with you for several sessions to teach her things she can do on her own. This would help reinforce which stage of change? a) Action b) Maintenance c) Contemplation d) Preparation

Maintenance Explanation: The rationale for suggesting that she train with you for a few sessions is to give her more exercise "tools" to work with, as well as preserve her behavior to exercise.

A potential client has been walking two miles, several times a week, for the past few months and would like to continue progress toward her goals. You suggest that she train with you for several sessions to teach her things she can do on her own. This would help reinforce which stage of change? a) Maintenance b) Preparation c) Action d) Contemplation

Maintenance Explanation: The rationale for suggesting that she train with you for a few sessions is to give her more exercise "tools" to work with, as well as preserve her behavior to exercise.

A typical chronic response to improved cardiorespiratory fitness is an increase in: a) Diastolic blood pressure b) Resting heart rate c) Maximal heart rate d) Maximal oxygen consumption

Maximal oxygen consumption Explanation: A client will see an increase in their maximal oxygen consumption with regular exercise, as they are better able to take in and deliver oxygen to the working muscles.

A typical chronic response to improved cardiorespiratory fitness is an increase in: a) Maximal heart rate b) Resting heart rate c) Diastolic blood pressure d) Maximal oxygen consumption

Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training? a) Acceleration torque production b) Mechanical disadvantage c) Torsional maximization d) Biomechanical angle velocity Submit your answer

Mechanical disadvantage Explanation: Any resistance exercise is more difficult to perform when there is a mechanical disadvantage.

The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip? a) Lateral b) Posterior c) Medial d) Anterior

Medial Explanation: All of the major adductor muscles [adductor longus, adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and gracilis] are located on the medial aspect of the hip joint.

The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the:

Medial deltoid and supraspinatus Explanation: The supraspinatus primarily initiates the abduction. The medial deltoid continues the abduction in concert with via a force couple.

The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the: a) Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major b) Levator scapula and upper trapezius c) Serratus anterior and subscapularis d) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus

Medial deltoid and supraspinatus Explanation: The supraspinatus primarily initiates the abduction. The medial deltoid continues the abduction in concert with via a force couple.

Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should:

Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.

Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest.

Moderate soreness Explanation: Reduce the intensity of the workout if the client reports too much muscle soreness, as this can lead to injury. If symptoms are extreme, tissue damage may be more serious, and DOMS is likely to reduce training potential and have a deleterious effect on performance.

Understanding nonverbal cues is important in establishing a successful client relationship because:

More information is communicated in this manner. Body language and other nonverbal cues are believed to be more reliable than spoken words

The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?

Multifidus and erector spinae Explanation: The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.

The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Multifidus and erector spinae b) Latissimus dorsi and teres major c) Rectus abdominis and obliques d) Transverse abdominis and quadratus lumborum Submit your answer

Multifidus and erector spinae Explanation: The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.

The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Transverse abdominis and quadratus lumborum b) Rectus abdominis and obliques c) Latissimus dorsi and teres major d) Multifidus and erector spinae

Multifidus and erector spinae Explanation: The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.

The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?

Multifidus and erector spinae Explanation: The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.

A low to high diagonal chop using a medicine ball takes place in: a) The frontal plane. b) The transverse plane. c) Multiple planes. d) The sagittal plane.

Multiple planes. Explanation: A low to high diagonal chop takes place in all three planes.

Which outcome is most likely when performing a safe and effective resistance training program 2 to 3 times a week for 3 months? a) Muscle hypermobility b) Muscle hyperplasia c) Muscle atrophy d) Muscle hypertrophy

Muscle hypertrophy Explanation: Clients will see a gain in muscle hypertrophy if they consistently weight train 2 to 3 times per week.

The upper respiratory tract consists of ________.

Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx

The upper respiratory tract consists of ________. a) Pharynx, larynx, and lungs b) Trachea, larynx, and lungs c) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx d) Pharynx, larynx, and nasal cavity

Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx Explanation: The upper respiratory tract consists of the nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx.

Your client notices that he is able to perform several resistance exercises with more weight and a few more repetitions after the first two weeks of training. Which of the following BEST explains these training effects? a) Aerobic enzyme changes b) Muscle capillary density c) Anaerobic enzyme changes d) Neural adaptations

Neural adaptations Explanation: Part of the strength gain resulting from strength training is attributed to changes in the nervous system. This is especially true during the early stages of strength training.

During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following? a) Exercise-induced hypertension b) Diaphoresis c) Ankle edema d) Orthostatic hypotension

Orthostatic hypotension Explanation: The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.

During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following?

Orthostatic hypotension Explanation: The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.

During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following? a) Orthostatic hypotension b) Diaphoresis c) Exercise-induced hypertension d) Ankle edema

Orthostatic hypotension The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome? a) Over-developed posterior deltoid b) Over-developed mid-trapezius c) Over-developed lower trapezius d) Over-developed anterior deltoid

Over-developed anterior deltoid Explanation: The anterior deltoid is often more developed than the posterior deltoid in most individuals and may lead to postural abnormalities [shoulder forward and internally rotated] and may be related to impingement. (less)

_______ of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is required in order to have beneficial adaptations in cardiorespiratory endurance. a) Overload b) Manipulation c) Steady state work d) Low intensity training

Overload Explanation: A client needs to overload the cardiovascular system in order to see physiological adaptations.

of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is required in order to have beneficial adaptations in cardiorespiratory endurance. a) Manipulation b) Low intensity training c) Steady state work d) Overload

Overload Explanation: A client needs to overload the cardiovascular system in order to see physiological adaptations.

In general, elbow injuries are a result of: a) Lack of radio-ulnar range of motion. b) Overuse or repetitive motion. c) Overactive triceps. d) Overactive biceps.

Overuse or repetitive motion. Explanation: The elbow is an important joint involved in lifting, carrying, throwing, swinging, and most upper extremity exercise movements. The elbow is commonly injured and is the second most injured joint from overuse or repetitive motion.

The feeling of chronic muscular fatigue is a sign of: a) Lactic acid accumulation. b) Overuse. c) Increased oxygen uptake. d) Increased VO2 max

Overuse. Explanation: When a client experiences muscle exhaustion, they are most likely overusing their muscles.

Intermittent claudication refers to: a) A constant pain that is felt in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. b) Fluid buildup around the ankle joints during weight bearing. c) Pedal pulse pressures that vacillate between strong and weak. d) Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping. Submit your answer

Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping. Explanation: Pain occurs because of exercise-induced ischemia due to atherosclerosis in the lower extremity.

A manifestation of coronary artery disease is: a) Jaw discomfort that occurs first thing in the morning. b) A dull ache in the low back that occurs with movement. c) Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise. d) Tightness of the muscles between both scapulae during overhead activities.

Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise. Explanation: Pain that occurs during exertion is a cardinal sign of cardiovascular disease.

A manifestation of coronary artery disease is: a) Tightness of the muscles between both scapulae during overhead activities. b) Jaw discomfort that occurs first thing in the morning. c) Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise. d) A dull ache in the low back that occurs with movement.

Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise. Explanation: Pain that occurs during exertion is a cardinal sign of cardiovascular disease.

A manifestation of coronary artery disease is:

Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise. Correct

Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl?

Palmaris longus Explanation: The palmaris longus [as well as the flexor carpi radialis, ulnaris, and flexor digitorum superficialis] are involved in wrist flexion, which is the movement for a wrist curl.

Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl?

What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? a) Vicarious exercise experiences b) Past exercise performance c) Persuasive verbal feedback d) Emotional state of mind

Past exercise performance Explanation: Previous success in exercise is an example of "mastery" which is the most influential component of self-efficacy. Thus, those who have a positive experience often demonstrate self-efficacy as it relates to exercise participation. (le

Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus?

Pectoralis major

Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction?

Pectoralis major Explanation: Examples of exercises that utilize the action of the pectoralis major are the chest fly, pec deck, cable crossover [horizontal adduction], incline bench press, and dumbbell front raise [flexion].

Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction? a) Latissimus dorsi b) Serratus anterior c) Pectoralis major d) Teres major

Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus? a) Pectoralis minor b) Pectoralis major c) Rhomboid major d) Biceps brachii

Pectoralis major Explanation: The pectoralis major is one of the larger muscles that produces movement about the shoulder joint and thus attaches to the humerus.

Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction?

The muscles involved in a dumbbell fly and cable fly are the: a) Latissimus dorsi and teres major b) Teres major and pectoralis major c) Anterior deltoid and latissimus dorsi d) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid

Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid Explanation: The muscles primarily involved in cable fly and dumbbell fly are the pectoralis major and the anterior deltoid.

What are the muscles and joint action required for a dumbbell front raise?

Pectoralis major and flexion Correct

Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding strength training in the lumbo-pelvic region?

Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening. Explanation: The lumbar muscles play a small role in trunk extension and torque movements during ADLs. Stabilization exercises provide a more effective strength training effect.

Your client is a 30-year-old male who has not been active in the last few months. He has completed all the forms, and you observe that he does not have any risk factors. He reports that he experienced some shortness of breath while playing a pick-up basketball game this weekend, something he hasn't done in a year. You should: a) Ask him to obtain medical clearance before you begin training. b) Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity. c) Require that he undergo fitness assessments with medical supervision. d) Refer him to a respiratory therapist for testing and exercise guidelines.

Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity. Explanation: The individual has no risk factors and most likely experienced shortness of breath from not playing basketball in a while. Thus, a moderate-intensity exercise program is appropriate.

Which muscles are prime movers for eversion of the ankle joint?

Peroneus longus and brevis

Which of the following provides for an ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adapations in the bone? a) Plyometric training b) Indoor cycling c) Indoor rowing d) Swimming

Plyometric training Explanation: Impact and weight bearing activities [plyometrics, jumping, resistance training] provide for a stress on the bone to promote positive adaptations in the bone.

The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area? a) Superficial posterior compartment b) Posterior tibial compartment c) Deep posterior compartment d) Anterior tibial compartment

Posterior tibial compartment Explanation: These muscles that are responsible for ankle joint plantarflexion are located on the posterior tibial area.

A proper cool-down, allowing for a gradual return toward baseline will help the client avoid which of the following?

Postexercise hypotension Correct Explanation: A proper 5 to 10 minute cool-down that allows for a gradual return toward baseline will help the client avoid postexercise hypotension (low blood pressure

What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training?

Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance Many people have muscular imbalances of the body, which may create postural alignment issues and injury. Thus, posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance are critical assessments to identify indications for strengthening, stretching, and proper movement

What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training?

Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance Explanation: Many people have muscular imbalances of the body, which may create postural alignment issues and injury. Thus, posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance are critical assessments to identify indications for strengthening, stretching, and proper movement.

Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following? a) Prediabetes b) Type 2 diabetes c) Type 1 diabetes d) Dyslipidemia

Prediabetes Explanation: Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition of prediabetes where blood glucose is elevated between 100 and 125 mg·dL-1 following an oral glucose tolerance test on two separate occasions.

Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following? a) Type 2 diabetes b) Prediabetes c) Type 1 diabetes d) Dyslipidemia

With a New Year's resolution to become more active, a 32-year-old male wants to get your feedback before he begins the exercise program he drafted for himself. He is in which stage of change? a) Action b) Contemplation c) Precontemplation d) Preparation

Preparation Explanation: This individual is in the preparation stage as he as developed a specific plan of action toward behavior change.

With a New Year's resolution to become more active, a 32-year-old male wants to get your feedback before he begins the exercise program he drafted for himself. He is in which stage of change? a) Preparation b) Precontemplation c) Contemplation d) Action

Preparation Explanation: This individual is in the preparation stage as he as developed a specific plan of action toward behavior change.

A key benefit of a proper warm-up is that it may:

Prevent ischemia of the heart.

A key benefit of a proper warm-up is that it may: a) Decrease heart rate. b) Prevent sweating. c) Prevent ischemia of the heart. d) Decrease blood pressure.

Prevent ischemia of the heart. Explanation: A proper warm-up will slowly increase the heart rate and body temperature. These gradual increases may help prevent ischemia [lack of oxygen] of the heart which may occur in client ... (more)

Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase? a) Prevents blood glucose levels from dropping below pre-exercise levels b) Minimizes muscle adhesions and post-exercise soreness c) Elevates plasma levels of β-endorphins d) Prevents blood pooling in the extremities

Prevents blood pooling in the extremities Explanation: A gradual cool-down period will allow heart rate and blood pressure to return to pre-exercise levels and prevent blood pooling.

The following statement is a definition of ________: As the body adapts to a given stimulus, an increase in the stimulus is required for further adaptations and improvements.

Progressive overload A client must load themselves progressively because if the load or volume is not increased over time, progress will be limited.

The following statement is a definition of ________: As the body adapts to a given stimulus, an increase in the stimulus is required for further adaptations and improvements. a) SAID Principle b) Progressive overload c) Law of attraction d) Specificity of training

Progressive overload Explanation: A client must load themselves progressively because if the load or volume is not increased over time, progress will be limited.

What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint? a) Prevent scapular winging b) Promote shoulder impingement during motion c) Promote scapular stability during arm movements d) Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion

Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion Explanation: The rotator cuff's primary role is to stabilize the shoulder joint. When these muscles have good muscular strength and endurance, they help center the head of the humerus in the center of the glenoid fossa which aids with positional control during movement. (less)

What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint? a) Promote scapular stability during arm movements b) Prevent scapular winging c) Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion d) Promote shoulder impingement during motion

What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint?

Which of the following is an endurance exercise training adaptation that benefits those with coronary artery disease? a) Increases maximal heart rate b) Provides relief of symptoms c) Decreases rate pressure product d) Decreases stores of ATP

Provides relief of symptoms Explanation: Most individuals with CAD have a subnormal functional capacity and may be limited by symptoms at relatively low levels of exertion. Training improves myocardial oxygen supply, decr ... (more)

Which of the following is an endurance exercise training adaptation that benefits those with coronary artery disease? a) Decreases rate pressure product b) Increases maximal heart rate c) Decreases stores of ATP d) Provides relief of symptoms

Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate? a) Shoulder IR/ER -> push-up plus -> seated DB press b) High-rep bench press -> shoulder IR/ER -> abdominal crunch c) Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press d) Shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press -> push-up plus

Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press Explanation: A push-up plus off a wall is an example of a closed chain exercise as the arm is fixated to a stationary surface.

Which muscles are prime movers for lateral flexion of the lumbar spine? a) Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and tensor fascia latae b) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques c) Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, and external obliques d) Iliocostalis, longissimus, and interspinalis

Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques Explanation: The quadratus lumborum attaches to the posterior ilium, and the internal and external oblique attaches to the medial ilium. All function to laterally flex the spine.

Which muscles are prime movers for lateral flexion of the lumbar spine?

During the concentric phase of extension at the knee joint, the ________ work as an agonist and the ________ work as the antagonist.

Quadriceps, hamstrings Explanation: The quadriceps function as an agonist to extend the knee joint, and the hamstrings function as an antagonist since it functions to flex the knee joint.

The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________. a) Torque; acceleration; exercise selected b) RPE; resistance; ROM c) Torque; velocity of motion; acceleration of motion d) RPE; resistance; exercise selected

RPE; resistance; ROM Explanation: There are other terms for intensity, resistance, and displacement, and the personal trainer should be familiar with other terminology as well.

The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________. a) Torque; acceleration; exercise selected b) RPE; resistance; ROM c) RPE; resistance; exercise selected d) Torque; velocity of motion; acceleration of motion

RPE; resistance; ROM Explanation: There are other terms for intensity, resistance, and displacement, and the personal trainer should be familiar with other

Rhabdomyolysis is a clinical pathology that is characterized by ________. a) Reduced lactic acid production b) Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue c) Delayed onset muscle soreness d) Mild muscle soreness

Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue Explanation: Clients who exhibit signs of rapid muscle breakdown need to be seen by a physician.

Which of the following is an acute response to exercise? a) Reduced resting heart rate b) Reduced blood flow to the gut c) Reduced resting blood pressure d) Reduced body fat

Reduced blood flow to the gut Explanation: An acute response to exercise is something that happens immediately. Ischemia is an immediate response, versus chronic, which happens over time, such as a lower resting heart rate. (less)

Which of the following is a chronic response to regular exercise? a) Reduced ischemia b) Increased heart rate c) Reduced blood pressure d) Lactic acid accumulation

Reduced blood pressure Explanation: A chronic response to exercise is something that occurs usually after 6 to 8 weeks of consistent aerobic training, such as a lower blood pressure at rest.

During the initial client-contact process, you find that your potential client would rather work with a trainer of another gender. You should: a) Provide a complimentary session to demonstrate your professional competence. b) Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible. c) Ask the client to sign up for an initial block of training sessions first. d) Discuss your experience, training style, and educational background to make the client more comfortable with you.

Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible. Explanation: Trainers must assess compatibility with potential clients, and the client's preferences should be taken into account. This assessment also helps with developing rapport and exercis ... (

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia? a) Exercises increases LDL-C levels b) Exercise may have a favorable result in increasing the total cholesterol to HDL-C ratios c) Triglyceride levels are reduced for up to 36 hours following exercise. d) Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels.

Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels. Explanation: Regular exercise improves cholesterol profile by increasing HDL-C levels.

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia?

Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels. Explanation: Regular exercise improves cholesterol profile by increasing HDL-C levels. Reference:

Which of the following is a positive risk factor?

Regular exposure to tobacco smoke Explanation: Even though the client may not be a cigarette smoker, regular exposure to tobacco smoke is considered a positive risk factor.

You client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should: a) At a minimum, have the client sign the Informed Consent and fill out their Health/Medical History Evaluation. b) Give the client another packet to complete, and obtain medical clearance by the next session. c) Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed. d) Have the client sign an Informed Consent so that you can still begin training.

Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed.

Following the initial client contact, what are the next steps after the client has completed and returned all forms to you? a) Review paperwork and clarify goals. b) Discuss expectations. c) Conduct client consultation. d) Recommend appropriate personal training packages.

Review paperwork and clarify goals. Explanation: A detailed health and fitness history is necessary for screening, appropriate follow-up if needed, and validation of preferences and goals.

Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles?

Rhomboids and mid-trapezius Explanation: The muscles that function to retract the scapula are the rhomboids and mid trapezius.

Your client is performing a dumbbell lunge with the weight in her right hand and right leg forward. You notice that during the concentric phase, she drops her pelvis on the contralateral side. Which muscle is MOST likely weak? a) Right erector spinae b) Left gluteus medius c) Left biceps femoris d) Right gluteus medius

Right gluteus medius Explanation: Gluteus medius is an abductor and medial rotator of the hip joint. If this is weak, it will result in the tilting below horizontal to the contralateral side.

Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve?

Right ventricle

Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve?

Right ventricle Explanation: The tricuspid valve is also known as the right A-V valve which controls blood from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________. a) Right; triceps, suprailium, and thigh b) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh c) Left; triceps, suprailium, and thigh d) Left; chest, abdomen, and thigh

Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh Explanation: The Jackson-Pollock three-site skinfold formula estimates body fat percent averages for the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men.

For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________. a) Left; chest, abdomen, and thigh b) Left; triceps, suprailium, and thigh c) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh d) Right; triceps, suprailium, and thigh

Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh Explanation: The Jackson-Pollock three-site skinfold formula estimates body fat percent averages for the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men.

Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches? a) Have her lay on her left side, and flex her trunk to the right, maintaining pure frontal plane motion. b) Rotate her trunk towards the left during concentric motion. c) Maintain pure flexion motion in the sagittal plane throughout the motion. d) Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion.

Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion. Explanation: The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.

Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches? a) Maintain pure flexion motion in the sagittal plane throughout the motion. b) Have her lay on her left side, and flex her trunk to the right, maintaining pure frontal plane motion. c) Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion. d) Rotate her trunk towards the left during concentric motion.

Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion. Explanation: The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.

What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children when compared with adults?

SBP decreases and DBP decreases. Correct

Which of the following is considered a gliding joint? a) Ankle b) Sacroiliac c) Atlanto-axial d) Scapulothoracic

Sacroiliac Explanation: The sacroiliac joint connects the sacrum to the ilium on each side and is sometimes described as a gliding joint. It is capable of relatively little movement.

The thumb is classified as a ________ joint.

Saddle Explanation: The thumb is classified as a saddle or sellar joint.

Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"?

Sagittal

Running is done predominately in what plane of movement?

Sagittal Any movement that is parallel to the sagittal plane, such as a running [flexion/extension of the hip, knee and plantarflexion/dorsiflexion of the ankle joint] occurs in the sagittal plane

Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"? a) Horizontal b) Transverse c) Sagittal d) Frontal

Sagittal Explanation: Hyperlordosis is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine that would be viewed in the sagittal plane.

Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"? a) Sagittal b) Horizontal c) Frontal d) Transverse

Sagittal Explanation: Hyperlordosis is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine that would be viewed in the sagittal plane.

Which plane of movement divides the body between the left and right?

Sagittal Explanation: The sagittal plane divides the body between the left and right sides. Any movement that is parallel to this plane occurs in the sagittal plane.

Which plane of movement divides the body between the left and right? a) Horizontal b) Frontal c) Sagittal d) Transverse

Sagittal Explanation: The sagittal plane divides the body between the left and right sides. Any movement that is parallel to this plane occurs in the sagittal plane.

Running is done predominately in what plane of movement? a) Frontal b) Sagittal c) Horizontal d) Transverse

Sagittal Explanation: Any movement that is parallel to the sagittal plane, such as a running [flexion/extension of the hip, knee and plantarflexion/dorsiflexion of the ankle joint] occurs in the sagittal plane. (less)

Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"?

Sagittal Explanation: Hyperlordosis is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine that would be viewed in the sagittal plane.

The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions.

Sagittal plane; flexion/extension

The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions.

Sagittal plane; flexion/extension Explanation: The lumbar zygapophysial joints [facet joints] are angled to allow flexion and extension and restrict axial rotation.

The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions. a) Sagittal plane; rotation b) Transverse plane; side bending c) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension d) Frontal plane; flexion/extension

Sagittal plane; flexion/extension Explanation: The lumbar zygapophysial joints [facet joints] are angled to allow flexion and extension and restrict axial rotation.

The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions.

Sagittal plane; flexion/extension Explanation: The lumbar zygapophysial joints [facet joints] are angled to allow flexion and extension and restrict axial rotation.

Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint? a) Acromioclavicular b) Scapulothoracic c) Glenohumeral d) Sternoclavicular

Scapulothoracic

Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint? a) Sternoclavicular b) Glenohumeral c) Acromioclavicular d) Scapulothoracic

Scapulothoracic Explanation: The scapulothoracic joint is not a true joint, but a physiological [functional] joint.

The shoulder girdle refers to which specific joint?

Scapulothoracic Explanation: The shoulder girdle is also known as the scapulothoracic joint. This is not a true joint, as the scapula has no true bony articulation with the thoracic spine but is instead held in place by muscle attachments.

You Tube: Anatomical Terms of Movement Protraction and retraction movements are characteristic of the: a) Ankle joint b) Scapulothoracic joint c) Thoracic spine d) Wrist joint

Scapulothoracic joint Explanation: The scapulothoracic joint includes protraction [scapular abduction] and retraction [scapular adduction]

Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises? a) Seated calf raises emphasize the gastrocnemius muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the soleus muscle. b) The seated calf raise targets the soleus, while the standing calf raise targets the gastrocnemius and invertors. c) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle. d) The seated calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for power in the lower leg, while the standing calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for endurance.

Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle. Explanation: The gastrocnemius muscle is a biarticulate muscle that acts to flex the knee and plantarflex the ankle. The soleus acts to planarflex the ankle only. When standing, both muscles plantarflex the ankle. When seated, only the soleus plantarflexes the ankle as the gastrocnemius is actively insufficient because it is in a flexed position at the knee joint. (less)

Len is a 75-year-old client referred to you by a occupational therapist for strengthening of the lower leg muscle responsible for endurance in standing and walking. You would have Len perform ________ calf raises to emphasize his ________ muscle. a) Seated; gastrocnemius b) Standing; gastrocnemius c) Standing; soleus d) Seated; soleus

Seated; soleus Explanation: Seated calf raises will strengthen the soleus. Note that the knee joint must be flexed in order to make the gastrocnemius inefficient, and thus isolate the soleus in strengthening. (less)

Which of the following theories of behavior change places a great emphasis on the client's thoughts and feelings? a) Self cognitive theory b) Transtheoretical model of change c) Theory of planned behavior d) Socioecological model

Self cognitive theory Explanation: Clients who believe they can perform a prescribed exercise program, meet goals, or overcome challenges have higher levels of self-efficacy and outcome expectations.

Which of the following can help a client transition from one stage of change to the next?

Self-efficacy

Which of the following can help a client transition from one stage of change to the next? a) Role models b) Self-directed goals c) Self-efficacy d) Health concerns

Self-efficacy Explanation: Self-efficacy and confidence in change are important tools in helping empowering the client to the next stage of change.

Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging?

Serratus anterior

Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging? a) Serratus anterior b) Latissimus dorsi c) Teres major d) Mid-trapezius

Serratus anterior Explanation: Winging of the scapula results from weakness or dysfunction of the serratus anterior.

Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint?

Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint?

Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor Explanation: The serratus anterior and pectoralis minor function to protract the scapula.

Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint?

Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor Explanation: The serratus anterior and pectoralis minor function to protract the scapula.

Which of the following BEST fosters exercise adherence and progression toward the client's goal? a) Helping clients focus on never missing a session b) Setting a few attainable short-term goals c) Keeping clients focused on their primary long-term goals d) Setting several progressive goals on a weekly basis

Setting a few attainable short-term goals Explanation: Goals should be structured in a SMART manner that consists of a goal being specific, measurable, action-oriented, realistic, and time-oriented.

In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity? a) Shifted over the base of support b) Over the second sacrum c) Slightly anterior to the axis of the hip joint d) Posterior to the axis of the knee joint

Shifted over the base of support Explanation: The initial phase of the sit-to-stand movement involves trunk lean and horizontal weight shift to position the center of gravity over the new base of support (feet), placing the lower extremity in a mechanically advantageous position to stand via hip extension, knee extension, and ankle plantarflexion. (less)

Which of the following is a symptom suggestive of pulmonary disease? a) An increase in heart rate with an increase in walking intensity b) General feeling of fatigue after walking the dog c) Shortness of breath after quickly crossing the street in a residential area d) Tightness in the ankles that occur after walking several blocks

Shortness of breath after quickly crossing the street in a residential area Explanation: Shortness of breath that is abnormal may be indicative of pulmonary disease.

When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be ________.

Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus

When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be ________. a) Slightly posterior to external auditory meatus b) Through the mid thoracic vertebral bodies c) Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus d) Slightly posterior to the axis of the knee joint

Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus Explanation: The vertical line should fall slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus.

A client is exercising once a week and slowly increases to twice a week over the course of a month. This is consistent with which theory of behavior change? a) Socioecological model b) Small changes model c) Health belief model d) Social cognitive theory

Small changes model Explanation: The small changes model allows a client to make small changes, which better promotes positive behavior changes and maintenance.

Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint? a) Teres minor b) Subscapularis c) Supraspinatus d) Supraspinatus

Subscapularis Explanation: The subscapularis internally rotates the glenohumeral joint. Reference:

The clavicle is _________ to the pelvis. a) Inferior b) Anterior c) Posterior d) Superior

Superior Explanation: "Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure.

Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding strengh training in the lumbo-pelvic region? a) Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening. b) Low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when in the transverse plane. c) Supine double leg raises should be avoided, but prone double leg raises are beneficial for clients who have low-back pain. d) Full ROM spinal movements with an external load are best performed shortly after rising from bed.

Supine double leg raises should be avoided, but prone double leg raises are beneficial for clients who have low-back pain. Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening.

Which of the following groups of muscles describes the rotator cuff?

Supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and infraspinatus

____________ is the pressure exerted on the arterial wall during the ventricular contraction phase. a) Cardiac output b) Stroke volume c) Diastolic blood pressure d) Systolic blood pressure

Systolic blood pressure Explanation: Systole is the force that is produced by the left ventricle as it pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

____________ is the pressure exerted on the arterial wall during the ventricular contraction phase.

Systolic blood pressure Systole is the force that is produced by the left ventricle as it pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

Which of the following is an example of a short bone? a) Ulna b) Tarsal c) Ethnoid d) Sphenoid

Tarsal Explanation: Short bones are relatively small and thick [e.g., carpals and tarsals].

Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pulldown exercise?

Teres major Explanation: The teres major is also known as the "little" lat and has the same actions as the latissimus dorsi in shoulder joint adduction and extension.

A great resource for providing feedback to clients on their exercise sessions is:

The Internet Explanation: The Personal Trainer can use the Internet for online coaching of clients and to provide clients with additional support, video demonstrations of exercises, online self-monitoring tools, and newsletters.

The SAID (Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands) Principle indicates that: a) The load and the volume of exercise must be specific to client goals. b) Hypertrophy can only occur if the specific reps are within a 12-20 range. c) The adaptation will be specific to the demands that the exercise places upon the individual. d) The number of muscle spindles will increase according to the motor unit recruitment.

The adaptation will be specific to the demands that the exercise places upon the individual. Explanation: One example of the SAID principle is that if a high number of repetitions are used, the muscles will increase their ability to perform a high number of repetitions [muscular endurance].

Joints between bones, along with bones and ligaments, collectively make up what system?

The articular system Explanation: Joints are the articulations between bones, and along with bones and ligaments, they constitute the articular system.

Joints between bones, along with bones and ligaments, collectively make up what system?

The articular system Explanation: Joints are the articulations between bones, and along with bones and ligaments, they constitute the articular system.

Which of the following indicates that a client-centered approach is being used? a) The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer. b) The client is speaking at a normal pace. c) The Personal Trainer is helping the client make connections between risk factors and health. d) The Personal Trainer is asking closed-end questions.

The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer. Explanation: Allowing the client to do most of the talking helps establish rapport and is the most important element of the client-centered approach.

During resistance training, pain is a sign that ________. a) The client is reaching the right rep range b) The muscles are working properly c) The client needs to stop the exercise d) The client has drank too much water

The client needs to stop the exercise Explanation: Stop an exercise as soon as a client feels pain in order to prevent injury.

Kyphosis is defined as: a) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior. b) The convexity of the spinal curve is medial. c) The convexity of the spinal curve is lateral. d) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.

The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior. Explanation: This defines the normal kyphotic curve.

Pronation of the wrist joint occurs in:

The transverse plane. Explanation: Any type of rotational movement will occur in the transverse plane.

Which of the following theories of behavior change has been shown to increase an individual's intention to exercise?

Theory of planned behavior

Which of the following best describes the effect of length changes on the force-generating capacity of shortened muscles?

There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length. Explanation: Total muscle force is maximal when the muscle is slightly elongated and diminished when returned to a normal resting length.

Which of the following best describes the effect of length changes on the force-generating capacity of shortened muscles? a) The lengthened muscles generally have a higher force production throughout the full range of motion, as muscles are strongest when they are longest. b) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length. c) The shortened muscles will produce the same amount of force as they did at normal length, only at a faster rate of movement. d) They will have diminished force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but greater force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths.

Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test? a) Chest b) Abdomen c) Thigh d) Supraliac

Thigh Jackson and Pollock have developed several skinfold formulas that assess the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men and triceps, suprailiac, and thigh for women.

A female client is 52-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 70 mg·dL-1. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does she have? a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) -1

This client's age is not considered a positive risk factor. However, her HDL-C is considered a negative risk factor, so the sum total equals zero risk factors.

As it relates to behavior modification, which of the following does NOT require a client to be committed to behavior change?

Transtheoretical model of change Explanation: Clients may be in precontemplation when they are not committed to making any behavior changes as they may not be aware there is a need to do so.

As it relates to behavior modification, which of the following does NOT require a client to be committed to behavior change?

Transtheoretical model of change Explanation: Clients may be in precontemplation when they are not committed to making any behavior changes as they may not be aware there is a need to do so.

While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. You were led to this conclusion since the client was: a) Unable to abduct the arm to shoulder level. b) Able to reach overhead to the contralateral shoulder. c) Able to internally rotate the shoulder joint to about 60°. d) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.

Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°. Explanation: The infraspinatus and teres minor are external rotators of the shoulder joint, and normal range is 70° to 90°.

The upper trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula and the lower trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula.

Upward; upward Explanation: Fibers of both the upper and lower trapezius function to upwardly rotate the scapula.

To build a successful client relationship, you should: a) Use a client-centered approach. b) Demonstrate your knowledge and professionalism frequently. c) Provide unsolicited advice for motivation. d) Offer excellent customer service and hospitality.

Use a client-centered approach. The client-centered approach puts the client's needs and goals first and increases the likelihood of affecting behavior change.

A heart murmur that is clinically significant may be indicative of: a) Hypertension. b) Shortness of breath. c) Valvular heart disease. d) Anemia.

Valvular heart disease. Explanation: Most heart murmurs are harmless; however, significant murmurs can be a sign of heart valve issues, such as not opening or closing properly.

Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) Waist of 36 inches for females b) Body fat percent of 25% for females c) Waist of 38 inches for males d) Body fat percent of 25% for males

Waist of 36 inches for females Explanation: The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 35 inches or greater for females.

Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) Waist of 38 inches for males b) Body fat percent of 25% for males c) Waist of 36 inches for females d) Body fat percent of 25% for females

Waist of 36 inches for females Explanation: The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 35 inches or greater for females.

Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) BMI >25 for males b) Waist of 32 inches for females c) Waist of 40 inches for males d) BMI of 28 for females

Waist of 40 inches for males Explanation: The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 40 inches or greater for males.

Which of the following is a positive risk factor?

Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months

Which of the following is a positive risk factor?

Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months Explanation: A risk factor for a sedentary lifestyle is defined as not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, for a least 3 days a week, for at least 3 months.

Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months b) Sudden death of mother at 70 years of age c) Fasting plasma glucose 80 mg·dL-1 d) Low-density lipoprotein 120 mg·dL-1 Submit your answer

While the client's total cholesterol is considered a positive risk factor, this is negated as her HDL-C that is considered a negative risk factor. Thus, the sum total equals zero risk factors.

Which of the following statements about flexibility is the MOST accurate? a) Flexibility naturally increases due to a decrease collagen levels. b) With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching. c) Any build-up of scar tissue after injury often causes flexibility to plateau. d) Males typically have more flexibility in the lower extremity than females.

With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching. Explanation: With age, the ability to retain full range of motion diminishes due to tighter cross-linkages within and between collagen fibers.

Which of the following is the MOST powerful method of marketing to potential clients?

Word of mouth Correct Explanation: The most cost-effective method of marketing continues to be word of mouth.

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