adh exam 5
A client is prescribed tetracycline to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which instruction would the nurse give the client? "Take the medication with milk." "Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." "You will not experience GI upset while taking this medication." "Do not drive when taking this medication."
"Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." Explanation: Tetracycline may cause a photosensitivity reaction in clients. The nurse should caution the client to use sunscreen when taking this drug. Dairy products can reduce the effectiveness of tetracycline, so the nurse should not advise him or her to take the medication with milk. GI upset is possible with tetracycline administration. Administration of tetracycline does not necessitate driving restrictions
A client comes to the clinic reporting pain in the epigastric region. What assessment question during the health interview would most help the nurse determine if the client has a peptic ulcer? "Does your pain resolve when you have something to eat?" "Do over-the-counter pain medications help your pain?" "Does your pain get worse if you get up and do some exercise?" "Do you find that your pain is worse when you need to have a bowel movement?"
"Does your pain resolve when you have something to eat?" Explanation: Pain relief after eating is associated with peptic ulcers. The pain of peptic ulcers is generally unrelated to activity or bowel function and may or may not respond to analgesics.
The nurse is preparing to interview a client with cirrhosis. Based on an understanding of this disorder, which question would be most important to include? "Have you had an infection recently?" "Does your work expose you to chemicals?" "How often do you drink alcohol?" "What type of over-the-counter pain reliever do you use?"
"How often do you drink alcohol?" Explanation: The most common type of cirrhosis results from chronic alcohol intake and is frequently associated with poor nutrition. Although it can follow chronic poisoning with chemicals or ingestion of hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen, asking about alcohol intake would be most important. Asking about an infection or exposure to hepatotoxins or industrial chemicals would be important if the client had postnecrotic cirrhosis.
A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) "It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." "You may have ingested some irritating foods." "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." "It is a hereditary disease." "It is probably your nerves."
"It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." "You may have ingested some irritating foods." "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." Explanation: Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion—the person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy.
When should sucralfate be taken?
2 hrs before or after other meds be taken without food but with water 1 hr prior to meals
A client who had developed jaundice 2 months earlier is brought to the ED after attending a party and developing excruciating pain that radiated over the abdomen and into the back. Upon assessment, which additional symptom would the nurse expect this client to have? Hypertension Bile-stained vomiting Warm, dry skin Weight loss
Bile-stained vomiting Explanation: Nausea and vomiting are common in acute pancreatitis. The emesis is usually gastric in origin but may also be bile stained. Fever, jaundice, mental confusion, and agitation may also occur.
Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess in a client with peritonitis? Deep slow respirations Decreased pulse rate Hyperactive bowel sounds Board-like abdomen
Board-like abdomen Explanation: The client with peritonitis would typically exhibit a rigid, board-like abdomen, with absent bowel sounds, elevated pulse rate, and rapid, shallow respirations.
protein that is normally not detected in the blood of a healthy person; therefore, when detected it indicates that cancer is present,
CEA
The nurse is irrigating a colostomy when the patient says, "You will have to stop, I am cramping so badly." What is the priority action by the nurse? Inform the patient that it will only last a minute and continue with the procedure. Clamp the tubing and give the patient a rest period. Stop the irrigation and remove the tube. Replace the fluid with cooler water since it is probably too warm.
Clamp the tubing and give the patient a rest period. Explanation: When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse should allow tepid fluid to enter the colon slowly. If cramping occurs, the nurse should clamp off the tubing and allow the patient to rest before progressing. Water should flow in over a 5- to 10-minute period.
clinical manifestations of esophageal cancer
DYSPHAGIA; a sensation of a mass in the throat; painful swallowing; substernal pain or fullness; and, later, regurgitation of undigested food with halitosis and hiccups progressive weight loss and loss of strength occurs from inadequate nutrition
A nurse is caring for a client with cardiac disease. The client asks the nurse which medication is best for help with regular bowel movements. What is the best response by the nurse? Docusate Magnesium hydroxide Bisacodyl Mineral oil
Docusate Explanation: Docusate (Colace) can be used safely by patients who should avoid straining, such as cardiac clients. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) is a saline agent. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) is a stimulant laxative. Mineral oil is a lubricant laxative.
valuable when esophageal, gastric, or duodenal disorders or inflammatory, neoplastic, or infectious processes are suspected noninvasive, safe and well tolerated procedure takes 30 mins, NPO 8 hrs prior to exam, midazolam provides moderate sedation with loss of gag reflex atropine used to reduce secretions, glucagon given to relax smooth muscles
EGD
A client is admitted to the healthcare facility suspected of having acute pancreatitis and undergoes laboratory testing. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? Increased serum calcium levels Elevated urine amylase levels Decreased liver enzyme levels Decreased white blood cell count
Elevated urine amylase levels Explanation: Elevated serum and urine amylase, lipase, and liver enzyme levels accompany significant pancreatitis. If the common bile duct is obstructed, the bilirubin level is above normal. Blood glucose levels and white blood cell counts can be elevated. Serum electrolyte levels (calcium, potassium, and magnesium) are low.
A client is being seen in the clinic for reports of painful hemorrhoids. The nurse assesses the client and observes the hemorrhoids are prolapsed but able to be placed back in the rectum manually. The nurse documents the hemorrhoids as what degree? First degree Second degree Third degree Fourth degree
First degree hemorrhoids do not prolapse and protrude into the anal canal. Second degree hemorrhoids prolapse outside the anal canal during defecation but reduce spontaneously. Third degree hemorrhoids prolapse to the extent that they require manual reduction. Fourth degree hemorrhoids prolapse to the extent that they may not be reduced.
disorder marked by backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus that causes troublesome symptoms and mucosal injury to the esophagus
GERD
what are risk factors for esophageal cancer?
GERD, ingestion of alcohol and tobacco use, pt with BE, chronic ingestion of hot liquids/foods, smoking
chronic functional disorder characterized by recurrent abdominal pain associated with disordered bowel movements, which may include diarrhea, constipation, or both, without an identifiable cause S/S: pain, bloating, abdominal distention management: Lifestyle modification, including stress reduction, ensuring adequate sleep, and instituting an exercise regimen, FIBER, restricting and reintroduction of foods, LOW FODMAP diet, ANTIDIARRHEAL (loperamide)
IBS
GERD is commonly seen in patients with ??? ALSO associated with???
IBS and obstructive airway disorder exacerbations, BE, peptic ulcer disease, and angina tobacco use, coffee drinking, alcohol consumption, and gastric infection with Helicobacter pylori.
Clinical manifestations of common bile duct obstruction include all of the following except: Light-colored urine Clay-colored feces Pruritus Jaundice
Light-colored urine Explanation: The excretion of the bile pigments by the kidneys gives the urine a very dark color. The feces, no longer colored with bile pigments, are grayish, like putty, or clay-colored. The symptoms may be acute or chronic. Epigastric distress, such as fullness, abdominal distention, and vague pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, may occur. If it goes untreated jaundice and pruritus can occur.
conditions that cause malabsorption
Mucosal (transport) disorders causing generalized malabsorption (e.g., celiac disease, Crohn's disease, radiation enteritis) Luminal disorders causing malabsorption (e.g., bile acid deficiency, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, pancreatic insufficiency, small bowel bacterial overgrowth, or chronic pancreatitis) Lymphatic obstruction, interfering with transport of fat by products of digestion into the systemic circulation (e.g., neoplasms, surgical trauma).
A critically ill client is diagnosed with acute liver failure caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate being prescribed for the client? Penicillin Prostaglandins N-acetylcysteine Plasma exchange
N-acetylcysteine Explanation: Acute hepatic failure or acute liver failure (ALF) is the clinical syndrome of sudden and severely impaired liver function in a person who was previously healthy. Supporting the client in the ICU and assessing the indications for and feasibility of liver transplantation are hallmarks of management. The use of antidotes for certain conditions may be indicated, such as N-acetylcysteine for acetaminophen toxicity. Penicillin is used for mushroom poisoning. Prostaglandins are used to enhance hepatic blood flow. Plasma exchange is used to correct coagulopathy, reduce serum ammonia levels, and stabilize the client awaiting liver transplantation.
A patient who had a recent myocardial infarction was brought to the emergency department with bleeding esophageal varices and is presently receiving fluid resuscitation. What first-line pharmacologic therapy does the nurse anticipate administering to control the bleeding from the varices? Vasopressin (Pitressin) Epinephrine Octreotide (Sandostatin) Glucagon
Octreotide (Sandostatin) Explanation: Octreotide (Sandostatin), a synthetic analogue of the hormone somatostatin, is effective in decreasing bleeding from esophageal varices, and lacks the vasoconstrictive effects of vasopressin. Because of this safety and efficacy profile, octreotide is considered the preferred treatment regimen for immediate control of variceal bleeding.
The nurse is caring for a client with intussusception of the bowel. What does the nurse understand occurs with this disorder? The bowel twists and turns itself and obstructs the intestinal lumen. One part of the intestine telescopes into another portion of the intestine. The bowel protrudes through a weakened area in the abdominal wall. A loop of intestine adheres to an area that is healing slowly after surgery.
One part of the intestine telescopes into another portion of the intestine. Explanation: In intussusception of the bowel, one part of the intestine telescopes into another portion of the intestine. When the bowel twists and turns itself and obstructs the intestinal lumen, this is known as a volvulus. A hernia is when the bowel protrudes through a weakened area in the abdominal wall. An adhesion is a loop of intestine that adheres to an area that is healing slowly after surgery.
inflammation of the peritoneum, which is the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the viscera. usually result of BACTERIAL infection s/s: pain then localized, tenderness, distended, muscles become rigid, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, peristalsis diminished assessment: wbc >11,000, ultrasound reveals abscess, management: fluid, colloid, and electrolyte replacement, IDENTIFY AND CONTROL SOURCE OF INFECTION, MAINTAIN ORGAN FUNCTION, PREVENT COMPLICATIONS
PERITONITIS
A client is preparing for discharge to home following a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy. Which is the best rationale for the client being taught to lie down for 30 minutes after each meal? Slows gastric emptying Provides much needed rest Allows for better absorption of vitamin B12 Removes tension on internal suture line
Slows gastric emptying Explanation: Dumping syndrome is a common complication following subtotal gastrectomy. To avoid the rapid emptying of stomach contents, resting after meals can be helpful. Promoting rest after a major surgery is helpful in recovery but not the reason for resting after meals. Following this type of surgery, clients will have a need for vitamin B12 supplementation due to absence of production of intrinsic factor in the stomach. Resting does not increase absorption of B12 or remove tension on suture line.
The nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. The nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage?
The nurse interprets hematemesis as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage from the ulcer. Other signs that can indicate hemorrhage include tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria/anuria.
The nurse is conducting a gastrointestinal assessment. When the client reports the presence of mucus and pus in the stool, the nurse assesses for additional signs/symptoms of which disease/condition? Small-bowel disease Ulcerative colitis Disorders of the colon Intestinal malabsorption
Ulcerative colitis Explanation: The presence of mucus and pus in the stool suggests ulcerative colitis. Watery stools are characteristic of small-bowel disease. Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the colon. Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.
A client with severe and chronic liver disease is showing manifestations related to inadequate vitamin intake and metabolism. He reports difficulty driving at night because he cannot see well. Which of the following vitamins is most likely deficient for this client? Vitamin A Thiamine Riboflavin Vitamin K
Vitamin A Explanation: Problems common to clients with severe chronic liver dysfunction result from inadequate intake of sufficient vitamins. Vitamin A deficiency results in night blindness and eye and skin changes. Thiamine deficiency can lead to beriberi, polyneuritis, and Wernicke-Korsakoff psychosis. Riboflavin deficiency results in characteristic skin and mucous membrane lesions. Vitamin K deficiency can cause hypoprothrombinemia, characterized by spontaneous bleeding and ecchymoses.
aids in digesting starch
amylase
Constipation can be caused by certain medications such as _________
anticholinergic agents, antidepressants, anticonvulsants, antispasmodics (muscle relaxants), calcium channel antagonists, diuretic agents, opioids, aluminum- and calcium-based antacids, and iron preparations
RISK FACTORS FOR ORAL CANCER
any form of tobacco or nicotine (cigarette, cigar, pipe, smokeless tobacco, ENDS), excessive use of alcohol, infection with human papillomavirus (HPV), and a history of previous head and neck cancer
gram-positive anaerobic organism and the most commonly identified bacterium in antibiotic-associated diarrhea penicillins, cephalosporins, fluoroquinalones, and clindamycin are known risk factors other risk factors include advanced age, the use of proton pump inhibitors or chemotherapy, and a history of chronic liver disease, kidney disease, or malnutrition.
c-diff
The nurse discourages the intake of ____________, because ________ is a central nervous system stimulant that increases gastric activity and pepsin secretion.
caffeinated beverages; caffeine
Total parental nutrition (TPN) should be used cautiously in clients with pancreatitis because such clients: cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration. are at risk for gallbladder contraction. are at risk for hepatic encephalopathy. can digest high-fat foods.
cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration. Explanation: Total parental nutrition (TPN) is used carefully in clients with pancreatitis because some clients cannot tolerate a high-glucose concentration even with insulin coverage. Intake of coffee increases the risk for gallbladder contraction, whereas intake of high protein increases risk for hepatic encephalopathy in clients with cirrhosis. Patients with pancreatitis should not be given high-fat foods because they are difficult to digest.
what are examples of mucosal disorders?
celiac disease, crohn's disease, and radiation enteritis
milklike, lymphatic fluid drainage from the thoracic duct into the thoracic cavity develop as a result of damage to the thoracic duct during surgery
chyle leak
defined as fewer than three bowel movements weekly or bowel movements that are hard, dry, small, or difficult to pass
constipation
A client comes to the clinic after developing a headache, abdominal pain, nausea, hiccupping, and fatigue about 2 hours ago. The client tells the nurse that the last food was buffalo chicken wings and beer. Which medical condition does the nurse find to be most consistent with the client's presenting problems? Acute gastritis Duodenal ulcer Gastric cancer Gastric ulcer
cute gastritis Explanation: A client with acute gastritis may have a rapid onset of symptoms, including abdominal discomfort, headache, lassitude, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and hiccupping, which can last from a few hours to a few days. Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. A client with a duodenal ulcer will present with heartburn, nausea, excessive gas and vomiting. A client with gastric cancer will have persistent symptoms of nausea and vomiting, not sudden symptoms. A client with a gastric ulcer will have bloating, nausea, and vomiting, but not necessarily hiccups.
increased frequency of bowel movements (more than 3 per day) with altered consistency (i.e., increased liquidity) of stool associated with urgency, perianal discomfort, incontinence, nausea, or a combination of these factors
diarrhea
inability of the digestive system to absorb one or more of the major vitamins (especially A and B12), minerals (i.e., iron and calcium), and nutrients (i.e., carbohydrates, fats, and proteins)
disorders of malabsorption
A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to: restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day. drink liquids only with meals. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals. drink liquids only between meals.
drink liquids only between meals Explanation: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in the prevention of rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids.
physiologic response to rapid emptying of gastric contents into the small intestine; manifested by nausea, weakness, sweating, palpitations, syncope, and possibly diarrhea (synonym: vagotomy syndrome)
dumping syndtome
upper abdominal discomfort associated with eating (commonly called indigestion)—is the most common symptom of patients with GI dysfunction
dyspepsia
postop gastrectomy
educate, educate on injection of vit B12 for life, if unable to eat adequately will need enteral feeding, weight loss common, monitor IV therapy and nutritional status, records in and outs, daily weights, signs of dehydration monitored, review daily labs
management of dumping syndrome
encouraging six small feedings daily that are low in carbohydrates and sugar and the consumption of fluids between meals rather than with meals
diluated, tortuous veins found in lower esophagus; often bleed easily caused by portal hypertension present with hematemesis, melena, deterioration of mental/physical status, history of alcohol abuse treated with vasoactive drug OCTREOTIDE betablockers used to prevent rebleeding (propranolol, nadolol, carvedilol)
esophageal varices
____________ of the upper GI tract allows direct visualization of the esophageal, gastric, and duodenal mucosa through a lighted endoscope (gastroscope)
fibroscopy
RISK FACTORS: diet high in smoked, salted, pickled foods and low in fruits and veg; h. pylori, gastritis, pernicious anemia, smoking, obesity, achlorhydria, gastric ulcers, partial gastrectomy, genetics clinical manifestations: similar to those of peptic ulcer disease, such as dyspepsia, early satiety, weight loss, abdominal pain just above the umbilicus, loss or decrease in appetite, bloating after meals, and nausea or vomiting treatment: surgical procedure, chemotherapy, radiation therapy
gastric cancer
common GI problem, inflammatin f gastric or stomach mucosa EROSIVE caused by aspirin and NSAIDS, corticosteroids, alcohol consumption, gastric radiation therapy nonerosive caused by h pylori CLINICAL MANIFESTATION: epigastric pain, dyspepsia, anorexia, hiccups, nausea, vomiting, bleeding, melena, hematochezia (bloody stool), fatigue, pyrosis, belching, sour taste in the mouth, halitosis, early satiety medical management: NG intubation, antacids, H2 blockers (famotidine, cimetidine), proton pump inhibitors, and IV fluids modify diet, promoting rest, reducing stress, avoid NSAIDs & alcohol, intitate meds
gastritis
inflammation of the gums; change in color from pink to red, with associated swelling, bleeding, and sensitivity/tenderness
gingivitis
one of the most common stool tests performed at the bedside, in the laboratory, or at home. It is inexpensive, noninvasive, and carries minimal risk to the patient. advised to avoid ingesting red meats, aspirin, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 72 hours prior to the study
guaiac-based fecal occult blood testing (gFOBT)
foul odor from the oral cavity; in laypersons' terms, "bad breath"
halitosis
The nurse is cautiously assessing a client admitted with peptic ulcer disease. The nurse is aware that which complications occur in 20% to 30% of clients with this diagnosis? hemorrhage or perforation intractable ulcer or pyrosis perforation or mechanical obstruction pyloric obstruction or melena
hemorrhage or perforation EXPLANATION: Hemorrhage and peformation are the most common complications, occuring in 20% to 30% of clients with peptic ulcers. Bleeding may be manifested by hematemesis or melena. Perforation is erosion of the ulcer through the gastric serosa into the peritoneal cavity without warning.
what potential complications can happen due to neck dissection?
hemorrhage, chyle leak, nerve injury
damage to the liver's parenchymal cells, directly from primary liver diseases, or indirectly from either obstruction of bile flow or derangements of hepatic circulation Disease processes that lead to hepatocellular dysfunction may be caused by infectious agents such as bacteria and viruses and by anoxia, metabolic disorders, toxins and medications, nutritional deficiencies, and hypersensitivity states. The most common cause of parenchymal damage is malnutrition, especially that related to alcoholism significant manifestations of liver disease are jaundice, portal hypertension, ascites and varices, nutritional deficiencies (resulting from the inability of damaged liver cells to metabolize certain vitamins), and hepatic encephalopathy or coma
hepatic dysfunction
the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes becomes enlarged, and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax
hiatal hernia
after a gastrectomy, food supplements should be ______________
high in calories, as well as vitamins A and C and iron, to enhance tissue repair.
what does the sucess of a colonscopy depend on?
how well the colon is prepared, adequate cleansing provides optimal visualization and decreased the time needed for the procedure
The nurse caring for an older adult client diagnosed with diarrhea is administering and monitoring the client's medications. Because one of the client's medications is digitalis (digoxin), the nurse monitors the client closely for: hyperkalemia. hypokalemia. hyponatremia. hypernatremia.
hypokalemia. Explanation: The older client taking digoxin must be aware of how quickly dehydration and hypokalemia can occur with diarrhea. The nurse teaches the client to recognize the symptoms of hypokalemia because low levels of potassium intensify the action of digitalis, leading to digitalis toxicity.
________ also secreted by the gastric mucosa, combines with dietary vitamin B12 so that the vitamin can be absorbed in the ileum. in the absence of this, vitamnin b12 cannot be absorbed, which can cause what?
intrinsic factor pernicious anemia
Positions for the rectal examination include ____________
knee-chest, left lateral with hips and knees flexed, or standing with hips flexed and upper body supported by the examination table.
aids in digesting fats
lipase
most commonly affected areas for malignant growth for oral cancer
lips, lateral aspects of tongue, floor of mouth
The nurse recognizes that the client diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience vomiting. hemorrhage. pain 2 to 3 hours after a meal. weight loss.
pain 2 to 3 hours after a meal. Explanation: The client with a duodenal ulcer often awakens between 1 and 2 with pain, and ingestion of food brings relief. Vomiting is uncommon in the client with duodenal ulcer. Hemorrhage is less likely in the client with duodenal ulcer than in the client with gastric ulcer. The client with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.
what are common symptoms of GI issues?
pain, dyspepsia, gas, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation
the most frequent symptom related to oral cancer
painless sore or lesion that bleeds easily and does not heal red or white patch in the mouth or throat, painless indurated ulcer with raised edges
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP), occurs as a spontaneous bacterial infection of ascitic fluid. This occurs most commonly in adult patients with liver failure
primary peritonitis
what are the nursing interventions for oral cavity cancer?
promoting mouth care, ensuring adequate food and fluid intake, supporting a positive self-image, minimizing pain and discomfort, preventing infection
clinical manifestations of GERD? diagnostic findings??
pyrosis, regurgitation, dyspepsia, dysphagia, hypersalivation, and esophagitis ambulatory ph monitoring, PPI trial, endoscopy or barium swallow used t evaluate damage of esophagus and rule out hernias
perforation of abdominal organs with spillage that infects the serous peritoneum caused by leakage of contents from abdominal organs into the abdominal cavity, usually as a result of inflammation, infection, ischemia, trauma, or tumor perforation
secondary peritonitis
Bulky, greasy, foamy stools that are foul in odor and may or may not float Light gray or clay-colored stool, caused by a decrease or absence of conjugated bilirubin Stool with mucus threads or pus that may be visible on gross inspection of the stool Small, dry, rock-hard masses occasionally streaked with blood Loose, watery stool that may or may not be streaked with blood
stool characteristics
medical management for inflammatory bowel disease
sulfasalazine or sulfa-free for those with sulfa allergies (mesalamine, olsalazine) given for both IBDs to treat inflammation -adverse effects are headaches, nausea, diarrhea antibiotics (metronidazole and ciprofloxacin) corticosteroids immunomodulators nutritional therapy- low-residue, high protein, high calorie diet, oral or enteral nutrition surgery- proctocolectomy and ileostomy
a superinfection in a patient who is immunocompromised. Tuberculous peritonitis in a patient with AIDS is an example of this diease RARE
tertiary peritonitis
aids in digesting protein
trypsin
what digestive enzymes are secreted by the pancreas?
trypsin, amylase, and lipase
chronic ulcerative and inflammatory disease of the mucosal and submucosal layers of the colon and rectum that is characterized by unpredictable periods of remission and exacerbation with bouts of abdominal cramps and bloody or purulent diarrhea multiple ulcerations, diffuse inflammations, bleeding from ulcerations, edema and inflammation, lesions CONTIGUOUS S/S: diarrhea of mucus, pus or blood; left lower quadrant pain, bleeding, pallow, anemia, fatigue, weigt loss *abscesses, fistulas, obstruction and fissures uncommon
ulcerative colitis
tests detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori, the bacteria that can live in the mucosal lining of the stomach and cause peptic ulcer disease ingests a capsule of carbon-labeled urea, a breath sample is obtained 10 to 20 minutes later
urea breath test
PEG electrolyte lavage solutions
used for effective cleansing of the bowel Current preparations include either the nonsplit dose regimen, in which the entire solution is ingested the night before the procedure, or the split-dose regimen, in which half of the dose is ingested the night before and half is ingested the morning of the procedure, 3 hours prior to the scheduled test
common manifestations of appendicitis
vague periumbilical pain progresses o right lower quadrant pain (sharp, discrete, and well localized), nausea, low grade fever