Adult Health Exam 3
The nurse explains to a client that immunotherapy initially starts with injections at which interval?
Weekly Explanation: Typically, immunotherapy begins with very small amounts and gradually increases, usually at weekly intervals until a maximum tolerated dose is attained. Then maintenance booster injections are administered at 2- to 4-week intervals, frequently for a period of several years.
Which allergic reaction is potentially life threatening?
angioedema Explanation: Angioedema is potentially life threatening. Medical management would include intubation, subcutaneous epinephrine, and aminophylline in severe reactions.
Which body substance causes increased gastric secretion, dilation of capillaries, and constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle?
Histamine Explanation: When cells are damaged, histamine is released. Bradykinin is a polypeptide that stimulates nerve fibers and causes pain. Serotonin is a chemical mediator that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor. Prostaglandins are unsaturated fatty acids that have a wide assortment of biologic activities.
After teaching a client how to self-administer epinephrine, the nurse determines that the teaching plan has been successful when the client demonstrates which action?
Jabs the autoinjector into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle Explanation: To self-administer epinephrine, the client should remove the autoinjector from its carrying tube, grasp the unit with the black tip (injecting end) pointed downward, form a fist around the device, and remove the gray safety release cap. Then the client should hold the black tip near the outer thigh and swing and jab firmly into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle until a click is heard. Next, the client should hold the device firmly in place for about 10 seconds, remove the device, and massage the site for about 10 seconds.
The nurse is teaching a client about histamine release during an anaphylactic reaction. What does histamine release in anaphylaxis cause?
nasal congestion Explanation: Histamine release causes sweating, sneezing, shortness of breath, and nasal congestion. Feelings of impending doom are related to activation of IgE and subsequent release of chemical mediators. Urinary urgency and stomach cramps occur from smooth muscle contractions of intestines and bladder.
The nurse is teaching a client about contact dermatitis. What type of contact dermatitis requires light exposure in addition to allergen contact?
photoallergic Explanation: Photoallergic contact dermatitis resembles allergic dermatitis, but it requires light exposure in addition to allergen contact to produce immunologic reactivity. Phototoxic contact dermatitis resembles the irritant type, but it requires sunlight in combination with the chemical to damage the epidermis. Allergic contact dermatitis results from contact of skin with a allergenic substance. Irritant contact dermatitis results from contact with a substance that chemically or physically damages the skin on a nonimmunologic basis.
A substance that causes manifestations of allergy
Allergen
The nurse is educating a client about allergy management at home. What client statements indicate no further teaching is required?
"I have pull shades on all of my windows." "I bought a wooden chair for my living room." Explanation: Using pull shades on windows and using steam for heating will help reduce environmental allergens such as dust. Rugs on floors will hold allergens in and floors need to be vacuumed every day. Dogs may bring allergens into the client's home, especially when in close proximity while sleeping.
A patient was seen in the clinic for hypertension and received a prescription for a new antihypertensive medication. The patient arrived in the emergency department a few hours after taking the medication with severe angioedema. What medication prescribed may be responsible for the reaction?
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor Explanation: Several frequently prescribed medications, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and penicillin, may cause angioedema. The nurse needs to be aware of all medications the patient is taking and be alert to the potential of angioedema as a side effect.
The nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in a client who has experienced an allergic reaction. The nurse would correctly document this finding as
angioneurotic edema. Explanation: The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit. Urticaria (hives) is characterized as edematous skin elevations that vary in size and shape, itch, and cause local discomfort. Contact dermatitis refers to inflammation of the skin caused by contact with an allergenic substance such as poison ivy. Pitting edema is the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.
In its attempt to suppress allergic responses, the body releases several chemicals which have a role in mediating physical reactions. Epinephrine, which interferes with vasoactive chemical release from mast cells, is instrumental in suppressing which type of hypersensitivity response?
type I Explanation: Epinephrine interferes with the release of vasoactive chemicals from mast cells which cause vasodilation during anaphylaxis, also known as a Type I response.
A client is presenting an anaphylactic response to unknowingly ingesting nuts at a family celebration. What type of hypersensitivity did this client exhibit?
type I Explanation: There are four types of hypersensitivity responses, three of which are immediate. This is an example of Type I, atopic or anaphylactic, which is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies.
The nurse is caring for a client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. The nurse prepares for the maximum intensity of histamine response to occur within which time frame?
5 to 10 minutes Explanation: Histamine's effects peak 5 to 10 minutes after antigen contact.
The client presents to the emergency department with a suspected allergic reaction to the antibiotic they were given at the quick care clinic to treat their pneumonia. What are the priorityactions the nurse should take?
Take vital signs. Place oxygen on the client. Insert an intravenous line. Explanation: Hypertension is seen in clients with cardiac and stroke. The nurse would see hypotension caused by dilation of blood vessels. Inserting an intravenous line should be done in case the client needs to be given medications or fluids. Vitamin K is administered to reverse the effects of Coumadin, not for an allergic reaction. Taking vital signs is important to determine if they are normal or require treatment. Placing oxygen on a client will help relieve dyspnea caused by constriction of airways, and swollen tongue and throat. Diplopia would be seen in clients with muscular disorders, neurological disorders, and migraines.
The parents of a child with contact dermatitis are asking questions about the reaction within the immune system. What description regarding contact dermatitis as a type IV hypersensitivity reaction is accurate?
a delayed-type hypersensitivity that is mediated by T cells Explanation: Contact dermatitis is a delayed-type hypersensitivity response that can occur 24 to 72 hours after exposure to an allergen.
A client has begun sensitivity testing to determine the allergen which caused an anaphylactic reaction 3 weeks ago. In scratch testing, which part of the body is more sensitive to allergens?
back Explanation: The scratch or prick test involves scratching the skin and applying a small amount of the liquid test antigen to the scratch. The tester applies one allergen per scratch over the client's forearm, upper arm, or back. The back is more sensitive than the arms.
A client with a history of allergic rhinitis comes to the clinic for an evaluation. The client is prescribed triamcinolone. What will the nurse include when teaching the client about this drug?
Be aware that some nasal burning and itching may occur. Explanation: Triamcinolone is an inhaled corticosteroid administered by a metered-spray device. It may cause drying of the nasal mucosa and burning and itching sensations. The drug is not given orally and does not cause dry mouth. Adrenergic topical ophthalmic drops are used for symptomatic relief of eye irritations resulting from allergies.
A client with an allergic disorder calls the nurse and asks what treatment is available for allergic disorders. The nurse explains to the client that there is more than one treatment available. What treatments would the nurse tell the client about?
Desensitization Explanation: Desensitization is another option. Desensitization is a form of immunotherapy in which a person receives weekly or twice-weekly injections of dilute but increasingly higher concentrations of an allergen without interruption. SLIT is a form of desensitization therapy.
The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. The nurse generates a plan of care for the client based on which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Cytotoxic Explanation: Cytotoxic hypersensitivity occurs when the body mistakenly identifies a part of the body as foreign, as in myasthenia gravis, where the body mistakenly identifies normal nerve endings as foreign. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions occur 24 to 72 hours after exposure. Immune complex hypersensitivity involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies. Anaphylactic hypersensitivity is an immediate reaction characterized by edema in many tissues, often with hypotension, bronchospasm, and cardiovascular collapse.
A patient with a history of allergies comes to the clinic for an evaluation. The following laboratory test findings are recorded in a patient's medical record: Total serum IgE levels: 2.8 mg/m White blood cell count: 5,100/cu mm Eosinophil count: 4% Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 20 mm/h The nurse identifies which result as suggesting an allergic reaction?
Serum IgE level Explanation: Normally, serum IgE levels are below 1.0 mg/mL. The patient's level is significantly elevated suggesting allergic reaction. The other values are within normal parameters.
The nurse plans care for a client who is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. For each teaching point, specify if the instruction addresses skin hydration or itchy skin.
Skin hydration: - Use an emollient containing glycerol on the skin after bathing. - Take short showers using a mild soap for cleansing. Itchy skin: - Wear cotton fabric. - Wash clothes using a mild detergent. - Take an antihistamine before bed. - Use an emollient containing glycerol on the skin after bathing. Explanation: The nurse provides teaching to the client who is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis regarding the importance of skin hydration. Appropriate teaching points include the application of an emollient that contains glycerol to the skin immediately after bathing because the oil seals water into the skin; additionally, the nurse also recommends the use of a mild soap, which acts as a natural moisturizer, thus keeping the skin hydrated. Dry, itchy skin often occurs due to inflammation that is associated with atopic dermatitis. Appropriate teaching points encouraging the use of emollients, which decrease inflammation; the use of cotton fabrics, which allow the skin to breathe; using a mild detergent to wash clothing to decrease the risk for a reaction and inflammation; and taking an antihistamine before bed. The use of a mild soap to wash the skin and a mild detergent to wash clothing decreases the risk for inflammation, which leads to itchy skin; however, these actions do not promote skin hydration. Additionally, the use of an antihistamine is meant to block the inflammatory process that results in itchiness; however, this action does not address skin hydration. The use of a mild soap for bathing decreases the risk for inflammation and thus addresses the itchy skin, not skin hydration, that is associated with atopic dermatitis.
A child has just been diagnosed with a primary immune deficiency. The parents state, "Oh, no. Our child has AIDS." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
"Although AIDS is an immune deficiency, your child's condition is different from AIDS." Explanation: Primary immune deficiencies should be not be confused with AIDS. They are not the same condition. In addition, a primary immune disorder does not increase the child's risk for developing AIDS later in life. Primary immune deficiency diseases are serious, but they are rarely fatal and can be controlled. Testing will reveal the evidence of a primary immune disease, not AIDS. AIDS is classified as a secondary immunodeficiency.
Which adverse effect(s) should the nurse closely monitor in a client who has secondary immunodeficiencies due to immunosuppressive therapy?
Respiratory or urinary system infections Explanation: Secondary immunodeficiencies occur as a result of underlying disease processes or the treatment of these disorders, including administration of immunosuppressive agents. Abnormalities of the immune system affect both natural and acquired immunity. Because immunodeficiencies result in a compromised immune system and pose a high risk for infection, careful assessment of the client's immune status is essential. The nurse assesses and monitors the client for signs and symptoms of infection.
A client with HIV will be started on a medication regimen of three medications. What class of drugs will the nurse instruct the client about?
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors Explanation: Reverse transcriptase inhibitors are drugs that interfere with the virus' ability to make a genetic blueprint. A protease inhibitor is a drug that inhibits the ability of virus particles to leave the host cell. The integrase inhibitors are a class of drug that prevents the incorporation of viral DNA into the host cell's DNA. Hydroxyurea is a drug that is used as an adjunct therapy that tries to halt the progression of AIDS.
What intervention is appropriate before the client begins taking efavirenz therapy?
Testing for Stevens-Johnson syndrome Explanation: A client should be tested for the gene for Stevens-Johnson syndrome before receiving any drugs that potentially can cause this condition. The client does not have to receive diphenhydramine or have renal function tests. No particular foods should be restricted.
A patient received epinephrine in response to an anaphylactic reaction at 10:00 AM. The nurse knows to observe the patient for a "rebound" reaction that may occur as early as:
2:00 PM. Explanation: Rebound reactions can occur from 4 to 10 hours after an initial allergic reaction. Therefore the patient needs to be assessed from 2:00 PM to 8:00 PM.
A protein substance developed by the body in response to and interacting with a specific antigen.
Antibody
What treatment option does the nurse anticipate for the patient with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)?
Bone marrow transplantation Explanation: Treatment options for SCID include stem cell and bone marrow transplantation.
A client calls the clinic and asks the nurse if using oxymetazoline nasal spray would be all right to relieve the nasal congestion the client is experiencing due to seasonal allergies. What instructions should the nurse provide to the client to avoid complications?
Do not overuse the medication as rebound congestion can occur. Explanation: Overusing oxymetazoline nasal spray can cause rebound congestion. The medication does not cause fungal infection. Corticosteroids should be tapered, but it is not necessary to taper oxymetazoline. Oxymetazoline does not cause sleepiness so the client can operate machinery or drive.
A client taking abacavir has developed fever and rash. What is the priority nursing action?
Report to the health care provider. Explanation: Fever and a rash could be indicative of a hypersensitivity reaction. Hypersensitivity reactions are also known as anaphylactic reactions and often involve skin rashes, fever, and bronchopulmonary issues such as bronchial constriction. The health care provider should be notified immediately and the medication stopped. Interventions need to be taken to assure that the client's airway is not compromised. Administering acetaminophen and documentation and treating the rash are not the priority and would be completed after the client is stabilized.
An infant is born to a mother who had no prenatal care during her pregnancy. What type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse understand may have occurred?
Rh-hemolytic disease Explanation: A type II hypersensitivity, or cytotoxic, reaction, which involves binding either the IgG or IgM antibody to a cell-bound antigen, may lead to eventual cell and tissue damage. The reaction is the result of mistaken identity when the system identifies a normal constituent of the body as foreign and activates the complement cascade. Examples of type II reactions are myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture syndrome, pernicious anemia, hemolytic disease of the newborn, transfusion reaction, and thrombocytopenia.
The nurse is completing the intake assessment of a client new to the allergy clinic. The client states that he was taking nose drops six times a day to relieve his nasal congestion. The nasal congestion increased, causing him to increase his usage of the nasal spray to eight times a day. But again the congestion worsened. The nurse communicates to the health care provider that the client experienced
Rhinitis medicamentosa Explanation: Rhinitis medicamentosa is a rebound reaction from overuse of sympathomimetic nose drops or sprays that worsen the congestion, causing the client to use more of the medication, thereby leading to more nasal congestion. This differs from tolerance, when more medication is needed to achieve the desired effect. Leukotriene modifiers are a category of medications used to treat allergies. Atopic dermatitis is a type I hypersensitivity involving inflammation of the skin evidenced by itching, erythema, and skin lesions.
A client taking fosamprenavir reports "getting fat." What is the nurse's best action?
Teach the client about medication side effects. Explanation: The client needs to be aware of the potential for fat redistribution. Exercise, diet, and counseling will not change the outcome of this side effect.
A patient comes to the clinic with pruritus and nasal congestion after eating shrimp for lunch. The nurse is aware that the patient may be having an anaphylactic reaction to the shrimp. These symptoms typically occur within how many hours after exposure?
2 hours Explanation: Mild systemic, anaphylactic reactions consist of peripheral tingling and a sensation of warmth, possibly accompanied by a sensation of fullness in the mouth and throat. Nasal congestion, periorbital swelling, pruritus, sneezing, and tearing of the eyes can also be expected. Onset of symptoms begins within the first 2 hours after exposure.
A substance that induces the production of antibodies
Antigen
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) for a group of new graduate nurses, including the steps in the process of HIV entering the host cell. What would the nurse describe as the first step?
Attachment Explanation: Once HIV enters the host cell, attachment occurs in which the glycoproteins of HIV bind with the host's uninfected CD4+ receptor and chemokine coreceptors. This is followed by uncoating, in which HIV's viral core is emptied into the CD4+ T cell. Cleavage and budding occur as the last steps.
A client has been having joint pain and swelling in the left foot and is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The symptoms began suddenly without any identifiable cause, and the client has significant joint destruction. What type of disease is this considered?
Autoimmune Explanation: Diseases are considered autoimmune disorders when they are characterized by unrelenting, progressive tissue damage without any verifiable etiology. The client did not have a previous disorder that has caused an exacerbation. An alloimmunity describes an immune response that is waged against transplanted organs and tissues that carry non self antigens. Because there is no identifiable cause, there can be no effect.
Which is usually the most important consideration in the decision to initiate antiretroviral therapy?
CD4+ counts Explanation: The most important consideration in decisions to initiate antiretroviral therapy is CD4+ counts.
More than 50% of individuals with this disease develop pernicious anemia:
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) Explanation: More than 50% of clients with CVID develop pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is not associated with the other conditions.
A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client with atopic dermatitis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Use a topical skin moisturizer daily. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to use a topical skin moisturizer daily to help keep the skin hydrated. Likewise, the client should be encouraged to bathe daily. To minimize irritation, the client should wear only cotton fabrics. The client should maintain a room temperature between 68° F (20° C) and 72° F (22.2° C).
An older adult widowed woman informs the nurse that she notices vaginal dryness now that she has become sexually active again. She is not using barrier protection because it makes the dryness worse. What education should the nurse provide to the patient?
Vaginal dryness is common in postmenopausal women, and there are creams that can be used, but she should use a latex condom. Explanation: Other than abstinence, consistent and correct use of condoms is the only effective method to decrease the risk of sexual transmission of HIV infection. When latex male condoms are used consistently and correctly during vaginal or anal intercourse, they are highly effective in preventing the sexual transmission of HIV. Nonlatex condoms made of natural materials such as lambskin are available for people with latex allergy but will not protect against HIV infection.
A client visits the employee health department because of mild itching and a rash on both hands. What will the employee health nurse focus on during the assessment interview?
chemical and latex glove use Explanation: Because the itching and rash are localized, the employee health nurse will suspect an environmental cause in the workplace. With the advent of standard precautions, many nurses have experienced allergies to latex gloves. Allergies to medications, laundry detergents, or bath soaps and dermatologic reactions to stress usually elicit a more generalized or widespread rash.
The nurse is administering intravenous vancomycin. What will the nurse initially assess the client for if an allergic reaction occurs?
dyspnea, bronchospasm, and/or laryngeal edema Explanation: Initial nursing assessment and intervention needs to be directed toward evaluating breathing and maintaining an open airway, so the initial assessment will be for dyspnea, bronchospasm, and laryngeal edema. Hypotension, pruritis, and flushing may occur, but the airway is most important.
The nurse is teaching a client about latex allergies. What route of exposure from latex products occurs from use of latex condoms?
mucosal Explanation: Mucosal exposure can occur from the use of latex condoms, catheters, airways, and nipples. Parenteral exposure can occur from IV lines or hemodialysis equipment. Cutaneous exposure involves the wearing of latex gloves.
The nurse is teaching a client about allergic rhinitis and its triggers. What is the most common trigger for the respiratory allergic response?
plant pollen Explanation: Plant pollen (from trees, grass, and other plants) causes the most common form of allergic rhinitis, which is known as hay fever. Animal dander, dust mites, and mold spores can be triggers, but are not the most common causes.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is immunosuppressed. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?
"I can eat whatever I want as long as it's low in fat." Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he can eat whatever he wants. Immunosuppressed clients should avoid raw fruit and vegetables because they may contain bacteria that could increase the risk of infection; foods must be thoroughly cooked. Avoiding people who are sick, products containing alcohol, and people who have just received vaccines are appropriate actions for an immunosuppressed client.
There are major differences between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies. Select the most accurate statement the nurse would use to explain the cause of a secondary immunodeficiency.
"Your immune system was most likely affected by an underlying disease process." Explanation: A secondary immunodeficiency is the result of an underlying disease process or the treatment of a disorder. It is not genetically inherited. Some examples of a secondary immunodeficiency are chronic stress and diabetes mellitus.
The nurse tells the client that if exposure to an allergen occurs around 8:00 AM, then the client should expect a mild or moderate reaction by what time?
10:00 AM Explanation: Mild and moderate reactions begin within 2 hours of exposure.
Antiretroviral medications should be offered to clients with T-cell counts less than
350 cells/mm3. Explanation: In general, antiretroviral medications should be offered to individuals with a T-cell count less than 350 cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 100,000 copies/mL.
Which client is more at risk of becoming infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A person having casual intercourse with multiple partners Explanation: People who have casual intercourse with multiple partners are at a greater risk of acquiring HIV. Women who have never had intercourse are at the least risk because HIV spreads through body fluids, such as semen, vaginal secretions, and blood. The risks of women who have had deliveries after the age of 40 or men who use sildenafil (Viagra) before having intercourse are yet to be established.
A nurse educator is preparing to discuss immunodeficiency disorders with a group of fellow nurses. What would the nurse identify as the most common secondary immunodeficiency disorder?
AIDS Explanation: AIDS, the most common secondary disorder, is perhaps the best-known secondary immunodeficiency disorder. It results from infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). DAF refers to lysis of erythrocytes due to lack of decay-accelerating factor (DAF) on erythrocytes. CVID is a disorder that encompasses various defects ranging from IgA deficiency (in which only the plasma cells that produce IgA are absent) to severe hypogammaglobulinemia (in which there is a general lack of immunoglobulins in the blood). Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is a disorder in which both B and T cells are missing.
When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean which of the following?
Antibodies to HIV are not present in his blood. Explanation: A negative test result indicates that antibodies to HIV are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn. A negative test result should be interpreted as demonstrating that if infected, the body has not produced antibodies (which take from 3 weeks to 6 months or longer). Therefore, subsequent testing of an at-risk patient must be encouraged. The test result does not mean that the patient is immune to the virus, nor does it mean that the patient is not infected. It just means that the body may not have produced antibodies yet. When antibodies to HIV are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.
A client is to have a hip replacement in 3 months and does not want a blood transfusion from random donors. What option can the nurse discuss with the client?
Bank autologous blood. Explanation: Banking autologous blood that is self-donated is the safest option for the client. Signing the refusal form does not give the client any information about the options that are available and places the client at risk. Directed donor blood may be no safer than blood collected from public donors. Those who support this belief say that directed donors may not reveal their high-risk behaviors that put the potential recipient at risk for blood-borne pathogens such as HIV.
The nurse practitioner who is monitoring the patient's progression of HIV is aware that the most debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS patients is:
Chronic diarrhea. Explanation: Chronic diarrhea is believed related to the direct effect of HIV on cells lining the intestine. Although all gastrointestinal manifestations of AIDS can be debilitating, the most devastating is chronic diarrhea. It can cause profound weight loss and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
Which of the following is the most frequent route of exposure to a latex allergy?
Cutaneous Explanation: Routes of exposure to latex products can be cutaneous, percutaneous, mucosal, parenteral, or aerosol. Allergic reactions are more likely with parenteral or mucous membrane exposure but can also occur with cutaneous contact or inhalation. The most frequent source of exposure is cutaneous, which usually involves the wearing of natural latex gloves.
A nurse is assessing a client with Kaposi's sarcoma. What initial sign does the nurse know to look for during assessment?
Deep purple cutaneous lesions Explanation: Localized cutaneous lesions may be the first manifestation of this HIV-related malignancy, which appears in 90% of clients as immune function deteriorates. Other symptoms develop over time as the lesions increase in size and spread to other locations.
The nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has an affinity for H1 receptors. Which medication would the nurse administer?
Diphenhydramine Explanation: Certain medications are categorized by their action at these receptors. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an example of an antihistamine, a medication that displays an affinity for H1 receptors. Cimetidine (Tagamet) and nizatidine (Axid) target H2 receptors to inhibit gastric secretions in peptic ulcer disease.
When assessing the skin of a client with allergic contact dermatitis, the nurse would most likely expect to find irritation at which area?
Dorsal aspect of the hand Explanation: With allergic contact dermatitis, irritation is most common on the dorsal aspects of the hand. Irritant, phototoxic, and photoallergic types of contact dermatitis are commonly seen on the hands and lower arms.
A client with an allergic disorder is in treatment for their disorder. What might their treatment be?
Drug therapy Explanation: Besides avoiding the allergen if possible, many clients experience symptomatic relief with drug therapy.
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize what intervention?
Educational programs that focus on control and prevention Explanation: Until an effective vaccine is developed, preventing HIV by eliminating and reducing risk behaviors is essential. Educational interventions are the primary means by which behaviors can be influenced. Screening is appropriate, but education is paramount. Enhancing immune function does not prevent HIV infection. Ineffective use of standard precautions applies to very few cases of HIV infection.
A client is administered foscarnet to treat a case of CMV retinitis. Which adverse effect should the nurse closely monitor in the client?
Electrolyte imbalances Explanation: Alterations in renal function, fever, nausea, electrolyte imbalances, and diarrhea are the most common adverse effects of foscarnet and should be closely monitored. The drug does not cause hypotension. On the other hand, peripheral neuropathy is an adverse effect of administering drugs such as didanosine and zalcitabine. Anemia is an adverse effect of administering zidovudine.
Which blood test confirms the presence of antibodies to HIV?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) Explanation: ELISA and Western blotting identify and confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV. ESR is an indicator of the presence of inflammation in the body. The p24 antigen test is a blood test that measures viral core protein.
A client suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has blood drawn for a screening test. What is the first test generally run to see if a client is, indeed, HIV positive?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) Explanation: The ELISA test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. If the ELISA is positive twice then the Western Blot test is run. A CBC and a Schick test are not screening tests for HIV.
A nurse is preparing to give a client an infusion of gamma globulin. The nurse knows to stop the infusion if the client experiences which symptoms?
Flank pain Shaking chills Tightness in the chest Explanation: Adverse reactions can include reports of flank and back pain, shaking chills, dyspnea, and tightness in the chest, as well as headache, fever, and local reaction at the infusion site.
A healthcare worker has been exposed to the blood of an HIV-positive client and is awaiting the results of an HIV test. In the meantime, what precautions must the healthcare worker take to prevent the spread of infection?
Follow the same sexual precautions as someone who has been diagnosed with AIDS. Explanation: The healthcare worker will be tested for HIV at regular intervals and treated with antiretrovirals depending on the results of the tests or the potential for infection. While awaiting the results, the healthcare worker should follow the same sexual precautions as someone who has been diagnosed with AIDS. The healthcare worker should not limit interactions with either non-HIV-infected or HIV-infected people. In addition, the healthcare worker should not quit and be admitted to a hospital for treatment. Treatment, if required, can begin if the result of the test is positive.
A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. Why would the physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder?
For their immunosuppressant effects Explanation: Drug therapy using anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agents is the mainstay for alleviating symptoms. Some antineoplastic (cancer) drugs also are used for their immunosuppressant effects. Antineoplastic drugs do not decrease the body's risk of infection; an autoimmune disease is not a neoplastic disease. Drugs are not ordered just so the client has strong drug therapy.
Which term refers to an incomplete antigen?
Hapten
The nurse is evaluating a client's complete blood cell count and differential along with the serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) concentration. Which result might indicate that the client has an allergic disorder?
High IgE concentration Explanation: A high total IgE concentration and/or a high percentage of eosinophils may indicate an allergic disorder. However, normal IgE levels do not exclude the diagnosis of an allergic disorder.
A nursing student has been assigned to care for a client with DiGeorge syndrome. The student has reviewed the clinical manifestations of this syndrome and knows that the most frequent presenting sign is
Hypocalcemia Explanation: Infants born with DiGeorge syndrome have hypoparathyroidism and resultant hypocalcemia resistant to standard therapy, congenital heart disease, cleft palate and lip, dysmorphic facial features, and possibly renal abnormalities.
A client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit. The nurse caring for the client would expect to see what included in the treatment regimen?
IV gamma globulin administration Explanation: Treatment for ataxia-telangiectasia includes IV gamma globulin, antimicrobial therapy, and bone marrow transplantation.
A client develops a facial rash and urticaria after receiving penicillin. Which laboratory value does the nurse expect to be elevated?
IgE Explanation: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is involved with an allergic reaction. IgA combines with antigens and activates complement. IgB coats the surface of B lymphocytes. IgG is the principal immunoglobulin formed in response to most infectious agents.
The nurse is teaching a group of health care workers about latex allergies. What reaction will the nurse teach the workers to be most concerned about with laryngeal edema?
IgE-mediated hypersensitivity Explanation: A type I, IgE-mediated hypersensitivity can cause severe reaction symptoms such as laryngeal edema and bronchospasm. Irritant and allergic contact dermatitis result in more localized skin reactions. IgG antibodies are important in fighting viral and bacterial infections.
A client with severe combined immunodeficiency is to receive a hematopoietic stem cell transplant. What would the nurse expect to be started?
Immunosuppressive agents Explanation: For a client undergoing a hematopoietic stem cell transplant, immunosuppression is started to ensure engraftment of depleted bone marrow. Antibiotic therapy may or may not be indicated. Chest physiotherapy would be appropriate for clients with ataxia-telangiectasis who have chronic lung disease. Anticoagulation would not be used.
The nurse working in an allergy clinic is preparing to administer skin testing to a client. Which route is the safest for the nurse to use to administer the solution?
Intradermal Explanation: The intradermal route is the correct route of administration for skin testing and therefore a safe route. Another safe route is epicutaneous. The type of skin testing being performed determines whether the nurse will administer the solution via the epicutaneous or intradermal route.
During a routine checkup, a nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the most common AIDS-related cancer?
Kaposi's sarcoma Explanation: Kaposi's sarcoma is the most common cancer associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma, multiple myeloma, and leukemia may occur in anyone and aren't associated specifically with AIDS.
The nurse teaches the client that reducing the viral load will have what effect?
Longer survival Explanation: The lower the client's viral load, the longer the survival time and the longer the time to AIDS diagnosis.
The two types of inherited B-cell deficiencies result from lack of differentiation of B cells. These types result from which two of the following deficiencies?
Mature B-cells Plasma cells Explanation: Two types of inherited B-cell deficiencies exist. The first type results from lack of differentiation of B-cell precursors into mature B cells. As a result, plasma cells are absent, and the germinal centers from all lymphatic tissues disappear, leading to a complete absence of antibody production against invading bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens.
A client with severe combined immunodeficiency disease is receiving immunosuppression therapy to ensure engraftment of depleted bone marrow during transplantation procedures. What is the priority nursing care for this client?
Meticulous infection control precautions Explanation: Nursing care must be meticulous. Appropriate infection control precautions and thorough hand hygiene are essential. Institutional policies and procedures related to protective care must be followed scrupulously until definitive evidence demonstrates that precautions are unnecessary. Continual monitoring of the patient's condition is critical, so early signs of impending infection may be detected and treated before they seriously compromise the patient's status. It also is imperative that nurses appropriately apply standard precautions (previously known as universal precautions), which have become one of the first-line tools for decreasing transmission of disease.
A nurse is reviewing the dietary history of a client who has experienced anaphylaxis. What would the nurse identify as a common cause of anaphylaxis?
Milk Eggs Shrimp Explanation: Common food causes of anaphylaxis include peanuts, tree nuts, shellfish, fish, milk, eggs, soy, and wheat. Beef and chicken are not common causes.
A client has had a "stuffy nose" and obtained an oxymetazoline nasal spray. What education should the nurse provide to the client in order to prevent "rebound congestion"?
Only use the nasal spray for 3 to 4 days once every 12 hours. Explanation: Adrenergic agents, which are vasoconstrictors of mucosal vessels, are used topically in nasal (oxymetazoline [Afrin]) and ophthalmic (brimonidine [Alphagan P]) formulations in addition to the oral route (pseudoephedrine [Sudafed]). The topical route (drops and sprays) causes fewer side effects than oral administration; however, the use of drops and sprays should be limited to a few days to avoid rebound congestion.
What severe complication does the nurse monitor for in a patient with ataxia-telangiectasia?
Overwhelming infection Explanation: Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cerebellar ataxia (loss of muscle coordination), telangiectasia (vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels), and immune deficiency. The immunologic defects reflect abnormalities of the thymus. The disorder is characterized by some degree of T-cell deficiency, which becomes more severe with advancing age. Immunodeficiency is manifested by recurrent and chronic sinus and pulmonary infections, leading to bronchiectasis.
Which characteristic has NOT been implicated as a factor for noncompliance with antiretroviral treatment?
Past substance abuse Explanation: Factors associated with nonadherence include active substance abuse, depression, and lack of social support, as well as neurocognitive impairment, low health literacy, stressful life events, high levels of alcohol consumption, homelessness, poverty, nondisclosure of HIV serostatus, denial, stigma, and inconsistent access to medications. Past substance abuse has not been implicated as a factor for noncompliance with antiretroviral treatment.
What is the most common cause of anaphylaxis?
Penicillin Explanation: Penicillin is the most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the United States each year. Opioids, NSAIDs, and radiocontrast agents are some of the medications that are frequently reported as causing anaphylaxis.
Which intervention is the single most important aspect for the client at risk for anaphylaxis?
Prevention Explanation: Prevention involves strict avoidance of potential allergens for the individual at risk for anaphylaxis. If avoidance of or exposure to allergens is impossible then the individual should be prepared with an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure. While helpful, there must be no lapses in desensitization therapy because this may lead to the reappearance of an allergic reaction when the medication is reinstituted. A medical alert bracelet will assist those rendering aid to a client who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction. antihistamines may not be effective in preventing anaphylaxis.
The nurse administers an injection to a client with AIDS. When finished, the nurse attempts to recap the needle and sustains a needlestick to the finger. What is the priority action by the nurse?
Report the incident to the supervisor. Explanation: Because post exposure protocols can reduce the risk of HIV infection if initiated promptly, nurses must immediately report any needlestick or sharp injury to a supervisor. Obtaining counseling will occur after all other procedures are adhered to. The lab will draw blood from the client if required for documentation and other blood transmitted disorders.
Nursing students are reviewing the pathophysiology of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). They demonstrate understanding of the information when they state which of the following as the form of the genetic viral material?
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) Explanation: HIV is a retrovirus that carries its genetic material in the form of RNA rather than DNA. HIV consists of a viral core containing the viral RNA, surrounded by an envelope consisting of protruding glycoproteins.
A patient asks the nurse if it would be all right to take an over-the-counter antihistamine for the treatment of a rash. What should the nurse educate the patient is a major side effect of antihistamines?
Sedation Explanation: Antihistamines are the major class of medications prescribed for the symptomatic relief of allergic rhinitis. The major side effect is sedation, although H1 antagonists are less sedating than earlier antihistamines.
The nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Part of this client's teaching plan is educating the client about his or her medications. What is essential for the nurse to include in the teaching of this client regarding medications?
Side effects of drug therapy Explanation: Describing the side effects of drug therapy is essential, with the admonition to refrain from discontinuing any of the prescribed drugs without first consulting the prescribing physician. Although the client may want to know how the drugs work in general, the specific action of each antiretroviral drug is not essential information. Teaching about condoms and vaccinations may be appropriate, but these topics are not directly related to the client's HIV medications.
Cryptococcus meningitis is suspected in a client with HIV. Which manifestations would be consistent with cryptococcus meningitis?
Stiff neck Seizures Explanation: Manifestations of cryptococcal meningitis include fever, headache, malaise, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, mental status changes, and seizures. Psychomotor slowing, a vacant stare, and hyperreflexia suggest HIV encephalopathy.
A client who has AIDS is being treated in the hospital and admits to having periods of extreme anxiety. What would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Teach the client guided imagery. Explanation: Measures such as relaxation and guided imagery may be beneficial because they decrease anxiety, which contributes to weakness and fatigue. Increased activity may be of benefit, but for other clients this may exacerbate feelings of anxiety or loss. Granting the client control has the potential to reduce anxiety, but the client is not normally given unilateral control of the ART regimen. Hydromorphone is not used to treat anxiety.
A nurse is implementing appropriate infection control precautions for a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The nurse knows which body fluid is not a means of transmission?
Urine Explanation: HIV is transmitted in body fluids that contain free virions and infected CD4+ T cells. These fluids include blood, seminal fluid, vaginal secretions, amniotic fluid, and breast milk. Urine is not a body fluid responsible for HIV transmission.
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to document for a client with ataxia-telangiectasis?
Vascular lesions Explanation: Ataxia-telangiectasis is characterized by loss of muscle coordination and vascular lesions. Thrombocytopenia and eczema are associated with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. Thrush is a manifestation associated with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).
Telangiectasia is the term that refers to
Vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels Explanation: Telangiectasia is the term that refers to vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels. Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal-recessive disorder affecting both T-cell and B-cell immunity. Receptive aphasia is an inability to understand the spoken word. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing.
What test will the nurse assess to determine the client's response to antiretroviral therapy?
Viral load Explanation: Viral load should be measured at baseline and on a regular basis thereafter because viral load is the most important indicator of response to ART. The other tests are not used in this way.
A client is prescribed antihistamines, and asks the nurse about administration and adverse effects. The nurse should advise the client to avoid:
alcohol. Explanation: The nurse should advise a client taking antihistamines not to take it with alcohol or other central nervous system depressants because additive sedative effects can occur
The nurse knows the best strategy for latex allergy is
avoidance of latex-based products. Explanation: The best strategy available for latex allergy is to avoid latex-based products, but this is often difficult because of their widespread use. Antihistamines and an emergency kit containing epinephrine should be provided to these clients, along with instructions about emergency management of latex allergy.
Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through
biopsy. Explanation: KS is diagnosed by biopsy of the suspected lesions. Prognosis depends on the extent of the tumor, the presence of other symptoms of HIV infection, and the CD4+ count.
The nurse is talking with a group of teens about transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What body fluids does the nurse inform them will transmit the virus?
breast milk blood vaginal secretions semen Explanation: There are only four known body fluids through which HIV is transmitted: blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. HIV may be present in saliva, tears, and conjunctival secretions, but transmission of HIV through these fluids has not been implicated. HIV is not found in urine, stool, vomit, or sweat.
The nurse is reviewing various medications with a client that can be used to treat allergic disorders. What medication will the nurse identify as an intranasal corticosteroid?
fluticasone Explanation: Fluticasone is an example of an intranasal corticosteroid. Cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizer. Zileuton is a leukotriene-receptor inhibitor. Fexofenadine is a second-generation antihistamine.
A nurse is working in a dermatology clinic with clients who have allergies. What is the most important chemical mediator involved in the allergic response?
histamine Explanation: The pathophysiology of an allergic response involves a chain of events that includes responses from lymphocytes, IgE, mast cells, and basophils. All chemical mediators are participants in the response cycle, but histamine is the most important protein involved. Activated by a mast cell, it increases vessel permeability.
The nurse is working with a client with allergies. What will the nurse use to confirm allergies and decrease the risk of anaphylaxis?
intradermal testing Explanation: The diagnosis of anaphylaxis risk is determined by prick and intradermal skin testing. Skin testing of patients who have clinical symptoms consistent with a type I, IgE-mediated reaction has been recommended. A nasal smear, punch biopsy, and peripheral blood smear would not be used for allergy testing.
A client presents with itching, swelling, redness, and wheals of superficial skin layers. What is the most likely type of allergy this client is displaying?
urticaria Explanation: Urticaria presents with itching, swelling, redness, and wheals of superficial skin layers. Dermatitis medicamentosa presents with sudden generalized bright red rash, itching, fever, malaise, headache, arthralgias. Contact dermatitis presents with itching, burning, redness, rash on contact with substance. Angioedema presents with itching, swelling, redness of deeper tissues and mucous membranes.
The nurse is teaching the client who has an immunodeficiency disorder how to avoid infection at home. Which statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
"I will be sure to eat lots of fresh fruits and vegetables every day." Explanation: The client should avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables. All foods should be cooked thoroughly and all leftover food should be refrigerated immediately to prevent infection.
When evaluating a client's knowledge about use of antihistamines, what statement indicates further education is required?
"If I am pregnant, I should take half the dose." Explanation: Antihistamines are contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy, in nursing mothers and newborns, in children and elderly people, and in patients whose conditions may be aggravated by muscarinic blockade (e.g., asthma, urinary retention, open-angle glaucoma, hypertension, prostatic hyperplasia). The major side effect is sedation, although H1 antagonists are less sedating than earlier antihistamines. Additional side effects include nervousness, tremors, dizziness, dry mouth, palpitations, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
A client presents at the clinic with an allergic disorder. The client asks the nurse what an "allergic disorder" means. What would be the nurse's best response?
"It is a hyperimmune response to something in the environment that is usually harmless." Explanation: An allergic disorder is characterized by a hyperimmune response to weak antigens that usually are harmless. The antigens that can cause an allergic response are called allergens.
The nurse is teaching a client after a medication allergic reaction has occurred. What is the mostimportant action for the nurse to teach the client to take to prevent anaphylaxis?
Avoid potential allergens. Explanation: Strict avoidance of potential allergens is the most important preventive measure for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis. People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exercise-induced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure, but avoiding potential allergens is more important. Desensitization, based on controlled anaphylaxis with a gradual release of mediators, is an effective treatment option, but it is more important to avoid allergic triggers. The medical alert bracelet will assist those rendering aid to the patient who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction, but it's better to avoid the reaction in the first place.
A client has discussed therapy for his HIV-positive status. What does the nurse understand is the goal of antiretroviral therapy?
Bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level Explanation: The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level. This level is no more than 500 or 50 copies, depending on the sensitivity of the selected viral load test. It is not possible to reverse the status to a negative, and it cannot eliminate the risk of AIDS but can help with prolonging the asymptomatic stage of HIV.
A client presents to the clinic with reports of itching and hives after taking an aspirin this morning. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering that blocks histamine receptors?
Diphenhydramine Explanation: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine used for allergic reactions. Flunisolide is a nasal decongestant agent and is used locally to the nasal mucosa. Beclomethasone dipropionate is a nasal steroid spray and inhalant. Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride only constricts nasal membranes.
A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to a dose of penicillin. What should the nurse look for in the patient's initial assessment?
Dyspnea, bronchospasm, and/or laryngeal edema. Explanation: Severe systemic, anaphylactic reactions have an abrupt onset with the same signs and symptoms described previously. These symptoms progress rapidly to bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, severe dyspnea, cyanosis, and hypotension. Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), abdominal cramping, vomiting, diarrhea, and seizures can also occur. Cardiac arrest and coma may follow.
A female client comes to the clinic and tells the nurse, "I think I have another vaginal infection and I also have some wart-like lesions on my vagina. This is happening quite often." Which nursing action is the priority for this client?
Offer information on human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing. Explanation: In women, gynecologic problems may be the focus of the chief complaint for clients who are HIV positive but not yet diagnosed. Abnormal results of Papanicolaou tests, genital warts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and persistent vaginitis may also correlate with HIV infection. Based on this information, the priority nursing action is to offer information on HIV testing to the client. Although recommending abstinence or safer-sex practices, providing a prescribed topical antifungal agent to treat the client's vaginal infection, and referring to a support group may be appropriate, the priority is to determine the source of the client's symptoms.
A client comes to the clinic reporting nasal congestion and states, "I've been using an over-the-counter nasal spray that seemed to help at first, but then I got even more congested than before I started the medication. I continued the nasal spray, but it seems to be worse." What reaction will the nurse suspect?
Rhinitis medicamentosa Explanation: The client is describing rhinitis medicamentosa, which occurs with the use of sympathomimetic agents in nose drops and sprays. After use, a rebound period occurs in which the nasal mucous membranes become more edematous and congested than before the medication was used. Such a reaction encourages the use of more medication and a cyclic pattern results. The client's reports are not related to the development of a new allergy, tolerance to the medication, or a drug overdose.
A client reports to a health care provider's office for intradermal allergy testing. Before testing, the nurse provides client teaching. Which client statement indicates a need for further education?
"If I notice tingling in my lips or mouth, gargling may help the symptoms." Explanation: The client requires further teaching if the client states, "I will gargle to help alleviate tingling in the lips or mouth." Allergy testing introduces potentially irritating substances to the client. Tingling in the mouth, lips, or throat indicates the onset of a severe reaction and the need for immediate medical intervention. The testing may cause irritation and itching at the test site. The health care provider may order an epinephrine pen (EpiPen) for the client to self-administer epinephrine if the client experiences an allergic reaction away from the office setting.
The nurse receives a phone call at the clinic from the family of a client with AIDS. They state that the client started "acting funny" and reported headache, tiredness, and a stiff neck. Checking the temperature resulted in a fever of 103.2°F. What should the nurse inform the family member?
"The client may have cryptococcal meningitis and will need to be evaluated by the health care provider." Explanation: A fungal infection, Cryptococcus neoformans is another common opportunistic infection among clients with AIDS, and it causes neurologic disease. Cryptococcal meningitis is characterized by symptoms such as fever, headache, malaise, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, mental status changes, and seizures.
A nurse is monitoring the client's progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS clients should the nurse be aware of?
Chronic diarrhea Explanation: Chronic diarrhea is believed related to the direct effect of HIV on cells lining the intestine. Although all gastrointestinal manifestations of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) can be debilitating, the most devastating is chronic diarrhea. It can cause profound weight loss and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
A client on antiretroviral drug therapy informs the nurse about sometimes forgetting to take the medication for a few days. What should the nurse inform the client can occur when the medications are not taken as prescribed?
The client is risking the development of drug resistance and drug failure. Explanation: Clients who neglect to take antiretroviral drugs as prescribed risk development of drug resistance. When drug levels are not adequately maintained, viral replication and mutations increase.
A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits what behavior?
The nurse puts on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves while performing a bloody procedure. Explanation: Gloves must be changed after contact with materials that may contain high concentration of microorganisms, even when working with the same client. Each of the other listed actions adheres to standard precautions.
What education should the nurse provide to the patient taking long-term corticosteroids?
The patient should not stop taking the medication abruptly and should be weaned off of the medication. Explanation: Patients who receive high-dose or long-term corticosteroid therapy must be cautioned not to stop taking the medication suddenly. Doses are tapered when discontinuing this medication to avoid adrenal insufficiency.
A client with suspected exposure to HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice. The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform a:
Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. Explanation: The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. The test is repeated if results are positive. If results of a second ELISA test are positive, the Western blot is performed. The p24 antigen test and the polymerase chain reaction test determine the viral load, and the T4-cell count is not used for diagnostic confirmation of the presence of HIV in the blood.
The lower the client's viral load,
the longer the survival time. Explanation: The lower the client's viral load, the longer the time to AIDS diagnosis and the longer the survival time. The key goal of antiretroviral therapy is to achieve and maintain durable viral suppression.