adult hlth 1 UVM

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dysphonia

(voice impairment or altered voice production) may occur as a result of weakness and incoordination of the muscles responsible for speech.

A 64-year-old client reports symptoms consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) to the physician in the emergency department. What is the origin of the client's symptoms? a. cardiac disease b. impaired cerebral circulation c. diabetes insipidus d. hypertension

A healthcare provider orders several drugs for a client with hemorrhagic stroke. Which drug order should the nurse question? a. Heparin sodium b. Dexamethasone c. Methyldopa d. Phenytoin

A nurse is assisting with a community screening for people at high risk for stroke. To which of the following clients would the nurse pay most attention? a. A 60-year-old African-American man b. A 40-year-old Caucasian woman c. A 62-year-old Caucasian woman d. A 28-year-old pregnant African-American woman

A nurse is interviewing a client about past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer? a. Duodenal ulcers b. Hemorrhoids c. Weight gain d. Polyps

histamine

A nurse is working in a dermatology clinic with clients who have allergies. What is the most important chemical mediator involved in the allergic response?

A patient was body surfing in the ocean and sustained a cervical spinal cord fracture. A halo traction device was applied. How does the patient benefit from the application of the halo device? a. It is the only device that can be applied for stabilization of a spinal fracture. b. It allows for stabilization of the cervical spine along with early ambulation. c. It is less bulky and traumatizing for the patient to use. d. The patient can remove it as needed.

A patient who has suffered a stroke begins having complications regarding spasticity in the lower extremity. What ordered medication does the nurse administer to help alleviate this problem? a. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) b. Lioresal (Baclofen) c. Heparin d. Pregabalin (Lyrica)

A surgeon is discussing surgery with a client diagnosed with colon cancer. The client is visibly shaken over the possibility of a colostomy. Based on the client's response, the surgeon should collaborate with which health team member? a. Social worker b. Staff nurse c. Clinical educator d. Enterostomal nurse

After a seizure, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions to prevent complications? a. High Fowler's, to prevent aspiration b. Side-lying, to facilitate drainage of oral secretions c. Supine, to rest the muscles of the extremities d. Semi-Fowler's, to promote breathing

pituitary carcinoma

After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?

a, b, c

After having a stroke, a patient has cognitive deficits. What are the cognitive deficits the nurse recognizes the patient has as a result of the stroke? Select all that apply. a. Poor abstract reasoning b. Decreased attention span c. Short- and long-term memory loss d. Expressive aphasia e. Paresthesias

An older adult client in a long term care facility is concerned about bowel regularity. During a client education session, the nurse reinforces the medically acceptable definition of "regularity." What is the actual measurement of "regular"? a. one bowel movement daily b. stool consistency and client comfort c. one bowel movement every other day d. two bowel movements daily

Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a. an IgA-mediated reaction. b. a hereditary predisposition. c. production of a systemic reaction. d. a response to physiologic allergens.

Autonomic dysreflexia can occur with spinal cord injuries above which of the following levels? a. S2 b. T6 c. L4 d. T10

Bell palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a. Trigeminal (V) b. Vestibulocochlear (VIII) c. Facial (VII) d. Vagus (X)

pseudomeningocele

Bulging at the incision may indicate a contained cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The site should be monitored for increasing bulging, known as ___________, which may require surgical repair.

Cancer of the esophagus is most often diagnosed by which of the following? a. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with biopsy and brushings b. X-ray c. Barium swallow d. Fluoroscopy

Cardiac complications, which may occur following resection of an esophageal tumor, are associated with irritation of which nerve at the time of surgery? a. Vagus b. Hypoglossal c. Vestibulocochlear d. Trigeminal

Celiac sprue is an example of which category of malabsorption? a. Infectious diseases causing generalized malabsorption b. Mucosal disorders causing generalized malabsorption c. Luminal problems causing malabsorption d. Postoperative malabsorption

a (Oral fluids and a low-residue, high-protein, high-calorie diet with supplemental vitamin therapy and iron replacement are prescribed to meet the nutritional needs, reduce inflammation, and control pain and diarrhea.)

Diet modifications for patient diagnosed with chronic inflammatory bowel disease include which of the following? a. Low residue b. Low protein c. Calorie restriction d. Iron restriction

During assessment of cognitive impairment, post-stroke, the nurse documents that the patient was experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. The nurse knows that brain damage has most likely occurred in which lobe? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Parietal d. Temporal

TNF-alpha inhibitors

Etanercept and Infliximab are _________ that reduce pain and inflammation

For a patient with an SCI, why is it beneficial to administer oxygen to maintain a high partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)? a. So that the patient will not have a respiratory arrest b. Because hypoxemia can create or worsen a neurologic deficit of the spinal cord c. To increase cerebral perfusion pressure d. To prevent secondary brain injury TAKE ANOTHER QUIZ

a (give nothing by mouth)

Immediate medical and nursing management is necessary for a patient who has ingested a corrosive substance and experienced a chemical burn. Select the first response. a. Maintain a patent airway. b. Treat the patient for shock. c. Rinse the mouth with water to dilute the corrosive agent. d. Administer pain medication.

a, b, e

Level of consciousness (LOC) can be assessed based on criteria in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). Which of the following indicators are assessed in the GCS? Select all that apply. a. Verbal response b. Motor response c. Intelligence d. Muscle strength e. Eye opening

Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a. preventing renal insufficiency. b. controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure. c. maintaining hemodynamic stability and adequate cardiac output. d. preventing muscular atrophy.

acetylcholine

Myasthenia gravis occurs when antibodies attack which receptor sites?

fowler (helps breathing and comfort)

Postoperatively, a client with a radical neck dissection should be placed in which position?

Rebleeding may occur from a peptic ulcer and often warrants surgical interventions. Signs of bleeding include which of the following? a. Mental confusion b. Bradycardia c. Bradypnea d. Hypertension

Scleroderma typically begins with the involvement of which system? a. Respiratory b. Integumentary c. Urinary d. Cardiovascular

c (indicates upper airway obstruction)

Select the assessment finding that the nurse should immediately report, post radical neck dissection. a. Temperature of 99°F b. Pain c. Stridor d. Localized wound tenderness

T-cell deficiency occurs when which gland fails to develop normally during embryogenesis? a. Thyroid b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Adrenal

The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) consists of severe peptic ulcers, extreme gastric hyperacidity, and gastrin-secreting benign or malignant tumors of the pancreas. The nurse recognizes that an agent that is used to decrease bleeding and decrease gastric acid secretions is a. nizatidine (Axid) b. omeprazole (Prilosec) c. vasopressin (Pitressin) d. octreotide (Sandostatin)

b, d, e

The client presents to the emergency department with a suspected allergic reaction to the antibiotic they were given at the quick care clinic to treat their pneumonia. What are the priority actions the nurse should take? Select all that apply. a. Evaluate for hypertension. b. Insert an intravenous line. c. Administer Vitamin K. d. Take vital signs. e. Place oxygen on the client. f. Check for diplopia.

The initial symptoms of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) include a. sensory disturbance, limb pain, and behavioral changes. b. muscle rigidity, memory impairment, and cognitive impairment. c. diplopia and bradykinesia. d. akathisia and dysphagia.

The nurse explains to a client that immunotherapy initially starts with injections at which interval? a. Daily b. Weekly c. Bi-monthly d. Monthly

The nurse is assessing a client for constipation. Which review should the nurse conduct first to identify the cause of constipation? a. Alcohol consumption b. Activity levels c. Usual pattern of elimination d. Current medications

The nurse is assessing a client with a history of ankylosing spondylitis. What will the nurse most commonly assess? a. low back pain b. increased urine output c. red, butterfly-shaped facial rash d. patchy hair loss on the scalp

c (pain is above umbilicus, and decreased appetite)

The nurse is assessing a client with advanced gastric cancer. The nurse anticipates that the assessment will reveal which finding? a. Abdominal pain below the umbilicus b. Weight gain c. Bloating after meals d. Increased appetite

The nurse is assessing a client with meningitis. Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to observe? a. Ptosis and diplopia b. Hyporeflexia in the lower extremities c. Headache and nuchal rigidity d. Numbness and vomiting

The nurse is caring for a client exposed to peanuts with a known allergy. What assessment is considered the most serious manifestation of angioneurotic edema? a. abdominal pain b. conjunctivitis c. laryngeal swelling d. urticaria

The nurse is teaching a client with allergic rhinitis about medications. What medication is a mast cell stabilizer used in the treatment of allergic rhinitis? a. tetrahydrozoline hydrochloride b. intranasal cromolyn sodium c. oxymetazoline hydrochloride d. pseudoephedrine hydrochloride

The presence of crystals in synovial fluid obtained from arthrocentesis is indicative of a. gout. b. infection. c. inflammation. d. degeneration.

To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction? a. "Lie down after meals to promote digestion." b. "Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages." c. "Take antacids with meals." d. "Limit fluid intake with meals."

Vomiting results in which of the following acid-base imbalances? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

What clinical manifestations does the nurse recognize when a patient has had a right hemispheric stroke? a. Aphasia b. Left visual field deficit c. Slow, cautious behavior d. Altered intellectual ability

lethargy and stupor

What does the nurse recognize as the earliest sign of serious impairment of brain circulation related to increasing ICP?

What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client being treated for diverticulosis? a. Avoid unprocessed bran in the diet b. Avoid daily exercise; indulge only in mild activity c. Drink at least 8 to 10 large glasses of fluid every day d. Use laxatives or enemas at least once a week

ionizing radiation

What is the only known risk factor for brain tumors?

Which condition occurs when blood collects between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane? a. Intracerebral hemorrhage b. Epidural hematoma c. Extradural hematoma d. Subdural hematoma

Which is the primary symptom of achalasia? a. Chest pain b. Heartburn c. Difficulty swallowing d. Pulmonary symptoms

c (would also want more carbs to increase excretion)

Which of the following would a nurse encourage a client with gout to limit? a. fluid intake b. protein-rich foods c. purine-rich foods d. carbohydrates

You are a neurotrauma nurse working in a neuro ICU. What would you know is an acute emergency and is seen in clients with a cervical or high thoracic spinal cord injury after the spinal shock subsides? a. Tetraplegia b. Areflexia c. Autonomic dysreflexia d. Paraplegia

You are the nurse caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). The client also has an ascending paralysis. Knowing the complications of the disorder, what should you keep always ready at the bedside? a. Nebulizer and thermometer b. Intubation tray and suction apparatus c. Blood pressure apparatus d. Incentive spirometer

probenecid, anturane

_______ and _______ increase the urinary excretion of uric acid

basilar

_______ skull fractures are suspected when CSF leakage

kernig's sign

a diagnostic sign for meningitis marked by the person's inability to extend the leg completely when the thigh is flexed upon the abdomen and the person is sitting or lying down

neurodegenerative

a disease, process, or condition leading to deterioration of cells or function of the nervous system

primary headache

a headache for which no specific organic disorder can be found

antibody

a protein substance developed by the body in response to and interacting with a specific antigen

herniation

abnormal protusion of tissue through a defect or natural opening

bradykinesia

abnormally slow voluntary movements and speech

allopurinol

breaks down purines before uric acid is formed

dementia

broad term for a syndrome characterized by a general decline in higher brain function

client has been taking a 10-day course of antibiotics for pneumonia. The client has been having white patches that look like milk curds in the mouth. What treatment will the nurse educate the client about? a. Nystatin b. Cephalexin c. Fluocinolone acetonide oral base gel d. Acyclovir

secondary brain tumors

develop from structures outside the brain (metastatic)

status epilepticus

episode in which the patient experiences multiple seizures with no recovery time in between

gliobastomas

grade 3 and 4 tumors, have little resemblance to original cell types

secondary headache

headache identified as a symptom of another organic disorder (brain tumor, htn)

dyskinesia

impaired ability to execute voluntary movments

supratentorial

located above the covering of the cerebellum

anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma, cerebral metastases

most common brain tumors in older adults

seizures

paroxysmal transient disturbance of the brain resulting from a discharge of abnormal electrical activity

coma

prolonged state of unconsciousness

twice

secondary brain tumors are _______ as common as primary

seizures occur in ____% of patients with brain tumors at some point

transsphenoidal

surgical approach to the pituitary via the sphenoid sinuses

papilledema

swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk

The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with a diagnosed epidural hematoma. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for? a. Hypophysectomy b. Application of Halo traction c. Burr holes d. Insertion of Crutchfield tongs

A client arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness after minimal effort. The physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which drug will be used to test for this disease? a. Ambenonium (Mytelase) b. Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) c. Edrophonium (Tensilon) d. Carbachol (Carboptic)

A client asks the nurse how to identify rheumatoid nodules with rheumatoid arthritis. What characteristic will the nurse include? a. tender to the touch b. reddened c. nonmovable d. located over bony prominence

A client with a peptic ulcer is about to begin a therapeutic regimen that includes a bland diet, antacids, and famotidine. Before the client is discharged, the nurse should provide which instruction? a. "Eat three balanced meals every day." b. "Stop taking the drugs when your symptoms subside." c. "Avoid aspirin and products that contain aspirin." d. "Increase your intake of fluids containing caffeine."

A client is recovering from an attack of gout. What will the nurse include in the client teaching? a. Weight loss will reduce purine levels. b. Weight loss will reduce inflammation. c. Weight loss will increase uric acid levels and reduce stress on joints. d. Weight loss will reduce uric acid levels and reduce stress on joints.

The nurse is administering intravenous vancomycin. What will the nurse initially assess the client for if an allergic reaction occurs? a. hypotension and tachycardia b. the presence and location of pruritus c. the severity of cutaneous warmth and flushing d. dyspnea, bronchospasm, and/or laryngeal edema

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a diagnosis of septic meningitis. The nurse is aware that this infection is caused by which of the following? a. Virus b. Lymphoma c. Leukemia d. bacteria

brain death

irreversible loss of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem

locally, rarely

primary brain tumors progress _____ and ______ metastatize outside the CND

chancre

The term for a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis is a(n)

Which disturbance results in loss of half of the visual field? a. Diplopia b. Homonymous hemianopsia c. Nystagmus d. Anisocoria

Which drug should be available to counteract the effect of edrophonium chloride? a. Prednisone b. Atropine c. Azathioprine d. Pyridostigmine bromide

Which intervention is the single most important aspect for the client at risk for anaphylaxis? a. Use of antihistamines b. Desensitization c. Wearing a medical alert bracelet d. Prevention

b (women at higher risk)

Which is a nonmodifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Gender c. Hyperlipidemia d. Smoking

Which nursing intervention is the priority for a client in myasthenic crisis? a. Administering intravenous immunoglobin (IVIG) per orders b. Preparing for plasmapheresis c. Ensuring adequate nutritional support d. Assessing respiratory effort

b (an antiseizure medication)

Which of the following antiseizure medication has been found to be effective for post-stroke pain? a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) b. Phenytoin (Dilantin) c. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) d. Topiramate (Topamax)

a (lots of smoked and pickled foods with low veggie intake increases risk)

Which of the following appears to be a significant factor in the development of gastric cancer? a. Diet b. Age c. Ethnicity d. Gender

A client has been diagnosed with a frontal lobe brain abscess. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Assess for facial weakness. b. Initiate seizure precautions. c. Assess visual acuity. d. Ensure that client takes nothing by mouth.

A client has been having joint pain and swelling in the left foot and is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The symptoms began suddenly without any identifiable cause, and the client has significant joint destruction. What type of disease is this considered? a. An exacerbation of a previous disorder b. Autoimmune c. An alloimmunity disorder d. A cause-and-effect relationship

A client is receiving an IV infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant? a. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC) b. Elevated blood pressure c. Increased urine output d. Decreased heart rate

A client is receiving baclofen for management of symptoms associated with multiple sclerosis. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of this medication by assessing which of the following? a. Sleep pattern b. Mood and affect c. Appetite d. Muscle spasms

A client suffered a closed head injury in a motor vehicle collision, and an ICP monitor was inserted. In the occurrence of increased ICP, what physiologic function contributes to the increase in intracranial pressure? a. vasodilation b. vasoconstriction c. hypertension d. increased PaO

A client undergoes a craniotomy with supratentorial surgery to remove a brain tumor. On the first postoperative day, the nurse notes the absence of a bone flap at the operative site. How should the nurse position the client's head? a. Flat b. Turned onto the operative side c. Elevated no more than 10 degrees d. Elevated 30 degrees

A client with a neurological disorder has difficulty swallowing. The nurse should take special care with the client's diet because of a potential risk of imbalanced nutrition. Which measure may be taken by the nurse to ensure that the client's diet allows for easy swallowing? a. Instruct the client to lie on the bed when eating b. Offer liquids frequently, in large quantities c. Help the client sit upright when eating and feed slowly d. Allow optimum physical activity before meals to expedite digestion

c (prevent straining during BM that could increase ICP)

A nurse is caring for a client with a brain tumor and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce ICP? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the client with the head turned toward the side of the brain tumor. c. Administer stool softeners. d. Provide sensory stimulation.

intracerebral hematoma

A patient sustained a head trauma in a diving accident and has a cerebral hemorrhage located within the brain. What type of hematoma is this classified as?

The nurse is caring for a client who underwent surgery to remove a spinal cord tumor. When conducting the postoperative assessment, the nurse notes the presence of a bulge at the surgical site. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing what complication from the surgery? a. Cerebrospinal fluid leakage b. Infection at the surgical site c. Growth of a secondary tumor d. Impaired tissue healing

The nurse is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for oral suctioning? a. Decreased pulse rate, respirations of 20 breaths/minute b. Increased pulse rate, adventitious breath sounds c. Increased pulse rate, respirations of 16 breaths/minute d. Decreased pulse rate, abdominal breathing

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic migraines who is prescribed medication. What drug-related instructions should the nurse give the client? a. Take medication just before going to bed at night. b. Take medication only when migraine is intense. c. Take medication as soon as symptoms of the migraine begin. d. Take medication only during the morning when it's calm and quiet.

The nurse is caring for a client with intussusception of the bowel. What does the nurse understand occurs with this disorder? a. The bowel twists and turns itself and obstructs the intestinal lumen. b. One part of the intestine telescopes into another portion of the intestine. c. The bowel protrudes through a weakened area in the abdominal wall. d. A loop of intestine adheres to an area that is healing slowly after surgery.

The nurse is caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which clinical finding, observed during the reassessment of the client, causes the nurse the most concern? a. Temperature increase from 98.0°F to 99.6°F b. Urinary output increase from 40 to 55 mL/hr c. Heart rate decrease from 100 to 90 bpm d. Pulse oximetry decrease from 99% to 97% room air

The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with an onset of pain related to trigeminal neuralgia. What subjective data stated by the patient does the nurse determine triggered the paroxysms of pain? a. "I was sitting at home watching television." b. "I was putting my shoes on." c. "I was brushing my teeth." d. "I was taking a bath."

a (called chorea)

The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington's disease in the long-term care facility. What does the nurse recognize as the most prominent symptom of the disease that the patient exhibits? a. Rapid, jerky, involuntary movements b. Slow, shuffling gait c. Dysphagia and dysphonia d. Dementia

d (given subcut, stop if fever, is refrigerated)

Which points should be included in the medication teaching plan for a client taking adalimumab? a. The medication is administered intramuscularly. b. The client should continue taking the medication if fever occurs. c. The medication is given at room temperature. d. It is important to monitor for injection site reactions.

Which statement provides accurate information regarding cancer of the colon and rectum? a. Colorectal cancer is the third most common site of cancer in the United States. b. Rectal cancer affects more than twice as many people as colon cancer. c. The incidence of colon and rectal cancer decreases with age. d. Colon cancer has no hereditary component.

Sialolithiasis

Which term is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland?

Which term refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis? a. Agnosia b. Agraphia c. Perseveration d. Apraxia

craniotomy

a surgical procedure that involves entry into the cranial vault

craniectomy

a surgical procedure that involves removal of a portion of the skull

mannitol

an osmotic diuretic that is administered to decrease the fluid content of the brain, which leads to a decrease in intracranial pressure.

A 24-year-old female rock climber is brought to the emergency department after a fall from the face of a rock. The young lady is admitted for observation after being diagnosed with a contusion to the brain. The client asks the nurse what having a contusion means. How should the nurse respond? a. Contusions are deep brain injuries. b. Contusions are microscopic brain injuries. c. Contusions occur when the brain is jarred and bounces off the skull on the opposite side from the blow. d. Contusions are bruising, and sometimes, hemorrhage of superficial cerebral tissue.

a (Metoclopramide (Reglan) is a prokinetic agent that accelerates gastric emptying. It is contraindicated with hemorrhage or perforation. It is not used to treat gastritis.)

A client has a new order for metoclopramide. What potential side effects should the nurse educate the client about? a. Extrapyramidal b. Peptic ulcer disease c. Gastric slowing d. Nausea

a, c, d

A client is prescribed a histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist. The nurse understands that this might include which medication(s)? Select all that apply. a. Nizatidine b. Lansoprazole c. Famotidine d. Cimetidine e. Esomeprazole

A client with a concussion is discharged after the assessment. Which instruction should the nurse give the client's family? a. Have the client avoid physical exertion b. Emphasize complete bed rest c. Look for signs of increased intracranial pressure d. Look for a halo sign

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group of older adults about colon cancer. What would the nurse include as the primary characteristic associated with this disorder? a. Abdominal distention b. Frank blood in the stool c. A change in bowel habits d. Abdominal pain

After supratentorial surgery, the nurse should elevate the client's head ______ degrees to promote venous outflow through the jugular veins

As part of the assessment process for a client suspected of having gout, the nurse evaluated the client's serum uric acid levels. Select the value that is considered above the saturation point for crystal formation. a. 3.2 mg/dL (0.19mmol/L) b. 4.0 mg/dL (0.24 mmol/L) c. 5.4 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L) d. 6.8 mg/dL (0.40 mmol/L)

Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for which of the following GI disorders? a. Gastric cancer b. Duodenal ulcers c. Esophageal varices d. Diverticulitis

Guillain-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune attack on the peripheral myelin sheath. Which of the following is an action of myelin? a. Carries message to the next nerve cell b. Represents building block of nervous system c. Speeds nerve impulse transmission d. Acts as chemical messenger

sialadenitis

Inflammation of the salivary gland (usually unilateral)

The primary arthropod vector in North America that transmits encephalitis is the a. tick. b. horse. c. mosquito. d. flea.

a (can be acute, chronic, or subacte, but is acute bc occurring within 24 hours of injury)

Upon arrival at the emergency department and subsequent diagnostic tests, it was determined that the client suffered a subdural hematoma. The client is becoming increasingly symptomatic. How would the nurse expect this subdural hematoma to be classified? a. acute b. chronic c. subacute d. intracerebral

Which of the following is a term used to describe intestinal rumbling? a. Borborygmus b. Tenesmus c. Malabsorption d. Atony

Which of the following is considered a central nervous system (CNS) disorder? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Guillain-Barré c. Myasthenia gravis d. Bell's palsy

1.0 mg/ml

normally serum IgE levels are below_____

paresthesia

numbness, tingling, or a pins and needles sensation

sciatica

pain and tenderness that radiation along the sciatic nerve that runs through the thigh and leg

tenorrhaphy

the suturing of a tendon

A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as a. coma. b. a need for emergency attention. c. least responsive. d. most responsive.

A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted with an exacerbation. The nurse is educating the client about plasmapheresis and explains this in which of the following statements? a. Antibodies are removed from the plasma. b. The thymus gland is removed. c. Immune globulin is given intravenously. d. Mestinon therapy is initiated.

A client with neurological infection develops cerebral edema from syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which is an important nursing action for this client? a. Maintaining adequate hydration b. Administering prescribed antipyretics c. Restricting fluid intake and hydration d. Hyperoxygenation before and after tracheal suctioning

An infant is born to a mother who had no prenatal care during her pregnancy. What type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse understand may have occurred? a. Bacterial endocarditis b. Rh-hemolytic disease c. Lupus erythematosus d. Rheumatoid arthritis

An older adult patient who has been living at home alone is diagnosed with parotitis. What causative bacteria does the nurse suspect is the cause of the parotitis? a. Methicillin-resistant Streptococcus aureus (MRSA) b. Pneumococcus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus viridans

dysphagia

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is

parkinsons

The nurse teaches the client with which disorder that the disease is due to decreased levels of dopamine in the basal ganglia of the brain?

The nurse working on the neurological unit is caring for a client with a basilar skull fracture. During the assessment, the nurse expects to observe Battle's sign, which is a sign of basilar skull fracture. Which of the following correctly describes Battle's sign? a. Ecchymosis over the mastoid b. Bruising under the eyes c. Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose d. Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ears

When assessing a client who has experienced a spinal injury, the nurse notes diaphragmatic breathing and loss of upper limb use and sensation. At what level does the nurse anticipate the injury has occurred? a. C3 b. C5 c. T6 d. L1

change in loc

Which is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure?

antihistamines

contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy, in nursing mothers and newborns, in children and elderly people, and in patients whose conditions may be aggravated by muscarinic blockade just suck up ya allergies

histamine

Which body substance causes increased gastric secretion, dilation of capillaries, and constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle?

Which body substance causes increased gastric secretion, dilation of capillaries, and constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle? a. Histamine b. Bradykinin c. Serotonin d. Prostaglandin

A nurse is caring for a client with active upper GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this client during the first 24 hours after admission? a. Regular diet b. Skim milk c. Nothing by mouth d. Clear liquids

epilepsy

at least 2 unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24 hours apart

hapten

small molecule that has to bind to a larger molecule to form an antigen incomplete antigen

Which method is used to help reduce intracranial pressure? a. Using a cervical collar b. Keeping the head of bed flat c. Rotating the neck to the far right with neck support d. Extreme hip flexion, with the hip supported by pillows

a (prevents aspiration)

A client with epilepsy is having a seizure. What intervention should the nurse do after the seizure? a. Keep the client on one side. b. Place a cooling blanket beneath the client. c. Help the client sit up. d. Pry the client's mouth open to allow a patent airway.

bradycardia, hypertension, bradypnea

cushings triad

A client comes to the clinic with a rash. While inspecting the client's skin, the nurse determines that the rash is medication-related based on which finding? a. Rash has developed gradually. b. Rash is pale in color. c. Rash has several large raised areas. d. Rash is localized to a body area.

A client has received a diagnosis of oral cancer. During client education, the client expresses dismay at not having recognized any early signs or symptoms of the disease. The nurse tells the client that in early stages of this disease: a. symptoms include mouth pain. b. symptoms include oral bleeding. c. symptoms include oral numbness. d. there are usually no symptoms.

A client has sustained a traumatic brain injury with involvement of the hypothalamus. The nurse is concerned about the development of diabetes insipidus. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing intervention to monitor for early signs of diabetes insipidus? a. Take daily weights. b. Reposition the client frequently. c. Assess for pupillary response frequently. d. Assess vital signs frequently.

A client who has just been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy asks the nurse about the usual course of this disease. How should the nurse respond? a. "You should ask your physician about that." b. "The strength of your arms and pelvic muscles will decrease gradually, but this should cause only slight disability." c. "You may experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles." d. "This form of muscular dystrophy is a relatively benign disease that progresses slowly."

A client with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for a diagnostic workup. Myasthenia gravis is confirmed by: a. a positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test. b. Kernig's sign. c. a positive sweat chloride test. d. Brudzinski's sign.

During a class on stroke, a junior nursing student asks what the clinical manifestations of stroke are. What would be the instructor's best answer? a. "Clinical manifestations of a stroke are highly variable, depending on the cardiovascular health of the client." b. "Clinical manifestations of a stroke depend on the area of the cortex, the affected hemisphere, the degree of blockage, and the availability of collateral circulation." c. "Clinical manifestations of a stroke generally include aphasia, one-sided flaccidity, and trouble swallowing." d. "Clinical manifestations of a stroke depend on how quickly the clot can be dissolved."

a, c, d

The greatest risk of seizures for clients with brain tumors occurs in those who have tumors in which regions of the brain? Select all that apply. a. Frontal b. occipital c. Parietal d. Temporal e. Brain stem

The nurse is caring for a patient having a hemorrhagic stroke. What position in the bed will the nurse maintain this patient? a. High-Fowler's b. Prone c. Supine d. Semi-Fowler's

What is the primary nursing diagnosis for a client with a bowel obstruction? a. Deficient fluid volume b. Deficient knowledge c. Acute pain d. Ineffective tissue perfusion

migraine

a severe, unrelenting headache often accompanied by symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances

osteostomy

alters the distribution of the weight within the joint. surgical creation of a permanent new opening in bone

dysphonia

voice impairmnet

dopamine

Impaired balance and uncontrolled tremors of Parkinson's disease is correlated with which neurotransmitter?

The nurse is teaching a client about allergic rhinitis and its triggers. What is the most common trigger for the respiratory allergic response? a. plant pollen b. animal dander c. dust mites d. mold spores

When assessing the skin of a client with allergic contact dermatitis, the nurse would most likely expect to find irritation at which area? a. Dorsal aspect of the hand b. Lower arms c. Ankles d. Plantar aspects of the feet

Which of the following clients is at highest risk for peptic ulcer disease? a. Client with blood type A b. Client with blood type B c. Client with blood type AB d. Client with blood type O

spondylosis

degenerative changes occurring in a disc and adjacent vertebral bodies, can occur in the cervical of lumbar vertebrae

A client calls the clinic and asks the nurse if using oxymetazoline nasal spray would be alright to relieve the nasal congestion he is experiencing due to seasonal allergies. What instructions should the nurse provide to the client to avoid complications? a. Report white patches in the mouth because the medication can cause a fungal infection. b. Do not overuse the medication as rebound congestion can occur. c. Taper the dose when discontinuing the medication. d. Do not operate machinery or drive while using the medication.

A client diagnosed with a malignant brain tumor is scheduled to receive chemotherapy intrathecally. When explaining this technique to the client, the nurse would describe the medication as being injected into which area? a. Central vein b. Subarachnoid space c. Implanted port d. Epidural space

A client diagnosed with a stroke is ordered to receive warfarin. Later, the nurse learns that the warfarin is contraindicated and the order is canceled. The nurse knows that the best alternative medication to give is a. dipyridamole. b. aspirin. c. clopidogrel. d. ticlopidine.

A client has a 10-year history of Crohn's disease and is seeing the physician due to increased diarrhea and fatigue. What is the recommended dietary approach to treat Crohn's disease? a. dietary approach varies. b. high-fiber diet c. low-fiber diet d. lactose-rich foods

A client has been hospitalized for diagnostic testing. The client has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, which the physician explains is an autoimmune disorder. How would the nurse explain an autoimmune disease to the client? a. A disorder in which the body has too many immunoglobulins b. A disorder in which histocompatible cells attack the immunoglobulins c. A disorder in which killer T cells and autoantibodies attack or destroy natural cells—those cells that are "self" d. A disorder in which the body does not have enough immunoglobulins

A client has been seeing an allergist for 6 months for treatment of allergies. The client's allergies have been insufficiently controlled by symptomatic treatments and the physician has suggested desensitization. The anticipated outcome of desensitization is that repeated exposure to the: a. strong antigen promotes the production of IgE, an antibody that blocks IgG so it cannot stimulate mast cells. b. weak antigen promotes the production of IgE, an antibody that blocks IgG so it cannot stimulate basophils. c. weak antigen promotes the production of IgG, an antibody that blocks IgE so it cannot stimulate mast cells. d. strong antigen promotes the production of IgG, an antibody that blocks IgE so it cannot stimulate basophils.

back

A client has begun sensitivity testing to determine the allergen which caused an anaphylactic reaction 3 weeks ago. In scratch testing, which part of the body is more sensitive to allergens?

A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the frontal lobe of his brain. Which of the following deficits does the nurse expect to observe during assessment? a. Limited attention span and forgetfulness b. Hemiplegia or hemiparesis c. Lack of deep tendon reflexes d. Visual and auditory agnosia

A client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease. During discharge teaching, what would the nurse stress the importance of? a. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration b. Wearing an appliance pouch only at bedtime c. Consuming a low-protein, high-fiber diet d. Taking only enteric-coated medications

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury.Which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement? a. Related to visual field deficits b. Related to difficulty swallowing c. Related to impaired balance d. Related to psychomotor seizures

A nurse assesses a client in the health care provider's office. Which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. Photosensitivity, polyarthralgia, and painful mucous membrane ulcers b. Weight gain, hypervigilance, hypothermia, and edema of the legs c. Facial erythema, pericarditis, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss d. Hypothermia, weight gain, lethargy, and edema of the arms

c (A score of 13 to 15 is classified as mild TBI, 9 to 12 is moderate TBI, and 3 to 8 is severe TBI. A score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, deep coma, brain death)

A nurse completes the Glasgow Coma Scale on a patient with traumatic brain injury (TBI). Her assessment results in a score of 6, which is interpreted as: a. Mild TBI. b. Moderate TBI. c. Severe TBI. d. Brain death.

A nurse is assessing a client who has been in a motor vehicle collision. The client directly and accurately answers questions. The nurse notes a contusion to the client's forehead; the client reports a headache. Assessing the client's pupils, what reaction would confirm increasing intracranial pressure? a. unequal response b. equal response c. rapid response d. constricted response

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to: A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day. B. drink liquids only with meals. C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals. D. drink liquids only between meals.

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to: a. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day. b. drink liquids only with meals. c. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals. d. drink liquids only between meals.

A nurse is caring for a client with a warm and painful toe from gout. What medication will the nurse administer? a. aspirin b. furosemide c. colchicine d. calcium gluconate

A nurse is completing an assessment on a client with a postoperative neck dissection. The nurse notices excessive bleeding from the dressing site and suspects possible carotid artery rupture. What action should the nurse take first? a. Summon assistance b. Apply pressure to the bleeding site c. Elevate the head of the patient's bed d. Notify the surgeon to repair the vessel

A patient is exhibiting classic signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. What complaint from the patient would be an indicator of this type of stroke? a. Numbness of an arm or leg b. Double vision c. Severe headache d. Dizziness and tinnitus

A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to a dose of penicillin. What should the nurse look for in the patient's initial assessment? a. Dyspnea, bronchospasm, and/or laryngeal edema. b. Hypotension and tachycardia c. The presence and location of pruritus d. The severity of cutaneous warmth and flushing

A patient is hospitalized with a severe case of gout. The patient has gross swelling of the large toe and rates pain a 10 out of 10. With a diagnosis of gout, what should the laboratory results reveal? a. Glucosuria b. Hyperuricemia c. Hyperproteinuria d. Ketonuria

After teaching a client how to self-administer epinephrine, the nurse determines that the teaching plan has been successful when the client demonstrates which action? a. Avoids massaging the injection site after administration b. Jabs the autoinjector into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle c. Pushes down on the grey release cap to administer the medication d. Maintains pressure on the auto-injector for about 30 seconds after insertion

An elderly client seeks medical attention for a vague complaint of difficulty swallowing. Which of the following assessment findings is most significant as related to this symptom? a. Hiatal hernia b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease c. Gastritis d. Esophageal tumor

An elderly client states, "I don't understand why I have so many caries in my teeth." What assessment made by the nurse places the client at risk for dental caries? a. Exhibiting hemoglobin A1C 8.2 b. Drinking fluoridated water c. Eating fruits and cheese in diet d. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush

The nurse is evaluating a client's ulcer symptoms to differentiate ulcer as duodenal or gastric. Which symptom should the nurse at attribute to a duodenal ulcer? a. Vomiting b. Hemorrhage c. Awakening in pain d. Constipation

The nurse working in the recovery room is caring for a client who had a radical neck dissection. The nurse notices that the client makes a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration. Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate? a. Document the presence of stridor b. Administer a breathing treatment c. Notify the physician d. Lower the head of the bed

The nursing is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma, but has not yet started treatment. The client reports having increased heart rate, hand tremors, difficulty sleeping, weight loss and hyperthermia. The nurse anticipates the client will require blood work to assess for overproduction of which hormone? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone c. Prolactin d. Growth hormone

client with peptic ulcer disease must begin triple medication therapy. For how long will the client follow this regimen? a. 4 to 6 days b. 7 to 9 days c. 10 to 14 days d. 15 to 20 days

meningiomas

common benign encapsulated tumors or arachnoid cells on the meninges more common in woman, middle aged, and slow growing 15% of all primary brain tumors

persistent vegetative state

condition in which the patient is wakeful but devoid of conscious content without cognitive of affective mental function

locked in syndrome

condition resulting from a lesion in the pons in which the patient lacks all distal motor activity (paralysis) but cognition is intact

the nurse is conducting a community education program on peptic ulcer disease prevention. The nurse includes that the most common cause of peptic ulcers is: a. stress and anxiety. b. gram-negative bacteria. c. alcohol and tobacco. d. ibuprofen and aspirin.

monro-kellie hypothesis

theory that states that due to limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents-brain tissue, blood of CSF- causes a change in the volume of the others

cushings triad

three classic signs—bradycardia, hypertension, and bradypnea—seen with pressure on the medulla as a result of brain stem herniation

acoustic neuroma

tumor of the eighth cranial nerve (responsible for hearing and balance) sx: loss of hearing, tinnitus, staggering gait, vertio

akinetic mutism

unresponsiveness to the environment, the patient makes no movemen tor sound but sometimes opens the eyes

altered LOC

when a patient is not oriented, does not follow commands, or needs persistent stimuli to achieve a state of alertness

A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the lower motor neurons of the brain. Which of the following deficits would the nurse expect during assessment? a. Limited attention span and forgetfulness b. Visual agnosia c. Lack of deep tendon reflexes d. Auditory agnosia

c (need rest lol)

A client has symptoms suggestive of peritonitis. Nursing management would not include: a. accurate recording of input and output. b. inserting a nasogastric tube. c. limiting analgesics to avoid the formation of paralytic ileus. d. inserting a urinary retention catheter.

A client informs the nurse that he has been having abdominal pain that is relieved when having a bowel movement. The client states that the physician told him he has irritable bowel syndrome. What does the nurse recognize as characteristic of this disorder? a. Weight loss due to malabsorption b. Blood and mucus in the stool c. Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea d. Client is awakened from sleep due to abdominal pain.

A client is admitted to the health care facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects the client's stools to have which description? a. Coffee-ground-like b. Clay-colored c. Black and tarry d. Bright red

A client with quadriplegia is in spinal shock. What finding should the nurse expect? a. Positive Babinski's reflex along with spastic extremities b. Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities c. Hyperreflexia along with spastic extremities d. Spasticity of all four extremities

c (RBC and C4 decrease, as disease progresses)

The nurse is reviewing the diagnostic test findings of a client with rheumatoid arthritis. What would the nurse expect to find? a. Increased red blood cell count b. Increased C4 complement c. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Increased albumin levels

The nurse is teaching a client with an ostomy how to change the pouching system. Which information should the nurse include when teaching a client with no peristomal skin irritation? a. Dry skin thoroughly after washing b. Apply barrier powder c. Apply triamcinolone acetonide spray d. Dust with nystatin powder

Which of the following is the most frequent route of exposure to a latex allergy? a. Cutaneous b. Inhalation c. Mucosal d. Parenteral

Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer? a. Chemotherapy b. Removal of the tumor c. Radiation d. Palliation

copaxone

reduces the rate of relapse in the RR course of MS. It decreases the number of plaques noted on MRI and increases the time between relapse and remission -administered subcutaneously daily. It acts by increasing the antigen-specific suppressor T cells.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with reports right lower quadrant pain. Blood specimens are drawn and sent to the laboratory. Which laboratory finding should be reported to the health care provider immediately? a. Hematocrit 42% b. White blood cell (WBC) count 22.8/mm3 c. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L d. Serum sodium 135 mEq/L

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. When assessing the abdomen, the nurse would expect to find rebound tenderness at which location? a. Right upper quadrant b. Right lower quadrant c. Left upper quadrant d. Left lower quadrant

A client is admitted with weakness, expressive aphasia, and right hemianopia. The brain MRI reveals an infarct. The nurse understands these symptoms to be suggestive of which of the following findings? a. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. Left-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA) c. Right-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA) d. Completed Stroke

A client is being evaluated for esophageal cancer. What initialmanifestation of esophageal cancer should the nurse assess? a. Increasing difficulty in swallowing b. Sensation of a mass in throat c. Foul breath d. Hiccups

c, d, e

A client is diagnosed with a tumor of the temporal lobe. When developing the client's plan of care the nurse would plan interventions to address problems with which areas of functioning? Select all that apply. a. Reading b. Writing c. Understanding language d. Emotions e. Memory

A client with an esophageal stricture is about to undergo esophageal dilatation. As the bougies are passed down the esophagus, the nurse should instruct the client to do which action to minimize the vomiting urge? a. Hold his breath b. Take long, slow breaths c. Bear down as if having a bowel movement d. Pant like a dog

A physician orders corticosteroids for a child with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse knows that the purpose of corticosteroid therapy for this child is to: a. combat inflammation. b. prevent infection. c. prevent platelet aggregation. d. promote diuresis.

A provider prescribes a disease-modifying drug for a patient with relapsing-remitting MS. The nurse advises the patient that the drug has to be taken subcutaneously on a daily basis, and it may take 6 months for evidence of any response. Which of the following is the medication most likely prescribed in this scenario? a. Avonex b. Betaseron c. Copaxone d. Novantrone

A resident at a long-term care facility lost the ability to swallow following a stroke 4 years ago. The client receives nutrition via a PEG tube, has adapted well to the tube feedings, and remains physically and socially active. Occasionally, the client develops constipation that requires administration of a laxative to restore regular bowel function. What is the most likely cause of this client's constipation? a. lack of solid food b. lack of exercise c. lack of free water intake d. increased fiber

The geriatric advanced practice nurse (APN) is doing client teaching with a client who has had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and the client's family. One concern the APN addresses is a potential for falls related to the CVA and resulting muscle weakness. What would be most important for the APN to include in teaching related to this concern? a. Leg exercises to strengthen muscle weakness. b. Need for support group due to decreased self image related to restricted mobility. c. Remove throw rugs and electrical cords from home environment. d. Use of tripod cane.

The most common cause of cholinergic crisis includes which of the following? a. Overmedication b. Infection c. Undermedication d. Compliance with medication

The nurse cares for a client with Huntington disease. What intervention is a priority for safe care? a. Protecting the client from falls b. Measuring electrolytes c. Assessing serum cholesterol d. Range-of-motion exercises

The nurse caring for an older adult client diagnosed with diarrhea is administering and monitoring the client's medications. Because one of the client's medications is digitalis (digoxin), the nurse monitors the client closely for: a. hyperkalemia. b. hypokalemia. c. hyponatremia. d. hypernatremia.

The nurse explains to the client with projectile vomiting and severe headache that a medication is being prescribed to reduced edema surrounding the brain and lessen these symptoms. What medication is the nurse preparing to administer? a. Mannitol b. Temozolomide c. Bevacizumab d. Everolimus

d (a second-generation antihistamine considered "nonsedating")

The nurse is obtaining a medication history from a patient with allergic rhinitis. The patient states, "I've been on numerous medications over the years and nothing seems to work. Plus I get so tired and sleepy from them." The nurse documents the medications used in the patient's medical record: Diphenhydramine 50 mg orally twice a dayHydroxyzine 25 mg orally three times a dayChlorpheniramine 4 mg orally every 6 hoursFexofenadine 60 mg orally twice a dayWhen reviewing the list, which medication would the nurse identify as causing the least sedation? a. Diphenhydramine b. Hydroxyzine c. Chlorpheniramine d. Fexofenadine

The nurse is participating in a health fair for stroke prevention. Which will the nurse say is a modifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke? a. Thyroid disease b. Social drinking c. Advanced age d. Smoking

A client has had a "stuffy nose" and obtained an oxymetazoline nasal spray. What education should the nurse provide to the client in order to prevent "rebound congestion"? a. Be sure to use the nasal spray for at least 10 days to ensure the stuffiness is gone. b. Use the medication every 4 hours to prevent congestion from recurring. c. Drink plenty of fluids. d. Only use the nasal spray for 3 to 4 days once every 12 hours.

a (patient normally lies in supine wiht pillow under head and with slight knee elevation to decrease back muscle pressure)

A client has just returned from surgery after undergoing a lumbar laminectomy. Which of the following would be most important to do when positioning the client in bed? a. Using a logrolling motion to change positions b. Keeping the knees flat with the head on a pillow c. Maintaining full knee flexion when lying on the side d. Allowing the client to sit up at the edge of the bed

A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. What should the nursing priority be? a. Providing comprehensive client teaching; including symptoms of the disorder, treatment options, and expected outcomes b. Administering ordered analgesics and monitoring their effects c. Performing meticulous skin care d. Supplying adaptive devices, such as a zipper-pull, easy-to-open beverage cartons, lightweight cups, and unpackaged silverware

A client is hospitalized when presenting to the emergency department with right-sided weakness. Within 6 hours of being admitted, the neurologic deficits had resolved and the client was back to his presymptomatic state. The nurse caring for the client knows that the probable cause of the neurologic deficit was what? a. Left-sided stroke b. Right-sided stroke c. Cerebral aneurysm d. Transient ischemic attack

A client is in the hospital for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The client reports vomiting and a sudden severe pain in the abdomen. The nurse then assesses a board-like abdomen. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate? a. Ineffective treatment for the peptic ulcer b. A reaction to the medication given for the ulcer c. Gastric penetration d. Perforation of the peptic ulcer

b (looking for proper circulation)

A client is postoperative following a graft reconstruction of the neck. What intervention is the most important for the nurse to complete with the client? a. Reinforce the neck dressing when blood is present on the dressing. b. Assess the graft for color and temperature. c. Administer prescribed intravenous vancomycin at the correct time. d. Cleanse around the drain using aseptic technique.

A client is preparing for discharge to home following a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy. Which is the best rationale for the client being taught to lie down for 30 minutes after each meal? a. Slows gastric emptying b. Provides much needed rest c. Allows for better absorption of vitamin B12 d. Removes tension on internal suture line

b (can increase ICP)

A client is receiving hypothermic treatment for uncontrolled fever related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? a. Capillary refill of 2 seconds b. Shivering c. Cool, dry skin d. Urine output of 100 mL/hr

A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Toward what goal should the nurse progress the client's enteral intake? a. Three meals and 120 ml fluid daily b. Three meals and three snacks and 120 mL fluid daily c. Six small meals and 120 mL fluid daily d. Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals

A client is sitting in a chair and begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. The most appropriate nursing response is to: a. hold the client's arm still to keep him from hitting anything. b. carefully move the client to a flat surface and turn him on his side. c. allow the client to remain in the chair but move all objects out of his way. d. place an oral airway in the client's mouth to maintain an open airway.

A client is taking ibuprofen for the treatment of osteoarthritis. What education will the nurse give the client about the medication? a. Take the medication on an empty stomach in order to increase effectiveness. b. Since the medication is able to be obtained over the counter, it has few side effects. c. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset. d. Inform the health care provider if there is ringing in the ears.

A client reports severe pain and bleeding while having a bowel movement. Upon inspection, the health care provider notes a linear tear in the anal canal tissue. The client is diagnosed with a: a. fistula. b. hemorrhoid. c. fissure. d. pilonidal cyst.

A client tells the nurse, "I am not having normal bowel movements." When differentiating between what are normal and abnormal bowel habits, what indicators are the most important? a. The consistency of stool and comfort when passing stool b. That the client has a bowel movement daily c. That the stool is formed and soft d. The client is able to fully evacuate with each bowel movement

A client the nurse is caring for experiences a seizure. What would be a priority nursing action? a. Restrain the client during the seizure. b. Insert a tongue blade between the teeth. c. Protect the client from injury. d. Suction the mouth during the convulsion.

A client undergoes cerebral angiography for evaluation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which findings indicate spasm or occlusion of a cerebral vessel by a clot? a. Nausea, vomiting, and profuse sweating b. Hemiplegia, seizures, and decreased level of consciousness c. Difficulty breathing or swallowing d. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension

A client underwent a continent ileostomy. Within which time frame should the client expect to empty the reservoir? a. At least once a day b. At least once every 2 days c. Three or four times daily d. Every 4 to 6 hours

A client visits the employee health department because of mild itching and a rash on both hands. What will the employee health nurse focus on during the assessment interview? a. medication allergies b. life stressors the nurse may be experiencing c. chemical and latex glove use d. laundry detergent or bath soap changes

A client who has undergone colostomy surgery is experiencing constipation. Which intervention should a nurse consider for such a client? a. Suggest fluid intake of at least 2 L/day b. Instruct the client to avoid prune or apple juice c. Assist the client regarding the correct diet or to minimize food intake d. Instruct the client to keep a record of food intake

A client who is disoriented and restless after sustaining a concussion during a car accident is admitted to the hospital. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority in this client's care plan? a. Disturbed sensory perception (visual) b. Dressing or grooming self-care deficit c. Impaired verbal communication d. Risk for injury

A client who recently experienced a stroke tells the nurse that he has double vision. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? a. Encourage the client to close his eyes. b. Alternatively patch one eye every 2 hours. c. Turn out the lights in the room. d. Instill artificial tears.

A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, what should the nurse assign highest priority to? a. Helping the client cope with body image changes b. Ensuring adequate nutrition c. Maintaining a patent airway d. Preventing injury

b (can reopen wound)

A client whose physical findings suggest a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, which necessitates a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, the nurse reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions given to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize? a. "You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery." b. "You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose." c. "You must restrict your fluid intake." d. "You must report ringing in your ears immediately."

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond? a. "The paralysis caused by this disease is temporary." b. "You'll be permanently paralyzed; however, you won't have any sensory loss." c. "It must be hard to accept the permanency of your paralysis." d. "You'll first regain use of your legs and then your arms."

c (can also use hydrogen peroxide)

A client with a disorder of the oral cavity cannot tolerate tooth brushing or flossing. Which strategy should the nurse use to assist the client? a. Urge the client to regularly rinse the mouth with tap water. b. Recommend that the client drink a small glass of alcohol at the end of the day to kill germs. c. Provide the client with an irrigating solution of baking soda and warm water. d. Regularly wipe the outside of the client's mouth to prevent germs from entering.

a (looking for esophageal perforation)

A client with achalasia recently underwent pneumatic dilation. The nurse intervenes after the procedure by a. Assessing lung sounds b. Providing fluids to drink c. Preparing for a barium swallow d. Administering the prescribed analgesic

b (a form of immunotherapy in which a person receives weekly or twice-weekly injections of dilute but increasingly higher concentrations of an allergen without interruption. SLIT is a form of desensitization therapy)

A client with an allergic disorder calls the nurse and asks what treatment is available for allergic disorders. The nurse explains to the client that there is more than one treatment available. What treatments would the nurse tell the client about? a. Sublingual-swallow immunotherapy (SLIT) b. Desensitization c. Sublingual-topical immunotherapy (STIT) d. Resensitization

A client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge? a. The client doesn't exhibit rectal tenesmus. b. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia. c. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation. d. The client has normal gastric structures.

A client with gastric cancer is having a resection. What is the nursing management priority for this client? a. Discharge planning b. Correcting nutritional deficits c. Preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) d. Teaching about radiation treatment

A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. Why would the physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder? a. To decrease the body's risk of infection b. Because an autoimmune disease is a neoplastic disease c. So the client has strong drug therapy d. For their immunosuppressant effects

A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports joint pain. What intervention is a priority to assist the client? a. Opioid therapy b. Ice packs c. Surgery d. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A client with spinal cord compression from a tumor must undergo diagnostic testing. Which of the following is the most likely procedure for this client? a. Core needle biopsy b. Ultrasonography c. Computed tomography d. Magnetic resonance imaging

A client with weakness and tingling in both legs is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. On admission, which assessment is most important for this client? a. Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume b. Evaluation for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) c. Evaluation of pain and discomfort d. Evaluation of nutritional status and metabolic state

A client's spouse relates how the client reported a severe headache, and shortly after was unable to talk or move their right arm and leg. The spouse indicates the client has hypertension. What should be the focus of management during this phase? a. preventing further neurologic damage b. reporting changes to the physician c. destabilizing client's condition d. assessing vital signs frequently

A health care provider suspects that a client has peptic ulcer disease. With which diagnostic procedure would the nurse most likely prepare to assist? a. Barium study of the upper gastrointestinal tract b. Endoscopy c. Gastric secretion study d. Stool antigen test

A neurologic deficit is best defined as a deficit of the: a. central and peripheral nervous systems with decreased, impaired, or absent functioning. b. central nervous system that affects one body system. c. central nervous system with absent functioning. d. peripheral nervous system with decreased or impaired functioning.

A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him." Which statement is the best response by the nurse? a. "Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time." b. "You sound stressed; maybe using some stress management techniques will help." c. "You seem upset, and it may be hard for you to focus on the teaching, I'll come back later." d. "This behavior is common in clients with stroke. Which does your spouse do more often? Laugh or cry?"

A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client with atopic dermatitis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Wear only synthetic fabrics. b. Use a topical skin moisturizer daily. c. Bathe only three times per week. d. Keep the thermostat above 75° F (23.9° C).

A nurse is providing follow-up teaching at a clinic visit for a client recovering from gastric resection. The client reports sweating, diarrhea, nausea, palpitations, and the desire to lie down 15 to 30 minutes after meals. Based on the client's assessment, what will the nurse suspect? a. Dumping syndrome b. Dehiscence of the surgical wound c. Peritonitis d. A normal reaction to surgery

A nurse is reviewing a CT scan of the brain, which states that the client has arterial bleeding with blood accumulation above the dura. Which of the following facts of the disease progression is essential to guide the nursing management of client care? a. Symptoms will evolve over a period of 1 week. b. Monitoring is needed as rapid neurologic deterioration may occur. c. The crash cart with defibrillator is kept nearby. d. Bleeding continues into the intracerebral area.

A nurse is teaching a client with gastritis about the need to avoid the intake of caffeinated beverages. The client asks why this is so important. Which explanation from the nurse would be most accurate? a. "Caffeine stimulates the central nervous system and thus gastric activity and secretions, which need to be minimized to promote recovery." b. "Caffeine increases the fluid volume in your system, which irritates your digestive organs." c. "Caffeine intake can cause tears in your esophagus and intestines, which can lead to hemorrhage." d. "Caffeine can interfere with absorption of vitamin B12, which leads to anemia and further digestive problems."

A nurse is teaching a community class that those experiencing symptoms of ischemic stroke need to enter the medical system early. The primary reason for this is which of the following? a. A ruptured intracranial aneurysm must quickly be repaired. b. Intracranial pressure is increased by a space-occupying bleed. c. Thrombolytic therapy has a time window of only 3 hours. d. A ruptured arteriovenous malformation will cause deficits until it is stopped.

A nurse is working on a neurological unit with a nursing student who asks the difference between primary and secondary headaches. The nurse's correct response will include which of the following statements? a. "A secondary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified." b. "A secondary headache is located in the frontal area." c. "A secondary headache is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." d. "A migraine headache is an example of a secondary headache."

d (Elevated blood pressure (systolic >185; diastolic >110 mm Hg) is a contraindication to tPA)

A nurse knows that, for a patient with an ischemic stroke, tPA is contraindicated if the blood pressure reading is: a. 170 mm Hg/105 mm Hg b. 175 mm Hg/100 mm Hg c. 185 mm Hg/110 mm Hg d. 190 mm Hg/120 mm Hg

b (not known cause)

A nurse practitioner is presenting health information about strokes at a clinic. She mentions that there are five categories of strokes based on their origin. Which of the following is the category that has the highest incidence of strokes (30%)? a. Cardiogenic embolic b. Cryptogenic c. Large artery thrombotic d. Small artery thrombotic

A nurse practitioner prescribes drug therapy for a patient with peptic ulcer disease. Choose the drug that can be used for 4 weeks and has a 90% chance of healing the ulcer. a. Nizatidine b. Cimetidine c. Famotidine d. Omeprazole

A nurse should advise a client with gout to avoid which foods? a. Bread and cereal b. Fruits and juices c. Organ meats and scallops d. Nuts and peanut butter

A nurse working on a medical-surgical floor walks into a patient's room to find the patient with an altered level of consciousness (LOC). Which of the following actions would be the first priority? a. Positioning to prevent complications b. Maintenance of a patent airway c. Assessment of pupillary light reflexes d. Determination of the cause

a, b, e

A nursing student is caring for a client with gastritis. Which of the following would the student recognize as a common cause of gastritis? Choose all that apply. a. Irritating foods b. Overuse of aspirin c. DASH diet d. Participation in highly competitive sports e. Ingestion of strong acids

A patient asks the nurse if it would be all right to take an over-the-counter antihistamine for the treatment of a rash. What should the nurse educate the patient is a major side effect of antihistamines? a. Diarrhea b. Anorexia c. Palpitations d. Sedation

A patient has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. The nurse explains the diagnosis to the patient and his family by telling them that a hernia is a (an): a. Extension of the esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm. b. Involution of the esophagus, which causes a severe stricture. c. Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. d. Twisting of the duodenum through an opening in the diaphragm.

A patient is brought to the emergency department with a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke, usually performed in the emergency department, would the nurse prepare the patient for? a. 12-lead electrocardiogram b. Carotid ultrasound study c. Noncontrast computed tomogram d. Transcranial Doppler flow study

A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed? a. A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. b. A sectioned portion of the stomach is joined to the jejunum. c. The antral portion of the stomach is removed and a vagotomy is performed. d. The vagus nerve is cut and gastric drainage is established.

A patient presents to the emergency room with complaints of having an "exploding headache" for the last 2 hours. The patient is immediately seen by a triage nurse who suspects the patient is experiencing a stroke. Which of the following is a possible cause based on the characteristic symptom? a. Large artery thrombosis b. Cerebral aneurysm c. Cardiogenic emboli d. Small artery thrombosis

A patient visited a nurse practitioner because he had diarrhea for 2 weeks. He described his stool as large and greasy. The nurse knows that this description is consistent with a diagnosis of: a. A small bowel disorder. b. Intestinal malabsorption. c. Inflammatory colitis. d. A disorder of the large bowel.

A patient was admitted to a rehabilitation unit for treatment of a spinal cord injury. The admitting diagnosis is central cord syndrome. During an admissions physical, the nurse expects to find: a. loss of the sensation of pain and temperature on the side opposite the injury. b. loss of motor power and sensation in the upper extremities. c. preservation of a sense of touch below the level of the lesion. d. loss of motor power, pain, and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.

A patient was seen in the clinic 3 days previously for allergic rhinitis and was given a prescription for a corticosteroid nasal spray. The patient calls the clinic and tells the nurse that the nasal spray is not working. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "You need to come back to the clinic to get a different medication since this one is not working for you." b. "You may be immune to the effects of this medication and will need something else in its place." c. "The full benefit of the medication may take up to 2 weeks to be achieved." d. "I am sorry that you are feeling poorly but this is the only medication that will work for your problem."

A patient with Bell's palsy says to the nurse, "It doesn't hurt anymore to touch my face. How am I going to get muscle tone back so I don't look like this anymore?" What interventions can the nurse suggest to the patient? a. Suggest applying cool compresses on the face several times a day to tighten the muscles. b. Suggest massaging the face several times daily, using a gentle upward motion, to maintain muscle tone. c. Inform the patient that the muscle function will return as soon as the virus dissipates. d. Tell the patient to smile every 4 hours.

A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse what can be done to prevent problems with bowel elimination. What would be an intervention that would assist this patient with a regular stool pattern? a. Take psyllium (Metamucil) daily. b. Take a laxative whenever bloating is experienced. c. Adopt a diet with moderate fiber intake. d. Adopt a high-fiber diet.

A patient with a history of allergies comes to the clinic for an evaluation. The following laboratory test findings are recorded in a patient's medical record: Total serum IgE levels: 2.8 mg/mLWhite blood cell count: 5,100/cu mmEosinophil count: 4%Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 20 mm/hThe nurse identifies which result as suggesting an allergic reaction? a. Serum IgE level b. White blood cell count c. Eosinophil count d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

The nurse educator is teaching nursing students about various types of brain tumors. The instructor recognizes that teaching has been effective when students correctly identify a client whose lab work indicates excessively high levels of thyroid stimulating hormone would most likely be diagnosed with which type of tumor? a. Angioma b. Neuroma c. Pituitary adenoma d. Glioblastoma

The nurse has been educating a client newly diagnosed with MS. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the education? a. "I will take hot tub baths to decrease spasms." b. "I should participate in non-weight-bearing exercises." c. "I will stretch daily as directed by the physical therapist." d. "The exercises should be completed quickly to reduce fatigue."

The nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the emergency department due to a severe headache with sudden onset, lowered level of consciousness and slurred, non-sensical speech. The client completed chemotherapy and radiation treatment for a glioma-type brain tumor 6 months ago. The client has been taking low molecular weight heparin since completing treatment. The nurse should be prepared to provide care for which possible problem? a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Pulmonary embolism c. Spinal metastasis d. Intracerebral hemorrhage

The nurse is assessing a newly admitted client with a diagnosis of meningitis. On assessment, the nurse expects to find which of the following? a. Positive Kernig's sign b. Negative Brudzinski's sign c. Positive Romberg sign d. Hyper-alertness

b (nutritional support is needed, but if CSF rhinorrhea is occuring give it orally NOT through nose)

The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury. The client is experiencing CSF rhinorrhea. Which order should the nurse question? a. urine testing for acetone b. insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube c. Serum sodium concentration testing d. Out of bed to the chair three times a day

a (used for acute attacks!)

The nurse is caring for a client with a new onset of gout. What medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider? a. colchicine b. probenecid c. anturane d. allopurinol

The nurse is caring for a client with aphasia. Which strategy will the nurse use to facilitate communication with the client? a. Speaking loudly b. Establishing eye contact c. Avoiding the use of hand gestures d. Speaking in complete sentences

The nurse is completing a health history with a client in a clinic. What assessment finding best correlates with a diagnosis of osteoarthritis? a. erythema and edema over the affected joint b. joint stiffness that decreases with activity c. anorexia and weight loss d. fever and malaise

The nurse is conducting a gastrointestinal assessment. When the client reports the presence of mucus and pus in the stool, the nurse assesses for additional signs/symptoms of which disease/condition? a. Small-bowel disease b. Ulcerative colitis c. Disorders of the colon d. Intestinal malabsorption

The nurse is discussing the new medication that a client will be taking for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Which disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) will the nurse educate the client about? a. Etanercept (Enbrel) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) d. Infliximab (Remicade)

b (AE of increased risk of CVA events)

The nurse is educating a client about the risks of stroke related to the new prescription for a COX-2 inhibitor and what symptoms to report. Which COX-2 inhibitor is the nurse educating the client about? a. Ibuprofen b. Celecoxib c. Piroxicam d. Tolmetin sodium

The nurse is educating a patient with a seizure disorder. What nutritional approach for seizure management would be beneficial for this patient? a. Low in fat b. Restricts protein to 10% of daily caloric intake c. High in protein and low in carbohydrate d. At least 50% carbohydrate

The nurse is evaluating a client's complete blood cell count and differential along with the serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) concentration. Which result might indicate that the client has an allergic disorder? a. High IgE concentration b. High neutrophil count c. Low eosinophil count d. Low white blood cell count

The nurse is irrigating a colostomy when the patient says, "You will have to stop, I am cramping so badly." What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Inform the patient that it will only last a minute and continue with the procedure. b. Clamp the tubing and give the patient a rest period. c. Stop the irrigation and remove the tube. d. Replace the fluid with cooler water since it is probably too warm.

dysphonia

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient in the clinic with Parkinson's disease. The nurse determines that the patient's voice has changed since the last visit and is now more difficult to understand. How should the nurse document this finding?

The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client who is admitted to rule out myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to observe? a. Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities b. Difficulty with urination c. Ptosis and diplopia d. Facial distortion and pain

The nurse is performing an initial nursing assessment on a client with possible Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis? a. Fever and cough b. Hyporeflexia and skin rash c. Ptosis and muscle weakness of upper extremities d. Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities

The nurse is preparing to assess the donor site of a client who underwent a myocutaneous flap after a radical neck dissection. The nurse prepares to assess the most commonly used muscle for this surgery. Which muscle should the nurse assess? a. Trapezius b. Biceps c. Pectoralis major d. Sternomastoid

The nurse is providing information about spinal cord injury (SCI) prevention to a community group of young adults. The nurse mentions that all of the following are predominant risk factors for SCI except? a. Being an athlete b. Male gender c. Young age d. Alcohol/drug use

The nurse is reviewing various medications with a client that can be used to treat allergic disorders. What medication will the nurse identify as an intranasal corticosteroid? a. cromolyn sodium b. fluticasone c. zileuton d. fexofenadine

The nurse is seeing a client who is suspected of having a glioblastoma multiforme tumor. The nurse anticipates the client will require which diagnostic test to confirm the client has this form of brain tumor? a. Tissue biopsy b. Weber and Rinne test c. Audible bruit over the skull d. An increase in prolactin

The nurse is taking care of a client with a headache. In addition to administering medications, the nurse takes which measure to assist the client in reducing the pain associated with the headache? a. Maintain hydration by drinking eight glasses of fluid a day. b. Apply warm or cool cloths to the forehead or back of the neck. c. Perform the Heimlich maneuver. d. Use pressure-relieving pads or a similar type of mattress.

b (or epicutaneous)

The nurse working in an allergy clinic is preparing to administer skin testing to a client. Which route is the safest for the nurse to use to administer the solution? a. Intramuscular b. Intradermal c. Subcutaneous d. Intravenous

The school nurse notes a 6-year-old running across the playground with his friends. The child stops in midstride, freezing for a few seconds. Then the child resumes his progress across the playground. The school nurse suspects what in this child? a. An absence seizure b. A myoclonic seizure c. A partial seizure d. A tonic-clonic seizure

b (can also cause stomach pain and vomiting)

The side effect of bone marrow depression may occur with which medication used to treat gout? a. Colchicine b. Allopurinol c. Probenecid d. Prednisone

When assessing a client during a routine checkup, the nurse reviews the history and notes that the client had aphthous stomatitis at the time of the last visit. How is aphthous stomatitis best described by the nurse? a. A canker sore of the oral soft tissues b. An acute stomach infection c. Acid indigestion d. An early sign of peptic ulcer disease

When caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of a peptic ulcer, the nurse finds the client doubled up in bed with severe pain in the right shoulder. What is the initial appropriate action by the nurse? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Irrigate the client's NG tube. c. Place the client in the high-Fowler's position. d. Assess the client's abdomen and vital signs.

When caring for a client with the impaired swallowing related to neuromuscular impairment, what is the nurse's priority intervention? a. Place the client in a supine position. b. Elevate the head of the bed 90 degrees during meals. c. Encourage the client to remove dentures. d. Encourage thin liquids for dietary intake.

Which are characteristics of autonomic dysreflexia? a. severe hypertension, slow heart rate, pounding headache, sweating b. severe hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, flushed skin c. severe hypertension, tachycardia, blurred vision, dry skin d. severe hypotension, slow heart rate, anxiety, dry skin

a, e

Which are contraindications for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)? Select all that apply. a. Intracranial hemorrhage b. Ischemic stroke c. Age 18 years or older d. Systolic BP less than or equal to 185 mm Hg e. Major abdominal surgery within 10 days

Which assessment suggests to the nurse that a client with systemic lupus erythematous is having renal involvement? a. Chest pain b. Decreased cognitive ability c. Behavioral changes d. Hypertension

Which characteristic is a risk factor for colorectal cancer? a. Age younger than 40 years b. Low-fat, low-protein, high-fiber diet c. History of skin cancer d. Familial polyposis

Which client should the nurse assess for degenerative neurologic symptoms? a. The client with Huntington disease. b. The client with Paget disease. c. The client with osteomyelitis. d. The client with glioma.

Which clinical manifestation is not associated with hemorrhage? a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia c. Tachypnea d. Hypotension

Which clinical manifestation would be exhibited by a client following a hemorrhagic stroke of the right hemisphere? a. Inability to move the right arm b. Neglect of the left side c. Neglect of the right side d. Expressive aphasia

Which condition is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease c. Parkinson disease d. Huntington disease

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

Which disease includes loss of motor neurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord and motor nuclei of the lower brain stem?

a, c, d

Which interventions would be recommended for a client with dysphagia? Select all that apply. a. Assist the client with meals. b. Place food on the affected side of the mouth. c. Test the gag reflex before offering food or fluids. d. Allow ample time to eat.

multiple sclerosis

Which is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord?

b (fatal, no treatment)

Which is a component of the nursing management of the client with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)? a. Initiating isolation procedures b. Providing supportive care c. Preparing for organ donation d. Administering amphotericin B

Which is a true statement regarding regional enteritis (Crohn's disease)? a. It has a progressive disease pattern. b. It is characterized by pain in the lower left abdominal quadrant. c. The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance. d. The lesions are in continuous contact with one another

Which is an appropriate nursing intervention in the care of the client with osteoarthritis? a. Provide an analgesic after exercise b. Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity c. Assess for gastrointestinal complications associated with COX-2 inhibitors d. Avoid the use of topical analgesics

a (the big toe)

Which joint is most commonly affected in gout? a. Metatarsophalangeal b. Tarsal area c. Ankle d. Knee

Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor? a. Omeprazole b. Sucralfate c. Famotidine d. Metronidazole

Which of the following assessment findings would be most important for indicating dumping syndrome in a postgastrectomy client? a. Abdominal distention, elevated temperature, weakness before eating b. Constipation, rectal bleeding following bowel movements c. Persistent loose stools, chills, hiccups after eating d. Weakness, diaphoresis, diarrhea 90 minutes after eating

Which of the following diagnostic studies provides visualization of cerebral blood vessels? a. Cerebral angiography b. Positron emission tomography (PET) c. Cytologic studies of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) d. Computer-assisted stereotactic biopsy

Which of the following disorders is characterized by an increased autoantibody production? a. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) b. Scleroderma c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) d. Polymyalgia rheumatic

Which of the following is the chief cause of intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)? a. Diabetes b. Hypercholesterolemia c.Uncontrolled hypertension d. Migraine headaches

Which of the following is the most common side effect of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)? a. Bleeding b. Headache c. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) d. Hypertension

Which of the following is the most common symptom of a polyp? a. Abdominal pain b. Rectal bleeding c. Diarrhea d. Anorexia

Which of the following procedures involves a surgical fusion of the joint? a. Arthrodesis b. Synovectomy c. Tenorrhaphy d. Osteotomy

Which of the following refers to a bacterial or viral infection of the salivary glands? a. Sialadenitis b. Parotitis c. Mumps d. Stomatitis

Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess in a client with peritonitis? a. Deep slow respirations b. Decreased pulse rate c. Hyperactive bowel sounds d. Board-like abdomen

Which phase of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a.Premonitory b. Aura c. Headache d. Postdrome

Which term indicates an accumulation of crystalline depositions in articular surfaces, bones, soft tissue, and cartilage? a. Subchondral bone b. Pannus c. Joint effusion d. Tophi

While providing information to a community group, the nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are: a.Weakness on one side of the body and difficulty with speech b. Severe headache and early change in level of consciousness c. Foot drop and external hip rotation d. Confusion or change in mental status

d (change in LOC biggest concern here)

A client is brought to the emergency department in a confused state, with slurred speech, characteristics of a headache, and right facial droop. The vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 170/88 mm Hg, pulse of 92 beats/minute, and respirations at 24 breaths/minute. On which bodily system does the nurse focus the nursing assessment? a. Cardiovascular system b. Respiratory system c. Endocrine system d. Neurovascular system

A client presents to the emergency department stating numbness and tingling occurring down the left leg into the left foot. When documenting the experience, which medical terminology would the nurse be most correct to report? a. Sciatic nerve pain b. Herniation c. Paresthesia d. Paralysis

A client with osteoarthritis expresses concerns that the disease will prevent the ability to complete daily chores. Which suggestion should the nurse offer? a. "Do all your chores in the morning, when pain and stiffness are least pronounced." b. "Do all your chores after performing morning exercises to loosen up." c. "Pace yourself and rest frequently, especially after activities." d. "Do all your chores in the evening, when pain and stiffness are least pronounced.

c (no specific tx for post polio syndrome, but IV immunoglobulin shown to help with weakness and pain)

A client with post-polio syndrome displays fatigue and decreased muscle strength. How should the nurse best respond to the client? a. "This will pass, you need to relax." b. "Once you sleep, you should be fine." c. "Intravenous immunoglobulin infusion may help you." d. "These symptoms are not related to your past diagnosis."

A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention: a. a sedentary lifestyle and smoking. b. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking. c. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure. d. alcohol abuse and smoking.

a, b, d

A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. "You may have ingested some irritating foods." b. "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." c. "It is a hereditary disease." d. "It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." e. "It is probably your nerves."

A patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis at a community living home. When should prophylactic therapy begin for those who have had close contact with the patient? a. Within 24 hours after exposure b. Within 48 hours after exposure c. Within 72 hours after exposure d. Therapy is not necessary prophylactically and should only be used if the person develops symptoms.

A patient is admitted to the emergency room with a fractured skull sustained in a motorcycle accident. The nurse notes fluid leaking from the patient's ears. The nurse knows this is a probable sign of which type of skull fracture? a. Simple b. Comminuted c. Depressed d. Basilar

parkinsons

A patient is admitted to the hospital for management of an extrapyramidal disorder. Included in the physician's admitting orders are the medications levodopa, benztropine, and selegiline. The nurse knows that most likely, the client has a diagnosis of:

The nurse determines that teaching for the client with peptic ulcer disease has been effective when the client makes which statement? a. "I should stop all my medications if I develop any side effects." b. "I should continue my treatment regimen as long as I have pain." c. "I have learned some relaxation strategies that decrease my stress." d. "I can buy whatever antacids are on sale because they all have the same effect."

a, b, c

The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative from surgery for a brain tumor resection. The client has a visitor at the bedside who lowers the head of the bed below 30 degrees. The nurse assesses the client has decreased level of consciousness. What actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. a. Check the client's blood pressure b. Assess the client for headache c. Assess for presence of visual changes d. Check for leaks on the surgical site dressing e. Review chart to check for high white blood cell count

d (might be due to cranial nerve dysfunction)

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) and moderate carotid stenosis who has undergone a carotid endarterectomy. Which postoperative finding would cause the nurse the most concern? a. Neck pain rated 3 of 10 (on a 0 to 10 pain scale) b. Blood pressure 128/86 mm Hg c. Mild neck edema d. Difficulty swallowing

The nurse is seeing the mother of a client who states, "I'm so relieved because my son's doctor told me his brain tumor is benign." The nurse knows what is true about benign brain tumors? a. They do not require surgical removal. b. The prognosis is very poor. c. They can affect vital functioning d. They are all metastatic.

The nurse is teaching a client about histamine release during an anaphylactic reaction. What does histamine release in anaphylaxis cause? a. nasal congestion b. feeling of impending doom c. urinary urgency d. stomach cramps

To meet the sensory needs of a client with viral meningitis, the nurse should: a. minimize exposure to bright lights and noise. b. promote an active range of motion. c. increase environmental stimuli. d. avoid physical contact between the client and family members.

What education should the nurse provide to the patient taking long-term corticosteroids? a. The patient should not stop taking the medication abruptly and should be weaned off of the medication. b. The patient should take the medication only as needed and not take it unnecessarily. c. Corticosteroids are relatively safe drugs with very few side effects. d. The patient should discontinue using the drug immediately if weight gain is observed.

Which is a true statement regarding gastric cancer? a. Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. b. Women have a higher incidence of gastric cancer. c. The prognosis for gastric cancer is good. d. Most cases are discovered before metastasis.

Which of the following is a hallmark of spinal metastases? a.Pain b.Nausea c.Fatigue d.Change in level of consciousness (LOC)

a (Milk of Magnesia is classified as a saline agent. Mineral oil is a lubricant. Dulcolax is a stimulant)

Which of the following is considered a bulk-forming laxative? a. Metamucil b. Milk of Magnesia c. Mineral oil d. Dulcolax

Which of the following is not a manifestation of Cushing's Triad? a. Bradycardia b. Tachycardia c. Hypertension d. Bradypnea

While caring for a patient who has had radical neck surgery, the nurse notices an abnormal amount of serosanguineous secretions in the wound suction unit during the first postoperative day. What does the nurse know is an expected amount of drainage in the wound unit? a. Between 40 and 80 mL b. Approximately 80 to 120 mL c. Between 120 and 160 mL d. Greater than 160 mL

corticosteroids

_______ such as dexamethasone are used to reduce inflammation and edema around tumors, relieving headaches and altered LOC

methotrexate

a DMARD that reduces the amount of joint damage and slows the damage to other tissues as well

minimally conscious state

a state in which the patient demonstrates awareness but cannot communicate thoughts or feelings

decerebration

an abnormal body posture associated with a severe brain injury, with extreme extension of the upper and lower extremeties

a, c, d, f

Which of the following symptoms are indicative of a rapidly expanding acute subdural hematoma? Select all that apply. a. Hemiparesis b. Tachypnea c. Decreased reactivity of the pupils d. Bradycardia e. Hypotension f. Coma

subdural

Which of the following types of hematoma results from venous bleeding with blood gradually accumulating in the space below the dura?

Which term refers to the failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses? a. Agraphia b. Agnosia c. Apraxia d. Perseveration

d (all accurate, but ABCs most important)

A client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck. The nurse develops the care plan and includes all the following diagnoses. The nurse identifies the highest priority diagnosis as a. Impaired tissue integrity related to surgical intervention b. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to treatment c. Risk for infection related to surgical intervention d. Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus

Homonyous Hemianopia:

Which terms refers to blindness in the right or left half of the visual field in both eyes?

A client has been brought to the ED with altered LOC, high fever, and a purpura rash on the lower extremities. The family states the client was reporting neck stiffness earlier in the day. What action should the nurse do first? a. Initiate isolation precautions. b. Ensure the family receives prophylaxis antibiotic treatment. c. Administer prescribed antibiotics. d. Apply a cooling blanket.

Which ulcer is associated with extensive burn injury? a. Cushing ulcer b. Curling ulcer c. Peptic ulcer d. Duodenal ulcer

c (can injury brain if rapidly decompress cns with lumbar puncture)

After striking his head on a tree while falling from a ladder, a client is admitted to the emergency department. He's unconscious and his pupils are nonreactive. Which intervention should the nurse question? a. Giving him a barbiturate b. Placing him on mechanical ventilation c. Performing a lumbar puncture d. Elevating the head of his bed

When evaluating a client's knowledge about use of antihistamines, what statement indicates further education is required? a. "This medication may be taken with food." b. "Hard candy will relieve my dry mouth." c. "If I am pregnant, I should take half the dose." d. "I should be careful when driving."

Which acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and causes bronchial smooth muscle to contract? a. Bradykinin b. Serotonin c. Prostaglandin d. Platelet-activating factor

an older client complains of a constant headache. A physical examination shows papilledema. What may the symptoms indicate in this client? a. Epilepsy b. Trigeminal neuralgia c. Hypostatic pneumonia d. Brain tumor

parotitis

inflammation of the parotid gland, most common salivary gland inflammation

malignant glioma

most common type of brain tumor

primary brain tumor

originate from cells within the brain (in adults usually from glial cells)

intracranial pressure

pressure exerted by the volume of the intracranial contents within the cranial vault

chorea

rapid, jerky, involuntary purposeless movements of the extremities or facial muscles, including facial grimacing

A patient is diagnosed with an aggressive, primary malignant brain tumor. The nurse is aware that the glioma: a. Originated from the coverings of the brain. b. Developed on the cranial nerves. c. Metastasized from a cancer in another part of the body. d. Originated within the brain tissue.

a, b, e

A patient is diagnosed with an intracerebral tumor. The nurse knows that the diagnosis may include which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Astrocytoma b. Medulloblastoma c. Meningioma d. Acoustic neuroma e. Ependymoma

Which medication is classified as a histamine-2 receptor antagonist? a. Lansoprazole b. Famotidine c. Metronidazole d. Esomeprazole

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome. His spouse asks about recovery rates. The nurse can correctly relate which of the following? . a. Only a very small percentage (5% to 8%) of clients recover completely. b. Usually 100% of clients recover completely. c. Approximately 60% to 75% of clients recover completely d. No one with Guillain-Barre syndrome recovers completely.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse recognizes that which intervention is most important? a. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees b. Monitoring for seizure activity c. Administering a stool softener d. Maintaining a patent airway

c (also includes neurogenic shock and DVT)

The nurse is caring for a client immediately following a spinal cord injury (SCI). Which is an acute complication of SCI? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Tetraplegia c. Spinal shock d. Paraplegia

a, c, e

The nurse plays a critical role in the initial work-up of a patient with acute stroke symptoms. An immediate decision is to determine if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic. Although there is overlap in some motor, sensory, and cognitive changes, hemorrhagic strokes can be identified by some specific signs. Which of the following signs are consistent with a hemorrhagic stroke? Select all that apply. a. Vomiting b. Numbness or weakness of an extremity c. Sudden, severe headache d. Altered level of consciousness e. Seizures f. Loss of balance

b (Although deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism occur in about 15% of patients and cause significant morbidity, anticoagulants are not prescribed due to the risk for CNS hemorrhage)

The nurse reviews the patient's drug regimen for treatment of a brain tumor. She explains to the patient why one of the following drugs would not be prescribed, even though it might have therapeutic benefits. Which drug would not be prescribed for this patient? a. Paclitaxel b. Coumadin c. Decadron d. Dilantin

Which allergic reaction is potentially life threatening? a. urticaria b. angioedema c. contact dermatitis d. None of the listed allergic reactions is potentially life threatening.

Which is the leading cause of disability and pain in the elderly? a. Osteoarthritis (OA) b. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) c. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) d. Scleroderma

A client has been diagnosed as having global aphasia. The nurse recognizes that the client will be unable to perform which action? a. Comprehend spoken words b. Form words that are understandable c. Form words that are understandable or comprehend spoken words d. Speak at all

herpes simplex virus

Which is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States?

A client has been diagnosed with a concussion and is to be released from the emergency department. The nurse teaches the family or friends who will be caring for the client to contact the physician or return to the ED if the client a. reports a headache. b. reports generalized weakness. c. vomits d. sleeps for short periods of time.

A client is prescribed tetracycline to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which instruction would the nurse give the client? a. "Take the medication with milk." b. "Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." c. "Expect a metallic taste when taking this medicine, which is normal." d. "Do not drive when taking this medication

A client has a herniated disk in the region of the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Which nursing assessment finding most supports this diagnosis? a. Hypoactive bowel sounds b. Severe lower back pain c. Sensory deficits in one arm d. Weakness and atrophy of the arm muscles

A 45-year-old client is admitted to the facility with excruciating paroxysmal facial pain. He reports that the episodes occur most often after feeling cold drafts and drinking cold beverages. Based on these findings, the nurse determines that the client is most likely suffering from which neurologic disorder? a. Bell's palsy b. Trigeminal neuralgia c. Migraine headache d. Angina pectoris

A client asks the nurse what the difference is between osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which response is correct? a. "OA is a noninflammatory joint disease. RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints." b. "OA and RA are very similar. OA affects the smaller joints and RA affects the larger, weight-bearing joints." c. "OA affects joints on both sides of the body. RA is usually unilateral." d. "OA is more common in women. RA is more common in men."

A client develops a facial rash and urticaria after receiving penicillin. Which laboratory value does the nurse expect to be elevated? a. IgA b. IgB c. IgE d. IgG

A patient comes to the emergency department with a large scalp laceration after being struck in the head with a glass bottle. After assessment of the patient, what does the nurse do before the physician sutures the wound? a. Administers an oral analgesic for pain b. Administers acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headache c. Shaves the hair around the wound d. Irrigates the wound to remove debris

A patient describes a burning sensation in the esophagus, pain when swallowing, and frequent indigestion. What does the nurse suspect that these clinical manifestations indicate? a. Peptic ulcer disease b. Esophageal cancer c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Diverticulitis

a (at risk for further bleeding, surgery only bad if within 2 weeks)

An emergency department nurse is interviewing a client who is presenting with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 2 hours ago. The client reports a history of a cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago and is taking digoxin, warfarin, and labetalol. What factor poses a threat to the client for thrombolytic therapy? a. International normalized ratio greater than 2 b. Two hour time period of the stroke c. Taking digoxin d. Surgery 6 weeks ago

Diet therapy for clients diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) includes: a. caffeinated products. b. spicy foods. c. high-fiber diet. d. fluids with meals.

Nursing care for the client with fibromyalgia should be guided by the assumption that patients with fibromyalgia a. all have the same type of symptoms. b. rarely respond to treatment. c. will eventually lose their ability to walk. d. may feel as if their symptoms are not taken seriously.

The nurse in the neurologic ICU is caring for a client who sustained a severe brain injury. Which nursing measures will the nurse implement to help control intracranial pressure (ICP)? a. Position the client in the supine position b. Maintain cerebral perfusion pressure from 50 to 70 mm Hg c. Restrain the client, as indicated d. Administer enemas, as needed

The nurse intervenes to assist the client with fibromyalgia to cope with which symptoms? a. Pain, viral infection, and tremors b. Diminished vision, chronic fatigue, and reduced appetite c. Chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness d. Generalized muscle aching, mood swings, and loss of balance

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a stroke. Imaging studies indicate an embolus partially obstructing the right carotid artery. What type of stroke does the nurse know this client has? a. Hemorrhagic b. Right-sided c. Left-sided d. Ischemic

b, c, e

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage resulting from a leaking aneurysm. The client is awaiting surgery. Which nursing interventions would be appropriate for the nurse to implement? Select all that apply. a. Permit friends to visit often. b. Provide a dimly lit environment. c. Elevate the head of bed 30 degrees. d. Ambulate the client every hour. e. Administer docusate per order.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after supratentorial intracranial surgery. The nurse performs the appropriate action by placing the patient in the a. dorsal recumbent position. b. supine position with the head slightly elevated. c. prone position with the head turned to the unaffected side. d. Trendelenburg position.

The nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for fibromyalgia. What intervention will best assist the client to restore normal sleep patterns? a. Increasing activity during the day b. Administering opioids at bed time c. Range-of-motion exercise before sleeping d. Tricyclic antidepressants

The nurse is discussing spinal cord injury (SCI) at a health fair at a local high school. The nurse relays that the most common cause of SCI is a. Falls b. Sports-related injuries c. Motor vehicle crashes d. Acts of violence

The nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has an affinity for H1 receptors. Which medication would the nurse administer? a. Omeprazole b. Cimetidine c. Nizatidine d. Diphenhydramine

The nurse is teaching a client with osteoarthritis about the disease. What is the most important client focus for disease management? a. detection of systemic complications b. strategies for remaining active c. disease-modifying antirheumatic drug therapy d. prevention of joint deformity

The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been prescribed misoprostol. What information from the nurse would be most accurate about misoprostol? a. Works best when taken on an empty stomach b. Increases the speed of gastric emptying c. Prevents ulceration in clients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Decreases mucus production

The nurse knows that a patient who presents with the symptom of "blanching of fingers on exposure to cold" would be assessed for what rheumatic disease? a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Raynaud's phenomenon c. Reiter's syndrome d. Sjögren's syndrome

The nurse knows the best strategy for latex allergy is a. corticosteroids. b. avoidance of latex-based products. c. antihistamines. d. epinephrine from an emergency kit.

The nurse teaches the client with allergies about anaphylaxis, including which statement? a. The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. b. Anaphylactoid (anaphylaxis-like) reactions are commonly fatal. c. The most common food item that causes anaphylaxis is chocolate. d. Systemic reactions include urticaria and angioedema.

d (Medical management would include intubation, subcutaneous epinephrine, and aminophylline in severe reactions)

Which allergic reaction is potentially life threatening? a. urticaria b. contact dermatitis c. None of the listed allergic reactions is potentially life threatening. d. angioedema

Which is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States? a. Western equine bacteria b. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) c. Lyme Disease d. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

astrocytomas

arising from astrocytic cells the most common type of glioma, and are graded from 1 to 1v indicating degree of malignancy

cushings response

the brains attempt to restore blood flow by increasing arterial pressure to overcome the increased intracranial pressure

adult hlth 1 UVM

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